CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
  • Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 150-200 words.
  • Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
  • Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
  • There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
    provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
  • In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How did Akbar Nama help us to construct the history of Akbar’s reign ? (3)
Or
How did Mughal painting in the 17th century initiate a vibrant visual culture to fulfil imperial political and cultural needs?
Answer:
The Akbar Nama helped today’s historians to construct the history of Akbar’s reign. The book gives a detailed description of Akbar’s reign giving a synchronic picture of all aspects of Akbar’s empire geographic, social administrative and cultural without reference to chronology.

The Akbar Nama is an official chronicle of the reign of Akbar the third Mughal monarch who instructed his court historian and biographer Abu’l Fazl to pen it down in a book.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

The chronicle is based on a range of sources, including actual records of events (waqai), official documents and oral testimonies of knowledgeable persons. It depicts paintings of battles, sieges,building constructions court scenes etc. Akbar Nama is divided into three books.

The first volume contains history of mankind from Adam to the one celestial cycle of Akbar’s life (30 years). The second volume closes on the 46th regnal year of Akbar. The third book Ain I Akbari( Administration of Akbar) is a detailed document recording the administration of Mughal empire under Akbar.
Or
Evidences that show that Mughal painting in the 17th century initiate a vibrant visual culture to fulfil imperial political and cultural needs are

  • Chronicles narrating the events of Mughal emperors reign contained images that described the event in visual form.
  • They enhanced the beauty of the book. Abu’l Fazl describes it as magical art.
  • Paintings potrayed emperor ,his court and people who were part of it.
  • In paintings number of symbols were created for visual representation of the idea of justice which came to stand for the highest virtue of Mughal monarchy. One of the favourite symbols was Motif of Lion and Goat peacefully nestling next to each other. This stated that both the weak and strong existed in harmony in Akbar’s realm.
  • Badshah Nama depicts motifs in a niche directly below the emperor’s throne.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question  2.
Explain the observations of Francis Buchannan that helped the East India Company. (3)
Answer:
Francis Buchannan’s observations helped East India Company in expanding its trade in India. The record left by Francis Buchannan is the last first hand written account of pre- colonial South India.

Observations made by Francis Buchannan that helped East India Company are
(i) His work is a travelogue but deeply scientific in approach. It has maps, tables, line diagrams, photograph’s depicting lives of people.

(ii) He was an employee of British East India Company, he served as a surgeon for Governor General Wellesley. He searched for minerals stones that were commercially valuable. He recorded all signs of iron ore, mica, granite and saltpetre.

(iii) He also made references to local practices of salt making and iron coal mining. He travelled through the Rajmahal hills.

(iv) Interesting facts have been given by him on the lifestyle of forest dwellers and felt forests should be turned into agricultural lands. He gives glimpses of hill folk in the early 19th century.

(v) His journal was written as a diary of places he visited, people he encountered and practices he saw.

Question 3.
Why is the revolt of 1857 called the First War of Independence?
Answer:
The revolt of 1857 was an unprecedented event in the history of British rule in India. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar termed the 1857 revolt as the First War of Independence. Reasons of considering the Revolt of 1857 as the first war of independence are:

(i) It united though in a limited way many sections of Indian society for common cause.

(ii) It was the first time that the entire nation irrespective of the caste creed race and religion had come together and staged an armed protest against the Britisher’s to gain independence from the colonial rule.

(iii) It led to the dissolution of the East India Company.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(iv) It was not a sudden occurrence but a culmination of a century old long resistance to the British rule and a whole world of nationalist imagination was woven around the revolt.

(v) It was celebrated as the First War of Independence in which all sections of people of India came together against the imperial rule. Though, the revolt failed to achieve its desired goal but it sowed the seeds of Indian Nationalism.

Question  4.
What was the rationale behind selection of salt as a mode of protest in the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
The main rationale behind the Salt Satyagraha was that salt tax imposed by the British government was very high it was fourteen times its value which was a necessity item.

The selection of salt as a main mode of protest by Gandhi in the Civil Disobedience Movement was done to make it a Mass Nationalist Movement. Civil Disobedience Movement was an active, professed refusal of the citizens of British India to obey certain laws, demands, orders or commands of the government.

It began with the famous Dandi March of Gandhi on 12th March, 1930. The program of Civil Disobedience Movement included defiance of salt laws passed by the British government, bycott of liquor and bycott of foreign cloth and varieties of British products.

The Salt Satyagraha was the main part of the Civil Disobedience Movement. It depicted an unfair trade practice by the Britishers towards Indians. Secondly, the entire population could associate with the cause as salt was used by everyone. Salt was a natural property and monopolisation by the Britishers deprived the Indians of their valuable village industry.

Section – B
Long Answer Questions

Question 5.
Explain the distinctive features of Mughal Nobility. (8)
Answer:
Nobility was an important pillar of Mughal administration. It was the corps of officers for the empire.
Distinctive features of the Nobility under the Mughal rule in India

(i) The nobility was recruited in the Mughal administration from diverse ethnic groups. This ensured that there was no faction large enough to challenge the emperor. Akbar personally reviewed their rank, titles and postings.

(ii) It was heterogeneous in nature composed of diverse, ethnic and religious groups. It included the Turanis, Iranis, Rajputs and Indian Muslims.

(iii) They nobility were also called Mansabdars. They held Mansabs which comprised of two ranks, the Zat and the Sawar rank.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(iv) They were entitled to maintain a large retinue of armed forces which when the emperor required had to participate in the military campaigns. The nobility stationed at the court were trated as a reserve force.

(v) People who excelled in education or accountancy were also included in the ranks of nobility.

(vi) Iranis prospered in Nurjahan’s indirect government under Jahangir’s regime. Under Aurangzeb reign in the early years Rajputs were given high positions to solve the Deccan problem.

During the 18th century, the character of nobility deterioted and ceased to discharge their duties, they were more keen in self interests which led the Mughal empire into bitter civil wars confusion and anarchy finally leading to the collapse of the Mughal empire.

Question 6.
What were the different types of sources from which political role of Gandhi and the history of nationalist movement can be reconstructed? (8)
Or
Differentiate between the Non Co-operation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
There are different kinds of sources used by historians to construct a true picture of events that happened in India during the Indian nationalist movement. The main sources are

1. The speeches and writings of Gandhi and other nationalist leaders. They were a public voice of the nationalist leaders.

2. Letters were also an important source. These included individual and private letters about his thoughts and beliefs. They gave important information about the ideas on various events.

3. Autobiographies were also an important source of information about the Nationalist movement as they were retrospective accounts written very often from memory.

4. Government records were also an important source of information. Colonial rulers maintained records about events of the people and leaders who were a critical of the government. These include reports and letters kept in archives.

5. Newspapers, magazines, pamphlets, etc. were also an important source of information. They gave information about movements, policies, beliefs and thoughts of nationalist leaders.
Or
The differences between the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience
Movement are

Non Cooperation Movement Civil Disobedience Movement
The Non cooperation Movement was launched on 4th September, 1920. It United the Hindus and Muslims to attain Swaraj. Civil Disobedience Movement was introduced to attain Puma Swaraj or complete independence from the British rule in India.
Non Co-operation Movement Civil Disobedience Movement
Non-cooperation Movement aimed at not cooperating with the British Government. Civil Disobedience Movement aimed at breaking certain laws like the Salt Law.
Non-cooperation Movement urged the masses to surrender titles and boycott British goods. In Civil Disobedience Movement, people were urged not to pay certain taxes.
In Non-cooperation Movement, women did not participate on large scale. In Civil Disobedience Movement, participation of women was at a large scale.
Non-cooperation Movement, was restricted to certain areas. Civil Disobedience Movement witnessed large scale geographical coverage.
Non-cooperation Movement was withdrawn due to violence at Chauri- Chaura. Civil Disobedience Movement was withdrawn by the passing of Gandhi- Irwin Pact.

Question 7.
What historical forces shaped the vision of the Constitution? (6)
Or
How is the term minority defined by different groups?
Answer:
The historical forces that shaped the vision of the Constitution are Nehru in his famous speech made references of the American revolution and the French revolution thus linking the making of the Indian Constitution with the revolutionary movements of the past. But at the same time he insisted it not to be a copy of the past but one should learn from Western experiments achievements and failures.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(i) Nehru insisted that the will of the people was important thus the Constituent Assembly was expected to represent the will of the masses.

(ii) The Constitution was prepared keeping in mind that India was a country of diverse ethnic groups of population.

(iii) Provisions were in cooperated in the Constitution to keep in mind the interests of the minorities and depressed classes.

(iv) To prevent riots and violence which was seen in the past more powers were given to the centre.

(v) There were more than five hundred princely states to accommodate them a federal system of government was introduced.
Or
Minority is a culturally, ethnically, or racially distinct group that co exists with but subordinate to a more dominant group. The term minority has been described by different groups in different ways

(i) NG Ranga, a socialist has described minority to be interpreted in economic terms. A supporter of peasant movements in India emphasised the poor and downtrodden as minority.

(ii) Jaipal Singh, an Adivasi believed that minority should be based on the basis of its numerical strength in a country. According to him, they needed protection and are often neglected. Usually treated as backward and primitive they are disgracefully treated.

(iii) Dakshayani Velayudhan was against the idea of considering harijan as a minority as their numerical strength exceeded seventy million. They should be given privileges to remove disabilities but not to be considered a minority community.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(iv) J Nagappa pointed out that numerically the depressed castes were not a minority as they constituted twenty to twenty five percent of the total population. According to him, they suffered due to their systematic marginalisation.

Section – C
Source Based Questions

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions.

Mahatma Gandhi was profoundly critical of the modem age in which machines enslaved humans and displaced labour. He saw the Charkha as a symbol of a human society that would not glorify machines and technology. The spinning wheel, more over, could provide the poor with supplementary income and make them self-reliant. What I object to, is the craze for machinery as such. The craze is for what they call labour saving machinery.

Men go on “saving labour”, till thousands are without work and thrown on the open streets to die of starvation. I want to save me and labour, not for a fraction of mankind, but for all; I want the concentration of wealth, not in the hands of few, but in the hands of all. Young India, 13th November, 1924 Khaddar does not seek to destroy all machinery but it does regulate its use and check its weedy growth. It uses machinery for the service of the poorest in their own – cottages. The wheel is itself an exquisite piece of machinery.

Young India, 17th March, 1927.

Khaddar does not seek to destroy all machinery but it does regulate its use and check its weedy growth. It uses machinery for the service of the poorest in their own cottages. The wheel is itself an exquisite piece of machinery.

Young India, 17th March, 1927 :
(i) Which idea was propagated by Mahatma Gandhi through Young India? (1)
(ii) Mention the impact of British industrial goods that were sold in India. (1)
(iii) What is the importance of Charkha, mentioned by Gandhiji? (2)
Answer:
(i) Gandhiji propagated the idea of Satyagraha and Non-violence through Young India.
(ii) British industrial goods resulted in the concentration of wealth in the hands of few people.
(iii) Importance of Charkha is

  • Charkha was introduced to propagate self reliant society.
  • It was introduced to diminish the importance of machines and technology.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions.

“I Believe Separate Electorates will be Suicidal to the Minorities” During the debate on 27th August, 1947, Govind Ballabh Pant said I believe separate electorates will be suicidal to the minorities and will do them tremendous harm. If they are isolated forever, they can never convert themselves into a majority and the feeling of frustrations will cripple them even from the very beginning. What is that you desire arid what is our ultimate objective? Do the minorities always want to remain as minorities or do they ever expect to form an integral part of a great nation and as such to guide and control its destinies?

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

If they do can they ever achieve that aspiration and that ideal if they are isolated from the rest of the community? I think it would be extremely dangerous for them if they were segregated from the rest of the community and kept aloof in an air-tight compartment where they would have to rely on others even for the air they breathe. The minorities if they are returned by separate electorates can never have any effective voice.

(i) Why were some Muslims like Begum Aizaz Rasul was against separate electorate?
(ii) What are separate electorates? (1)
(iii) Why did GB Pant feel separate electorate would be suicidal for the minorities? (2)
Answer:
(i) Begum Aizaz Rasul was against separate electorate as she felt that separate electorates were self-destructive.
(ii) Separate electorates are that type of elections in which some minorities select their own representative separately.
(iii) GB Pant felt that separate electorate will be suicidal for minorities because

  • It would be difficult for minorities to become an integral part of a Nation.
  • Minorities could never have an effective voice.

Section D
Map Based Question

Question 10.
(i) Identify the centre of British territory under British control in 1857 on the given political map of India marked as A. (1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1
(ii) On the same outline map locate any one of the given below territory under British control in 1857 on the map of India. (1)
(a) Awadh Or
(b) Berar
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 12 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

Child marriages are rampant in North India. The curse continues to blight the lives of people even as the country stands at the threshold of the 21st century. Children bound by marriage are victims of blind customs and superstitions prevalent in rural areas and in certain urban.

5. concentrations as well among the weaker socio-economic groups. Nothing seems to stop this anti-social practice despite the Child Marriage Act passed as early as in 1929, which makes child marriage, a grave offence. Why do marriages take place at all and what could be done to wean the people away from the practice? The evil thrives because of.

10. illiteracy and other related causes-the most important of which is the anxiety of parents to marry off their daughters as early as possible. In many states where illiteracy is high, like in Rajasthan, the practice of child marriage is in vogue. Akhha Teej’ is D-day for parents of minor girls, for on that day, they seek their salvation from the anxiety of girls growing up in their midst.

15. A child marriage is less likely to take place if the parents are literate or at least the father is. He is then aware of the legal minimum age and health hazards his daughter will face by an early marriage. If the mother, otherwise literate, has been exposed to the importance of family planning, she is also less likely to solemnize her daughter’s wedding at an age below the legal minimum.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

20. Among the other factors causing parents to give away young daughters in marriage is the need felt by families having more than one daughter, to keep wedding expenses down. By marrying two daughters at the same time parents save on expenses. Parental anxiety about grown up (14 years and above) daughters going astray, forces the less educated to give away their female children in marriage.

25. The existing law was amended in 1978 raising the minimum age of marriage for girls from 15 to 18 years and for boys from 18 to 21 years. The committee on the status of women, in its report in 1974, had recommended that all offences under the child marriage restrained Act should be made cognizable and special officers be appointed to enforce the law. The 30. Government however did not pay heed to it while raising the minimum age of marriage. At the same time, there is no foolproof system of registering births and thus, there is no legally enforceable method for establishing the age of a male or female.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the six given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that it is impossible to eradicate the practice of child marriage in India. (1)

(B) State any one reason other than illiteracy of parents for marrying their daughters early that is evident from lines 20-25. (1)

(C) The writer feels that the offence of child marriage should be made ‘cognizable’. What does he mean by that? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that there is no foolproof system of registering births? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 1-5.

She is not taking any action against him as she is under a marriage commitment. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘less likely to solemnize marriage’ suggest in the context of a literate mother. 1

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 10-20 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

The match is ………… today as the weather is not clear. (1)

(H) How can the situation of child marriages be better in the nation? (1)

(I) Analyse why child marriages are in vogue in rural areas. (1)

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

(1) Of all the inventions of science, solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful on the practical side of life. It is not just any rickshaw but an optimally designed, pedal-operated, and motor-assisted three-wheeler. This zero-carbon, urban transport vehicle or ‘pedicab’ was designed and developed by a team of engineers from the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute, Durgapur, West Bengal

(2) Like a solar rickshaw, the gorgeous green phone is another wonderful invention of the scientific mind. We all know that mobile phones are must-have these days. In fact, according to statistics, six out of ten people in this world own a cell phone. So, imagine the energy consumed and the e-waste generated by these devices. With this in mind, many handset manufacturers are going green, while some are even going solar.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

(3) Samsung, for instance, has unveiled a solar-powered phone- ‘‘Blue Earth”. It is a touch phone that has a full solar panel on its back which can generate enough power to charge the phone. It is made from recycled plastic from water bottles and has a built-in pedometer to keep a tab on your carbon dioxide emissions. It is also small enough to fit into your pocket.

(4) Like solar-powered homes, solar cars harness energy from the sun by converting it into electricity. This electricity fuels the battery that runs the car’s motor. Instead of using a battery, some solar cars direct the power straight to an electric motor. Great examples of the latest solar-powered cars are the University of Michigan solar car, the MIT solar car, and the Berkeley solar car.

(5) Solar cars use photovoltaic cells to convert sunlight into energy. Photovoltaic cells are the components in solar panels that convert the sun’s energy to electricity. They’re made up of semiconductors, usually silicon, that absorb the light. The sun’s energy frees electrons in the semiconductors, creating a flow of electrons. This flow generates electricity that powers the battery and the specialised motor in solar cars.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the six given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful on the practical side of life’? (1)

(B) What does the table say about the purpose of crediting state and federal taxes for solar industry? (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

(C) With reference to fig. 1, write a conclusion about India’s participation in regards with other nations in the solar power consumption. (1)

(D) What can be concluded by the ‘rest of the world’ data of solar consumption participation, with reference to fig. 1? (1)

(E) Scientists have started using solar energy for research purposes from a very long time. Substantiate. (1)

(F) Why are ‘solar-powered phones’ recommended as a significant invention in reducing the energy consumption? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 1-10 indicating a three-wheeled vehicle with a hooded carriage for transport. (1)

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
As the National Sports Winner, you are invited by the neighbouring school to be the Chief Guest for their 12th Annual Sports Day. Draft a formal reply expressing the regret for being unable to attend it. (3)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) You have read an advertisement in the newspaper, ‘India Times’ for the post of software engineer in Alex Software, Thane. You believe that you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and your innovative ideas will prove an asset to the company. Write a job application emphasising your strong points and your suitability for the post. Also include your bio-data. You are Navpreet/Navtej, a resident of 12, Mall Road, Thane.
OR
(B) You are Anamika Khanna, a staff reporter for Deccan Herald. Write a report for your newspaper on miscreants hijacking and looting a bus from Lucknow, bound for Agra, via the Agra-Lucknow Express way in about 1(2)0-150 words, covering all the necessary details like deluxe bus looted on expressway, driver noticed road barricading, women compelled to take off jewellery and men costly items, case registered in Agra Police Station, etc. (5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) Give one reason as to why the crofter was so talkative and friendly with the peddler. (2)

(B) Gandhi didn’t want any ‘prop’ to help his cause. Expound.
You may begin your answer like this: Gandhiji always believed that one doesn’t need any ‘prop’…………. (2)

(C) What does Aunt Jennifer desire through embroiding the tigers? Explain. (2)

(D) Rationalize what makes human beings love life in spite of troubles and sufferings. (2)

(E) Why did Jo think Roger Skunk was better off with the new smell? (2)

(F) What reason did Evans give to keep his hat on his head? Validate the actual reason. (2)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) A thing of beauty is a joy forever. Support the statement with reference to the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) According to Louis Fischer, Gandhiji succeeded in his Champaran campaign. Examine Indigo in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)

(C) Jack was Joanne’s father in the story, ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy?’ Expound on the impression that you have formed of Jack as a father. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

Every time a child takes a soft drink, he’s laying the ground work for a dangerous bone disease. No, fizzy and sugary drinks don’t cause osteoporosis. But, because they are often a substitute for a glass of milk, kids are not getting the calcium and vitamin D they need to build a strong skeleton. Many of them.

5. also lead a sedentary lifestyle, so they aren’t getting the bone-building benefits from vigorous exercise either. These children tend to suffer from brittle bones and tend to suffer from fractures later on in life. They could be at a risk of being diagnosed with osteoporosis at an early age.

10. The Indian Society for Bone and Mineral Research, a body of osteoporosis experts is trying to spread awareness about this bone crippling disease. Osteoporosis starts in childhood but has consequences later in life. The condition causes bones to become riddled with holes, like the framework of a house that’s been attacked by termites. That can lead to broken bones, which in turn can cause deformity, chronic pain or disability.

15. Osteoporosis can be fatal: up to 25 percent of older people who suffer a broken hip die within a year. Osteoporosis isn’t just your grandmother’s health threat. Although it strikes over 50 million women in India, it also menaces over 12 million men. Osteoporosis causes loss of height, pain in joints and back, fractures and a fear of fractures, and can be very depressing. So, it is important that we.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

20. adopt preventive measures, to save millions of people.

There is a new medical understanding of the best ways to protect ourselves and our children. “Simple lifestyle changes and nutrition will help save your bones,” says Dr Mittal. To get us moving in the right direction, 25. he says, “It’s never too late to adopt bone-friendly habits-exercise, get enough sunlight, and have adequate calcium in your diet.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the six given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that fizzy and sugary drinks indirectly cause osteoporosis? (1)

(B) State any one reason for weak bones that is evident from lines 1-10 other than the deficiency of nutrients. (1)

(C) The writer calls osteoporosis ‘fatal’. Why does he call it ‘fatal’? (1)

(D) Why Indian society for Bone and Mineral Research is spreading awareness about this bone crippling disease? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from the lines 17-27.

Looking at the current COVID cases, it is very important for families to have precautionary policies. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘brittle bones’ suggest in the context of children? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Online classes …………. for children who are weak in academics. (1)

(H) In what ways does osteoporosis affects us? (1)

(I) Analyse the ways to protect the bones in children. (1)

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.
The passenger pigeon (Ectopistesmigratorius) was once found in huge numbers in North America. Records tell of passing flocks that darkened the skies for several dags at a time. The species may have peaked at five billion individuals. A more conservative estimate is three billion. Within a short time, the species disappeared completely.

5. “Given the huge size of the population, it’s simply amazing that the species disappeared so quickly,” says Tom Gilbert. Gilbert is a professor at the University of Copenhagen’s Centre for GeoGenetics, but he also has a part-time position as an adjunct professor at the Norwegian University of Science and Technology (NTNU).

The history of the passenger pigeon is interesting, partly because it can tell us something about how and why species become extinct. Native Americans also relied on passenger pigeons for food. But at least.

10. in parts of the passenger pigeons’ range, people had learned to harvest the species at a sustainable level that didn’t threaten to eradicate it. It was common in some parts of North America to only eat young pigeons that were hunted at night, since this did not seem to scare away the adult birds or prevent them from re-nesting.

But starting around 1500’s, a more aggressive variant of humans came to the continent.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

15. with the arrival of Europeans. The hunt for passenger pigeons grew and culminated in a massive hunt for the species throughout the 1800s, before the species finally collapsed and disappeared. In 2014, a study published in the scientific journal PNAS, strongly suggested that humans were simply the final straw in destroying a species that was already vulnerable and headed to oblivion.

The cladogram below follows the 2012 DNA study showing the position of the passenger pigeon among its closest relatives:

The researchers asserted that despite their enormous numbers, the passenger pigeons.

20. were already in trouble. The population of the species varied greatly, similar to lemmings, but over a longer period of time. When the Europeans arrived, the species was already in a strong decline. The population was plummeting long before Europeans arrived, and perhaps Europeans even contributed to a short-term increase in numbers.

Studies of the genetic variation of the species using an investigative method called PSMC.

25. formed the background for these assertions. And now we have to concentrate a bit. The PSMC method can use the information in the genes of a single individual of a species to map the history of the species.

You should therefore be able to see how the species developed over many generations, and estimate how many individuals there were at any given time, all based on a single genome. Using this method, researchers found that the number of passenger pigeons was in free fall even before the arrival of the Europeans.

30. Although the species might not have become extinct, it would have shrunk significantly in any case, maybe to only a few hundred thousand individuals.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the six given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘Records tell of passing flocks that darkened the skies for several days at a time.’? (1)

(B) What is surprising about Tom Gilbert’s study regarding passenger pigeons? (1)

(C) With reference to fig. 1, write one species that was famous among Old World pigeons. (1)

(D) What can be concluded by the phrase “the population was plummeting tong before Europeans arrived”? (1)

(E) The arrival of Europeans was not the reason for extinction of passenger pigeons Substantiate. (1)

(F) What was the reason behind the species of passenger pigeons finaLly collapsing and disappearing? (1)

(G) Identify a word from the Lines 20-25 indicating a fall or drop at a high speed. (1)

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
Your father, Mr Rizwan Ahmed, residing at 21/22, Kamla Nagar, Agra, wants to celebrate the success of your brother Ayan’s clearing the Harvard Entrance Examination and getting admission into the university. Help him by drafting a formal invitation for the party he wants to throw for his son. (3)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) You are Amit/Amita of 1/23, Lawyer’s Colony, Agra. You have seen an advertisement in The Times of India for the post of Head Chef in a 3-Star Hotel. Apply for the job to the HR dept, with your complete bio-data. Invent necessary details.
OR
(B) You are Rasheed/Rashida Ahmed, of Delhi PubLic School, Gwatior. As a Fancy Show was held on the Children’s Doy in your school on 14th November, this year, write a report in about 120-150 words on ‘The Fancy Dress Show’ for your school magazine, covering aLL the necessary detaiLs like different themes for Senior and Junior Sections, students dressed up different, winners prized with trophies, runner-ups given ConsoLation prizes, etc. (5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) How was Gandhiji able to influence the lawyers at Champaran? (2)

(B) Edla was elated on seeing the gift left for her by the peddler. Comment.

You may begin your answer like this:
Edla was extremely happy to see the gift of a rattrap along with a letter. (2)

(C) According to Keats, what spreads the pall of despondence over our dark spirits? How is it removed? Explain. (2)

(D) Give an example which could be used to say that Aunt Jennifer had a mental truma by her husband. (2)

(E) Based on your reading of the chapter ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’, how does Jo respond to her father’s storytelling? (2)

(F) Validate what peculiar things does Derry notice about the old man? (2)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 – 150 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) Do you think the poet in the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’ tries to convey a message about ‘Feminism’? Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) The ironmaster lacked sympathy and love that his daughter Edla had. Examine the character of the ironmaster with that of his daughter, Edla in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)

(C) The question paper and correction slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans in the chapter ‘Evans Tries an O-Level’. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

‘Birds of a feather flock together is an old maxim. The teenagers too behave in a similar fashion and are hence more influenced by their peers than by elders. This is quite natural, for the teenager’s mind is impressionable and is influenced by their peers in school or college. So great is this influence that there is a perceptible change

5. in their behaviour and personality as soon as they enter college. The teenagers try to emulate their peers in the dress they wear, their hairstyle, clothes, language and behaviour so much that their personality gets completely transformed.

This happens because they directly relate with them, being in the same age group and class. Quite often, they idolize their peers and have them as their role models.

10. The same is not the case with the adults, whom they perceive as old fashioned and irrelevant. This is on account of the ever-increasing generation gap, which exists between today’s youth and elders.

The teenagers spend most of their time with their peer group and then with adults. It is therefore quite natural for them to imbibe the values, culture and the behaviour of the group. They often succumb to peer pressure and do things that they would.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

15. not normally do like smoking, abusing, etc. Some under the influence of peer pressure improve their academic performance, or sporting skills, while others take to drugs and crime. For the momentary thrill and adventure it entails.

The influence of peers is also greater because they feel more comfortable and reassuring in their company. This is contrary to the awkwardness they feel, when.

20. interacting with adults, whom they perceive as old and stern. Shrewd market men exploit this behavioural characteristic to promote the sale of products targeted for them. Thus, we find products like motorcycles, dresses, cosmetics and even lifestyle products being endorsed by peers. They soon become a craze with the teenagers. This in itself is ample proof of the profound influence of the peers on the.

25. teenagers. This influence will increase, with increasing materialistic values permeating the society. It is because of this, parents ensure that they have the right peers in school and college, so that they do not get distracted in their life.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the teenagers’ minds are impressionable. (1)

(B) State any one trait of the ‘market men’ that is evident from lines 18-26.

(C) Parents want to be sure that their teenagers have good peers. Why do they want so? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that teenagers succumb to peer pressure? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20 – 25.

Teenagers should understand hat doing drugs is just a temporary excitement but an everlasting damage to the body and mind. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘Birds of a feather flock together’ suggest in the context of teenagers? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 21-28 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Pop stars have a ………….. in the young generation. (1)

(H) Teenagers imitate their peers a lot. In what ways do they copy them? (1)

(I) Analyse how can parents control the changes in the behavior of their teenagers under peer pressure. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

India’s Labour market is the second-largest in the world, after China, with a working-age population of about 520 miLLion people. In 10 gears, it is expected to be the world’s largest as China’s population aged 15 to 64 drops from 20.5 to 18.3 per cent.

5. While this positive demographic growth should be advantageous for business, only a small portion of India’s working age population is actually engaged in the formal workforce. The primary reason being that barely one in four women are part of the country’s workforce. Today, industry estimates show that women in India only make up five to six per cent of directorships at most listed companies; this after amendments to the Companies Act mandated at least one woman on company boards.

10. These figures underline the highly distorted nature of India’s labour market where women hold 45 per cent of university degrees but are either denied employment opportunities or experience much slower career growth trajectories due to gender-based discrimination.

India has the lowest female labour force participation rate in its neighbourhood.

15. The overall rate of female labour force participation declined as the Indian economy opened up, urbanised, and diversified with the growth of new industries, unlike most other regions in the world. In fact, rapid growth experienced by the US and China in the past century illustrates how improving the gender balance in the workforce contributes to a nation’s economic growth. Female labour force participation is 56 per cent in the US and 64 per cent in China.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

20. The above correlation is also strengthened by a 2017 IMF study, which states that increasing the female labour force participation will grow India’s GDP by an estimated 27 per cent. Contrast this with the projections made by the government’s big idea reforms ‘Make in India’ and ‘Digital India’, which aim to boost India’s growth by 16 per cent and 5 per cent, respectively.

25. Yet, GDP goals aside, the gender imbalance in India’s workforce stunts future prospects for inclusive growth in the country. It deprives women and girls from role models in the workplace, reduces their motivation to study further, and perpetuates unhealthy socio-cultural attitudes. Leaving out one half of the population from its workforce will also prolong India’s status as a developing country.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘barely one in four women are part of the country’s workforce? (1)

(B) Why was this survey on ‘Female Workforce Participation Rate’ under-taken? (1)

(C) With reference to the given table, write one conclusion about Indian female participation in workforce. (1)

(D) What can be concluded by Nepal’s data of women participation in workforce, with reference to the given information? (1)

(E) There is an unhealthy socio-cultural Attitude in india. Substantiate.

(F) What does the researcher mean by ‘distorted nature’ in Indian labour market? (1)

(G) Identify a word from the lines 9-18 indicating the structure of population. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
Draft an informal invitation to invite your family and friends on the occasion of marriage of your elder sister. Prepare the invite card giving necessary details in not more than 50 words. (3)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) Write a job application letter in 120-150 words for the post of receptionist advertised in a national newspaper by Aparna Communications, 21 Meera Road, Mumbai. You are Smita Iyer, a resident of 102, Rose villa Apt., Andheri (E), Mumbai.

OR

(B) You are Harish/Harsha Chandwani, Sports Secretary, DAV International. Last week, an inter-school cricket match was played on your school ground. Write a report in about 120-150 words on the match to be given in the school magazine, covering all the essential details like a three-day match, thrilling final match, winner decided on last ball, nail-biting match, etc. (5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) Why did the peddler not tell the ironmaster that he was not Nib Olof, his comrade? (2)

(B) Rojkumar ShukLa was resolute. Justify the given statement.

You may begin your answer like this:
Rajkumar Shukla wanted to take Gandhiji aLong with him to Champaran ………. (2)

(C) What are the ‘ordeals’ Aunt Jennifer is surrounded by, why is it significant that the poet uses the word ‘ringed’? Explain. (2)

(D) BriefLy convey the message of the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’. (2)

(E) What were the contents of the small brown suitcase that McLeery carried? (2)

(F) As told by Mr Lamb, why did a man lock himself up in his room and what happened to him? Validate. (2)

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) According to Keats, men’s evil ways of life has made his life full of miseries and dilemmas. Comment. (4)

(B) The Champaran episode is considered to be the beginning of the Indian struggle for independence. Explain the chapter ‘Indigo’ in the light of this statement. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

(C) Mr Lamb was a person who appreciated nature and its bounties. Do you agree? Substantiate with reference to text. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
‘In recent years india has paid adequate attention to ASEAN’. Give two points to justify the statement. (2)
Or
Explain ‘Miracle on the Han River’.
Answer:
In recent years ASEAN has become the key pillar of our foreign policy and also foundation of our Act East Policy. India has paid adequate attention to ASEAN in following manner

  • The ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement came into effect in 2010. This agreement reduced duties on almost 76% of goods.
  • On 25th January, 2018, silver jubilee of India and ASEAN partnership was commemorated. Leaders released postal stamps to mark the event.

Or
‘Miracle on the Han River’ refers to the period of rapid economic growth in South Korea during which South Korea emerged as a centre of power in Asia. Between the 1960s and the 1980s South Korea developed from developing to developed country after hosting Summer Olympics and FIFA World Cup.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 2.
South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space. Do you agree with the statement? Give two reasons for your answer. (2)
Answer:
I agree with the statement “South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space” due to following reasons

(i) The mighty Himalayas in the North and the Vast Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal in the South-West and East respectively provide a natural insularity to the region which is largely responsible for the linguistic, social and cultural distinctiveness of the subcontinent.

(ii) The various countries in South Asia do not have the same kind of political systems but democracy has become an accepted norm in this region.

Question 3.
Why do you think India is now considered as an important centre of power? (2)
Answer:
The 21st century India is being seen as an important emerging centre of power due to following reasons

(i) The economic, cultural and strategic position of the country with the population of more than 135 crores is very strong.

(ii) From a strategic perspective, the military of India is self- sufficient with indigenous nuclear technology, making it another nuclear power.

(iii) From an economic perspective, targeting the goal of a $5 trillion economy, a competitive huge market, and ancient inclusive culture with 200 million people of Indian diaspora spreading across the globe impart distinct meaning and salience to India as a new center of power in the 21st century. (Any two points)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 4.
American involvement in South Asia has rapidly increased after the Cold War. Give two examples to illustrate. (2)
Answer:
Following reasons shows involvement of America in South Asia after Cold War
(i) The United States has good relations with both India and Pakistan since the end of the Cold War and increasingly works as a moderator in India- Pakistan relations.

(ii) The economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have greatly increased the depth of American participation in the region.

(iii) The large South Asian Diasporas in the US and the huge size of the population and markets of the region also give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace. (Any two points)

Question 5.
Evaluate the role of SAARC in facilitating the economic cooperation in the South Asian region. (2)
Answer:
The role of SAARC is facilitating the economic cooperation in the South Asian region is given below

(i) The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is a major regional initiative by the South Asian States to evolve cooperation through multilateral means. It began in 1985 SAARC members signed the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) in 2004 which promised the formation of a free trade zone for the whole of South Asia.

(ii) A new chapter on peace and cooperation might evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the region allow free trade across the borders.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 6.
The first general election was postponed twice. Give two reasons for the same. (2)
Answer:
The first general election was a mammoth exercise due to the following reasons

  • 17 crore eligible voters were to elect about 3,200 MLAs and 489 members of Lok Sabha.
  • Out of total voters list only 15% of the voters were literate.
  • In the first draft of the rolls, names of nearly 40 lakh women were not recorded in the list. (Any two points)

Question 7.
Explicate two features of a Coalition Government. (2)
Answer:
The important features of Coalition Government are

  • A Coalition Government is formed when no single party gets a majority and two or more than two parties join together a form a government.
  • Various small parties usually play a crucial role in forming a Coalition Government.
  • Position of the Head of Government usually remains weak as he/she has to appease all the stakeholders in the government. (Any two points)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 8.
Name the leader who led a peoples’ march to Parliament in 1975 and state as to what was unique about this march? (2)
Answer:

  • Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan was the leader who led peoples’ march to Parliament in 1975.
  • The unique feature for this was that it was one of the largest political rallies that was ever held in the capital during those times.

Section B

Question 9.
Compare the European Union with ASEAN. (4)
Answer:
European Union and ASEAN can be compared basis of on the following points
The European Union

(i) After the Second World War, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OECC) was established by America, under the Marshall Plan.

(ii) The process of economic integration of European capitalist countries proceeded systematically and the Council of Europe was established in 1949.

(iii) This led to the formation of the European Economic Community in 1957. After the collapse of Soviet bloc, European Union was established in 1992.

(iv) It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency. European Union was the world’s largest economy in 2005. It had a GDP of more than US $ 12 trillion in 2005. (Any two points)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

ASEAN
(i) Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 by five countries of this region -Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand by signing the Bangkok Declaration.

(ii) ASEAN countries have adopted the ‘ASEAN Way’ as a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative.

(iii) In 2003, ASEAN moved along the path of establishing an ASEAN Community comprising three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Security Community, the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.

(iv) ASEAN had several agreements in place by which member states promised to uphold peace, neutrality, cooperation, non- interference and respect for national differences and sovereign rights. ASEAN economy is growing much faster than other countries.

(v) ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labor and services. ASEAN Vision 2020 had defined an outward-looking role for ASEAN in the interantional community. ASEAN policy has been to encourage negotiation over conflicts in the region. (Any two points)

Question 10.
Describe various issues regarding the National Emergency of 1975 in India. (4)
Answer:
The various issues regarding the National Emergency of 1975 in India are as follows .
(i) During national emergency political workers were arrested and undue restrictions on the press were made.

(ii) The Emergency directly affected the lives of common people. Fundamental Rights of the people were suspended. Torture and custodial deaths took place during the Emergency and arbitrary relocation of poor people occursed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

(iii) The Constitution simply mentioned ‘internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring Emergency. Before 1975, the Emergency was never proclaimed on this ground.

(iv) Although the then government argued that in a democracy, the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies. It felt that frequent recourse to agitations; protests and collective action are not good for democracy.

(v) Supporters of the then Prime Minister also held that in a democracy, one cannot continuously have extra-parliamentary politics targeting the government. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development. (Any four points)

Question 11.
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C), (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 1

(i) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
(ii) The state to which the former Prime Minister Morarji Desai was related
(iii) The state to which S. Nijalingappa belonged.
(iv) The state related to former Congress President K. Kamraj.

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of State
(i) A Uttar Pradesh
(ii) C Gujarat
(iii) B Karnataka
(iv) D Tamil Nadu

Section C

Question 12.
“Peace and prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of regional economic organisations”. Critically evaluate the statement. (6)
Or
Give an account of the changing role of state in the light of Globalisation.
Answer:
‘Peace and prosperity of countries lay in establishing and strengthening of regional economic
organisations’. This statement can be evaluated with the help of the following points:

  • The members of regional organisations resolve their mutual differences and adopt Foreign Trade Policy, thus give way to their economic development.
  • Backward countries also get a chance for their development and thus, employment also increases.
  • Standard of living of every country is improved.
  • They get facilities of quality education, health and transport.
  • When the public is satisfied, then its trust in Nation’s policy increases and thus along with its capability, public then corporates in policies, of government which brings peace and prosperity in a country.
  • There are no chances of public outrage.

Or
The changing role of state in the light of globalisation can be understood with the help of following points

(i) Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, i.e. the ability of government to do what they do.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

(ii) All over the world, the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions, such as, the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.

(iii) The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own.

(iv) Globalisation has also reduced the power of states to decide national and foreign policy voluntarily. They have been forced to follow the policies and decisions of international organisations.

(v) There has been a change in the role of the state in making and implementing strict rules of import-export. Because globalisation is based on the concept of rapid flow of people, things and ideas. Therefore, the barriers to permits, licenses etc. have been reduced, due to which the role of the state has also been reduced.

(vi) In some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizen. With the information, the state is better able to rule, not less able.

Question 13.
Critically evaluate the six main issues in Indian politics during the 21st century. (6)
Or
Discuss the impact of the relationship between the Judiciary and the Executive during emergency period in India.
Answer:
The six main issues of Indian politics during 21st century are as follows
(i) Triple Talaq Rights of women and dignity were upheld in the judgement and an end was put to the exploitation and insecurity of women.

(ii) Article 370 Special status of Jammu and Kashmir revoked, reaffirming that it is an integral part of India.

(iii) Farm Laws Repeal There were a year-long protest of farmers largely across Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh and surmounting pressure on the government by Dhama-in Delhi. This led to the intervention of Judiciary and formation of an expert committee. Finally, led to its repeal.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

(iv) CAA-NRC Law To fast rack citizenship for minorities in neighbouring states, how’ever accumulated fears within Indian communities which led to country wide protests. Judiciary had to intervene. Finally, implementation was put on hold by the government.

(v) Ram Janmabhoomi This was a centuries long dispute and was reignited in the 1990s. It shaped the discourse of Indian Politics (rise of BJP). The case went to Supreme Court after Allahabad Court’s judgement in 2010. An expert committee was formed by the Supreme Court. Finally judgement came in 2019 and the matter was put to rest.

(vi) Majoritarian government (single party) in 2014 and 2019, yet followed the pre-poll alliance (NDA).
Or
The impact of the conflict between the Judiciary and the Executive during emergency period in India were as follows:
(i) The Indira Gandhi government brought in many changes in Constitution that declared that election of Prime Minister, President and Vice President could not be challenged in court.

(ii) The government made extensive use of Preventive Detention.

(iii) To give preference to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights. Due to this provision, any person could be deprived of even his fundamental rights. Along with this, this amendment completely dwarfed the judiciary. At the same time, immense powers were given to the legislature.

(iv) The government also superseded the practices of the Supreme Court in appointing its Chief Justice.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

(v) The term of the Parliament was also increased from five years to six years.

(vi) Under the provisions of emergency, the various Fundamental Rights of citizens stood suspended, including the right of citizens to move the court for restoring their Fundamental Rights.

(vii) Judiciary delivered various controversial judgements; did not perform its role properly. No constitutional rule of law prevailed; this was called as the dark period of democracy; no media freedom and opposition was in jail. Judiciary and Executive acted as one entity, with judiciary not keeping a check on the actions of the executive. By way of 42nd Amendment, detention was removed from judicial review. (Any six points)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

In 3000 years of our history, people from all over the world have invaded us, captured our lands, conquered our minds. From Alexander onwards, The Greeks, the Turks, the Moguls, the Portuguese, the British, the French, the Dutch, all of them looted us, took over what was ours. Yet we have not done this to any other nation. Because we respect the freedom of others.

5. That is why my first vision is that of FREEDOM. I believe that India got its first vision of this in 1857, when we started the war of Independence. It is this freedom that we must protect and nurture and build on. If we are not free, no one will respect us.

10. My second vision for India is DEVELOPMENT, For fifty years we have been a developing nation. It is time we see ourselves as a developed nation. We are among top 5 nations of the world in terms of GDP. We have 10 percent growth rate in most areas. Our poverty levels are falling. Our achievements are being globally recognized today. Yet we lack the self-confidence to see ourselves as a developed nation, self-reliant and self-assured.

15.1 have a THIRD vision. India must stand up to the world. Because I believe that, unless India stands up to the world, no one will respect us. Only strength respects strength. We must be strong not only as a military power but also as an economic power. Both must go hand-in-hand.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

20. What stops us? Why is the media here so negative? Why are we in India so embarrassed to recognize our own strengths, our achievements? We are such a great nation. We have so many amazing success stories but we refuse to acknowledge them. Why? We are the first in milk production, remote sensing satellites, the second-largest producer of wheat and rice.

25. Look at Dr. Sudarshan, he has transferred the tribal village into a self-sustaining, self-driving unit. There are millions of such achievements but our media is only obsessed in the bad news and failures and disasters.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s opinion of India’s success in development is justified. (1)

(B) State any one trait of the writer that is evident from lines 15-25 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)

(C) The writer said that ‘only strength respects strength’. Why did he say so? 1

(D) Why does the writer say that media is obsessed with the nation’s failures? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 1-5.

The way the singer won the attention of all the people in the concert was amazing. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘why are we embarrassed’ suggest in the context of the writer’s opinion about the people of India? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

I submitted the project after the deadline so the Principal it. (1)

(H) Why does the writer think that a nation needed to be free in order to be respected? (1)

(I) Analyse why many different countries had ruled us and won over us in the past. (1)
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, it is clearly given that Dr. Sudarshan has transferred the tribal village into a self-sustaining, self-driving unit. Clearly stating that Indian’s success in development is justified.

(B) In the given lines, the writer has come across as a person full of appreciation and positive. He is focusing on the great achievements of the nation rather than its failures.

(C) By this, the writer meant that a strong thing never respects a weak thing. So, in order to come across as a strong nation, India should first stand up as a strong nation.

(D) The writer says so because media mostly cover the stories where there are failures, bad news or disasters. It never focuses on the achievements of the nation.

(E) Conquered our minds

(F) The phrase suggests that the writer believes that the people of India lack confidence and trust in their own achievements.

(G) Refused to acknowledge.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(H) The writer thinks that a nation is needed to be free to be respected because freedom is the biggest power to own. If a nation is dependent on another nation to run, it will not be respected by any one.

(I) Many countries had ruled us and won over us in the past because we, as a nation, were very weak and uneducated. We had no idea how to utilize our powers.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions characterized by abnormalities in social interaction, behaviour, interests, and communication. The five forms of ASD include Classical autism, Asperger

5. syndrome, Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and Childhood Disintegrative Disorder. Although the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the majority of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

10. While there is no general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying causes of ASD, theories range from genetic inheritance to environmental factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent times is the hypothesis that ASD could be caused by the MMR vaccine, which is an immunization against measles,

15. mumps, and rubella that was first developed in the 1960’s. The vaccine is a mixture of three live viruses and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old. By the late 1990’s, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of measles in countries that employed widespread inoculation.

20. However, a combination of spurious scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21st century.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

The first claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in 1998, when an article in The Lancet, a respected

25. British medical journal, reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the administration of an MMR vaccine. The parents of the children in this study contended that the symptoms of autism in their children developed within days of vaccination. During a press conference, Andrew Wakefield, one of the authors of the article,

30. called on British doctors to stop giving combined MMR vaccines, instead advocating for individual inoculations against measles, mumps, and rubella.

Following the publication of this article, Wakefield published several follow-up papers that further questioned the safety of the MMR.

35. vaccine. An onslaught of media coverage then began. Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD. The popular press quickly seized upon this story; in 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these article mentioned that an.

40. overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by “‘The popular press quickly seized upon this story.”? (1)

(B) Why, according to the doctors, the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years? (1)

(C) With reference to factual data, write any one symptom of ASD. (1)

(D) What was the purpose of parents appearing on the television sharing anecdotal evidences? (1)

(E) The story of MMR vaccines and ASD relation got attention proving the power of media. Substantiate. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(F) What suggests that the safety of the vaccines had no great evidence as such? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 9-18 indicating a developmental disorder of variable severity with difficulty in social interaction. (1)
Answer:
(A) It is clear through the passage that as the story of the link between the MMR vaccine and ASD got attention, the press started covering all aspects of it. The famous media publishers covered the story in all aspects.

(B) It is given in the passage that according to the medical professionals, the numbers of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years because of the changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

(C) As per the given data, abnormalities in social interaction is one of the symptoms of ASD.

(D) It is given in the passage that after the first claim of the link between the connection between the MMR vaccine and autism, appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD.

(E) It was due to the extreme press coverage and articles in media that the story got so much of attention. Media covered it in all aspects.

(F) As per the passage, only 30% of the published articles had an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence that suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe whereas this means that 70% supported the claim of vaccines being, unsafe.

(G) Autism.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
Your school., St. Lo Mart, Chandigarh is organizing its 34th AnnuaL Sports Day in the schooL pLayground. Draft a formaL invitation to invite the Mayor of the city to be the Chief Guest for the event. (3)
Answer:

St. La Mart
Chandigarh
28th August 20XX
Mr Harsh Shah
Mayor
ChandigarhSubject: Invitation to be the Chief Guest for the Annual Sports DayRespected Sir,
We are delighted to inform you that our school St. La Mart is hosting its 34th Annual Sports Day on Tuesday, 4™ of September 20XX in the School Playground. We would like to invite you to grace the occasion as the Chief Guest to honour the prizes to the winners.

Yours faithfully
The Principal
St. La Mart

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) You are Renuka Awasthi, a resident of 12/23, Hari Singh Road, Mohali. You have read the advertisement given below. You are qualified for the job. Write an application in 120-150 words along with a resume.

PL Cosmetics, Mohali requires
Accounts Officers
Qualification: M. Com (Accounts & Law)
Experience: Minimum 5 years
Job requirement: Maintaining books of accounts, preparation of Balance Sheet, etc.
Salary: 50,000 + perks
Apply to: Managing Director, PL Cosmetics,
Plot. 2, New Jaspreet Colony, Mohali
Contact: 9897xxxxxxx

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(B) A super specialty COVID hospital was inaugurated in the city by the Health Minister. As a reporter from ‘The Tribune’, write a report in about 120-150 words on the same to be published in the newspaper, covering all the details like 120-bed hospital, fully equipped, life support ambulances, big expenditure.
Answer:
12/23, Hari Singh Road
Mohali
15th November, 20XX
The Managing Director
PL Cosmetics
Plot. 2, New Jaspreet Colong
Mohali

Subject: Application for the post of Accounts offcer.

Sir/ma’am,
This is with reference to your advertisement published in The National Times, dated 12th November, 20XX, that announced the vacancy for the post of Accounts officer in your company. I would like to apply for the same.

I hold a masters degree in Accounts and I am skilled at managing the balance sheet and book-keeping. I have five years experience of being an Accounts Manager in The Tree Club LLP. I am enclosing my Bio-Data to enable you to assess my suitability for the given post. Looking forward to a positive response!

Thanking you
Yours sincerely,
Renuka Awasthi
Incl: Bio-data

Bio-Data

Name : Renuka Awasthi
Father’s Name : Mandeep Awasthi
Date of Birth : 25th May 20XX
Address : 12/23, Hari Singh Road, Mohali
Educational Qualification : (i) M. Com (Accounts & Law) from LPU, Mohali.
(ii) Diploma in Book-Keeping from HT Institute, Mohali
Experience : Accounts Manager in The Tree Club LLP., Delhi for five years
SaLary Expected : Negotiable
References :

  • Mrs. Simrandeep Kaur, H.O.D (Accounts) LPU, Mohali, 9123xxxxxx
  • Mr Pawandeep Oberoi, Accountant, The Tree Club LLP, Mohali, 9897xxxxxx

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

OR

Super Specialty COVID Hospital Inaugurated by Smita Patel, Staff Reporter, The Tribune

Agra, 8th June 20XX: ’Manvi’ a super specialty COVID hospital was inaugurated by the Health Minister of the State in the city of Taj on Wednesday, 7th June, 20XX. The 120-bed hospital is fully equipped with advanced life- support ambulances that have been made available round the clock. The hospital has an in-house oxygen bank which is the need of the hour in the current pandemic situations. The ratio of the doctor to its patients is 3:1.

The total expenditure in building the hospital is said to be three crore rupees. Addressing the people, Dr. Paritosh Singhal, the Medical Superintendent, reinforced the need for dedicated and committed staff. He sincerely hoped that the hospital would provide the best COVID care services to the people at a nominal cost.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) State the incident that shows the servants demeaned Gandhiji at Rajendra Prasad’s house. (2)
(B) State why the peddler derived pleasure from his idea of the world as a rattrap. You may begin your answer like this:

As the peddler was a destitute rattrap seller, the world had never. (2)

(C) A beautiful thing gives us joy. Are these things worth treasuring or are they momentary? Rationalize. (2)

(D) Give an example which could be used to say that Aunt Jennifer had a mental trauma by her husband. (2)

(E) Mr. Lamb told Derry the story of a man who hid himself in his room. Why did the man do so and with what result? (2)

(F) Validate the ‘new phase’ that had come in Jo’s behaviour. (2)
Answer:
(A) The servants at Rajendra Prasad’s house mistook Gandhiji to be one of the poor sharecroppers as he was wearing simple clothes. So, the servants did not permit Gandhiji to draw water from the well lest he is an untouchable and some drops of water from his bucket pollute the entire source.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(B) As the peddler was a destitute rattrap seller, the world had never been kind to him, so it gave him an unexplainable joy to think ill of it by considering it as a rattrap. It became his cherished pastime to think about the people he knew who had let themselves caught up in the dangerous trap and of others who were still circling around the bait in the rattrap of this world.

(C) A beautiful thing gives us unending joy and pleasure. These things are worth treasuring because they leave an everlasting happy impression on our minds that help us come out of the gloom and melancholy of our depressive lives.

(D) In the poem, Aunt Jennifer finds it so hard to pull the ivory needle through the panel on which she is embroidering the tigers because of her nervousness and anxiety. Her hands are shaking and fingers are fluttering while doing so. This signifies that Aunt Jennifer is under a mental trauma given by her husband.

(E) Mr. Lamb told Derry the incident of a timid man who hid himself in his room and refused to come out as he didn’t want to face any fatal accident because of which he could die. But, in the end, he died inside his room because a picture hanging on the wall fell on his head and killed him.

(F) Earlier, Jo was a passive listener but now she had become quite inquisitive. She was no more an opinionless listener. She would have her own perceptions about things. Her right-to-the-point questions would put Jack in an awkward situation.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) Towards the end of the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, we see two different sides of endings for tigers and the Aunt. Compare and contrast the stark difference in the death of Aunt Jennifer and the tigers prancing on the panel. (4)

(B) The story, ‘The Rattrap’ is both entertaining and philosophical. Resonate the given statement with a rationale. Examine the rattrap in the light of this statement. (4)

(C) How does the story, ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy’ bear testimony to the fact that the frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children? Substantiate with reference to text. (4)
Answer:
(A) There is a huge difference in the way the poem ends for both the tigers and Aunt Jennifer. In the Aunt’s case, when she dies, she is still burdened with the responsibilities of her domestic life and her husband in the form of the wedding ring that surrounds her finger. The aunt dies with the burning desire in her heart to be independent, strong and fearless but these desires are left unfulfilled. She will never be able to get rid of her oppression and her responsibilities, even after her death.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

On the other hand, the tigers are shown in the same way throughout the poem and that is – fierce and fearless. They are the kings of the wild world and are never afraid of anything. They roam around the forest with all their might and courage. When aunt dies, her tigers go on prancing in the forest with the same strength and fearlessness forever.

(B) The story, The Rattrap’ is indeed, both entertaining and philosophical. It revolves around a petty rattrap seller who couldn’t survive in his minimal living. Hence, he also steals money to make it up. The retired crofter’s warm and welcoming nature is a treat to read. The way he shares his secrets and treats the peddler as his old friend is lovely. The twist of the ironmaster mistaking the peddler as his old comrade is both funny and interesting. The kind generosity of his daughter Edla towards the peddler is also amazing.

However, the story too bears a philosophical meaning. It teaches us that the company of a loving person or a family member is so important for human beings to live a happy and a healthy life. All the characters display complete isolation from humanly love and warmth, that is why they end up having troubles. Finally, peddler changing his ways and thinking for the world due to Edla’s respect and love towards him is a proof that love and compassion can change a person completely.

(C) It is true that frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interactions with their children. We can see this in the story ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’ that when Jo was not ready to accept Jack’s ending of the story, she started interrupting and asking questions that irritated Jack. As a father himself, he couldn’t agree to what Jo was asking him to do with the story. Jo felt that the wizard should hit Mommy Skunk back as revenge. But Jack was frustrated as Mommy Skunk was a ‘mother’ and a mother could not be beaten for thinking good of her child.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Also, we noticed that Jack pondered over while telling Jo about Skunk’s bullying by his friends. He looked despaired. This shows that may be he himself faced some sort of bully in his childhood and his mother would have done the exact same thing that the Mommy Skunk did for her child. So, Jack might be recalling his own incidents while narrating the story and that is why he was getting frustrated on Jo for interrupting him continuously.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

Instructions:

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections-A, B and C
  • Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  • Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  • Section C comprises of 4 questions. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A [12 Marks]

Question 1.
Evaluate ∫\(\frac{(2 x-5) e^{2 x}}{(2 x-3)^{3}}\) dx
Or
Evaluate ∫\(\frac{\left(x^{3}+8\right)(x-1)}{x^{2}-2 x+4}\) dx
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 2.
A random sample of 12 families in one city showed an average weekly food expenditure of ₹ 1380 with a standard deviation of ₹ 100 and a random sample of 15 families in another city showed an average weekly food expenditure of ₹ 1320 with a standard deviation of ₹ 120. Test, whether the difference between the two means is significant at a level of significance of 0.01.
Or
A population consisting of 6 units 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 9. Find 95% confidence interval for estimating the population mean.
Answer:
Given, n1 = 12, n2 = 15, x̄1 = 1380, x̄2 = 1320, s1 = ₹ 100 and s2 = ₹ 120

Consider, the null hypothesis that there is no significant difference in the mean expenditure of the families in the two cities.
We know that test statistics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 2
Here, degree of freedom v =12 +15 – 2 = 25 From v = 25, test statistics, t0.01 = 2.485. Here, the calculated value t is less than the table value. Therefore, the null hypothesis is accepted. Hence, the difference between the two means is not significant.
Or
Mean, x̄ = \(\frac{24}{6}\) = 4
Now, S2 = \(\frac{1}{n – 1}\)Σ(xi – x̄)2
= \(\frac{1}{5}\)[(-3)2 + (-2)2 + (-1)2 + 02 + (1)2 + (5)2]
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) [9 + 4 + 1 + 1 + 25] = \(\frac{1}{5}\) × 40 = 8
∴S = √8 = 2√1
∴ Point estimate for a is 2√2.
∴ 95% confidence interval is
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 3

Question 3.
A man borrows ₹ 30000 at 12% per annum compound interest from a bank and promises to pay off the loans in 20 annual installments beginning at the end of first year. What is the annual payment necessary? [given (1.12)20 = 9.638]
Answer:
Let ₹ R be the annual payment and ₹ P be the present worth.
Given, P = ₹ 30000, i = \(\frac{12}{100}\) = 0.12 and n = 20

We know that,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 4
Hence, the annual payment should be ₹ 4016.76.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 4.
Construct 4-yearly moving averages from the following data
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 5
Answer:
Computation of 4-yearly moving averages
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 6

Question 5.
The value of a machine purchased 2 yr ago, depreciates at the annual rate of 8%. If its present value is ₹ 85100, find its value, when it was purchased.
Answer:
∴ Present value = Value of 2 yr ago × (1 – i)2
⇒ 85100 = Value of 2 yr ago (1 – 0.08 )2
⇒ 85100 = Value of 2 yr ago × (0.92 )2
⇒ Value of 2 yr ago = \(\frac{85100}{(0.92)^{2}}=\frac{85100}{0.8464}\)
= ₹ 100543.4783

Question 6.
Two tailors A and B, earn ₹ 300 and ₹ 400 per day respectively. A can stitch 6 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers while B can stitch 10 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers per day. To find how many days should each of them work and if it is desired to produce at least 60 shirts and 32 pairs of trousers at a minimum labour cost, formulate this as an LPP.
Answer:
The given data can be summarised as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 7
Let tailor A and tailor B works for x days and y days, respectively.
Then, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
∵ Minimum number of shirts = 60
∴ 6x + 10y ≥60 => 3x + 5y ≥ 30

Minimum number of trousers = 32
∴ 4x + 4y ≥ 32
⇒ x + y ≥ 8

Let Z be the total labour cost.
Then, Z = 300x + 400y
So, the given LPP reduces to Z = 300x + 400y
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 5y ≥ 30 and x + y ≥ 8

Section – B [12 Marks]

Question 7.
If the marginal revenue functions of a commodity is MR = 9 – 6x2 + 2x, find the total revenue and the corresponding demand functions.
Or
The marginal cost of a product is a constant multiple of number of units (x) produced. Find the total cost and the average cost function, if the fixed costs is ₹ 2000 and cost of producing 20 units is ₹ 3000.
Answer:
We have, MR = 9 – 6x2 + 2x
∴ \(\frac{d R}{d x}\) = MR
dR = MRdx
⇒ ∫dR = ∫MRdx [integrating both sides]
⇒ ∫dR = ∫(9 – 6x2 + 2x)dx
⇒ R = 9x – 2x3 + x2 + K ………..(i)

When, x = 0, we have R = 0, then K = 0
∵ R = 9x – 2x3 + x2 [from Eq. (i)]
If p is the price per emit when x units are sold, then
⇒ p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
⇒ p = \(\frac{9 x-2 x^{3}+x^{2}}{x}\)
p = 9 – 2x2 + x
Hence, demand functions is p = 9 – 2x2 + x.
Or
Let MC = kx, where k is a constant.
We know that,
dC = (MC)dx
∫ dC = ∫(kx)dx
⇒ ∫dC = ∫(kx)dx [integrating both sides]
C = k ∫xdx = k\(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + k

where, k is a constant of integration.
Since, C = 2000, when x = 0
∴ k = 2000
Also, given that, C = 3000, when x = 20
3000 = k\(\frac{400}{2}\) + 2000
⇒ 200k = 1000 ⇒ k = 5
Thus, C = \(\frac{5 x^{2}}{2}\) + 2000 and AC = \(\frac{5 x}{2}+\frac{2000}{x}\) [∵AC = \(\frac{C}{x}\)]

Question 8.
Samples of sales in similar shops in towns A and B regarding a new product yielded the following information.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 8
Is there any evidence of difference in sales in the two towns? [given t18 (0.05) = 2.10]
Answer:
Consider, null hypothesis H0 : There is no significant difference in sales in similar shops in towns A and B, and alternate hypothesis H1 : Sales in similar shops in towns A and B are not same.

Test statistics
t = \(\frac{\bar{x}_{1}-\bar{x}_{2}}{S} \times \sqrt{\frac{n_{1} n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}}}\)
where S = \(\frac{n_{1} s_{1}^{2}+n_{2} s_{2}^{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}-2}\)

Given, n1 = 11, x̄ = 3.45, Σxi = 38, Σxi2 = 228
n2 = 11, ȳ = 4.44, Σyi = 40, Σyi2 = 222
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 9
Here, degree of freedom,
v = n1 + n2 – 2 = 11 + 9 – 2 = 18

Since, calculated value of t(- 0.784) is less than tabulated value of t[t18(0.05) = 2.10], therefore the null hypothesis is accepted a 5% level of significance. Hence, there is no difference is sales in two towns.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 9.
A firm sets aside a sum of ₹ 10000 annually for 15 yr to pay-off a debenture issue of ₹ 220000. If the fund accumulates at 6% per annum, find the surplus after the full redemption of the debenture issue, [given (1.06)15 = 2.3965]
Answer:
Given, payment(R)= 10000
Number of periods(n) =15
Rate of interest (i) =6% = 0.06
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 10
∴ The surplus = ₹(23.275 – 220000) = ₹ 12750

Question 10.
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares to the following data on sales (₹ in lakh) for the period 2005-2012.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 11
Also,
(i) calculate the trend values from 2005 to 2012.
(ii) what will be predicted sales for 2015, assuming that the same rate of change continues?
Answer:
Here, n = 8(even)
So, origin is mean of two middle years
i.e. \(\frac{2008+2009}{2}\) = 2008.5
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 12
Since, Σx = 0,
a = \(\frac{\Sigma y}{n}=\frac{1052}{8}\) = 131.5 and
b = \(\frac{\Sigma x y}{\Sigma x^{2}}=\frac{1232}{168}\) = 7.333
Hence, yt = 131.5 + 7.333x
For the year 2015, x would be 13, therefore
y2015 =131.5+7.333(13)
= 131.5 + 95.329 = 226.829 = ₹ 226.829

Section – C [16 Marks]

Question 11.
Amit has taken a loan of ₹ 1000000 with interest rate 11% per annum for the period of 15 yr. Calculate (reducing) EMI for the above data, [given (1.0091)180 = 5.1068]
Answer:
We have, loan amount(P) = ₹ 1000000
Interest rate = 11% (per annum)
∴ Monthly Interest Rate
i = \(\frac{11 \%}{12 \text { months }}\)
= \(\frac{0.11}{12}\) = 0.0091

Loan period (n) =15 yr
=15 × 12 = 180 months
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 13
Hence, EMI is ₹ 11314.94 (approximately).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 12.
A bond has a face value of ₹ 10000 and matures in 15 yr at par. The nominal interest is 7%. What is the price of bond that will yield on effective interest of 8%. [given, (1.08)-15 = 0.3152]
Answer:
We have,
F= Face value = ₹ 10000
n = Number of periods = 15
I = Annual yield rate = = 008
R = Annual dividend = ₹ (7 × 1oooo) = ₹ 700
C = Maturity value = Face value = ₹ 10000

Let V be the purchase price of the bond, then
V= R\(\left(\frac{1-(1+i)^{-n}}{i}\right)\) + C(1+ i)-n
V=700\(\left(\frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-15}}{0.08}\right)\) + 10000(1 + 0.08)-15
V = \(\frac{700}{0.08}\)(1 – (108)-15) + 10000 (1.08)-15
V = \(\frac{70000}{8}\)(1 – 0.3152) + 10000(0.3152)
⇒ V = \(\frac{70000}{8}\)(0.6848) + 3152
V = 5992 + 3152 = 9114
Hence, the purchase price of bond is ₹ 9144

Question 13.
A decorative item dealer deals in two items A and B. He has ₹ 15000 to invest and a space to store at the most 80 pieces. Item A costs him ₹ 300 and item B costs him ₹ 150. He can sell items A and B at respective, profits of ₹ 50 and ₹ 28. Assuming, he can sell all he buys, formulate the linear programming problem in order to maximise his profit and solve it graphically.
Or
An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of ₹ m is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of ₹ n is made on each economy class ticket, where m and nare obtained on multiplying first term and common ratio by 100 of the geometric series 10,60,360,… times. The airline reserves atleast 20 seats for executive class. However, atleast 4 times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine, how many tickets of each type must be sold in order to maximise the profit for the airline. What is the maximum profit?
Answer:
Let the number of items of the type A and Bbe x and y, respectively. Then, the required LPP is Maximise Z = 50x + 28 y Subject to the constraints,
x + y ≤ 80, 300x + 150y ≤ 15000
or
2x + y ≤ 100 and x, y ≥ 0

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
x + y = 80 ……(i)
2x + y = 100 ……..(ii)

Table for line x + y = 80 is:

x 0 80
y 80 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 80) and (80, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 80, we get
0+0 ≤ 80
⇒ 0 ≤ 80 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line 2x + y = 100

x 0 50
y 100 0

So, it passes through the points (0,100) and (50, 0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + y ≤ 100,

we get
2 (0) + 0 ≤ 100
⇒ 0 ≤ 100 (which is true)

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 20 and y = 60

So, the point of intersection is (20, 60).
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 14
The feasible region is OBPC whose comer points are 0(0,0), B(50,0), P(20,60) and C(0, 80).

Corner Points Value of Z = 50x + 28y
0(0,0) 0
C (0,80) 2240
P(20, 60) 2680 (Maximum)
B (50, 0) 2500

From the above table, the maximum value of Z is 2680 at P(20, 60), i.e. when 20 items of type A and 60 items of type B are purchased and sold. He get maximum profit.
Or
Given geometric series is 10, 60, 360,…
Here, first term (a) = 10 and common ratio
r = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6

According to the given condition,
m = a × 100 and n = r × 100
∴ m = 10 × 100 and n = 6 × 100
⇒ m = 1000 and n = 600

Let x passengers travel by executive class and y passengers travel by economy class.
We construct the following table:

Class Number of tickets Porfit (in ₹)
Executive x 1000x
Economy y 600y
Total x + y 1000x + 600y

So, our problem is to maximise
Z = 1000x + 600y …(i)
subject to constraints
x + y ≤ 200 …(ii)
x ≥ 20 …(iii)
y – 4x ≥ 0 or y ≥ 4x …(iv)
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 …(v)

Table for line x + y = 200 is

x 0 200
y 200 0

So, line passes through the points (0,200) and (200,0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y < 200, we get 0 + 0 ≤ 200 ⇒0 ≤ 200, which is true.

So, the half plane is towards the origin. Table for line y = Ax is

x 0 20
y 0 80

So, line passes through the points (0,0) and (20,80). On putting (10, 0) in the inequality y > Ax, we get
0 ≥ 4 × 10 ⇒ 0 ≥ 40, which is not true.
So, the half plane is towards Y-axis.

Now, draw the graph of the line x = 20.
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x ≥ 20, we get
0 ≥ 20, which is not true.

So, the half plane is away from the origin. Also, x,y ≥ 0, so the region lies in the I quadrant.
On solving Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get A(20,80), B(40,160) and C (20,180).

∴ Feasible region is ABC A
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 15
The comer points of the feasible region are A(20,80), B(40,160) and C(20,180).

The value of Z at the comer points are given below:

Corner points Value of Z = 1000x + 600y
A(20, 80) Z = 1000 x 20 + 600 x 80 = 68000
B(40,160) Z = 1000 x 40 + 600×160 = 136000(Maximum)
C(20,180) Z = 1000 x 20 + 600×180 = 128000

Thus, the maximum value of Z is 136000 at B(40,160).
Thus, 40 tickets of executive class and 160 tickets of economy class should be sold to maximise the profit and the maximum profit is ₹ 136000.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Case Based/Data Based

Question 14.
The order of a differential equation is the order of the highest order derivative appearing in the equation and the power of the highest order derivative is a degree.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions.
(i) Find the order of the differential equation
\(\left(\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{3}\) + 5\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{5}\) – 5y = 0
Answer:
Given, differential equation is
\(\left(\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{3}\) + 5\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{5}\) – 5y = 0
Clearly, the highest order derivative present in the given differential equation is 3.

(ii) Find the sum of the order and degree of the differential equation
\(\sqrt[4]{\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}}=\sqrt{3 \frac{d y}{d x}}\)
Answer:
Given, a differential equation is
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 16
Here, the highest order derivative present in the given differential equation is 2, whose degree is 1.
∴ Required sum of order and degree = 2 + 1 = 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
Highlight the most important aspects of present Indo-Israeli relationships. (2)
Or
Why ASEAN was formed? Explain.
Answer:
Indo-Israeli relationship has reached new heights over the last few years.

  • Israel is the second most important defense partner of India after Russia.
  • The two nations have started cooperation in various fields like cultural exchange, security and defense, counter terrorism, space research, water and energy and agricultural development.
  • Centers of Excellence that Israel has opened up, cooperation in the field of agriculture can reach new heights.
  • Water Harvesting is also an area where Israel stands out as a unique partner of India.

Or
The causes which led to the formation of ASEAN were

  • The South East Asian Nations suffered the economic and political consequences of repeated colonialisms before and during the Second World War.
  • The end of the Second World War confronted problems of nation-building, the ravages of poverty and economic backwardness and the pressure to align with one great power or another during the Cold War.

Hence, South East Asian countries established the Association for South East Asian Nations in order to solve the issues of South East Asian Countries.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 2.
Write any four objectives of BRICS. (2)
Answer:
The objective of the BRICS can be summarised below
(i) The BRICS seeks to deepen, broaden and intensify cooperation within the grouping and among the individual countries for more sustainable, equitable and mutually beneficial development.

(ii) BRICS takes into consideration each members growth, development and poverty objectives to ensure that relations are built on the respective country’s economic strength and to avoid competition where possible.

(iii) To enhance and diversify trade and investment cooperation that support value addition among the BRICS countries.

(iv) To enhance market access opportunities and facilitate market interlinkages.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 3.
What effect does globalisation have on the sovereignty of nations? (2)
Answer:
The impact of changing role of state in developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows

  • Globalisation reduces state capacity i.e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
  • Market becomes the prime determinant to down economic and social priorities.
  • Multinational companies effect on decision taken by governments because their own interest fulfillment depends on government policies.
  • The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.

Question 4.
List some chellenges to democracy in Nepal. (2)
Answer:
The three challanges to democracy in Nepal are

  • Maoists are spread throughout Nepal and this group believes in armed insurrection.
  • Restoration of Parliament and elections of a popular government and writing of a constitution of Nepal.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 5.
Explain the causes of the Bihar student movement in 1974, as well as Jayaprakash Narayan’s role in it? (2)
Answer:
Reasons for the students movement of 1974 in Bihar are following

  • Rising prices of food grains, cooking oil and other essential commodities and corruption in high places.
  • There was demand for fresh elections to the State Legislature.
    Role played by Jayaprakash Narayan in this movement is stated in the points below
  • He demanded the dismissal of the Congress Government in Bihar and gave a call for total revolution in the social, economic and political spheres.
  • In 1975, he led a peoples March to the Parliament.

Question 6.
What were the two major concerns confronting Indian politics in the 1990s? (2)
Answer:
Some of the important challenges faced by the Indian politics during the 1990s’ are discussed below:
(i) Ayodhya Dispute This dispute arose due to the demolition of Babri Masjid and rise of Hindutva Politics. A number of events resulted in the demolition of disputed structure known as Babri Masjid in December 1992.

This event brought various changes in the politics of the country and intensified debates on the nature of Indian nationalism and secularism. These developments led to rise of BJP and politics of Hindutva.

(ii) Mandal Issue The rise of Mandal issue is one of the major challenges that Indian politics has faces during the 1990’s. The new National Front Government in 1990 implemented the recommendation of the Mandal Commission.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

It held that jobs in Central Government should be reserved for the OBC’s. This caused violent anti-Mandal protests in different parts of the country. The dispute was evident among the supporters and the opponents of OBC’s reservation which came to be known as Mandal Issue. This issue helped in shaping the Indian politics since 1989.

Question 7.
Examine the political influence of India’s Other Backward Classes. (2)
Answer:
The impact of political rise of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in India is

(i) When the support for the Congress among many sections of the backward castes had declined, this created a space for non-Congress parties to get the support of OBC’s.

(ii) Many of the constituents of the Janata Party like the Bhartiya Kranti Dal and Samyukta Socialist Party had a powerful rural base among some sections of the OBC.

(iii) In the 1980’s, the decisions of the National Front Government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of the OBC.

(iv) 1980’s saw the emergence of many parties like Bahujan Samaj Party that sought better opportunities for OBC’s in education, employment, adequate representation in administration.

Question 8.
“The South Asian experience of democracy has expanded the global imagination of democracy”. Explain the statement with examples. (2)
Answer:
“The South Asian experience of democracy has expanded the global imagination of democracy”. This statement can be explained by following examples people of South Asian countries participate in the aspiration of democracy.

There is widespread support for democracy in all these countries. Ordinary citizens, rich as well as poor and belonging to different view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

For example

  • India is the largest democratic country in the world. People of South Asian countries prefer democracy over any other system of governance and believe that democracy is suitable for their country.
  • There was a monarchy in Nepal but at present there is democracy.

Section B

Question 9.
Explain any four factors that contribute to ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. (4)
Answer:
The factors that contributed to the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka were

(i) The bone of contention was the region of Ceylon which was represented by the majority Sinhala group. They opposed the migration and settlements of Tamilians from India in their region.

(ii) According to the group, Sri Lanka was only for Sinhala people and not for Tamils. This attitude of Sinhala people led to the establishment of Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), a militant, organisation, which desired for a separate country.

(iii) There was a pressure on the Government of India by the Tamils of Indian origin to intervene in the matter. Hence, the Government of India tried to negotiate with the Government of Sri Lanka on Tamil question.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

But direct involvement was in the year 1987. India conceded to sent troops to Sri CD Lanka for the preservation of relations between Tamils and Sri Lanka Government. Eventually, the Indian troops got into a fight with LTTE.

(iv) The presence of Indian troops was not liked by many Sri Lankans and hence in 1989, the Indian. Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective.

Question 10.
When did India’s long history of coalition politics begin? Also, what is the rationale behind it? (4)
Answer:
The long period of coalition politics began in India in 1989 because
(i) No political party able to get majority despite of Congress being the largest party in Lok Sabha elections. So in 1977, the Janta party formed government with the support of many non-Congress parties.

(ii) United Front Government was formed under Prime Ministership of Chandra Shekar, then under HD Deve Gowda and finally IK Gujral with the outside support of BJP and leftists.

(iii) In 1999 to 2004, NDA run the government under Prime Ministership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It was the first coalition government which completed its full term.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

(iv) In 2004 to 2014, UPA run the government under Dr. Manmohan Singh, it is another coalition government which run for two terms. Thus, coalition governments were not stable in earlier times, but after 1999 they emerged as a stable governments.

Question 11.
In an outline Political Map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify the states and write down the names of the ruling political parties of those states. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 1

Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State Ruling Political Party
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the State Name of the State
(i) A Bihar The JDU and BJP
(ii) B Uttar Pradesh BJP
(iii) C Gujarat BJP
(iv) D Tamil Nadu AIADMK

Section C

Question 12.
What was the reason behind declaration of National Emergency by the then PM Indira Gandhi? Write any four major consequences of National Emergency. (6)
Or
What is Democratic Upsurge? Discuss briefly the three democratic upsurges in post-independence history of India.
Answer:
On 12th June, 1975 an issue was raised in which ruling of the Allahabad High Court declared Indira Gandhi’s election invalid. This petition was filed by Raj Narain, a socialist challenging Indira Gandhi’s election as invalid as she used government servants for her election campaign.

The High Court declared her election as invalid so legally she was no more an MP and therefore, could not remain the PM unless once again elected as an MP within six months.
A political turmoil emerged after the Allahabad High Court decision.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

The opposition parties led by JP Narayan organised a massive demonstration in Ram Leela grounds on 25th June, 1975 for resignation of Indira Gandhi. Jayaprakash Narayan announced a nationwide Satyagraha for her resignation and asked the army, the police and government employees not to obey illegal immoral orders.

Indira Gandhi’s government responded to this crisis by declaring a state of Emergency. On 25th June, 1975, the government argued that there was a threat of internal disturbances and therefore, she imposed Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution.

The four major consequences of national emergency were

(i) Government suspended the freedom of Press. Press Censorship was imposed on newspapers and they were asked to get prior approval for all content to be published.

(ii) Fundamental Rights and Right of Citizen to move to the court for restoring their Fundamental Rights had also been suspended under the Emergency.

(iii) The government made extensive use of preventive detention. Under preventive detention, people were arrested and detained not because they have committed offence but on the apprehension that they may commit an offence. Moreover, arrested persons were not informed about the reason of their arrest and also could not challenge their arrest through habeas corpus petitions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

(iv) The government also passed certain amendments to the Constitution curbing powers of judiciary and President. It even extended tenure of the Parliament from 5 to 6 years.
Or
Increasing participation of the people in the democratic politics of the country is broadly characterised as democratic upsurge. Based on this principle, social scientists have characterised three democratic upsurges in post-independence history of India.

(i) The first democratic upsurge was based on the participation of Indian adult voters to the democratic politics both at the centre and in states. Falsifying the Western myth that the success of democracy requires modernisation, urbanisation, education and access to media, the successful holding of elections to both Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies all across states.

(ii) During the 1980’s, the increasing political participation of the lower classes of the society such as SCs, STs and OBCs has been interpreted as second democratic upsurge by Yogendra Yadav. This – participation has made Indian politics more accommodative and accessible for these classes.

(iii) The era of Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation from the early 1990s is attributed to the emergence of a competitive market society encompassing all important sectors of economy, society and polity thus paving way for the third democratic upsurge.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

The third democratic upsurge represents a competitive electoral market which is based not on the principle of survival of the best but rather the survival of the ablest.

Question 13.
Evaluate the cultural consequences of globalisation. (6)
Or
What is worldwide interconnectedness? What are its components?
Answer:
Cultural consequences of globalisation affects our food, clothes and thinking. But sometimes external influence simply enlarge our choices and sometimes they modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional norms. The examples are

(i) The burger is no substitute for a masala dosa and therefore does not pose any real challenge.

(ii) In the same way blue jeans can go well with a pure cotton khadi kurta. Here the outcome of outside influences is a new combination that is unique. This clothing combination has been exported back to the country that gave us blue jeans.

(iii) Popularity of Hollywood movie throughout the world has resulted in adoption of latest techniques of film production and use of computer generated images and graphics.

(iv) The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves it imprint on a less powerful society, and the society begins to behave like a dominant power which it wishes to be.

(v) This is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the whole of humanity for it leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire globe. So we can say that globalisation broadens our cultural outlook and promotes cultural homogenisation.
Or
Globalisation is defined as worldwide interconnectedness. Globalisation fundamentally means the flow of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world.
The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’, that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

It is a multi-dimensional concept as it has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished. The impact of globalisation is vastly uneven because it affects some societies more than others and some parts of some societies more than others.

The major components of worldwide interconnectedness i.e. globalisation are Technological Advancement Technology remains an important factor with regard to globalisation.

The technological inventions such as telegraph, telephone and the microchip has revolutionised communication between various global factors. Thus, technological advancements has been most significant component of worldwide interconnectedness.

Free Flow of Capital and Investment: It has also been the key component of rising worldwide interconnectedness. Flow of FDI across the world has transform the world into a interconnected global market.

Migration and Movement of People: It has also been responsible for growing worldwide interconnectedness. Technological advancement has reduced the physical distances and increased the migration and movement of people from one country to another.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Sharing of Ideas and Knowledge: It has also been responsible for increasing interconnectedness. With technological advancement, ideas and knowledge are rapidly moving from one part to another parts of world.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
From the following information, calculate the amount of subscriptions received by Happy Sports Club during the year ended 31st March, 2020.

Particulars 2018-19 (₹) 2019-20 (₹)
Advance subscription 6,000 9,000
Outstanding subscription 9,000 12,000

The Club has 2,000 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 1,000. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 1

Question 2.
State the difference between ‘Firm’s Debts’ and ‘Private Debts’ on the basis of:
(A) Liability
(B) Application of firm’s property (2)
Answer:
Difference between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Partnership Firm

Basis of Difference Firm’s Debts Private Debts
(A) Liability All the partners are jointly or individually liable for repayment of liability. The liability of repayment lies with the partner from his personal assets.
(B) Application of firm’s property The firm’s property is first applied for settling the firm’s debts. Concerned partner’s share in the distributable profit is used for private debts.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 3.
In a partnership firm Sushi Limited, Suman, Sunita and Shivani were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Shivani retires from the firm and her capital after making the necessary adjustments was ₹ 10,00,000. It was decided that Shivani be paid ₹ 11,20,000 in full settlement of her claim.

Record the necessary journal entry in the books of Sushi Limited and also show your workings clearly. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 2
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Suman, Sunita and Shivani = 3 : 2 : 1
New Profit Sharing Ratio and Gaining Ratio of Suman and Sunita will be 3 : 2, as no information provided of future profit sharing ratio between Suman and Sunita.

(2) Calculation of Shivani’s Share of Goodwill:
Shivani’s Share of Goodwill = Amount Paid – Shivani’s Capital after Adjustments
= ₹ 11,20,000 – ₹ 10,00,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
which will be compensated by Suman and Sunita in their Gaining Ratio, i.e., 3 : 2.
Suman will compensate = ₹ 1,20,000 × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = ₹ 72,000
Sunita will compensate = ₹ 1,20,000 × \(\frac{2}{5}\) = ₹ 48,000

Question 4.
Extract of Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31st March, 2020 of Rajdhani Club are given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 3
Additional Information:
(i) The Club has 500 members each paying ₹ 800 as annual subscription.
(ii) Subscription outstanding as on 31st March, 2019 were ₹ 32,000.
Calculate the amount of subscriptions to be shown as income in the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March, 2020 and show the relevant data in the Balance Sheet of the Club as at 31st March, 2020.
OR
How the following items for the year ended 31st March, 2021 will be presented in the financial statements of Feather Club:

Receipts Debit Amount (₹) Credit Amount  (₹)
Tournament Fund 3,00,000
Tournament Fund Investments 3,00,000
Income from Tournament Fund Investments 36,000
Tournament Expenses 24,000

Additional Information:
Interest Accrued on Tournament Fund Investments ₹ 12,000. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 4

Working Notes:
(1) Total members are 500, each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 800
Hence, total subscription receivable during the year 2019-20 (500 × ₹ 800) ₹ 4,00,000
Less: Amount of subscription received during the year for 2019-20 ₹ 3,72,000
Outstanding subscription for the year 2019-20 ₹ 28,000

(2) The outstanding subscription for 2018-19 is ₹ 32,000 out of which ₹ 12,000 has been received. Hence the balance of ₹ 20,000 (₹ 32,000 – ₹ 12,000) is still in arrear for 2018-19. It will be shown in the Balance Sheet on 31st March, 2020 on assets side.
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 5.
In a partnership firm ‘Lakshya Limited’, Lalit, Krishna and Gagandeep were partners with capitals of ₹ 12,00,000, ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 4,00,000 respectively. They shared profits and losses of the firm in the ratio of their capitals.

On 31st May, 2021 Gagandeep died, and the firm closes its books of accounts on 31st March every year. According to their partnership deed, Gagandeep’s representatives would be entitled to get share in the interim profits of the firm on the basis of sales. Sales and profit for the year 2020-21 amounted to ₹ 32,00,000 and ₹ 9,60,000 respectively and sales from 1st April, 2021 to 31st May 2021 amounted to ₹ 6,00,000. The rate of profit to sales remained constant during these two years. You are required to:
(A) Calculate Gagandeep’s share in profit.
(B) Pass journal entry to record Gagandeep’s share in profit. (3)
Answer:
(A) Sales for the year 2020-21 = ₹ 32,00,000
Profit for the year 2020-21 = ₹ 9,60,000
Sales from 1st April, 2021 to 31st May 2021 = ₹ 6,00,000
Ratio of Profit to Sales = \(\frac{9,60,000}{32,00,000}\) × 100 = 30%
Profit upto Gagandeep’s date of death = ₹ 6,00,000 × 30% = ₹ 1,80,000
Gagandeep’s Share of Profit upto his date of death = ₹ 1,80,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\) = ₹ 30,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 6

Question 6.
On 1st April, 2021, Karishma Limited issued 16,000, 7% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%, redeemable after six years.
The amount per debenture was payable as follows:
On Application – ₹ 80 per debenture
On Allotment – Balance amount
The debentures were fully subscribed and all money was duly received.
Pass necessary journal entries for the issue of debentures.
OR
On 1st April, 2021, Sharma & Verma Limited took a loan of ₹ 50,00,000 from Canara Bank giving ₹ 60,00,000; 12% Debentures as collateral security.
Pass journal entries in the books of the company regarding issue of debentures, if any, and show this loan in the Balance Sheet of the company as at 31st March, 2022. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 7
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 8
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 9
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 10

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 7.
R, S and T were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2 respectively. On 31st March, 2018, their Balance Sheet stood as:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 11
T died on 1st August, 2018. It was agreed that:
(i) Goodwill be valued at two and a half years’ purchase of average of last four years’ profits which were:
2014-15 : ₹ 65,000; 2015-16 : ₹ 60,000; 2016-17 : ₹ 80,000 and 2017-18 : ₹ 75,000.

(ii) Machinery be valued at ₹ 1,40,000; Patents be valued at ₹ 40,000; Leasehold be valued at ₹ 1,25,000 on 1st August, 2018.

(iii) For the purpose of calculating T’s share in the profits of 2018-19, the profits in 2018-19 should be taken to have accrued on the same scale as in 2017-18.

(iv) A sum of ₹ 21,000 to be paid immediately to the Executors of T and the balance to be paid in four equal half-yearly instalments together with interest @ 10% p.a.
Prepare T’s Executors’ Account.
OR
Aloknath and Bipinchand were partners in AB Traders Limited sharing profits equally. They dissolved the firm on 1st April, 2021. Bipinchand was assigned the responsibility to realise the assets and pay the liabilities at a remuneration of ₹ 10,000 including expenses. Balance Sheet of the firm as on that date was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 12
The firm was dissolved on following terms:
(i) Aloknath was to pay his wife’s loan.
(ii) Debtors realised ₹ 30,000.
(iii) Bipinchand was to take investments at an agreed value of ₹ 26,000.
(iv) Creditors and Bills Payable were payable after two months but were paid immediately at a discount of 15% p.a.
(v) Bills Receivable were received allowing 5% rebate.
(vi) A Debtor previously written off as Bad Debt paid ₹ 15,000.
(vii) An unrecorded asset realised ₹ 10,000.
Prepare Realisation Account and Partners’ Capital Account at the time of dissolution of AB Traders Limited. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 13
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of goodwill:
Goodwill = Average Profit × Number of Year’s Purchase
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 14
Average Profit = \(\frac{65,000+60,000+80,000+75,000}{4}\)
= \(\frac{2,80,000}{4}\) = ₹ 70,000
Goodwill of Firm = Average Profit × Number of Year’s Purchase
= ₹ 70,000 × 2.5
= ₹ 1,75,000

(2) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of R, S and T = 5 : 3 : 2
T died.
> New Profit Sharing Ratio of R and S = 5 : 3 and
Gaining Ratio of R and S = 5 : 3

(3) Adjustment of Goodwill:
T’s Share in Goodwill = ₹ 1,75,000 × \(\frac{2}{10}\) = ₹ 35,000
This share of goodwill will be compensated by R and S in their gaining ratio, i.e., 5 : 3.
R will compensate = 35,000 × \(\frac{5}{8}\) = ₹ 21,875
S will compensate = 35,000 × \(\frac{3}{8}\) = ₹ 13,125

(4) Calculation of T’s Share of Profit upto his date of his death:
Profit of Firm for 2017-18 = ₹ 75,000
T’s Share of Profit upto his date of his death = ₹ 75,000 × \(\frac{2}{10} \times \frac{4}{12}\) = ₹ 5,000

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(5)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 15
(6)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 16
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 17

Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Amount Paid to Creditors:
Amount Paid to Creditors = [₹ 40,000 – (₹ 40,000 × \(\frac{15}{100} \times \frac{2}{12}\))]
= ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 1,000 = ₹ 39,000

(2) Calculation of Amount Paid to Bills Payable:
Amount Paid to Bills Payable = [₹40,000 – (₹ 40,000 × \(\frac{15}{100} \times \frac{2}{12}\))]
= ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 1,000
= ₹ 39,000

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 8.
Tetra Packers Limited, a packers and movers company has an equity share capital of ₹ 60,00,000. The company needed funds for diversification. The finance manager of the company had the following two options:

Option 1: Issue ₹ 30,00,000,10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each to the public at 5% discount, redeemable at a premium of 10% after six years.
Option 2: Borrow ₹ 30,00,000 @ 15% p.a. from the bank payable in four equal quarterly instalments starting from the end of the fourth year.

After all the discussions, on 1st April, 2021, the board of directors of the company opted for Option 1, to increase the return to the shareholders. The Balance Sheet of the company on 1st April, 2021 shows a balance of ₹ 3,50,000 in Securities Premium Reserve which the company decided to use for writing off the loss on issue of debentures.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the number of debentures issued to the public.
(B) Pass journal entry for receipt of application money of debentures.
(C) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of allotment of debentures.
(D) Pass journal entry to write off loss on issue of debentures.
(E) Prepare Loss on Issue of Debentures Account. (5)
Answer:
(A) Number of Debentures Issued = \(\frac{₹ 30,00,000}{₹(100-4)}\) = 31,250
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 18
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 19

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Accounts of Samay Cricket Club and the additional information given, prepare the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending 31st March, 2020:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 20
Additional Information:
(i) Salary outstanding is ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Opening Balance of Stock of Postage and Stationery and Cricket goods is ₹ 750 and ₹ 3,210 respectively. Closing stock of the same is ₹ 900 and ₹ 2,800 respectively.
(iii) Outstanding subscription for the year 2018-19 is ₹ 6,600 and for the year 2019-20 is
₹ 8,000. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 21

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

PART-B
Option-1
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
Identify the following transactions as belonging to Operating Activities, Investing Activities, Financing Activities or Cash and Cash Equivalents:
(A) Income tax paid
(B) Interest on Debentures (2)
Answer:
(A) Income tax paid – Operating Activities
(B) Interest on Debentures – Financing Activities

Question 11.
Prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss from the following information:

Particulars 31st March, 2021 31st March, 2020
Revenue from Operations ₹ 5,00,000 ₹ 3,20,000
Purchases of Stock-in-Trade ₹ 4,50,000 ₹ 2,50,000
Changes in Inventories of Stock-in-Trade ₹ 50,000 ₹ 50,000
Other Expenses (% of Cost of Revenue from Operations) 8% 10%
Tax 30% 30%

OR
From the following Balance Sheet of Surga Trading Limited as at 31st March, 2021, prepare Common Size Balance Sheet:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 22
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 24
* Because of Loss Tax Will not be levied
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 25
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 26

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 12.
Following are the Balance Sheets of Solar Power Ltd. as at 31st March, 2020 and 2019:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 27
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 28
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 29
Additional Information:
During the year, a piece of machinery costing ₹ 48,000 on which accumulated depreciation was ₹ 32,000 was sold for ₹ 12,000.
Prepare Cash Flow Statement. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 30
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 31

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 32
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 33

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
“SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 3.8% of the global economy”. Inspite of that there are limitations of SAARC. Discuss. (2)
Or
What were the impacts of China’s New Economic Policy?
Answer:

  • SAARC is growing at a slow pace due to the political differences among its member states.
  • Conflicts between India and Pakistan led to bilateral issues like Kashmir issue.
  • India’s neighbours feared that India to dominate them by influencing at the political and societal level.
  • SAARC members in majority belong to developing or least developing countries which creates insufficiency of funds.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Or
The impact of New Economic Policy of China were as follows

  • The new economic policies helped the Chinese economy to deal with stagnation.
  • Privatisation of agriculture resulted in rise of agricultural production and rural incomes which helped the rural economy growth at a faster pace.
  • The new trading laws and creation of Special Economic Zones attracted foreign players and foreign trade.
  • China has become an important place for Foreign Direct Investment in the world. Now, China has large foreign exchange reserves which allow it to make big investments in other countries. China’s accession to the WTO in 2001 also helped its opening to the outside world.

Question 2.
What are the factors which affect the stability of democracy in Pakistan? (2)
Answer:
Several factors that led to Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy were as follows

  • Social dominance of military, clergy and landowning aristocracy were responsible for the frequent overthrow of elected government and establishment of military governments.
  • The pro-military groups became more powerful over India-Pakistan’s conflict. These groups are against the principles of political parties and democracy.
  • There has been a strong sense of pro-democracy sentiment in the country.
  • Absence of genuine international support for democratic rule has further encouraged the dominance of military. Like for instance, USA and other Western countries have encouraged the military’s authoritarian rule for their own reasons.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 3.
Although India and Bangladesh has a good relation over the past few years but there are few difference between them. Discuss. (2)
Answer:
Further, the Government of India has differences with Bangladesh due to the following reasons

  • Illegal immigration of Bangladeshi people majorly in the North-East and West Bengal which destablise the demographic dividend.
  • Bangladesh’s support for anti-India Islamic fundamentalist groups.
  • Bangladesh’s refusal to allow India troops to move through its territory to North-Eastern India.
  • Its decision not to export natural gas to India or allow Myanmar to do so through Bangladeshi territory.

Question 4.
Discuss the relationship of India and Maldives. (2)
Answer:
India and Maldives Shares a warm and cordial relationship. In November, 1988 when some Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka attacked the Maldives, the Indian Air Force and Navy reacted quickly to the Maldives request to help and stop the invasion. India has also contributed to wards the island’s economic development, tourism and fisheries.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 5.
What is meant by ‘Era of Coalition’ in India?What circumstances led to this change and how? (2)
Answer:
After 1989, the emergence of several political parties was in such a way that no single party secured a clear majority in the Lok Sabha and therefore the era of coalition government started at the centre. This change come due to the following reasons

(1) In the election in 1989 the ruling party ‘Congress Party’ was defeated but no single party got the majority of seats to form the government. The Congress Party decided to sit in the opposition.

(2) The National Front an alliance of Janta party decided to form the government with the help of two important parties i.e. BJP and the Left Front.

(3) Although the BJP and the Left Front did not join the Government, they supported the National Front led by VP Singh from outside.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 6.
Describe any two outcomes of the Naxalite movements. (2)
Answer:
Two outcomes of the Naxalite movements were
(i) Naxalite movement was strong, particularly in West Bengal spread to the different parts of India. Nine states had been affected by their activities.

(ii) Human rights activists declared government for using violent and harsh measures against them and criticised government for violating the human rights.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 7.
“In the new era of coalition politics, political parties are no longer aligned on ideological grounds.” Explain. (2)
Answer:
Three features of the coalition government has been given in which we have to understand the not aligning and re-aligning on the basis of ideologies. These are

(i) Unstable Government The coalition government has its own interest and they fight for their own self interest. This leads to the breakup of not only of various fronts, but of governments as well.

(ii) Political Opportunism Government formed on the basis of coalition becomes selfish, as opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians focus on the self-interest only.

(iii) Lack of Polarisation The coalition governments are formed not on the basis of polarisation of political forces, but for the sake of capturing power and vested interest. There have been no sincere urge even among the parties of same ideology for political polarisation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 8.
Examine the basis for China’s estimate that it would overtake the United States as the world’s largest economy by 2040. (2)
Answer:
China is viewed to dominate the US by the year 2040. The basis of the projection are

  • China is considered as the driver of East Asian growth because of the economic integration into regions.
  • China is considered to be very powerful and factors such as population, land mass, resources, regional location and political influence add to its strength.
  • China announced ‘Open Door Policy’ in 1978 which aimed at a generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.

Section B

Question 9.
Explain the reasons that have contributed to China’s economic growth. (4)
Answer:
China is the third major alternative centre of power. It is the fastest growing economy. China at one time was based on the Soviet model and at that time, it broke all the links with the capitalist world. Following are the factors responsible for the rising of the Chinese economy

(i) Use of Soviet Model China accepted the Soviet model and relied on its resources. China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods and create state-owned heavy industries from capital produced by agriculture.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(ii) Development of Industrial Economy China used all its resources to develop an industrial economy. All citizens were provided with education and health programmes. Relationship with USA, China established a relationship with the USA in 1972.

(iii) Modernisation in the field of agriculture, industry, military, science and technology were proposed.

(iv) Major policies announced ‘Open Door Policy’ was announced by Deng Xiaoping in 1978, which aimed at a generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.

(v) The era of Privatisation, Privatisation of agriculture in 1982 and privatisation of industry in 1998 was done.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(v) Establishment of SEZ’s Special Economic Zones was set up. The state had a centralised role in setting up of China’s economy.

Question 10.
Describe the Congress dominance in the first three general elections. (4)
Answer:
The result of the first general election did not surprise anyone. The Indian National Congress was expected to win this election. Congress evolved from its origin in 1985 as a pressure group of newly educated, professional and commercial class to a mass movement in the 20th Century. It was the only party having an organisation and having most popular leader like Jawaharlal Nehru.

(i) The legacy of the freedom movement was an important reason of Congress dominance in General Election.

(ii) Congress was very organised and had organisational presence across India along with organisational network to the local.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(iii) Its inclusive nature made it popular among all sections of society. Thus, all these factors led to the dominance of Congress party. However, in the first decade of electoral competition, the Congress acted both as the ruling party as well as the opposition. Therefore, this period of Indian politics has been called as the Congress System.

Question 11.
In the given map of India four states have been marked A, B, C and D. Identify these states on-the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in respective serial number. Information given about the Lok Sabha elections result 1977. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 1
(i) The state where Indian National Congress (INC) was in majority.
(ii) The state where Janta Party was in majority.
(iii) The state where other parties were in majority.
(iv) The state where left parties were in majority.

Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the State
(i) A Andhra Pradesh
(ii) C Gujarat
(iii) B Arunachal Pradesh
(iv) D West Bengal

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 12.
Define Globalisation. State any four Globalisation causes of it. (6)
Or
Explain the three advantages of Globalisation with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished. The factors responsible for globalisation are:

(i) Globalisation is not caused by a single factor. Now-a-days technology is the most important element. The invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip has revolutionised communication between various global factors and hence, invention of printing laid the basis for the emergence of nationalism. The technology affects both our personal and collective lives.

(ii) The technology has made it easier to exchange ideas, capital, commodities and people from one place to another. The transfer of capital and commodities is likely to be wider and quicker, than the transfer of people across different parts of the world.

(iii) It is not just the availability of improved communication which led to the emergence of globalisation, rather the role of people in different parts of the world is also significant who recognise these interconnections with the rest of the world.

(iv) The events taking place in one part of world have an influence, on the other part of the world. Here, we can take an example of bird flu or tsunami, which is not confined to only one nation. It has affected the world as whole. Similarly, any major economic event would have an immediate impact on the local, national or regional environment at the world level.
Or
The three advantages of Globalisation are as follows

Economic benefits:

  • It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
  • It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
  • The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
  • This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.

Technological benefits:

Technological equipments as telephone, internet, telegraph and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace under the process of globalisation.

Political Benefits:

  • The primary status remains unchallenged basis of political community.
  • States have received a boost under globalisation to become more powerful and strong.

Question 13.
Who has formed Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist)? Discuss the reason for the Naxalite Movements in India and what were the methods adopted by Naxalites? (6)
Or
“Different people have different views of Emergency”. Discuss.
Answer:
In 1969, one branch broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. The reason behind the Naxalite Movements were

(i) In the areas of Orisha, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal the sharecroppers, under-tenants and small cultivators were denied their basic rights with regard to security of tenure or their share in produce, payment of fair wages, etc.

(ii) Forced labour, expropriation of resources by outsiders and exploitation by money lenders were also common in these areas. These conditions lead to the growth of Naxalite Movements.

The methods adopted by Naxalites were

  • The Naxalite Movements has used force to snatch land from the rich landowners and give it to the poor and the landless.
  • Its supporters advocated the use of violent means to achieve their political goals.
  • The Naxalite Movement split into various parties and organisations. Some of these parties like the CPI-ML participated in open, democratic politics.
  • Many districts in nine states are affected by Naxalite violence. Most of these are very backward areas inhabited by adivasis.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Or
Views in favour of Emergency

(i) In a democracy the government argued that, opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies.

(ii) It felt that frequent recourse to agitations, protests and collective actions are not good for democracy.

(iii) Congress contended that use of extra-parliamentary methods hindered development and lead to instability as all energy had to be spent on maintenance of law and order.

(iv) In this regard, Indira Gandhi wrote to Shah Commission that Emergency was implemented as subversive forces tried to dislodge the government by using extra-constitutional methods.

(v) Some parties like CPI backed the Congress during emergency and said there was an international conspiracy against the unity of the India.

Views against the Emergency

(i) Leaders like JP felt that since independence people had a right to protest. Movements of Bihar and Gujarat were peaceful. Those arrested were never tried for anti-national activities. There was no need to implement measures like emergency to curb such protest.

(ii) Critics of emergency argued that India had history of such movements including freedom and also people had the right to protest against government in democracy.

(iii) Even the Home Ministry which was monitoring the internal situation of the country did not express any concern about law and order situation in the country.

(iv) Even if some agitations had overstepped their limits, there was no need to suspend the democratic functioning of the country.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

(v) Critics also held that Indira Gandhi had misused constitutional provision for saving her personal power instead of saving the country.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

We live in an era where it is difficult to miss fast and junk food and the rise in teenage obesity and related health issues due to it. During teenage, weight gain is normal but when it goes beyond control, the person becomes obese. Our body requires energy to function, which is derived from the food we eat but when the intake of food becomes more than the amount that the body requires, the

5. excess energy is stored as body fat. Contemporary lifestyle sees an increasing consumption of junk food and spending time watching television and playing computer games. Overeating along with lack of physical exercise are the major causes Leading to teenage obesity. Large intakes of high-calorie food and low-nutrient food leads to unnecessary weight gain. Besides these,

10. obesity can also be genetically inherited where some people have the genetic tendency to burn calories more slowly compared to others. Stress is also a reason for obesity where people resort to overeating to alleviate their stress.

Teenage obesity is growing immensely and has been named an ‘obesity epidemic’. A number of health issues arise out of it like diabetes, high blood pressure and cholesterol, sleeping disorders, hormonal imbalance, and asthma. Along with these, obesity can also.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

15. result in psychological problems like low self-esteem due to the constant jeering of peers. Obese teens are more prone to being teased and physically bullied compared to others of their age.

Therefore, it is necessary to control excessive weight gain. Inactivity is the major cause of obesity and regular exercise is the best way to control it. Physical activity like jogging, swimming and playing outdoor games can help to keep one fit. A balanced diet with lots of

20. vegetables, fruits and whole grains is also essential. Junk food and soft drinks should be substituted with lots of vegetables, fruit and whole grains in the diet. Drinking around 8-10 glasses of water also helps to reduce calorie intake.

Parents have an important role in controlling teenage obesity as they should try to set examples by following a healthy diet and leading a healthy lifestyle. A combined effort.

25. of the parents and kids can help to control this eating disorder.

Based on gour understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the reason why writer feels it is difficult for the teenagers to avoid junk food. (1)

(B) State any one emotion that is evident from lines 10-15 which leads to the problem of over-eating in teenagers. (1)

(C) The writer says that obesity leads to low self-esteem due to ‘constant jeering of peers’. What does it mean? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that there is an ‘obesity epidemic’? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 10 – 20. (1)

The anchor of a ship is used to hold the immense mass of the ship at a place in water.

(F) What does the use of the word ‘alleviate’ suggest in the context of stress? (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I agree that the success of the project is truly a. (1)

(H) Even if a teenager follows a good diet, he can still get obese. How do you think it may happen? (1)

(I) Analyse the problems that obesity might lead to. (1)
Answer:
(A) In the passage, the writer feels that it is difficult for the teenagers to avoid junk food because of their contemporary lifestyle, the increase in spending time watching television and playing computer games.

(B) Stress is an emotion that leads to over-eating in teenagers as they would eat food more often in order to reduce the feeling of stress.

(C) Obesity in young age often results in mocking and teasing by the people of same age. Obese children are mocked for their overweight and this leads to low self-esteem and lack of confidence.

(D) The writer calls obesity an ‘epidemic’ because it is spreading at a very fast pace in teenagers and a large number of children are being affected by it.

(E) Control excessive weight

(F) The word ‘alleviate’ means to Lessen or reduce. So, for some people, overeating works as a stress buster as it alleviates the stress they feel.

(G) combined effort

(H) For some teenagers, obesity comes with heredity as it is transferred through genetics to people. So, sometimes, even if a teenager follows a good diet, he may still be obese due to heredity.

(I) As given in the passage, obesity may lead to other health issues like diabetes, high blood pressure, cholesterol, sleep disorders, hormonal imbalance, etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

The conflict between people takes the form of assertiveness, aggression and violence. It is fuelled by many factors including greed, selfishness, desire, jealousy, envy, fear, hate, and lust for power. From the perspective of yogic philosophy, these fuels for conflict are all caused by the clouding of our perception called ‘avidya’. Because of ‘avidya’ we do not recognise our true 5. spiritual kinship with other people, and we are prone to experience those fuels of conflict. These fuels are widely varied, but have one commonality; experience of any of these emotions or desires is done from the perspective. People who feel these emotions want more or less of something for themselves, as compared to what they see in other people. These people do not identify with others but feel separated from them, left out or isolated.

10. Two powerful tools exist to reduce the effect of these “fuels” within ourselves: cultivating the right attitude, and behaving in constructive ways. Some of us feel envious or jealous when we see another who is happy, successful or content. We may feel disgust or even hatred at the sight of a drifter or a drug addict. We need a change in attitude, a

15. change that will help us purify our minds and become more peaceful. We should practise being pleased when we see someone who is happy. We should try to be compassionate towards those in misery, and be joyful to see the virtues of another. In cultivating this attitude, we become more accepting of the world and more peaceful towards others. Non-possessiveness can be practiced, as can contentment.

20. The behavior-how we act includes both how we treat others, and how we treat ourselves. To become satisfied in our lives and more peaceful in our treatment of others, we should practice non-violence, truthfulness and non-stealing. These qualities help us become happier in our lives and less aggressive towards others. We should decide what is proper here. Practicing meditation is also known to reduce stress and increase happiness.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

25. A study was conducted to examine how meditation frequency (from daily to nonpractice) is related to greater happiness, and how dispositional mindfulness and self-compassion could be mediating this relationship. Correlation analyses were conducted for the frequency of meditation practice, dispositional mindfulness (FFMQ), self-compassion (SCS-SF) and happiness (PFH). The results from the data collected by 365 participants through a survey showed 30. that the mindfulness and self-compassion scales were positively and significantly correlated with the happiness measure. Furthermore, as expected, the frequency of meditation was positively and significantly correlated with the mindfulness scales, the self-compassion scales and happiness.

Frequency of mediation Happiness
Mindfulness scales
Observing .445** .387**
Describing .210** .398**
Acting with awareness .137** .347**
Non-judging .327** .391**
Non-reactivity .442** .499**
FFMQ total score .441** .555**
Self-compassion scales
Self-kindness .377** .598**
Common humanity .344** 558**
Mindfulness .421** .546**
SCS total score 424** .630**
Happiness .222**

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(A) What does the writer mean by ‘spiritual kinship’? (1)
(B) Why was this survey on ‘meditation frequency’ undertaken? (1)
(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about the relatability of meditation, self-compassion and mindfulness. (1)
(D) What can be concluded by ‘self-kindness’ data with reference to the table? (1)
(E) People experience emotions from “I” perspective. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Write an example to make people learn that a change in our attitude can change somebody’s life? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 1-5 indicating a sharing of characteristics. (1)
Answer:
(A) By ‘spiritual kinship’, the writer means the connection of people based on soul or spiritual goodness, rather than physical goodness.

(B) The survey in the passage was taken on ‘meditation frequency’ to learn how meditation helps people to increase their happiness levels and how mindfulness and compassion mediates with it.

(C) As per the table, the mindfulness and self-compassion scales are positively and significantly correlated with the happiness measure in a person.

(D) The table shows that people are most happy when they are kind and easy on themselves.

(E) People often experience the emotions from their own perspective. They seldom think from the perspective of other people and feel that they deserve the greatest things in life and not others.

(F) The best example is the change in our attitude due for a drug addict. When we come across a drug addict, we should not hate him, rather should help him come out of that deadly addiction. Our empathy will increase the addicts’ hope and desire to come clean.

(G) kinship

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Akshay/Akshita Dixit, living at 2-A, Saket Colony, Varanasi. You are planning to host a grand family dinner on the occasion of Diwali. Draft a formal invitation in not more than 50 words to invite all the family members to attend the dinner. (3)
Answer:
The Dixits
2-A, Saket Colony
Varanasi
17th September 20XX

Dear all
We request the pleasure of your precious company at the Grand Family Dinner on the lovely occasion of Diwali this year. The family dinner will take place on Monday, the 23rd of September, 20XX, 8.00 p.m. onwards at our residence. You are all requested to mark the dinner with your lovely presence.

Yours affectionately
Akshay/Akshita Dixit
R.S.V.P
The Dixit Family
Varanasi
Ph.: 989765xxxx

Caution :
Students often get confused when asked to write an invitation in the form of a letter. Do keep in mind that a formal invitation can be written in both formats: card or in the form of a letter.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) You have read an advertisement in The Tribune for the post of Chartered Accountant in DXL Solutions Ltd., Aligarh. You believe you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and would prove to be an asset to the company. Apply for the post giving your complete bio-data stressing your suitability. You are Shreya/Shreyas Jain, 1/10, Mangalam Apt., Ring Road, Aligarh.
OR
(B) You are Vinneta/Vijay Shrama. As a correspondent for the Hindustan Times, Indore, write a report in about 120-150 words for a newspaper regarding the arrest of a gang of motorbike lifters operating in your city, covering all the important details like vehicle lifting in market area parking lots, gang of young men, caught red-handed, police on high alert, selling of vehicles as scraps or otherwise, etc.
Answer:
1/10, Mangalam Apt. Ring Road
Aligarh
21st October 20XX
The HR Manager
DXL Solutions Ltd.
Aligarh

Subject: Application for the post of Chartered Accountant

Sir/Ma’am,
This is in response to your advertisement in The Tribune dated 19th October 20XX, I wish to offer my candidature for the position mentioned above.

I am an ICWA certified CA from 20XX batch and have been serving in Sitaram Furniture Pvt. Ltd, Aligarh as a Chartered Accountant for the Last five years. My professional skills are quite perfect as I deal with the business entries and balance sheet calculation management efficiently. I have gained a lot of experience over these past five years which is a bonus.

I believe that my qualifications and work experience, are good enough to enable me to discharge my duties at your reputed office. I assure you that if selected, I shall work with utmost sincerity and devotion.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Shreya/Shreyas Jain

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Bio-Data

Name : Shreya/Shreyas Jain
Fothers Name : Mr. M.D. Jain
Address : 1/10, Mangalam Apt. Ring Road, Aligarh
Date of Birth : 23rd February, 19XX
Educational Qualifications :
(i) B.Com. (Hons.) in the year 20XX with 78%
(ii) CA in 20XX
(iii) CFA in 20XX

Experience : CA in Sitaram Furniture Pvt. Ltd for five years.
Salarj Expected : 70,000 p.m. + perks
MaritaL Status : Married
Languages : known Hindi, English, Urdu
References :

  • Dr. Indra Patel, Director, Sitaram Furniture Pvt Ltd., Aligarh, 9891xxxxxxx
  • Dr. Khan, H.O.D. Commerce, AMU, Aligarh, 9231xxxxxx

OR

Vehicle Lifters of the City Caught
Red-handed

By Vineeta/Vijay Sharma, Staff Correspondent,
The Hindustan Times

Indore, 13th November, 20XX: A gang of unknown motorbike lifters stealing vehicles from the parking lots of the market places in the city was arrested on 12th November, 20XX at Radhi Bazar Parking lot at Jay Conventional Center, Indore. The gang of five young men was caught lifting a white Gixxer 280 RC parked at the lot when the Police got there. The motorbike owner Gyan Praksah, was informed about the activity when he reported about his missing vehicle at the nearest Police Station. Gyan Prakash thanked Police on catching the thieves red-handed and saving his motorbike.

Mr Rahim Khan, the Inspector of Police, said that the police were on high alert since Last week as the number of motorbikes being Lifted from the lot had increased rapidly. The robbers are said to belong to Pitwa, a district in Indore, M.P. They said that they all are local motorbike mechanics so they used to sell the parts of vehicles in the local markets at good prices and enjoy with the money obtained.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How were Shukla and Gandhiji received in Rajendra Prasad’s house? (2)
(B) The peddler signed himself as “Captain Von Stahle”. Identify the reason behind peddler’s decision with respect to the context. (2)
You may begin your answer like this:
The peddler was a destitute rattrap seller. He was never treated with
(C) According to Keats, do we experience things of beauty only for short moments or do they make a lasting impression on us? (2)
(D) Rationalize the picture of male chauvinism (tyranny) that we find in the poem, ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’. (2)
(E) On the day of the examination, with what excuse •J’d Evans keep Stephens out of his cell? What was the actual reason? (2)
(F) Derry used to hate the consolation that people gave him. Highlight the consolation that people used to give when they saw his acid burnt face. (2)
Answer:
(A) When Rajkumar Shukla took Gandhiji to Dr Rajendra Prasad’s house to meet the latter, they found that he was out of the town. The servants of his house looked down upon them and mistook Gandhiji to be one of the poor peasants for his simple appearance. They didn’t even allow him to draw water from the well as they thought him to be an untouchable.

(B) The peddler was a destitute rattrap seller. He was never treated with respect and compassion by anyone earlier. So, when Edla Willmanson treated him with the honour that was meant for a real Captain, even after knowing that the peddler was not the one, the peddler returned the same respect and gesture he received, to Edla behaving like a Captain. Thus, he signed himself as Captain Von Stahle.

(C) In the poem, Keats has repeated a notion, i.e. ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever.’ By this, he meant that the effect of a beautiful thing doesn’t fade away with time. It is permanent and everlasting.

(D) The society that we live in is a male- dominated one. Aunt Jennifer is a typical submissive housewife who has to follow her husband’s ordeals unwillingly all the time. Her husband tyrannizes her and reflects a true picture of male chauvinism as he keeps Aunt oppressed and dominated by him.

(E) Evans said he was unable to concentrate on his exam with Stephens literally breathing down his neck. So, he wanted Stephens to be out of his cell. However, the actual reason was that Evans wanted to execute his escape plan.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(F) When people saw Derry’s acid burnt face, they tried to console him by saying that looks do not matter. Derry hated the sympathy showed to him as he knew that he would continue to look like a ‘monstrous beast’ forever.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) Analyse the symbols and poetic devices employed by Adrienne Rich in the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) After a long session of dilemmas, Gandhiji agree to a settlement of 25% refund to the farmers. What according to you was important for Gandhiji – the amount refunded or the damaged British prestige? Examine Gandhiji’s decision in the light of this statement, in about 120150 words. (4)

(C) Roger Skunk used to smell bad. He wanted to change his smell with something pleasing in order to earn other creatures’ friendship. If you were in the Skunk’s place would you want to change your smell to something good or would you stay the same? Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) Adrienne Rich, the author of the poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, has used various symbols and poetic devices in the poem. Aunt Jennifer is embroidering the tigers on her panel. The tigers symbolise the bravery and independence which Aunt Jennifer dreams of attaining, but fails to do so except in her dreams and art In the poem, the character of Aunt Jennifer metaphorically represents the entire women community as a whole. She represents women who are the victims of domestic oppressions and male dominations.

Apart from that, Adrienne has used a number of poetic devices Like metaphors as ‘bright topaz denizens’ wherein the tigers are considered to be the inhabitants of the green forests. The alliteration in ‘fingers fluttering’ also exemplifies the irony in the poem, as the fingers signify both Aunt Jennifer’s physical feebleness and her fearful mind. The alliteration ‘prancing proud’ symbolizes the ever-existence of brave tigers.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(B) Gandhiji was so determinant to get justice for the poor sharecroppers of Champaran. He fought the case on behalf of them. He submitted such strong evidences of the injustice meted out to the sharecroppers that the British had to agree to the refund. Gandhiji asked for a refund of 50 per cent but the British agreed to only repay 25 per cent as they wanted to prolong the dispute between them.

To everybody’s surprise, Gandhiji agreed to accept the 25 per cent of return. For him, the amount of money was not important. What was important was the fact that the British had to surrender part of their money and moreover, their ’prestige’. This repay shattered the Britisher’s pride of ruling the country unjustly.

(C) Roger Skunk was a stinking animal. Due to his bad odour, nobody wanted to play with him or become his friend. So, he wanted to get rid of that odour in order to attract other creatures’ friendship. If I were in Roger Skunk’s place, I would have never gotten my natural odour changed to any other fake smell. The bad smell that I would posses would have been my unique identity and as a Skunk that is necessary to protect me from predators.

Also, I would never change my appearance or identity for others’ approval. I am who I am and that’s what makes me unique. The smell of roses would have garnered good friends for me but as soon as I would have lost the fragrance, I would have lost my friends too. And, I don’t want a fake friendship like that which could end with a little physical change in me.