Raju

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Ex-post investment means fixed capital with production units during a particular period of time. Defend or refute the statement with valid reason.
OR
Marginal propensity to consume represents the slope of the consumption function. Defend or refute the statement with valid reason. (2)

Question 2.
In an economy, 20 percent of increased income is saved. How much will be the increase in income if investment increases by ₹10,000? Calculate.
OR
Estimate the change in final income if Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.75 and change in initial investment is ₹2,000 crores. (2)

Question 3.
Discuss briefly, the concept of ‘informalisation of workforce’, in the context of Indian economy. (2)

Question 4.
“Sustainable development is the only way that will allow economy to have a proper development.” Justify the statement.
OR
“Infrastructure is the support system on which depends the modern agriculture depends.” Justify the statement. (2)

Question 5.
Analyze the following information in reference to India and compare with other countries on the grounds of ‘Government health spending as a % of GDP’.

Question 6.
How will you treat the foLLowing whiLe estimating domestic product of a country?
Give reasons for your answer :
(A) Profits earned by branches of country’s bank in other countries.
(B) Gifts given by an employer to his employees on independence day.
(C) Purchase of goods by foreign tourists.
OR
If the Real Gross Domestic Product is f 400 and Price Index (base=100) is 120, calculate the Nominal Gross Domestic Product. 3

Question 7.
On the basis of below information, compare and contrast India and China’s sectoral contribution towards GVA/GDP. What does it indicate? (3)

Sector	Contribution to GVS
	India	China
Agriculture	16	7
Industry	30	41
Services	54	52
Total	100	100

Read the following case carefully and answer question number 8 and 9 given below:

India’s ambition of sustaining its relatively high growth depends on one important factor: infrastructure. The country, however, is plagued with a weak infrastructure incapable of meeting the needs of a growing economy and growing population. S&P Global Ratings projects India’s GDP to grow around 8% for the next three fiscal years, among the fastest in large, growing economies. The government also aims to significantly boost the manufacturing sector to contribute an all-time high of about 25% of GDP by 2025, from below 16% currently.

India is striving to improve its manufacturing competitiveness at a time when manufacturing powerhouse China is shifting toward consumption-led growth. China now faces the risk of overcapacity in segments such as port and power. For India, on the other hand, its road to sustainably higher growth and a competitive manufacturing sector goes through robust and reliable national infrastructure, especially in power and transportation.

Question 8.
State and explain the type of infrastructure stated in the above text. (3)

Question 9.
“India is incapable of meeting the needs of a growing economy and growing population.” Explain. (3)

Question 10.
As the examples of India, China and Pakistan show; countries are trying various means to strengthen their own domestic economies. What are the various means by which countries are trying to do so? (3)

Question 11.
Calculate national income from the following data:
(i) Personal Tax 80
(ii) Private final consumption expenditure 600
(iii) Undistributed profits 30
(iv) Private income 650
(v) Government final consumption expenditure 100
(Vi) Corporate tax 50
(vi) Net domestic fixed capital formation 70
(viii) Net indirect tax 60
Ox) Depreciation 14
(x) Change in stocks (-)10
(xi) Net imports 20
(xii) Net factor income to abroad 10
OR
Suppose the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Nation X was ₹2,000 crores in 2018 – 19, whereas the Gross Domestic Product of Nation Y in the same year was ₹120,000 crores. If the Gross Domestic Product of Nation X rises to ₹4,000 crores in 2019 – 20 and the Gross Domestic Product of Nation Y rises to ₹200,000 crores in 2019 – 20. Compare the rate of change of GDP of Nations X and Y, taking 2018 – 19 as base year. (5)

Question 12.
(A) Giving reason, state whether following the statement is true or false.
A car covering a distance of 300 km in 5 hours includes both stock as well as flow variable.
(B) ‘Subsidies to the producers, should be treated as transfer payments.’ Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason. (5)

Question 13.
“India’s GDP contracted 23.9% in the April- June quarter of 2020-21 as compared to same period of 2019-20, suggesting that the lockdown has hit the economy hard”.

State and discuss any two fiscal measures that may be taken by the Government of India to correct the situation indicated in the above news report. (5)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
• Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
• Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
• Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
• Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
Give any two characteristics of stacks.
Answer:
A stack is an abstract data type that holds an ordered, linear sequence of items. The characteristics of stack are

1. It is a Last In First Out (LIFO) data structure which means the item which is inserted last in the stack will be the first one to delete from the Stack.
2. The insertion and deletion happens at one end i.e. from the top of the stack.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) SMTP
Answer:

• SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer
• Protocol. It is an internet standard communication protocol for electronic mail transmission.

(b) XML
Answer:
XML stands for extensible Markup Language. It consists of a set of codes, or tags, that describe the text in a digital document where the tags are not predefined.

(ii) Out of the following, which is the fastest wired and wireless medium of transmission? Infrared, Coaxial cable, Optical fibre, Microwave, Ethernet cable
Answer:

• Wired → Optical fibre
• Wireless → Microwave

Question 3.
Differentiate between char(n) and varchar(n) data types with respect to databases.
Answer:

char(n)	varchar(n)
It stores a fixed length string between 1 and 255 characters.	It stores a variable length string.
If the value is of smaller length, then it adds blank spaces.	length.
Some space is wasted in it.	in varchar(n).

Question 4.
A resultset is extracted from the database using the cursor object (that has been already created) by giving the following statement.

Mydata = cursor.fetchone()

(i) How many records will be returned by fetchone() method?
Answer:
fetchone() method retrieves the next row of a query result set and returns a single sequence, or none if no more rows are available.So one record will be returned by fetchone() method.

(ii) What will be the datatype of Mydata object after the given command is executed?
Answer:
tuple is the datatype of Mydata object after the given command is executed. Tuples are used to store heterogeneous elements, which are elements belonging to different data types.

Question 5.
Write the output of the queries (i) to (iv) based on the table FURNITURE given below.
Table : FURNITURE

(i) SELECT SUM(DISCOUNT) FROM FURNITURE WHERE C0ST>15000;
Answer:

(ii) SELECT MAX(DATEOFPURCHASE) FROM FURNITURE;
Answer:

(iii) SELECT * FROM FURNITURE WHERE DISCOUNTS AND FID LIKE “T%”;
Answer:

(iv) SELECT DATEOFPURCHASE FROM FURNITURE WHERE NAME IN (“Dinning Table”, “Console Table”);
Answer:

Question 6.
(i) Which command is used to view the list of tables in a database?
Answer:
SHOW TABLES, command is used to view the list of tables in a database.

(ii) Give one point of difference between an equi-join and a natural join.
Answer:
Differences between equi-join and a natural join are as follows:

equi-join	natural join
The join in which columns from two tables are compared for equality.	The join in which only one of the identical columns existing in both tables is present.
Duplicate columns are shown.	No duplication of columns.

Question 7.
Consider the table MOVIEDETAILS given below
Table: MOVIEDETAILS

(i) Identify the degree and cardinality of the table.
(ii) Which field should be made the primary key? Justify your answer.
Or
(i) Identify the candidate key(s) from the table MOVIEDETAILS.
(ii) Consider the table SCHEDULE given below.
Table: SCHEDULE

SLOTID	MOVIEID	TIMESLOT
S001	M010	10 AM to 12 PM
S002	M020	2 PM to 5 PM
S003	M010	6 PM to 8 PM
S004	M011	9 PM to 11 PM

Which field will be considered as the foreign key if the tables MOVIEDETAILS and SCHEDULE are related in a database?
Answer:
(i) Degree is the number of attributes or columns present in a table, So Degree is 5. Cardinality is the number of tuples or rows present in a table. So, Cardinality is 6.

(ii) MOVIEID should be made the primary key as it uniquely identifies each record of the table.
Or
(i) Candidate key in SQL is a set of attributes that uniquely identify tuples in a table. The Primary key should be selected from the candidate keys. Every table must have at least a single candidate key. So, MOVIEID and TITLE are the candidate keys in table MOVIEDETAILS.

(ii) A foreign key is a column or combination of columns that is used to establish and enforce a link between the data in two tables to control the data that can be stored in the foreign key table. So MOVIEID is the foreign key if the tables MOVIEDETAILS and SCHEDULE are related in a database.

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Julie has created a dictionary containing names and marks as key value pairs of 6 students. Write a program, with separate user defined functions to perform the following operations

• Push the keys (name of the student) of the dictionary into a stack, where the corresponding value (marks) is greater than 75.
• Pop and display the content of the stack.

For example If the sample content of the dictionary is as follows
R={“OM”:76/ “JAr’:45, “BOB”:89, “ALI”:65, “ANU”:90, “TOM”:82}
The output from the program should be
TOM ANU BOB OM
Or
Alam has a list containing 10 integers. You need to help him create a program with separate user-defined functions to perform the given operations based on this list.

• Traverse the content of the list and push the even numbers into a stack.
• Pop and display the content of the stack.

For example, If the sample content of the list is as follows
N=[12,13, 34, 56, 21, 79, 98, 22, 35, 38]
Sample Output of the code should be:
38 22 98 56 34 12
Answer:

R={" 0M": 76 , "JAI":45, "B0B":89, ”ALI": 65 , "ANU":90 , "T0M":82) def PUSH(S,N):
S.append(N)
def POP(S):
if S!=[]:
return S.pop()
else:
return None
ST=[ ]
for k in R:
if R[k]>=75:
PUSH(ST, k)
while True:
if ST!=[]:
print(POP(ST),end=" ")
else:
break

Or

N=[12, 13, 34, 56, 21, 79, 98, 22, 35, 38]
def PUSH(S, N):
S.append(N)
def POP(S):
if S!=[]:
return S.pop()
else:
return None
ST=[ ]
for k in N:
if k%2==0:
PUSH(ST, k)
while True:
if ST!=[ ]:
print(P0P(ST),end=" ”)
else:
break

Question 9.
(i) A table, ITEM has been created in a database with the following fields
ITEMCODE, ITEMNAME, QTY, PRICE
Give the SQL command to add a new field, DISCOUNT (of type Integer) to the ITEM table.
Answer:

ALTER TABLE ITEM ADD Discount INT;

(ii) Categorize following commands into DDL and DML commands?
INSERT INTO, DROP TABLE, ALTER TABLE, UPDATE…SET
Answer:
DDL means ‘Data Definition Language’. It is used to create and modify the structure of database objects in SQL. So, DDL commands are DROP TABLE, ALTER TABLE. *
DML is ‘Data Manipulation Language’ which is used to manipulate data itself.
So, DML commands are INSERT INTO, UPDATE…SET.

Question 10.
Charu has to create a database named MYEARTH in MySQL.
She now needs to create a table named CITY in the database to store the records of various cities across the globe. The table CITY has the following structure.
Table : CITY

Field Name	Data Type	Remarks
CITYCODE	CHAR(5)	Primary Key
CITYNAME	CHAR(30)
SIZE	INTEGER
AVGTEMP	INTEGER
POPULATIONRATE	INTEGER
POPULATION	INTEGER

Help her to complete the task by suggesting appropriate SQL commands.
Answer:
Command to create database
CREATE DATABASE MYEARTH;

Command to create table

CREATE TABLE CITY(
CITYCODE CHAR(5) PRIMARY KEY,
CITYNAME CHAR(30),
SIZE INT,
AVGTEMP INT,
POPULATIONRATE INT,
POPULATION INT,
);

Section – C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Write queries (i) to (iv) based on the tables EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT given below
Table : EMPLOYEE

Table: DEPARTMENT

DEPTID	DEPTNAME	FLOORNO
D001	Personal	4
D002	Admin	10
D003	Production	1
D004	Sales	3

(i) To display the average salary of all employees, department wise.
Answer:
SELECT AVG(SALARY)
FROM EMPLOYEE ,
GROUP BY DEPTID;

(ii) To display name and respective department name of each employee whose salary is more than 50000.
Answer:
SELECT NAME, DEPTNAME
FROM EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT
WHERE ’
EMPLOYEE.DEPTID=DEPARTMENT.DEPTID
AND SALARY>50000;

(iii) To display the names of employees whose salary is not known, in alphabetical order.
Answer:
SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE
WHERE SALARY IS NULL
ORDER BY NAME;

(iv) To display DEPTID from the table EMPLOYEE without repetition.
Answer:
SELECT DISTINCT DEPTID FROM
EMPLOYEE

Question 12.
(i) Give two advantages and two disadvantages of star topology.
Or
Define the following terms:
(a) www
(b) Web hosting
Answer:
Advantages of Star Topology are:

• Ease of service All the data passes through the hub. The hub makes it easy to troubleshoot by offering a single point for error connection.
• Centralized control Computers are connected by cable segments to centralized component, called a hub or switch.

Disadvantages of Star Topology are:

• Long cable length Requires more cable than a linear bus.
• Difficult to expand Extra hardware is required (hubs or switches) which adds to cost.

Or
(a) WWW is a set of protocols that allow you to access any document on the internet through the naming systems based on URLs.
(b) Web hosting is a service that allows organizations and individuals to post a website or web page onto the server, which can be viewed by everyone on the Internet.

(ii) How is packet switching different from circuit switching?
Answer:
Differences between packet switching and circuit switching are as follows:

Packet Switching	Circuit Switching
It uses store and forward concept to send messages.	It does not follow store and forward concept.
Each data unit knows only the final receiver’s address.	Each data unit knows the entire path from sender to receiver.
No physical path is established in packet switching.	Physical connection is established between sender and receiver.

Question 13.
BeHappy Corporation has set up its new centre at Noida, Uttar Pradesh for its office and web-based activities. It has 4 blocks of buildings.

Distance between the various blocks is as follows:

A to B	40m
B to C	120m
C to D	100m
A to D	170m
B to D	150m
A to C	70m

Numbers of computers in each block
Block A – 25
Block B – 50
Block C -125
Block D -10
(i) Suggest and draw the cable layout to efficiently connect various blocks of buildings within the Noida centre for connecting the digital devices.
Answer:
Cable layout to efficiently connect various blocks

(ii) Suggest the placement of the following device with justification
(a) Repeater
(b) Hub/Switch
Answer:
(a) Repeater It is to be placed between block C and block D as the distance between them is 100 m.
(b) Hub/Switch It is to be placed in each block as they help to share data packets within the devices of the network in each block.

(iii) Which kind of network (PAN/LAN/WAN) will be formed if the Noida office is connected to its head office in Mumbai?
Answer:
WAN (Wide Area Network) will be formed if the Noida office is connected to its head office in Mumbai because the distance between these two cities is a few kilometers and in such a long distance, the Internet connectivity is required, and the Internet comes under Wide Area Network.

(iv) Which fast and very effective wireless transmission medium should preferably be used to connect the head office at Mumbai with the centre at Noida?
Answer:
Satellite is fast and very effective wireless transmission medium which should be used to connect the head office at Mumbai with the centre at Noida.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
“Full employment implies zero unemployment when nobody is ever unemployed in the economy.” Defend or refute the statement with valid reason.
OR
“APS can be negative whereas MPS can never be negative.” Justify the statement. (2)

Question 2.
Given marginal propensity to save 0.25, what will be the increase in national income if investment increases by ₹ 125 crores. Calculate.
OR
S = – 100 + 0.2 Y is the saving function in an economy. Investment expenditure is ₹5,000. Calculate the equilibrium level of income. (2)

Question 3.
Nurse in a government hospital comes under the category of‘Regular Salaried Employee’. Justify the statement with valid reason. (3)

Question 4.
“Compared to females, more males are found to be working. The difference in participation rates is very large in urban areas.” Justify the statement with valid reason. (3)

Question 5.
“Environment and economy are inter¬dependent and need each other.” Justify the given statement with a valid argument.
OR
“The concept of sustainable development relates to development that doesn’t compromise the needs of the future generation.” Explain. (2)

Question 6.
Will the following be included in the domestic product of India? Give reasons for your answer.
(A) Profits earned by foreign companies in India.
(B) Salaries of Indians working in the Russian Embassy in India.
(C) Profits earned by a branch of State Bank of India in Japan.
OR
From the following information, compute GNP_MP.
GDP_FC = ₹ 2,000
Net factor income to abroad = ₹ 100
Indirect Taxes = ₹ 320
Subsidies = ₹ 100. (3)

Question 7.
Compare and contrast the development of India, China and Pakistan with respect to some salient human development indicators.

Some Selected Indicators of Human Development, 2017-2019


Note: * for the year 2011: for the year 2015.

Sources: Human Development Report 2019 and 2020 and Word Development Indicators (www.world in. org); Key indicators for Asia and the Pacific 2019. Asian development bank (ADB).

Read the following case carefully and answer question number 8 and 9 given below:

As per the Census 2001, the Indian workforce is over 400 million strong, which constitutes 39.1 % of the total population of the country. The workers comprise 312 million main workers and 88 million marginal workers (i.e., those who did not work for at least 183 days in the preceding 12 months to the census taking). Sex differential among the number of male and female worker in the total workforce is significant. Of the total 402 million workers, 275 million are males and 127 million females. This would mean that 51.7 percent of the total males and 25.6 percent of the total females are workers.

The number of female workers is about less than half the number of male workers. In terms of proportion, 68.4 percent of the workers are males and 31.6 percent females. Among the main workers, female workers, are only 23.3 % and 76.7% are male workers. Majority of female workers (87.3 percent) are from rural areas. This is also twice that of male workers, which may be due to their being employed predominantly in activities like cultivation and agricultural labour. In the urban areas, majority of female workers are engaged in Households industry and other work.

Question 8.
“If a person had worked as a daily wage labourer for four months, as an agricultural labourer for one month”. Identify the type of worker he will be considered? (3)

Question 9.
“The nature of employment in India is multifaceted.” Justify the statement. (3)

Question 10.
Why did China introduce structural reforms in 1978? (3)

Question 11.
(A) “Circular flow principle is based on the assumption that one’s expenditure will become other’s income.” Explain the given statement.
(B) “Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is not the best indicator of the economic welfare of a country.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons. (5)

Question 12.
(A) Define the problem of double counting in the computation of national income.
(B) Calculate national income from the following data: (₹ in crores)
(i) Private final consumption expenditure 500
(ii) Net domestic fixed capital formation 100
(iii) Net factor income from abroad 30
(iv) Change in stock 20
(v) Net exports 40
(vi) Net indirect taxes 50
(vii) Mixed income 300
(viii) Government final consumption expenditure 200
OR
(A) Explain mixed income of self-employed. (2)
(B) Calculate Gross National Product at market price by expenditure method. (₹ in crores)
(i) Compensation of employees 100
(ii) Private final consumption expenditure 200
(iii) Rent 20
(iv) Government final consumption expenditure 50
(v) Profits 10
(vi) Interest 10
(vii) Gross domestic capital formation 60
(viii) Net imports 10
(ix) Consumption of fixed capital 20
(x) Net Indirect Taxes 30
(xi) Net factor income from abroad(-)20
(xii) Change in stocks 10
(xiii) Mixed income 110 (3)

13. Complete the following table:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
What happens to aggregate income in an economy in which intended saving exceeds intended investment?
OR
If in an economy investment is greater than saving, what is the effect on the national income? (2)
Answer:
Aggregate income will tend to fall when intended saving exceeds intended.
OR
If in an economy investment is greater than saving, the level of income will rise till full employment is achieved.

Question 2.
In an economy, investment increased by ₹1,100 and as a result of it, income increased by ₹5,500. Had the marginal propensity to save been 25 percent, what would have been the increase in income?
OR
If in an economy:
Change in initial Investments (Δl) = ₹500 crores
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
Find the values of the following:
(A) Investment multiplier (K)
(B) Change in final income (ΔY) (2)
Answer:

Question 3.
“GLF campaign met with many problems.” Elucidate. (2)
Answer:
GLF campaign met with many problems. A severe drought caused havoc in China killing about 30 million people. When Russia had conflicts with China, it withdrew its professionals who had earlier been sent to China to help in the industrialisation process.

Question 4.
“India has always had an advantage over Pakistan in some areas”. State any two such areas. (2)
Answer:
India has always had an advantage over Pakistan in some areas, such as

• having more trained labor
• making good investments in education
• improving basic health care facilities (Any two)

Question 5.
What was the aim of implementing Great Leap Forward campaign in China?
OR
Compare and analyze Indian and Chinese economy on the basis of below-given table:
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980 – 2017

Country	1980 – 90	2015 – 2017
India	5.7	7.3
China	10.3	6.8

Answer:
The main aim of’Great Leap Forward’ (GLF) in China was to ensure rapid increase of industries. The campaign is modeled on the development of major industries in the country. People were motivated about establishing industries in their backyards.
OR
When many developed countries were finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5 percent, China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during 1980s. In 2015 – 17, there has been a decline in China’s growth rate, whereas, India met with a moderate increase in growth rate.

Question 6.
Will the following be included in the national income of India? Give reasons for your answer.
(A) Financial assistance to flood victims.
(B) Profits earned by the branches of a foreign bank in India.
(C) Salaries of Indians working in the American Embassy in India.
OR
If the Real Gross Domestic Product is Rs. 250 and the price Index (base = 100) is 120, calculate the Nominal Gross Domestic Product. (3)
Answer:
(A) No. Financial assistance to flood victims are
not included as it is a transfer payment.
(B) No. It is a factor income to abroad.
(C) Yes. Included as it is a factor income from abroad so it is added to NDP to get Nl.
OR

Nominal Gross Domestic Product = ₹300

Question 7.
The following table shows distribution of workforce in India for the year 1972 – 73. Analyse it and give reasons for the nature of workforce distribution. You will notice that the data is pertaining to the situation in India 30 years ago.

Place of Residence	Workforce (in millions)		Total
	Male	Female
Rural	125	70	195
Urban	32	7	39

Read the following case carefully and answer question number 8 and 9 given below:

India’s ambition of sustaining its relatively high growth depends on one important factor: infrastructure. The country, however, is plagued with a weak infrastructure incapable of meeting the needs of a growing economy and growing population. S&P Global Ratings projects India’s GDP to grow around 8% for the next three fiscal years, among the fastest in large, growing economies. The government also aims to significantly boost the manufacturing sector to contribute an all-time high of about 25% of GDP by 2025, from below 16% currently.

India is striving to improve its manufacturing competitiveness at a time when manufacturing powerhouse China is shifting toward consumption-led growth. China now faces the risk of overcapacity in segments such as port and power. For India, on the other hand, its road to sustainably higher growth and a competitive manufacturing sector goes through robust and reliable national infrastructure, especially in power and transportation.
Answer:
In 1972-73:
(A) Pre dominance of agriculture as out of total workforce of 234 million, 195 million was in rural areas and only 39 million in urban areas.

(B) More male workers both in urban and rural areas as only 77 million female workers were there as compared to 157 million male workers.

(C) Less female workers in both rural and urban areas. Also, female workers were much lesser in urban areas. In rural areas, males accounted for 125 million workforce and women 70 million of work force. In urban areas, 32 million males formed the workforce whereas women workforce was only 7 million.

Question 8.
“Infrastructure is often called as the lifeline of the economy.” Explain in the context of above case. (3)
Answer:
Infrastructure is often called as the lifeline ofthe economy. Infrastructure provides supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce. It helps in increasing the productivity of the factors of production and enhancing the quality of life. Infrastructure is also critical for achieving manufacturing competitiveness.

Question 9.
“Infrastructural facilities are mainly built or run by the government and public sector enterprises.” Defend or refute the statement with valid reason? (3)
Answer:
Building of infrastructure requires Large and lumpy investment and has a relatively long gestation period. Due to this fact, infrastructural facilities are either built or run by the government and public sector enterprises and if private sector is permitted to make investments and run infrastructural projects, they must be regulated in order to ensure quality infrastructure to one and all in the society.

Question 10.
Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How? (3)
Answer:
During the period 1950-2010, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India grew positively and was higher than the employment growth. However, there was always a fluctuation in the growth of GDP. During this period, employment grew at the rate of not more than 2 percent.

In the late 1990s: employment growth started declining and reached the level of growth that India had in the early stages of planning. During these years, we also find a widening gap between the growth of GDP and employment. This means that in the Indian economy, without generating employment, we have been able to produce more goods and services. This refers as jobless growth.

Question  11.
Given the following data, find the missing value of ‘Government Final Consumption Expenditure’ and ‘Mixed-Income of Self Employed’.

Particulars	Amount (in ₹ crores)
National Income	71,000
Gross Domestic Capital Formation	10,000
Government Final Consumption Expenditure	?
Mixed-Income of Self-Employed	7
Net Factor Income from Abroad	1,000
Net Indirect Taxes	2,000
Profit	1,200
Wages and Salaries	15,000
Net Exports	5,000
Private Final Consumption Expenditure	40,000
! Consumption of Fixed Capital	3,000
Operating Surplus	30,000

Given the following data, find the values of ‘Operating Surplus’ and ‘Net Exports’:

Particulars	Amount (in ₹ crores)
Wages and Salaries	2,400
National Income	4,200
Net Exports	?
Net Factor Income from Abroad	200
Gross Domestic Capital Formation	1,100
Mixed-Income of Self-Employed	400
Private Final Consumption Expenditure	2,000
Net Indirect Taxes	150
Operating Surplus	?
Government Final Consumption Expenditure	1,000
Consumption of Fixed Capital	100
Profits	600

Answer:
Mixed income of self-employed = (i) – [(viii) + (xii) + (v)]
= 71,000 – (15,000 + 30,000 + 1,000)
Mixed income of self-employed = ₹25,000 crores
Government Final consumption expenditure = (D – [(x) + (ii) + (v) + (ix)] + (vi) + (xi)
= 71,000 – (40,000 + 10,000 + 1,000 + 5,000) + 2,000 + 3,000
= ₹20,000 crores
OR
Operating surplus = (ii) – (iv) – (vi) – (i)
= 4200 – 200 – 400 – 2400 = 1200 crores
Net exports = (ii) – (vii) – (x) – (v) + (xi) + (viii) – (iv)
= 4200 – 2000 – 1000 – 1100 + 100 + 150 – 200
= ₹150 crores

Question 12.
(A) How does increase in inequalities in distribution of income affect welfare of the society? Explain.

(B) “Higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer. (5)
Answer:
(A) Increase in inequalities means that rich become richer and poor become poorer. Since utility of money is higher among poor and Lower among the rich, any increase in inequalities may not lead to increase in welfare.

(B) “Higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) means greater per capita availability of goods in the economy.” This statement is not true.

1. If the rate of population growth is more than the rate of growth of GDP, the per capita availability of goods and services will fall.
2. GDP doesn’t account for changes in inequalities in distribution of Income. If the rising GDP is concentrated in a few hands, per capita availability of goods in the economy might not increase.

Question 13.
Explain determination of equilibrium level of national income using aggregate demand and aggregate supply approach. Use diagram. Also explain the effect when aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. (5)
Answer:

The equilibrium is where AD = AS i.e. at point E where AD curve intersects the 450 line. OM is the equilibrium income.

When AD is less than AS, inventories accumulate. The producers produce less. This continues till AS falls enough to be equal to AD.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
(A) Why does a person shivers considerably while suffering from malaria?
(B) Who established that the malarial parasite is transmitted by the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito?
OR
Why intake of cannabinoids is banned in sports and games? (2)
Answer:
(A) The parasites (sporozoites) infect RBCs and rupture them which results in the release of a toxic substance called as haemozoin. This toxin is responsible for the chill (shivering) and high fever recurring every three to four days in malaria.

(B) Sir Ronald Ross.

Related Theory
Sir Ronald Ross of the Indian Medical Service, established on 29th August, 1897 that malarial parasite is transmitted by the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito.
OR
The intake of cannabinoids is banned in sports and games because sportspersons misuse these drugs to enhance their performance. In order to increase muscle strength and bulk and to promote aggressiveness, the sportspersons misuse narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain hormones in sports, that leads to an increase in their athletic performance. This can negatively affect their general health and in long run can hamper the normal functioning of organ systems.

Question 2.
Write any two benefits that Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) provides. (2)
Answer:
The two benefits of Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) are:

1. LAB increases the nutritional quality of curd by increasing the amount of Vitamin B₁₂
2. It checks the growth of disease-causing organisms in the gut.

Question 3.
Roma was confused after hearing about
red data book which is shown in the picture below. She thinks it to be a storybook. To clear her confusion, explain briefly what do we mean by red data book. When and who initiated the red data book? (2)

Answer:
A Red Data Book is a document that keeps a record of all the rare and endangered species of animals, plants and fungi. IUCN red list of threatened species is an inventory of global conservation status of biological species, which is compiled in Red Data Book.

IUCN established the Red Data Book to safeguard the rare species of flora and fauna on Earth, so as to prevent their extinction and it was initiated in 1964.

Related Theory
Red Data Book has its origins from Russia. But at the present time, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) maintains the Red Data Book. The IUCN was founded in 1948 with an aim to maintain a complete record of every species that ever lived and it works in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.

Question 4.
During sewage treatment, list the events that Lead to a significant reduction in Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of a primary effluent. (2)
Answer:
The primary effluent produced during primary treatment is passed into large aeration tanks, where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This leads to vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into floes. The organic matter in the effluent is consumed by these microbes, thereby, decreasing BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of the effluent.

Related Theory
Floes are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures. During their growth, the major part of the organic matter in the effluent is consumed by these microbes and converted into microbial biomass. As a result, the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of the effluent is significantly reduced.

Question 5.
How the technique of PCR serves as an important tool for early diagnosis of an infectious disease? (2)
Answer:
The technique of PCR, i.e., Polymerase chain reaction is very effective and thus it enables the specific amplification of the desired DNA from a limited amount of DNA template. Therefore, it can detect the presence of an infectious organism in the infected patient at an early stage of infection, even before the infectious organism has multiplied to a large number.

Related Theory
Technique of PCR is routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients and also used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients.

Question 6.
The following picture depicts an insect that closely resembles a leaf. What is this phenomenon called as? How does this phenomenon help an insect?

OR
Give the difference between the two main branches of ecology. (2)
This phenomenon is called as camouflage. Camouflage or cryptic colouration is a type of defense mechanism that gives the organisms like insect, the ability to blend or merge with the surroundings or background. This helps them to conceal their presence or identity in order to avoid being detected easily by the predator or to deceive their prey.
OR
The two main branches of ecology are autecology and synecology and the difference between them are:

Autecology	Synecology
It is the study of individual organism or individual species. It is also known as population ecology.	It is the study of group of organisms of different species in a community. It is also known as community ecology.

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
(A) The following microbes share a common characteristic. List that characteristic. Aspergillus niger, Clostridium butylicum and Lactobacillus.
(B) Why in the treatment of waste water rich in organic matter, aerobic degradation is more important than anaerobic degradation? (3)
Answer:
(A) The common characteristic of the microbes Aspergillus niger, Clostridium butylicum and Lactobacillus is that they all produce organic acids as a part of their metabolism and thus are useful for commercial and industrial production.

Related Theory
Aspergillus niger (a fungus) produces citric acid, Clostridium butylicum (a bacterium) produces butyric acid and Lactobacillus (a bacterium) produces lactic acid.

(B) The aerobic heterotrophic bacteria bring aerobic degradation of sewage. During their vigorous growth, the aerobic microbes consume a major part of the organic matter and thus reduce the BOD significantly. Therefore, aerobic degradation is more important.
Whereas anaerobic degradation is done after the aerobic degradation (where the BOD is already pulled down below a threshold level). In anaerobic degradation, only the bacteria and fungi (present in the floes) in the activated sludge are digested and anaerobic bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. Therefore, it is less important.

Question 8.
(A) It is very essential to make host cells competent so that they can take up the desired DNA. Describe the two physical methods of making the cells competent for transformation with recombinant DNA.
(B) Expand – cDNA and Bt. (3)
Answer:
(A) The two different physical methods for
making the cells competent are:

1. Micro-injection: In this method the recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
2. Biolistics or gene gun: This method includes physical introduction of foreign DNA in cells and is suitable for plants.

In this method the cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.

(B) cDNA – Complementary DNA, Bt – Bacillus thuringiensis.

Question 9.
The introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into an ADA deficiency patient served as a cure but it was not a permanent cure. Why? Suggest a possible permanent cure. ?(3)
Answer:
Genetically engineered lymphocytes are created by taking lymphocytes from the blood of ADA deficient patients and grown in a culture. With the help of a retroviral vector, a functional ADA cDNA is then introduced into the lymphocytes. Then these lymphocytes are returned to the patients. Most of the lymphocytes are short lived having an average lifespan of a week to a few months. Since lymphocytes are not immortal, therefore, the patients require periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.

A permanent cure of ADA deficiency is to isolate a normal functioning gene producing ADA from the marrow cells and to introduce them into the cells at early embryonic stages. The lymphocytes of bone marrow then contain the functional ADA gene and reactivate the patient’s immune system.

Related Theory
Adenosine deaminase deficiency is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that causes immuno deficiency.

Question 10.
Water is used by every cell of our body and thus it is very essential for life. List any three features of plants that help them to survive in water scarce environment. (3)
Answer:
The features of plants that help them to survive in water scarce environment are:

• They have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces and have sunken stomata (arranged in deep pits) to minimize water loss through transpiration.
• They follow a special photosynthetic pathway known as Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) that enables their stomata to remain closed during day time. This also minimize water loss through transpiration.
• Absence of leaves in some desert plants like Opuntia in which the leaves are reduced to spines to reduce water loss and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the flattened stems. The stem is green, succulent and fleshy.
• The roots of these plants grow very deep in search of available underground water.
  (Any three)

Question 11.
It is observed that tropical regions have greater biodiversity as compared to temperate regions. Briefly explain the reasons responsible for it.
OR
How does the loss of biodiversity in a particular region affect that region? (3)
Answer:
The tropical regions have greater biodiversity as compared to temperate regions because of the following reasons:

• Speciation is generally a function of time. The temperate regions were subjected to frequent glaciations in the past whereas the tropical latitudes remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and therefore the tropics got a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
• The Tropical environments are less seasonal as compared to temperate environments and are relatively more constant and predictable. Therefore, niche specialization is promoted in such constant environments which lead to a greater species diversity.
• More amount of solar energy is available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and thus lead to greater diversity.
• The resource availability is higher and rate of extinction is low in tropics.

OR
Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to:

• Decline in plant production.
• Lowered resistance to environmental disturbances; like drought.
• Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes, example – plant productivity, water use, etc.

Question 12.
Describe the structure and the process of activation of human insulin with the help of a well labelled diagram. (3)
Answer:
Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains, i.e., chain A and chain B, which are Linked together by disulfide bridges.

Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone in mammals including humans. It contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. The C peptide is absent in mature insulin and therefore it is removed during maturation into insulin.

Related Theory
Pro-hormone is the form of hormone which needs to be processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone.

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
Any individual can suffer from cancer, although the risk goes up with age. But the risk depends on factors such as smoke, Lifestyle choices such as eating habits, frequency of exercise, family history of cancer, etc. Given below is a picture showing a comparison between a normal cell and a cancerous cell.

(A) Define cancer.
(B) Give the difference between benign tumours and malignant tumours.
(C) Write about any two diagnostic techniques to detect cancer.
OR
A 34-year-old woman showed the symptoms of sudden onset of fever, crippling joint pains, lymphadenopathy. The following picture shows one of the symptoms of the disease.
Based on the following picture and description answer the following questions:

(A) Based on the above mentioned symptoms, name the disease. How can this disease be prevented?
(B) List two ways by which vector-borne diseases can be prevented.
(C) What are pathogens? How do they enter our body? (5)
Answer:
(A) Cancer is a disease that is characterised by uncontrolled division of cells in a part of body that spreads to other parts of the body through blood and lymph.

(B) Benign tumours: These kinds of tumours remain confined to their original Location and thus, do not spread to the other parts of the body. Such tumours cause Little damage.
Malignant tumours: These tumours are a mass of proliferating cells called as neoplastic or tumour cells. These cells invade and damage the surrounding normal tissues/cells .by growing very rapidly.

(C) Cancer can be detected by the following methods:

• Biopsy: In this method a piece of the suspected tissue is cut into thin sections and then it is stained and examined under microscope by a pathologist. Such a study is termed as histopathological study.
• Radiography involves the use of X-rays to detect cancer of the internal organs.
• Computed – tomography (CT) uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internal tissue.
• Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue.
• Monoclonal antibodies are the antibodies against cancer-specific antigens that are used to detect certain cancers. (Any two)

OR
(A) Based on the mentioned symptoms, the disease’s name is chikungunya. This disease can be prevented by elimination of mosquitoes and their eggs.

(B) Vector-borne diseases can be prevented by:

• avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas.
• regular cleaning of household coolers.
• use of mosquito nets.
• introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae
• spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas and swamps, etc.
• doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh to prevent the entry of mosquitoes.
  (Any two)

(C) Pathogens are defined as the disease- causing organisms. These include bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths, etc. The pathogens enter our body through different means such as air, water, soil, food, etc., and start multiplying and interfering with our normal vital activities.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
“Gross investment is always greater than net investment.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument.
OR
“Net factor income from abroad can never be negative.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument. (2)
Answer:
The given statement is refuted. Net factor income from abroad is the difference between factor income earned from rest of the world and factor income paid to rest of the world.

If the value of factor income paid to rest of the world is greater than the factor income earned from rest of the world, the resulting value (net factor income from abroad) can be negative.

OR

The given statement is refuted. Gross investment includes addition to capital stock which also includes replacement for the normal wear and tear (depreciation).

Whereas, addition to capital stock in an economy is measured by net investment. So, in an accounting sense, if the value of depreciation becomes zero, only then gross investment will be equal to net investment.

Question 2.
Calculate consumption expenditure in the economy whose equilibrium level of income is ₹20,000, autonomous consumption is ₹500 and marginal propensity to save is 0.5.
OR
S = – 100 + 0.2 Y is the saving function in an economy. Investment expenditure is ₹5,000. Calculate the equilibrium level of income.
Answer:
C = \(\bar{C}\) + (1 – MPS)Y
= ₹500 + (1 – 0.5) ₹20.000
C = ₹500 + ₹10,000 = ₹10,500
OR
S = -100 + 0.2Y
At equilibrium
S = I
I = ₹5.000
₹5.000 = – ₹100 + 0.2Y
0.2Y = ₹5.100 Y
= ₹25.500

Question 3.
“Aggregate Demand worldwide has collapsed and non-essential expenditure is being postponed due to the spread of Covid-19.”

State any two monetary measures to correct the above situation. (2)
Answer:

• Open market operations (buying securities)
• Reducing bank rate

Question 4.
Discuss the need for on-the-job training for an employee.
OR
Analyze the date given in the below table:

Answer:
Employers use on-the-job training methods for its employees to target an overall increase in the skills and efficiencies of the workers. On-the-job training lead to an increase in productivity of labour and production of goods. Such trainings keep the employees updated with the latest changes in their field of working.
OR
There were about 30 million workers in the formal sector, i.e., about only six percent (30/473×100). Thus, the rest 94 percent are in the informal sector. About 20 percent of formal sector and 30 percent of informal sector workers are women. About 80 percent of formal sector and 70 percent of informal sector workers are men. It can be concluded that is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector.

Question 5.
“Women’s health became a matter of great concern in India till the health of a woman is not a priority in our country.” Explain. (2)
Answer:
Women constitute approximately half of Indian’s total population, but they suffer from many disadvantages in health care. Traditionally, women health care had been on the back burner in India due to social considerations prevailing in the country. Gender ratio in the country is declining. The growing rate of female foeticide in the country is also a cause of concern. Most of the married women suffer from anaemia and nutritional anaemia leading to maternal deaths.

Question 6.
Giving reason, explain how should the following be treated in estimating gross domestic product at Market Price.
(A) Fees to a mechanic paid by a firm.
(B) Interest paid by an individual on a car loan taken from a bank.
(C) Expenditure on purchasing a car for use by a firm. (3)
OR
If NDP_fc = 4,300, depreciation = 1,350, subsidies = 250, net factor income from abroad = 330, What will be the value of GDPmp?
Answer:
(A) Fees paid to the mechanic by a firm: It is not included because it is an intermediate cost of the firm.
(B) Interest paid by an individual: It is not included because the loan is taken to meet consumption expenditure and therefore, interest paid on such a loan is not a factor payment.
(C) Expenditure on purchasing car by a firm: It is included because it is an investment expenditure, a final expenditure.
OR
GDPmp = NDPfc + Depreciation – Subsidies
= 4,300 + 1,350 – 250
= ₹5.400

Question 7.
Analyze and compare the distribution of workforce in rural and urban areas.

Read the following case carefully and answer question number 8 and 9 given below;

Why China is looking at a three-child policy?
China embarked upon its one-child policy in 1980, when the Communist Party was concerned that the country’s growing population, which at the time was approaching one billion, would impede economic progress.

Chinese authorities have long hailed the policy as a success, claiming that it helped the country avert severe food and water shortages by preventing up to 40 crore people from being born.

However, the one-child limit was also a source of discontent, as the state used brutal tactics such as forced abortions and sterilisations. It also met criticism and remained controversial for violating human rights, and for being unfair to poorer Chinese since the richer ones could afford to pay economic sanctions if they violated the policy.

Additionally, China’s rulers have been accused of enforcing reproductive limits as a tool for social control The supposed benefits of the policy have also been questioned. Due to the policy, while the birth rate fell, the sex ratio became skewed towards males. This happened because of a traditional preference for male children in the country, due to which abortion of female fetuses rose and so did the number of girls who were placed in orphanages or abandoned.

Experts have also blamed the policy for making China’s population age faster than other countries, impacting the country’s growth potential. It is also suggested that because of the long-lingering impact of the policy, China would be unable to reap the full benefits of its economic growth and will need other ways to support it – unlike India and other Asian economies such as Indonesia and the Philippines, who have young populations. India’s population, for instance, will start ageing from the middle of this century onwards.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/china-population-three-child-policy-7463114/
Answer:
The self-employed and casual wage labourers are found more in rural areas than in urban areas. In the latter, both self-employment and regular wage salaried jobs are greater. In the former, since majority of those depending on farming own plots of land and cultivate independently, the share of self-employed is greater. The nature of work in urban areas is different. Obviously everyone cannot run factories, shops and offices of various types. Moreover enterprises in urban areas require workers on a regular basis.

Question 8.
“There are some advantages to the one-child policy. Which helped to develop the country’s economic status.” State and discuss any two benefits that China got from One-child Policy. (3)
Answer:
Advantages:
(i) Population control: Most common advantage of the One-child policy is control of the population. Where there will be a decrease in the birth rate. Chinese government estimated that some 400 million births were prevented by the policy.

(ii) Avert severe food and water shortages: One Child policy helped the country avert severe food and water shortages by preventing up to 40 crore people from being born.

Question 9.
As there are some ups, there are also some downs to the one-child policy. These downs can affect on the country in every aspect socially and economically.” State and discuss any two consequences of One-child Policy to China. (3)
Answer:
The consequences of one child policy to China are:
(i) Imbalance in sex ratio at birth: Due to the policy, while the birth rate fell, the sex ratio became skewed towards males because of the preference of boy more than girl by parents. This affected China both socially and economically.

(ii) Decreasing in growth rate: There is less working Labour because policy made China’s population age faster than other countries. It reduced the country’s growth potential. It is also suggested that because of the long-lingering impact of the policy, China would be unable to reap the full benefits of its economic growth.

Question 10.
Government spends on child immunization programme. Analyse its impact on Gross Domestic Product and welfare of the people. (3)
Answer:
Government spending on child immunization programme is government consumption final expenditure. Therefore, it raises GDP. Since such a programme improves health, it will raise efficiency Level of people and increase welfare.

Question 11.
“India’s central bank will likely to keep interest rates at record lows amid the emergence of new Covid-19 variant Omicron across the world.”

Identify and explain the policy of RBI stated in the above line. Explain any two tools of this policy. (5)
Answer:
Monetary policy
Monetary policy is a policy relating credit control, interest rates and money supply, with the aim of combating excess or deficient demand. This policy is taken by the Central Bank of the country.

Tools of Monetary Policy:
(i) Bank rate: Bank rate is that rate of interest at which the Central Bank lends money to the commercial banks. In case of deficient demand, there is a need to liberalize credit. It can be done by reducing bank rate so that the commercial banks also reduce their lending rate, thereby increasing the availability of credit in the economy. In case of excess demand, there is a need to restrict credit. Thus, bank rate is increased.

(ii) Margin Requirement: Margin requirement is the difference between amount of loan offered and the market value of security offered against the loan. Higher the margin requirement Lesser will be the demand for loan. In this situation of excess demand, there is a need to restrict loan/credit which can be done by raising the margin requirements. In this situation of deficient demand, there is a need to increase loan/ credit which is done by decreasing the margin requirements.

Question 12.
Given the following data, find the missing values of ‘Private Final Consumption Expenditure’ and ‘Operating surplus’.

Particulars	Amount (in ₹ crores)
National Income	50,000
Net Indirect Taxes	1,000
Private Final Consumption Expenditure	?
Gross Domestic Capital Formation	17,000
Profits	1,000
Government Final Consumption Expenditure	12,500
Wages & Salaries	20,000
Consumption of Fixed Capital	700
Mixed-Income of Self Employed	13,000
Operating Surplus	?
Net Factor Income from Abroad	500
Net Exports	2,000

OR
Given the following data, find the values of “Gross Domestic Capital Formation” and “Operating Surplus”. (5)

Particulars	Amount (in ₹ crores)
(i) National Income	22,000
(ii) Wages & Salaries	12,000
(iii) Private Final Consumption Expenditure	7.200
(iv) Net Indirect Taxes	700
(v) Gross Domestic Capital Fomation	?
(vi) Depreciation	500
(vii) Government Final Consumption Expenditure	6,100
(viii) Mixed-Income of Self Employed	4,800
(ix) Operating Surplus	?
(x) Net Exports	8,400
(xi) Rent	1,200
(xii) Net Factor Income from Abroad	(-) 150

Answer:
Operating surplus = (i)-[(vii)+(ix)+(xi)]
= 50,000 -(20,000 + 13,000 + 500)
= 16,500 crores
Private final Consumption expenditure = (i) – [(iv) + (vi) + (xi) + (xii)] + (vii) + (ii)
= 50000 – (17000 + 12500 + 2000 + 500) + 700 + 1000
= ₹19,700 crores
OR
Gross Domestic Capital Formation = (i) – {iii + vii + x} + vi – xii + iv
GDCF = 22,100 – {7,200 + 6, 100 + 3, 400} + 500 – (-150) + 700
GDCF = ₹6,750 crores

Operating surplus = National Income – wages and salaries – Mixed Income of Self Employed – Net Factor Income from Abroad
= (i) – (ii) – (viii) – (xii)
= 22,100 – 12,000 – 4,800 – (-150)
= ₹5,450 crores

Question 13.
(A) Define the worker-population ratio. What does it signify?
(B) Discuss any two reforms which have been initiated recently to meet the energy crisis in India. (5)
Answer:
(A) Worker-population ratio is calculated by dividing the total number of workers in a country by the population of the country and multiplying it by 100. The worker-population ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country.

(B) Two reforms to meet energy crisis in India are as follows:

• Improvement in Plant Load Factor has increased the operational efficiency of the power stations.
• Check on transmission and distribution losses have reduced the transmission losses and saved a lot of funds for the power distribution companies.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 12 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Ma×imum Marks: 40

सामान्य निर्देश :

• निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
• प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षको में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों में एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए : (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) काश! मैं उड़ पाता।
(ख) जहाँ न पहुँचे रवि वहाँ पहुँचे कवि।
(ग) चाँदनी रात में मैं।

प्रश्न 2.
आपके क्षेत्र में एक सड़क को चौड़ा करने के बहाने आवश्यकता से अधिक पेड़ काटे गए हैं। इसकी विस्तृत जानकारी देते हुए वन और पर्यावरण विभाग को लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
किसी प्रमुख दैनिक समाचार-पत्र के संपादक को गाँवों में चिकित्सा-सुविधाओं के अभाव का उल्लेख करते हुए एक विशेष चिकित्सा-सुविधाओं वाला अस्पताल खोलने का सुझाव प्रकाशित करने का अनुरोध करते हुए पत्र लिखिए। (5)

प्रश्न 3.
(क) नाटक साहित्य की अन्य विधाओं से कैसे अलग होता है?
अथवा
कथानक किसे कहते हैं? इसे कहानी का केन्द्रीय बिन्दु क्यों कहा जाता है? (3)

(ख) एक नाटक के लिए ‘कथ्य’ कितना जरूरी होता
अथवा
कहानी में संवादों का कितना महत्व है? (2)

प्रश्न 4.
(क) फीचर क्या है? यह कैसे लिखा जाता है। विस्तार से समझाइए।
अथवा
उल्टा पिरामिड शैली को समझाइए। (3)

(ख) आलेख लेखन के मुख्य भागों पर टिप्प्णी लिखिए। (2)
अथवा
आलेख और फीचर में क्या अन्तर है? स्पष्ट कीजिए।

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) ‘लक्ष्मण-मूर्छा और राम विलाप’ कविता का प्रतिपाद्य स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ख) ‘रुबाइयों’ के आधार पर ‘गोदी के चाँद और गगन के चाँद के रिश्ते’ पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
(ग) तुलसीदास ने अकाल को भयानक स्थिति क्यो कहा है?

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) ‘नमक’ पाठ में किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ख) पहलवान लुट्टन सिंह को राजा साहब की कृपा-दृष्टि कब प्राप्त हुई? वह उन सुविधाओं से वंचित कैसे हो गया? ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए। लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में लिखिए।
(ग) ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ पाठ का एक संदेश यह भी है कि लोक कलाओं को संरक्षण दिया जाना चाहिए। इस पन अपने विचार व्यक्त कीजिए।
(घ) लेखक ने पूरे पाठ में जाति-प्रथा की किन-किन बुराइयों का वर्णन किया है?

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 + 2 = 5)
(क) ‘डायरी के पन्ने’ के आधार पर औरतों की शिक्षा और उनके मानवाधिकारों के बारे में ऐन फ्रेंक के विचारों को अपने शब्दों में स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
‘मुअनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता पूर्ण विकसित मानव सभ्यता थी’-कथन के पक्ष में अपने तर्क लिखिए। (3)

(ख) लेखक ने सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता को अपने किस कथन में दुनिया की छत कहा है?
अथवा
महाकुंड में अशुद्ध जल को रोकने की क्या व्यवस्था थी? ‘अतीत में दबे पाँव’ पाठ के आधार पर उत्तर दीजिए। (2)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Ma×imum Marks: 40

सामान्य निर्देश :

• निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
• प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षको में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों में एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए: (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) अचानक जब हमारी मेट्रो रुक गई।
(ख) मसूरी के रास्ते में बस का खराब होना
(ग) नदी किनारे बरसात में घिर जाना

प्रश्न 2.
कोरोना के बढ़ते मामले को ध्यान में रखते हुए अपने कॉलोनी की सुरक्षा के लिए नियमित सेनीटाइज़ की मांग करते हुए नगर निगम के अधिकारियों को पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
आपदा स्थिति में खाद्य पदार्थों की बढ़ती कीमत की समस्या के प्रति चिंता व्यक्त करते हुए किसी दैनिक समाचार पत्र के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए। (5)

प्रश्न 3.
(क) कविता की रचना के लिए शब्द कितना आवश्यक है?
अथवा
कहानी में कथानक क्या है ? उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।

(ख) नाटक साहित्य की अन्य विधाओं से अलग कैसे
अथवा
कहानी की रचना में पात्रों की भूमिका स्पष्ट कीजिए।

प्रश्न 4.
(क) विशेष लेखन को उदाहरण देकर स्पष्ट कीजिये।
अथवा
फीचर को आत्मनिष्ठ लेखन कहने के कारणों को स्पष्ट कीजिये।

(ख) संपादकीय लेखन क्या है?
अथवा
समाचार कैसे लिखा जाता है?

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) ‘कवितावली’ के कविता के आधार पर सिद्ध कीजिए कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमताओं की अच्छी समझ थी।
(ख) फ़िराक की रुबाई में भाषा के विलक्षण प्रयोग किए गए हैं-पठित पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ग) कवि ने प्रात:कालीन प्रकृति का मनोहारी चित्रण किया है। ‘उषा’ कविता के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) डॉ. भीमराव आंबेडकर के भाषण के अंश ‘श्रम विभाजन और जाति प्रथा’ तथा ‘मेरी कल्पना का आदर्श समाज’ आपने पढ़े हैं। जाति प्रथा की समस्या के उन्मूलन का उपाय लोकतांत्रिक मूल्य हैं। सिद्ध कीजिए।
(ख) नमक ले जाने के बारे में सफिया के मन में उठे खंदों के आधार पर उसकी चारित्रिक विशेषताओं को स्पष्ट कीजिए?
(ग) लुट्टन पहलवान ढोलक क्यों बजाता था?
(घ) सही में आंबेडकर ने भावनात्मक समत्व की मानवीय दृष्टि के तहत जातिवाद का उन्मूलन चाहा है, जिसकी प्रतिष्ठा के लिए भौतिक स्थितियों और जीवन-सुविधाओं का तर्क दिया है। क्या आपा इससे सहमत हैं?

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 + 2 = 5)
(क) लेखक ने मुअनजोदड़ों शहर के टूटने या उजड़ने के बारे में क्या कल्पना की हैं?
अथवा
ऐन की डायरी में युद्ध-पीड़ितों के लिए कैसा अनुभव करता है? ‘डायरी के पन्ने कहानी के आधार पर बताइए।

(ख) मुअनजोदड़ो’ में बड़े घरों में भी छोटे-छोटे कमरे होने का क्या कारण हो सकता हैं?
अथवा
डायरी के पन्ने’ में ऐन ने आशा व्यक्त की है कि अगली सदी में औरतें अधिक सम्मान और सराहना की हकदार बनेगी-क्या इस सदी में ऐसा हुआ है। तर्कसंगत उत्तर लिखिए। (2)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Given below is the picture of a transgenic crop – Bt cotton. It is an insect resistant variety. In these plants, a gene is incorporated which produces a toxic protein that kills the insects. Name the toxic protein and source organism. What type of changes occur in the gut of insects on consuming this protein? (2)

Answer:
The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis produces the toxic protein called as ‘cry protein’ which is lethal to certain insects. This protein is formed in an inactive form called as protoxin. Prototoxin becomes active toxin inside the gut of the insects due to its alkaline pH. Activated toxin bind to surface of midgut epithelial cells and cause perforation, swelling, lysis of cells which ultimately leading to death of the insect.

Question 2.
The following picture shows the apparatus involved in the process of gel electrophoresis. In the technique of gel electrophoresis, which material is used as matrix? Also mention its role.

OR
How the limitation of traditional hybridisation process was overcome by the use of technique of genetic engineering? (2)
Answer:
Agarose is the most commonly used matrix. The basis of gel electrophoresis is that the DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Therefore, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.

Related Theory
Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
OR
The limitation of traditional hybridisation process was overcome by the use of techniques of genetic engineering, including:

1. Creation of recombinant DNA.
2. Use of gene cloning and gene transfer.

This allows isolation and introduction of only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

Question 3.
Why did the Indian Parliament clear the second amendment of the Indian patents bill ?
OR
List any two advantages of using a biopesticide. (2)
Answer:
The Indian Parliament cleared the second ‘ amendment of the Indian Patents Bill which takes some issues into consideration, including biopiracy, patent terms, emergency provisions and research and development initiative. The amendment of this bill has empowered India to prevent unauthorized exploitation of their bio-resources and traditional knowledge by other countries.
OR
The advantages of using a biopesticide are:

• With the use of biopesticide, there is great reduction in the use of agrochemicals which are responsible for pollution, thus biopesticides are eco-friendly.
• They serve as a permanent control of pests by having a long persisting effect. Also, they leave no toxic residue.

Question 4.
Calculate the death rate for the week, in which 5 individuals died in a week in the laboratory population of 100 individuals. (2)
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths in a particular area in a particular time period per 1000 individuals.
It is calculated by:

= \(\frac{5}{100}\) x 1000
= 50 individuals per 1000 individuals per week.
Therefore, the death rate is 5% per week.

Related Theory
Death rate can be defined as the number of individuals that are lost per unit of population per unit time due to different reasons like death, certain environmental changes such as competition, predation.

Question 5.
(A) What is the application of genetically engineered bacterium Pseudomonas Putida?
(B) What is the role of C-peptide in human insulin? (2)
Answer:
(A) Pseudomonas putida is capable of digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil, thus are used for scavenging oil spills.

(B) C-peptide is present in immature form of insulin (pro-hormone/pro-insulin). It serves as a linker between the A- and the B- chains of insulin and facilitates the efficient assembly, and folding of insulin in the endoplasmic reticulum of beta cells of the pancreas. But, this C-peptide gets removed during maturation of insulin.

Question 6.
(A) What is the ill-effect of excessive use of antibiotics?
(B) Who coined the term “Antibiotics”? (2)
Answer:
(A) Excessive use of antibiotics can lead to infection or colonization with resistant pathogens, consuming antibiotics unnecessarily for viral infection is common and thus lead to increasing rates of antibiotic resistance among Streptococcus pneumoniae and other commonly infecting pathogens.

Related Theory
The factors that cause overuse of antibiotics are past experience, patient’s expectations, lack of education and economic incentives.

(B) The term ‘antibiotics’ was given by Selman Waksman (1942).

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
A lab technician runs a PCR machine for years by simply making use of the samples and components available to him. But he is not having knowledge of all the components. Enlist the basic components of a Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to make him understand the process in a better way? (3)
Answer:
Basic components of PCR are as follows:

• DNA template – It is the double-stranded DNA that needs to be amplified.
• Primers – These are chemically synthesised oligonucleotides (short segment of DNA) that are complementary to the regions of DNA template.
• Taq Polymerase – This enzyme is isolated from a thermophilic bacterium – Thermus aquaticus, having the property of remaining active even at high temperature during the denaturation of double stranded DNA. It is a DNA polymerase that helps in the amplification of a segment of DNA.
• Nucleotide bases – These are utilized or added by DNA polymerase to the growing chain.

Question 8.
(A) A famous example of mutualism is between pollinating species of wasps with specific fig plants. What are the benefits that the female wasps derive from the fig trees from such an interaction?

(B) Why predators are termed as ‘prudent’ in nature? (3)
Answer:
(A) The female wasp is benefited by using the fruit as an oviposition (egg-laying) site and also uses some of its developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. In return, the wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying sites.

(B) There is a possibility of prey becoming extinct, if a predator is too efficient and over exploits its prey and as a consequence the predator will also become extinct due to lack of food. This is why the predators eat the prey population in a manner that the prey conlinus to survive and is not over exploited. Just because of this reason, predators eat the prey population in a manner that the prey continues to survive and is not over exploited. Just because of this reason predators are ‘prudent’ in nature.

Question 9.
(A) What do you mean by BOD Test? When is this test performed during sewage treatment?
(B) Three samples of water are taken, their BOD was measured and found to be 40 mg/L, 10 mg/L and 600 mg/L. Which sample of water is most polluted? (3)
Answer:
(A) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) test refers to a bioassay procedure that measures the oxygen consumed by bacteria from the decomposition of organic matter over a period of five days at an incubation temperature of 20°C. BOD is expressed in milligrams per litre of sample water. Biochemical Oxygen Demand is used in secondary sewage treatment or biological sewage treatment.

(B) The BOD level and oxygen content are inversely related to each other, thus when BOD levels are high, dissolved oxygen levels decrease because the oxygen present in the water is consumed by the bacteria. Therefore, higher the BOD higher the water is polluted.
As a result, the sample with BOD value of 600 mg/L is highly polluted water.

Related Theory
Measuring of Biochemical Oxygen Demand test was given by Sawyer and McCarty in the year 1978.

Caution
Many students get confused with the term BOD, and think it as the amount of oxygen required by organisms. It actually refers to the amount of oxygen consumed by bacteria during oxidation of organic matter in 1 liter of water.

Question 10.
Name the following:
(A) A drug used for helping patients cope with mental illness like depression but often misuse.
(B) Plant source of the drug popularly called “smack.”
(C) Protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery in humans. (3)
Answer:
(A) Heroin
(B) Papaver somniferum
(C) Entamoeba histolytica

Question 11.
Enlist the benefits that are demonstrated by plants with mycorrhizal association.
OR
How biofertilisers are responsible for increasing the fertility of soil? (3)
Answer:
Plants with mycorrhizal association demonstrate benefits such as:

1. Resistance to root-borne pathogens.
2. Tolerance to salinity and drought.
3. Overall increase in plant growth and development.

OR
A biofertilizer can be defined as a fertiliser that is made up of living microorganisms.
It promotes plant growth when applied to the field, by increasing the supply or availability of primary nutrients to the host plant. Therefore, this helps in increasing the fertility of the soil. The main sources of biofertilisers are several species of bacteria and cyanobacteria which have the ability to fix free atmospheric nitrogen into organic compounds and making it available to plants to be used as a nutrient.

Another is one fungi which form symbiotic associations with plants, known as mycorrhiza. In such associations, the fungal symbiont absorbs phosphorus from soil and transfers it to the plant. This promotes plant growth.
One of the major advantages of biofertilizers is that they are eco-friendly and cost-effective.

Question 12.
A doctor always advice his/her patients to
maintain good health by practicing certain good habits. List any three of them. (3)
Answer:
Good health can be achieved and maintained by:

1. Intake of balanced diet, keeping personal hygiene and doing regular exercise.
2. Performing regular yoga to achieve physical and mental health.
3. Being aware about diseases and their effect on different bodily functions.
4. Getting vaccination or immunization against infectious diseases.
5. Disposing of wastes properly, controlling vectors and maintaining hygiene in food and water resources.
   (Any three of the above)

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
The teacher showed a picture depicting a wildlife sanctuary and explained that a sanctuary is a place where wild animal and plants are protected in their natural surroundings. The activities such as collection of forest products, harvesting of timber, private ownership of land is allowed here.
Based on this answer the following questions:

(A) There is a region in Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed. What is that region called as?

(B) Which is the first wildlife Sanctuary in India?

(C) In which year the Indian Board for Wildlife constituted?

(D) Define the following with respect to Biosphere reserve:
(i) Buffer zone
(ii) Transition zone
OR
Alien species or non-native species are often introduced deliberately into a habitat for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away local species. Exotic
species have proved harmful for both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem. The following picture shows an invasive plant – water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) that was introduced in India because of its beautiful flowers and shapes of leaves. But it clogged many waterbodies resulting in death of aquatic plants and animals.
Based on this answer the following questions:

(A) (i) Define invasive species.
(ii) Name one invasive species introduced in India apart from water hyacinth.
(iii) What do you mean by an endemic species?
(B) Mention any two ways in which an invasive species affects an ecosystem. (5)
Answer:
(A) The region in Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowedis called a Core zone.

(B) The first Wildlife Sanctuary in India is Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary.

(C) Indian Board for Wildlife was constituted in 1952.
Explanation: The main purpose of the board was to advise the Government on the means of conservation and protection of wildlife, construction of national parks, sanctuaries and zoological gardens as well as promoting public awareness regarding conservation of wildlife.

(D) (i) Buffer zone may accommodate education, training, tourism and recreation, an area with limited human interference.
(ii) Transition zone is the large outer area of a reserve where people live and work, using the natural resources of the area in a sustainable manner.

OR
(A)
(i) The alien species that is unintentionally or deliberately introduced for different purposes, turn invasive, and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species.

(ii) The invasive weed species carrot grass (Parthenium) or Lantana camara was introduced in India that led to the environmental damage and posed a threat to our native species.

(iii) An endemic species refers to a species that is native to where it is found.

(B) Invasive species can be a major cause of biodiversity loss in an ecosystem. Invasive species competes with the native species for resources and therefore lead to extinction of native species. They can reduce biodiversity and alter the food web and habitats.