Raju

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Inside Our Earth with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Inside Our Earth Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the earth made up of?
Answer:
The earth is made up of a number of concentric (having a common centre) layers, one inside another.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 2.
What are the three layers of the earth?
Answer:
The three layers of the earth are – crust, mantle and core.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘sial’?
Answer:
The continental mass of the crust mainly contains silica and alumina. It is therefore that this part of the crust is also called sial (si = silica, al = alumina).

Inside Our Earth Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
What is meant by ‘sima’?
Answer:
The oceanic crust has mainly two minerals – silica and magnesium. It is therefore that this part of the crust is called sima (si = silica, ma = magnesium).

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 5.
Draw a labelled diagram to show different layers of the earth.
Answer:

Inside Our Earth Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What do you know about the middle layer of the earth?
Answer:
It is called mantle. It is just beneath the crust and extends up to a depth of 2900 km below the crust.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is crust? Give its features.
Answer:

• The uppermost layer of the earth’s surface is called the crust.
• Following are its features :

1. It is the thinnest of all the earth’s layers.
2. It is about 40 km (35 km on continental mass and 5 km on the ocean floors) thick.
3. Major minerals found in this layer are silica, alumina and magnesium.

Class 7 Geography Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 8.
Which is the innermost layer of the earth? Give its features.
Answer:

• The innermost layer of the earth is called core.
• Following are its main features –

1. It extends upto 3500 km beneath mantle.
2. It is mainly made up of nickel and iron (ferrous). Therefore, it is also called nife.
3. Its central part bears extremely high temperature and pressure.

Geography Chapter 2 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
What is rock?
Answer:
Any natural mass of mineral matter that makes up the earth’s crust is called a rock.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Question 10.
What are the types of rock? Name them.
Answer:
Rocks are mainly of three types. These are :

1. Igneous rock,
2. Sedimentary rock,
3. Metamorphic rock.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 11.
What do you mean by rock cycle?
Answer:
Transformation of one type of rocks into another type under certain conditions in a cyclic manner is called rock cycle.

Class 7 Ncert Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
What are rocks made up of?
Answer:
Rocks are made up of different minerals.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Worksheet With Answers Question 13.
What are minerals?
Answer:
Minerals are naturally occurring substances which have certain physical properties and a definite chemical composition.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Short Questions And Answers Question 14.
What is lava?
Answer:
Lava is a fiery red molten mass of magma which comes out of the interior of the earth to its surface during a volcanic eruption.

Class 7 Chapter 2 Geography Extra Questions Question 15.
How are extrusive igneous rocks formed? Discuss.
Answer:
When molten lava comes to the earth’s surface, it rapidly cools down and solidifies. This gives rise to very fine-grained igneous rocks. The rocks formed in such a way are called extrusive igneous rocks.

Question 16.
How are intrusive igneous rocks formed? Discuss.
Answer:
Sometimes molten magma cools down deep inside the earth’s crust and does not come above the surface. This gives rise to large-grained igneous rocks. The rocks formed in such a way are called intrusive igneous rock.

Question 17.
Give one example each of extrusive and intrusive igneous rocks.
Answer:
Extrusive igneous rock – basalt.
Intrusive igneous rock – granite.

Question 18.
Name one place where you will find basaltic rocks.
Answer:
Deccan plateau.

Question 19.
Name the rock of which the grinding stone used to prepare paste or powder of spices is made up.
Answer:
Granite.

Question 20.
What are sedimentary rocks? Give an example.
Answer:

• When loose sediments are compressed and hardened, they form layers of rocks. These rocks are called sedimentary rocks.
• Sandstone is an example of sedimentary rock.

Question 21.
Name two agents which help in transport and deposition of sediments.
Answer:
Wind and water.

Question 22.
Give one special feature of sedimentary rock.
Answer:
These rocks contain fossils of plants, animals and micro-organisms that once lived on them.

Question 23.
How are metamorphic rocks formed? Give examples.
Answer:

• Under great heat and pressure, igneous and sedimentary rocks change to form metamorphic rocks.
• Slate (from clay) and marble (from limestone) are examples of metamorphic rocks.

Question 24.
Mention two uses of rocks.
Answer:
Following are two uses of rocks –

1. Hard rocks are used in making houses, roads, statues and buildings, etc.
2. These are also used in daily life for various purposes, e.g., for grinding stones, etc.

Question 25.
What are primary or igneous rocks? What are its types?
Answer:

• The rocks formed by the cooling and solidification of molten magma are called primary or igneous rocks.
• They are of the following two types :

1. Intrusive igneous rocks,
2. Extrusive igneous rocks.

Question 26.
Explain rock cycle with the help of a suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 27.
How are minerals useful to humankind? Or Give some uses of minerals.
Answer:
Minerals are useful in the following ways :

• Some of them are used as fuels, e.g., coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc.
• Some are used in industries, e.g., iron, aluminium, gold.
• Some are used in medicines, e.g., minerals of sodium, iron, calcium, chlorine, etc.
• Some are used in making fertilizers, e.g., minerals of nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus, etc.,

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is different from the other three layers, with reference to the interior of the earth?
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Exosphere
(d) Core
Answer:
(c) Exosphere.

2. Why is the earth crust called Sial?
(a) Because it consists of silica and alumina.
(b) Because it consists of silicon and aluminium.
(c) Because its constituents are silica and magnesium.
(d) Because it consists of nickel and ferrous.
Answer:
(a) Because it consists of silica and alumina.

3. Which one of the following minerals are found in the oceanic crust?
(а) Silica and aluminium
(b) Silica and magnesium
(c) Nickel and silica
(d) Ferrous and nickel.
Answer:
(b) Silica and magnesium.

4. At which one of the following places the deepest mine of the world is situated?
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Europe
(d) South Africa.
Answer:
(d) South Africa.

5. Which one of the following is the innermost layer of the earth?
(a) Crust
(b) Nife (core)
(c) Mantle
(d) Troposphere.
Answer:
(b) Nife (core).

6. What is the radius of the earth?
(a) 6371 km
(b) 6271 km
(c) 7000 km
(d) 7100 km
Answer:
(a) 6371 km.

7. Which one of the following terms is used for any natural mass of minerals that make up the earth’s crust?
(a) Sediments
(b) Oceanic crust
(c) Rock
(d) Core
Answer:
(c) Rock.

8. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the types of rocks?
(a) Igneous rock
(b) Sedimentary rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(d) Interior rock.
Answer:
(d) Interior rock.

9. Which of the following rocks is also called the primary rocks?
(a) Metamorphic rock
(b) Igneous rock
(c) Sedimentary rock
(d) Crust.
Answer:
(b) Igneous rock.

10. Which of the following statements is false about the intrusive igneous rocks?
(а) They are found on the earth crust.
(b) They have large-grained structure.
(c) They are formed beneath the earth crust
(d) Granite is an example of intrusive igneous rocks.
Answer:
(а) They are found on the earth crust.

11. Which one of the following rocks is formed when the molten lava cools down on the earth’s surface?
(a) Sedimentary rock
(b) Metamorphic rock
(c) Extrusive Igneous rock
(d) Rock cycle.
Answer:
(c) Extrusive Igneous rock.

12. Deccan plateau is made up of which one of the following rocks?
(a) Granite
(b) Cobalt
(c) Intrusive igneous rock
(d) Basalt.
Answer:
(d) Basalt.

13. Which one of the following rocks is formed by the compressed and hardened sediments?
(a) Metamorphic rock
(b) Sedimentary rock
(c) Intrusive igneous rock
(d) Extrusive igneous rock.
Answer:
(b) Sedimentary rock.

14. Which one of the following is a sedimentary rock?
(a) Marble
(b) Granite
(c) Sandstone
(d) Basalt.
Answer:
(c) Sandstone.

15. Which one of the following rocks contain fossils of plants, animals and other micro-organisms?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) Intrusive igneous rocks.
Answer:
(d) Intrusive igneous rocks.

16. Igneous and sedimentary rocks are changed into;
(a) Basalt rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Intrusive igneous rocks
(d) Extrusive igneous rocks
Answer:
(b) Metamorphic rocks.

17. Which one of the following reasons is responsible for metamorphic rocks formation?
(a) Heat and pressure
(b) Heavy rainfall
(c) High atmospheric pressure
(d) Fertile soil.
Answer:
(a) Heat and pressure.

18. Which one of ‘the following metamorphic rocks is formed by the limestone?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Slate
(c) Marble
(d) Basalt.
Answer:
(c) Marble.

19. Which one of the following is the thinnest layer of the earth?
(a) Core
(b) Crust
(c) Mantle
(d) Deepest mine.
Answer:
(b) Crust.

20. Which one of the following terms is used for the process of transformation of the rock from one form to another?
(a) Water cycle
(b) Condensation
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Rock cycle
Answer:
(d) Rock cycle.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Peasants and Farmers with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

Class 11 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
When were the laws of cricket first written?
Answer:
In 1744.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 2.
When was the world’s first cricket club formed and where?
Answer:
At Hambledon, and in 1760s.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
When was the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) founded?
Answer:
1787.

History Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 4.
Where was cricket originally played?
Answer:
Cricket was originally played on country commons. As such it has been a village sport.

Class 9th History Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 5.
What led to the introduction of protective equipment in cricket?
Answer:
The invention of vulcanised rubber led to the introduction of pads in 1848 and gloves afterwards.

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
Who was Len Hutton?
Answer:
A professional batsman who led the English team in 1930s.

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Name the founder of the modern public school system.
Answer:
Thomas Arnold, the headmaster of the famous Rugby School.

Ncert History Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 8.
Which game was considered the game for the girls during late 19th century?
Answer:
Croquet, and not cricket. It was a slow-paced elegant game, suitable for women.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Questions And Answers Question 9.
Where is cricket usually played?
Answer:
Cricket is played in Commonwealth countries.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 10.
Which and When was the first cricket club established in India?
Answer:
The Calcutta Cricket Club, in 1792.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 11.
Mention the place where the origins of the Indian Cricket are found in India?
Answer:
Bombay. (Now Mumbai).

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 12.
Name the first Indian community which started playing the game of cricket in the country.
Answer:
Parsis, the small community called the Zoroastrians.

Class 6 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 13.
Who was India’s captain when she played against England in 1932?
Answer:
C. K. Nayudu.

Class 9 Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 14.
When was the Imperial Cricket Conference renamed to International Cricket Conference and why?
Answer:
In 1965, to scrap the colonial influence.

Question 15.
Who saw in cricket the money-making potential?
Answer:
Kerry Packer, an Australian television 1 tycoon.

Question 16.
When was the first one-day international played and between whom?
Answer:
In 1971 between England and Australia.

Question 17.
When was the first leg before wicket (LBW) published?
Answer:
In 1799.

Question 18.
State two grounds on which Gandhjji was averse to cricket.
Answer:

1. It was a game for the privileged.
2. It showed the colonial mindset.

Question 19.
Mention any four laws of cricket as were written down in 1744.
Answer:

1. Two umpires to decide all disputes when the game was played.
2. The stamps were to be 22 inches high.
3. The ball was to be between 5 and. 6 ounces.
4. Two stumps were to be, 22 yards apart.

Question 20.
Why was ball allowed to pitch through the air rather titan rolling it along the ground in the 18th century Britain.
Answer:
During the 1760s and 1770s it became common to pitch the ball through the air, rather than roll; it along the ground. This change, gave bowlers the options of length, deception through the air, plus increased pace. It also opened new possibilities for spin and swing. It also helped the batsman to master timing and sort selection. It was at his time that the curved bat came to be replaced by straight one.

Question 21.
Describe the changes in cricket rule which occurred during the 10th century.
Answer:
The 19th-century saw important changes in the cricket history.
These changes include:

• the fule about wide balls;
• The exact circumference of the ball was specified;
• protective equipment like pads and gloves were introduced;
• boundaries came to be known where previously, all shots had to be run;
• overarm bowling became legal.

Question 22.
How do you explain that cricket remained a colonial game?
Answer:
While some English team games like hockey and football became international games, played all over the world, cricket remained a colonial game, limited to countries that had once been part of the British empire. The pre-industrial oddness of cricket made it a hard game to export. It took roots only in countries that the British conquered and ruled.

In these colonies, cricket was. established as a popular sport either by white settlers (as in Soth Africa, Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, the West Indies and Kenya) or by local elites who wanted to copy the habits of their colonial masters as in India.

Question 23.
Explain the fact that the origins of the Indian cricket are to be found in Bombay (Mumbai).
Answer:
The origins of Indian cricket, that is cricket played by Indians are to be found in Bombay and the first Indian community to start playing the game was the small community of Zoroastrians, the Parsis. Brought into close contact with the British because of their interest in trade and the first Indian community to westernize, the Parsis founded the first Indian cricket club, the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848. Parsi clubs were founded and sponsored by Parsi businessmen like the Tatas and the Wadias.

Question 24.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi condemn Pentangular as a communally divisive competition?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi condemned the quadrangular or the pentangular tournament a communally divisive competition because cricket had been organised in India on communal and racial lines. The teams that played colonial India’s greatest and most famous first-class cricket tournament did not represent regions, as teams in today’s Ranjit Trophy currently do, but religious communities.

Tournament was initially called the Quadrangular because it was played by four teams: the Europeans, the Parsis, the Hindus and the Muslims. It later became the Pentangular when a fifth team was added, namely, the Rest, which comprised all the communities leftover such as the Indian Christians. For example, Vijay Hazare, a Christian, played for the Rest.

Question 25.
State briefly Gandhiji’s views on the colonial port such as cricket and football.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji believed that sport was essential for creating a balance between body and the mind. However, he often emphasized that games like cricket and hockey were imported into India by the British and were replacing traditional games. Such games as cricket, hockey, football and tennis were for the privileged, he believed. They showed a colonial mindset and were a less effective education than the simple exercise of those worked on the land.

Question 26.
How has television coverage changed’ cricket? Explain.
Answer:
Television coverage changed cricket. It expanded the audience for the game by beaming cricket into small towns and villages. It also broadened cricket social base. Children who had never previously had the chance to watch international cricket because they lived outside the big cities, where top-level cricket was played, could now watch and learn by imitating their heroes.

Question 27.
Who was Kerry Packer? What were his innovations in cricket?
Answer:
Kerry Packer, an Australian television tycoon who saw the money-making potential of cricket as a televised sport, signed up fifty- one of the world’s leading cricketers against the wishes of the national cricket boards and for about two years staged unofficial ‘Tests’ and One-day internationals under the name of World Series Cricket. The innovations he introduced during its time to make cricket more attractive to television audiences endured and changed the nature of the game.

Question 28.
Why is 1970s decade significant in the history of cricket?
Answer:
The decade 1970s has been significant in the history of cricket because of the following reasons:

• The year 1970 was notable for the exclusion of South Africa from international cricket.
• The year 1971 was remarkable because the first one-day international cricket was played between England and Australia in Melbourne. ,
• The year 1977 celebrated the 100 years of test matches in cricket.

Question 29.
Write a brief essay on Cricket in the Victorian England.
Answer:
The organisation of cricket in England’reflected the nature of English society; The rich who could afford to play it for pleasure were called amateurs and the poor who played, it for a living were called professionals. The rich were amateurs for two reasons. One, they considered sport a kind of leisure.

To play for the pleasure of playing and not for money was an aristocratic value. Two, there was not enough money in the game for the rich to be interested. The wages’ of professionals were paid by patronage or subscription or gate money. The game was seasonal and did not offer employment the year-round. Most professionals worked as miners or in other, forms of working-class employment in winter, the off-seasons.

The social superiority of amateurs was built into the custom: of cricket. Amateurs were called Gentlemen while professionals had to be content with being described as Players. They even entered the ground from different entrances. The social superiority of the amateur was also the reason that the captain of a cricket team was traditionally a. batsman; not because batsmen were naturally better captains but because they were generally the Gentlemen.

Question 30.
Why did cricket become popular in the Caribbean countries?
Answer:
Despite the exclusiveness of the white cricket elite in the West Indies/the game became hugely popular in the Caribbean. Success at cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress. At the time of their independence, many of the. political leaders of Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham and Eric Williams saw in the game a chance for self-respect and international standing.

When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national achievement, as a way of demonstrating that West Indians were the equals of white Englishmen. There were two ironies to this great victory. One, the West Indian team that won was captained by a white player. The first time a black player led the West Indies Test team was in 1960 when Frank Worrell was named captain. And two, the West Indies cricket team represented not one nation but several dominions that later became independent countries.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with words given in the bracket:

(i) Palwankar Baloo and Vithal were……………………. . (brothers, cousins)
Answer:
brothers

(ii) The Oriental Cricket Club was ……………………. .(Bombay, New Delhi)
Answer:
Bombay

(iii) The ……………………. were the first to start cricket in India. (Hindus, Parsis)
Answer:
Parsis

(iv) Vijay Hazare was an Indian ……………………. . (European, Christan)
Answer:
Christian.

2. Mark right (✓) or wrong (✗) in the following:

(i) The cricket was first played in rural America.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) The Laws of Cricket were written in1844.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) MCC stands for Melbourne Cricket Club.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) Vijay Hazare was an Indian Christian.
Answer:
(✓)

3. Choose the correct answer from among the four alternatives given below:

(i) The two sets of stumps are apart:
(a) 20 yards
(b) 21 yards
(c) 22 yards
(d) 23 yards.
Answer:
(c) 22 yards

(ii) The world’s first cricket club was formed in:
(a) London
(b) Hambledon
(c) Washington
(d) Melbourne.
Answer:
(b) Hambledon

(iii) Dennis Lillee, the cricket player, belongs to:
(a) England
(b) New Zealand
(c) Australia
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(c) Australia

(iv) C. K. Nayudu was India’s Test Captain in:
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933
Answer:
(c) 1932.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 1.
When did the Energy Conservation Act in India come into effect?
Answer:
In March 2002.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
How much wind power potential does India have?
Answer:
About 20,000 MW.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Important Questions Question 3.
Where is the largest solar plant of India located?
Answer:
In Madhapur near Bhuj.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is the non-conventional energy potential of India?
Answer:
Trie non-conventional energy potential of India is estimated at about 95,000 MW.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 5.
How much electricity is generated from nuclear plants?
Answer:
The gross electricity generated from nuclear plants is 2720 MW per day.

Geography Chapter 5 Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 6.
How many thermal power plants does India have?
Answer:
India has more than 310 thermal power plants.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Question 7.
What is the share of thermal electricity in India?
Answer:
The share of thermal electricity in India is about 70%.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions Question 8.
What is the share of hydroelectricity in our country?
Answer:
Hydroelectricity accounts for 25% of the total electricity.

Minerals And Energy Resources Extra Questions Question 9.
What is the total hydel power potential of India?
Answer:
Total hydel power potential for India is estimated at 150,000 MW.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 10.
How much of the total hydel power potential has already been developed?
Answer:
Only one-sixth.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 11.
Differentiate between thermal power and hydel power.
Answer:
Thermal Power
1. It is generated by using coal, petroleum and natural gas.
2. This type is power is not eco-friendly
3. Thermal power cannot be the permanent source of electricity as the sources of generating this type of power are limited and are showing signs of exhaustion.

Hydel Power
1. It is generated from turbines which run by the use of running water.
2. This type of power is comparatively eco-friendly.
3. This can be the source of electricity supply because water is a non-exhaustible resource because 2/3 of our earth is covered by water.

Minerals And Power Resources Extra Questions Question 12.
Point out the importance of natural gas.
Answer:

• Natural gas has been proved a very convenient source of energy.
• The use of natural gas in cooking has saved a huge quantity of coal and wood and has saved out world from pollution to a large extent.
• Natural gas-based power plants save much time and expenditure.
• Natural gas-based power plants save much time and expenditure.
• Natural gas can be used as an industrial raw material in petrochemical industry.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 13.
Point out the reason why the annual production of gold has been dwindling in India?
Answer:
The annual production of gold has been dwindling in India because of the following reasons-

• The reserve of gold are in fact very small.
• Gold mines are very deep in India. Hence it is quite difficult to extract gold from them.
• The mining of gold has been in progress in India for a long time.
• Hence much of the gold ore has already been exhausted and there is very little ore to be mined.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Map Work Question 14.
Point out the importance of Neyveli Lignite fields.
Answer:

1. Neyveli Lignite fields are in Tamil Nadu. These have been just like a boon for the state.
2. Thermal power produced from the lignite coal of Neyveli fields has proved very useful for the industrialization of Tamil Nadu.

Extra Questions Of Mineral And Power Resources Question 15.
Explain the reasons why solar energy in Rajasthan and Biogas in the Northern plains have greater potential as non-conventional energy?
Answer:
The solar energy in Rajasthan and Biogas in the Northern plains gets more importance because of the geographical characteristics of these places. For example-

• In Rajasthan, it gets unperturbed sunshine for the most part of the year.
• In Northern India, animal waste is abundantly available hence biogas is more easily prepared here.
• These parts of India are climate-wise very appropriate for the biogas production.

Question 16.
“As compared to coal and mineral oil, hydroelectricity is a key source of energy.” Explain.
Or
Which is the best source of energy among coal, mineral oil and hydroelectricity? Give your point of view.
Answer:
Coal and mineral oil have been considered as the main source of power supply for a long time. The industrial developed countries have always used them as the main source of power supply. On the other hand, countries with limited reserves of these resources were forced to import these.

Because of all these facts, the world reserves of these minerals have begun to show the signs of exhaustion. In the teeth of fear of their exhaustion, some new sources of power supply had been invented and developed.

Hydel power is one such source. Hydel power has become more important nowadays in comparison to both coal and mineral oil. Because of this fact, every effort is being made to convert it into a permanent source of power supply. For this purpose, many large dams are being raised to maintain a constant supply of water to produce electricity.

That is why the hydel power has been developed mostly in both the developing and developed countries especially by those countries which posses limited or no coal reserves. Hydel power in comparison to coal and mineral oil is cheaper as well as pollution-free. It also provides advantages to hydel power in comparison to coal and mineral oil.

Question 17.
Give an account of the various uses of petroleum and the potential petroleum reserves in India.
Or
Write short notes on the following points-
1. Potential of the areas of the mineral oil deposits,
2. Production trend of mineral oil in India.
3. Increased demand and growth of mineral oil in India.
Answer:
Petroleum is the only multipurpose fuel of today’s world. It is also the most important source as thermal energy and motive power. In the recent years, the consumption, production, import and export of the mineral oil has assumed a wide scope especially for the developing countries like India. The uses of petroleum and petroleum resources is getting more and more importance every day.

Potential of the areas of the mineral oil deposits: The potential oil-bearing areas of deposits in India are tentatively estimated to be over one million square km. It covers Assam, the northern plains, the coastal strips, Gujarat, desert area, Thar, southern areas, Andaman and Nicobar islands and offshore sea.

The most important oil fields which are already serving the nation are located at Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran, Ankleshwar, Cambay, Bombay-High, Kalol etc. Gas reserves are generally found in association with oil fields. However, there are certain other areas which are exclusively known for gas reserves. These areas are located in Tripura, Rajasthan, Offshore oil fields of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa.

Production trend of mineral oil in India : Before independence, Assam was the only state drilling and refining mineral oil. After independence, various new fields were found elsewhere in India like Gujarat, Bombay-High etc. India continued developing its technology and investing new areas. As a result, the production in the field of oil and natural gas has shown a continuous upward trend.

Increased demand and growth: Though India is producing more and more oil yet production of mineral oil in India is much less than the need of the country. In fact because of the development in every field and sector, the demand for mineral oil is increasing day by day. To fulfill its demand India is importing it. It is putting a great burden on our foreign exchange reserves. Hence India must find out alternative options.

Refining industries in India: Before its independence, India had only one oil refinery at Digboi in Assam. However today India has 8 refineries. All of these are helping India to fulfil its needs to a great extent, The refining capacity of these refineries is about 112.52 million tonnes a year. However, about 50 million tonnes of petroleum and petroleum products are being imported today.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The following region produces more than 50% of the country’s copper:
(a) Balaghat
(b) Khetri
(c) Katni
(d) Nellore.
Answer:
(a) Balaghat

Question 2.
One of the following is not the major mica producing area:
(a) Ajmer
(b) Nellore
(c) Koderma
(d) Balaghat.
Answer:
(d) Balaghat.

Question 3.
The following is the low-grade coal:
(a) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Lignite

Question 4.
Naharkatiya is in the following state:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(b) Assam

Question 5.
Uranium and thorium are available in:
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Jharkhand
(d) West-Bengal
Answer:
(b) Haryana

Map Skills

Question 1.
Show the main minerals produced in India on the outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 2.
On the outline map of India. show the following:
(a) Iron ore belt
(b) Iron ore mines,
(c) Exporting ports.
Answer:

Question 3.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Mica belts,
(b) Manganese ore area
(c) Bauxite area,
(d) Mica area.
Answer:

Question 4.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Nuclear Plants
(b) Thermal Plants

Question 5.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Coal mines
(b) Oil Fields
(c) Major Natural Gas Reserves
(d) Natural Gas Pipelines
Answer:

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 7

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How many foreign tourists visit India per year?
Answer:
About 2.6 million.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
How much rupees were earned by India in the year 2004?
Answer:
About 21828 crore.

Lifelines Of National Economy Extra Questions Question 3.
What was the part constituted by import in India’s foreign trade in 2000-01?
Answer:
About 53%.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question 4.
What is the length of India’s coastline?
Answer:
75166 km.

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 5.
How many ports are there in India?
Answer:
India has 12 major and 181 medium and minor seaports.

Chapter 7 Sst Class 10 Geography Question 6.
How many radio stations are there in India?
Answer:
200.

Chapter 7 Geography Class 10 Important Questions Question 7.
How many telephone exchanges are there in India?
Answer:
About 37565.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Lifelines Of National Economy Question 8.
What is the length of Champakara canal?
Answer:
14 km.

Class 10 Geography Lifelines Of National Economy Important Questions Question 9.
Which of the national waterways is the smallest one?
Answer:
The Champakara canal.

Extra Questions Of Lifelines Of National Economy Question 10.
When was the air transport nationalised?
Answer:
In 1953.

Lifelines Of National Economy Important Questions Question 11.
Point out the significance of the unsurfaced roads in India.
Answer:
The significance of the unsurfaced roads in India are the following-

• The unsurfaced roads are easy to construct and easy to maintain.
• They can even be made to pass easily through forests and deserts and mountains.
• These are of great importance, especially in rural areas.
• They connect different villages easily.
• These roads also connect villages with national highways.

Class 10 Sst Extra Questions Question 12.
What is the importance of road transport as a means of transport?
Answer:
The importance of road transport as a means of transport are the following-

• This means of transport is comparatively more flexible.
• With the help of it, the goods can be carried out from the very doors of the seller to those of the buyers.
• In the hilly area road transport assures a great importance of its own.
• Roads are comparatively easy to construct and also easy to maintain.
• This transport provides link to railways also.
• The roads can also be conducted to connect even the remotest of villages with the national highways or other important places.

Social Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 13.
Write down the importance of air transport.
Or
Air transport is getting more and more important these days. Give points.
Or ‘
Why is the air transport getting more and more importance these days?
Answer:
The importance of air transport in present context is getting more and more important because of the following reasons:

• Air travel is the faster means of transport.
• It saves a lot of time and energy.
• It facilitates business transactions and bring administrative efficiency.
• It makes accessibility possible in the remotest areas also.
• Air transport fulfils the needs of every type ranging from military to the civilian.

Important Questions Of Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Question 14.
Point out the major changes in the development of the Indian railway since independence.
Or
Why are the means of transport and communication the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Or
What do you understand by the lifeline of our country?
Or
Write down in you own words the importance of transport and communication.
Answer:
In today’s modern world the means of transport and communication have no doubt turned as the lifelines of a country and also of its economy. The various forms of transport that are used to carry passengers and goods from one place to another are called the means of transport. On the other hand, communication means sending messages from one place to another.

These are known as the ‘Lifelines’ of a country because of the following reasons-

• They bring the far-flung areas of a country quite closer to each other.
• They carry the greatest number of passengers in longest journeys in lesser time but with greater comforts.
• They carry thousands of tonnes of different commodities from one part of the country to the other and thus avoid much hardships to the people.
• Also in the war times, their importance can hardly be emphasized. They bring the whole country at the back of the armed forces and facilitate the movement of arms, ammunition and other supplies.
• These means of communication and transport also help the Government to maintain law and order.
• These various means have also forged the bonds of national unity in our country by promoting social and cultural contacts between the various people of the country.

Ncert Extra Questions Class 10 Social Science Question 15.
Giving the various examples from the different parts of India, compare and contrast roads and railways as a means of transport.
Or
Transport is the prerequisite for modem industry. Explain.
Or
Does the road transport score over the railway’s transport?
Answer:
In the today’s modern industrial age, roads and railways, as means of transport, have great importance. They are in fact just like the lifelines of modern industries and in modern economy. In fact, both of these means of transport are interdependent on each other and can help each other in numberous ways. For example, the trucks can take the raw materials from the railway stations. The railway can carry these heavy goods to long distances and then trucks can take these materials to the different markets.

Though both the railways and roads are necessary for the development of the modern industries yet the road transport has acquired great importance of its own. It has in fact the following facts in its support- Roads are of considerable significance for passengers and goods traffic in India. Roads are relatively easy to construct and also to maintain.

The investment in roadways is also much less than that of in the railways. The most significant fact about the roads and the road traffic is that they can negotiate high radiant and can be brought almost to our doorsteps, unlike the railways. The road transport is faster than railway transport. Loading, unloading and transhipment from one gauge to another is easily facilitated by the road transports.

Road transport is easier and trans-shipment from one gauge to another is easily facilitated by the road transports.
Road transport is easier and also easier for private use. Trucks or buses can be hired at any time and for any place.
Inspite of all the above factors, as the means of transport both the railways and the roadways are needed for the full development of the industries in our country because they have their own specific uses. As a matter of fact in our country long-distance routes in India are connected by railways whereas shorter distances are connected by road. Hence facilitating each other. So we must pay attention to the development of both of the transport means.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
International trade is carried between:
(a) Two and more cities
(b) Two and more towns
(c) Two and more provinces
(d) Two and more countries.
Answer:
(d) Two and more countries.

Question 2.
The air transport was nationalised in:
(a) 1953
(b) 1954
(c) 1955
(d) 1956
Answer:
(a) 1953

Question 3.
Haldia port was developed to help relieve the growing pressure of the following:
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Chennai port
(c) Kolkata port
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Kolkata port

Question 4.
The Ganga waterways between Allahabad and Haldia is:
(a) 891 km
(b) 1620 km
(c) 168 km
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 1620 km

Map Skills

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(i) National Highways
(ii) Railways ‘
(iii) Major sea routes, ports, International Airports.
(iv) None of these
(v) Map No. 1.
Answer:

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Gender Religion and Caste with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Gender Religion and Caste Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define gender division.
Answer:
Gender division refers to the unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.

Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Notes Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the result of the sexual division of labour?
Answer:
The result of sexual division of labour is that women have been confined to the private domain of family, while the public domain has been monopolised by the men.

Important Questions Of Chapter Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 3.
Why does girl child gets dropped out from the school as compared to male child?
Answer:
Because parents prefer to spend their resources for their boy’s education rather than spending equally on their sons and daughters.

Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
What is the sex ratio in India?
Answer:
Sex ratio means number of girl child per one thousand boys. According to census of India 2001, the sex ratio in India was 927:1000.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Important Questions Question 5.
What were Gandhiji’s views on religion?
Answer:

• Gandhiji did not consider religion as Hinduism, Islam or Christianity. To him, every religion was based on some belief system supported by rituals. He tried to get rid of rituals as far as possible.
• To him religion was a human institution that helped people solve practical affairs. He believed that the moral values drawn from all the religions should be used to guide the political system.

Gender Religion And Caste Extra Questions Question 6.
Write down Human Rights Groups views about religious minorities.
Answer:

• Human rights groups in India have argued that most of the victims of communal roits in our country are people from religious minorities.
• They have demanded that the government should take special steps to protect religious minorities.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Why was India declared a secular state?
Answer:
Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to democracy in our country The makers of our Constitution were aware of this challenge. That is why they chose the model of a secular state.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 8.
Name a few leaders who worked for ending casteism in India.
Answer:
Political leaders and social reformers like Jotiba Phule, Mahatma Gandhi, Dr. Ambedkar and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker advocated and worked to establish a society in which caste inequalities are absent.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Question Answer Question 9.
“Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results also.”. Explain.
Answer:

• As in the case of religion, politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a democracy.
• It can divert attention from other pressing issues like poverty, development and corruption.
  In some cases casteism leads to tensions, conflicts and even violence.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Extra Questions Question 10.
What do you mean by the term ‘Secular’.
Answer:
It means being neutral or matters of faith and having no special preference to any religion. It involves giving freedom to people to follow religion of their own choice. The state treats every religion equally.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Important Questions Question 11.
Define family laws.
Answer:
The family laws are related to families. They apply differently to different religions. They deal with family-related issues such as inheritance, marriage, adoption, divorce etc.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 12.
How can women’s representation be increased in politics?
Answer:

• One way to solve this problem is to make it legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies.
• This is what the Panchayati Raj has done in India. One-third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities-are now reserved for women.
• Now there are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.
• Women’s organisations and activists have been demanding a similar reservation of at least one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies for women.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 13.
Can religion be used positively in politics? How?
Answer:

• Gandhiji always preached for using the moral values of all the religions as a guide to the political system. He believed that all the religions have some belief system and the ethics. It should be used in politics as a guide.
• Ideas, ideals and values should have a place in politics. People should be able to voice their needs and interests as a religious community. Also, the leaders should regulate the religion to ensure that it is not used for discrimination and oppression.
• However, the use of religion in politics should be done with careful thought and analysis. No religious demand or interest should be raised if it is against any other religion.
• Religion should be used to bind the people together and not arouse feelings of distrust and suspicion.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.
Why is the work done by the males more visible than the work done by the females?
Answer:

• The work is generally divided on the basis of the gender of a person. The women of the family are supposed to do all the household work and the men are supposed to go out for work.
• The work done by women is generally unpaid for like cooking, cleaning, washing clothes and taking care of children. Also, no specific skill is required to do the household work.
• While the male members earn money for their work and some skills are needed for the work. Due to this, the work done by men is respected more in the society and hence, considered as more visible than the work done by females.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 15.
When does the problem of communalism become acute?
Answer:
Communalism creates an acute problem when:

• Religion is used in politics as an exclusive factor where people belonging to different religions are treated differently
• Demands of one religion are against the demands of another religion and there is feeling of distrust among the people of different religions
• Beliefs and ideas of one religion are shown to be superior to the beliefs and ideas of another religion.
• Various religious groups are in opposition to each other and the winning or defeat of a particular group is associated with respective religion’s winning or defeat.

Question 16.
Explain “political mobilization on communal line”.
Answer:

1. Communalism means promoting the ideas of one religion within a particular group and undermining the ideas of other religions. It becomes a problem when religion is used to divide the society.
2. It believes that people belonging to different religions form different communities and cannot live together as one nation.
3. Communalism in politics sometimes takes the shape of political mobilization on communal lines. It means that political leaders appeal to people of different religions to gain votes. It involves the use of sacred religious symbols and religious leaders to appeal to the people of that religion.
4. It attempts to bring all the people of one religion together. The political leaders pay special attention to the demands of one religion at the cost of the other religions.

Question 17.
What do you mean by caste inequalities?
Answer:

• Unlike gender and religion, the caste division is special to India. All societies have some kind of social inequalities and some form of division of labour.
• In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to another. Caste system is an extreme form of this.
• What makes it different from other societies is that in this system hereditary occupational division was sanctioned by rituals.
• Members of the same caste group were supposed to form a social community that practiced the same or similar occupation married within the caste group and did not eat with members from other caste groups.

Question 18.
“Caste and caste system in India have undergone great changes.” Explain.
Answer:

1. Caste and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With, economic development, large scale urbanization, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages the old notion of caste hierarchy are breaking down.
2. Now, most of times in urban areas it does not matter much who is walking along next along next to us on a street or eating at the next table in a restaurant.
3. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system.
4. If a person who lived century ago were to return to India, he/she would be greatly surprised at the change that has come about the country.

Question 19.
“Caste can take various form in politics.” How?
Answer:
Caste can take various forms in politics:

1. When parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in mind the caste composition of the electorate and nominate candidates from different castes so as to muster necessary support to win elections. When the governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it.
2. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiments to muster support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their representatives.
3. Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled the political leaders to gear themselves up to the task of mobilizing and securing political support. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior and low.

Question 20.
How does politics influence caste?
Answer:
It is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicised. This takes several forms:

• Each caste group tries to become bigger by incorporating within it neighbouring castes or sub-castes which were earlier excluded from it.
• Various caste groups are required to enter into a coalition with other castes or communities and thus enter into a dialogue and negotiation.
• New kinds of caste groups have come up in the political arenas like ‘backward’ and ‘forward’ caste groups.
• Thus caste plays different kinds of roles in politics. In some ways, it is a routine factor that works all over the world mobilise social groups and communities in order to get their votes.
• In some situations, expression of caste differences in politics gives many disadvantaged communities the space to demand share of power. In this sense caste, politics has helped people from Dalits and OBC castes to gain better access to decision making. Several political and non¬political organisations have been demanding and agitating for the end of discrimination against particular castes, for more dignity and more access to land, resources and opportunities.

Question 21.
“Case continues to be very strongly linked to economic status in many important ways.” Explain.
Answer:
As the evidence from the National Sample Survey shows, caste continues to be very strongly linked to economic status in many important ways:

• The average economic status (measures by criteria like monthly consumption expenditure) of caste groups still follows the old hierarchy – the ‘upper’ castes are best off, the Dalits and Adivasis are worst off, and the backward castes are in between.
• Although every caste has some poor members, the proportion living in extreme poverty (below the official ‘poverty line’) is much higher for the lowest castes and much higher for the upper castes, with the backward castes once again in between.
• Although every caste has some members who are rich, the upper castes are heavily over-represented among the rich while the lower castes are severely under-represented.

Question 22.
Explain the concept of sexual division of labour.
Answer:

• Gender division does not mean the biological difference between men and women. It refers to the unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
• Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children.
• This is reflected in a sexual division of labour in most families: women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc. and men do work outside the home.
• It is not that men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things. When these jobs are paid for, men are ready to take up these works. Most tailors or cooks in hotels are men.
• Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. Women fetch water and collect fuel in villages, they work in the fields, they often do shopping and are increasingly taking up paid jobs. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition.
• The result of this division of labour is that women have been confined to the private domain of family, while the public domain has been monopolized by the men.

Question 23.
“Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways.” Give some instances to support the statement.
Answer:
In our country, women still lag much behind men despite some improvement since independence. Ours is still male-dominated, patriarchal, society.

Women face disadvantages, discrimination and oppression in various ways:

The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent compared to 76 per cent among men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies. When we look at school results, girls perform as well as boys, if not better in some places. But they get dropped Out because parents prefer to spend their resources for their boys education than spending equally on their sons and daughters.

No wonder the proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small. On an average Indian woman works one hour more than an average male every day. Yet much of her work is not paid and therefore often not valued.

In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted before she born. This has led to a decline in child sex ratio (number of girl child per thousand boys) in the country to merely 927.

There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence against women. Urban areas have become particularly unsafe for women. They are not safe even within their own home from beating and other forms of domestic violence.

The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work. However, in almost all areas of work; women are paid less than men, even when both do exactly same work.

Question 24.
Write a note on communal politics and its consequences.
Answer:

• Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. Communalism involves thinking along the following lines.
• The followers of a particular religion must belong to one community. Their fundamental interests are the same. Any difference that they may have is irrelevant or trivial for community life
• It also follows that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the same social community.
• If the followers of different religions have some commonalities these are superficial and immaterial.
• Their interests are bound to be different and involve a conflict.

Question 25.
How can you say that communalism can take various forms in politics?
Answer:
Communalism can take various forms in politics:

The most common expression of communalism is in everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. This is so common that we often fail to notice it, even when we believe in it.

A communal mind often leads to a quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community. For those belonging to majority community, this takes the form of majoritarian dominance ‘For those belonging to the minority community, it can take the form of a desire to form a separate political unit

Political mobilisation on communal lines is another frequent form of communalism. This involves the use of sacred symbols, religious leaders, emotional appeal and plain fear in order to bring the followers of one religion together in the political arena. In electoral politics, this often involves special appeal to the interests or emotions of voters of one religion in preference to others.

Sometimes communalism takes its most ugly form of communal violence, riots and massacre. India and Pakistan suffered some of the worst communal riots at the time of the partition. The post-independence period has also seen large scale communal violence.

Question 26.
“India is a secular state”. Justify.
Answer:

There is no official religion of the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Hinduism in Nepal till recently, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.

The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.

The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

At the same time the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability.

Understood in this sense secularism is not just an ideology of some parties or persons. This idea constitutes one of the foundations of our country.

Communalism should not be seen as a threat to some people in India. It threatens the very idea of India. That is why communalism needs to be combated. A secular Constitution like ours is necessary but not sufficient to combat communalism. Communal prejudices and propaganda needs to be countered in everyday life and religion-based mobilization needs to be countered in the arena of politics.

Question 27.
“The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about caste and nothing else. But that is far from true.” Justify.
Answer:
The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about caste and nothing else. That is far from true. Just consider these examples:

• No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste. So, every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
• No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or – community. When people say that a caste is a vote bank’ of one party it usually means that about two-thirds of the voters of that community.
• The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country. That could not have happened if all castes and communities were frozen in their political preferences.
• The voters have strong attachment to political parties which is often stronger than their attachment to their caste or community. People within the same caste or community have different interests depending on their economic condition.

Multiple Choice Questions
Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Ours is a …………………… society.
(a) Matriarchal
(b) Patriarchal
(c) Feminist
(d) Elders
Answer:
(b) Patriarchal

Question 2.
The literacy rate among women in India is:
(a) 54%
(b) 65%
(c) 48%
(d) 55%
Answer:
(a) 54%

Question 3.
The literacy rate among men in India is:
(a) 54%
(b) 65%
(c) 76%
(d) 80%
Answer:
(c) 76%

Question 4.
On an average an Indian woman works – how much more than an average man every day:
(a) 1 hour more
(b) 2 hours more
(c) 3 hours more
(d) 4 hours more
Answer:
(a) 1 hour more

Question 5.
Child sex-ratio in India is:
(a) 935
(b) 952
(c) 980
(d) 927
Answer:
(d) 927

Question 6.
Now, there are more than elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies:
(a) 2 lakhs
(b) 5 lakhs
(c) 7 lakhs
(d) 10 lakhs
Answer:
(d) 10 lakhs

Question 7.
How many seats is local government bodies are now reserved for women?
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/4
(d) none
Answer:
(a) 1/3

Question 8.
India is a:
(a) Religious state
(b) Secular state
(c) Autocratic state
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Secular state

Question 9.
In 2001, population of STs in India was:
(a) 0.8%
(b) 16.2% .
(c) 19%
(d) 8.2%
Answer:
(d) 8.2%

Question 10.
Who are majority in India?
(a) Muslim
(b) Hindus
(c) Christians
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Hindus

Question 11.
Shift of population from rural area to urban areas is called:
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Rural Migration
(c) Dwelling
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Urbanisation

Question 12.
BPL for rural areas was fixed at spending of:
(a) ₹ 454
(b) ₹ 550
(c) ₹ 327
(d) ₹ 800.
Answer:
(c) ₹ 327

Question 13.
BPL for urban areas was fixed at spending of:
(a) ₹ 800
(b) ₹ 327
(c) ₹ 550
(d) ₹ 454
Answer:
(d) ₹ 454.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Water Resources Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Water Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Water Resources Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Wherefrom the Brahmputra originates?
Answer:
From Tibet.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
In which direction does the Brahmaputra flow?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra flows in eastward direction parallel to the Himalayas.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 3.
What does the Brahmputra do in Namecha Barwa?
Answer:
The Brahmputra reaching Namcha Barwa takes a U-turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh.

Water Resources Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 4.
What is a river basin?
Answer:
A river basin is meant by the area which is drained by a single river system. This is also known as drainage basin.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 One Mark Questions Question 5.
Name two saltwater lakes on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:

1. The chilka-in Orissa.
2. The Pulicat-in Tamil Nadu.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions In Hindi Question 6.
In which states does the Brahmaputra flow in India?
Answer:

• Arunachal Pradesh,
• Assam.

Water Resources Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 7.
By which name the mainstream of Ganga is known in Bangladesh?
Answer:
Padma.

Water Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 8.
When is the Ganga as Jamuna?
Answer:
In Bangladesh when the Brahmaputra joins the Ganga, it is known as Jamuna.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 9.
Where does the Jhelum fall into the Indus?
Answer:
A little over Mithankot.

Water Resources Class 10 Very Short Questions And Answers Question 10.
What is meant by the dendritic pattern of streams?
Answer:
The dendritic pattern of streams indicate the streams resembling like the branches of a tree.

Extra Questions Of Water Resources Class 10 Question 11.
Point out the prominent features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Answer:

• It is the largest delta of the world.
• It is one of the most fertile areas of the world.
• It is a triangular-shaped area.
• It is a well-watered area.
• The lower part of this delta is marshy.
• Mangroves are found only in this place of the whole India.

Water Resources Class 10 Short Questions And Answers Question 12.
How would you differentiate between a glacier and a river?
Answer:

Class 10 Water Resources Extra Questions Question 13.
How the lakes are formed?
Answer:

• Lakes are formed in the mountainous area when the glaciers block the valleys and large amount of water is collected in that place.
• The violent movements of the earth, like the earthquakes, also create lakes when the depressions formed on the crust of the earth are filled with rainwater.
• Human beings also form lakes for various purpose.

Water Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.
What is meant by the Indus water treaty?
Answer:
Indus water treaty is a treaty between India and Pakistan. This treaty is about the sharing of the waters of the Indus system. According to this treaty, India can use only 20% of the total of the water carried by the Indus river system.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions Q. 15.
Which are the important peninsular riv¬ers of India?
Or
Give a brief account of the different peninsu¬lar rivers of India.
Answer:
The Narmada: It rise from Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh. It flows west-southward in a trough for a distance about 1300 km. The Narmada gorge in the marble rocks of Madhya Pradesh is very famous for its beauty.

The Tapi: It rises from the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows in a trough parallel to the Narmada. However, it is smaller in size than of the Narmada.

The Godavari: It is also known as the Dakshin Ganga and Vridha Ganga. It is the largest among the peninsular rivers of India. It rises in Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its length is about 15000 km. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.

The Mahanadi: It rises in Chattisgarh and flows through Orissa and reaches the Bay of Bengal.

The Krishna: It rises from the spring near Mahabaleshwar. It flows for nearly about 1400 km. Its drainage basin in shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

The Kaveri: It rises in the Brahmagir ranges of the Western Ghats. It flows over 800 km. Near the Kaveripatnam, it reaches the Bay of Bengal.

Question 16.
What is the reason of the water pollution? How the pollution level can be reduced?
Or
Suggest some measures to reduce the pollution of water.
Answer:
Water pollution indicates that the water is not pure and safe for the health. Today many factors are causing the water pollution. It is very dangerous for health as well as for the environment. The large number of the dead fishes found in Yamuna at Agra proved it. Factories, specially the chemical industries, paper mills, sugar mills, tanneries etc. are causing the water to be polluted. The disposal of sewage of urban areas into the rivers also lead to this pollution.

As for example, the Najafgarh Nala in Delhi may be taken. Water is also being polluted by the use of pesticides and fertilizers in the nearby fields.
To reduce the pollution level, the following steps should be taken:

• The effluents from the factories should not be allowed to fall into the rivers.
• No chemical industry, paper mill, sugar mill should be allowed to stagnate their effluents on land at any cost. So that it do not pollute the underground water through seepage.
• Effluents of the mills and the factories should be scientifically treated and recycled to be used again.
• Sewage should be treated and diverted to irrigate the fields and the wastelands.
• Oil spills from tankers must not be allowed to enter any water form or river. In fact being a little more aware and taking care of otherwise looking small matters, magic can be created. It would surely make the rivers and other water bodies pollution-free. It will also do magic for our environment.

Glacier:

1. Glaciers are in solid form.
2. Glaciers look like a mountain of ice.
3. Glaciers move very slowly.
4. The movement of a glacier is not discernible.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below;

Question 1.
The river Indus rises from the following:
(a) Mansarovar
(b) Gangotri
(c) Nasik
(d) Mahabaleswar.
Answer:
(a) Mansarovar

Question 2.
The Ganga is also known as:
(a) Krishna
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri
Answer:
(b) Bhagirathi

Question 3.
The following is a peninsular riven
(a) The Ganga
(b) The Tapi
(c) The Indus
(d) The Brahmaputra.
Answer:
(b) The Tapi

Question 4.
The following is the largest peninsular river:
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Godawari
(d) Narmada.
Answer:
(c) Godawari

Question 5.
The following is the range from where the river Tapi rises:
(a) Satpura
(b) Aravalli
(c) Vindhya
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Map Skills

Question 1.
On the outline may of India, show major dams.
Answer:

Question 2.
On the outline map of India locate the following: Satluj, Damodar, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Brahmputra.
Answer:

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Consumer Rights Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 5

Extra Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Question 1.
Which is the apex body of the consumer courts in our country?
Answer:
The National Consumer Commission.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
Which is the most important consumer court?
Answer:
The District forum.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 3.
In which year the Consumer Protection Act was enacted?
Answer:
In 1986.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Mcq With Answers Question 4.
By which name was the BIS earlier known as?
Answer:
BIS was earlier known as the Indian Standards Institution.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Important Questions Question 5.
Where is the headquarter of the BIS?
Answer:
At New Delhi.

Consumer Rights Extra Questions Question 6.
What is DMI?
Answer:
DMI stands for the Directorate of Marketing.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Where was the Codex Alimentarious Commission Intelligence created?
Answer:
In 1963.

Consumer Rights Questions And Answers Question 8.
For what does ISO stand?
Answer:
ISO standas for the International Organisation for Standardisation.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 9.
When was the ISO established?
Answer:
In 1947.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Important Questions Question 10.
What are the four basic consumer rights?
Answer:

1. Choice,
2. Information,
3. Safety,
4. Right to be heard.

Consumer Rights Important Questions Question 11.
When were the four basic consumer rights recognised?
Answer:
In 1962.

Questions On Consumer Rights Class 10 Question 12.
When is the World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?
Answer:
On 15th of March every year.

Cbse Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Mcq Question 13.
Is it necessary to take professional help from a lawyer to file a complaint in the consumer court?
Answer:
No.

Cbse Class 10 Chapter Consumer Rights Objective Questions And Answers Question 14.
How many district courts are there. In our country?
Answer:
About 500.

Class 10 Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 15.
In which country did the first consumer movement begin?
Answer:
In England.

Question 16.
Who is called as the father of consumer movement?
Answer:
Ralph Nadar.

Question 17.
Describe any four rights of the consumers.
Answer:

1. Right to be informed,
2. Rights to choose,
3. Right to seek redressal,
4. Right to represent.

Question 18.
For what the abbreviations APL and BPL stand?
Answer:
APL: Above Poverty Line.
BPL Below Poverty Line.

Question 19.
Where is International Organisation for standardization located
Answer:
Geneva.

Question 20.
On which day does India observe the National Consumer Day?
Answer:
24th December.

Question 21.
Write down the advantages of public distribution system.
Answer:
The public distribution system is very helpful preventing hoarding, black-marketing, overcharging. In addition to all these it also ensures food security to the poor.

Question 22.
What is meant by Agmark?
Or
Write down the functions of Agmark.
Answer:
Agmark is implemented under the Agricultural Product Act, 1937. This act was amended in 1986. Agmark is a scheme run by the Directorate of Marketing and Intelligence in the Ministry of Agriculture of the Government of India. Products like honey masala, etc. carry this AGMARK as the sign of purity.

Question 23.
What are the legal formalities for filing a complaint against a trader?
Answer:
There is no legal formalities for filing a complaint against a trader or a manufacturer in a consumer court. All one has to do is to write his or her complaint on a plain paper and attach the supporting documents like guarantee or warrantee card and cash memo and one can file this very simple complaint in a consumer court. Also there is no need to take any professional help from a lawyer as one can plead the case by oneself.

Question 24.
What do you know about the ISO.
Answer:
The ISO stands for the International Organization for Standardization. It is located in Geneva. It serves to provide a common reference standard at the international level. It is a non-governmental organisation. It was established in 1947. ISO’s work results in international agreements.

These are published as international standards. ISO 9000, ISO 6000, ISO 14000 and the like, indicate specific levels of standards for a particular industry or group of products or institutions.

Question 25.
What do you know about Codex Alimentarius Commission?
Or
Write down the functions of the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
Answer:
The Codex Alimentarius Commission was created in 1963. It is an international body for setting international food standards. This commission was actually created by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and World Health Organisation (WHO). This commission is located in Rome, Italy.

The works of Codex Alimentarius Commission:

• It develops food standards.
• Prepares guidelines and codes of practices for production.
• Prepares guidelines and codes also for the international trade in food products.

Question 26.
Mention the organizations that provide certification of standardization in India.
Answer:
To protect the consumers from lack of quality and varying standards of goods; the Government has set mainly two institutions

1. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
2. AGMARK, BIS caters to the industrial and consumer goods. On the other hand, Agmark is meant for the agricultural products.

Question 27.
Name the consumer courts at the district, state and national levels.
Answer:
Levels Consumers Courts

1. District District court
2. State State Consumer Commission
3. National consumer commission.

Question 28.
Present a brief sketch on the history of the consumer movement.
Answer:
Consumer protection is not a new concept for India as references to the protection of consumer’s interests have also been presented in Kautilya’s Arthashastra Kautilya in his Arthashastra has given a detailed sketch of how consumers interests should be protected against the exploitation by trade and industry, underweight and measurement, adulteration. Punishment for these offences were also made in Kautilya’s Arthashastra.

However in recent era, the modern organised and systematic movement to safeguard the interest of consumers has developed in the late 1980s and early 1990s when the Indian Economy opened up its door for liberalisation and globalisation. At the world level, first consumer movement began in England after the II World War.

However, the modern declaration about the consumer’s rights was first:

Rights of safety: The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 protects the consumers against the marketing of goods and services hazardous to their life and property.

Rights of information: This Act provides the consumer every right of information. It includes quality, quantity potency purity standard and also the price of the goods.

Right to choose: This Act of 1986 provides assurance of access to variety Of goods and services at competitive price. By this act the consumer is assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.

Right to be heard: This Act clearly states that the consumer’s interests should receive due consideration at appropriate forums relating to consumer welfare.

Right to seek redressal: The Act of 1986 provides the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and the exploitation of consumers and rights to fair settlement of grievances. Act also includes the rights to knowledge about goods and issues relating to consumers welfare.

Question 29.
Mention and discuss numerous measures with regard to the protection of consumers interest.
Answer:
The following are measures with regard to the protection of consumers interests.

• The legislative measures include enactment of the Consumer Protection Act.
• The administrative measures include PDS which distributes essential commodities to the people directly.
• On the other hand technical measures consist of the standardization of the products.

To protect the rights of the consumers the Government of India has enacted the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act provides for the establishment of Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies at district, state and also at national levels. This Act has led to setting up of separate Department of Consumer Affairs in central/ and state governments, which focus exclusively on the rights of the consumers as enshrined in the Act.

Also there are no legal formalities for filing the complaint. One can write the complaint on a plain paper and attaching supporting documents like guarantee or warantee card and cash memo with the complaint can submit it in the district consumer court. Consumer courts have settled nearly 77% of the cases.

Moreover, Indian Government has taken the following steps to protect the rights of a consumer

Apart from ensuring food security to the poor as a part of certain administrative measures, the Indian Government has also started public distribution system to prevent hoarding, black marketing and overcharging by traders.

The other important measure taken by the Government to protect the rights of a consumer is standardisation of products. It protects the consumers from lack of quality:

The Government of India has established the Bureau of Indian Standards to make sure about the quality of a product.

While BIS caters to the industrial and consumer goods, the Agmark is meant for the agricultural products.

Agmark is implemented under the Agricultural Produce Act, 1937. This Act was again amended in 1986.

For setting international food standards, there is a similar body called Codex Alimentarious Commission. This commission was created in 1963 by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and World Health Organisation (WHO).

Question 30.
What are various ways in which a consumer is exploited?
Answer:
A consumer is exploited by the traders in various ways, some very common ways of this exploitation are the following
Underweight and under measurements: It is a very common practice by the traders not to weigh and measure the things properly and correctly.

Substandard quality: Many of the times goods sold are substandard quality. For example, selling of expired medicines and supply of deficiency or defective home appliances have generally become the regular grievances of consumers.

High Price: Very often the traders charge a price higher than the prescribed retail price

Duplicate articles: Many times in the name of genuine parts and goods, fake and duplicate items are sold to the consumers.

Adulteration: In costly items like ghee, oil, spices etc. adulteration is very commonly practised to make higher profit in a undue manner. It makes the customers lose their money as well as their health.

Lack of safety devices: Many of the times electrical devices and various electronic goods are sold without proper safeguard.

Unsatisfactory after-sale services: Many of the times suppliers do not provide the satisfactory after-sale services despite proper payments. It creates unnecessary tension to the customers.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) or (✗) before the following sentences

Question 1.
Codex International is located in Rome.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Rome is the capital of United Kingdom.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
BIS was earlier known as ISCO.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
ISO was established in 1947.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 5.
ISO is located in Geneva.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 6.
The consumers have the right to be protected against marketing of goods and services.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 7.
You cannot file your complaint to the consumer court without legal support.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 8.
You yourself can plead your case in the consumer court.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 9.
There are about 200 district consumer courts in our country
Answer:
(✗)

Question 10.
National Consumer Commission is located in Pune.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 11.
In India the concept of consumer protection is absolutely new.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 12.
The level of consumer consciousness in our country is generally low.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Match the following list

Answer:

3. Fill up the following blanks with suitable words:

(i) In India liberalization of economy began in early…………………………..
Answer:
1990s.

(ii)The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in …………………………. .
Answer:
1986.

(iii)Agricultural Product Act, 1937, was amended in …………………………. .
Answer:
1986.

(iv) Codex Alimentarious Commission was created in…………………………. .
Answer:
1963.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Agriculture Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Agriculture Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4

Agriculture Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Name the country which is the largest producer of rice in the world.
Answer:
China.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Extra Questions Question 2.
Which country is the second-largest producer of rice in the world?
Answer:
India.

Agriculture Extra Questions Class 10 Question 3.
How many crops seasons are there in India?
Answer:
Three: Rabi, Kharif, Zaid.

Class 10 Agriculture Extra Questions Question 4.
What is til known as?
Answer:
Sesamum.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 5.
Which crop is sesamum?
Answer:
Kharif.

Extra Questions Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 6.
How many days does cotton requires to grow?
Answer:
At least 210 frost-free days in a year.

Agriculture Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 7.
Name the crop which China produces the largest in the world.
Answer:
Cotton.

Agriculture Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 8.
Name there largest producing cotton countries in the world.
Answer:
China, USA and India.

Extra Questions On Agriculture Class 10 Question 9.
Name any two beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea and Coffee.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Question Answer Question 10.
Name a classic example of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
Tea cultivation.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Question 11.
Point out the features of the Green Revolution.
Answer:

• Green Revolution is actually a phrase used to describe the spectacular increase in the production of foodgrains in India.
• The green revolution has been caused by large-scale use of high yielding variety of seeds and the development of surface and groundwater irrigation.
• Large scale use of fertilizers, insecticides, and pesticides, land reforms, rural electrification and farm mechanisation has held green revolution.

Agriculture Class 10 Important Questions Question 12.
Point out the reasons for which rice cultivation is spreading northward and wheat cultivation shifting westward and to central India.
Or
Wheat and rice cultivation are changing their place. Do you agree?
Or
Rice cultivation is spreading northward and wheat cultivation is shifting westward end to central India. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rice requires hot and humid climate as well as a lot of water. This made it difficult to cultivate rice in Punjab and Haryana earlier. But the developed irrigational facilities in these states has done wonders and thirst of water has been provided by irrigation. The farmers of these states are very industrious too. They have really done wonders with their mechanized implements.

It is the main reason that the rice cultivation is spreading northward. The wheat cultivation is also shifting westwards end to central India. The main reason behind this development lies in the development of new varieties of hybrid seeds which flourish in areas of less rainfall of the western states and central India like Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh etc.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 One Mark Questions Question 13.
Write a short note on the pulse production.
Answer:
India is the largest producer and consumer of pulses. They are the major source of proteins in our vegetarian diet. Major pulses are tur which is also known as arhar, urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Arhar, urad and moong are the Kharif crops while Masur, peas and gram are rabi crops.

Pulses are grown all over the country except in the areas of heavy rain. Plants of pulses also helps in restoring fertility of the soil and hence they are grown in rotation with other crops. Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan are the major gram producing states. Other important producers are Maharashtra and Karnataka. Tur is produced primarily in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.

Agriculture Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 14.
Give reasons why as to the production of pulses and oilseeds are still lagging far behind.
Answer:
India produces pulses in a very large quantity but its consumption is also very high. Oilseeds are also one of the most important parts of our food. Hence the demand for oilseeds and pulses are not only very high but also increasing day by day. It is the main reason that we are still lagging behind in the production of these two commodities.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions Question 15.
Give the reason as why to the extension of green revolution is necessary in India?
Answer:
Though we have succeeded in growing foodgrains in a large quantity, yet our population is doubling nearly after every 35 years. Because of this fact we need more and more food for our expanding population. For this green revolution must be expanded to the other parts of the country.

Hence we must speed up our production. For the promotion of our industry, we would be requiring more and more of raw materials which mostly come from agriculture. Green revolution in fact symbolises prosperity. Hence if we want that all of the parts of India should prosper we should expand Green Revolution to all parts of India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 16.
What is the Operation Flood? Why it should be expanded to all over the country?
Answer:
It is absolutely necessary to expand white Revolution in the country. The main reasons behind this necessity are the following-

• Dairy development is greatly needed in all over India for the supply of milk and milk products.
• Dairy development will no doubt lead to the development of rural areas,
• It will supplement the meagre income of the small and marginal farmers.
• It will also provide farm manure and biogas.
• It will in fact go a long way in removing poverty in the rural areas.

White Revolution is popularly known as the Operation Flood. Various technological and institutional reforms have contributed a lot to the White Revolution in our country. The dairy cooperatives play an important role in collecting and marketing milk.

The dairy cooperatives have been formed in different parts of the country for the collection and better distribution of milk. The dairy cooperatives in Gujarat supply milk, butter, cheese etc. to various parts of the country. National Milk Food is the major achievement of Operation Flood. Because of it help equable collection and distribution of milk in the country has reached an inspiring high. It made India first in the production of milk worldwide.

Chapter 4 Geography Class 10 Extra Questions Question 17.
Describe various technological and institutional reforms, which led to green and white revolutions in India.
Answer:
Green revolution has turned India independent in the production of foodgrains while white revolution has made it the longest producer of milk in the world. Various technological and institutional reforms have been adopted to bring about green revolution and white revolution in India.

Green Revolution-

• To bring this revolution large areas in India after independence have been brought under irrigation.
• Use of fertilizers has increased the food grain production.
• Use of pesticides has secured the growth of crops and production.
• Green revolution has considerably helped in increasing yields per hectare as well as total production of different crops.

White Revolution-

• A number of cattle development projects have been initiated by the Government for cattle and buffaloes.
• India has imported high breed bulls from other countries to improve the breed of cattle.
• Dairy cooperatives have been formed in different parts of the country for the collection and better distribution of milk.
• Much improvement has been made in the transport and storage side also.
• The milk vans with refrigeration facilities have given a great boost to the Diary industry.
• Green revolution by providing enough fodder for the animals also gave a great boost to the Diary-farming.

Multiple Choice Questions

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 1.
The following is the staple food crop of India.
(a) Rice
(b) Tea
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(a) Rice

Agriculture Chapter Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
The following is not the sugarcane producing state of India.
(a) Nagaland
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Nagaland

Class 10 Agriculture Important Questions Question 3.
The following is not the coffee-producing state of India.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 4.
One of the following is not the fibre crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Tea
(c) Jute
(d) Hemp.
Answer:
(b) Tea

Map Skills

Question 1.
On an outline map of India show the following:

1. Cotton producing areas
2. Jute producing areas
3. Rubber producing areas
4. Tobacco producing areas.
5. Maize producing areas
6. Millet producing areas.

Question 2.
Show on the outline map on India rice-growing areas.
Answer:
(a) See map
(i) for Rice producing areas.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Access Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Determinants Ex 4.6, contains solutions for all Exercise 4.6 Class 12 questions. https://ncertmcq.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-12-maths/

Determinants Class 12 NCERT Solutions Maths Chapter 4 Exercise 4.6

Diversity And Discrimination Class 6 Extra Questions And Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Sectors of Indian Economy Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 2

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
When was the Essential Commodities Act passed?
Answer:
In 1955.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 2.
What was the percentage of unemployed urban males in India during the year 1987-88?
Answer:
About 8.8%.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Question 3.
What was the percentage of unemployed rural females in India during 1999-
Answer:
About 7.

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 4.
What was the percentage of the unemployed urban females during 1999-2000?
Answer:
About 7.3%

Sectors Of Indian Economy Extra Questions Question 5.
What is a primary activity?
Answer:
When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources, it is called primary activity.

Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is a secondary activity?
Answer:
When a product is made or manufactured in a workshop or factory, it is a secondary activity.

Extra Questions Of Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 7.
What is a territary activity?
Answer:
It is an activity which provides aid or support for the production process. In itself, it does not produce any goods.

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Answers Question 8.
Give the meaning of GDP
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product is the value of all final good and services produced within a country during a particular year.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
Suggest three measures for the solution of unemployment problem.
Answer:
Three most important measures for the solution of unemployment in India are the following

1. Expansion of employment exchange.
2. Increase in the rate of capital formation.
3. Encouragement for self-employment.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Study Rankers Question 10.
What is the condition of unemployment as data provided by the employment exchange?
Answer:
Data provided by the employment exchange is the second source of information about unemployment condition in ‘India. The first one is conducting sample surveys and population censuses.

The data provided by employment exchanges is considered as the indirect method of estimating the educated unemployed in India. In 2001, near about 420 iakh job-seekers were registered with employment exchanges. Among these job Seekers 267% were women.

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Important Questions Question 11.
What is meant by the voluntary unemployment?
Answer:
Voluntary unemployment is meant by choosing not to work voluntarily. Voluntarily unemployed persons prefer leisure to work as they do not like the wage rates in practice.

However voluntary unemployment is not totally voluntary, there may be some hidden or obvious reasons behind it. Most these kind of unemployed choose to remain idle until they get work on their terms and conditions.

Extra Questions Of Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 Question 12.
What is meant by Disguised Unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised Unemployment is a situation where more people are engaged in an activity than the required ones. Though these people appear to be employed, actually they are not fully employed.

In such cases even if the surplus labourers are removed from work, production does not suffer. In India this kind of problem is particularly acute in rural areas.

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Short Question Answers Question 13.
Define unemployment? What is seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is the situation in which a section of people, who are able and willing to work but do not find gainful work. Seasonal unemployment is meant by the situation where some people are employed during some parts of the year and remain without work during the rest of the year, owing to the seasonal nature of work. For example if an agricultural worker or a farmer remains out of work in the lean season of a year, he is said to be seasonally unemployed.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Question 14.
Mention the most common type of unemployment.
Answer:
The most -common type of ‘unemployment is structural unemployment as in this type of unemployment the economy has no capital or resource to provide employment to all of its labour force. It is a common feature of many of the developing countries. Even the nature of unemployment in our country is partly structural.

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 15.
Why is the primary sector called as agriculture sector?
Answer:
Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture (dairy, fishing, forestry) this sector is rightly called the agriculture sector.

Question 16.
Describe various types of umemployment
Answer:
{A}. Unemployment: Unemployment is a situation which a section of people, who are able and willing to work, not find gainful work. Unemployment is mainly of three types.
These are the following

1. Disguised Unemployment: It is a situation in which more people are engaged in an activity than the required ones.
2. Seasonal Unemployment: It is the situation in which people are employed during some part of the year and remain without work during the rest of the year.
3. Structural Unemployment: It is a common feature of many of the developing countries. It is an economy which has no capital or resource to provide employment to all of its labour force.

other Types of Unemployment

• Unemployment due to slackening of demand for good.
• Technical unemployment which occurs due to the changes in technology..
• Cyclical unemployment which generally occurs in the capitalist countries.

However,, these types of unemployment are considered harmless and prevail for short durations only. On the other hand Main three types are very harmful. Seasonal Unemployment: It is one of the three main types of unemployment. It points out the situation where some people are employed during some parts of the year and remain without work during the rest of the year owing to the seasonal nature of work.

For example, for a considerable part of the year, the Indian farmers are out of work as agriculture in India is a seasonal activity as it depends on monsoon. If an agricultural worker or a farmer remains out of work in the lean season of a year he or she is said to be seasonally unemployed.

Question 17.
What are the strategies that the government has undertaken to reduce unemployment?
Answer:
The Strategies taken by the government to reduce unemployment part from the programmes which are mainly aimed at the development of infrastructure like construction of small and large dams, canals, roads etc., the government strategies to generate employment that is closely associated with poverty alleviation programmes. The government of India has undertaken many special programmes to generate, employment opportunities.

Following are the major ones;
Rural Works Programme: This programme aims at construction of civil works of permanent nature in rural areas integrated Dry Land Agricultural Development-Under this scheme permanent works like soil conservation, development of land and water harnessing etc. are undertaken.

National Rural Employment Programme: This is the programme which aims to create community assets for strengthening rural infrastructure. Like drinking water well works, community irrigation wells, village tanks, minor irrigation works rural roads and schools.

The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme aims at generating gainful employment. It creates productive assets in rural areas and improves the overall quality of rural life.

Skill Development: One of the major issues relating to unemployment is skill development. Change in the production Methods has led to increase in demand for skilled labour. A skilled labourer is one who has proper training and 1 education to work in a particular field.

Training and education in fact increase the productivity of workers. With a view to impart skills through training, the Government of India has taken many steps. For example:

The Central Board of Workers Education was formed in 1958. It is doing significant work by creating understanding and enthusiasm among workers for the success of industrial growth.

Various ministries of the government of India are providing vocational education and training.

Vocational education has been integrated at the school level as well. The government has also implemented a number of schemes for providing low cost capital to the small enterprises and employed persons.
Financial institutions like banks have helped in this process by providing credit facilities at 1 concessional rates.

Question 18.
Write a detailed note on public and private sector
Answer:
There are several things needed by the society a whole but which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. Some of these need spending large sums of money, which is beyond the capacity of the private sector. Also, collecting on from thousands of people who use these facilities is not transfer if they do provide these things they would charge a big their use.

Examples are construction of roads, bridges, railways harbours, generating electricity, providing irrigation through dams etc. Thus, governments have to undertake such heavy spending and ensure that these facilities are available for everyone.

Similarly, the government in India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a ‘fair price’. This it stores in its godowns and sells at a lower price to consumers through ration shops. The government has to bear some of the cost. In this way, the government supports both farmers and consumers, There are a large number of activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.

The government must spend on these. Providing health and education facilities for all is one example. We have discussed some of these issues in the first chapter. Running proper schools and providing quality education, particularly elementary education, is the duty of the government.

India’s size of illiterate population is one of the largest in the world. Similarly, we know that nearly half of India’s children are malnourished and a quarter of them are critically ill. We have read about Infant Mortality Rates.

The infant mortality rate of Orissa (87) or Madhya Pradesh (85) is higher than that of the poorest regions of the world such as the African countries. Government also needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor and food and nutrition. It is also the duty of the government to take care of the poorest and most ignored regions of the country through increased spending in such areas.

Question 19.
Why is the territary sector becoming important in India. Give reasons?
Answer:
The territary sector is becoming important in India there are several reasons. Some such reasons are First, in any country several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required.

These can be considered as basic services. In a developing country the government has to take responsibility for the provision of these services.

Second, the development of agriculture and industry leaders to the development of services such as transport, trade, storage and the like, as we have already seen. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand or such services.

Third, as income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping private hospitals, private schools, professional training etc. One can see this change quite sharply in cities, especially in big cities, Fourth, over the past decade or so, certain new. Services such as those based on information and communication technology Have become important and essential. The production of these services has been rising rapidly In Chapter 4, we shall see examples of these new services and the reasons for their, expansion.

Question 20.
Who in the unorganised sector needs protection? Explain.
Answer:
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought after, But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. It is also common to find many organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector. They adopt such strategies to evade taxes and refuse to follow laws that protect labourers. As a result, a large number of workers land up in low-paid jobs. They are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits.

In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers sharecroppers and artisans (such as weavers, blacksmith carpenters and goldsmiths). Nearly 80% of rural households In India are in small and marginal farmer category.

These farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and market outlets of In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises trade and transport etc., and those who work as street vendors, workers in small-scale industry; casual workers in vendors head load workers, garment makers, ragpickers etc. Small-scale industry also needs governments support for procuring raw material and marketing of output. The casual workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected.

Objective Type Questions

1.Fill up the blanks with suitable words.

(i). A person unable to find any gainful work or job is known as an ………………………. .
Answer:
unemployed.

(ii). ………………………. generates employment for those who do not get sufficient days of employment.
Answer:
JGSY

(iii) There are around 4300 ………………………. Operating in India.
Answer:
it is

(iv)Rural works programme aims at construction of ………………………. works of permanent nature.
Answer:
Civil

(v) Population in India has increased at a ………………………. rate.
Answer:
rapid

(vi) In 2001 about, ………………………. Lakh job-seekers were registered with employment exchange.
Answer:
420

(vii) CBWE was formed’in ………………………. .
Answer:
1958.

(viii) National Rural Employment Programme aims to create ………………………. assets.
Answer:
Financial.

(ix). ………………………. include the items, generally consumed by workers of all categories
Answer:
CPL.

2. Choose the correct alternative.

(a) The infant mortality rate in Madhya Pradesh (2003).
(a) 87
(b) 90
(c) 93
(d) 96
Answer:
(a) 87

(b) The following is a public sector enterprise.
(a) Post Office
(b) TISCO
(c) RIL
(d) Bajaj Auto
Answer:
(a) Post Office

(c) In the private sector, the assets are owned by
(a) government
(b) individuals and government
(c) individuals
(d) Have of these
Answer:
(c) individuals

(d) Organised sector enterprises ensure
(a) regular job
(b) assured work with low-paid wage
(c) low paid wages
(d) have of these
Answer:
(a) regular job

(e) NREG of is also called
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to vote
(c) Right to freedom
(d) Right to freedom of religion
Answer:
(a) Right to work

(f) NREG Act belongs to the following year.
(a) 2006
(b) 2005
(c) 2004
(d) 2003.
Answer:
(b) 2005.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science