## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones.

 Board CBSE Textbook NCERT Class Class 7 Subject Science Chapter Chapter 8 Chapter Name Winds, Storms and Cyclones Number of Questions Solved 9 Category NCERT Solutions

## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Question 1.
Fill the missing word in the blank spaces in the following statements :

1. The wind is ……… air.
2. Winds are generated due to ……….. heating on the earth.
3. Near the earth’s surface …………. air rises up whereas ………. air comes down.
4. Air moves from a region of ……….. pressure to a region of ……….. pressure.

1. moving
2. uneven
3. warm, comparatively cooler
4. high air, low air

Question 2.
Suggest two methods to find out wind direction at a given place.
Two methods to find out wind directions are:
(i) using weathercock (Fig.).
(ii) one simple method used by common people is to hold some dust and release in the air. Dust will fly in the direction of air.

Fig. A weathercock

Question 3.
State two experiences that made you think that air exerts pressure (other than those given in the text).
Experiment 1: When we fill the air in a balloon it flattens due to pressure exerted by air. Also when it is overfilled with air it bursts due to excess air pressure

Fig. Air exerts pressure
Experiment 2: When we hang a banner in a place of moving fast air, it tears due to the pressure exerted by the air.

Question 4.
No, a house which has no ventilators is not a safe or healthy house to live in. The air circulation is not present in such a house. So, it has no fresh air. Because warm air rises up and goes out through ventilators and fresh air comes in through windows.

Question 5.
Explain why holes are made in hanging banners and hoardings.
We know that air exerts pressure. If there are no holes in the banners and hoardings they will be damaged. To make them safe, holes are made to give the air safe passage.

Question 6.
I will help by following ways :

1. Warning everyone about the coming danger.
2.  Searching for shelter.
3. Keeping storage of water and food.
4. Setting up a first-aid facility.

Question 7.
What planning is required in advance to deal with the situation created by a cyclone?
To deal with the situation created by a cyclone we must do the following planning in advance.
On the part of the government:

• Rapid communication of warnings to the government agencies, the ports, fishermen, ships, and to the general public must be ensured.
• There must be the construction of cyclone shelters in cyclone-prone areas and administrative arrangements for moving people fast to safer places.

On the part of the public following actions must be taken:

• keep ready the phone numbers of all emergency services like police, fire brigade, and medical centres.
• make necessary arrangements to shift the essential household goods, domestic animals and vehicles, etc., to safer places.

Question 8.
Which one of the following places is unlikely to be affected by a cyclone?
(i) Chennai
(ii) Mangaluru (Mangalore)
(iii) Amritsar
(iv) Puri
(iii) Amritsar

Question 9.
Which of the statements given below is correct?
(i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.
(ii) In summer the winds flow from the land towards the ocean.
(iii) A cyclone is formed by a very high-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving around it.
(iv) The coastline of India is not vulnerable to cyclones.
(i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 1 Integers Ex 1.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 1 Integers Ex 1.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 1 Integers Ex 1.1.

 Board CBSE Textbook NCERT Class Class 7 Subject Maths Chapter Chapter 1 Chapter Name Integers Exercise Ex 1.1 Number of Questions Solved 10 Category NCERT Solutions

## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 1 Integers Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Following number line shows the temperature in degree Celsius (°C) at different places on a particular day:

(a) Observe this number line and write the temperature of the places marked on it.
(b) What is the temperature difference between the hottest and the coldest places among the above?
(c) What is the temperature difference between Lahul-Spiti and Srinagar?
(d) Can we say temperature of Srinagar and Shimla taken together is less than the temperature at Shimla? Is it also less than the temperature at Srinagar?
Solution:
(a)

(b) The hottest place is Bangalore (22 °C) and the coldest place is Lahulspiti (-8°C). The temperature difference between the hottest and the coldest places
= 22 °C – (-8 °C)
= 22 °C + 8 °C
= 30 °C

(c) Temperature difference between Lahul-Spiti and Srinagar
= Temperature of Srinagar
– Temperature of Lahul-Spiti
= – 2°C – (- 8°C)
= – 2°C + 8°C
= 6°C

(d) Yes, we can say that the temperature of Srinagar and Shimla took together is less than the temperature at Shimla as -2 + 5 = 3 and 3 < 5.
This temperature is not less than the temperature at Srinagar.

Question 2.
In a quiz, positive marks are given for correct answers and negative marks are given for incorrect answers. If Jack’s scores in five successive rounds were 25, -5, -10, 15 and 10, what was his total at the end?
Solution:
Total at the end
= 25 + (- 5) + (- 10) + 15 + 10
= (25 + 15 + 10) + {(- 5) + (- 10))
= 50 + (- 15) = 35

Question 3.
At Srinagar, the temperature was – 5°C on Monday and then it dropped by 2°C on Tues¬day. What was the temperature of Srinagar on Tuesday? On Wednesday, it rose by 4°C. What was the temperature on this day?
Solution:
At Srinagar, the temperature was on Monday = -5 °C
Since the temperature was dropped by 2 °C on Tuesday, therefore, the temperature was on Tuesday = (-5-2) °C = -7°C
Also, on Wednesday the temperature rose by 4 °C.
∴ Temperature on Wednesday= (-7 + 4) °C = -3 °C

Question 4.
A plane is flying at the height of 5000 m above sea level. At a particular point, it is e×actly above a submarine floating 1200 m below sea level. What is the vertical distance between them?

Solution:
The vertical distance between the plane and submarine.
= 5000 m – (- 1200 m)
= 5000 m + 1200 m
= 6200 m.

Question 5.
Mohan deposits ₹ 2,000 in his bank account and withdraws ₹1,642 from it, the next day. If the withdrawal of the amount from the account is represented by a negative integer, then how will you represent the amount deposited?
Find the balance in Mohan’s account after the withdrawal.
Solution:
The amount deposited will be represented by a positive integer.
Balance in Mohan’s account after withdrawal
= (+ ₹ 2000) + (- ₹ 1642)
= ₹ (2000-1642)
= ₹ 358

Question 6.
Rita goes 20 km towards the east from point A to point B. From B, she moves 30 km towards the west along the same road. If the distance towards the east is represented by a positive integer then, how will you represent the distance travelled towards the west? By which integer will you represent her final position from A?

Solution:
The distance towards the west = -30 km
Her final position from A
= + 20 km + (- 30) km
= – (30 – 20) km
= – 10 km.

Question 7.
In a magic square each row, column, and diagonal have the same sum. Check which of the following is a magic square.

Solution:

I. Row, Sum = 5 + (- 1) + (- 4)
= 5 + (- 5) = 0
II. Row, Sum = (- 5) + (- 2) + 7
= (- 7) + 7 = 0
III. Row, Sum = 0 + 3 + (- 3)
= 0 + 0 = 0
I. Column, Sum = 5 + (- 5) + 0
= 0 + 0 = 0
II. Column, Sum = (- 1) + (- 2) + 3
= (- 3) + 3 = 0
III. Column, Sum = (- 4) + 7 + (- 3)
= 7 + (- 4) + (- 3)
= 7 + (- 7) = 0
One Diagonal, Sum = 5 + (- 2) + (- 3) = 5 + (- 5) = 0
Other Diagonal, Sum = 0 + (- 2) + (- 4) = 0 + (- 6) = -6 ≠ 0
Therefore, the given square is not a magic square.

I. Row, Sum = 1 + (- 10) + 0 = – 9
II. Row, Sum = (- 4) + (- 3) + (- 2) = – 9
III. Row, Sum = (- 6) + 4 + (- 7)
= 4 + (- 6) + (- 7)
= 4 + (- 13)
= – (13-4) = -9
I. Column, Sum = 1 + (- 4) + (- 6)
= 1 + (- 10)
= -(10 – 1) = – 9
II. Column, Sum = (- 10) + (- 3) + 4
= (-13)+ 4
= – (13-4) = -9
III. Column, Sum = 0 + (- 2) + (- 7)
= 0 + (- 9) = – 9
One Diagonal, Sum = 1 + (- 3) + (- 7)
= 1 + (- 10)
= -(10-1) = -9
Other Diagonal, Sum = (- 6) + (- 3) + 0
= (- 9) + 0 = – 9
Since each row, column, and diagonal ‘ have the same sum, therefore, the given square is a magic square.

Question 8.
Verify a – (- b) = a + b for the following values of a and b.
(i) a = 21, b = 18
(ii) a = 118, b = 125
(iii) a = 75, b = 84
(iv) a = 28, b = 11.
Solution:
(i) a = 21, b = 18
L.H.S. = a – (- b) = 21 – (- 18) = 21 + 18 = 39 …..(1)
R.H.S. = a + b = 21 + 18 = 39 …..(2)
From (1) and (2), we get a -(-b) = a + b

(ii) a = 118, b = 125
L.H.S. = a – (- b) = 118 – (- 125) = 118 + 125 = 243 …(1)
R.H.S. = a + b = 118 + 125 = 243 …(2)
From (1) and (2), we get a -(- b) = a + b

(iii) a = 75, b = 84
L.H.S. = a – (- b) = 75 – (- 84) = 75 + 84 = 159 …(1)
R.H.S. = a + b = 75 + 84 = 159 …(2)
From (1) and (2), we get a – (- b) = a + b

(iv) a = 28, b = 11
L.H.S. = a – (- b) = 28 -(-11) = 28 + 11 = 39 …(1)
R.H.S. = a + b = 28 + 11 = 39 …(2)
From (1) and (2), we get a – (- b) = a + b.

Question 9.
Use the sign of >, < or = in the bo× to make the statements true.
(a) (- 8) + (-4) …… (- 8) – (- 4)
(b) (-3) +7 – (19) …… 15-8 +(-9)
(c) 23 – 41 + 11 …… 23-41- 11
(d) 39 + (-24) – (15) …… 36+ (-52) – (- 36)
(e) – 231 + 79 + 51 …… -399 + 159 + 81.
Solution:
(a) L.H.S. = (- 8) + (- 4)
= – (8 + 4) = – 12
R.H.S. = (- 8) – (- 4)
= – 8 + 4 = – (8 – 4) = – 4
∴ (-8) + (-4) < (-8)-(-4)

(b) L.H.S. = (-3) + 7 – (19)
= + 4 – (19)
= + 4 – 19
= -15
R.H.S. = 15 – 8 + (- 9)
= 7 + (-9) = 7- 9 = -2
∴ (- 3) + 7 – (19) < 15 – 8 + (- 9)

(c) L.H.S. = 23 – 41 + 11
= 23 + 11- 41
= 34 – 41 = – (41 – 34)
= – 7
R.H.S. = 23 – 41 – 11
= 23 – (41 + 11)
= 23 – 52
= – (52 – 23)
= – 29
∴ 23 – 41 + > 23 – 41 – 11

(d) L.H.S. = 39 + (- 24) – (15)
= 39 – 24 – (15)
= 15 – (15) = 0
R.H.S. = 36 + (- 52) – (- 36)
= – (52 – 36) – (- 36)
= – 16 – (- 36)
= – 16 + 36 = 20
∴ 39 + (- 24) – (15) < 36 + (- 52) – (- 36)

(e) L.H.S. = – 231 + 79 + 51
= – 231 + 130
= – (231 – 130) = – 101
R.H.S. = – 399 + 159 + 81
= – 399 + 240
= – (399 – 240)
= – 159
∴ – 231 + 79 + 51 > – 399 + 159 + 81.

Question 10.
A water tank has stepped inside it. A monkey is sitting on the topmost step (i.e., the first step The water level is at the ninth step.

(i) He jumps 3 steps down and 2 steps up. In how many jumps will he reach the water level?
(ii) After drinking water he wants to go back. For this, he jumps 4 steps up and then jumps back 2 steps down in every move. In how many jumps will he reach back the top step?
(iii) If the number of steps moved down is represented by negative integers and the number of steps moved up by positive integers, represent his moves in part (i) and (ii) by completing the following;
(a) -3 + 2 – …………. = -8
(b) 4 – 2 + = 8.
In (a) the sum (-8) represents going down by eight steps. So, what will the sum 8 in (b) represent?
Solution:
(i) While going down the monkey jumps 3 steps down and then jumps back 2 steps up. To reach the water level he is to jump as under:
-3+ 2 -3 + 2 – 3 +2 – 3 + 2 – 3 + 2 – 3 = -8 Hence, he takes 11 jumps to reach the water level.
(ii) After drinking water, he jumps back as under to reach the top step as under : 4 – 2+ 4 – 2+ 4 = 8
Hence, he takes 5 jumps to reach back the top.
(iii) (a) – 3 + 2 – 3 + 2 – 3 + 2 – 3 + 2 – 3 + 2 – 3 = -8
(b) 4 – 2 + 4 – 2 + 4 = 8
In (b) the sum 8 represents going up 8 steps.

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## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 10 Practical Geometry Ex 10.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 10 Practical Geometry Ex 10.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 10 Practical Geometry Ex 10.1.

 Board CBSE Textbook NCERT Class Class 7 Subject Maths Chapter Chapter 10 Chapter Name Practical Geometry Exercise Ex 10.1 Number of Questions Solved 3 Category NCERT Solutions

## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 10 Practical Geometry Ex 10.1

Question 1.
Draw a line, say, AB, take a point C outside it. Through C, draw a line parallel to AB using ruler and compasses only.
Solution:
Steps of Construction

1. Draw a line AB.
2. Take a point C outside it.
3. Take any point D on AB.
4. Join C to D.
5. with D as centre and a convenient radius, draw an arc cutting AB at F and CD at E.
6. Now with C as centre and the same radius as in step 5, draw an arc GH cutting CD at I.
7. Place the pointed tip of the compasses at F and adjust the opening so that the pencil tip is at E.
8. With the same opening as in step 7 and with I as centre, draw an arc cutting the arc GH at J.
9. Now join CJ to draw a line ‘KL’. Then KL is the required line.

Question 2.
Draw a line l. Draw a perpendicular to l at any point on l. On this perpendicular choose a point X, 4 cm away from l. Through X, draw a line m parallel to l.
Solution:
Steps of Construction

1. Draw a line l.
2. Take any point A on line l.
3. Construct an angle of 90° at point A of line l and draw a line AL perpendicular to line l.
4. Mark a point X on AL such that AX = 4 cm.
5. At X construct an angle of 90° and draw a line XC perpendicular to line AL.
6. Then line XC (line m) is the required line through X such that m || l.

Question 3.
Let l be a line and P be a point not on l. Through P, draw a line m parallel to l. Now join P to any point Q on l. Choose any other point R on m. Through R, draw a line parallel to PQ. Let this meet l at S. What shape do the two sets of parallel lines enclose?
Solution:
Steps of Construction

1. Draw a line l and take a point P not on it.
2. Take any point Q on l.
3. Join Q to P.
4. Draw a line m parallel to line l, as shown in the figure. Then line m || line l.
5. Join P to any point Q on l.
6. Choose any point R on m.
7. Join R to Q.
8. Through R, draw a line n parallel to the line PQ.
9. Let the line n meet the line l at S.
10. Then, the shape enclosed by the two sets of parallel lines is a parallelogram.

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## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3.

 Board CBSE Textbook NCERT Class Class 7 Subject Maths Chapter Chapter 11 Chapter Name Perimeter and Area Exercise Ex 11.3 Number of Questions Solved 17 Category NCERT Solutions

## NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3

Question 1.
Find the circumference of the circles with the following radus (Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$)
(a) 14 cm
(b) 28 mm
(c) 21 cm
Solution:

Question 2.
Find the area of the following circles, given that: ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )
(b) diameter = 49 m
Solution:

Question 3.
If the circumference of a circular sheet is 154 m, find its radius. Also find the area of the sheet ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )
Solution:
Circumference of the circular sheet = 154 m
Let the radius of the circular sheet be r cm
Then, its circumference = 2nr m According to the question,
Circumference = 2πr = 154

Question 4.
A gardener wants to fence a circular garden of diameter 21 m. Find the length of the rope he needs to purchase if he makes 2 rounds of offense. Also find the cost of the rope, if it costs ₹ 4 per meter. ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )
Solution:
The diameter of the circular garden (r) = 21 m
Radius of the circular garden (r) = $$\frac { 21 }{ 2 }$$ m
∴ Circumference of the circular garden = 2πr
= 2 × $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ × $$\frac { 21 }{ 2 }$$ m = 66m
⇒ Length of the rope needed to make 1 round of fence = 66 m
⇒ Length of the rope needed to make 2 rounds of fence
= 66 × 2 m = 132 m
Cost of rope per meter = ₹ 4
∴ Cost of the rope = ₹ 132 × 4 = ₹ 528.

Question 5.
From a circular sheet of radius 4 cm, a circle of radius 3 cm is removed. Find the area of the remaining sheet. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:

Here, Outer radius, r = 4 cm
Inner radius, r = 3 cm
Area of the remaining sheet = Outer area – Inner area
= π (R2 – r2) = 3.14 (42 – 32) cm2
= 3.14 (16 – 9) cm2
= 3.14 × 7 cm2 = 21.98 cm2

Question 6.
Saima wants to put lace on the edge of a circular table cover of a diameter of 1.5 m. Find the length of the lace required and also find its cost if one meter of the lace costs ₹ 15. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:
Diameter of the table cover = 1.5 m
⇒ Radius of the table cover (r) = $$\frac { 1.5 }{ 2 }$$ m
⇒ Circumference of the table cover = 2πr
= 2 × 3.14 × $$\frac { 1.5 }{ 2 }$$ m = 4.71 m
⇒ Length of the lace required = 4.71 m
∵ Cost of lace per meter = ₹ 15
∴ Cost of the lace = ₹ 4.71 × 15 = ₹ 70.65

Question 7.
Find the perimeter of the following figure, which is a semicircle including its diameter.
Solution:

Question 8.
Find the cost of polishing a circular table-top of diameter 1.6 m, if the rate of polishing is ₹ 15/m2. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:
Diameter of the table-top = 1.6 m
⇒ Radius of the table-top (r) = $$\frac { 1.6 }{ 2 }$$ m = 0.8 m
∴ Area of the table-top = πr2
= 3.14 × (0.8)2 m2
= 3.14 × 0.64 m2
= 2.0096 m2
∵ Rate of polishing = ₹ 15 per m2
∴ Cost of polishing the table-top = ₹ 2.0096 × 15
= ₹ 30.144
= ₹ 30.14 (approx.).

Question 9.
Shazli took a wire of length 44 cm and bent it into the shape of a circle. Find the radius of that circle. Also find its area. If the same wire is bent into the shape of a square, what will be the length of each of its side? Which figure encloses more area, the circle or the square? ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )
Solution:

Question 10.
From a circular card sheet of radius 14 cm, two circles of radius 3.5 cm and a rectangle of length 3 cm and breadth 1 cm are removed (as shown in the following figure). Find the area of the remaining sheet. ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )

Solution:

Question 11.
A circle of radius 2 cm is cut out from a square piece of an aluminium sheet of side 6 cm. What is the area of the leftover aluminium sheet? (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:

Question 12.
The circumference of a circle is 31.4 cm. Find the radius and the area of the circle? (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:

Question 13.
A circular flower bed is surrounded by a path 4 m wide. The diameter of the flower bed is 66 m. What is the area of this path? (π = 3.14)

Solution:

Question 14.
A circular flower garden has an area of about 314 m2. A sprinkler at the centre of the garden can cover an area that has a radius of 12 m. Will the sprinkler water the entire garden? (Taken π = 3.14)
Solution:
The circular area of the sprinkler = πr2
= 3.14 × 12 × 12
= 3.14 × 144 = 452.16 m2
Area of the circular flower garden = 314 m2
Since the area of the circular flower garden is smaller than by sprinkler
Therefore, the sprinkler will water the entire garden.

Question 15.
Find the circumference of the inner and the outer circles as shown in the following figure? (Take π = 3.14)

Solution:
Radius of inner circle = 19 – 10 = 9 m
∴ Circumference of the inner circle = 2 πr = 2 × 3.14 × 9 m = 56.52 cm
The radius of the outer circle = 19 m
∴ Circumference of the outer circle = 2πr = 2 × 3.14 × 19 m = 119.32 m.

Question 16.
How many times a wheel of radius 28 cm must rotate to go 352 m? ( Take π = $$\frac { 22 }{ 7 }$$ )
Solution:

Question 17.
The minute hand of a circular clock is 15 cm long. How far does the tip of the minute hand move in 1 hour? (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:
We know that the minute hand describes one complete revolution in one hour.
∴ Distance covered by its tip = Circumference of the circle of radius 15 cm
= (2 × 3.14 × 15) cm
= 94.2 cm

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3 help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area Ex 11.3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

## Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

## Online Education for Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur?
Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perun- thachchan was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur.

Where were bronze idols made in south India?
In the town of Svamimalai, sculptors (chapatis) made exquisite bronze idols and tall, ornamental bell metal lamps.

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which lake exists near Ajmer?
The famous and ancient Pushkar lake exists near Ajmer.

Towns Traders And Craftspersons Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name two famous guilds of south Indian traders.

Class 7 History Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name some famous trading communities of the subcontinent.
Chettiars, Marwari Oswal, Gujarati Baniyas, Muslim Bohras were some of the famous trading communities of the subcontinent.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is the most significant aspect of the Hampi fort?
In the construction of Hampi fort, no mortar or cementing agent was used. The wall was made by wedging Stone bricks together by interlocking.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
Which festival was celebrated in the Virupaksha temple?
The festival of Mahanavmi or Navaratri was one of the most important festivals celebrated in Virupaksha temple at Hampi.

Towns Traders And Craftspersons Extra Questions Question 8.
In the 17th century which European companies had their factories in Surat?
In the 17th century, Portuguese, Dutch and English had their factories and warehouses at Surat.

On which river, Masulipatnam town flourished?
The town of Masulipatnam flourished on the delta of the Krishna river.

What was the significance of Surat hundis?
The Surat hundis were honoured in the far-off markets of Cairo in Egypt, Basra in Iraq and Antwerp in Belgium.

Question 11.
Name the trading groups in Masulipatnam.
The Golconda nobles, Persian merchants, Telugu Komati Chettis and European traders were the trading groups in Masulipatnam.

Question 12.
What was the “system of advances”?
The system of advances, while system under which craftspersons like weavers were given advance payments so that they had to weave cloths for European agents only.

Question 13.
What were the main features of medieval towns?
The main features of medieval towns were as under:

• The towns probably emerged from large villages.
• Towns had mandapika (or mandi of later times) to which nearby villages brought their produce to sell.
• Towns also had market streets called hatta lined with shops.
• There were streets for different kinds of artisans such as potters, oil pressers, sugarmakers, toddy makers, smiths, stonemasons, etc.

Question 14.
How was the architecture of Hampi distinctive?
Due to following reasons, the architecture of Hampi was distinctive :

• The buildings in the royal complex had splendid arches, domes and pillared halls with niches for holding sculptures.
• There were well-planned orchards and pleasure gardens with sculptural motifs such as lotus and corbels.
• The Wall of Hampi fort was constructed without using mortar or cement. The technique of wedging bricks together by interlocking was used.

Question 15.
What were the causes of decline of Surat as a commercial town?

• From 17th century onwards the town of Surat began to decline in the commercial activities.
• The main cause was loss of markets and productivity because of the decline of the Mughal Empire.
• Sea routes were controlled by Portuguese.
• The newly built Bombay port gave tough English competition to the port of Surat.
• East India Company shifted its headquarters to Bombay in 1668.

Question 16.
Why did Masulipatnam port decline?

• The Dutch and English Companies had settled in Masulipatnam.
• But the Qutb Shahi rulers of Golconda exerted their influence on the trade and settlement in the port city of Masulipatnam.
• After Mughal occupation of Golconda, Mughal Governor Mir Jumla who was also a merchant, began to play off the Dutch and English against each other.
• Due to this the European Companies looked for alternatives and hence, they developed the port city of Madras.
• Thus, Masulipatnam lost both its merchants and prosperity and declined.

Question 17.
How was the Indian textile business affected when the European Companies entered in it?
The Indian textile business was affected when the European Companies entered it in the following ways :

• The demand of Indian textiles increased manifolds.
• This led to a great expansion of the crafts of spinning, weaving, bleaching, dyeing, etc.
• The employment opportunities also increased.
• Indian textile designs became increasingly refined.
• But due to the system of advances, the independent craftspersons declined.
• Indian traders, weavers, and merchants had to live in “Black Towns” whereas “White” people lived in superior residencies of Fort St. George in Madras or Fort St. William in Calcutta.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What type of towns existed in the medieval period?
(a) Temple towns
(c) Commercial centres
(d) All of these.
(d) All of these.

2. Who was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur?
(а) Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perunthachchan
(b) Iltutmish
(c) King Rajaraja Chola
(d) Todar Mai.
(а) Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perunthachchan.

3. Which were the neighbouring towns of Thanjavur?
(a) Fatehpur Sikri, Agra and Mathura
(b) Uraiyur and Swamimalai
(d) Kamalapuram, Hampi and Bijapur
(b) Uraiyur and Swamimalai.

4. Which one of the following important temple towns of Indian subcontinent emerged in the medieval period?
(а) Gaya in Bihar
(d) Rajgir in Bihar.

5. Which one of the following famous and ancient lakes exists near Ajmer?
(a) Naini lake
(b) Pushkar lake
(c) Chilka lake
(d) Dal lake
(b) Pushkar lake.

6. Which of the following were the famous guilds of South Indian traders?
(a) Manigramam
(c) Chettiars
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Both (a) and (b).

7. Which of the following is the famous trading community of Indian subcontinent?
(a) Chettiars
(b) Marwari Oswal
(c) Muslim Bohras
(d) All of them.
(d) All of them.

8. Which one of the following is the most important aspect of the Hampi city?
(а) Cementing agent was used for the first time.
(b) Mortgr was used for the first time.
(c) No mortar or cementing agent was used, but the wall was made by wedging stone bricks together by interlocking.
(d) The wall was made of steel plates
(c) No mortar or cementing agent was used, but the wall was made by wedging stone bricks together by interlocking.

9. Which temple was constructed in Hampi?
(а) The Sun Temple
(b) The Virupaksha Temple
(c) The Ganga Temple
(d) The Vishnu Temple
(b) The Virupaksha Temple.

10. In the seventeenth century, which European companies had their factories in Surat?
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) English
(d) All of these.
(d) All of these.

11. Why did the Qutb Shahi rulers of Golconda impose royal monopolies on the sale of textiles, spices and other items?
(a) To control price rise.
(b) To prevent the trade passing completely into the hands of the various East India Companies.
(c) To increase agricultural production.
(d) To increase revenue.
(b) To prevent the trade passing completely into the hands of the various East India Companies.

Important Years Or Periods:

1336: Vijayanagara empire was established.

1498:Vasco da Gama reached Calicut.

1556:Vijayanagara empire was defeated by Deccani Sultans – the rulers of Golconda, Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Berar and Bidar.

1668:East India Company of Britain shifted its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

1686-1687: Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb annexed Golconda.

Important Terms:

→  Emporium: A place where goods from diverse production centres are bought and sold.

→  Hundi: It is a note recording a deposit made by a person. The amount deposited can be claimed in another place by presenting the record of the deposit.

→  Factor: Official merchant of the East India, Company.

## Online Education Wastewater Story Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Wastewater Story Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

## Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions and Answers Wastewater Story

Wastewater Story Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 1.
Which day is celebrated as the World Water Day?
22nd March.

Waste Water Story Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
What do you understand by ‘waste-water?
Rich in lather, mixed with oil, black-brown water that goes down the drains from sinks, showers, toilets, laundries is dirty. It is called wastewater.

Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which period has been proclaimed as the International decade for action on “Water for life”?
United Nations proclaimed the period 2005-2015 as the International Decade for action on “Water for life”.

Ch 18 Science Class 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
What do you mean by cleaning of water?
Cleaning of water is a process of removing pollutants before it enters a water body or is reused.

Waste Water Story Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 5.
What is sewage treatment?
The process of wastewater treatment is commonly known as “Sewage Treatment”.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 6.
Why is the speed of incoming wastewater decreased in the grit and sand removal tank?
The speed of the incoming wastewater in the grit and sand removal tank is decreased to allow sand, grit and pebbles to settle down.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why should we plant eucalyptus along sewage ponds?
Eucalyptus absorb all surplus wastewater rapidly and release pure water vapour into the atmosphere.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Questions With Answers Question 8.
How do sand, grit and pebbles settle down in the grit and sand removal tank?
Jn grit amps and removal tank, the speed of the incoming wastewater is decreased to allow sand, grit and pebbles to settle down.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Question 9.
Why is air pumped into clarified water?
Air is pumped into the clarified water to help aerobic bacteria to grow. Bacteria consume human waste, food waste, soaps and other unwanted matter still remaining in clarified water.

Class 7 Science Ch 18 Extra Questions Question 10.
How is dry sludge used?
Dried sludge is used as manure, returning organic matter and nutrients to the soil.

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions Question 11.
What is done to improve sanitation?
To improve sanitation, low-cost onsite sewage disposal systems are being encouraged. Examples are septic tanks, chemical toilets, composting pits. Septic tanks are suitable for places where there is no sewerage system, for hospitals, isolated buildings or a cluster of 4 to 5 houses.

Extra Questions On Waste Water Story Class 7 Question 12.
What is vermi-process toilet?
A vermi-processing toilet is a design of a toilet in which humans excreta is treated by earthworms. It has been found to be a novel, low water-use toilet for safe processing of human waste. In the vermi processing toilet, the human excreta is completely converted to vermi cakes- a resource is much needed for soil.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Science Wastewater Story Question 13.
What is done with the sludge produced in Wastewater Treatment Plant? Is it used to us? If yes, how?
The sludge produced in Wastewater Treatment Plant is transferred to a separate tank when it is decomposed by the anaerobic bacteria. The biogas produced in the process can be used as fuel or can be used to produce electricity.

Waste Water Story Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 14.
Why is air pumped into the clarified water? What is the role of aerobic bacteria in cleaning of water?
Air is pumped into the clarified water to help aerobic bacteria to grow. These bacteria consume human waste, food waste, soaps and other unwanted matter still remaining in clarified water.

Class 7 Wastewater Story Extra Questions Question 15.
Suggest some better housekeeping practices.

• Cooking oil and fats should not be thrown down the drain. They can harden and block the pipes. In an open drain, the fats clog the soil pores reducing its effectiveness in filtering water. Oil and fats should be thrown in the dustbin.
• Chemicals like paints, solvents, insecticides, motor oil, medicines may kill microbes that help to purify water. So, they should not be thrown in the drain.
• Used tea leaves, solid food remains, soft toys, cotton, sanitary towels, etc. should also be thrown in the dustbin. These wastes choke the drains. They do not allow free flow of oxygen. This hampers the degradation process.

Question 16.
What is the composition of sewage?
Sewage is a complex mixture containing suspended solids, organic and inorganic impurities, nutrients, saprotrophic and disease-causing bacteria and other microbes.
Organic impurities-Human faeces, animal waste, oil, urea (urine), pesticides, herbicides, fruit and vegetable waste, etc. Inorganic impurities-Nitrates, Phosphates, metals. Nutrients-Phosphorus and Nitrogen. Bacteria-Such as which causes cholera and typhoid. Other microbes-Such as amoeba which causes dysentery.

Question 17.
Outline your role as an active citizen in relation to sanitation.
We all have a role to play in keeping our environment clean and healthy. We must realise our responsibility in maintaining the water sources in a healthy state. Adopting good sanitation practices should be our way of life. As an agent of change, our individual initiative will make a great diffèrence. We can influence others with our energy, ideas and optimism. A lot can be done if people work together. There is great power in collective action.

Question 18.
Explain the relationship between sanitation and disease.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Improper sanitation may cause water pollution and soil pollution. Both the surface water and groundwater get polluted. Groundwater is a source of water for wells, tube wells, springs and many rivers. Thus, it becomes the most common route for water-borne diseases. They include cholera, typhoid, polio, meningitis hepatitis and dysentery. That is why proper sanitation is must to avoid some of the deadliest diseases.

Question 19.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain.
Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. It may cause water pollution and soil pollution. Both the surface water and groundwater get polluted. Groundwater is a source of water for wells, tube wells, springs and many rivers. Thus, it becomes the most common route for water-borne diseases They include cholera, typhoid, polio, meningitis, hepatitis and dysentery.

Question 20.
What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.
During physical treatment, solids like faeces settle at the bottom of the large tank. This is called sludge. Treatment of sludge (basically biological treatment)

• Sludge are first removed from the bottom using a scraper.
• Sludge is then transferred to a separate tank. where it is decomposed by the anaerobic bacteria.
The biogas produced in the process can be used as fuel.

Question 21.
Describe the steps involved in getting clarified water from wastewater.
Treatment of wastewater involves physical, chemical, and biological processes, which remove physical, chemical and biological matter that contaminates the water.
Physical:

• Wastewater is passed through bar screens. Large objects like rags, sticks, cans, plastic packets, napkins are removed.
• Water goes to a grit and sand removal tank. The speed of the incoming wastewater is, decreased to allow sand, grit and pebbles to settle down.

Biological:
The water is then allowed to settle large tank which is sloped upwards the middle. Solids like faeces sett the bottom and, a removed with a scraper.’ this is the sludge. skimmer removes the floatable solids like and grease. Water so cleared is called clarified water. The sludge is transferred to a separate tank where it is decomposed by the anaerobic bacteria.

Air is pumped into the clarified water to help aerobic bacteria to grow. Bacteria consume human waste, food waste, soaps and other unwanted matter still remaining in clarified water.

After several hours, the suspended microbes settle at the bottom of the tank as activated sludge. The water is then removed from ‘the top. Chemical: Sometimes it may be necessary to disinfect water with chemicals like chlorine and ozone before releasing it into the distribution system.

Question 22.
Why should oils and fats be not released in the drain? Explain.
Oil does not mix with water. Being lighter, oil floats on water. This prevents mixing of water and air. This reduces oxygen supply for aquatic plants and animals. Along with, in an open drain, the fats clog the soil pores reducing its effectiveness in filtering water.

Question 23.
What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.
Sewage is wastewater released by homes, industries, hospitals, offices and other users. It also includes rainwater that has run down the streets during a storm or heavy rain. The water that washes off roads and rooftops carries harmful substances with it. Sewage is a liquid waste. Most of it is water, which has dissolved and suspended impurities which are called contaminants. That is why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

Question 24.
Why should oils and fats be not released in the drain? Explain.
Oil does not mix with water. Being lighter, oil floats on water. This prevents mixing of water and air. This reduces oxygen supply for aquatic plants and animals. Along with, in an open drain, the fats clog the soil pores reducing its effectiveness in filtering water.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following activities requires clean water as a must?
(i) Bathing
(ii) Cleaning utensils
(iii) Drinking
(iv) Washing clothes.
(iii) Drinking.

2. Which of the following is not a means of exploiting water resources?
(i) Pollution
(ii) Industrial drainage
(iii) Drinking
(iv) Misarrangement
(iii) Drinking.

3. Find the odd one out.
(i) Sewage water – Kitchen
(ii) Foul waste – Toilets
(iii) Trade waste – Industrial and commercial organisations
(iv) Drinking water – Ocean
(iv) Drinking water – Ocean.

4. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) Sewage is a source clean water.
(ii) Sewage does not contain any waste product.
(iii) Sewage comes out of industries.
(iv) Sewage is a mixture of wastewater from home, office, industries etc.
(iv) Sewage is a mixture of wastewater from home, office, industries etc.

5. For cleaning wastewater at home, the sequence of processes is :
(i) aeration, filiation, chlorination
(ii) filtration, aeration, chlorination
(iii) filtration, chlorination, aeration
(iv) chlorination, filtration, aeration.
(i) aeration, filiation, chlorination.

6. Aeration is a process to remove :
(i) undesired substances
(ii) foul smell
(iii) bacteria
(iv) chlorine.
(ii) foul smell.

7. Chlorination is a process for :
(i) removing foul smell
(ii) disinfection
(iii) removing viruses
(iv) removing undesirable substances
(ii) disinfection.

Keywords:

→ Aeration: Mixing with air.

→ Aerobic bacteria: Bacteria that need oxygen.

→ Anaerobic bacteria: Bacteria that do not need oxygen.

→ Biogas: Gas produced by the decomposition of organic matter.

→ Contaminant: Dissolved and suspended impurities in water are called contaminants.

→ Sanitation: Toilet system.

→ Sewage: Sewage is wastewater released by choices, industries, hospitals, offices and other users. It also includes rainwater that has run down the street during a storm or heavy rain.

→ Sewer: Pipes to carry sewages is called sewer.

→ Sewerage: Network of sewers is called sewerage.

→ Sludge These are Solid wastes like faeces that settle down at the bottom in the tank and are removed with a scraper.

→ Wastewater: The dirty water which is left after the different purposeful works like washing, bathing etc. is termed as wastewater.

## Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers On Equality

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers On Equality was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

## Online Education for On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the essential condition for all democracies?
Universal adult franchise is an essential condition for all democracies.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
On what idea is the universal adult franchise based?
The universal adult franchise is based on the idea of equality.

On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
Which is one of the most common forms of inequality in India?
Caste system is one of the most common forms of inequality in India.

Class 7 Civics Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is ‘Joothan’?
Joothan is an autobiography of a Dalit writer, Omprakash Valmiki.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 5.
What did the property dealer tell Mr and Mrs Ansari? How did they respond to the property dealer’s suggestion?
The property dealer told Mr and Mrs Ansari to change their names from Mr. and Mrs Ansari to Mr and Mrs Kumar for finding accommodation in the apartment. But, they refused to do this.

Civics Class 7 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 6.
What two steps did the government take to implement the equality guaranteed in the Constitution?

1. The first step that the government has taken to implement equality is through making the law. For example, there is a law made which declares untouchability as a crime in India.
2. Second, the government has set up schemes or programmes to help disadvantaged communities. For example, midday meal scheme has been implemented in all government elementary schools.

Extra Questions On Equality Class 7 Question 7.
How were the African-Americans treated unequally in the United States of America?
The African-Americans were treated unequally in a number of ways.

• For example, when travelling by bus, they either had to take the back seats in the bus or get up from their seats whenever a white person wished to sit.
• African-American children were not admitted in schools in which white men’s children studied. They attended separate schools specially set up for them.

On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Question 8.

• Universal adult franchise is the essential condition for all democracies.
• It gives all adults, irrespective of what religion they belong to, how much educated, what caste they are from, or whether they are rich or poor, the right to vote.
• It is based on the principle of equality, i.e., one person one vote, and one vote one value.

Civics Chapter 1 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Who was Rosa Parks? How did her action prove to be the cause of the Civil Rights Act, 1964?

• Rosa Parks was an African- American woman. On 1st December 1955, she was tired from a long day at work. While travelling by a bus, she refused to give up her seat to a white man.
• Her refusal caused a huge agitation against unequal treatment of the African- Americans by the white person:
• It took the form of the Civil Rights Movement. As a result, the Civil Rights Act was passed in 1964.
• The Act prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin among the citizens.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is a key feature of democracy?
(a) Law
(b) Constitution
(c) Equality
(d) Government.
(c) Equality.

2. Which one of the following is an essential aspect of all democracies?
(b) Right to Speech
(c) Right to Journey
(d) Religion.

3. Which one of the following is more common forms of inequality in India?
(a) Discrimination on the basis of work
(b) Caste system
(c) Unemployment
(d) Discrimination on the basis of colour.
(b) Caste system.

4. Why are Om Prakash and Valmiki treated unequally?
(a) On the basis of employment
(b) On the basis of work experience
(c) On the basis of differences of caste and religion
(d) On the basis of education.
(c) On the basis of differences of caste and religion.

5. The Indian Constitution recognises every person as;
(a) unequal on the basis of employment
(b) unequal on the basis of education
(c) unequal on the basis of caste
(d) equal on all basis.
(d) equal on all basis.

6. What do you mean by the mid-day meal scheme?
(a) It is a scheme related to food for all citizens.
(b) It is a programme introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.
(c) It is a food-related scheme introduced by non-government agencies.
(d) It is introduced by private agencies.
(b) It is a programme introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.

7. Which one of the following states was the first state in India to introduce the mid-day meal scheme?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Orissa
(d) Kerala.

8. Which one of the following statements is false about the mid-day meal programme?
(a) It is not beneficial to students.
(b) Due to this programme, children have enrolling and regularly attending school.
(c) The attendance of students has improved.
(d) This programme has helped reduce caste prejudice.
(a) It is not beneficial to students.

9. Who was Rosa Parks?
(a) An American woman
(b) An African-American woman
(c) An Australian woman
(d) An Indian woman.
(b) An African-American woman.

10. Which one of the following acts are used to prohibit discrimination in America?
(a) Civil Rights Act (1964)
(b) Speech Rights Act
(c) Religion Act
(d) Education Act.
(a) Civil Rights Act (1964).

11. Which one of the following is true about the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
(a) Discrimination on the basis of race
(b) Discrimination on the basis of caste
(c) Discrimination on the basis of education
(d) Prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin.
(d) Prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin.

12. Discrimination is prohibited in which one of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 10
(d) Article 12
(b) Article 15.

Important Terms:

Universal adult franchise: This is an important aspect of every democratic society. It means that all adult (those who are 18 and above) citizens have the right to vote irrespective of their social, religious or economic backgrounds.

Dignity: This refers to thinking oneself and others as worthy of respect.

Constitution: This is a document that lays down the basic rules and regulations for people and the government in the country to follow.

Civil Rights Movement: A movement that began in the USA in 1950s in which African-American people demanded equal rights and an end to racial discrimination.

## Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 3

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 3 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

## Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Fibre to Fabric

Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name three animals that yield wool.
Sheep, goat, yak.

Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
In which areas are yaks found in plenty?

Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Extra Question Answer Question 3.
Which animal provides Pashmina shawls?
Kashmiri goat.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is the diet of sheep?
Grass, leaves, mixture of pulses, corn, jowar, oil cakes and minerals.

Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 5.
In which season sheep are sheared?
Summer.

Class 7 Fibre To Fabric Extra Questions Question 6.
What are burrs?
Small fluffy fibres found in hair of sheep are called burrs.

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 7.
What are silkworms?
Larvae of silk moth are called silkworms.

Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 8.
Name one disease that occurs in sheep.
Anthrax. It is a fatal blood disease.

Class 7 Science Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 9.
What is cocoon?
For pupa stage, the caterpillar completely covers itself by silk fibres. This covering is known as cocoon.

Class 7 Chapter 3 Science Extra Questions Question 10.
What is the most common silk moth?
Mulberry silk moth.

Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11.
What is selective breeding?
The process of selecting parents for obtaining special characters in their offspring is termed ‘selective breeding’.

Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
Write about the food of sheep.
Apart from grazing sheep, rearers also feed them on a mixture of pulses, corn, jowar, oil cakes (material left after taking out oil from seeds) and minerals. In winter, sheep are kept indoors and fed on leaves, grain and dry fodder.

Questions On Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Question 13.
How is reeling of silk done?
Reeling is done with special machines, which unwind the threads or fibres of silk from the cocoon. Silk fibres are then spun into silk threads.

Extra Questions Of Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Question 14.
How is shearing of wool done?
Machines similar to those used by barbers are used to shave off hair. Usually, hair are removed during the hot weather. This enables sheep to survive without their protective coat of hair. The hair provide woollen fibres. Woollen fibres are then processed to obtain woollen yarn. Shearing does not hurt the sheep because uppermost layers of skin is dead.

Class 7 Science Fibre To Fabric Extra Questions Question 15.
How is silk processed?
A pile of cocoons is used for obtaining silk fibres. The cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled or exposed to steam. The silk fibres are separate out. The process of taking out threads from the cocoon for use as silk is called reeling the silk. Reeling is done in special machines, which unwind the threads or fibres of silk from the cocoon. Silk fibres are then spun into silk threads, which are woven into silk cloth by weavers.

Chapter 3 Science Class 7 Extra Questions Question 16.
How is woollen cloth made after scouring hair of sheep?
After scouring, sorting is done. The hairy skin is sent to a factory where hair of different textures are separated or sorted. The small fluffy fibres, called burrs, are picked out from the hair. The fibres are scoured again and dried. This is the wool ready to be drawn into fibres.

The fibres can be dyed in various colours, as the natural fleece of sheep and goats is black, brown or white.
The fibres are straightened, combed and rolled into yarn. The longer fibres are made into wool for sweaters and the shorter fibres are spun and woven into woollen cloth.

Fibre To Fabric Extra Questions Class 7 Question 17.
Describe the life history of silk moth.
The female silk moth lays eggs, from which hatch larvae which are called caterpillars or silkworms.

• They grow in size and when the caterpillar is ready to enter the next stage of its life history called pupa, it first weaves a net to hold itself.
• Then it swings its head from side to side in the form of the figure of eight (8). During these movements of the head, the caterpillar secretes fibre made of a protein which hardens on exposure to air and becomes silk fibre.
• Soon the caterpillar completely covers itself by silk fibres. This covering is known as cocoon.
• The further development of the moth continues inside thte cocoon.
• Finally, it comes out of the cocoon as silk- moth.

Fiber To Fabric Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 18.
Draw figures to describe life history of silk moth.

Class 7th Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 19.
How is rearing of silkworms done?
A female silk moth lays hundreds of eggs at a time. The eggs are stored carefully on strips of cloth or paper and sold to silkworm farmers.

• The farmers keep eggs under hygienic conditions and under suitable conditions of temperature and humidity.
• The eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from eggs. This is done when mulberry trees bear a fresh crop of leaves. The larvae, called caterpillars or silkworms, eat day and night and increase enormously in size.
• The worms are then kept in clean bamboo trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves.
• After 25 to 30 days, the caterpillars stop eating and move to a tiny chamber of bamboo in the tray to spin cocoons. Small racks or twigs may be provided in the trays to which cocoons get attached. The caterpillar or silkworm spins the cocoon inside which develops the silk moth.

Extra Questions On Fibre To Fabric Class 7 Question 20.
Boojho is wondering why it hurts when someone pulls his hair but not when he goes for a haircut?
When someone pulls our hair, it hurts because its root is connected to the skin which has sensation. But, during haircut, the tip of the hair is cut which is dead and does not have any sensation. So, hair-cut does not hurt.

Question 21.
Boojho is wondering why a cotton garment cannot keep us as warm in winter as a woollen sweater does?
Cotton clothes are thin and do not trap air tool is thicker than cotton and have spaces in which air traps. Air is a poor conductor of heat and so it prevent heat coming out of our body. So, woo’ provides better warmth than cotton.

Question 22.
What is meant by the following terms?
(i) Rearing
(ii) Shearing
(iii) Sericulture
(i) Rearing: The bringing up and looking after the livestock and other animals for our commercial benefit is known as rearing.
(ii) Shearing: To obtain wool, the fleece of the sheep along with a thin layer of skin is removed from its body. This process is called shearing.
(iii) Sericulture: The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.

Question 23.
Paheli wanted to buy a silk frock and went to the market with her mother. There they found that the artificial (synthetic) silk was much cheaper and wanted to know why. Do you know why? Find out.
The cost of production for artificial silk is very low. The materials used for artificial silk are available at very low cost and are available in huge quantities. Also, the production time is very less. So artificial silk is cheaper.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) The hair on our body is coarser than the hair on our head.
(ii) The hair on our body is softer than the hair on our head.
(iii) The softness of both types of hair mentioned above is the same.
(iv) The coarseness of both types of hair mentioned above is the same.
(ii) The hair on our body is softer than the hair on our head.

2. Which of the following animals is used to obtain wool?
(i) Cow
(ii) Buffalo
(iii) Goat
(iv) Bear.
(iii) Goat.

3. Angora goats are found in :
(i) Assam
(ii) Haryana
(iii) Jammu and Kashmir
(iv) Rajasthan
(iii) Jammu and Kashmir.

4. Yak is common in :
(ii) Jammu
(iii) Assam

5. Which of the following animals, found in South America is used for obtaining wool?
(i) Angora goats
(ii) Llama
(iii) Yak
(iv) Pashmina.
(ii) Llama.

6. Silk fibres are made up of :
(i) protein
(ii) carbohydrate
(iii) fat
(iv) starch.
(i) protein.

7. Which of the following is a type of silk?
(i) Moth
(ii) Llama
(iii) Tassar
(iv) Alpaca
(iii) Tassar.

8. A boy burnt a thread each of wool, pure Silk and artificial silk. The smell of burning wool was same as of pure silk but different from artificial silk. Can you explain why?
(i) It is because wool is also as soft as pure silk.
(ii) It is because wool and pure silk are natural products.
(iii) It is because both wool and pure silk burns slowly while the artificial silk burns quickly.
(iv) It is because both wool and pure silk are made up of thin fibres.
(ii) It is because wool and pure silk are natural products.

9. The larvae of silk moth are called as :
(i) pupa
(ii) cocoon
(iii) caterpillars
(iv)mulberry
(iii) caterpillars.

10. The covering of caterpillar by silk fibres is called as :
(i) moth
(ii) pupa
(iii) mulberry
(iv) cocoon.
(iv) cocoon.

11. The larvae of silk moth grow on the leaves of :
(i) mango trees
(ii) mulberry trees
(iii) pipal trees
(iv) banyan trees.
(ii) mulberry trees.

12. Which of the following correctly describes the life cycle of silkworms?
(i) Silkmoth → eggs → pupa caterpillars → silk moth.
(ii) Silkmoth eggs → cocoon → caterpillars → silk moth.
(iii) Silkmoth → eggs → caterpillars → pupa silk moth.
(iv) Silkmoth → eggs → pupa → silkworms → cocoon → silk moth.
(iii) Silkmoth → eggs → caterpillars → pupa silk moth.

13. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called :
(i) silk culture
(ii) silky culture
(iii) sericulture
(iv) moth culture.
(iii) sericulture.

14. The most common silk moth is :
(i) tassar silk moth
(ii) eri silk moth
(iii) mooga silk moth
(iv) mulberry silk moth
(iv) mulberry silk moth.

Keywords:

→ Cocoon: The covering that caterpillar makes around itself by silk fibre when it turns to pupa is called cocoon.

→ Flcccc: Hair of sheep or yak which are used to make wool is known as fleece.

→ Reeling: The process of taking out threads from the cocoon for use as silk is called reeling the silk.

→ Scouring: The process by which the sheared skin with hair is thoroughly washed in tanks to remove grease, dust and dirt is called scouring.

→ Sericulture: The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.

→ Shearing: The fleece of the sheep along with a thin layer of skin is removed from its body. This process is called shearing.

→ Silkmoth: The insect that gives silk is called silk moth.

→ Silkworms: The female silk moth lays eggs from which hatch larvae which are called caterpillars or silkworms.

→ Sorting: The process in which wools of different textures are separated is called sorting.

## Online Education for Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

## Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Extra Questions and Answers Forests: Our Lifeline

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Extra Questions Question 1.
Write one food chain in forest.
Grass → insects → frog → snake → eagle.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 2.
Which type of environment remains in a forest?
Forest environment is peaceful and a cool breeze keeps blowing because of transpiration by plants.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Extra Questions Question 3.
Name two trees found in forests.
Neem, Sheesham.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 4.
Name some animals that live deep inside forest.
Animals like boar, bison, jackals, porcupine, elephants live in the deeper areas of the forest.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Questions Answers Question 5.
What do the forests provide to the human beings?
Many people live in the forest. Some of them may belong to different tribes. These people depend mostly on the forests. The forest provides them with food, shelter, water and medicines. In additional, human extracts timber, pulp, resin, gum etc. from forest for his use.

Class 7 Forest Our Lifeline Extra Questions Question 6.
How is forest beneficial for the environment for man living nearby forest?
Due to the surrounding forests, they receive good rainfall. The air also remains cool. Noise pollution too is less because the forest absorbs the noise of the nearby highway.

Forest Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
What puts pressure on forest?
Construction of roads, buildings, industrial development and increasing demand of wood create pressure on the forests.

Class 7 Science Ch 17 Extra Questions Question 8.
Sum up the importance of forests.
Forests provide us with oxygen. They protect soil and provide habitat to a large number of animals. Forests help in bringing good rainfall in neighbouring areas. They are a source of medicinal plants, timber and many other useful products.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Questions Question 9.
Why are forests called green lungs?
Plants release oxygen through the process of photosynthesis. The plants help to provide oxygen for animal respiration. They also maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. That is why forests are called green lungs.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions Question 10.
Draw a figure to show the dependence of plants, soil, and decomposers in a forest.

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Extra Questions Question 11.
Why is forest called dynamic living entity?
By harbouring greater variety of plants, the forest provides greater Opportunities for food and habitat for the herbivores. Larger number of herbivores means increased availability of food for a variety of carnivores. The wide variety of animals helps the forest to regenerate and grow. Decomposers help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to the growing plants in the forest. Therefore, the forest is a ‘dynamic living entity’ – full of life and vitality.

Ch 17 Science Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
Explain why there is a need of variety of animals and plants in a forest.
Variety of animals are necessary for their survival and maintenance of food chain. For example, grass is eaten by insects, which in turn, is eaten by the frog. The frog is consumed by snakes which is eaten by eagles.

Thus, it forms a food chain:
Grass → insects → frog → snake → eagle.

Many food chains can be found in the forest. All food chains are linked. If any one food chain is disturbed, it affects other food chains. Every part of the forest is dependent on the other parts. If we remove one component, say trees, all other components would he affected.

Class 7 Science Forest Our Lifeline Extra Questions With Answers Question 13.
Why should we worry about the conditions and issues related to forests far from us?
Forests are very helpful for us. They clean air, play a vital role in water cycle, provide various items and so on. So, we should worry about the conditions and issues related to forests far from us.

Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Worksheet Question 14.
In which layer of the soil would you find humus? What is its importance to the soil?
Humus is found in the top layer of soil. The presence of humus ensures that the nutrients of the dead plants and animals are
released into the soil. From there, these nutrients are again absorbed by the roots of the living plants.

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Extra Question Answer Question 15.
Explain how animals dwelling in the forest help it grow and regenerate.
Animals helps in dispersing seeds of certain plants. The decaying animal dung also provides nutrients to the seedling to grow. This is how animals help the forest to grow and regenerate.

Questions On Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Question 16.
Explain how forests prevent floods.
Plants acts as a natural observer of rainwater and allow water to seep slowly to recharge groundwater. This is how forests help preventing floods.

Extra Questions Of Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Question 17.
What are decomposers? Name any two of them. What do they do in the forest?
The micro-organisms which convert the dead plants and animals to humus are known as decomposers. Bacteria, mushrooms, etc. are decomposers. They decompose dead organisms and provide nutrients to trees.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Question 18.
Explain the role of forest in maintaining the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Plants take in CO2 and release oxygen in the process of photosynthesis. Thus, they maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a product of forest?
(i) Fuelwood
(ii) Polythene
(iii) Gums
(iv) Medicinal plants.
(ii) Polythene.

2. The branches of the tall trees, look like a roof over the other plants in the forest. This is known as :
(i) crown
(ii) canopy
(iii) cap
(iv) super cap.
(ii) canopy.

3. The branchy part of a tree above the stem is known as :
(i) crown
(ii) canopy
(iii) cap
(iv) super cap.
(i) crown.

4. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) We see similar kind of trees in every forest.
(ii) We see only one type of tree in whole fores
(iii) We see different kind of trees in every forest due to climate difference.
(iv) We see different in of trees in every forest because of distinct wildlife.
(iii) We see different kind of trees in every forest due to climate difference.

5. The layer of forest vegetation from top to bottom is in sequence as :
(i) trees, herbs, shrubs
(ii) trees, shrubs, herbs
(iii) herbs, shrubs, trees
(iv) herbs, trees, shrubs.
(ii) trees, shrubs, herbs.

6. Decomposition of any organic matter is accompanied with the :
(i) release of heat energy.
(ii) absorption of heat energy.
(iii) release of light energy.
(iv) absorption of light energy.
(i) release of heat energy.

7. Who are the ultimate source of food in food chain?
(i) Autotrophs
(ii) Heterotrophs
(iii) Saprotrophs
(iv) None of these.
(i) Autotrophs.

8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(i) Forests protect the soil.
(ii) In forests, plants & animals depend on one another.
(iii) Forests have no influence on climate.
(iv) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate.
(iii) Forests have no influence on climate.

9. which of the following is not correct about deforestation?
(i) It will increase CO2 concentration in atmosphere.
(ii) It will result in loss of habitat of wild animals.
(iii) Soil erosion will take place.
(iv) A sustainable development can be achieved by it.
(iv) A sustainable development can be achieved by it.

Keywords:

→ Canopy: The branches of the tall trees look like a roof over the other plants in the forest. This is called canopy.

→ Crown: Branchy part of a tree above the stem is known as the crown.

→ Decomposers: The micro-organisms which convert the dead plants and animals to humus are known as decomposers.

→ Deforestation: Cutting of forests is called deforestation.

→ Humus: The decomposed organic matter content of soil is called humus.

→ Regeneration:‘ The ability to restore lost or damaged tissues, organs or limbs.

## Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Mughal Empire

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

## Online Education for The Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What were mansabdar’s military responsibilities?

• A man Sardar had to maintain a specified number of Sawar or cavalrymen.
• He had to get horses registered and branded.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who was Todar Mai?
Today Mai was Akbar’s revenue minister. He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Short Questions And Answers Question 3.
Who was Abul Fazl?
Abul Fazl was Akbar’s friend and counsellor. He wrote the books Akbar Nama and Ain-i Akbari.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Worksheets With Answers Question 4.
Which do you think is a fairer division of inheritance: Primogeniture or coparcenary?
According to my, coparcenary is the fairer division of inheritance as it is based on the principle of equality.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
Who were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire?
The peasants and artisans were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire.

Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
Where did Akbar hold discussions with religious scholars?
Akbar held discussions with religious scholars at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra in ibadat khana.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 7.
What was meant by the following terms: Subadar, Diwan, Bakhshi, Sadr, Faujdars and Kotwal?
These terms stood for the following persons respectively: Subadar-governor of province, Diwan- finance officer, Bakshi-military paymaster, Sadr-religious minister, audits-military commanders and kotwal-police commander.

Mughal Empire Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 8.
Who participated in the ibadat khana discussions?
Apart from. Akbar and Abul Fazl, ulemas, Brahmanas, Jesuit priests and Zoroastrians participated in the ibadat khana discussions.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 9.
What type of relations did Mughals have with Rajput rulers?

• Mughals had mixed relations with Rajput rulers.
• At one hand Rajput rulers married their daughters in Mughal families. In return, they acquired higher mansabs in the Mughal court.
• On the other hand, there was Sisodiya Rajputs of Mewar who did not accept Mughal authority. This led to a battle between the two, and Sisodiyas were defeated. Mughals treated them honourably.

Class 7 History Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 10.
Explain the mansabdari system.

• Mansabdari system was based on the ranks given to the noblemen.
• The man says were decided by a grading system to fix rank, salary and military responsibility to a noble.
• Rank and salary of a man Sardar was determined by a numerical value called Zat.
• Mansabdars maintained horses and horsemen to be presented to king at demand.
• Mansabdars were paid in land grants called jagirs

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 11.
What were the features of revenue system of Mughal empire?

• The revenue system was reformed under Akbar by his revenue minister, Raja Todar Mai.
• Today Mal carried out a careful survey of crop yields, prices and areas cultivated for a 10 year period, 1570-80.
• On the basis of this data, tax was fixed on each crop in cash.
• Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops.
• This system was not followed in Gujarat and Bengal.

History Class 7 Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 12.
Explain main causes of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire?
The following were the main causes of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire :

• Collapse of the mansabdari system: By the time of Aurangzeb the mansabdari system became unmanageable as corruption and the number of awaiting mcznsabdars increased.
• Inequalities in man sabdars: During Shah Jahan’s reign the highest-ranking mansabdars made only 5.6% of the total mansabdars of his court i.e., 5.6% mansabdars received 61.5% of the total revenue of the empire. Therefore, the dissatisfied mansabdars challenged the authority of the emperor.
• Increase in regional power centres: The extremely powerful elite of Mughal Empire carved out thèir individual regional states, such as Hyderabad and Awadh.
• Maratha war: In Deccan, Marathas always challenged the Mughal authority, and the region always remained unstable. All these factors combined with the coming weak Mughal rulers led to the decline of Mughal Empire.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which community of warriors posed the immediate threat to the newly established Mughal empire?
(a) Rajputs
(b) Maratha
(c) Afghans
(d) Arabs.
(c) Afghans.

2. How did Akbar treat Sisodiya Raj puts after defeating them?
(a) Honourably
(b) Cruelly
(c) Insulted them
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) Honourably.

3. What were mansabdar’s military responsibilities?
(a) To maintain a special number of Sawar or Cavalrymen
(b) To get horses registered and branded
(c) To make buildings for them
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Who was Todar Mal?
(a) Court poet of Akbar
(b) Revenue Minister of Akbar
(d) A Mansabdar
(b) Revenue Minister of Akbar.

5. Which of. the following were Todar Mai’s great contributions as the Revenue Minister of Akbar?
(a) He introduced many taxes.
(b) He introduced a new agricultural tax.
(c) He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.
(d) He collected revenue with cruelty.
(c) He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.

6. Who was Abul Fazl?
(a) Akbar’s friend and courtier
(b) A man Sardar
(c) Revenue Minister of Akbar
(d) A large landowner.
(a) Akbar’s friend and courtier.

7. Who wrote Akbar Nama and Ain-i- Akbari?
(a) Birbal
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Todar Mai
(d) Tansen.
(b) Abul Fazl.

8. Where did Akbar hold discussions with religious scholars?
(a) Lai Quila in Delhi
(b) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra
(c) Purana Quila in Delhi
(d) Jama Masjid in Delhi.
(b) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra

9. Who were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire?
(b) Cloth merchants
(c) Peasants and artisans
(d) Both (a) and (b).
(c) Peasants and artisans.

10. Which one of the following was the cause of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire?
(a) Collapse of the man sabdari system
(b) Inequalities in man sabdars
(c) Maratha war
(d) All of them.
(d) All of them.

11. Which of the following was the feature of the man sabdari system?
(a) The man says were decided by a grading system to fix, rank and military responsibility to a noble.
(b) Rank and salary of a man Sardar was determined by a numerical value.
(c) Mansabdars maintained horses and horsemen
(d) All of these.
(d) All of these.

Important Years Or Periods:

1227: Genghis Khan, the Mongol ruler died.

1398: Timur captured Delhi.

1404: Timur, the ruler of Iran, Iraq and the modern-day Turkey died.

1494: Babur succeeded to the throne of Ferghana when he was only 12 years old.

1504: Babur seized Kabul.

1526: Babur defeated Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodhi, at Panipat and captured Delhi and Agra.

1527: Babur defeated Rana Sanga, Rajput rulers and allies at Khanna.

1528: Babur defeated Rajputs at Chanderi.

1530-40, 1555-56: Humayun ruled Mughal empire in the subcontinent.

1539: Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun at the battle of Chausa.

1540: Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun at the battle of Kanauj forcing him to flee to Iran.

1555: Humayun recaptured Delhi.

1556-1605: Rule of Akbar.

1568: Akbar captured Sisodiya capital of Chittor.

1569: Akbar captured Ranthambhor.

1570-1585: Akbar expanded his rule in Gujarat, Bihar, Bengal and Orissa.

1585-1605: Akbar captured Qandahar, Kashmir, Kabul, Berar,

1605-1627:Khandesh, Ahmadnagar. : Rule of Jahangir.

1627-1658: Rule of Shah Jahan.

1632: Ahmadnagar was finally annexed and Bijapur was subdued.

1658-1707: Rule of Aurangzeb.

1663: Aurangzeb defeated Ahoms

1685 in Assam: Annexation of Bijapur.

1687: Annexation of Golconda.

Important Terms:

→ Rule of primogeniture: When the eldest son inherits his father’s estate, it is called the rule of primogeniture.

→ Coparcenary: The rule under which the estate is divided amongst all the sons.

→ Mansab: A position or rank of nobles in the Mughal empire.

→ Zat: The numerical value by which’ rank and salary of a man Sardar (the holder of a man sab) were decided.

→ Jagir: Land granted to a man Sardar for collecting revenue that would be his salary.

→ Zabt: The revenue system of Mughals, as it was established by Raja Todar Mai, was called zabt.

→Dogma: A statement or an interpretation declared as authoritative with the expectation that it would be followed without question.

→ Bigot: An individual who is intolerant of another person’s religious beliefs or culture.

→ Sulh-i kul: The policy of “Universal Peace”. It was promoted by Akbar for religious tolerance in his realm.

## Online Education for Life in the Deserts Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 10

Life In The Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 1.
Write the features of the desert areas of the world.

• Low rainfall,
• scanty vegetation and
• extreme temperatures.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
How deserts can be classified on the basis of temperature?

• Hot deserts and
• Cold deserts.

Life In Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
Name the largest desert of the world. Also, mention its area.
Sahara is the largest desert of the world. It has an area of around 8.54 million square kilometres.

Extra Questions On Life In Desert Class 7 Question 4.
Which type of vegetation is found in the Sahara desert?
Vegetation in the Sahara desert includes cactus, date palms and acacia.

The Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the prominent animal species found in the Sahara desert.
Camels, hyenas, jackals, foxes, scorpions and many varieties of snakes and lizards.

Life In Desert Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 6.
What is oasis? Name an oasis found in the Sahara desert.
A fertile, watered spot in a desert is called oasis. Ah, oasis in Sahara is Tafilalet Oasis (in Morocco). It has an area of about 13000 sq. km.

Life In Desert Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Name the minerals found in the Sahara desert.
Oil, iron, phosphorus, manganese and uranium.

Ch 10 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Name two nomadic tribes of the Sahara.
Bedouins and Tuaregs.

Life In The Deserts Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
The Sahara desert touches eleven countries. Name them.

• Algeria,
• Egypt,
• Libya,
• Mali,
• Mauritania,
• Morocco,
• Niger,
• Sudan,
• Tunisia and
• Western Sahara.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 10.
Describe the relief of Sahara desert.
Relief of Sahara consists of-

• Vast stretches of sands.
• Gravel plains.
• Elevated plateaus with bare rocky surface.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question Answer Question 11.
How is an oasis formed?
Depressions are formed when the wind blows away the sands. In the depressions where underground water reaches the surface, an oasis is formed.

Life In Desert Class 7 Worksheet Question 12.
Describe the life of the people living near oasis in Sahara.

• The oasis in the Sahara and the Nile valley in Egypt supports settled life.
• Due to the availability of water, people grow various crops such as rice, wheat, barley and beans. Date palms are also grown.
• Cotton is the major cash crop grown in this region.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 13.
How has discovery of oil changed the cultural landscape of the Sahara?

• Gleaming glass cased office buildings tower over mosques and super-highways crisscross the ancient camel paths.
• Trucks are replacing camels in salt trade.
• Tuaregs are involving better occupations such as becoming guides to foreign tourists.
• Nomadic herdsmen are taking to city life finding jobs in oil and gas operations.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question 14.
Describe the life of nomadic tribes in the Sahara desert.

• The Sahara desert is inhabited by various nomadic tribes such as Bedouins and Tuaregs.
• They rear livestock such as goats, sheep, camels and horses.
• These animals provide them with milk and hides from which they make leather for belts, slippers, water bottles. Hair is used formats, carpets, clothes and blankets.
• They wear heavy robes as protection against dust storms and hot winds.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Worksheet Question 15.
Describe the climatic conditions of the Sahara desert.

• The climate of the Sahara desert is scorching hot and parch dry.
• It has a short rainy season.
• Days are unbelievably hot. The temperatures during the day may soar as high as 50°C.
• The nights may be freezing cold with temperatures nearing zero degrees.

Question 16.
Give an example of a cold desert.

Question 17.
Name the river flowing through Ladakh.
Indus.

Question 18.

Question 19.
Name one of the coldest inhabited place located in Ladakh.
Drass.

Question 20.
Name the birds found in Ladakh.
Robins, Redstarts, Tibetan Snowcock, Raven and Hoopoe.

Question 21.
People of Ladakh belong to which religion?
Islam or Buddhism.

Question 22.
Mention some of the famous monasteries of Ladakh.
Hemis, Thikse, Shey and Lamayuru.

Question 23.
Name the crops grown in Ladakh.
Barley, potatoes, peas, beans and turnip.

Question 24.
How people in Ladakh keep themselves busy during winters?
People in Ladakh keep themselves engaged in festivities and ceremonies during winters due to harsh climatic conditions.

Question 25.
What is Goncha?
Goncha is the most common Ladakhi dress. It is a robe made of thick woollen cloth.

Question 26.
What is the capital of Ladakh? It is connected with which highway to which place?
Leh is the capital of Ladakh. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir valley through the Zoji La Pass.

Question 27.
Can you name some more passes in the Himalayas?

• Karakoram pass,
• Shipki La pass,
• Ashil pass and
• Bomdila pass.

Question 28.
Manali-Leh highway crosses which four passes?

• Rohtang la,
• Baralacha la,
• Lungalacha la and
• Tanglang la.

Question 29.
What are the major tourist attractions in Ladakh?

• Gompas,
• ceremonies and festivities of local people.

Question 30.
Ladakh lies in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir. The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zaskar mountain in the southbound it.

Question 31.
Why Ladakh is a cold desert?

• Located in the Himalayan rainshadow area.
• High altitude.
• Radiation of heat from bare rocks.

Question 32.
Which type of vegetation is found in the Ladakh region?

• Scanty patches of grasses and shrubs.
• Groves of willows and poplars are seen in the valleys.
• During summers, fruit trees such as apples, apricots and walnuts bloom.

Question 33.
Mention the animals found in Ladakh. Also write their uses.

• Wild goat,
• wild sheep,
• yak and
• special kinds of dogs.

Their uses-

• The animals are reared to provide milk, meat and hides.
• The yak’s milk is used to make cheese and butter.
• The hair of the sheep and goat is used to make woollens.

Question 34.
Describe the climate of Ladakh region.

• The climate of Ladakh is extremely cold and dry.
• The day temperatures in summer are just above zero degree and the night temperatures are below 30°C.
• Winters are freezing cold. The temperature remains below 40°C for most of the time.
• This region receives a little rainfall, as low as 10 centimetres annually.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Atacama
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar
(d) Anatolia
(b) Sahara.

2. Which one of the following is different from the others, with reference to the location of the Sahara desert?
(a) Egypt
(b) Western Sahara
(c) Mali
(d) South Africa
(d) South Africa.

3. What kind of climate does the Sahara desert experience?
(a) Rainy
(b) Scorching hot and parch dry
(c) Cloudy
(d) Dry and cold.
(b) Scorching hot and parch dry.

4. Which one of the following vegetations is not associated with the Sahara desert?
(a) Cactus
(b) Dale palm
(c) Acacia
(d) Rosewood.
(d) Rosewood.

5. Which one of the following is grown in Egypt?
(a) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane.
(b) Cotton.

6. It replaced camels in the salt trade;
(a) Elephant
(b) Cow
(c) Truck
(d) Tiger.
(c) Truck.

7. It is the cold desert of India;
(b) Thar
(c) Tibet
(d) Mongolia.

8. Which one of the following is the most important river of the Ladakh region?
(a) Ravi
(b) Indus.
(c) Chenab
(b) Indus.

9. Why is the Ladakh region experience sparse vegetation?
(a) Due to extreme height
(b) Due to scanty rainfall
(c) Due to high aridity
(d) Due to extreme coldness.
(c) Due to high aridity.

10. Which one of the following is used to make cheese and butter in Ladakh region?
(a) Yak’s milk
(b) Cow’s milk
(c) Camel’s milk
(d) Buffaloes milk.
(a) Yak’s milk.

11. Which one of the following terms is used for the Ladakhi landscape by the Buddhist monasteries?
(a) Gompas
(b) Robins
(c) Redstarts
(d) Raven.
(a) Gompas.

12. Which one of the following highways connects Leh to Kashmir valley?
(a) National Highway 7
(b) National Highway 8
(c) National Highway 1 A
(d) National Highway 1
(c) National Highway 1 A.

13. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir valley through;
(a) Sipki La Pass
(b) Bomdila Pass
(c) Karakoram
(d) Zojila Pass.
(d) Zojila Pass.

14. Thiksey in Ladakh is famous for;
(a) Temple
(b) Monastery
(c) Church
(d) Institution.