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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Political Parties

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The rise of political parties is directly linked to
(a) Emergence of representative democracies
(b) rise of large scale economies
(c) rise of mechanism of restrain and support the government
(d) rise of internet
Answer:
(a) Emergence of representative democracies

MCQ On Political Parties Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a National Political Party”?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

MCQ Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 3.
Which one of the following facilities is offered by the “Election Commission” to a recognised political party?
(a) Party Name
(b) Election Funds
(c) Election Symbol
(d) Manifesto
Answer:
(c) Election Symbol

Class 10 Political Parties MCQ Question 4.
Who among the following recognises “Political parties” in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(a) Election Commission

Related Theory
More than 750 parties are registered with the Election Commission of India.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
……………… in which one of the following states does “Shiv Sena” exist as a regional political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:

Political Parties MCQ Class 10th Question 6.
Who among the following organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930? [CBSE 2012]
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar was known as the father of Indian Constitution and worked extensively for the Depressed classes. He arranged them into an association in 1932. It gave the Depressed Classes (Later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following political parties seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and Adivasis?
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Janata Dal (s)
Answer:

MCQ Political Parties Class 10 Question 8.
The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is:
(a) Nationalist Congress Party
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(b) Communist Party of India

Explanation: It was formed in 1925. The party espouses secularism and democracy.
It is opposed to the forces of secessionism and communalism. It accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Question 9.
Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation: In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems.

MCQ Of Chapter Political Parties Class 10 Question 10.
Which of the following countries have bi-party system?
(a) United Kingdom and Belgium
(b) United States of America and Canada
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America

Political Party Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following political party was founded in 1998?
(a) All India Trinamool Congress
(b) Nationalist Congress Party
(c) Aam Admi Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer:
(a) Alt India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was founded under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee and is currently ruling in West Bengal since 2011.

Related Theory
This party became a national political party in 2016.

Political Parties MCQ Class 10 Question 12.
In this party system, generally power changes between two main parties:
(a) Bi-party system
(b) Single party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQs Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 13.
What does UPA stands for?
(a) United Party Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Unified Political Alliance
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Political Parties Question 14.
Which of the following statements are not associated with a regional political party in India?
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election
(b) It gets 2 seats in the elections for state legislatures
(c) It gets 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election

MCQs On Political Parties Question 15.
Which of the following institutions in India has passed an order for every candidate who contests elections to file an giving details of property and criminal cases?
(a) Supreme court of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Constitution of India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme court of India

Question 16.
The rise of political parties can be linked directly to the emergence of:
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Representative democracy
Answer:
(d) Representative Democracy

Explanation: Political Parties are a symbol of Representative Democracy. Political parties are groups of politically aware citizens who’re interested in running the government/country as representatives of common people.

Related Theory
Large societies/countries need Representative Democracies. In a representative democracy, repre-sentatives are chosen through public support in elections to form a responsible government because direct democracy is not possible or feasible in these countries. Representatives take care of the needs and requirements of the people who’ve voted for him.

In direct democracies, people do not chose any representatives, rather decide everything through methods like referendum where everyone votes in negative or affirmative at the time of decision making.

Dictatorship is the rule of a single person. No Political parties are allowed to rise in Dictatorship because all powers lie in the hands of an individual and the will of the people is not considered important.

In Monarchy, power is vested in the hands of a non- elected ruler. This position is hereditary. The ruler runs the country and there’s no significance attached to the needs of the people.

Question 17.
What does NDA stands for?
(a) Natural Democratic Alliance
(b) Nominative Democratic Alliance
(c) Nautical Democratic Alliance
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Explanation: NDA is led by BJP and is ruling in the centre currently.

Question 18.
Which of the following political party draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Ramaswamy Naicker and Dr. Ambedkar?
(a) BJP
(b) BSP
(c) NCP
(d) CPI
Answer:
(b) BSP

Explanation: BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of late Kanshi Ram.

Related Theory
This party enjoys its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and formed governments in this state several times by taking support of different parties at different times.

Question 19.
Arrange political parties according to their year of formation in increasing order:
(i) BSP
(ii) BJP
(iii) INC
(iv) CPI
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Explanation: INC — 1885 CPI— 1925 BJP— 1980 BSP — 1984

Question 20.
Uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion is the agenda of:
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Nationalist Party of India
(d) Nationalist Congress Party
Answer:
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party

Question 21.
Which one of the following party systems is against the basic principle of democracy?
(a) Multi-party system
(b) Bi-party system
(c) Single party system
(d) None of the above
Answer:

Question 22.
This party was founded in 1964 and believes in Marxism-Leninism. Identify the party:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Community Party of India
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist

Explanation: This party is known as CPI-M and was formed after a spilt in the CPI in 1964.

Question 23.
In India, which of the following alliance is NOT active?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) Right Front
Answer:
(d) Right Front

Explanation: In India, there are three major alliances since the 2004 parliamentary elections-NDA (led by BJP), UPA (led by the Congress Party) and the Left Front.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 24.
Identify the party:
(1) Several parties compete for power
(2) More than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power.
(3) The government is formed by various parties coming together.
Answer:
Multi-party system.

Question 25.
Identify the party:
(1) Launched on 1 January, 1998 under the leadership of Mamata Banerjee.
(2) The party’s symbol is flowers and grass.
(3) Committed to secularism and federalism.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Explanation: It has been in power in West Bengal since 2011. It also has a presence in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura. In the General Elections held in 2019, it got 4.07 per cent votes and won 22 seats, making it the fourth largest party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 26.
Identify the party:
(1) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country.
(2) It was in power in West Bengal without a break for 34 years.
(3) It was founded in 1964.
(4) The party believes in Marxism-Leninism
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
India has evolved a multiparty system because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
‘National parties’ have one unit in one state only.
Answer:
False
‘National parties’ have units in various states all across the country.

Question 29.
Political parties are not crucial for the working of democracy.
Answer:

Question 30.
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati.
Answer:
False

Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

Explanation: Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram, BSP seeks to represent bahujan samaj and secure power for them, which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Mayawati is one of the leaders affiliated to the party.

Question 31.
The election commission is the most visible institution of any Democracy.
Answer:
False

A Political Party is the most visible institution of any Democracy.

Explanation: Political Parties link the lower most unit of the society- Humans to the entire administration and political system. They become a medium through which Democracy is executed at times of elections. They are the most visible institution because they play the most important role in helping people choose their true and correct representatives. They compete to bring up different issues and problems and compete for public support.

Question 32.
The Supreme Court passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.
Answer:
The Election Commission of India passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.

Question 33.
Indian National Congress wants that high in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party wants that high offices in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with regards to information about political parties:

Answer:
(A) 4
(B) 2

Question 35.
The ……….. was leading the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government from 2004 to 2014.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 36.
Any democratic system must allow at least parties to contest elections to provide fair chances.
Answer:

Question 37.
The body which recognizes and registers Political Parties in India is called
Answer:
Election Commission

Explanation: It is a specific body created to conduct elections in India and to check, recognise and moniror political parties. Central Election Commission recognises National Parties. State Election Commissions are subunits of central election commission at the state level.

Question 38.
The Bharatiya Janta Party came into power in 1998 as the leader of the ………….. coalition.
Answer:
NDA

Explanation: Bharatiya Janata Party headed the National Democratic Alliance led Coalition Government in 1998.

Related Theory
Coalition government means when any party is incapable of proving majority, single handedly, multiple parties come together and form a government.

Question 39.
………… was the last party to become a national level party in India.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was formed in 1998 under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee, recognised as a national party in 2016 and in power in West Bengal since 2011.

Question 40.
………….. is the oldest party of India.
Answer:

Question 41.
…………. is a National Political Party in India formed in 1984 by late Kanshi Ram.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj party

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 42.
Match the following political parties from column A with their ideologies given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(c) Indian National Congress	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(d) Communist Party of India	(iv) Uniform civil code

Answer:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(iv) Uniform civil code
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(c) Indian National Congress	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(d) Communist Party of India	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism

Question 43.
Match the following political parties from column A with their years of foundation given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Year of Foundation)
(a) Communist Party of India	(i) 1885
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party	(ii) 1984
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) 1980
(d) Indian National Congress	(iv) 1925

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation.
Reason (R): Public participation brings transparency.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The problem of bad politics can be solved by more and better politics which can be achieved only when people participate more.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): It is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.
Reason (R): It makes the voters more informed.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
Reason (R): The politicians are the same everywhere.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Parties and politicians agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in details on how policies are to be framed and implemented. In India, the differences among all the major parties on the economic policies have reduced. Those who want really different policies have no option available to them.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Party system is something any country can choose.
Reason (R): It evolves over time.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: The party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the society and thus involve PARTISANSHIP. Thus a party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interest it upholds.

Which out of the following is not a feature of ‘Partisanship’?
(a) inability to take a balanced view.
(b) Partiality towards one group.
(c) Representation of only certain interests.
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country.
Answer:
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country. Explanation: Partisanship means inability to hold a balanced view. When one is a partisan, he is biased towards a group.

Question 2.
Observe the table given below and answer the question that follows:

Which area of the world shows maximum political participation through parties?
(a) America
(b) South Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Asia

Explanation: The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party is higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea,

Question 3.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.
Which one of these is NOT a function of a political party?
(a) To reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
(b) To contest elections.
(c) To play a decisive role in making laws.
(d) To form and run governments.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Only a handful of parties are effectively in the race to win elections and form the government. So the question, then is: how many major or effective parties are good for a democracy? In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. China is one such country.
Based on your reading, complete the following statement:
The is the only political party that is allowed to function in China.
Answer:
The Chinese communist party

Explanation: China follows the One party system where only one party is allowed to contest elections. It is a flawed form of Democracy.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. Espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism. Wants that high in government be confined to natural born citizens of the country. Identify this political party.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress party

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as ‘State parties’. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism
and democracy in our country.
(A) What is a State party?
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following parties is active in Punjab?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Akali Dali
(c) Trinamool Congress Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Answer:
(b) Akali Dal
Explanation: Samajwadi Party is active in UP, Trinamool congress and Communist Party of India are national parties.

(C) Which of the following has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country?
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
(b) that every national political party has been a part of state governments through coalitions.
(c) that every national and regional political party has been a part of state and national level coalition governments.
(d) that the national parties have allowed state parties to thrive.
Answer:
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
Explanation: Since 1996, there has been a trend of coalition governments in India in the centre particularly.

(D) Assertion (A): Over the last three decades, the number and strength of regional political parties has expanded.
Reason(R): More people are aware and enthusiastic to participate in the political process and articulate their interests through gaining power.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people. It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. Formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking the support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2019, it polled about 3.63 per cent votes and secured 10 seats in the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the party mentioned in the source.
(a) BJP
(b) AITC
(c) Janata Dal
(d) BSP
Answer:
(d) BSP

Explanation: It was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
AITC – Bengal; NCP- ………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

(C) Categorise the given party as a regional or national party based on the necessary criteria laid by Election Commission.
(a) Regional Party
(b) National Party
(c) Not recognised Party
(d) Recognised party but elects candidates for local self government bodies.
Answer:

(D) Identify the symbol of the party.
(a) Lion
(b) Lotus
(c) Elephant
(d) Grass and Flowers.
Answer:
(c) Elephant

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life.
Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Consider the following statements and mark which of them are true:
(I) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia.
(II) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
(III) The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea.
(IV) Over the last three decades the proportion of those who report to be members of political parties in India has gone up steadily.
(V) Political parties are easily one of the most invisible institutions in a democracy.
(a) (l)&(V)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following can be the right definition of Political parties?
(a) A political party is a group of people who contest elections.
(b) A political party is a group of people who come together for power.
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.
(d) A political party is a group of people who influence decision making.
Answer:
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.

(C) Why do people blame parties?
(a) Because there are no other way to blame anyone.
(b) Because they are undemocratic.
(c) Because they represent democracy the best.
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Answer:
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Explanation: They are the true representatives of democracy across the country. They are blamed due to that connection.

(D) What is the main purpose of a political party?
(a) To look for issues.
(b) To increase political participation.
(c) To change the country territorially.
(d) To bring reformation in political system of the country.
Answer:
(b) To increase political participation Explanation: Political parties incorporate more people through adding them as members, activists etc.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have seen how crucial political parties are for the working of democracy. Since parties are the most visible face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy. All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well. This is the case in our country too. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focussed on four problem areas in the working of political parties. Political parties need to face and overcome these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following challenges affects the internal working of a political party?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.

Explanation: Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. This affects internal working of a party.

(B) Mishra ji, a political party head is not ready to leave his position as the head of a party for any other leader except his son. Which challenge does this situation represent?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:

(C) Following are some suggestions to reform parties. Which of them is helpful to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics?
(I) There should be state funding of elections.
(II) Parties should give one-third of its tickets to women candidates.
(III) Parties should look for leaders from rural areas.
(IV) A body should be set up for regulation of economic affairs of the party.
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III)
(d) (IV) only
Answer:

(D) Berlusconi was the Prime Minister of Italy. He is also one of the top businessmen in Italy. He is the leader of the Forza Italia founded in 1993. His company owns TV channels, the most important publishing company, a football club (AC Milan) and a bank. Identify the challenge posed.
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties

Explanation: He controlled the economic market and could make decisions which forfeited him keeping aside all the interests of the people in his country.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. Allover the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
The second challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Questions:
(A) Name one state and one national political party in India?
Answer:
National Party: Indian National Congress State Party: Janata Dal(U) of Jharkhand

(B) What is the challenge of dynastic succession faced by a party?
Answer:
The challenge of Dynastic Succession in parties is a result of favouritism and nepotism practiced openly. It becomes difficult for an outsider/common man to rise to influential positions in a party regardless of his talent. Most powerful positions are reserved for relatives or friends.

(C) Suggest reforms which can help political parties to face the lack of internal democracy.
Answer:
To face lack of internal democracy, a party should make its functioning more transparent. Regular meetings should be held, communication should be made stronger, favouritism should be removed and everybody should be given an equal chance to contribute to party affairs. Apart from this, selection process or utilisation of funds should be made transparent by setting up a committee-properly represented by all areas of members present in the country

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the reason to accept a multi-party system in India.
Answer:
India is a diverse country and needs to accommodate its diversity to help in better administration. This is possible only through a Multi-party system.

Question 2.
Correct the following statements and rewrite it.
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.

Question 3.
Name any one political party that has National level political organization but not recognized as the National Political Party.
Answer:
Rashtriya Janata Dal or Samajwadi Party

Question 4.
Name an Alliance formed by the Congress Party?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?
Answer:
India’s ancient culture, values and cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutvaj is the guiding philosophy of BJP.

Question 6.
Name any two Regional parties of West Bengal.
Answer:
Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress

Question 7.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer:
The challenge of dynastic succession

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to make political parties more responsive to people’s needs and demands.
Answer:
Political parties can be- made more responsive through organised petitions, agitations and publicity by various groups.

Explanation: This shall make political parties pay more attention to people’s needs to secure their support.

Question 9.
Name any one regional party of Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
The Samajwadi Party is one of the regional parties of Uttar Pradesh.

Related Theory
Regional political party (or state party) is a party that has its presence only in one or some states. Regional parties may not always be regional in their ideology or outlook.

Question 10.
Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?
Answer:
One party political system is not considered a good democratic system because it doesn’t offer a meaningful choice to the citizens of the country as they have no options to choose from.

Related Theory
Because of this, the right to vote given to the citizens of a democracy having one party political system is useless as there is only one party which wins the elections every time.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to promote public participation in political parties for enhancing the quality of democracy.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name any two Indian national political parties.
Answer:
Indian national political parties are:

Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
Indian National Congress (INC)
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Related Theory
A national political party is a party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Which organization recognize ‘political parties in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India is responsible for recognizing and registering ‘political parties in India.

Related Theory
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for organizing and administering election processes in India at national, state and district levels.

Question 14.
What is defection?
Answer:

Question 15.
Name any one political party that is a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.
Answer:
Samajwadi Party is a political party that has a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.

Related Theory
Other examples of such political parties are Rashtriya Janata Dal and Samata Party. Such parties have their units in several states.

Question 16.
In which year did the Communist Party of India split into two parties?
Answer:
1964

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of political party.
Answer:

Question 17.
Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer:
Political parties involve partisanship because The parties are a part of the society and thus they involve partisanship.

Question 18.
Which type of government is formed when two or more political parties come together to form a government?
Answer:
Coalition Government

Explanation: At times, when no single party is able to gather majority votes, two or more parties come together to form a government. This is called Coalition Government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 10 Displacing Indigenous Peoples with Answers

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 11 History Chapter 10 Displacing Indigenous Peoples MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 10 MCQs On Displacing Indigenous Peoples

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
Which law gave natives in reservations the right to buy land and take loans?
(a) Indian Reorganisation Act of 1932 CE
(b) Indian Reorganisation Act of 1934 CE
(c) Indian Reorganisation Act of 1936 CE
(d) Indian Reorganisation Act of 1938 CE

Answer

Answer: (b) Indian Reorganisation Act of 1934 CE

MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 10 Question 2.
The natives of North America accepted citizenship of the USA by the _______ in 1954 CE
(a) Declaration of Indian Rights
(b) Declaration of British Rights
(c) Declaration of United States Rights
(d) Declaration of America Rights

Answer

Answer: (a) Declaration of Indian Rights

Displacing Indigenous Peoples MCQ Question 3.
The French Canadian rebellion occurred in the year:
(a) 1837
(b) 1838
(c) 1839
(d) 1840

Answer

Answer: (a) 1837

Class 11 History Chapter 10 MCQ Question 4.
The Native American tribe, which was forcibly evicted by US President Andrew Jackson, was ____________
(a) Hopis
(b) Cherokees
(c) Metis
(d) Ottawas

Answer

Answer: (b) Cherokees

Indigenous People Live In MCQ Question 5.
The _______ began to arrive on the continent of Australia over forty thousand years ago.
(a) Aztecs
(b) Cherokees
(c) Aborigines
(d) Ottawas

Answer

Answer: (c) Aborigines

MCQ Of Displacing Indigenous Peoples Question 6.
Europeans wanted to cut down native forests and replace them with
(a) Sugarcane fields
(b) Rice fields
(c) Cornfields
(d) Cottonfields

Answer

Answer: (c) Cornfields

Class 11 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
The year in which Amerigo de Vespucci’s Travels was published was
(a) 1508
(b) 1507
(c) 1509
(d) 1510

Answer

Answer: (b) 1507

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Class 11 Extra Questions Question 8.
Karl Marx described the American frontier as the last positive capitalist utopia in his book
(a) Grundrisse
(b) Das Kapital
(c) The Communist Manifesto
(d) The German Ideology

Answer

Answer: (a) Grundrisse

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Class 11 Important Questions Question 9.
Britain recognized the USA as an independent country in
(a) 1781
(b) 1782
(c) 1783
(d) 1784

Answer

Answer: (a) 1781

MCQ On Displacing Indigenous Peoples Question 10.
In Canada, the Metis revolted against the colonization of their land between
(a) 1869 and 1885
(b) 1870 and 1885
(c) 1871 and 1885
(d) 1872 and 1885

Answer

Answer: (a) 1869 and 1885

Class 11 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 11.
The term Terra Nullius means:
(a) Land belonging to nobody
(b) Land belonging to natives
(c) Land belonging to the state
(d) Land of immigrants

Answer

Answer: (a) Land belonging to nobody

Class 11 History Ch 10 MCQ Question 12.
Workers who provided cheap labour in Australia were
(a) Chinese immigrants
(b) African slaves
(c) Australian aborigines
(d) Indian labourers

Answer

Answer: (a) Chinese immigrants

Class 11 History Chapter 10 Questions And Answers Question 13.
The Constitution Act in America, which accepted the existing aboriginal and treaty rights of the natives, was passed in the year
(a) 1984
(b) 1986
(c) 1982
(d) 1988

Answer

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Class 11 History with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development with Answers

Resource and Development Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Resource and Development

Resources And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The burial ground is a …………………..
(a) community-owned resource
(b) national resource
(c) individual resource
(d) international resource
Answer:
(a) community-owned resource

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following elements/minerals is the black soil deficient in?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium
(c) Potash
(d) Phosphoric contents
Answer:
(d) Phosphoric contents

Class 10 Resources And Development MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following soils are formed by intense leaching?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Desert soil
Answer:
(c) Laterite Soil

Explanation: Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH < 6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients and occur mostly in southern states, the Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West Bengal, and the North-east region.

Resources And Development MCQ Question 4.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B.

Column A	Column B
(A) Potential	(I) Solar Energy
(B) Stock	(II) Ponds
(C) Individual	(III) Wind energy in Rajasthan
(D) Renewable	(IV) Hydrogen

Answer:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Resource And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?
(a) Soil Composition
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Soil Profile
(d) Soil Texture
Answer:
(c) Soil Profile

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Which of the following is a name given to an area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area?
(a) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Wasteland
(d) Gross cropped area
Answer:
(d) Gross cropped area

Geography Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following contexts was advocated on the international level for the first time the conservation of the resource?
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.
(b) The Brundtland Committee Report published it.
(c) It was discussed in an Indian Affairs with America Discussion.
(d) It was discussed through a book called Small is Beautiful.
Answer:
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.

Resource And Development MCQ Question 8.
The soil has a self-aeration capacity.
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Ch 1 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of :
(a) 22.5 Nautical Miles
(b) 12 Nautical miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles
Answer:

MCQ On Resources And Development Class 10 Question 10.
Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats
Answer:
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats

Explanation: Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain, and along the piedmont of the Western Ghats.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Question 11.
Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief
(b) Parent rock
(c) Climate
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day
Answer:
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day

Geography Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
In which of the following state is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Gujarat

Explanation: Black soil is mainly found in Gujarat and Maharashtra states of India. This soil is considered good for the cotton crop and so is known as ‘black cotton soil’ or ‘regur soil’.

Related theory
Black soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. Black soils are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.

MCQ Of Resources And Development Question 13.
Which of the following is not a measure to reduce soil erosion?
(a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
(b) Contour plowing
(c) Strip cropping
(d) Planting of shelterbelts
Answer:

MCQ Of Resources And Development Class 10 Question 14.
Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Abiotic
(c) Human-made
(d) Non-recyclable
Answer:
(a) Replenishable

Explanation: Replenishable resources are also known as renewable resources. Solar energy, wind energy, water, thermal and tidal energy are the examples of replenishable resources.

Related Theory
Abiotic: These are the type of resources that are derived from nonliving things in the environment such as sunlight, air, etc.

Human-made: These are also known as capital resources which are created by humans such as money, infrastructure etc.

Non-recyclable: These resources are those substances which cannot be used again in any form.

Class 10 Geo Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
The Rio Convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted which of the following for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century?
(a) Agenda 21
(b) Agenda 22
(c) Agenda 20
(d) Agenda 25
Answer:
(a) Agenda 21

Explanation: Agenda 21 aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.

Related Theory
One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

Question 16.
Which of the following book includes ‘Gandhian Philosophy’ on conservation of resources?
(a) Small is Beautiful
(b) Our Common Future
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Small is Beautiful

Explanation: In 1974, Gandhian philosophy was presented by Schumacher in his book ‘Small is Beautiful.’

Related Theory
Gandhi ji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in his words:”There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with production by the masses.

Question 17.
In which of the following states is the terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: In hilly areas, steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces on which terrace cultivation is practiced. Terrace cultivation restricts soil erosion in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand.

Question 18.
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised are called
(a) Potential
(b) Developed
(c) Stock
(d) Reserve
Answer:
(a) Potential

Explanation: Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised to their full capacity are called potential resources. For example, Rajasthan and Gujarat have huge potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed properly.

Related Theory
Resources surveyed and determined for utilisation are called Developed Resources. Development of resources depends upon the technology being used to determine and exhaust their quantity and quality. Useful resources which are not being used to their complete capacity due to lack of technology are called Stock. For example, hydet energy in most countries.

Reserves are subsets of the stock: which can be used with the help of existing technical know-how’. Their use has not yet begun. For example, energy of water stored in dams.

Question 19.
The village of Sukhomajri and the district of Jhabua have shown that it is possible:
(a) To reverse land degradation
(b) To reverse economic prosperity
(c) To reserve water
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) To reverse land degradation

Explanation: People’s management is essentiaL for ecological restoration. For example, tree density in Sukhomajri increased from 13 per hectare in 1976 to 1272 per hectare in 1992.

Related Theory
Sukhomajri village is located in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 20.
Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai?
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Alluvial Soil

Question 21.
In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Odisha
(c) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 22.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises. Which of the following is NOT associated to this statement?
(a) Global warming
(b) Ozone layer maintenance
(c) Environmental pollution
(d) Land degradation
Answer:

Question 23.
Choose the feature which is NOT associated with Arid soils:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks
(b) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils
(c) The lower horizon of the soil is occupied by Kankar nodules
(d) These soils become cultivable after proper irrigation.
Answer:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?
(a) Gross cropped Area
(b) Uncultivable Land
(c) Barren Wasteland
(d) Current fallow Land
Answer:
(b) Uncultivable Land.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 25.
Identify the soil:
(1) It develops under tropical and subtropical climates with an alternate wet and dry season.
(2) Mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients
(3) It is humus rich, but under sparse vegetation and in a semi-arid environment, it is generally humus poor.
(4) They are prone to erosion.
Answer:

Question 26.
Identify the soil:
(1) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(2) Soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size when we move closer to the river valley.
(3) Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Correct & Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Resources that are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called potential resources.
Answer:
False.

Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called developed resources.

Related Theory
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utitised are called Potential Resources.

Question 28.
Forest area in the country is far better than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.
Answer:
Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.

Question 29.
The black soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 30.
Laterite soil is very useful for growing …………….among other beverage crops.
Answer:
tea

Explanation: After adopting appropriate soil conservation techniques particularly in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, tea can be grown.

Question 31.
The ………………….. soils texture varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed.
Answer:
Forest

Question 32.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is called ………………
Answer:
Badland

Question 33.
With people being made the decision-makers by the Madhya Pradesh government, 2.9 million hectares or about 1 per cent of India’s land area, are being greened across the state through ……………….
Answer:
Watershed management

Question 34.
Resource on the basis of exhaustibility

Resource	Examples/Type
(a) ____________	Solar and wind energy
(b) ____________	Mineral and fossil fuels

Answer:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources

Explanation: The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources. For example, solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc.

Resources which get exhausted with use, can not be reproduced or rejuvenated and take millions of years to form are called non-renewable resources. For example, minerals and fossil fuels.

Question 35.
Sustainable development encourages usage of…………… energy resources.
Answer:

Question 36.
The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels. This is called……………..
Answer:
Gully erosion

Question 37.
Complete the following table with the correct information with regards to types of resources:

Resource	Examples
Biotic	(A) ?
(B) ?	Water

Answer:
(A) Forests
(B) Abiotic

Explanation: Biotic Resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock, etc. All those things which are composed of non-living things are called abiotic resources. For example, rocks and metals.

Question 38.
………………… soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Explanation: This is the most widely spread and fertile soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra, all of which flow towards the eastern coast of the country.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 39.
Match the following terms from column A with their explanation from column B:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Explanation)
(a) Bangar	(i) New alluvial
(b) Khadar	(ii) Old alluvial
(c) Regur	(iii) Arable land left without cultivation for a year or more
(d) Fallow Land	(iv) Cotton soil

Answer:

Question 40.
Match the following efforts of resource conservation from column A with years from column B:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(i) 1992
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(ii) 1987
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(iii) 1974
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(iv) 1968

Answer:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(iv) 1968
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(iii) 1974
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(ii) 1987
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(i) 1992

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R): Resources are essential for human development.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Resources help us develop economically. All economic activities are dependent on resources. Hence, it is through institutions like factories, organizations etc that humans are able to exploit and use natural resources.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are community-owned resources.
Reason (R): They are accessible to all the people living there.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R): They promote equality among classes.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): We cannot breathe without them.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: We can breathe without resources but they are essential for survival because they help us develop and attain new avenues.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): Rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders.
Reason (R): Foreign invaders exploited these resources through better technologies and earned wealth through this drain.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.
Reason (R): The land under permanent pasture has decreased.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Different states have different net sown area. Over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and 10 percent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the following source and answer the question that follows:
Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq km. Land use data, however, is available only for 93 per cent of the total geographical area because the land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not been done fully.
The land use in which of the following states has not been conducted properly?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Explanation: Land use has not been properly carried out in North western states.

Question 2.
Read the details given in the source below and identify the kind of soil whose features have been mentioned.
This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. They are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material.
Answer:
Black Soil

Explanation: Black soil is also known as ‘Regur Soil’ or ‘Cotton Soil’ as it is good for the cultivation of cotton crop in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat in India.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.

The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and Local levels.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following states are rich in mineral resources?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) UP
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Chhattisgarh

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Cold Desert – Ladakh; Warm Desert- …………..
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:

(C) Which of the following resources are potential resources?
(a) Mineral
(b) Wind energy
(c) Coal
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(b) Wind energy

Explanation: Other resources have been put to use.

(D) Why is resource planning necessary?
(a) Resources will be completely used up if they are planned well.
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.
(c) Resources will be used better if planned.
(d) Resources are supposed to be planned all along.
Answer:
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems- the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following crops will the alluvial soil support?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Rice
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(c) Rice

(B) The Alluvial Soil is deposited by
(a) Lava
(b) Rivers
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Snowfall
Answer:
(b) Rivers

(C) Which of the states is the alluvial soil not found at all?
(a) UP
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Explanation: Alluvial Soils are spread in the northern and north western parts of the country through river basins.

(D) Which of the following characteristics is true about the Bangar soil?
(a) Bangar is the most fertile alluvial soil.
(b) Bangar is a new alluvial.
(c) The Bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar nodules.
(d) Bangar soil has smaller particles than Khadar soil.
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and . water lead to soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following erosions destroy the subsoil?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Wind erosion
(d) Tree erosion
Answer:
(a) Gully erosion
Explanation: Other types of erosion basically affect the topsoil sheet and not the subsoil directly.

(B) Which of the following statements about soil erosion is not true?
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.
(b) Soil erosion can be caused by glaciers.
(c) Ravines are caused due to soil erosion.
(d) Soil formation and soil erosion go hand in hand.
Answer:
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.

(D) Where are the ravines found?
(a) Mahanadi Basin
(b) Chambal Basin
(c) Ganga Basin
(d) Yamuna Basin
Answer:
(b) Chambal Basin

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not correct about Land degradation?
(a) Land Degradation affects the soiL
(b) Quarrying leads to Land Degradation.
(c) Land degradation is caused due to waterlogging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Answer:
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Explanation: It is severely bad for the environment and our resources.

(B) The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer:
(b) Over irrigation

(C) which one of the following does not check land degradation:
(a) control on overgrazing
(b) creating shelter belts
(c) deforestation
(d) afforestation
Answer:

(D) what is common between the land degradation caused in Jharkhand and Odisha?
(a) In both places, it is caused due to afforestation.
(b) It is caused by mining in both places.
(c) The subsoil in these areas is very thin.
(d) Their resources are completely exhausted due to land degradation.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow.
Natural resources are the things that exist freely in nature human beings use for survival. These things include the water, land, forests, animals, rocks, fossil fuels, and minerals inside the Earth. Human beings did not create natural resources. They have always been a part of the Earth before humans appeared. Most of the natural resources are connected to each other in some way. For example, water is a natural resource, and there was a limited supply, then other resources such as animal and plants would be affected. Natural resources are consumed directly or indirectly. For example, when animals eat plants they are consuming a natural resource directly.

However, the many trees of rain forest act as climate control, food control, and storm protection. The trees of a forest can also be used as raw materials for making houses, furniture, paper, or other items. Natural resources can be a solid, liquid, or gas. They can also be organic, coming from living things, or inorganic, coming from a non-living source. They can also be made out of metal or be non- metallic.
(A) What are resources?
Answer:
Anything available in nature which could be brought to human use by human-made technology is called a resource.

(B) Mention one other way of classifying a resource apart from the mentioned classification.
Answer:

(C) Mention two characteristics of a natural resource?
Answer:
Natural resources are found freely in nature and have been present on earth even before human beings appeared.
They are closely connected to each other and can be both organic or inorganic in nature.

Very Short Answer “Type Questions

Question 1.
Which soil has a self-aeration capacity?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 2.
What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
Answer:
43% of the total Land in the country are plains.

Question 3.
Classify resources based on origin.
Answer:
Based on origin of resources- resources can be classified as biotic and abiotic resources.

Question 4.
What are the resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised called?
Answer:
These are Potential Resources.

Question 5.
How is the cement industry responsible for land degradation?
Answer:

Question 6.
In which state has mining called land degradation?
Answer:
Chhattisgarh

Question 7.
Which soil type is made up of lava flows?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 8.
Mention the factors on which the land-use pattern of India depends upon. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The use of land is determined by physical as well as human factors.
(1) Physical factors: Topography, climate and soil types.
(2) Human factors: Population density, technological capability, culture and traditions.

Question 9.
Give one example of the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil.
Answer:
Tea/coffee.

Question 10.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, resources can be classified as:
(1) Renewable/ Non-exhaustible resources
(2) Non-renewable/ Exhaustible resources.

Related Theory
Renewable resources: These are resources which can be replenished over a period of time. Example: solar energy.
Non-renewable resources: These are resources that cannot be renewed and are available in limited quantities. Example: coal.

Question 11.
Highlight the importance of contour ploughing.
Answer:
Contour ploughing helps in the prevention of soil erosion caused by wind and water.

Related Theory
Contour ploughing is a method of tilling and ploughing hillsides or sloping lands along the contour lines.

Question 12.
Read the features of a soiL and name the related soil
(1) This soiL ranges from red to brown in colour.
(2) It is generally sandy in texture and is saline.
(3) It Lacks humus and moisture.
Answer:

Question 13.
“Degradation of Land is a cause of word.”
Give one reason to support the statement.
Answer:
Degradation of Land is a cause of worry because it can cause ecological imbalance.

Question 14.
Give one example of community owned resources.
Answer:
Village grazing grounds, public parks and picnic spots.

Explanation: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of a community.

Question 15.
How is overgrazing responsible for land degradation in Gujarat?
Answer:

Question 16.
“Conservation of resource is vital for development.” Give one example regarding the statement.
Answer:
Conservation of resources: afforestation, water treatment.

Question 17.
How are mining activities responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand?
Answer:
Mining activities are responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand because mining sites are abandoned after the excavation work is complete, leaving deep scars on the land.

Related Theory
To get rid of this land degradation, proper management of wastelands and control of mining activities needs to be initiated.

Question 18.
Water is a compound of two inflammable gases, hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich source of energy. However, we do not have the required technical ‘knowhow’ to use them for this purpose. What kind of resources can these gases be put in?
Answer:
The gases can be put in: The Stock Resources.

Question 19.
Which soil is most retentive of moisture?
Answer:
Black Soil retains the most moisture.
Explanation: Black Soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material which helps them absorb more water.

Question 20.
Highlight the reason for land being known as the utmost important natural resource.
Answer;

Question 21.
Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of cashew nut?
Answer:
Soil for the growth of Cashew nuts: Red Laterite soil.

Question 22.
Favorable conditions for wind energy exist in Western Rajasthan and Gujarat, but they have not been utilized and developed to the maximum, it falls in which category of resources?
Answer:
Wind energy received in Western Rajasthan exist as:
Potential Resources

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Manufacturing Industries

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following has helped to earn or been a major source of foreign exchange for the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(b) Software Technology Parks of India
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)
Answer:
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Explanation: Business process outsourcing (BPO) is a method of subcontracting various business-related operations to third-party vendors. This delegates the roles and responsibilities and has been in huge demand. This has earned huge reserves of foreign exchange for the IT industry.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the National Jute Policy of 2005?
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging
(b) Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers
(c) Increasing the productivity of raw material
(d) Improving the quality of Jute
Answer:
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging Explanation: In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Air pollution is caused by which of the following:
(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents poured into water bodies.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.
(c) Waste thrown on grounds
(d) Unwanted sound waves from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
Answer:
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.

MCQ Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 4.
Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth and Globalisation
(b) Pollution and Environmental degradation
(c) Foreign exchange earnings
(d) Rapid urbanisation
Answer:

MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 5.
What was the aim of establishing industries in Tribal and Backward areas?
(a) Developing New Cities
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities
(c) Eradication of Unemployment and Poverty
(d) Quality Production
Answer:
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities

Class 10 Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Export of manufactured goods expands
(a) Mass production
(b) Quality production
(c) Trade and Commerce
(d) Industry
Answer:
(c) Trade and Commerce

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Question 7.
The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around per cent per annum.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Explanation: The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
What are basic or key industries?
(a) An industry which supplies their products as raw materials to manufacture other goods.
(b) An industry which produces goods for direct use by consumers.
(c) An industry defined with reference to the maximum investment.
(d) An industry that uses light raw materials and produces light goods.
Answer:

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd, Dabur Industries belong to which of the following types of industries?
(a) Cooperative industry
(b) Joint sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(d) Private sector

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is an important spinning centre of the country?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

Explanation: Spinning continues to be centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Class 10 Geography Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 11.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option with regards to India’s production of different goods.
Raw Jute- …………………..; Steel – Second Largest
(a) Least
(b) Second Largest
(c) Largest
(d) Third largest
Answer:
(c) Largest

Explanation: India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question 12.
India was the largest producer of steel in the world in which of the following years?
(a) 2010
(b) 2020
(c) 2004
(d) 2016
Answer:

MCQ Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Pyrite
(c) Bronze
(d) Iron ore
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals. That is why it has been considered a perfect substitute of steel, copper and lead.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured by Inorganic Chemicals?
(a) Pharmaceuticals
(b) Synthetic Rubber
(c) Dye
(d) Caustic Soda
Answer:
(d) Caustic Soda

Explanation: Inorganic chemicals comprise of sulphuric acid (used to manufacture fertilisers, synthetic fibres, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured or produced by Organic Chemicals?
(a) Cement
(b) Nitric Acid
(c) Synthetic rubber
(d) Metals
Answer:
(c) Synthetic rubber

Explanation: Organic chemicals include petrochemicals and help synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

Question 16.
Which of the following compounds involved isn fertilising has to be completely imported because it is not found anywhere in India?
(a) Phosphate
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Potash
(d) Nitrogenous fertilisers
Answer:

Question 17.
Which of the following cities has emerged as the electronic capital of India?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai
(d) Gurgaon
Answer:
(b) Bengaluru

Question 18.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon production facilities cause
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages
(b) Weight, Height related issues
(c) Viral diseases
(d) Hair Fall and other Bacterial diseases
Answer:
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages

Question 19.
Which gas produces air pollution?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Argon
Answer:
(a) Sulphur dioxide

Explanation: Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.

Question 20.
Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: There are 8 aluminium smelting plants in the country located in Odisha, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Related Theory
Nalco and Balco are famous plants located in Odisha.

Question 21.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in the year:
(a) 1901
(b) 1902
(c) 1903
(d) 1904
Answer:
(d) 1904

Related Theory
There are 128 large plants and 332 mini cement plants in the country.

Question 22.
Which of the following industry uses limestone as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
Answer:

Question 23.
Which one of the following industries is the second most important metallurgical industry in India?
(a) Chemical Industry
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Aluminium Smelting

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, it is malleable and is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils, and wires.

Question 24.
Which of the following metal has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Aluminium

Question 25.
Which one of the following is a private sector industry?
(a) BHEL
(b) TISCO
(c) OIL
(d) SAIL
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Explanation: Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals for example TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries, etc.

Related Theory

BHEL and SAIL are public sector industries, owned and operated by government agencies.
OIL is a joint sector industry, jointly owned by private and public sectors.

Question 26.
Which of the following industry is an example of basic industry?
(a) Copper Smelting
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 27.
Which of the following country is the largest producer of iron and steel in the world?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) China

Explanation: China is also the world’s largest consumer of steel.

Question 28.
Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Related Theory

SAIL stands for Steel Authority of India Ltd.
NMCC stands for National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.
NTPC stands for National Thermal Power Corporation.
TATA Steelworks as an agency through which TISCO markets its produce.

Question 29.
Which one of the following raw materials is used to harden the steel?
(a) Limestone
(b) Manganese
(c) Coking coal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Manganese

Question 30.
Iron and steel industry require iron ore, coking coal, and Limestone in the ratio of approximately:
(a) 4: 2:1
(b) 1: 2:4
(c) 4:1: 2
(d) 2:4:1
Answer:
(a) 4: 2:1

Related Theory
Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel.

Question 31.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is an example of:
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Private Sector
(d) Joint Sector
Answer:

Question 32.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B?

Column A (Final Products)	Column B (Raw Materials)
(A) Aluminium	(I) Cotton
(B) Textiles	(II) Limestone
(C) Yarn	(III) Bauxite
(D) Cement	(IV) Wool

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), D-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
Answer:
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)

Identify
Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 33.
Identify the following industry:
(1) It contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP.
(2) It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the twelfth place in the world in terms of its size.
(3) The industry is its own largest consumer.
Answer:
Chemical Industry

Question 34.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This types of pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into rivers.
(2) Main pollutants are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries.
(3) Fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slags are few major solid wastes.
Answer:

Question 35.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This type of pollution results in irritation and anger.
(2) It can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effects.
(3) Possible pollutants are industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
Answer:
Noise Pollution

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 36.
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a large-scale industry.
Answer:
False
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.

Question 37.
BHEL, SAIL are examples of joint sector industries.
Answer:
False
BHEL, SAIL are examples of Public sector industries which are owned and operated by government agencies.

Explanation: In Joint Sector industries- both public and the private companies are joint owners of any agency. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd (Formerly known as Maruti Udyog Ltd.) is in joint sector while BHEL and SAIL are both owned by the government.

Question 38.
The first jute mill was set up near Mumbai in 1859 at Rishra
Answer:
False
The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in 1859 at Rishra

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 39.
Lime stone, silica, alumina and gypsum are raw materials of the industry.
Answer:
Cement industry.

Question 40.
The industry is the basic industry since all the other industries, whether heavy, medium and tight, depend on it for machinery.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: The iron and steel industry is known as the basic industry because all other industries are dependent on it for their machinery. All raw materials are also provided by the iron and steel industry.

Question 41.
The first successfuL textiLe mill was established in …………… in 1854. [Dikshci]
Answer:
Mumbal.

Explanation: The two worLd wars were fought in Europe. India was a British colony. There was a demand for cLoth in UK. Hence, they gave a boost to the development of the cotton textile industry and established first cotton mill in Mumbai.

Question 42.
The ………… industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils and wires.
Answer:

Question 43.
Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of the………….industry in India.
Answer:
Information technology and the Electronics industry

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following industries from Column A with their locations from Column B:

Column A (Industries)	Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill	(i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(b) Jute mill	(ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(c) Cement industry	(iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)
(d) Iron and Steel	(iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)

Answer:

Column A (Industries)	Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill	(ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(b) Jute mill	(i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(c) Cement industry	(iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)
(d) Iron and Steel	(iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)

Question 45.
Match the folLowing Industries with their correct Locations:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cotton Textile Industry	(i) Bokaro
(b) Iron and Steel Plant	(ii) Singrauli
(c) Software Park	(iii) Surat
(d) Thermal Power Plant	(iv) Noida

Answer:

Question 48.
Match the following types of industries from Column A with their examples from Column B:

Column A (Types of Industries)	Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry	(i) SAIL
(b) Public sector industry	(ii) Oil India Ltd.
(c) Joint sector industry	(iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry	(iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra

Answer:

Column A (Types of Industries)	Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry	(iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra
(b) Public sector industry	(i) SAIL
(c) Joint sector industry	(ii) Oil India Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry	(iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants.
Reason (R): Organic chemicals are made of petrochemicals that cannot be transported over distances.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): There is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states, especially in Maharashtra. Reason (R): Raw material is cheaper there.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Raw material or sugarcane has greater sugar content. That helps get greater results and better final products.

Question 49.
Assertion (A): Manufacturing activities also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income.
Reason (R): it replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Agriculture and industry are exclusive of each other.
Reason (R): They go hand in hand.
Answer:

Question 51.
Assertion (A): Internal demand for jute has been on the increase.
Reason (R): This is because of the government policy of mandatory use of plastic packaging. It replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The rise in demand is because of the government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:

Year	Production (In million tonnes per annum)
2005	45.7
2006	49.4
2007	53.0
2008	57.8
2009	56.6
2010	68.3
2011	72.2

Through the data given above, identify which metal is being produced:
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminum
(c) Steel
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Steel

Explanation: In 2010-11 with 72.2 million tonnes of steel production, India ranked 4th among the world crude steel producers.

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Do you know that paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium from bauxite? Do you also know that some types of clothes are manufactured from yarn which itself is an industrial product? People employed in the secondary activities manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.
The workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries etc. fall into this category. Some people are employed in providing services. In this chapter, we are mainly concerned with manufacturing industries which fall in the secondary sector. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Manufacturing sector is dependent upon:
(I) Primary Sector for Raw materials
(II) Tertiary Sector for Machinery
(III) Secondary Sector for Raw materials
(IV) Tertiary Sector for Banking, Transportation
(V) Quaternary Sector for Raw materials
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (III) & (V)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following sectors do the workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries belong to?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Quaternary Sector
Answer:
(b) Secondary Sector

Explanation: Workers employed in the factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries are involved in the manufacturing activities which belong to the Secondary Sector.

(C) Which of the following is not true about manufacturing industries?
(a) Manufacturing industries are very important for the economic prosperity of the country.
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.
(c) Manufacturing activities transform raw materials to finished goods.
(d) Manufacturing activities are the next step to agricultural activities.
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.

(D) Which of the following raw material is also an industrial product?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Yarn
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Yarn

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Our manufactured goods must be at par in quality with those in the international market. Only then, will we be able to compete in the international market.
Over the last two decades, the share of the manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. This is much lower in comparison to some East Asian economies, where it is 25 to 35 per cent. The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around 7 per cent per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum. With appropriate policy interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target over the next decade. The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up with this objective. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What is the criterion to fulfill for Indian goods to be able to compete in the international market?
(a) Indian goods should be less expensive
(b) Indian goods should be more expensive.
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.
(d) The quality of Indian goods should be decreased.
Answer:
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.

(B) What is the current share of contribution of the manufacturing sector to the Indian GDP?
(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 27
Answer:
(a) 17

(C) How can we improve the productivity of the manufacturing sector?
(a) Reinvigorate the primary sector.
(b) Change the tertiary sector
(c) Policy interventions by the government
(d) Change the activities involved in the secondary sector
Answer:

(D) What is the difference between Indian and the East Asian economies with respect to the contribution of the Manufacturing Sector?
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
(b) Contribution is lesser in the East Asian Economies.
(c) Contribution is equal in the East Asian Economies.
(d) There is no contribution in the East Asian Economies.
Answer:
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
Explanation: The share of the manufacturing sector for the last two decades has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye¬stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets. The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilizers which have a combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following compounds are not found in India?
(a) DAP
(b) N
(c) P
(d) K
Answer:
(d) K

(B) Which of the following industries is its own largest consumer?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Chemical industry
(c) Cement Industry
(d) Automobile Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical industry

Explanation: The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to manufacture chemicals used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

(C) Which of the following industries uses its own products as a raw material to produce products further?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Industry
(d) Chemical Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical Industry

(D) Why are the organic chemical plants located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants?
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.
(b) These plants need specific locations to be established because they blast in the heat.
(c) These plants can only be located close to the oceans.
(d) These plants require airway transportation of the materials.
Answer:
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and also provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to the industry. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration takes place. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements supports the assertion that urbanisation and industrialisation go hand in hand?
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products.
(b) Industrial activities retard urbanisation and in turn urbanisation retards industrialisation.
(c) Industries encourage establishment of satellite towns around the city.
(d) Urbanisation creates more industries but industries do not support urbanisation.
Answer:
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products. Explanation: Urbanisation follows industrialisation and vice versa. Industrialisation stimulates urbanisation and with urbanisation, comes an increase in the number of industries in the area due to greater demand and improving lifestyles.

(B) What is the correct meaning of agglomeration economies?
(a) Many industries set up in rural centres.
(b) Industries are established in one area only
(c) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres.
(d) Industries are set up in the rich part of the town.
Answer:

(C) Which of the following services are provided by cities to industries?
(I) Banking
(II) Accomodation
(ill) Lodging
(IV)Markets
(V) Labour
(VI) Raw materials
(VII) Water
(a) (I), (II) & (VI)
(b) (I) & (VII)
(c) (II), (III) & (V)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(d)(1), (II), (III), (IV) &(V)

(D) Find one word from the passage which means the same as the statement given below:
“Assemblage or mixture of things or objects”
(a) Economies
(b) Agglomeration
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?
Answer:
The NMCC was created to improve the growth rate in the manufacturing sector through policy interventions.

Question 2.
Suggest anyone measure to promote handspun/khadi in India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Why is the ‘least cost’ known as a decision making factor for ideal location of an industry?
Answer:
The cost is the most important factor and has to be least to maximise profit. The place with least cost is the most decision making factor to choose an ideal location.

Question 4.
Classify industry on the basis of the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
Answer:
On the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods, the industries are classified into:
(1) Heavy industries: For example, iron and steel.
(2) Light industries that use light raw materials and produce light goods: For exampLe, electrical industries.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of cities in industrialisation?
Answer:
Cities provide markets and provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice etc. to the industry.

Question 6.
Name the places where most manufacturing units were located before independence.
Answer:
Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Question 7.
Mention where silk textile industries are located.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is the position of India in the production of gur and khandsari?
Answer:
India is the largest producer of gur and khandsari.

Question 9.
Give one example of an integrated steel plant.
Answer:
TISCO.

Question 10.
By which authority, the steel of all Public Sector Undertakings is marketed ?
Answer:
Steel Authority of India Ltd.

Question 11.
What is the main cause for rapid strides in the cement industry in the 1980-1990s ?
Answer:
Decontrol of price and distribution since 1989 used to make rapid strides in capacity, process, technology and production.

Question 12.
When was the first cement plant set up?
Answer:
1904

Question 13.
What is the precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country?
Answer:
Industrial development.

Question 14.
Give a few examples of consumer industries?
Answer:

Question 15.
Which country has the largest installed capacity of spindles in the world?
Answer:
China

Question 16.
Suggest any one way to promote the jute textile industry in India. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
The jute textile industry can be improved by promoting jute packaging/jute products as environment friendly, biodegradable products and viable alternative to synthetic fibres.

Question 17.
Which industry is an example of joint sector industry?
Answer:
Oil India Limited is a joint sector industry.

Related Theory
Joint sector Industry are industries jointly owned by state and individual industrialists. They’re an example of Public-private partnership.

Question 18.
What is a basic industry?
Answer:
An industry which supply its products or raw materials to manufacture other goods is called a basic industry. Example: Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: Basic industries are also known as key industries. For example, aluminum smelting, copper smelting.

Question 19.
What is the full form of NMCC?
Answer:
National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.

Related Theory
NMCC has been set up to increase productivity of manufacturers by incorporating appropriate policy interventions.

Question 20.
Name the only industry which is self reliant in its value chain.
Answer:
Textile industry is the only industry to be self- reliant and complete in the value chain – from raw material to the final products etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements with Answers

Popular Struggles and Movements Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Popular Struggles and Movements Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On Popular Struggles and Movements

Choose the correct option:

Class 10 Civics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding ‘sectional interest groups’?
(a) They promote collective rather than selective good.
(b) Their principal concern is betterment and well-being of their members, not society in general.
(c) They aim to help groups other than their own members.
(d) They do not seek to promote the interest of a particular section or group of society.

Answer

Answer: (b) Their principal concern is betterment and well-being of their members, not society in general.

Popular Struggles And Movements Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
What was the main reason of Bolivia’s Water War? Choose the most appropriate answer from the following:
(a) Privatisation of water supply
(b) Irregular water supply
(c) Supply of poor quality water
(d) An increase in water price by four times.

Answer

Answer: (d) An increase in water price by four times.

Social Movements Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following political parties came to power in Bolivia in 2006?
(a) The Communist Party
(b) The Republican Party
(c) The Socialist Party
(d) The Conservative Party

Answer

Answer: (c) The Socialist Party

MCQ On Popular Struggles And Movements Question 4.
Which one of the following was the main aim to start movement on April 2006, in Nepal?
(a) To control over government
(b) To snatch power from the king
(c) To restore democracy
(d) To dethrone the king

Answer

Answer: (c) To restore democracy

Social Movements Class 10 MCQ Questions Question 5.
Which of the following is not a movement?
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(b) Women’s Movement
(c) Struggle in Nepal
(d) All India Trade Union Congress

Answer

Answer: (d) All India Trade Union Congress

Popular Struggles And Movements MCQ Question 6.
In 2006 the party that came to power in Bolivia was
(a) SPA —Seven Party Alliance
(b) Socialist Party
(c) Communist Party
(d) Nationalist Party

Answer

Answer: (b) Socialist Party

Question 7.
People’s struggle in Bolivia was
(a) to establish democracy
(b) about foundation of country’s politics
(c) against privatisation of water
(d) against privatisation of electricity

Answer

Answer: (c) against privatisation of water

Question 8.
Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in
(a) April 1990
(b) February 2005
(c) April 2006
(d) April 2004

Answer

Answer: (c) April 2006

Question 9.
Pressure groups and movements have deepened democracy by
(a) putting pressure on the public
(b) countering undue influence of the government
(c) non-accommodation of conflicting interests
(d) controlling and sharing political power

Answer

Answer: (b) countering undue influence of the government

Question 10.
In most cases the relationship between political parties and interest groups is
(a) direct
(b) not opposed to each other
(c) in dialogue and negotiation
(d) opposed yet in dialogue

Answer

Answer: (d) opposed yet in dialogue

Question 11.
Which of these is one of the agencies of organised politics?
(a) Political parties
(b) Pressure groups
(c) Movement groups
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The spontaneous public participation becomes effective with the help of organised politics. There can be many agencies of organised politics. These include political parties, pressure groups and movement groups.

Question 12.
Which one of the following is not true about the pressure groups?
(a) They are directly engaged in party politics
(b) They take a political stance
(c) They organise protests
(d) They try to gain public support

Answer

Answer: (d) They try to gain public support
Explanation:
Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies. But unlike political parties, pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power.

Question 13.
Who won Bolivia’s water war?
(a) People
(b) Government
(c) MNC
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) People
Explanation:
People’s successful struggle against privatisation of water in Bolivia reminds us that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy. The Bolivia’s water war is won by people.

Question 14.
Which financial agency/organisation pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water supply?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank
(c) Central Bank of Bolivia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) World Bank
Explanation:
Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. The World Bank pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water supply.

Question 15.
When did King Gyanendra dismiss the then prime minister and dissolve the Parliament?
(a) In February 2005
(b) In February 2006
(c) In March 2006
(d) In April 2006

Answer

Answer: (a) In February 2005
Explanation:
In February 2005, the king dismissed the then Prime Minister and dissolved the popularly elected Parliament.

Question 16.
Which of the following is a movement?
(a) Women’s movement
(b) Environmental movement
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
People’s movement to describe many forms of collective action: Narmada Bachao Andolan, Movement for Right to Information, Anti-liquor Movement, Women’s Movement, Environmental Movement.

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a movement?
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(b) Struggle in Nepal for democracy
(c) Women’s movement
(d) All India Trade Union Congress

Answer

Answer: (d) All India Trade Union Congress
Explanation:
People’s movement to describe many forms of collective action: Narmada Bachao Andolan, Movement for Right to Information, Anti-liquor Movement, Women’s Movement, Environmental Movement.

Question 18.
Which political party supported the protest in Bolivia, came to power in Bolivia in 2006?
(a) Socialist Party
(b) Communist Party
(c) Congress Party of Bolivia
(d) None of above

Answer

Answer: (a) Socialist Party
Explanation:
The movement was supported by the Socialist Party. In 2006, this party came to power in Bolivia.

Question 19.
Which of the following organisations/ institutions did not join the protest movement?
(a) Labour unions and their federations
(b) Organisation of indigenous people
(c) Organisation of teachers, lawyers and human rights groups
(d) Army

Answer

Answer: (d) Army
Explanation:
The struggle involved many organisations other than political parties. Many other organisations like the organisation of the indigenous people, teachers, lawyers and human rights groups extended support to the movement.

Question 20.
Which party spearheaded the mass upsurge in Nepal?
(a) Seven-Party Alliance (SPA)
(b) Nepalese Communist Party (Maoist)
(c) Nepalese Communist Party
(d) Nepalese Congress Party

Answer

Answer: (a) Seven-Party Alliance (SPA)
Explanation:
The call for indefinite strike was given by the SPA or the Seven Party Alliance in Nepal. This alliance included some big parties that had some members in the Parliament.

Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the following cartoon takne from NCERT Textbook Page 62 and answer the question given below it.

Governments initiate schemes and programmes to alleviate the suffering of the poor and meet their basic needs. But poverty remains in the country. What could be the reasons for such a situation?

Answer

Answer:
Governments, no doubt, initiate several schemes and programmes but these are not implemented in proper way. Neither do the benefits of these schemes and programmes reach to the poor for whom they were initiated. This is the bitter truth. That’s why poverty remains in the country. The middlemen play their role negatively and restrict all benefits for themselves. The system has become so corrupt that only governments and their schemes can’t do miracles. If we want to see a country sans poverty, each and every citizen needs to be transformed. Unless we are honest and dutiful we can’t remove poverty.

Question 2.
Study the given news clippings from NCERT Textbook Page 63 and answer the question that follows:

Can you identify the pressure groups functioning in the news clippings given here? What demand are they making?

Answer

Answer:
Yes, I can identify the pressure groups functioning in the above news clippings. These are- AITUC, NGOs, CII, Delhi’s traders and the association of journalists. AITUC are demanding pro-American tilt in foreign policy. The Association of journalists are protesting against assault on a photographer; the NGOs are drawing attention towards sub-standard medical treatment for the victims of Bhopal gas tragedy; CII opines that only SEZs can bring growth in employment opportunities; Delhi’s traders’ associations demand for timely refund of VAT dues.

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Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers

Water Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Water Resources Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Water Resources

Choose the correct option:

Water Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The major source of fresh water in India is
(a) rainfall
(b) ground water
(c) atmospheric water
(d) ocean water

Answer

Answer: (b) ground water

Water Resources MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
Rooftop rainwater harvesting is a technique to recharge
(a) ground water
(b) river water
(c) lake water
(d) sea water

Answer

Answer: (a) ground water

MCQ On Water Resources Class 10 Icse Question 3.
Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is located in
(a) Odisha
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Class 10 Water Resources MCQ Question 4.
The Narmada Bachao Andolan is associated with
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(b) Tehri Dam
(c) Hirakud Dam
(d) Gandhi Sagar Dam

Answer

Answer: (a) Sardar Sarovar Dam

MCQ Of Water Resources Class 10 Question 5.
How much of earth’s surface is covered with water?
(a) One-fourth
(b) Half
(c) Three-fourth
(d) Two-third

Answer

Answer: (c) Three-fourth

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on the river named
(a) Ganga
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Narmada

Answer

Answer: (d) Narmada

Water Resources Class 10 Icse MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following social movements is/ are not a resistance to multi-purpose projects?
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(b) Tehri Dam Andolan
(c) Navdanya
(d) Chipko Movement

Answer

Answer: (c) Navdanya

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 8.
The remote village that has earned the rare distinction of being rich in rainwater?
(a) Gari
(b) Kaza
(c) Gendathur
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Gendathur

MCQ On Water Resources Class 10 Question 9.
Bamboo drip irrigation system is prevalent in:
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Meghalaya

Water Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 10.
Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:
(a) Tankas
(b) Khadin
(c) Ponds
(d) Kuls

Answer

Answer: (a) Tankas

Water Resources Class 10 MCQ Icse Question 11.
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?
(a) Clenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

Answer

Answer: (c) Krishna

Ch 3 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
On which of the following rivers is Koyena dam built?
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Ganga
(d) Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: (a) Krishna

MCQs Of Water Resources Class 10 Question 13.
What percentage of the total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans?
(a) 94.5%
(b) 95.5%
(c) 96.5%
(d) 97.5%

Answer

Answer: (c) 96.5%

Water Resources Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
In which of the following regions, people built ‘Guls’ and ‘Kuls’ for irrigation?
(a) Northern Plains
(b) Western Himalayas
(c) Coastal areas
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Western Himalayas

Water Resources Class 10 MCQs Question 15.
Hirakud dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahanadi

Question 16.
What is the contribution of hydroelectricity in the total generation of electricity?
(a) 52%
(b) 42%
(c) 32%
(d) 22%

Answer

Answer: (d) 22%

Question 17.
In which one of the following states was rooftop rainwater harvesting practised?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Question 18.
Which of the following rivers is not having any multipurpose river project?
(a) Satluj-Beas
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Narmada
(d) Yamuna

Answer

Answer: (d) Yamuna

Question 19.
On which one of the following rivers Mettur dam is constructed?
(a) River Kaveri
(b) River Krishna
(c) River Godavari
(d) River Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: (a) River Kaveri

Question 20.
Roof tap rainwater harvesting system in Rajasthan is known as:
(a) Guls
(b) Kuls
(c) Tankas
(d) Baobs

Answer

Answer: (c) Tankas

Question 21.
Which of the following structures are known as ‘tankas’?
(a) Underground tanks for storing rainwater harvested from roof tops for drinking purpose
(b) Tanks constructed on rooftops for storing rainwater
(c) Tanks constructed in agricultural fields to store rainwater
(d) Tanks constructed to store floodwater

Answer

Answer: (a) Underground tanks for storing rainwater harvested from roof tops for drinking purpose

Question 22.
Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams?
(a) Interstate water disputes
(b) Excessive sedimentation of Reservoir
(c) Displacement of population
(d) Flood control

Answer

Answer: (d) Flood control

Question 23.
In which of the following states is the bamboo-drip irrigation system prevalent?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Meghalaya

Answer

Answer: (d) Meghalaya

Question 24.
Due to which of the following reasons are rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practised, particularly in Rajasthan?
(a) To store water for irrigation
(b) To keep the house cool
(c) To store drinking water
(d) To clean the rooftops

Answer

Answer: (c) To store drinking water

Question 25.
In which of the following areas are ‘guls’ and ‘kuls’ used to channel water for agriculture?
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Deserts of Rajasthan
(c) Western Himalayas
(d) Ganga Plains

Answer

Answer: (c) Western Himalayas

Complete the following table:

Answer

Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers 2

Fill in the blanks:

1. Diversion channels are built in ………………. and ………………. regions of India.

Answer

Answer: hilly, mountainous

2. Drip irrigation system is a means of ………………. conservation.

Answer

Answer: water

3. Today dams are built for ………………. reasons.

Answer

Answer: multi-purpose

4. Different social groups do not have ………………. access to water.

Answer

Answer: equal

5. Multi-purpose projects were launched in India after ………………..

Answer

Answer: independence

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Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 6 The Three Orders with Answers

The Three Orders Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 6 The Three Orders with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Three Orders Class 11 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 History Chapter 6 The Three Orders MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 6 MCQs On The Three Orders

The Three Orders Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
Monks who moved from one place to another, preaching to the people and living on charity. These monks were known as ______
(a) Manor
(b) Friars
(c) Tithe
(d) Serfs

Answer

Answer: (b) Friars

Three Orders Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
We see the rise of absolute monarchy in Europe in the
(a) 15th & 16th centuries
(b) 13th & 14th centuries
(c) 12th & 13th centuries
(d) 16th & 17th centuries

Answer

Answer: (a) 15th & 16th centuries

Class 11 History Chapter 6 MCQ Question 3.
There was a growing uncertainty about the value and purpose of monasticism by the
(a) thirteenth century
(b) fourteenth century
(c) fifteenth century
(d) sixteenth-century

Answer

Answer: (b) fourteenth century

Class 11 History Ch 6 MCQ Question 4.
What were Cathedral towns?
(a) Towns developed around plains
(b) Towns developed around Churches
(c) Towns developed around industries
(d) Towns developed around Capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Towns developed around Churches

Ch 6 History Class 11 MCQ Question 5.
The land granted by the lord to the knights was called:
(a) Fief
(b) Feud
(c) Seigneur
(d) Manor

Answer

Answer: (a) Fief

Chapter 6 History Class 11 MCQ Question 6.
A guild was an association of
(a) monks
(b) farmers
(c) craft and industry
(d) lords

Answer

Answer: (c) craft and industry

The Three Orders MCQ Questions Question 7.
The king who was declared the Holy Roman Emperor was
(a) Charlemagne
(b) Louis I
(c) Louis II
(d) Louis III

Answer

Answer: (a) Charlemagne

MCQ Of Three Orders Class 11 Question 8.
The first king who was declared the ‘Holy Roman Emperor’ was
(a) Charlemagne
(b) Louis I
(c) Louis II
(d) Louis III

Answer

Answer: (a) Charlemagne

History Class 11 Chapter 6 MCQ Question 9.
One of the gradual changes that affected the social and economic ties between the lords and the vassals was
(a) agricultural technology
(b) environment
(c) land use
(d) new towns

Answer

Answer: (b) environment

Class 11 History The Three Orders MCQ Question 10.
Who was William I?
(a) Duke of Normandy
(b) Duke of Exeter
(c) Duke of Somerset
(d) Duke of Darlington

Answer

Answer: (a) Duke of Normandy

MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 6 Question 11.
According to French priests, the basis of classification among the three orders was
(a) education
(b) race
(c) wealth
(d) nature of work

Answer

Answer: (d) nature of work

Class 11 History Chapter 6 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 12.
Fertile land was known as _____
(a) Franks
(b) Gaul
(c) Manor
(d) Fief

Answer

Answer: (c) Manor

The Three Orders Class 11 MCQs Question 13.
The knight was given a piece of land by the lord. This piece of land was called _______
(a) Franks
(b) Toll
(c) Manor
(d) Fief

Answer

Answer: (d) Fief

Class 11 The Three Orders MCQ Question 14.
The Church was given the right to take one-tenth of the total produce of the peasant over the course of a year which was called a _____
(a) Taille
(b) Toll
(c) Tithe
(d) Franks

Answer

Answer: (c) Tithe

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Class 11 History with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 7 Changing Cultural Traditions with Answers

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 7 Changing Cultural Traditions with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Changing Cultural Traditions MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 7 MCQs On Changing Cultural Traditions

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
Ibn Rushd was an Arab philosopher of _____
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Spain

Answer

Answer: (d) Spain

Class 11 History Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
The painting ‘Mona Lisa’ was made by
(a) Leonardo da Vinci
(b) Michelangelo
(c) Raphael
(d) Donatello

Answer

Answer: (a) Leonardo da Vinci

MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 7 Question 3.
The author of the book ‘The Prince’ is
(a) Lorenzo Valla
(b) Gutenberg
(c) Machiavelli
(d) Alberti

Answer

Answer: (c) Machiavelli

Changing Cultural Traditions MCQ Question 4.
Ptolemy’s Almagest was work on ______
(a) Mathematics
(b) Astronomy
(c) Philosophy
(d) Sociology

Answer

Answer: (b) Astronomy

Class 11 History Ch 7 MCQ Question 5.
The earliest universities in the European continent were set up in the country of
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Italy
(d) England

Answer

Answer: (c) Italy

MCQ Of Changing Cultural Traditions Question 6.
The families that gave more importance to women during the 15th century were those of
(a) aristocrats
(b) artists
(c) merchants
(d) scholars

Answer

Answer: (c) merchants

Class 11 History Changing Cultural Traditions MCQ Question 7.
In Arabic, the person who was known as ‘Aflatun’ was
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) Dante
(d) Ceasar

Answer

Answer: (a) Plato

MCQ On Changing Cultural Traditions Question 8.
Renaissance is best known for its
(a) cultural developments
(b) social developments
(c) political developments
(d) economic developments

Answer

Answer: (a) cultural developments

Chapter 7 History Class 11 MCQ Question 9.
Andreas Vesalius was a professor of _____ at the University of Padua.
(a) Medicine
(b) Astronomy
(c) Philosophy
(d) Mathematics

Answer

Answer: (a) Medicine

Ch 7 History Class 11 MCQ Question 10.
The opening of trade between Europe and China started in the
(a) 9th century
(b) 10th century
(c) 11th century
(d) 12th century

Answer

Answer: (d) 12th century

MCQ Changing Cultural Traditions Question 11.
By the early fifteenth century, ______ was used for those masters who taught grammar, poetry, rhetoric, history, and moral philosophy.
(a) literates
(b) humanists
(c) authors
(d) writers

Answer

Answer: (b) humanists

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
When Renaissance occurred in Europe?
(a) 11th century
(b) 13th century
(c) 15th century
(d) 16th century

Answer

Answer: (c) 15th century

Changing Culture And Tradition Class 11 MCQ Question 13.
Petrarch was given the title of Poet Laureate in Rome in
(a) 1341
(b) 1342
(c) 1343
(d) 1344

Answer

Answer: (a) 1341

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Class 11 History with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of the National Economy with Answers

Lifelines of the National Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Lifelines of the National Economy

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following two stations did the first train of India steam off to and when?
(a) Kolkata to Raniganj, 1874
(b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853
(c) Mumbai to Ahmedabad, 1854
(d) Chennai to Arkonam, 1856
Answer:
(b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following modes of transport would one be able to find on the higher dissected terrain of mountainous regions like the Himalayas?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Inland waterways
(d) Airways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
………………… is the oldest artificial port and the second most important port of the country.
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Kandla port
(c) Chennai port
(d) Ennore port
Answer:

Life Lines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following networks of pipelines bring mineral oil to the refinery of Barauni and the petrochemical complex of Haldia?
(a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
(b) Pipeline from Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar
(c) Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur Pipeline
(d) Pipeline from Mumbai High to Goa and then to Trombay
Answer:
(a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question 5.
Which one of the following groups of cities is connected by the National Highway No. 1?
(a) Delhi – Amritsar
(b) Delhi – Kolkata
(c) Delhi – Mumbai
(d) Varanasi – Kanyakumari
Answer:
(a) Delhi – Amritsar

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which two extreme locations are connected by the North-South Corridor?
(a) Amritsar and Tuticorin
(b) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Srinagar and Tuticorin
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

Explanation: The North South Corridor is the one of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways that connects the mega cities of India.

MCQ Of Lifelines Of National Economy Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an advantage of pipeline transportation?
(a) Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and gas from fields to refineries.
(b) Solids can be transported in slurry form through pipelines.
(c) Pipelines rule out trans-shipment losses or delays.
(d) Pipeline requires a lot of capital and extra maintenance.
Answer:
(d) Pipeline requires a lot of capital and extra maintenance.

Explanation: Pipelines do not need any extra maintenance. Its initial cost of laying is high.

MCQ On Lifelines Of National Economy Question 8.
……………… is considered as the First Class Mail by the Indian postal network.
(a) Cards and envelopes
(b) Registered periodicals
(c) Magazines and New Books
(d) Registered newspapers packets
Answer:
(a) Cards and envelopes

Class 10 Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 9.
National Highways are constructed and maintained by
(a) NHAI
(b) CPWD
(c) SPWD
(d) BRO
Answer:
(b) CPWD

Explanation: National Highways link extreme parts of the country. These are the primary road systems.

Ncert Class 10 Social Science Objective Questions Question 10.
Which one of the following is the oldest port of the eastern coast of India?
(a) Kolkata (Haldia)
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Chennai (Madras)
Answer:

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 One Mark Questions Pdf Question 11.
Pawanhans Helicopters Ltd. Provides helicopter services to which of the following in its off-shore operations?
(a) Oil India Ltd.
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(c) NTPC
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission

Class 10 Social Science MCQ Question 12.
Air travel is not within the reach of the common people. It is only in which part of the country that special provisions are made to extend the services to the common people?
(a) Northern states .
(b) North-eastern states
(c) North-western states
(d) Coastal states
Answer:

Social Science MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following is an example of an inland riverine port in India?
(a) Chennai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Tuticorin
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Kolkata

Explanation: Kolkata port serves a very Large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science With Answers Question 14.
Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?
(a) Mumbai and Nagpur
(b) Silchar and Porbandar
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata
(d) Nagpur and Siliguri [Diksha]
Answer:

Social MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
Which of the following is the longest National Waterway of India?
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia
(b) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
(c) The West-Coast Canal in Kerala
(d) None of these
Answer:

Question 16.
Which of the following ports was planned with a view to decongesting the Mumbai port?
(a) Kandla port
(b) Paradip port
(c) Tuticorin port
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru port
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru port

Question 17.
Which one of the following is the longest National Highway?
(a) NH-7
(b) NH-8
(c) NH-1
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) NH-7

Explanation: National Highway-7 is the longest and traverses 2369 km between Varanasi and Kanyakumari via Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Madurai while Delhi and Mumbai are connected by National Highway-8. The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No.l connects Delhi and Amritsar.

Question 18.
Which one of the following places is NOT associated with oil refineries?
(a) Mathura
(b) Barauni
(c) Panipat
(d) Surat
Answer:
(d) Surat

Question 19.
Which of the following mode of transport is fuel-efficient and environment-friendly?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(d) Waterways

Explanation: It’s the cheapest and most fuel-efficient type of transport as the friction of water is far less than that of land nor do they require road construction. Through waterways, heavy and bulky goods can be transported to distant lands.

Question 20.
Which of the following port is located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Kochi
(c) Marmagao
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Kochi

Related Theory
Kochi is the extreme south-western port of India.

Question 21.
Which of the following organisations is responsible for construction and maintenance of the strategic roads in India?
(a) CPWD
(b) SPWD
(c) NHAI
(d) BRO
Answer:
(d) BRO

Explanation: Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in 1960.

Question 22.
Which one of the following states is NOT connected with the HVJ pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 23.
Which one of the following major ports has been developed to decongest Kolkata port?
(a) Kandla
(b) Haldia
(c) Paradwip
(d) Marmagao
Answer:
(b) Haldia

Explanation: Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port

Question 24.
Arrange the following options in the correct sequence:
(i) Science and technology helped improve transport.
(ii) Rapid moving and effiicient transport brought a change.
(iii) Transport and trade were restricted to a limited area.
(iv) Improved communication played a major role in this change.
Options:
(a) (i)—(ii)—(iii)—(iv)
(b) (i)—(iii)—(ii)—(iv)
(C) (iii)—(i)—(i0—(iv)
(d) (iv)—(iii)—(ii)—(i)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 25.
identify the type of transport:
(1) Fastest mode of transport
(2) Can cover all dissected and undulating terrains
(3) Especially famous in the North Easterm states
Answer:
Airways

Question 26.
Identify the industry:
(1) Industry in India has grown substantially over the last three decades.
(2) 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
(3) The industry promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
Answer:
Tourism

Question 27.
Identify the port:
(1) It is located on the Western Coast.
(2) It is the premier iron ore exporting sea port of the country.
Answer:
Marmagao Port

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
Roadways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
Answer:
False

Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

Question 29.
India’s first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853 covering a distance of 34 km.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Akashwani, the national television channel of India is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.
Answer:
False

Doordarshan.the national television channel of India is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 31.
Television is a means of …………………..
Answer:
mass communication

Question 32.
…………….. is the extreme south-western port located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
Answer:
Kochi

Question 33.
…………… a Government of India undertaking constructs and maintains roads in the bordering areas of the country.
Answer:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with appropriate terms in place of (a) and (b).

Answer:
(a) Pipelines
(b) Overseas Waterways

Question 35.
The is the largest public sector undertaking in India.
Answer:
Indian Railways government and hence it is a public sector enterprise. Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industries and agriculture.

Question 36.
…………. is the deepest, land-locked and well-protected port of India.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam

Related Theory:
Railways employ a very large number of people in the country. It is monitored and run by the

Question 37.
Fill the blanks in the table with required information:

Answer:

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 38.
Match the following roads from column A with the organisations responsible for their construction and maintenance from column B:

Column A (Types of Road)	Column B (Organisation)
(a) Super Highways	(i) Zila Parishad
(b) National Highways	(ii) State Public Works Department
(c) State Highways	(iii) Central Public Works Department
(d) District Roads	(iv) National Highway Authority of India

Answer:

Column A (Types of Road)	Column B (Organisation)
(a) Super Highways	(iv) National Highway Authority of India
(b) National Highways	(iii) Central Public Works Department
(c) State Highways	(ii) State Public Works Department
(d) District Roads	(i) Zila Parishad

Question 39.
Match the following national highways from column A with the places/cities connected by them from column B:

Column A (National Highways)	Column B (Places/Cities Connected)
(a) NH-1	(i) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
(b) NH-8	(ii) Most parts of Rajasthan
(c) NH-7	(iii) Delhi and Mumbai
(d) NH-15	(iv) Delhi and Amritsar

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 7

In each of following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country.
Reason (R): There is a lot of scope in various fields of tourism.
Answer:

Question 41.
Assertion (A): No country can survive without international trade.
Reason (R): Resources are not space bound.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Resources are space bound and thus a country has to import and export resources to be able to fulfill their needs.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Air travel has made access easier.
Reason (R): No other mode of transport could travel across regions in the presence of big rivers, dissected relief, dense forests and frequent floods and international frontiers, etc. in the absence of air transport.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): 60 per cent of the country’s trade volume (68 per cent in terms of value) is moved by sea.
Reason (R): Seaways carry heavy loads to farther distances at very affordable rates.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The railways have become more important in our national economy than all other means of transport put together.
Reason (R): It carries the most loads and maximum number of people across the country.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Goods and services do not move from supply locales to demand locales on their own. The movement of these goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport. Some people are engaged in facilitating these movements. These are known to be traders who make the products come to the consumers by transportation. Thus, the pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development.

Movement of these goods and services can be over three important domains of our earth i.e. land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication systems. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following groups are involved in transport of goods and services from one nation to another?
(a) Entrepreneurs
(b) Labourers
(c) Traders
(d) Farmers
Answer:
(c) Traders
Explanation: Traders contribute to movement and transfer of goods from one place to another.

(B) Which of the following does not decide the pace of development of the country?
(a) Production of goods
(b) Production of Services
(c) Economy of the country
(d) Number of castes in a country
Answer:
(d) Number of castes in a country

(C) Which of the following supports the statement, “transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other”?
(a) World has been converted into a large village.
(b) There is fast moving transport.
(c) Transport and communication together help the trade to flourish.
(d) Transport cannot exist without trade.
Answer:
(c) Transport and communication together help the trade to flourish.

(D) Which of the following necessitates the need of transport?
(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Education
(d) Lifestyle
Answer:

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In India, roadways have preceded railways. They still have an edge over railways in view of the ease with which they can be built and maintained. The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail transport is rooted in the following reasons; construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines, roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography, roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas, Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances, it also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower, road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a Link between railway stations, air and sea ports.
In India, roads are classified in the following six classes according to their capacity.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of roads received special impetus under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen SadakYojana?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) Rural Roads
(d) District Roads
Answer:
(c) Rural Roads

(B) Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as:
(a) National highways
(b) District roads
(c) State highways
(d) Other roads
Answer:
(b) District roads

(C) Which of the following features about Roadways makes it most popular?
(I) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
(II) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes.
(III) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons.
(IV) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) In India, has preceded over railways.
(a) Waterways
(b) Airways
(c) Roadways
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Roadways

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Since the ancient period, India was one of the seafaring countries. Its seamen sailed far and near, thus, carrying and spreading Indian commerce and culture. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods. It is a fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode of transport. India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length. Out of these only 5685 km are navigable by mechanised vessels.

The following waterways have been declared as the National Waterways by the Government The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1

The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2
The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals-205 km) – N.W. No.3
Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No.4

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
(a) Between Sadiya and Dhubri
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia
(c) Between Kottapuram and Komman
(d) Between Udyogamandal and Champakkara
Answer:
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia

(B) Which of the following is the cheapest mode of transportation?
(a) Airways
(b) Waterways
(c) Roadways
(d) Railways
Answer:
(c) Waterways

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
………………….. channel covers Kerala.
(a) West Coast Canal
(b) East Coast Canal
(c) North Coast Canal
(d) South Coast Canal
Answer:
(a) West Coast Canal

(D) Which of the following National Waterways is the longest waterway?
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia
(b) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
(c) The West-Coast Canal
(d) Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals.
Answer:
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia

Explanation: The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1

Related Theory

The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2
The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals-205 km) – N.W. No.3
Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No.4

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
With a long coastline of 7,516.6 km, India is dotted with 12 major and 200 notified non¬majors (minor/intermediate) ports. These major ports handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The New Mangalore port caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from:
(a) Chhota Nagpur Plateau Iron Ore Mines
(b) Kudremukh Iron Ore Mines
(c) Amarkantak Iron Ore Mines
(d) Jhalaabai Mines
Answer:
(b) Kudremukh Mines
Explanation: New Mangalore port. Located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines.

(B) Which of the following ports did India lose to Pakistan after partition?
(a) Kandla
(b) Karachi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Haldia
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements defines a tidal port?
(a) Tidal ports are the ports in which the water level within the port is subject to change with the ocean tides.
(b) Tidal ports are the ports in which the water level within the port is subject to change with floods.
(c) Tidal ports are the ports in which ocean water changes with sea breeze and land breeze.
(d) Tidal ports are the ports where ravines are formed on the beach.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following ports specialises in the Iron Ore exports?
(a) Tuticorin Port
(b) Chennai Port
(c) Paradip Port
(d) Kandla Port
Answer:
(c) Paradip Port

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which authority maintains and lays National Highways?
Answer:
The Central Public Works Department (CPWD) maintains and Lays National Highways.

Question 2.
What is the new arrival on the transportation map of India?
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the major objective to develop superhighways?
Answer:
One major objective of developing superhighways is to connect the megacities of India with each other.

Question 4.
Why was Jawaharlal Nehru port developed?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru port was developed to decongest the Mumbai Port.

Question 5.
Why was the Haldia port set up?
Answer:
Haldia port was established to help decongest the Kolkata Seaport.

Question 6.
Suggest any one way to improve the postal system in India?
Answer:
A robust feedback system can be put in place to ensure a better customer satisfaction.

Question 7.
Name the oldest artificial sea port of India.
Answer:

Question 8.
Name the organisation which undertakes construction and maintenance of border roads.
Answer:
‘Border Roads Organisation (BRO)’ undertakes construction and maintenance of ‘border roads’.

Related Theory
Border roads are the roads constructed along the northern and north-eastern borders of our country. Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was set up in 1960 by the government of India. BRO is regarded as a symbol of nation building, national integration and an inseparable component in maintaining the security of the country.

Question 9.
Name the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam is the deepest, landlocked and well protected port of India.

Related Theory
Vishakhapatnam port was originally conceived as an outlet for iron are exports.

Question 10.
Name the state related to National Waterways No. 3.
Answer:
Kerala is the state related to NationaL Waterways No. 3.

Related Theory
Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods. It is a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly mode of transport. India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to improve pilgrimage tourism through Indian Railways.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name the river which is related to National Waterway No. 1.
Answer:
The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km) is related to National Waterways No. 1.

Question 13.
Name the new port that was developed to relieve the growing pressure on the Mumbai port.
Answer:
Kandla Seaport was developed to relieve growing pressure on the Mumbai port.

Question 14.
Name the largest public sector undertaking in India.
Answer:
The Indian Railways

Question 15.
Name the sea port that was developed to relive the growing pressure on the Kolkata port.
Answer:
Haldia Seaport was developed to relive the growing pressure on the KoLkata port.

Question 16.
Name any two terminal cities connected with National Highway No.7.
Answer:

Question 17.
Name one inland riverine port.
Answer:
Kolkata Port is an inland riverine port.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Agriculture

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Muskmelon grows in ………
(a) Rabi season
(b) Kharif season
(c) Zaid season
(d) They are grown in both Zaid and Rabi seasons.
Answer:
(c) Zaid season

Explanation: Muskmelon is grown in the Zaid Season. Zaid season comes between Kharif and Rabi season.

Agriculture MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
Which of the following pulses do not help in restoring soil fertility?
(a) Moong
(b) Gram
(c) Peas
(d) Arhar
Answer:
(d) Arhar

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. All leguminous crops or pulses except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.

Class 10 Agriculture MCQ Question 3.
Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:
(a) Himalayas
(b) Aravalli Hills
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Baba Budan Hill
Answer:

MCQ Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 4.
What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 21%
(b) 12%
(c) 2%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 12%

MCQ On Agriculture Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi Seasons.
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities
(c) They are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(d) Pulses are leguminous crops.
Answer:
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
If rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, in which state is it a subsistence crop?
(a) Odisha
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Odisha

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ Question 7.
From which of the following countries was the Arabica variety of coffee initially brought to India?
(a) Yemen
(b) Nepal
(c) Britain
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Yemen

MCQ Agriculture Class 10 Question 8.
Which of the following is an equatorial crop but is also grown as a subtropical and tropical crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Wheat
(c) Rubber
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(c) Rubber

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 9.
The state of is a major producer of Jute.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(d) West Bengal

Ch 4 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Ragi has high nutritional value and is rich in
(a) Iron, calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphate
(d) Vitamin C
Answer:

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 11.
Why is there enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct option:
(a) Landholding size is very small.
(b) High density of population.
(c) Small scale farmers do not have the technology to have a lot of produce.
(d) Farmers of less land holdings are not able to afford the right techniques of farming.
Answer:

MCQs On Agriculture Class 10 Question 12.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Intensive Subsistence Farming- Labour intensive and Machine based; Primitive Farming-
(a) Machine based
(b) Traditional methods based
(c) Labour intensive
(d) Modern
Answer:
(b) Traditional methods based

MCQs Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 13.
Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets?
(a) Maize and Wheat
(b) Sesamum and Groundnut
(c) Urad and Arhar
(d) Bajra and Ragi
Answer:
(d) Bajra and Ragi

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 14.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Fruits)	Column B (Significant Areas of Growth)
(A) Guava	(I) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Orange	(II) Kerala
(C) Apple	(III) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Banana	(IV) Maharashtra (Nagpur)

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A) -(I), (B) – (III), (C) -(II), (D) -(I)

Class 10 Geo Ch 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which type of farming has the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides?
(a) Primitive subsistence
(b) Plantation farming
(c) Small Farming or Zero Based Farming
(d) Commercial Farming
Answer:
(d) Commercial Farming

Agriculture Class 10 MCQs Question 16.
Read the table and fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:

(a) (A) More than 500 cm, (B) Below 20 degrees
(b) (A) More than 100 cm, (B) Above 40 degrees
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees
(d) (A) less than 100 cm, (B) Above 20 degrees
Answer:
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees Explanation: Rubber requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and a temperature above 25°C.

Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.

Question 17.
Which of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Gram

Explanation: Rice, millets and cotton are kharif crops grown with the onset of monsoon in parts of the country and harvested in September- October.

Related Theory
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard while in between the rabi and the kharif season, a short season is known as the Zaid season. Crops grown in this short season are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

Question 18.
Which of the following is an age-old economic activity in our country?
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b)Agriculture

Explanation: India is an agriculturally important country. Two-third of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.

Question 19.
Which of the following price is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Minimum Subsidised Prices
(b) Maximum Support Prices
(c) Minimum Support Prices
(d) Maximum Subsidised Prices
Answer:
(c) Minimum Support Prices

Question 20.
Given below are some geographical conditions required for the growth of tea crops in India except one. Find it out:
(a) Tea is a labour intensive industry
(b) It requires warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year
(c) It grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.
Answer:
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.

Explanation: Tea is plantation agriculture and was introduced by the British in India.

Related Theory
India is the leading producer as well as exporter of tea in the world. Major tea-producing states are Assam, I/Vest Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 21.
Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses
(b) Jowar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum
Answer:
(a) Pulses

Explanation: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.

Related Theory
Pulses are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet. Major pulses grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas, and gram.

Question 22.
The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Brazil
(d) Mexico
Answer:

Question 23.
Barley, peas, gram, wheat, and mustard are grown in which cropping season?
(a) Kharif season
(b) Rabi season
(c) Zaid season
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Rabi season

Question 24.
Being leguminous crops, pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air except:
(a) Urad
(b) Arhar
(c) Moong
(d) Masur
Answer:
(b) Arhar

Explanation: Arhar is also known as tur.

Question 25.
Which of the following right leads to the division of land among upcoming generations in India?
(a) The right to property
(b) The right of inheritance
(c) The right of successor
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) The right of inheritance

Question 26.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Sugar
(ii) Transport
(iii) Grocery Item
(iv) Sugarcane
Options:
(a) (i)—(iv)—(iii)—(ii)
(b) (iii)—(iv)—(i)—(iO
(c) (iv)—(i)—(ii)—(iii)
(d) (iii)—(iv)—00—0)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 27.
Identify the following product:
(1) The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.
(2) Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills
(3) Today it is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Coffee

Question 28.
Identify the following crop:
(1) It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C.
(2) It is an important industrial raw material.
(3) It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka dnd Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya.
Answer:

Correct & Re-write / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 29.
The Arabica variety initially brought from Saudi Arabia is produced in the country.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.

Question 30.
Cotton requires high temperature, 220 frost- free days and heavy rainfall for its growth.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
Cotton requires high temperature, 210 frost- free days and light rainfall for its growth.

Question 31.
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered land-holding size economical.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered Land-holding size uneconomical

Question 32.
Rice a rabi crop, is grown with the withdrawal of monsoon in different parts of India.
Answer:

Question 33.
Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
India is the third-largest producer of Rice after China and Pakistan.
Answer:
False

India is the second-largest producer of Rice after China.

Related Theory
Rice is a kharif crop that requires high temperature, (above 25 degrees C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. It grows in plains of North and North-eastern India.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 35.
Complete the following table with correct information for A and B:

Answer:
(A) 75-100 cms
(B) 21°C to 27°C

Explanation: Sugarcane grows well in a hot and humid climate with temperature of about 21-27°C.

Brazil is the largest producer of Sugarcane in the world.

Question 36.
………….. is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family.
Answer:
Primitive Subsistence Farming

Explanation: Primitive subsistence farming is known as Jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam. Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland. Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Related Theory
The slash and bum agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam.

Question 37.
India is the …………. producer of sugarcane in the world.
Answer:

Question 38.
Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rice:

Answer:
(A) Kharif Cropping Season
(B) 16°C – 27°C.

Match the Columns

Question 39.
Match the following crops from column A with the states these are grown in from column B:

Column A (Crops)	Column B (States)
(a) Tea	(i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Wheat	(ii) Karnataka
(c) Coffee	(iii) Punjab
(d) Sugarcane	(iv) Assam

Answer:

Column A (Crops)	Column B (States)
(a) Tea	(iv) Assam
(b) Wheat	(iii) Punjab
(c) Coffee	(ii) Karnataka
(d) Sugarcane	(i) Uttar Pradesh

Question 40.
Match the following terms from column A with their meanings from column B:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture	(i) Grown with the onset of monsoon
(b) Sericulture	(ii) Grown in winter season
(c) Robi Crops	(iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(d) Kharif Crops	(iv) Production of silk

Answer:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture	(iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(b) Sericulture	(iv) Production of silk
(c) Robi Crops	(ii) Grown in winter season
(d) Kharif Crops	(i) Grown with the onset of monsoon

Question 41.
Match the following crops given in Column A with the states they are found in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cotton	(i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jute	(ii) Maharashtra
(c) Wheat	(iii) Rajasthan
(d) Bajra	(iv) West Bengal

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price.
Reason (R): The public sector contributes to economic development.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The government announces the minimum support price and remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to avoid the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen. It buys crops from farmers at a fairer price to boost their living.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads.
Reason (R): Though the GDP growth rate is increasing over the years, it is not generating sufficient employment opportunities in the country
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Indian agriculture is growing but there is a deceleration in this sector. Employment opportunities are not increasing.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Stagnation in agriculture will not lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.
Reason (R): All three economic sectors are dependent on each other.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Stagnation in agriculture will lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The Government of India made concerted efforts to modernize agriculture.
Reason (R): Indian farmers are facing stagnation in production due to inferior technology.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 46.
Assertion (A): Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to an increase in the cost of correct explanation of (A). production.
Reason (R): Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Under globalization, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to new challenges.
Reason (R): Indian products could not compete with International products due to inferior quality and expensive prices.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Bloodless Revolution.
Reason (R): Due to this revolution, drastic land reforms occurred where lands were donated to the poor landless farmers without any violence.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
In 2016 India was the second Largest producer of groundnut in the world after china. Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the country.
The second largest producer of groundnut in India is
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer:
Rajasthan

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing foodgrains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is about 833 million (2011) which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person.
Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is a high value crop?
(a) Apple
(b) Banana
(c) Jatropha
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a major problem of Indian agriculture?
(a) Indian agriculture employs most people in India.
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.
(c) Indian agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.
(d) Indian agriculture produces rice, pulses, wheat and sugarcane.
Answer:
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.

(C) How will diversification of Indian cropping pattern help?
(I) It will save the environment.
(II) It will attract investment from people.
(III) It will increase incomes.
(IV) It will replenish fertility of soil.
(V) It will supply nitrogen to the soil.
(a) (I) & (III)
(b) (IV) & (V)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Explanation: Diversification might or might not help with the soil’s fertility.

(D) Which of the following led to reduction of size of holdings?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to inheritance
(c) Right to produce
(d) Right to play
Answer:
(b) Right to inheritance
Explanation: Under right to inheritance, the farm gets divided among the next generation in even parts.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth century when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported to different countries of the world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow these crops. Till today it is one of the important items of export from India. During the British period cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries. Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished due to the availability of good quality cotton from India.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Where was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer:
(c) Bihar
Explanation: Champaran Movement was held in 1917 in Bihar.

(B) Which of the following is true about Globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is a relatively new phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation has helped change the face of Indian agriculture.
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.
(d) Indian resources attracted British merchants for the barter system.
Answer:
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The Manchester cotton industry received their raw materials from
(a) Indonesia
(b) Switzerland
(c) India
(d) France
Answer:
(c) India

(D) Why was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Peasants were being forced to plant saffron.
(b) Farmers of that region were forced to grow indigo on their Land. They could not grow food crops for their sustenance.
(c) Farmers were forced to grow jute.
(d) Farmers were forced to grow apples.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal, coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of farming can the plantation type of agriculture be classified into?
(a) Primitive Agriculture
(b) Intensive Agriculture
(c) Commercial Agriculture
(d) Slash and Burn Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Commercial Agriculture

(B) Which of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Silk
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Coffee
(d) Banana
Answer:
(a) Silk

Explanation: Silk is not planted but reared from silkworms. This practice is called Sericulture.

(C) Which of the following statements supports the assertion, “The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry”?
(a) It uses transportation facilities.
(b) Plantations cover large tracts of land.
(c) A single crop is grown on a large area.
(d) All the production is for the market.
Answer:
(d) All the production is for the market.
Explanation: All the production is for sale and not for consumption. This shows that plantation has an interface of an industry and agriculture together.

(D) Where of the following states is coffee grown the most?
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Goa
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(d) Karnataka

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production. It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas which hardly needs irrigation. Major Jowar producing States are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. Major Bajra producing States are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana. Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Major ragi producing states are: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of crops does bajra beLong to?
(a) Fibre Crop
(b) Horticulture Crops
(c) Non food Crops
(d) Food Crops
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is the rain-fed crops?
(a) Wheat
(b) Ragi
(c) Jowar
(d) Cotton
Answer:

(D) Which of the following soils supports the crop of bajra?
(a) Red Soil
(b) Alluvial Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Yellow Soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Types Of Farming
This type of farming is still practiced in few pockets of India. It is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.

Source B: Commercial Farming In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Source C: Cropping Pattern In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there Is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’are watermelon and muskmelon. Source A: Types of Farming
(A) Identify the tyoe of Farming through its description in the source.
Source B: Commercial Farming
Answer:
This type of farming is Primitive Subsistence Farming. This type of farming is only used for consumption and subsistence purposes.

(B) What do you mean by Plantation Crops? Source C: Cropping Pattern
Answer:
A plantation crop is a crop which is cultivated on large scale farms called plantations for export purposes. Plantation farming is a kind of commercial farming and is mainly done for trade. Coffee is a plantation crop.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which crop is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India?
Answer:
Sesamum

Question 2.
By which name is the specialized cultivation of fruits and vegetables known?
Answer:
Horticulture Crops

Question 3.
Describe “Jhumming Cultivation” in one sentence.
Answer:
In Jhumming cultivation, agriculture is practiced on a big chunk of land which is then left alone after it loses its fertility. This replenishes its fertility on its own.

Question 4.
India is the largest producer as well as consumer of which agricultural product in the world? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Pulses

Question 5.
What soil is perfect for the growth r c cashew nuts?
Answer:
Laterite Soil

Question 6.
Which crop is the major crop of Rabi?
Answer:

Question 7.
Which factors have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more and more rice?
Answer:
Development of Dense Canal Network and use of new fertilisers have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more rice.

Question 8.
Wheat is grown in which crop season?
Answer:
Rabi Season

Question 9.
Name any one kharif crop.
Answer:
Paddy

Question 10.
Define the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The Green Revolution is referred to as the process of increasing agricultural production by incorporating modern tools and techniques.

Question 11.
Define the White Revolution.
Answer:
The White Revolution is the movement which led to dairy development movement by the Government of India.

Question 12.
Name any two schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Answer:
Kissan Credit Card Scheme, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

Question 13.
Write the temperature requirement of the maize crop.
Answer:

Question 14.
Which crop is known as ‘golden fibre’?
Answer:
Jute

Question 15.
Write the amount of annual rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
50-75 cm of rainfall is the amount of rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.

Related Theory:
Wheat is a rabi crop that requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50-75 cm of annual rainfall evenly- distributed evenly over the growing season.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 9 The Industrial Revolution with Answers

The Industrial Revolution Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 9 The Industrial Revolution with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Industrial Revolution Class 11 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 History Chapter 9 The Industrial Revolution MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 9 MCQs On The Industrial Revolution

The Industrial Revolution Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
_____ were those laws which prevented the import of cheaper food until prices in Britain had risen to a certain level.
(a) Wheat Laws
(b) Rice Laws
(c) Corn Laws
(d) Lentil Laws

Answer

Answer: (c) Corn Laws

Industrial Revolution Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is a machine that greatly contributed to the revolution in the textile industry?
(a) Flying shuttle
(b) Watt steam
(c) The typewriter
(d) The locomotive

Answer

Answer: (a) Flying shuttle

Industrial Revolution Is MCQ Question 3.
To drain mines, the Miner’s Friend was invented, in 1698, by
(a) James Watt
(b) Thomas Savery
(c) Thomas Newcomen
(d) Matthew Boulton

Answer

Answer: (b) Thomas Savery

Industrial Revolution MCQ Question 4.
In 1814, the railway engineer George Stephenson constructed a locomotive called
(a) The Butcher
(b) The Puffing Devil
(c) The Pumping Ghost
(d) The Mighty Force

Answer

Answer: (a) The Butcher

Class 11 History Chapter 9 MCQ Question 5.
The first Derby invented a _____ in 1709 C.E.
(a) Flying shuttle
(b) Blast Furnace
(c) The typewriter
(d) The locomotive

Answer

Answer: (b) Blast Furnace

MCQ Of Industrial Revolution Class 11 Question 6.
Initially, canals were built in England to
(a) transport coal to cities
(b) transport food grains
(c) transport people
(d) transport raw cotton

Answer

Answer: (a) transport coal to cities

MCQ On Industrial Revolution Question 7.
Among the several factors which made Britain the first industrialized country, the one described as a major economic change, in the 18th century, was
(a) Common laws
(b) Single currency and market
(c) Use of money as a medium of exchange
(d) Agricultural Revolution

Answer

Answer: (d) Agricultural Revolution

Industrial Revolution MCQ With Answers Question 8.
The Miner’s Friend, a model steam engine, was built by
(a) Matthew Boulton
(b) James Watt
(c) Thomas Newcomen
(d) Thomas Savery

Answer

Answer: (d) Thomas Savery

Industrial Revolution MCQ Pdf Question 9.
By the 1850s, most of Britain was connected by
(a) rivers
(b) railways
(c) canals
(d) roads

Answer

Answer: (b) railways

MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 9 Question 10.
The first blast furnace was invented by
(a) Henry Cort
(b) Abraham Darby III
(c) Abraham Darby I
(d) Abraham Darby II

Answer

Answer: (c) Abraham Darby I

The Industrial Revolution Started In MCQ Question 11.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the demands of participants of Luddism?
(a) Fix working hours
(b) Control over women and child labour
(c) Employment for those who had lost their jobs due to coming of machinery
(d) Right to form trade unions to legally present their demands

Answer

Answer: (a) Fix working hours

MCQ On Industrial Revolution Class 11 Question 12.
During the little railway mania of 1833-37 in Britain, the total number of railway lines built was
(a) 1400 miles
(b) 1500 miles
(c) 1600 miles
(d) 1700 miles

Answer

Answer: (a) 1400 miles

Class 11 History Ch 9 MCQ Question 13.
The transformation of industry and the economy in Britain, between the 1780s and the 1850s, is called the
(a) first industrial revolution
(b) first agricultural revolution
(c) first technological revolution
(d) first communication revolution

Answer

Answer: (a) first industrial revolution

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