NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः

We have given detailed NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Ruchira Chapter 6 सदाचारः Questions and Answers come in handy for quickly completing your homework.

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Ruchira Chapter 6 सदाचारः

Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न: 1.
सर्वान् श्लोकान् सस्वरं गायत। (सभी श्लोकों को लय में गाइए। Recite all the Shlokas.)
उत्तराणि:
छात्र सुस्वर में सभी श्लोकों को गाएँ।

प्रश्न: 2.
उपयुक्तकथनानां समक्षम् ‘आम्’ अनुपयुक्तकथनानां समक्षं ‘न’ इति लिखत- (उचित कथनों के सामने ‘आम्’ और अनुचित कथनों के सामने ‘न’ लिखें- Write ‘आम्’ and ‘न’ in front of right/sentences and ‘न’ opposite the wrong ones.)

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः 1
उत्तराणि:
क) आम्
(ख) न
(ग) आम्
(घ) न
(ङ) आम्।

प्रश्न: 3.
एकपदेन उत्तरत- (एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए- Answer in one word.)

(क) कः न प्रतीक्षते?
उत्तराणि:
मृत्युः

(ख) सत्यता कदा व्यवहारे किं स्यात्?
उत्तराणि:
सर्वदा

(ग) किं ब्रूयात्?
उत्तराणि:
सत्यम्

(घ) केन सह कलहं कृत्वा नरः सुखी न भवेत् ?
उत्तराणि:
मित्रेण

(ङ) कः महरिपुः अस्माक शरीरे तिष्ठिति?
उत्तराणि:
आलस्यम्

प्रश्न: 4.
रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत- (रेखांकित शब्दों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए Frame questions based on underlined words.)

(क) मृत्युः न प्रतीक्षते।
उत्तराणि:
कः न प्रतीक्षते?

(ख) कलहं कृत्वा नरः दुःखी भवति।
उत्तराणि:
किम् कृत्वा नरः दुःखी भवति?

(ग) पितरं कर्मणा सेवेत।
उत्तराणि:
कम् कर्मणा सेवेत?

(घ) व्यवहारे मृदुता श्रेयसी।
उत्तराणि:
व्यवहारे का श्रेयसी?

(ङ) सर्वदा व्यवहारे ऋजुता विधेया।
उत्तराणि:
कदा व्यवहारे ऋजुता विधेया?

प्रश्नः 5.
प्रश्नमध्ये त्रीणि क्रियापदानि सन्ति। तानि प्रयुज्य सार्थक-वाक्यानि रचयत- (प्रश्न के बीच में तीन क्रियावाचक शब्द हैं। उनको जोड़कर अर्थपूर्ण वाक्य बनाइए- There are three verbs in the centre of the question. Frame meaningful sentences by joining them.)
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः 2

(क) ……………………….
(ख) ……………………….
(ग) ……………………….
(घ) ……………………….
(ङ) ……………………….
(च) ……………………….
(छ) ……………………….
(ज) ……………………….
उत्तराणि:
(क) सत्यं प्रियं च ब्रूयात्।
(ख) सत्यं अप्रियं च न ब्रूयात् ।
(ग) अनृतं प्रियं च न ब्रूयात्।
(घ) व्यवहारे कदाचन कौटिल्यं न स्यात् ।
(ङ) व्यवहारे सर्वदा औदार्यं स्यात् ।
(च) वाचा गुरुं सेवेत।
(छ) श्रेष्ठजनं कर्मणा सेवेत।
(ज) मनसा मातरं पितरं च सेवेत।

प्रश्न: 6.
मञ्जूषातः अव्ययपदानि चित्वा रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (मञ्जूषा से अव्यय शब्दों को चुनकर रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए- Fill in the blanks by choosing indeclinables from the box.)

तथा, न, कदाचन, सदा, च, अपि

(क) भक्तः…………….. ईश्वरं स्मरति।
उत्तराणि:
सदा

(ख) असत्यं …………….. वक्तव्यम्।
उत्तराणि:

(ग) प्रियं……………….. सत्यं वदेत् ।
उत्तराणि:
तथा

(घ) लता मेधा………………… विद्यालयं गच्छतः।
उत्तराणि:

(ङ) ………………… कुशली भवान् ?
उत्तराणि:
अपि

(च) महात्मागान्धी……………….. अहिंसां न अत्यजत्।
उत्तराणि:
कदाचन।

प्रश्न: 7.
चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषातः पदानि च प्रयुज्य वाक्यानि रचयत। (चित्र को देखकर और मञ्जूषा के शब्दों का प्रयोग कर वाक्य बनाइए। See the picture and make sentences with the help of words from the box.)

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः 3

मञ्जूषा
| लिखति, कक्षायाम्, श्यामपट्टे, लिखन्ति, सः, पुस्तिकायाम्, शिक्षकः, छात्राः, उत्तराणि, प्रश्नम्, ते।
1. ………………………….
2. ………………………….
3. ………………………….
4. ………………………….
5. ………………………….
उत्तराणि:
1. छात्राः कक्षायाम् संस्कृतं पठन्ति।
2. शिक्षक: श्यामपट्टे प्रश्नम् लिखति।
3. ते प्रत्येक प्रश्नम् ध्यानेन पठन्ति।
4. तदा ते उत्तराणि लिखन्ति।
5. एकः छात्रः अन्य-छात्रस्य पुस्तिकायां पश्यति।

Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 6 सदाचारः Additional Important Questions and Answers

(1) निम्नलिखित श्लोकं पठित्वा तदाधारितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत (निम्नलिखित श्लोक को पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए) –

आलस्यं हि मनुष्याणां शरीरस्थो महान् रिपुः।
नास्त्युद्यमसमो बन्धुः कृत्वा यं नावसीदति॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत- (एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)

1. किं महरिपुः अस्ति?
उत्तराणि:
आलस्यम्

2. आलस्यं कीदृशः महान् रिपुः अस्ति?
उत्तराणि:
शरीरस्थः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)

1. उद्यमसमः कः मनुष्याणां नास्ति?
उत्तराणि:
उद्यमसमः बन्धुः मनुष्याणां नास्ति।

2. कं कृत्वा मनुष्यः नावसीदति?
उत्तराणि:
उद्यम कृत्वा मनुष्यः नावसीदति।

III. निर्देशानुसारमेन उत्तरत (निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर दीजिए-)

1. ‘महान् रिपुः’ अनयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) महान्
(ख) रिपुः
(ग) महत्
(घ) रिपु
उत्तराणि:
महान्

2. ‘कृत्वा’ पदे कः प्रत्ययः अस्ति?
(क) त्वा
(ख) कतवा
(ग) क्त्वा
(घ) क्तवा
उत्तराणि:
क्त्वा

(2) पर्यायपदानि लिखत (पर्यायवाची पदों को लिखिए-)

पदानि – पर्यायाः
(i) शत्रुः – बन्धुः
(ii) मानवानाम् – अवसीदति
(iii) परिश्रम – रिपुः
(iv) मित्रम् – उद्यम
(v) दुःखीयति – मनुष्याणाम्
उत्तरम्-
(i) रिपुः
(ii) मनुष्याणाम्
(iii) उद्यम
(iv) बन्धुः
(v) अवसीदति

(3) ‘क’ पदस्य श्लोकांशं ‘ख’ पदस्य श्लोकांशैः सह योजयत (‘क’ पद श्लोकांश को ‘ख’ पद के श्लोकांशों के साथ जोड़िए-)

‘क’ – ‘ख’
(i) आलस्यं हि मनुष्याणाम् – समबन्धुः
(ii) नास्ति उद्यमसमः बन्धुः – मनुष्याणाम्
(iii) शरीरस्थः – कृत्वा यं नावसीदति
(iv) आलस्यं हि – नावसीदति
(v) कृत्वा यम् – महान् रिपुः
(vi) नास्ति उद्यम – शरीरस्थो महान् रिपुः
उत्तरम्-
(i) आलस्यं हि मनुष्याणाम् – शरीरस्थो महान् रिपुः
(ii) नास्ति उद्यमसमः बन्धुः – कृत्वा यं नावसीदति
(iii) शरीरस्थः – महान् रिपुः
(iv) आलस्यं हि – मनुष्याणाम्
(v) कृत्वा यम् – नावसीदति
(v) नास्ति उद्यम – समबन्धुः

(4) परस्परमेलनम् कुरुत- (परस्पर मेल कीजिए-Match the following.)

(क) (i) पर्यायाः

ब्रूयात् – निरन्तरम्
वाचा – व्यवहारः
अनृतम् – वदेत्
सततम् – वचनेन
आचारः – असत्यम्
उत्तराणि:
ब्रूयात् – वदेत्
वाचा – वचनेन
अनृतम् – असत्यम्
सततम् – निरन्तरम्
आचारः – व्यवहारः

(ii) विपर्यायाः

सर्वदा – मरणम्
प्रियम् – अनृतता
सत्यता – अप्रियम्
श्वः – कदाचन/कदापि
जीवनम् – ह्यः
उत्तराणि:
सर्वदा – कदाचन/कदापि
प्रियम् – अप्रियम्
सत्यता – अनृतता
श्वः – ह्यः
जीवनम् – मरणम्

(ख) श्लोकांशाः
(i) श्वः कार्यमद्य कुर्वीत – एषः धर्म सनातनः।
(ii) नहि प्रतीक्षते मृत्युः – न कदापि सुखी जनः।
(iii) प्रियं चानृतं ब्रूयात् – कृतमस्य न वा कृतम्।
(iv) मित्रेण कलहं कृत्वा – पूर्वाह्ने चापराह्निकम्।
उत्तराणि:
(i) श्वः कार्यमद्य कुर्वीत – पूर्वाह्ने चापराह्निकम्।
(ii) नहि प्रतीक्षते मृत्युः – कृतमस्य न वा कृतम्।
(iii) प्रियं चानृतं ब्रूयात् – एषः धर्मः सनातनः।
(iv) मित्रेण कलहं कृत्वा – न कदापि सुखी जनः।

(5) सत्यं ब्रूयात् प्रियं ब्रूयात् न ब्रूयात् सत्यमप्रियम्।
प्रियं च नानृतं ब्रूयात् एषः धर्मः सनातनः॥
सर्वदा व्यवहारे स्यात् औदार्यं सत्यता तथा।
ऋजुता मृदुता चापि कौटिल्यं न कदाचन॥
श्लोकान् पठत प्रश्नान् च उत्तरत- (श्लोकों को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- Read the shlokas and answer the questions.)

(क) एकपदेन उत्तरत –

(i) किं न ब्रूया?
(ii) व्यवहारे किं स्यात?
(iii) मृत्युः किं न करोति?
(iv) मित्रेण कलहं कृत्वा जनः कीदृशः भवति?
उत्तराणि:
(i) सत्यमप्रियम् (सत्यम् + अप्रियम्)
(ii) औदार्यम्
(ii) प्रतीक्षाम्
(iv) दु:खी

(ख) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-
(i) सनातनः धर्मः कः?
(ii) मनसा वाचा कर्मणा कं कं सेवेत?
(iii) व्यवहारे सदा किं स्यात् किं च न?
उत्तराणि:
उत्तरम्- (i) ‘प्रियं च नानृतं ब्रूयात् एषः धर्मः सनातनः।’
(ii) श्रेष्ठं जनं, गुरुं, मातरं पितरं च अपि मनसा वाचा कर्मणा सेवेत।
(iii) व्यवहारे सदा औदार्यं स्यात् तथा सत्यता, ऋजुता मृदुता चापि स्यात्; कौटिल्यं कदापि न स्यात्।

(6) मञ्जूषातः उचितम् अव्ययपदम् आदाय वाक्यपूर्तिं कुरुत- (मञ्जूषा से उचित पद लेकर वाक्यपूर्ति कीजिए- Pick out the appropriate indeclinable from the box and complete the sentences.)

सततम्, श्वः, सर्वदा, कदापि, एव

(i) अहं ………………… ग्रामं गमिष्यामि।
उत्तराणि:
श्वः

(ii) ‘सत्यम् ………………… जयते।’
उत्तराणि:
एव

(iii) योग्यः छात्रः शोभनान् अङ्कान् लब्धुम् ………………… परिश्रमं करोति।
उत्तराणि:
सततम्

(iv) सत्यवादी हरिशचन्द्रः…………………असत्यं न अवदत्।
उत्तराणि:
कदापि

(v) सः ………………… सत्यम् एव वदति स्म।
उत्तराणि:
सर्वदा।

(7) मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया श्लोकान्वयं पूरयत। (मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक का अन्वय पूरा कीजिए। Complete the prose order with help from the box.)

अपि, सत्यता, कदाचन, व्यवहारे

…………….. सर्वदा औदार्यं तथा ……………….. स्यात्; ऋजुता मृदुता च ……….. (स्यात्); कौटिल्यम् …………….. न (स्यात्)
उत्तराणि:
व्यवहारे, सत्यता, अपि, कदाचन

(1) उचित-विकल्पं चित्वा प्रश्ननिर्माणम् कुरुत- (उचित विकल्प चुनकर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए Pick out the correct option and make questions.)

(i) श्वः कार्यमद्य (कार्यम् + अद्य) कुर्वीत। (कुत्र, कदा, किम्)
उत्तराणि:
श्वः कार्यं कदा कुर्वीत?

(ii) व्यवहारे सर्वदा औदार्यं स्यात्। (के, कुत्र, कस्मिन्)
उत्तराणि:
कस्मिन् सर्वदा औदार्यं स्यात्?

(iii) व्यवहारे कौटिल्यं कदापि न स्यात्। (कः, का, किम्)
उत्तराणि:
व्यवहारे किम् कदापि न स्यात्?

(iv) मित्रेण कलहं न कुर्यात्। (कस्य, कः, केन)
उत्तराणि:
केन कलहं न कुर्यात्?

(v) मातरं पितरं च कर्मणा सेवेत। (कम्, किम्, कथम्)
उत्तराणि:
मातरं पितरं च कथम् सेवेत?

(2) (क) उचितेन विकल्पेन प्रत्येकं रिक्तस्थानं पूरयत- (उचित विकल्प द्वारा प्रत्येक रिक्त स्थान भरिए Fill in the blanks with correct option.)

(i) श्वः कार्यम् अद्य कुर्वीत …………….. चापराह्निकम्। (पूवाणे, मध्याह्ने, प्रातः)
उत्तराणि:
पूर्वाह्ने

(ii) प्रियं च नानृतम् ब्रूयात् एषः …………….. सनातनः (आचारः, धर्मः, देशः)
उत्तराणि:
धर्मः

(iii) नहि …………….. मृत्युः कृत्यस्य न वा कृतम्। (परिवर्जयेत्, सेवेत, प्रतीक्षते)
उत्तराणि:
प्रतीक्षते

(iv) मित्रेण …………….. कृत्वा न कदापि सुखी नरः। (कार्यम्, कौटिल्यम्, कलहम्)
उत्तराणि:
कलहम्

(v) सर्वदा …………….. स्यात् औदार्यं सत्यता तथा। ___ (देशे, व्यवहारे, मित्रे)
उत्तराणि:
व्यवहारे।

(ख) (i) मित्रेण कलहम् कृत्वा न…………….. सुखी जनः। (कदा, कदापि, सर्वदा)
उत्तराणि:
कदापि

(ii) नहि प्रतीक्षते मृत्युः कृतम् अस्य न …………….. कृतम्। (च, सततम्, वा)
उत्तराणि:
वा

(iii) ऋतुजा मृदुता चापि कौटिल्यं …………….. कदाचन। (च, वा, न)
उत्तराणि:

(iv) ……….. कार्यमद्य कुर्वीत। (ह्यः, अद्य, श्वः)
उत्तराणि:
श्वः

(v) मनसा वाचा कर्मणा सेवेत…………….. सदा। (तथा, चापि, सततम्)
उत्तराणि:
सततम्।

डिजीभारतम् Summary Notes Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3

By going through these CBSE Class 8 Sanskrit Notes Chapter 3 डिजीभारतम् Summary, Notes, word meanings, translation in Hindi, students can recall all the concepts quickly.

Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3 डिजीभारतम् Summary Notes

डिजीभारतम् Summary

इन्टरनेट के माध्यम से किसी भी विषय की जानकारी सरलता से प्राप्त की जा सकती है। केवल एक प्रयास के द्वारा ज्ञान के विभिन्न आयामों को स्पर्श किया जा सकता है। इन्टरनेट ज्ञान का वह सागर है, जिसमें सूक्ष्मातिसूक्ष्म जीवों से लेकर मानव जैसे अतिविकसित प्राणियों तक का ज्ञान सहज प्राप्त किया जा सकता है। इसके अतिरिक्त राजनीति, व्यापार, चिकित्साशास्त्र, रसायनशास्त्र, लोक व लोकेतर संसार का ज्ञान आदि के विषय में वैज्ञानिक चरमोत्कर्ष तककी सूचना प्राप्त की जा सकती है।
डिजीभारतम् Summary Notes Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3.1

प्रस्तुत पाठ ‘डिजिटल इण्डिया’ के मूलभाव को लेकर लिखा गया निबन्ध है। इस पाठ के माध्यम से वैज्ञानिक प्रगति के अनेकों आयामों को स्पर्श किया गया है। आज इन्टरनेट ने हमारे जीवन को अत्यधिक सुगम बना दिया है।
डिजीभारतम् Summary Notes Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3.2

भौगोलिक दूरियाँ घट गई हैं तथा दूरस्थ व्यक्ति अपने मित्र अथवा सम्बन्धी के पास तुरंत आ सकता है। इन्टरनेट एक ऐसा मञ्च है, जहाँ हम संसार के किसी भी कोने में स्थित स्नेही से किसी भी विषय में विचार विमर्श कर सकते हैं। इसी प्रकार के भावों को प्रस्तुत पाठ में व्यक्त किया गया है।
डिजीभारतम् Summary Notes Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3.3

डिजीभारतम् Word Meanings Translation in Hindi

मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, सरलार्थश्च ।

क अद्य संपूर्णविश्वे “डिजिटलइण्डिया” इत्यस्य चर्चा श्रूयते। अस्य पदस्य कः भावः इति मनसि जिज्ञासा उत्पद्यते। कालपरिवर्तनेन सह मानवस्य आवश्यकताऽपि परिवर्तते। प्राचीनकाले ज्ञानस्य आदन-प्रदानं मौखिकम् आसीत्, विद्या च श्रुतिपरम्परया गृह्यते स्म। अनन्तरं तालपत्रोपरि भोजपत्रोपरि च लेखनकार्यम् आरब्धम्। परवर्तिनि काले कर्गदस्य लेखन्याः च आविष्कारेण सर्वेषामेव मनोगतानां भावानां कर्गदोपरि लेखनं प्रारब्धम्। टंकणयंत्रस्य आविष्कारेण तु लिखिता सामग्री टंकिता सती बहुकालाय सुरक्षिता अतिष्ठत्।

शब्दार्थ-
अद्य-आज। (Today)
श्रूयते-सुनी जाती है।
जिज्ञासा-जानने की इच्छा।
सह-साथ।
मौखिकम्-मुख द्वारा। (Verbal)
अनन्तरं-बाद में।
विश्वे-संसार में।
पदस्य-शब्द का।
उत्पद्यते-उत्पन्न होती है।
परिवर्तते-परिवर्तित होता है।
श्रुति-श्रवण।
आरब्धम्-आरम्भ हुआ।
परिवर्तिनि-परिवर्तन का।
सर्वेषाम्-सभी का।
कर्गदस्य-कागज का।
टंकण-छपाई।
प्रारब्धम्-प्रारम्भ हुआ।
बहुकालाय-बहुत समय तक।

सरलार्थ-
आज सारे संसार में ‘डिजिटल इण्डिया’ की चर्चा सुनी जाती है। ‘इस शब्द का भाव क्या है’-ऐसी जानने की इच्छा उत्पन्न होती है। काल के परिवर्तन के साथ मानव की आवश्यकता भी परिवर्तित होती है। पुराने समय में ज्ञान का आदान-प्रदान वाणी के द्वारा होता था तथा विद्या श्रवण परम्परा से गृहीत की जाती थी। तत्पश्चात् तालपत्र के ऊपर तथा भोजपत्र पर लेखन कार्य आरम्भ हुआ। परिवर्तन के काल में कागज का तथा लेखनी के आविष्कार से सभी के मन में स्थित भावों का कागज के ऊपर लेखन प्रारम्भ हुआ। छपाई के यन्त्र के आविष्कार के द्वारा लिखित सामग्री छापी जाकर बहुत समय तक सुरक्षित हो गई।

(ख) वैज्ञानिकप्रविधेः प्रगतियात्रा पुनरपि अग्रे गता। अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकनामकेन यन्त्रेण साधितानि भवन्ति। समाचार-पत्राणि, पुस्तकानि च कम्प्यूटरमाध्यमेन पठ्यन्ते लिख्यन्ते च। कर्गदोद्योगे वृक्षाणाम् उपयोगेन वृक्षाः कर्त्यन्ते स्म, परम् संगणकस्य अधिकाधिक-प्रयोगेण वृक्षाणां कर्तने न्यूनता भविष्यति इति विश्वासः। अनेन पर्यावरणसुरक्षायाः दिशि महान् उपकारो भविष्यति।

शब्दार्थ-
पुनरपि-फिर भी।
अग्रे-आगे।
संगणक-कम्प्यूटर।
लिख्यन्ते-लिखे जाते हैं।
दिशि-दिशा में।
प्रविधिः-तकनीक।
साधितानि-सिद्ध।
पठ्यन्ते-पढ़े जाते हैं।
कर्त्यन्ते-काटे जाते हैं।

सरलार्थ-वैज्ञानिक तकनीक विधि की प्रगतियात्रा पुनः आगे चलती रही। आज सभी कार्य कम्प्यूटर नामक यन्त्र के द्वारा सिद्ध होते हैं। समाचारपत्र तथा पुस्तकें कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से पढ़ी जाती हैं तथा लिखी जाती हैं। कागज के उद्योग में वृक्षों का उपयोग होने से वृक्ष काटे जाते थे, परन्तु कम्प्यूटर के अधिकाधिक प्रयोग से वृक्षों के काटने में कमी होगी-यह विश्वास है। इससे पर्यावरण की सुरक्षा की दिशा में महान् उपकार होगा।

(ग) अधुना आपणे वस्तुक्रयार्थम् रूप्यकाणाम् अनिवार्यता नास्ति। “डेबिट कार्ड”, “क्रेडिट कार्ड” इत्यादि सर्वत्र रूप्यकाणां स्थानं गृहीतवन्तौ। वित्तकोशस्य (बैंकस्य) चापि सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकयंत्रेण सम्पाद्यन्ते। बहुविधाः अनुप्रयोगाः (APP) मुद्राहीनाय विनिमयाय (Cashless Transaction) सहायकाः सन्ति।

शब्दार्थ-
अधुना-अब।
क्रयार्थम्-खरीदने के लिए।
रूप्यकाणाम्-रुपयों का। (of Rupees)
सम्पाद्यन्ते-सम्पन्न किए जाते हैं।
सन्ति-हैं।
आपणे-बाजार में।
नास्ति-नहीं है।
वित्तकोशस्य-बैंक का।
बहुविधा:-अनेक प्रकार का।

सरलार्थ: अब बाजार में वस्तुओं को खरीदने के लिए रुपयों की अनिवार्यता नहीं है। डेबिट कार्ड तथा क्रेडिट कार्ड इत्यादि ने सभी स्थानों पर रुपयों का स्थान ले लिया है। बैंक के सभी कार्य कम्प्यूटर यन्त्र के द्वारा सम्पन्न किए जाते हैं। अनेक प्रकार के अनुप्रयोग मुद्रारहित लेन-देन के लिए सहायक हैं।

(घ) कुत्रापि यात्रा करणीया भवेत् रेलयानयात्रापत्रस्य, वायुयानयात्रापत्रस्य अनिवार्यता अद्य नास्ति। सर्वाणि पत्राणि अस्माकं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रे ‘ई-मेल’ इति स्थाने सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति यानि सन्दर्घ्य वयं सौकर्येण यात्रायाः आनन्दं गृह्णीमः। चिकित्सालयेऽपि उपचारार्थ रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकताद्य नानुभूयते। सर्वत्र कार्डमाध्यमेन, ई-बैंकमाध्यमेन शुल्कम् प्रदातुं शक्यते।

शब्दार्थ-
कुत्रापि-कहीं भी।
अद्य-आज।
चलदूरभाषयन्त्रे-मोबाइल फोन।
सौकर्येण-सुगमता से।
उपचारार्थम्-इलाज के लिए।
शुल्कम्-फीस।
रेलयानयात्रापत्रस्य-रेल टिकट का।
सन्दर्य-दिखलाकर।
चिकित्सालयः-अस्पताल।
अनुभूयते-अनुभव किया जाता है।
प्रदातुम्-देने के लिए।

सरलार्थ-
कहीं भी यात्रा करनी हो, रेल टिकट तथा हवाई जहाज टिकट की आज अनिवार्यता नहीं है। सभी पत्र हमारे मोबाइल फोन में ‘ई-मेल’ स्थान पर सुरक्षित होते हैं, जिन्हें दिखलाकर हम सुगमता से यात्रा के आनन्द को ग्रहण करते हैं। अस्पताल में भी इलाज के लिए रुपयों की आवश्यकता अनुभव नहीं की जाती है। सभी स्थानों पर कार्ड के माध्यम से तथा ई-बैंक के माध्यम से फीस दी जा सकती है।

तद्दिनं नातिदूरम् यदा वयम् हस्ते एकमात्रं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमादाय सर्वाणि कार्याणि साधयितुं समर्थाः भविष्यामः। वस्त्रपुटके रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। ‘पासबुक’ ‘चैकबुक’ इत्यनयोः आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। पठनार्थ पुस्तकानां समाचारपत्राणाम् अनिवार्यता समाप्तप्राया भविष्यति। लेखनार्थम् अभ्यासपुस्तिकायाः कर्गदस्य वा, नूतनज्ञानान्वेषणार्थम् शब्दकोशस्याऽपि आवश्यकतापि न भविष्यति।

अपरिचित-मार्गस्य ज्ञानार्थम् मार्गदर्शकस्य मानचित्रस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः अपि न भविष्यति। एतत् सर्व एकेनेव यन्त्रेण कर्तुं, शक्यते। शाकादिक्रयार्थम्, फलक्रयार्थम्, विश्रामगृहेषु कक्षं सुनिश्चितं कर्तुम् चिकित्सालये शुल्कं प्रदातुम् विद्यालये महाविद्यालये चापि शुल्कं प्रदातुम्, किं बहुना दानमपि दातुम् चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमेव अलम्। डिजीभारतम् इति अस्यां दिशि वयं भारतीयाः द्रुतगत्या अग्रेसरामः।

शब्दार्थ-
नातिदूरम्-निकट।
वस्त्रपुटके-जेब में।
अन्वेषणार्थम्-खोजने के लिए।
अग्रेसरामः-आगे बढ़ते हैं।
आदाय-लेकर।
समाप्तप्राया-लगभग समाप्त।
शाकादि-शब्जी आदि।
द्रुतगत्या-तीव्र गति से।

सरलार्थ-
वह दिन दूर नहीं है, जब हम हाथ में एकमात्र मोबाइलफोन लेकर सभी कार्य सिद्ध करने में समर्थ होंगे। जेब में रुपयों की आवश्यकता नहीं होगी। पासबुक तथा चैकबुक-इनकी आवश्यकता नहीं होगी। पढ़ने के लिए पुस्तकों की तथा समाचारपत्रों की अनिवार्यता लगभग समाप्त हो जाएगी। लिखने के लिए अभ्यासपुस्तिका की अथवा कागज की, नवीन ज्ञान के खोजने के लिए डिक्शनरी की भी आवश्यकता नहीं होगी।

अनजान मार्ग के ज्ञान के लिए मार्गदर्शक मैप की आवश्यकता की अनुभूति भी नहीं होगी। यह सब एक ही यन्त्र के द्वारा किया जा सकता है। सब्जी आदि खरीदने के लिए, फल खरीदने के लिए, विश्रामगृह में कमरा सुनिश्चित करने के लिए, अस्पताल में फीस देने के लिए तथा स्कूल या कालेज में भी फीस देने के लिए, अधिक क्या कहें, दान देने के लिए भी मोबाइल फोन ही पर्याप्त है। ‘डिजिटलभारत’ इस दिशा में हम भारतीय तीव्रगति से आगे बढ़ रहे हैं।

Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry Chapter 2

Here we are providing Class 11 chemistry Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Chemistry. Chemistry Class 11 Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in Class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Important Extra Questions Structure of Atom Chemistry

Structure of Atom Chemistry Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How many total electrons are present in nitrate ion?
Answer:
No. of electrons in NO3 ion
= No. of electrons on N + No. of electrons on 3 oxygen atom + one ē
= 7 + 3 × 8 + 1 = 32 electrons.

Question 2.
The nucleus of the atom of an element does not contain a neutron. Name the element and what does its nucleus consists of.
Answer:
The nucleus of hydrogen. It contains only one proton.

Question 3.
What are nucleons?
Answer:
The neutrons and protons present in the nucleus of an atom are collectively called nucleons.

Question 4.
Write electronic configurations of Chromium (At. Np. = 24).
Answer:
Cr = 24 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5, 4s1.

Question 5.
Which of the following has the smallest de-Broglie wavelength? O2, H2, a proton, an electron.
Answer:
According to the de-Broglie equation λ = \(\frac{h}{m \times v}\) for same value of velocity λ ∝\(\frac{1}{m}\)
∴ O2 molecule has shortest wavelength.

Question 6.
How many unpaired electrons are there is a carbon atom in the ground state?
Answer:
C = 6 = 1s2, 2s2, 2p1x 2p1y. There are only two unpaired electrons.

Question 7.
What type of spectrum is obtained when light emitted from the discharge tube containing hydrogen gas is analyzed?
Answer:
Emission line spectrum.

Question 8.
What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom having n = 3, l = 1 and s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\)?
Answer:
Three electrons (one each in 3px’ 3py’, 3pz’ ).

Question 9.
Name the spectral line in the spectrum of H-atom obtained when an electron jumps from n = 4 to n = 2.
Answer:
Balmer Series.

Question 10.
Give some examples of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
Y-rays, X-rays, UV-rays, visible rays, radio waves, etc.

Question 11.
State two properties of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
Electromagnetic radiation shows the phenomenon of:

  1. Interference,
  2. Diffraction.

Question 12.
What is meant by the quantization of electron energy?
Answer:
It means that an electron in an atom has a certain, specific, discrete amount of energy.

Question 13.
What does a principal quantity number denote?
Answer:
It denotes a specific stationary state.

Question 14.
Why Bohr’s orbits are also called ‘energy levels’?
Answer:
Because they are associated with a certain definite amount of energy.

Question 15.
How many spherical nodal surfaces are there in a 3s- sub-shell?
Answer:
Two.

Question 16.
Out of 6s and 4f orbitals, which has higher energy and why?
Answer:
4forbital has higher energy, ((n + l) value of 4f is 7 while that of 6s is 6). The higher the (n + l) value of an orbital higher is the energy.

Question 17.
List the value/values of quantum numbers n and l for 4f electrons.
Answer:
n = 4, l = 3.

Question 18.
Out of 4s and 3d orbitals, which will have higher energy and why?
Answer:
3d orbital has higher energy as it has a higher value of (n + l).

Question 19.
Which of the following orbitals are not possible?
1p, 2p, 2d, 3f, 4f?
Answer:
1p, 2d, 3f is not possible.

Question 20.
Which orbital does not have directional characteristics?
Answer:
s-orbital.

Question 21.
An electron is in 3p-orbital. What are the permitted values of n, l, and m?
Answer:
n = 3, l = 1, m = – 1, 0, + 1.

Question 22.
Write designation of an orbital having n = 5,1 = 3.
Answer:
5f -orbital.

Question 23.
Consider the electronic configuration 1s° 2s° 2p° 3s1.
Name the element having this configuration. Is it in an excited state or ground state?
Answer:
It is the configuration of the H-atom. It is in an excited state.

Question 24.
Which quantum number determines the
(i) size,
Answer:
Principal

(ii) orientation,
Answer:
Magnetic

(in) the shape of orbital?
Answer:
Azimuthal quantum number.

Question 25.
Which energy level does not have a p-orbital?
Answer:
First energy level (i.e., n – 1, K-shell).

Question 26.
Name an element that has only one d-electron.
Answer:
Scandium (atomic no. = 21).

Question 27.
Given an isotone of C-13 atom.
Answer:
Isotones are the atoms of different elements which have the same number of neutrons. N-14 is an isotone of a C-13 atom.

Question 28.
Which of the following orbitals does not make sense?
5s, 4f, 3p, 2d.
Answer:
2d orbital does not exist and thus makes no sense.

Question 29.
Name the famous experiment which showed for the first time that an atom has a nucleus.
Answer:
Rutherford experiment of scattering of a-particles.

Question 30.
Write the value of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of the sodium atom.
Answer:
Sodium atom has 11 electrons and its valence electron is 3s1 (as configuration is 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s1)
∴ The value are: n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 31.
What is the relationship between velocity, wavelength, and frequency of radiation?
Answer:
These three characteristics of wave motion are related to each other as frequency = \(\frac{\text { Velocity }}{\text { Wavelength }}\)
In terms of symbols v = \(\frac{c}{λ}\).

Question 32.
How wave number (\(\vec{v}\) ) and wave length (λ) are related?
Answer:
\(\vec{v}\) = \(\frac{1}{λ}\) . Wave number is the reciprocal of wavelength.

Question 33.
Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible spectrum?
Answer:
Balmer series.

Question 34.
How do you distinguish the two electrons present in the same orbital?
Answer:
By their spin quantum no. s which has + \(\frac{1}{2}\) and – \(\frac{1}{2}\) values.

Question 35.
Name the principle which establishes that two electrons cannot have the same values for all the 4 quantum numbers.
Answer:
Pauli exclusion principle.

Question 36.
Write down the electronic configuration of Cu (= 29) in the ground state.
Answer:
Cu = 29 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 3d10 4s1.

Question 37.
What is the lowest value of n that allows g orbitals to exists?
Answer:
n = 5.

Question 38.
Why do an atom M and its ion M2+ have the same mass?
Answer:
Both have the same no. of neutrons and protons which are responsible for the mass of an atom.

Question 39.
The nucleus of an atom has 6 protons and 8 neutrons. What are its atomic number and mass number? What is this element1?
Answer:
At. No. = 6; Mass No. = 6 + 8 = 14; Element is Carbon.

Question 40.
What is the number of electrons having l = 0 in an atom with an atomic number 29?
Answer:
7. [1s2, 2s2, 3s2, 4s1, i.e., 2 + 2 + 1 = 7]

Question 41.
Express s, p, d, f for a shell in increasing order of energy.
Answer:
s < p < d < f. .

Question 42.
For n = 5; what are the possible values of l?
Answer:
When n = 5; l = 0,1, 2, 3, 4.

Question 43.
For l = 3, what are the possible values of m?
Answer:
m = – 3, – 2, – 1, 0, + 1, + 2, + 3.

Question 44.
The ionization potential of an atom is 13.6 V. How much energy is required to ionize it?
Answer:
13.6 eV.

Question 45.
The threshold wavelength for a metal surface is λ0. How is it related to the work function of the metal?
Answer:
W0 = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda_{0}}\)

Question 46.
Write the energy E of a photon in terms of frequency.
Answer:
E = hv where h is called Planck’ constant.

Question 47.
How much energy is required for the removal of the only electron present in the hydrogen atom?
Answer:
ΔE = E – E1 = 0 – (- 1312 kJ mol-1) – 1312 kJ mol-1.

Question 48.
Which quantum number determines the
(a) shape
Answer:
Azimuthal

(b) orientation and
Answer:
Magnetic

(c) size of the orbital?
Answer:
Principal.

Question 49.
Write down the values of n, l, m, s of the last electron in potassium (Z = 19)?
Answer:
The last electron in potassium is present in 4s.
Its n = 4; l = 0; m = 0, s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\) or – \(\frac{1}{2}\).

Question 50.
What is the sequence of energies of 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals in
(i) H-atom
Answer:
H-atom: 3s = 3p = 3d

(ii) a multi-electron atom?
Answer:
3s < 3p < 3d.

Question 51.
Name the cations which do not have any electrons.
Answer:
H+, He2+.

Question 52.
How many quantum numbers are required to specify an orbital? Name them.
Answer:
Three quantum numbers.
These are

  1. Principal quantum no. (n)
  2. Azimuthal quantum No. (l)
  3. Magnetic quantum no. (m).

Question 53.
What is observed when an opaque object is placed in the path of cathode rays?
Answer:
A shadow of an opaque object is observed on the wall opposite to cathode.

Question 54.
What happens when a very light paddle wheel is placed. in the path of cathode rays?
Answer:
It begins to undergo a rotatory motion.

Question 55.
What name was given to the particles which constitute cathode rays?
Answer:
Electron.

Question 56.
Arrange the following orbitals in the order in which electrons may be normally expected to fill them.
3s, 2p, 3p, 2s, 3d, 4s.
Answer:
According to the Aufbau principle, the given orbitals will be filled in the order: 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d.

Question 57.
Which fundamental property of an atom is not understood if we assume that an atom consists of a nucleus containing protons only and an extranuclear part containing an equal number of electrons?
Answer:
The mass number of atoms and stability of the nucleus cannot be explained.

Question 58.
The following ions are isoelectronic: F, Mg2+, O2-. Write the common electronic configuration.
Answer:
Each given ion contains 10 electrons. The common configuration is that of the Neon atom, i.e., 1s2, 2s2 p6.

Question 59.
What is the atomic number of an element whose mass number is 23 and contains 12 neutrons in its nucleus? What is the symbol of an element?
Answer:
Atomic number = No. of protons in the nucleus
= Mass no. – No. of neutrons
= 23 – 12 = 11
The element is sodium and its symbol is Na.

Question 60.
An atom has 2 K, 8 L, and 5 M electrons. Write the electronic configuration of the atom. How many unpaired electrons are there in the atom?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of atom is: 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s2, 3p1x, 3p1y, 3p1z. It has three unpaired electrons.

Question 61.
Write the various possible quantum numbers for unpaired electron of Aluminium atom?
Answer:
Al = 13 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1x
n = 3; l = 1; m = – 1, 0, + 1; s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) or – \(\frac{1}{2}\) .

Question 62.
Give the values of quantum numbers for the electron with the highest energy in sodium atom.
Answer:
n = 3; l = 0; m = 0; s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\) or – \(\frac{1}{2}\) .

Question 63.
What do you observe in the spectrum of NaCl?
Answer:
Two yellow lines with a wavelength of 5890 Å and 5896 Å

Question 64.
What do you mean by saying that the energy of the electron is quantized?
Answer:
This means that the electrons in an atom have only definite values of energy.

Question 65.
Why are Bohr’s orbits called stationary states?
Answer:
This is because the energies of the orbits in which the electrons revolve are fixed.

Question 66.
What is the difference between a quantum and a photon?
Answer:
The smallest packet of energy of any radiation is called a quantum whereas that of light is called a photon.

Question 67.
Which quantum number does not follow from the solution of the Schrodinger wave equation?
Answer:
Spin quantum number.

Question 68.
How many orbitals will be possible in a g-subshell?
Answer:
For g-subsheil l = 4; m = 2l + 1; – 4, – 3, – 2, – 1, 0, + 1, + 2, + 3, + 4; 9 orbitals.

Structure of Atom Chemistry Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Enumerate the important characteristics of anode-rays (or positive rays). How this study led to the discovery of proton?
Answer:

  1. The mass of positive particles which constitute these rays depend upon the nature of the gas in the tube.
  2. The charge/mass (e/m) ratio of anode-rays is not constant but depends upon the nature of gas in the tube. The value of e/m is greatest for the lightest gas, hydrogen the electric charge on a lightest positively charged particle from hydrogen gas was found to be exactly equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to that of the electron. This lightest positively charged particle from hydrogen gas was named the proton. The mass of a proton is almost 1836 times that of the electron.

Question 2.
What are anode-rays? Illustrate their formation by a diagram.
Answer:
Anode-rays. If a perforated cathode is used in the discharge tube experiment, it is found that a certain type of radiation also travels from anode to cathode. These are called anode rays or positive rays.
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 1
Production of anode rays

Question 3.
Describe the important properties of cathode-rays. What is concluded about the nature of these rays?
Answer:
The cathode rays possess the following properties:

  1. Travel in straight lines perpendicular to the surface of the cathode.
  2. Consists of material particles.
  3. Have got the heating effect.
  4. Consists of negatively charged particles.
  5. Produce X-rays when they strike against hard metals like copper, tungsten, platinum, etc.
  6. Produce fluorescence when they strike glass or certain other materials like zinc sulfide.
  7. Penetrate through thin aluminum foils and other metals.
  8. Affect the photographic plates.

Question 4.
What are the main features of Rutherford’s model of an atom?
Answer:
The main features of this model are:

  1. Atom is spherical and consists of two parts: Nucleus and extra-nuclear part.
  2. The entire mass and entire positive charge are concentrated in a very small region at the center known as the nucleus.
  3. The space surrounding the nucleus known as the extra-nuclear part is negatively charged so an atom as a whole is neutral.
  4. Most of the extra-nuclear part is empty.
  5. The electrons are not stationary but are revolving around the nucleus at very high speeds like planets revolving around the Sun.

Question 5.
What is meant by the dual nature of radiation?
Answer:
The fact that light energy is carried in terms of packets of energy (i.e., photons) as suggested by Planck’s theory means that light has a particle character. At the same time, the fact light has a wave character. These experimental facts led Einstein to suggest that light has a dual character, i.e., it behaves both like a wave and like a particle.

Question 6.
Describe the drawback to Rutherford’s model of the atom.
Answer:
The main drawback is that it could not explain the stability of an atom. Maxwell has shown that when electric charge is subjected to acceleration, it emits energy in the form of radiations. In Rutherford’s model of the atom, electrons are orbiting the nucleus and hence the direction of their velocity is constantly changing, i.e., electrons are accelerating.

This will cause the electrons will have lesser and lesser energy and will get closer and closer to the nucleus until at last, it spirals into the nucleus and thus does not provide a stable model of the atom.
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 2

Question 7.
What is the value of
(i) charge to mass ratio (e/m) of electrons,
Answer:
J. Thomson determined the value of e/m for electron by the study of deflection of electron beam under the simultaneous influence of electric and magnetic field perpendicular to each other, the e/m value is 1.76 × 108 coulomb per gram of electrons.

(ii) charge of electrons,
Answer:
The charge of electrons was measured by Millikan in 1909 by his famous ‘oil drop’ experiment. It was found to be 1.60 × 10-19 coulombs.

(iii) mass of an electron?
Answer:
The mass of electrons is 9.1 × 10-28 g.

Question 8.
How is it concluded that electrons are a universal constituent of all matter?
Answer:
The charge/mass (e/m) ratio for the particles in the cathode rays (i.e., electron) is found to be the same irrespective of the nature of the cathode or the nature of the gas taken in the discharge tube. This shows that electrons are universal constituents of all matter.

Question 9.
Distinguish between an Emission spectrum and an Absorption spectrum.
Answer:
The important differences between the emission and absorption spectra are given in the following table:

Emission Spectrum Absorption Spectrum
1. Emission spectrum is obtained when radiations emitted by the excited substance are analyzed in a spectroscope. 1. Absorption spectrum is obtained when the white light is first passed through the substance (in a gaseous state or in solution) and the transmitted light is analyzed in a spectroscope.
2. Emission spectrum consists of bright colored lines separated by dark spaces. 2. Absorption spectrum consists of dark lines in an otherwise continuous spectrum.

Question 10.
What are the shortcomings of Bohr’s atomic model?
Answer:

  1. It couldn’t explain the spectra of multi-electron atoms.
  2. It fails to explain the splitting of spectral lines when subjected to the electrostatic or magnetic fields (Stark or Zeeman’s effect).
  3. It does not account for the fine splitting of spectral lines.
  4. It affords a two-dimensional picture of the revolution of electrons while actually electron revolves around the nucleus in three dimensions.
  5. It does not account for the shapes of molecules.

According to it, this is possible to determine simultaneously both the position and momentum of the electron accurately. But this is contrary to Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle.

Question 11.
Account for the stability of the atom with the help of Bohr’s theory.
Answer:
According to Bohr’s theory, an electron revolves around the nucleus only in a definite orbit and cannot lose energy continuously. It can lose energy only if it jumps from a higher orbit to a lower orbit but this is possible only if the electron has already acquired a higher energy level by absorbing a certain amount of energy. If no lower level is available, the electron cannot lose energy at all, i.e., an atom does not collapse. In other words, it is quite stable.

Question 12.
What are the main achievements of Bohr’s theory of the atom?
Answer:
The main achievements of Bohr’s theory of atom are:

  1. It can explain the stability of the atom.
  2. It successfully explains the line spectrum of hydrogen.
  3. It explains the line spectra of single-electron ions like He+ and Li2+.

Question 13.
Write a short note on de-Broglie relation (or de-Borglie) equation.
Answer:
A moving material particle, like an electron, proton, etc. having mass m and velocity v is associated with wavelength X related by:
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\)
where p stands for the momentum of the particle and h is Planck’s constant. This relation is known as a de-Broglie equation.

Question 14.
Do atomic orbitals have sharp boundaries? Explain why or why not?
Or
Why don’t we draw a boundary surface diagram within the probability of finding the electron is 100%?
Answer:
No, atomic orbitals do not have sharp boundaries because the probability of finding the electron even at large distances may become very small, but not equal to zero.

Question 15.
What is the difference between the angular momentum of an electron present in 3p and that present in 4p?
Answer:
No difference, because angular momentum is given by = \(\frac{h}{2 \pi} \sqrt{l(l+1)}\), i.e., it depends only on the value of l and not the principal quantum no. n.

Question 16.
Why splitting of spectral lines takes place when the source giving the spectrum is placed in a magnetic field?
Answer:
In the presence of a magnetic field, the orbitals present in a subshell (which were degenerate) take up different orientations.

Question 17.
How many electrons in Sulphur (Z = 16) can have n + l = 3?
Answer:
16S = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

  • For 1s2, n + l = l+ 0 = l
  • For 1s2, n + l = 2 + 0 = 2
  • For 2p6, n + 1 = 2 + 1= 3
  • For 3s2, n + l = 3 + 0 = 3
  • For 3p4, n + l = 3 + l = 4.

Thus n + l = 3 for 2p6 and 3s2 electrons, i.e. for 8 electrons.

Question 18.
Why Pauli Exclusion principle is called the exclusion principle?
Answer:
This is because according to the principle, if one electron in an atom has some particular values for the four quantum numbers, then all the other electrons in that atom are excluded from having the same set of values.

Question 19.
Why Hund’s rule is called the rule of maximum multiplicity?
Answer:
This is because out of the various possible electronic configurations, only that Configuration is correct for which the total spin value is maximum.

Question 20.
How many orbitals are present in the M-shell?
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 3

Structure of Atom Chemistry Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the shape of s – and p – orbitals What do you mean by node or nodal surface?
Answer:
Shapes of Orbitals:
s-orbitals: These are spherically symmetrical and non-directional. Shapes of 1s and 2s orbitals are shown in Fig. The effective volume of 2s orbital is larger than Is orbital. Another important feature of 2s orbital is that there is a spherical shell within 2s (region without dots) where the probability of finding the electron is zero. This is called a node or a nodal surface. There are (n – 1) nodes in an s-orbital (where n is the energy level).
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 4
p-orbitals: There are three p-orbitals designated as px’, py’ or pz’ which are oriented along the three mutually perpendicular axis x, y, and 2. Each, orbital consists of two lobes symmetrical about the particular axis and has a dumbbell shape. The two lobes are separated by a nodal plane.
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 5
Shapes of three 2p orbitals

The two lobes of each orbital are separated by a plane having x zero electron density. This plane is known as a nodal plane.

Question 2.
How does the Schrodinger wave equation help to understand the probability of finding the electron near the nucleus? What do you mean by an orbital?
Answer:
Probability Picture of Electrons:
Schrodinger incorporated the requirements of the uncertainty principle and de Broglie’s concept of matter waves and proposed a mathematical equation to describe the behavior of an electron in an atom. The equation was known as the Schrodinger wave equation.

The Schrodinger wave equation is
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 6
where x, y, and z are three space coordinates,
m is the mass of the electron,
h is Planck’s, constant

E is the total energy and V is the potential energy of the electron, φ (Greek letter psi) is the amplitude of the wave, called wave function, \(\frac{\partial^{2} \psi}{\partial x^{2}}\) refers to the second derivative of φ with respect to x only and so on.

The solution of this equation gave the mathematical expression which gives information about the various energy states and other measurable properties such as the radiation frequencies emitted or absorbed for the hydrogen atom. The solutions of the Schrodinger wave equation are called wave functions and are denoted by the symbol φ.

The physical significance of wave function: In the physical sense φ gives the amplitude of the wave associated with the electron. We know that in the case of light waves, the square of the amplitude, of the wave at a point is proportional to the intensity of light. Extending the same concept of electron wave motion, the square of the wave function, φ2 may be taken as the intensity of electrons at any point.

In other words, φ2 determines the probability density. Thus, φ2 has been called the probability density and φ the probability amplitude. Thus, the solutions of the Schrodinger wave equation replace the discrete energy levels or orbits proposed by Bohr and led to the concept of the most probable regions in space in terms of φ22.

A large value of φ2 means a high probability of finding the electron at that place and a small value of φ2 means low probability. If φ2 is almost zero at a particular point, it means that the probability of finding the electron at that point is negligible. Therefore, the wave mechanics approach gives meaningful wave functions which describe the position and energy levels of electrons in an atom.

Concept of Orbital: An orbital is a region in space around the nucleus where the probability of finding the electrons is maximum.

Structure of Atom Chemistry Important Extra Questions Numerical Problems

Question 1.
How many nucleons are present in an atom Nobelium, No? How many electrons are present in the atom? How many nucleons may be considered neutrons?
Answer:
Nucleons = 254, electrons = 102 and neutrons 254 – 102 = 152.

Question 2.
Complete the following table:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 7
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 8
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 9

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 10
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 11

Question 4.
Find the number of protons, electrons an-d neutrons in
(a) 1327A3+
Answer:
p = 13, ē = 10, n = 14

(b) 815O2-
Answer:
p = 8, ē = 10, n = 7.

Question 5.
Name the element whose atomic nucleus does not contain any neutrons.
Answer:
The nucleus of the hydrogen atom does not contain any neutron.

Question 6.
Calculate the total no. of electrons present in one mole of methane.
Answer:
1 Molecule of methane (CH4) contains electrons = 6 + 4 = 10
1 Mole, i.e., 6.022 × 1023 molecules will contain electrons = 6.022 × 1024

Question 7.
Find (a) the total number and
(b) the total mass of neutrons in 7 mg of 14C
(Assume that the mass of a neutron = 1.675 × 10-27 kg).
Answer:
1 mol of 14C = 6,022 × 1023 atoms
i. e. 14 g of 14C = 6.022 × 1023 atoms

∴ 14 g of it = 6.022 × 1023 × 0.008 neutrons [∵ one atom ofuC contains = 14 – 6 = 8 neutrons]
and now 0.007 g of it will have
= 6.022 × 1023 × 8 × 0.007/13
= 2.409 × 1021 neutrons .

(b) Mass of 1 neutrons = 1.675 × 10-27 kg
∴ Mass of 2.409 × 1021 neutrons = 4.035 × 10-6 kg.

Question 8.
A particular radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 1120 kHz (kilohertz). Another radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 98.7 MHz (megahertz). What are the wavelengths of the radiations from each station?
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 12

Question 9.
Calculate the wave number of radiations having a frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz.
Answer:
v = 4 × 1014 Hz = 4 × 1014 sec-1
Wave lemgth v̅ = \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=\frac{v}{c}\)
= \(\frac{4 \times 10^{14} \sec ^{-1}}{3 \times 10^{8} \mathrm{msec}^{-1}}\)
= 1.33 × 106 m-1
= 1.33 × 104 cm-1.

Question 10.
A photon of wave length 4 × 10-7 m strikes on metal surface, the work function of the metal being 2.13 eV.
Calculate
(i) the energy of the photon (eV)
Answer:
Energy of the photon = E = hv
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 13

(ii) the kinetic energy of the emission and
Answer:
Kinetic energy of emission = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv2 = hv – hv0
= 3.10 – 2.13 = 0.97 eV

(iii) the velocity of the photoelectron [leV = 1.602 × 10-19 J].
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 14

Question 11.
Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionize the sodium atom. Calculate the Ionisation energy of solution in kJ mol-1
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 15

Question 12.
The wavelength of the first line in the Balmer Series is 656 nm. Calculate the wavelength of the second line and limiting line in the Balmer series.
Answer:
According to Rydberg’s formula
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 16
For the Balmer series n1 = 2 and for the first line n2 = 3
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 17

Divide (i) by (ii)
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 18

Question 13.
Calculate the wavelength of the spherical line in the Lyman series corresponding to n2 = 3.
Answer:
For the Lyman series n1 = 1
∴ v̅ = R\(\left[\frac{1}{1^{2}}-\frac{1}{3^{2}}\right]\)
= 109577 × \(\frac{8}{9}\) = 97490.7 m-1
λ = \(\frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{97490.7}\) cm-1
= 102.6 × 10-7cm
= 102.6 nm

Question 14.
Calculate the velocity of electrons in the first Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. Given that Bohr’s radius = 0,529 A. Planck’s constant h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js mass of electron = 9.11 × 10-31 kg and 1 J = 1 kg m2 s-1.
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 19

Question 15.
The electron energy in a hydrogen atom is given by EH = (- 2.18 × 10-18)/n2 J. Calculate the energy required to, remove the electron completely from n = 2 orbit. What is the longest wavelength of light in cm that can be used to cause this transition?
Answer:
Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 20

Question 16.
Give the values of the quantum numbers for the electron with the highest energy in the sodium atom.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of riNa = 1s2, 2s22p6 3s1
The electron with the highest energy is 3s1 for which n = 3 and l = 0

Question 17.
Find the number of unpaired electrons in Fe2+ and Fe3+. At.No. of Fe = 26.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of 26Fe = 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2
Fe2+ = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6 It has 4 unpaired electrons
Fe3+ = 1s2, 1s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5 It has 5 unpaired electrons.

Question 18.
What atoms are indicated by the following electronic cofigurations?
(i) 1s2, 2s22p1,
Answer:
Total no. of electrons = 2 + 2 + 1 = 5
∴ At. no. of element is 5.
Hence the element is Boron (B).

(ii) [Ar] 4s2 3d1
Answer:
Total no. of electrons in [Ar] 4s2 3d1 = 18 + 2 + 1 = 21
∴ At. no. of element is 21.
Hence the element is Scandium (Sc).

Question 19.
Give the electronic configuration of N-3, K+, P-3, O2-.
Answer:

  • N = 7 = 1s2,2s2 2p3
  • N3- = 10e = 1s2, 2s2 2p6
  • K = 19 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 4s1
  • K+ = 18e = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6
  • P = 15 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3
  • p3- = 18e = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6
  • O = 8 = 1s2, 2s2 2p4
  • O2- = 10e = 1s2, 2s2 2p6

Question 20.
Which out of Cu2+, Fe2+, Cr3+ has the highest paramagnetism and why?
Answer:
Paramagnetism is a property of unpaired electrons. More the no. of unpaired electrons, more the paramagnetism.
Cu2+ = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d9
∴ It has only one unpaired electron.
Fe2+ = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6

∴ It has 4 unpaired electrons.
Cr3+ = 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d3

∴ It has 3 unpaired electrons.
Hence Fe2+ with 4 unpaired electrons is having the highest paramagnetism.

Question 24.
Find the velocity (in ms-1) of the electron in the first Bohr orbit of radius a0. Also, find the de Broglie wavelength in m. Find the orbital angular momentum of 2p orbital of hydrogen in units of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
Answer:
For H-like particle, velocity in the nth orbit
Vn = 2.188 × 106 × \(\frac{Z}{n}\) ms-1

For H-atom, Z = 1; For 1st orbit n = 1
∴ v = 2.188 × 106 ms-1

∴ de Broglie wavelength λ = \(\frac{h}{mv}\)
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 2.188 \times 10^{6}}\) m
= 3.33 × 10-10 m

∴ Orbital angular momentum = \(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
For 2p orbital, l = 1
∴ Orbital angular momentum = \(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\) = –\(\sqrt{2} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\) .

Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book Solutions अव्यय-प्रकरणम्

We have given detailed NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book अव्यय-प्रकरणम् Questions and Answers come in handy for quickly completing your homework.

Sanskrit Vyakaran Class 8 Solutions अव्यय-प्रकरणम्

पाठ्यक्रम में निम्न अव्यय पदों का समावेश है-
1. अलम्
2. अन्तः
3. बहिः
4. अधः
5. उपरि
6. उच्चैः
7. नीचैः
8. कदापि
9. पुनः।

इनके अतिरिक्त पाठों में न, च, यदा, कदा, कुत्र, अपि, एव, तथा, हि, किम्, अद्य, ह्यः, श्वः यदि, तथैव, सह, उभयतः, परितः, सर्वतः, नमः आदि का भी प्रयोग हो सकता है। अतः इन सभी अव्ययों का संक्षेप में ज्ञान अत्यावश्यक है। प्रश्नवाचक अव्ययों में कदा, कुत्र, क्व, किम्, का प्रयोग होता है। उपपद विभक्तियों में उभयतः, परितः, उपरि, अधः, सर्वतः, नमः, सह आदि का प्रयोग पहले भी दिखाया जा चुका है। चतुर्थी में स्वस्ति, स्वाहा का भी उपयोग होता है। ये प्रत्यय छठी कक्षा के व्याकरण भाग में आप पढ़ चुके हैं-यत्र, तत्र, कुत्र, अत्र, सर्वत्र, अन्यत्र, यदा, तदा, एकदा, सदा, सर्वदा, च अपि, अद्य, श्वः, ह्यः, प्रातः, सायम्, अहर्निशम्, अधुना एवं कुल।

1. अलम् – निषेध तथा पर्याप्त दो अर्थों में प्रयुक्त होता है।
(क) निषेध अर्थ में तृतीया तथा पर्याप्त अर्थ में चतुर्थी का प्रयोग होता है। शोर मत करो। झगड़ा मत करो। हँसो मत। क्रोध मत करो। इत्यादि वाक्यों में अलम् का प्रयोग तृतीया विभक्ति के साथ होता है यथा अलं कोलाहलेन। अलं विवादेन। अलं हसितेन। अलं क्रोधेन।
(ख) ‘पर्याप्त’ अर्थ में यह पहलवान उस पहलवान के लिए पर्याप्त है-मल्लः मल्लाय अलम्। दूध पीने के लिए पर्याप्त है-दुग्धं पानाय अलम्। अथवा अलं पातुं दुग्धम्।

2. अन्तः / बहिः – अन्दर तथा बाहर के लिए क्रमशः अन्तः तथा बहिः अव्ययों का प्रयोग होता है। अन्त के योग में षष्ठी तथा बहिः के योग में पञ्चमी होती है।
(i) सः गृहस्य अन्तः प्रविशति।
(ii) सः गृहात् बहिः गच्छति।
(iii) देवदत्तः भवनस्य अन्तः विद्यते।
(iv) नटः रंगमञ्चात् बहिः निष्क्रामति।

3. उपरि / अधः – इसी तरह ऊपर तथा नीचे अर्थों को बताने के लिए उपरि तथा अधः का प्रयोग होता है। इनमें षष्ठी विभक्ति का प्रयोग होता है। वृक्ष के ऊपर पक्षी बैठा है। वृक्ष के नीचे पक्षी बैठा है।
(i) वृक्षस्य उपरि खगः तिष्ठति।
(ii) वृक्षस्य अधः खगः तिष्ठति।

4. उच्चैः / नीचैः – ऊँचा और नीचा बताने के लिए क्रमशः उच्चैः, नीचैः शब्दों का प्रयोग होता है।
(i) वह ऊँचा बोलता है। सः उच्चैः वदति।
(ii) पानी नीचे बहता है। जलम् नीचैः वहति। इत्यादि।

5. कदापि / पुनः – कदापि का अर्थ है कभी-कभी। इसके विपरीत पुनः का अर्थ है बार-बार। वह मेरे घर कभी नहीं आता। वह मेरे घर बार-बार आता है।
(i) सः कदापि मम गृहं न आगच्छति।
(ii) सः पुनः पुनः मम गृहम् आयाति।
उसने एक गीत गाया। पुनः दूसरा गीत गाया।
सः एकं गीतम् अगायत्, पुनः अपरं गीतम् अगायत्।
उसने कभी झूठ नहीं बोला।
सः कदापि असत्यं न अवदत्।

अधोलिखित वाक्यों में मञ्जूषा से उचित पद चुनकर रिक्त स्थानों में भरो-
Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book Solutions अव्यय-प्रकरणम्
(i) नीचैः गच्छति __________ च दशा चक्रनेमिक्रमेणे।
(ii) वायुना पत्राणि __________ पतन्ति।
(iii) गीतम् __________ गायत।
(iv) एकवारं __________ कथां कथय।
(v) __________ रोदनेन।
(vi) मम पुत्रः एकाकी शास्त्रार्थे सर्वेभ्यः __________
(vii) __________ व्यथा अतीव कष्टकरी भवति।
(viii) त्वं __________ गत्वा पश्य।
(ix) सः __________ न आयास्यति।
(x) गृहात् __________ मा गच्छ।

कालबोधक अव्यय होते हैं-
यदा = जब।
एकदा = एक बार।
अद्य = आज।
श्व = कल (आने वाला)
तदा = तब।
सदा = सदा।
सम्प्रति = अब।
ह्यः = कल (बीता हुआ)
कदा = कब।
सर्वदा = सदा।
सदा = नित्य।
प्रातः = सुबह।
सायम् = शाम।
अहर्निशम् = दिनरात।

कुछ स्थानबोधक अव्यय होते हैं, जैसे-
अत्र = यहाँ।
कुतः = कहाँ से।
अन्यत्र = दूसरी जगह।
यत्र = जहाँ।
तत्र = वहाँ।
इह = इस लोक में।
कुत्र = कहाँ।
अमुत्र, परत्र = पर लोक में

कुछ विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय होते हैं, जैसे- हे, अहो, अहा इत्यादि। कुछ मिश्रित अव्यय होते हैं, जैसे-
एव = ही
नाना = अनेकविध
इव = के समान
समीपम् = पास
किम् = क्या
दूरम् = दूर
अपि = भी
अतीव = अत्यधिक
किमपि = कुछ
उच्चैः = ऊँचे, ऊपर
किंञ्चित् = कुछ
नीचैः = नीचे
शीघ्रम् = जल्दी
उपरि = ऊपर
वामतः = बाईं तरफ
अधः = नीचे
बहुधा = बहुत बार
अतः = इसलिए
वारम्वारम् = बार-बार
अपरम् = और
भृशम् = अधिक
परम् = और
अथ = आरम्भबोधक
परन्तु = किन्तु
न = नहीं
विना = बिना
इत्थम् = इस प्रकार
इति = समाप्तिबोधक
इतः = यहाँ से
ततः = उस के बाद

पाठ्यक्रम के अनुसार अधोलिखित अव्यय ही निर्धारित हैं।
1. अलम् (समाप्ति अर्थ में) – अलं कोलाहलेन।
समर्थ अर्थ में – मल्लः मल्लाय अलम्।
2. अन्तः (अन्दर) – रामः गृहस्य अन्तः अस्ति।
3. बहिः (बाहर) – रामः गृहात् बहिः अगच्छत्।
4. अधः (नीचे) – शिशुः खट्वायाः अधः तिष्ठति।
5. उपरि (ऊपर) – कमला छदस्य उपरि तिष्ठति।
6. उच्चैः (ऊँचे स्वर में) – सः कक्षायाम् उच्चैः वदति।
7. नीचैः (नीचे) – जलं नीचैः वहति।
8. कदापि (कभी) – त्वं कदापि मम गृहं न आगच्छः।

अव्ययों का वाक्यों में प्रयोग
1. वह नहीं आया। = सः न आगतः।
2. क्या वह हँसता है? = किं सः हसति?\
3. यहाँ आओ। = अत्र आगच्छ।
4. यहाँ कुशल है। = अत्र कुशलम्।
5. वहाँ (कुशल) होवे। = तत्र (कुशलम्) अस्तु।
6. अधिक न बोलो। = अधिकं न वद।
7. वह झूठ बोलता है। = सः मृषा वदति।
8. वह कुछ बोला। सः किञ्चित अवदत्।
9. ऐसा ही है। = इदम् एव अस्ति।
10. शीघ्र आओ। = शीघ्रम् आगच्छ।
11. यह भी सत्य है। इदम् अपि सत्यम् अस्ति।
12. सदा सत्य बोलो। = सदा सत्यं वद।
13. क्रोध न करो। = क्रोधं मा कुरु।
14. आज सोमवार है। = अद्य सोमवारः अस्ति।
15. कल क्या था? = ह्यः किम् आसीत्?
16. कल क्या होगा? = श्वः किं भविष्यति?

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्नाः

निम्नलिखितेषु वाक्येषु उचित अव्ययपदैः रिक्तपूर्तिः क्रियन्ताम्-

प्रश्न 1.
पिपीलिकाः __________ चलति।
(क) शनैः शनैः
(ख) वृथा
(ग) विना
(घ) उच्चैः
उत्तराणि:
(क) शनैः शनैः

प्रश्न 2.
__________ कोलाहलेन।
(क) बहिः
(ख) अलम्
(ग) कदापि
(घ) पुनः
उत्तराणि:
(ख) अलम्

प्रश्न 3.
कक्षायाः __________ मा गच्छ।
(क) उच्चैः
(ख) विना
(ग) बहिः
(घ) पुनः
उत्तराणि:
(ग) बहिः

प्रश्न 4.
विद्यालयस्य __________ क्रीडाक्षेत्रं अपि विद्यते।
(क) बहिः
(ख) अलम्
(ग) पुनः
(घ) अन्तः
उत्तराणि:
(घ) अन्तः

प्रश्न 5.
वृक्षस्य __________ सिंह: गर्जति।
(क) उपरि
(ख) अधः
(ग) अलम्
(घ) बहिः
उत्तराणि:
(ख) अधः

प्रश्न 6.
गृहे शिशुः __________ क्रन्दति।
(क) बहिः
(ख) अलम्
(ग) उच्चैः
(घ) पुनः
उत्तराणि:
(ग) उच्चैः

प्रश्न 7.
असत्यं __________ न ब्रूयात्।
(क) अलम्
(ख) पुनः
(ग) उच्चैः
(घ) कदापि
उत्तराणि:
(घ) कदापि

प्रश्न 8.
अयं संसारः __________ जायते विलीयते च।
(क) पुनः पुनः
(ख) अलम्
(ग) कदापि
(घ) बहिः
उत्तराणि:
(क) पुनः पुनः

प्रश्न 9.
नगरात् __________ गहनं वनं अस्ति।
(क) पुनः
(ख) बहिः
(ग) उच्चैः
(घ) नीचैः
उत्तराणि:
(ख) बहिः

प्रश्न 10.
__________ विवादेन।
(क) अधः
(ख) उच्चैः
(ग) अलम्
(घ) नीचैः
उत्तराणि:
(ग) अलम्

शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1

By going through these CBSE Class 6 Sanskrit Notes Chapter 1 शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary, Notes, word meanings, translation in Hindi, students can recall all the concepts quickly.

Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1 शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes

शब्द परिचयः 1 पाठ का परिचय

इस पाठ में अकारान्त पुंल्लिग शब्दों से परिचय कराया गया है। अकारान्त शब्द वे होते हैं, जिनके अंत में ‘अ’ आता है। यथा-‘छात्र’, ‘बालक’, ‘अश्व’, ‘राम’, ‘वृद्ध’, अध्यापक आदि। पुँल्लिग शब्दों के साथ प्रयोग में आने वाले सर्वनाम पद भी इस पाठ में आए हैं। संज्ञा, सर्वनाम तथा क्रियापद का तीनों वचनों में प्रयोग आया है।

इसके माध्यम से हम धातुओं का प्रयोग करना भी सीखेंगे। ध्यान रहे कि हिंदी में हम जिसे क्रिया कहते हैं, संस्कृत में उसी को ‘धातु’ कहते हैं। आइए, अब हम पाठ को पढ़ते हैं।

शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary

प्रस्तुत पाठ में अकारान्त पुंल्लिङ्ग शब्दों का परिचय चित्रों के माध्यम से कराया गया है। प्रत्येक शब्द के साथ उसका वाचक चित्र दिया गया है। इस पाठ में दिए गए सभी शब्द अकारान्त हैं। जिन शब्दों के अंत में ‘अ’ वर्ण आता है, उन्हें ‘अकारान्त’ शब्द कहते हैं। ‘पुंल्लिङ्ग’ का अर्थ है-पुरुष जाति के लिए प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द। जैसे-राम, श्याम, माधव, शिव आदि। पाठ में प्रयुक्त शब्द निम्नलिखित हैं

चषकः = गिलास।
शुनकः = कुत्ता।
स्यूतः = थैला।
सौचिकः = दर्जी।
बलीवर्दः = बैल।
वृद्धः – बूढ़ा।

अन्य अकारान्त पुंल्लिङ्ग शब्द –
मयूरः (मोर), गजः (हाथी), घटः (घड़ा), काकः (कौआ), दीपकः (दीया), मूषकः (चूहा), नकुलः (नेवला), शुकः (तोता), कृषक: (किसान)।
शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1.1
शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1.2
शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1.3

शब्द परिचयः 1 Word Meanings Translation in Hindi

एषः कः?
एषः चषकः।
किम् एषः बृहत्?
न, एषः लघुः।

सः कः?
सः सौचिकः।
सौचिकः किं करोति?
किं सः खेलति?
न, सः वस्त्रं सीव्यति।

शब्दार्थाः (Word Meanings) :
एषः (पुं०)-यह (this), कः-कौन (पुं०) (who), चषकः-गिलास (tumbler/cup), किम् (नपुं०)-क्या (what), बृहत्-बड़ा (large), लघुः-छोटा (small), सः (पुं०)-वह (He), सौचिकः-दर्जी (tailor), खेलति-खेलता/ खेल रहा है। (plays/is playing), कः (पुँ०)-कौन (कौन), (who/what), न नहीं (no), करोति-करता/कर रहा है (does/is doing), वस्त्रम्-कपड़ा (clothes/garment), सीव्यति-सिलता/सिल रहा है, (sews/is sewing)

सरलार्थ :  – English Translation:
यह क्या है? यह गिलास है। – What is this? This is a tumbler.
क्या यह बड़ा है? नहीं यह छोटा है। – Is it big? No, it is small.
वह कौन है? वह दर्जी है। – Who is that? He is a tailor.

संस्कृत में पूर्ण वर्तमान (present indefinite) और अपूर्ण वर्तमान (present continuous) के लिए प्रायः एक ही धातुरूप का प्रयोग किया जाता है। यथा-‘खेलति’ का अर्थ ‘खेलता है’ अथवा ‘खेल रहा है’-प्रसंगानुसार एक ही होता है।

दर्जी क्या करता है? क्या वह खेल रहा है? – What does the tailor do? Is he playing?
नहीं, वह वस्त्र सिल रहा है। – No, he is sewing a garment.

ध्यातव्यम् – इन वाक्यों में एकवचन का प्रयोग आया है।

एतौ कौ?
एतौ शुनको स्तः।
किम् एतौ गर्जतः?
न, एतौ उच्चैः बुक्कतः।

तौ कौ?
तौ बलीवौ स्तः।
किं तौ धावतः?
न, तौ क्षेत्रं कर्षतः।

शब्दार्थाः (Word Meanings) :
एतौ (पुं०)-ये दोनों (द्विव०) (these two), कौ (पुं०)-कौन (द्विव०) who (dual), स्त:-हैं (द्विव०) are (dual), शुनको (पुं०)- कुत्ते (द्विव०) two dogs, गर्जतः-गरजते हैं (द्विव०) roar (dual), उच्चैः -जोर से (loudly), बुक्कतः-भौंकते हैं/भौंक रहे हैं (द्विव०) bark (dual), तौ (पुं०)-वे दोनों (द्विव०) (those two), बलीवौ (पुं०)-दो बैल (two oxen) (dual), धावतः-दौड़ते/दौड़ रहे हैं, (द्विव०) run/are running, क्षेत्रम्-खेत (field), कर्षतः-जोतते/जोत रहे हैं, (plough/are ploughing).

सरलार्थ : – English Translation:
ये दो कौन हैं? – Who are these two?
ये दो कुत्ते हैं? – These (two) are dogs.
क्या ये गरजते हैं? – Do these roar?
नहीं, ये (दोनों) जोर से भौंकते हैं। – No, these (two) bark loudly.
वे दो कौन हैं? – Who are those two?
वे दोनों बैल हैं। – Those two are bulls.
क्या वे (दोनों) दौड़ रहे हैं? – Are these (two) running?
नहीं, वे दोनों खेत जोत रहे हैं। – No, these (two) are ploughing the field.

ध्यातव्यम् – इन वाक्यों में द्विवचन का प्रयोग आया है।

एते के?
एते स्यूताः सन्ति।
किम् एते हरितवर्णाः?
नहि, एते नीलवर्णाः सन्ति।

ते के?
ते वृद्धाः सन्ति।
किं ते गायन्ति?
नहि ते हसन्ति।

शब्दार्थाः (Word Meanings) : एते-ये (बहुवचन) (these), के-कौन/क्या (बहुवचन) who/what (plural), स्यूता:-बैग/थैले (बहुवचन) (bags), हरितवर्णाः-हरे रंग के (green coloured), नीलवर्णाः-नीले रंग के (blue coloured), ते-वे (बहुवचन) (those), गायन्ति-गाते/गा रहे हैं (sing/are singing), वृद्धाः -बूढ़े (old/elderly persons), हसन्ति -हँसते हैं/हँस रहे हैं (laugh/are laughing), नहि-नहीं (no), सन्ति-हैं (बहुवचन) (are)

सरलार्थ : – English Translation:
ये क्या हैं? – What are these?
ये बैग/थैले हैं? – These are bags.
क्या ये हरे रंग के हैं? – Are these green coloured?
नहीं, ये नीले रंग के हैं। – No, these are blue coloured.
वे कौन हैं? – Who are those?
वे वृद्ध हैं। – Those are elderly persons.
क्या वे गा रहे हैं? – Are they singing?
नहीं, वे हँस रहे हैं। – No, they are laughing?

ध्यातव्यम्-इन वाक्यों में बहुवचन का प्रयोग आया है।

हमने सीखा
अवधेयम्- संज्ञा (पुं०), सर्वनाम (पुं०) तथा क्रिया पद का रूप व प्रयोग तीनों वचनों में। यथा

शब्द परिचयः 1 Summary Notes Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 1.1

Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book Solutions सन्धि-प्रकरणम्

We have given detailed NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book सन्धि-प्रकरणम् Questions and Answers come in handy for quickly completing your homework.

Sanskrit Vyakaran Class 8 Solutions सन्धि-प्रकरणम्

सन्धि – अत्यन्त समीपवर्ती दो वर्गों के मेल से जो परिवर्तन अथवा विकार आता है, उसे सन्धि कहते हैं (परः सन्निकर्षः संहिता) हिमालयः = हिम + आलयः। इस उदाहरण में अ + आ इन वर्गों का मेल होकर आ रूप बना। इसे ही सन्धि कहते हैं।

सन्धि तीन प्रकार की है-स्वर सन्धि, व्यंजन सन्धि और विसर्ग सन्धि।

स्वर सन्धि-एक स्वर के साथ दूसरे स्वर के मेल से जो परिवर्तन होता है उसे स्वर सन्धि कहते हैं। स्वर सन्धि के मुख्य भेद निम्नलिखित हैं-

1. दीर्घसन्धिः
दीर्घसन्धि के अनेक प्रकार होते हैं-
प्रथम-प्रकार: – पूर्वपद के अन्त के ‘अ’ के साथ उत्तरपद के आरम्भ के ‘अ’ का मेल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ‘आ’ हो जाता है-
उदाहरणानि-

  • राम + अयनम् = रामायणम्
  • शब्द + अर्थौ = शब्दार्थों
  • नर + अधमः = नराधमः
  • पुरुष + अर्थः = पुरुषार्थः
  • कृष्ण + अर्जुनौ = कृष्णार्जुनौ

द्वितीय-प्रकारः – पूर्वपद के अन्त के ‘अ’ के साथ उत्तरपद के आरम्भ के ‘आ’ का मेल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ‘आ’ हो जाता है-
उदाहरणानि-

  • राम + आज्ञा = रामाज्ञा
  • धर्म + आस्था = धर्मास्था
  • धन + आदेशः = धनादेशः
  • परम + आचार्यः = परमाचार्यः
  • वर्ष + आगमः = वर्षागमः

तृतीय-प्रकार: – पूर्वपद के अन्त के ‘आ’ के साथ उत्तरपद के आरम्भ के ‘अ’ का मेल होने से दोनों के स्थान पर ‘आ’ हो जाता है-
उदाहरणानि-

  • वर्षा + अन्तः = वर्षान्तः
  • रमा + अङ्गानि = रमाङ्गानि
  • कृपा + अस्ति = कृपास्ति
  • दया + अर्थी = दयार्थी
  • लता + अपि = लतापि

चतुर्थ-प्रकार: – पूर्वपद के अन्त के ‘आ’ के साथ उत्तरपद के आरम्भ के ‘आ’ का मेल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ‘आ’ हो जाता है-
उदाहरणानि-

  • सुधा + आकरः = सुधाकरः
  • महा + आशयः = महाशयः
  • दया + आनन्दः = दयानन्दः
  • प्रिया + आदेशः = प्रियादेशः
  • सुरा + आलयः = सुरालयः

इसी तरह ह्रस्व अथवा दीर्घ इकार/ईकार के साथ ह्रस्व अथवा दीर्घ इकार/ईकार के मेल से दोनों के स्थान एक दीर्घ ईकार (ई) हो जाता है।
उदाहरणानि-
इ + इ

  • गिरि + इन्द्रः = गिरीन्द्रः
  • कपि + इच्छा = कपीच्छा
  • अभि + इष्टम् = अभीष्टम्
  • प्रति + इच्छति = प्रतीच्छति
  • इति + इयम् = इतीयम्

इ + ई

  • मुक्ति + ईशः = मुक्तीशः
  • रति + ईश्वरः = रतीश्वरः
  • अति + ईतः = अतीतः
  • परि + ईक्षा = परीक्षा
  • मुनि + ईहा = मुनीहा

ई + इ

  • नदी + इव = नदीव
  • लक्ष्मी + इन्द्रः = लक्ष्मीन्द्रः
  • सखी + इति = सखीति
  • महती + इच्छा = महतीच्छा
  • देवी + इष्टम् = देवीष्टम्

ई + ई

  • नदी + ईशः = नदीशः
  • लक्ष्मी + ईश्वरः = लक्ष्मीश्वरः
  • सखी + ईर्ष्या = सखीर्ष्या
  • महती + ईतिः = महतीतिः
  • देवी + ईहा = देवीहा

उकार / ऊकार के साथ उकार / ऊकार का मेल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ‘ऊ’ वर्ण हो जाता है।
उदाहरणानि-
उ + उ

  • वटु + उपरि = वटूपरि
  • भानु + उदयः = भानूदयः
  • पृथु + उदकः = पृथूदकः
  • लघु + उक्तिः = लघूक्तिः
  • साधु + उत्सवः = साधूत्सवः

उ + ऊ

  • लघु + ऊर्जः = लघूर्जः
  • सिन्धु + ऊर्मिः = सिन्धूमिः
  • साधु + ऊचुः = साधूचुः
  • मधु + ऊरुः = मधूरुः
  • बहु + ऊर्णा = बहूर्णा

ऊ + उ

  • भू + उपरि = भूपरि
  • हिन्दू + उदयः = हिन्दूदयः
  • कर्कन्धू + उदकः = कर्कन्धूदकः
  • चमू + उक्तिः = चमूक्तिः
  • वधू + उत्सवः = वधूत्सवः

ऊ + ऊ

  • चमू + ऊर्जः = चमूर्जः
  • वधू + ऊरुः = वधूरुः
  • भू + ऊर्ध्वम् = भूर्ध्वम्
  • चमू + ऊर्ध्वम् = चमूर्ध्वम्
  • हिन्दू + ऊर्जः = हिन्दूर्जः

ऋकार / ऋकार का ऋ / ऋकार से मेल होने पर ऋकार हो जाता है-
उदाहरणानि-

  • पितृ + ऋणम् = पितॄणम्
  • भ्रातृ + ऋणम् = भ्रातृणम्
  • कर्तृ + ऋणम् = कर्तृणम्
  • मातृ + ऋणम् = मातृणम्
  • दातृ + ऋणम् = दातृणम्
  • भर्तृ + ऋणम् = भर्तृणम्

2. गुणसन्धिः
(i) अ + इ = ए
सुर + इन्द्रः = सुरेन्द्रः

(ii) अ + ई = ए
गण + ईशः = गणेशः

(iii) आ + इ = ए
महा + इन्द्रः = महेन्द्रः

(iv) आ + ई = ए
महा + ईशः = महेशः

(v) अ + उ = ओ
सूर्य + उदयः = सूर्योदयः

(vi) अ + ऊ = ओ
जल + ऊर्मिः = जलोमिः

(vii) आ + उ = ओ
गङ्गा + उदकम् = गङ्गोदकम्

(viii) आ + ऊ = ओ
गङ्गा + ऊर्मयः = गङ्गोर्मयः

(ix) अ + ऋ = अर्
देव + ऋषिः = देवर्षिः

(x) आ + ऋ = अर्
महा + ऋषिः = महर्षिः

(xi) अ + लृ = अल्
तव + लृकारः = तवल्कारः

(xii) आ + लृ = अल्
माला + लृकारः = मालल्कारः

3. वृद्धिसन्धिः
(i) अ + ए = ऐ
तव + एव = तवैव

(ii) अ + ऐ = ऐ
मत + ऐक्यम् = मतैक्यम्

(iii) आ + ए = ऐ
तथा + एव = तथैव

(iv) आ + ऐ = ऐ
तथा + ऐक्यम् = तथैक्यम्

(v) अ + ओ = औ
जन + ओघः = जनौघः

(vi) आ + ओ = औ
मम + औरसः = ममौरसः

(vii) अ + औ = औ
महा + औषधम् = महौषधम्

(viii) आ + औ = औ
महा + औदार्यम् = महौदार्यम्

4. यण्सन्धिः
(i) इ + अन्य स्वर = य् + अन्य स्वर
यदि + अपि = यद्यपि

(ii) ई + अन्य स्वर = य् + अन्य स्वर
देवी + उवाच = देव्युवाच

(iii) उ + अन्य स्वर = व् + अन्य स्वर
अनु + अयः = अन्वयः

(iv) ऊ + अन्य स्वर = व् + अन्य स्वर
वधू + आदेशः = वध्वादेशः

(v) ऋ + अन्य स्वर = र् + अन्य स्वर
मातृ + अंशः = मात्रंशः

(vi) लृ + अन्य स्वर = ल् + अन्य स्वर
लृ + आकृतिः = लाकृतिः

5. अयादिसन्धिः
(i) ए + कोई स्वर = अय् + कोई स्वर
हरे + ए = हरये

(ii) ऐ + कोई स्वर = आय् + कोई स्वर
नै + अकः = नायकः

(iii) ओ + कोई स्वर = अव् + कोई स्वर
भो + अति = भवति

(iv) औ + कोई स्वर = आव् + कोई स्वर
नौ + इकः = नाविकः

6. पूर्वरूपसन्धिः
पदान्त ए + अ = ए + 0(ऽ) = एऽ
उदाहरणम्- हरे + अव = हरेऽव

7. पररूपसन्धिः
अकारान्त उपसर्ग (प्र, उप, अव) + ए / ओ = 0 + ए / ओ = ए / ओ
उदाहरणम्-

  • प्र + एषणम् = प्रेषणम्
  • उप + ओषति = उपोषति
  • अव + ओषति = अवोषति

8. प्रकृतिभावसन्धिः (सन्धि-निषेध)
उदाहरणानि-

  • कवी + इमौ = कवी इमौ
  • विष्णू + एतौ = विष्णू एतौ
  • लते + एते = लते एते

पूर्वपद में द्विवचन के ई, ऊ, ए होने पर ऐसा होता है।

स्वर-सन्धि तालिका
1. दीर्घ – आ, ई, ऊ, ऋ नदी + ईश्वरः = नदीश्वरः
2. गुण – ए, ओ, अर्, अल् रमा + ईशः = रमेशः
3. वृद्धि – ऐ, औ महा + औदार्यम् = महौदार्यम्
4. यण – य्, र, ल, व् हरि + आनन्दः = हर्यानन्दः
5. अयादि – अय्, आय, अव्, आव् नै + अकः = नायकः
6. पूर्वरूप – परस्वर लोप धर्मे + अस्मिन् = धर्मेऽस्मिन्
7. पररूप – पूर्वस्वर लोप प्र + एषयति = प्रेषयति
8. प्रकृतिभाव – निषेध कवी + इमौ = कवी इमौ

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्नाः

रेखाङ्कितपदानां सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत-

प्रश्न 1.
तत्र रमणीयं भो + अनं अस्ति।
(क) भोअनं
(ख) भोनं
(ग) भवनं
(घ) भावनं
उत्तराणि:
(ग) भवनं

प्रश्न 2.
सभायाम् कवी आगतौ।
(क) कवि + आगतौ
(ख) कवि + अगतौ
(ग) कवी + अगतौ
(घ) कवी + आगतौ
उत्तराणि:
(घ) कवी + आगतौ

प्रश्न 3.
अस्माकं कक्षायाः नायकः पुरुः अस्ति।
(क) नाय + अकः
(ख) नै + अकः
(ग) नाय् + अकः
(घ) ने + अक:
उत्तराणि:
(ख) नै + अक:

प्रश्न 4.
वनेषु बहवः मुनीन्द्राः वसन्ति।
(क) मुनि + इन्द्राः
(ख) मुनी + इन्द्राः
(ग) मुनि + ईन्द्राः
(घ) मुनि + न्द्राः
उत्तराणि:
(क) मुनि + इन्द्राः

प्रश्न 5.
हरिद्वारे अनेके देव + आलयाः सन्ति।
(क) देवलयाः
(ख) देवालयाः
(ग) देवालयः
(घ) देवालया
उत्तराणि:
(ख) देवालयाः

प्रश्न 6.
सूर्य + उदये तमः नश्यति।
(क) सूर्योदये
(ख) सूर्युदये
(ग) सूर्योदये
(घ) सूदये
उत्तराणि:
(क) सूर्योदये

प्रश्न 7.
यथा रोचते तथा + एव कुरुत।
(क) तथोव
(ख) तथैव
(ग) तथेव
(घ) तथौव
उत्तराणि:
(ख) तथैव

प्रश्न 8.
द्वारे को + अपि तिष्ठति।
(क) कोअपि
(ख) कोपि
(ग) कायपि
(घ) कोऽपि
उत्तराणि:
(घ) कोऽपि

प्रश्न 9.
साधवः त्यागेऽपि सुखं लभन्ते।
(क) त्यागे + पि
(ख) त्यागै + अपि
(ग) त्यागे + अपि
(घ) त्याग + अपि
उत्तराणि:
(ग) त्यागे + अपि

प्रश्न 10.
‘इत्युक्ति’ इत्यत्र कः सन्धिः?
(क) गुण सन्धि
(ख) वृद्धि सन्धि
(ग) यण् सन्धि
(घ) दीर्घ सन्धि
उत्तराणि:
(ग) यण् सन्धिः

प्रश्न 11.
‘नयनं’ इति पदे कः सन्धिः?
(क) अयादि सन्धिः
(ख) पररूप सन्धिः
(ग) गुण सन्धिः
(घ) प्रकृतिभाव सन्धि
उत्तराणि:
(क) अयादि सन्धि।

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Extra Questions Biology Chapter 22

Here we are providing Class 11 Biology Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration. Important Questions for Class 11 Biology are the best resource for students which helps in Class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 22 Important Extra Questions Chemical Coordination and Integration

Chemical Coordination and Integration Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is an endocrine gland?
Answer:
The gland without duct, which secretes hormones, is called the endocrine gland.

Question 2.
What are hormones?
Answer:
The endocrine glands secrete chemical substances which affect various body activities in target organs, by reaching there through blood.

Question 3.
Expand the term BMR.
Answer:
Basal Metabolic Rate.

Question 4.
Which hormone is responsible for the metamorphosis of tadpoles into adult frogs?
Answer:
The hormone thyroxine secreted by the thyroid gland is responsible for the metamorphosis of tadpoles into adult frogs.

Question 5.
What is castration?
Answer:
The surgical removal of the testis is called castration.

Question 6.
What is adrenal virilism?
Answer:
The hypersecretion of sex corticoids causes the development of external male characters in females, called adrenal virilism.

Question 7.
What condition is caused due to failure of production of [ testosterone?
Answer:
Eunuchoidism.

Question 8.
What function do glucagons have?
Answer:
It causes the formation of glucose from the breakdown of glycogen and from amino acids.

Question 9.
Name the gland which functions as both the endocrine and exocrine?
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 10.
Name the hormone which is antidiuretic in its effect.
Answer:
Vasopressin (ADH) secreted by the posterior pituitary.

Question 11.
Why pituitary is called, “master gland”?
Answer:
Because it controls most of the other endocrine glands.

Question 12.
How are pheromones different from hormones?
Answer:
Hormones affect the same individual but pheromones affect another individual of the community.

Question 13.
Give one example of the effect of pheromones in Insects.
Answer:
Pheromones from female moths attract males from 3 – 4 km distance.

Question 14.
How is iodine important to our body?
Answer:
Iodine is required for thyroxine secretion. Deficiency of iodine leads to goiter.

Question 15.
Name the gland which is both exocrine and endocrine.
Answer:
Pancreas.

Question 16.
Write any two hormones which are chemically different.
Answer:
Insulin hormone is made of proteins and testosterone is made of steroids.

Question 17.
Write the full form of ACTH. What is its role?
Answer:
Andreno-Cortico-Trophic Hormone.
ACTH stimulates the secretion of the adrenal cortex.

Question 18.
Write names and sources of hormones regulating the plasma Ca+ level.
Answer:
Parathormone produced by parathyroids.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Work out the contrast between diabetes Mellitus and diabetes insipidus.
Answer:
Diabetes Mellitus: It is the disorder in which blood sugar is present well beyond the renal threshold, consequently glucose is present in urine. It is caused due to deficiency of insulin hormone.

Diabetes insipidus: It is the disorder in which hypotonic urine is excessively excreted. It is caused by the deficiency of the secretion of the ADH hormone.

Question 2.
Differentiate between estrogen and progesterone.
Answer:

Estrogen Progesterone
(1) It is secreted by the ovary. (1) It is secreted by the Corpuslutem of the ovary.
(2) It acts on and develops female secondary organs. (2) It maintains endometrium during pregnancy.

Question 3.
Differentiate the action of insulin and glucagon.
Answer:

Insulin Glucagon
(1) It is secreted by beta cells of islet of Langerhans of the pancreas. (1) It is secreted by alpha cells of islet of Langerhans of the pancreas
(2) It converts soluble glucose into insoluble glycogen. (2) It converts glycogen into glucose.

Question 4.
Name and state briefly the functions of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
Mainly the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are:

  1. Glucocorticoids: These regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
  2. Mineralocorticoids: These maintain the sodium, potassium level in the blood.
  3. Sex corticoids: These stimulate the development of external sex characters like male patterns of body hair distribution. Androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are sex corticoids.

Question 5.
Differentiate between hormones and pheromones.
Answer:

Hormones Pheromones
1. These are the chemicals released by the endocrine glands. 1. These are the chemicals released by exocrine glands.
2. These are the result of biological changes in the body. 2. These are the result of behavioral and developmental changes.
3. Biological changes are the manifestation of the individual self. 3. Changes are after perception of these by the members of the same species.
4. These are released into the bloodstream 4. These are released into the environment.

Question 6.
Describe different disorders caused by thyroid hormone imbalance.
Answer:
Other than simple goiter, the main thyroid hormone imbalances are:

  1. Cretinism: Hypoactivity of thyroxine in children causes poor physical and mental development, low metabolism. The affected individual is potbellied and pigeon-chested.
  2. Myxedema: Hypoactivity of thyroxine in adults causes poor physical and mental development, low metabolism, puffy appearance, and reproductive failure.
  3. Grave’s disease: (exophthalmic goiter) Hyperactivity of thyronine causes increased metabolism, bulging of eyeballs, emaciation, and restlessness.

Question 7.
State different functions of thyroid hormones.
Answer:

  1. These affect the metabolism.
  2. These maintain BMR (Basal Metabolic Rate).
  3. These affect physical growth.
  4. These affect the development of mental faculties.
  5. These affect the process of differentiation.
  6. Affect metamorphosis in tadpoles.

Question 8.
State chief characteristics of the hormones.
Answer:

  1. The effect produced is marked even in minute concentrations.
  2. Directly sent to target organs through blood circulations.
  3. Storage is not possible.
  4. The target organ is distantly placed from the organ in which these are produced.
  5. These are secreted as a response to some sort of stimulus.
  6. Chemicals are biological in origin, i.e., biogenic, e.g., amine, peptides, steroids, etc.

Question 9.
Differentiate between hormones and enzymes.
Answer:

Hormones Enzymes
1. Produced by gland distant from target organ. 1. Produced at the site of action.
2. Maybe steroids, amines, or peptides. 2. Proteinaceous in nature.
3. Consumed during the action. 3. Not used up during the auction.
4. Do not catalyze the specific reaction. 4. Catalyses specific reaction.
5. Affect the activity of enzymes 5. Does not affect the activity of hormone production.

Question 10.
Describe in brief different disorders caused by the adrenal cortex.
Answer:
Different disorders related to the adrenal cortex are:

  1. Addison’s disease: Atrophy or destruction of adrenal cortex causes failure of secretion of minerals corticoids and glucocorticoids leads to low blood Na+, high plasma K+ and urinary Na+, bronze skin pigmentation.
  2. Cushing’s syndrome: Increased production of cortical causes low’ plasma K+, high plasma Na+, rise in blood pressure and volume.
  3. Aldosteronism: Hyperactivity of aldosterone cause Na+ and K+ conditions like Cushing’s syndrome, muscular weakness.
  4. Adrenal virilism: Hypersecretion of sex corticoids causes the development of male-type external features in female-like beard and mustache, low pitch male voice, and mensural cessation.

Question 11.
Why do you suppose the brain goes to the trouble of synthesizing releasing hormones, rather than simply directing the production of the pituitary hormones immediately?
Answer:
Hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland are actually synthesized by the neurons in the hypothalamus and stored in their axon ends in the posterior lobe for release, when required.

The pituitary was called the Master endocrine gland, because of the number of hormones it produces and the control it exercises over other endocrine glands. However, it itself is under control of the releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus of the brain. Thus there is a chain of disorders, the hypothalamus directs the pituitary output, which controls the secretion of hormones by other endocrine glands.

Question 12.
Which endocrine gland is controlled by the secretion of other endocrine glands?
Answer:
The thyroid gland is the only endocrine gland that is controlled by the secretion of another endocrine gland. It stores its secretary product in large quantity.

Homopothalamus, in response to some external stimulus, produces a thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) for the secretion of the thyrotrophic hormone. The thyrotropin-releasing hormone stimulates the anterior pituitary lobe to secrete thyrotrophic hormone. The latter, in turn, stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, thereby restoring the normal blood- thyroxine level.

Question 13.
How is the communication among the parts of an organism accomplished?
Answer:
The endocrine system functions in a hierarchical manner. The hypothalamus produces releasing or inhibiting hormones, which travel in neurosecretory cells to the anterior pituitary, where they control the production of its hormones.

Hypothalamus also produces two hormones which are stored in and released from the posterior pituitary level. Many hormones are regulated by negative feedback controls. In such a Control, an excess of the hormone or the product of hormone-induced response suppresses the synthesis or release of that hormone until the level returns to normal.

In positive feedback control, the hormone causes an event or process that increases the production of this hormone. Thyroid and steroid are lipid-soluble hormones and readily pass through the plasma membrane of a target cell into the cytoplasm.

There they bind to the specific intracellular receptors and binds to specific regulatory sites on the chromosomes. The binding alters proteins, forming a complex that enters the nucleus the pattern of gene expression, initiating the transcription of some genes (DNA) while repressing the transcription of others. This results in the production of specific RNA, translation products, proteins, and enzymes. In this way communication among the parts of an organism accomplished.

Question 14.
Discuss the role of the hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining physiological processes.
Answer:
The hypothalamic-pituitary axis consists of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is a part of the brain and consists of several masses of grey matter called Hypothalamic nuclei. These are located in the white matter in the floor of the third cerebral vesicle of the brain; neurons of these hypothalamic nuclei control the pituitary gland.

The pituitary gland is a small pea-shaped gland situated below the hypothalamus and connected to the brain by a stalk. The pituitary is divided into anterior, posterior, and intermediate lobes. It secretes a number of hormones.

Question 15.
Why is the endocrine system considered a chemical extension of the nervous system?
Answer:
The human endocrine system and functioning of their hormones, including their role as chemical messenger and regulators. Also, it is related to the hypothalamic-hyperphysical axis and feedback controlling mechanism. These two systems operate in a co-ordinate way on many occasions. Many important functioning of the endocrine system is under the control of the nervous system. Hence the endocrine system is considered as a chemical extension.

Question 16.
What are the seven principal hormones produced by the anterior pituitary? What function does each serve?
Answer:

Hormone Function
1. Somatotropin or growth hormone 1. It stimulates body growth.
2. Thyrotropin or thyroid-stimulating hormone. 2. Release of thyroid hormones.
3. Corticotropin or Adreno-corticotropin hormone 3. Release of gluco-corticoids and mineralo corticoids hormones of adrenal cortex.
4. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). 4. Growth of ovarian follicle and estrogens secretions in females and spermatogenesis in males.
5. Prolactin Hormone 5. Milk secretion from mammary glands.
6. Luteinizing hormone (LH) 6. It stimulates the ovaries to secrete the female sex hormone- progesterone.
7. Melanocyte -stimulating hormone (MSH) 7. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone. The target organ is skin pigment cells.

Question 17.
What hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? What function do they serve? Where are these hormones actually produced? How these hormones are transported to the region from which they are released?
Answer:
1. Vasopressin: Released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary. It reduces the volume of urine by increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine, collecting tubules, and collection ducts in the kidney, hence called Antidiuretic hormone.

2. Oxytocin: It is released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to the distension of the uterus by the full-term fetus.

It helps in childbirth. It is also known as milk ejection hormone.

Question 18.
What are the examples of antagonistic hormones associated with basal metabolism? How does each pair function?
Answer:
Para hormone (PTH) and thyroid hormone calcitonin act agonistically to regulate the calcium phosphorous balance in the blood. The release of parathormone increases the blood calcium to normal by drawing calcium from the bones into the plasma, by increasing calcium absorption in the digestive tract, and by reducing loss of calcium in the urine. It lowers calcium-phosphorus balance and is necessary for the growth of bones and teeth.

Calcium is vital for blood clotting, muscle tone, and for normal nervous activity. It is also needed for the activities of many enzymes.

Question 19.
What two hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla? What non-hormonal function do they serve?
Answer:
The hormone Adrenaline and Nor-adrenaline are secreted by the adrenal medulla.
Function: These hormones act on organs and tissues supplied by sympathetic fibers and produce effects like those of sympathetic stimulation.

Question 20.
From what chemical compounds are ail steroid hormones derived? Mention at least two examples of steroidal hormones.
Answer:
The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the adrenal gland. It secretes steroidal hormones. Examples, Glucocorticoids, and mineralocorticoids.

The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones through the modification of cholesterol.

Question 21.
In general, how the steroid hormones affect changes in their target cells?
Answer:
Steroid hormones have minor differences, the various hormones have strikingly different functions. They bind to different receptors in the target cell and affect sets of chemical reactions.

Cortical steroids can be grouped into three functional categories.

  1. Mineralocorticoids: They regulate saltwater balance through their effect on kidney and blood pressure.
  2. Glucocorticoids: They regulate carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism.
  3. Ganado corticoids: It is a sex hormone and helps chemically and functionally to the sex.

Question 22.
What hormones are produced when the body’s blood glucose levels drop below normal? How do these hormones act to return the level to normal? What hormone is produced when the body’s blood glucose levels become elevated? How does this hormone act to return the level to normal?
Answer:
B-cells secrete insulin.
T-cells secrete somatostatin.

These two hormones regulate the level of glucose in the blood:

  1. When the blood glucose level becomes excessive, insulin acts on the three target tissues: liver, muscle, and adipose cells. Insulin causes the liver to take up glucose and convert it into glycogen and fat. It facilitates the liver to take up glucose in the muscle and adipose cells causing the levels of the glucose in the blood lowered.
  2. Somatostatin: acts as a paracrine, to inhibit the secretion of glycogen and insulin, decreases secretion, mortality, and absorption in the digestive tract.

Question 23.
What is diabetes? What is the ultimate hormonal deficiency in these diseases? How does this affect an individual’s ability to use glucose? What are some possible treatments for adult-onset diabetes?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is a group of disorders that lead to an increase in the level of glucose in the blood. The deficiency of insulin hormone causes diabetes mellitus.

In this disease, the patient cannot use or store glucose. Thus, glucose accumulates in the blood from where it is excreted by kidneys in die urine.

Glucose increases the osmotic pressure of urine, causing loss of water from the body in urine. This produces excessive thirst. Degradation of fats increases, producing ketone bodies such as acetoacetate and acetone. Blood cholesterol rises, injuries may change into gangrenes. Healing power is ^ impaired leading to the damage of tissues.

A diabetic person has blurred vision and is weak, tired, irritable, nauseated, and underweight. In extreme cases, the patient may pass into a coma and die.

Treatment: Administration of insulin gives relief by lowering blood glucose levels.
Diabetes caused by insufficient insulin production is called Insulin-dependent diabetes.
Diabetes due to a person’s ability to use insulin is termed as insulin ) independent diabetes. It is more common than insulin-dependent diabetes.
Diabetes mellitus may also be caused by the failure of insulin to move glucose from the blood into the cells for storage or consumption.

This is due to the defective insulin receptors or cell surfaces, starving the cells of glucose, or to an abnormality in pancreatic protein amylin, which regulates insulin’s activity.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What are thyroids? Describe the disorders of thyroids hor¬mones.
Answer:
The thyroid gland is situated in the neck close to the trachea in human beings. It consists of two elongated oval lobes joined together by a narrow band called ISTHMUS. It highly vascular organ and contains many- spherical or oval sac-like follicles.

Cells of the follicle secrete jelly-like semi-fluid called Colloid of Thyroid stored in the lumen of the follicle. This contains iodinated forms of an amino acid called THYRONINE. When required, two thyroid hormones, THYROXINE, and TRIIODOTHYRONINE are released from the colloid to the blood.
Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Extra Questions Biology 1
(a) and (b) Thyroid gland

Disorders:

  1. Failure of the thyroid from infancy or childhood causes a disease called cretinism. In it, there is slow body growth and mental development. There is also a low metabolic rate.
  2. The deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults produces Myxedema. The patient shows a puffy appearance and lacks intelligence, lateness, and initiative. There is also a low metabolic rate.
  3. The deficiency of iodine produces enlargement of thyroids causing Iodine Deficiency to Goitre.
  4. Some thyroid enlargement is accompanied by a bulging of the eyeball.
    The disease is called Grave’s Disease or Exophthalami Goitre. The excessive amount of thyroid is secreted. ,

Question 2.
Give an account of the primary male sex organ in man and mention briefly the functions of the hormone testosterone.
Answer:
The testis is the primary sex organ. There are pair of tests. Each testis is covered by a thick connective tissue sheath, Tunica Albuginea. Both testes normally remain suspended in a pouch called Scrotum outside the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of many small and highly convoluted tubules, called seminiferous tubules, constituting its spermatogenic tissue.

Cells lining the tubules give rise to spermatozoa, which are released into the lumen of the tubule. These are present groups of polyhedral cells.

Interstitial cells of Leydig in the connective tissue around the seminiferous tubules. This constitutes the endocrine tissue of the testis. These cells secrete Testosterone into the blood. Somniferous tubules unite to form a large number of straight tubules, which open into irregular cavities in the posterior part of the testis. The vasa efferentia arise from these cavities and conduct spermatozoa out from the testis.

Functions of Testosterone:

  1. It stimulates the growth and development of male secondary sex organs (prostate, seminal vesicles, and penis).
  2. It stimulates and maintains the normal function of secondary sex organs in reproduction.
  3. It also stimulates and maintains the development of external male characters such as beards, mustaches, and low-pitch male voices in males and combs and wattles in cock.
  4. It also stimulates the formation of sperms in the testes.
  5. It promotes the growth of many body tissues including bones and muscles.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Extra Questions Biology 2
T.S. of testis of an adult man

Question 3.
Distinguish between
(a) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
Answer:
Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone:

Stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone
(i) It stimulates the testes in the male to produce sperms. (i) It stimulates the testes to secrete the male sex hormone.
(ii) It stimulates the ovaries in the female to produce ova. (ii) It stimulates the ovaries to secrete the female sex hormone- progesterone.

(b) Somatostatin and somatomedin
Answer:
Somatostatin and somatomedin:

Somatostatin Somatomedin
(i) It is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary. (i) It is secreted by the hypothalamus.
(ii) It stimulates body growth (ii) It inhibits the secretion of the growth hormone from the anterior pituitary.

(c) Vasopressin and Oxytocin
Answer:
Vasopressin and Oxytocin:

Vasopressin Oxytocin
(i) Vasopressin is released from the axon terminal of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to the rise in blood osmotic pressure caused by the loss of water from the body. (i) Oxytocin is released from the axon terminals of hypothalamic neurons into the blood in the posterior lobe of the pituitary due to distension of the uterus by the full-term fetus or due to the sucking of the breast by an infant.
(ii) It reduces the volume of urine by increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine in the distal convoluted tubules, collecting tubules, and collection ducts in the kidney, hence called Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). (ii) It helps in childbirth by causing uterine contractions at the end of pregnancy, hence called birth hormones.
(iii) It increases arterial blood pressure by causing constriction or narrowing of arterioles. (iii) It causes the contractions of the mammary gland and muscles that help in the flow of stored milk from the mammary gland to the mouth of the sucking infant, hence called milk ejection hormone.

(d) Estrogen and progesterone
Answer:
Estrogens and Progesterone:

Estrogens Progesterone
(i) These are secreted by the cells of maturing Grrafian follicle. (i) Corpus luteum and placenta secrete progesterone.
(ii) Estrogen stimulates growth, maturation, and functions of female secondary sex organs at puberty. (ii) Progesterone brings about most of the pregnancy changes such as uterine growth, attach¬ment of the embryo to the uterine wall, placenta formation.
(iii) These also develop and maintain external female sex characters like the high pitch female voice and the female pattern of body hair distribution. (iii) No such action.

(e) Glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids
Answer:
Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids:

Glucocorticoids Mineralocorticoids
(i) Glucocorticoids such as cortisols regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. (i) Mineralocorticoids such as Aldosterones regulate the metabolism of sodium and potassium.
(ii) These are secreted from the middle cellular layer (ZONA Fasciculate) of the adrenal cortex

(f) Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus:

Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus
(i) It is due to failure of insulin secretion. (i) It is due to the failure of secretion of vasopressin.
(ii) The blood sugar is abnormally high and the glucose appears in the urine. (ii) The blood sugar is normal and no glucose appears in the urine.
(iii) There are high blood cholesterol and ketone body formation. (iii) There is no such phenomenon.

(g) Exophthalamia goiter and iodine deficiency goiter
Answer:
Exophthalmic Goitre and Iodine Deficiency goiter:

Exophthalmic Goitre Iodine Deficiency goiter
(i) It is accompanied by a bulging of eyeballs, i.e., exophthalmos. (i) It is accompanied by cretinism in children and myxedema in adults.
(ii) The thyroid is overactive and secretes an excessive amount of thyroid hormones. (ii) The dietary deficiency of iodine causes the deficiency of thyroid hormones.

(h) Cretinism and dwarfism.
Answer:
Cretinism and dwarfism:

Cretinism Dwarfism
(i) It is due to over secretion of so gonadotropin from childhood. (i) It is due to the failure of secretion of somatotropin from an early age.
(ii) There is an abnormal elongation of all long bones. (ii) There is stoppage of growth of long bones and of the body prematurely making the patient dwarf

Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book Solutions वर्णविचारः

We have given detailed NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Grammar Book वर्णविचारः Questions and Answers come in handy for quickly completing your homework.

Sanskrit Vyakaran Class 8 Solutions वर्णविचारः

1. संस्कृत भाषा
‘सम्’ उपसर्ग पूर्वक कृ धातु से क्त प्रत्यय होने पर संस्कृत शब्द बनता है जिसका अर्थ है वह भाषा जो पूर्णतया नियमबद्ध हो, यही कारण है कि आज के युग में संगणक पर जो भाषा खरी उतरती है वह एकमात्र संस्कृत भाषा है। महर्षि पाणिनि ने अष्टाध्यायी के सूत्रों के माध्यम से इसके समस्त नियमों को दर्शाया है बाद में महर्षि कात्यायन (वररुचि) तथा महर्षि पतञ्जलि ने क्रमशः वार्तिक और भाष्य के माध्यम से उसे सुसमृद्ध किया है। संस्कृत विश्व की प्राचीनतम भाषा है। संसार का प्राचीनतम साहित्य ऋग्वेद वैदिक संस्कृत में ही रचा गया है। रामायण तथा महाभारत आदि ग्रन्थ लौकिक संस्कृत में रचे गए हैं। महर्षि वाल्मीकि को आदिकवि माना जाता है और उनकी रामायण को आदिकाव्य माना जाता है। संस्कृत भाषा के व्याकरण को जानने के लिए सबसे पहले उसके वर्णों/अक्षरों को जानना आवश्यक है। इसीलिए हम संस्कृत व्याकरण का . आरम्भ संस्कृत के वर्णों से कर रहे हैं।

2. वर्णमाला
देववाणी संस्कृत भाषा के मूल में भगवान् शिव के डमरू की ध्वनि से उत्पन्न अइउण् इत्यादि चौदह शिवसूत्र हैं जो संस्कृत के विशेष उद्देश्य के लिए व्यवस्थित वर्णमाला के स्वरूप का बोध कराते हैं। वर्णों के समूह को वर्णमाला कहते हैं। रोमन भाषा में Alpha और Beta पहले वर्ण होने के कारण वर्णमाला के लिए Alphabets शब्द का प्रयोग होता है।

वर्ण / अक्षर
मुख से उच्चरित उस छोटी से छोटी ध्वनि को वर्ण कहते हैं, जिसके फिर से टुकड़े न किए जा सकें। इसीलिए इन्हें अक्षर भी कहते हैं। इन्हें लिखने में जो चिह्न प्रयोग किए जाते हैं वे अक्षर कहलाते हैं।
उदाहरण – अ, इ, उ, क्, त्, प् आदि वर्ण हैं।

वर्ण भेद
वर्णों के निम्नलिखित भेद हैं-

  1. स्वर
  2. व्यञ्जन
  3. अयोगवाह

स्वर / अच्
जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण किसी दूसरे वर्ण की सहायता के बिना ही होता है, उन वर्णों को स्वर या अच् कहते हैं। शिवसूत्रों के अनुसार अच् निम्नलिखित हैं-

  1. अ, इ, उ (अइउण्)
  2. ऋ, ल (ऋलुक्)
  3. ए, ओ (एओङ्)
  4. ऐ, औ (ऐऔच्)

इन वर्गों के ह्रस्व, दीर्घ और प्लुत तीन-तीन प्रकार हैं वे भी वर्गों में गिने जाते हैं। सामान्यतः ह्रस्व तथा दीर्घ स्वर तेरह हैं। यथा-अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ, ऋ, ऋ, लु, ए, ऐ, ओ, औ = 13

इनमें 9 प्लुत वर्णों को (अ ३, इ ३, उ ३, ऋ ३, लु ३, ए ३, ऐ ३, ओ ३, औ ३) सम्मिलित कर लिया जाए तो स्वरों की कुल संख्या 22 हो जाती है।

स्वरों के भेद-हस्व, दीर्घ, प्लुत
उच्चारण की दृष्टि से अ, इ, उ, ऋ, लु इन पांच वर्षों के उच्चारण में जो समय लगता है उसे एक मात्रा माना जाता है। इन्हें ह्रस्व स्वर कहा जाता है। लु को छोड़कर शेष चार (अ, इ, उ, ऋ) को बोलते समय दुगुना समय लगाया जाए तो यही ह्रस्व स्वर दीर्घ हो जाते हैं। आ, ई, ऊ, ऋ दीर्घ स्वर हैं। ए, ओ, ऐ, औ भी दीर्घ स्वर हैं क्योंकि इनके उच्चारण में भी दो मात्राओं का समय लगता है। ये मूल स्वरों (अ, इ, उ) के मेल से बने हैं अतः इन्हें संयुक्त स्वर कहा जाता है। इनमें भी ए, ओ को गुण स्वर तथा ऐ, औ को वृद्धि स्वर कहा जाता है।

प्लुत स्वरों के उच्चारण में तीन मात्राओं का समय लगता है। संक्षेप में स्वरों का विभाजन निम्न प्रकार से है-

  • ह्रस्व (मूल) स्वर – अ, इ, उ, ऋ, लु।
  • संयुक्त स्वर – ए, ऐ, ओ, औ। अ + इ = ए, अ + ए = ऐ, अ + उ = ओ, अ + ओ = औ।
  • गुण स्वर – अ, ए, ओ।
  • वृद्धि स्वर – आ, ऐ, औ।
  • दीर्घ स्वर – आ, ई, ऊ, ऋ, ए, ऐ, ओ, औ (लु वर्ण का दीर्घ नहीं होता है।)
  • प्लुत स्वर – अ ३, इ ३, उ ३, ऋ३, लु ३, ए ३, ऐ ३, ओ ३, औ ३।

व्यञ्जन / हल्
जिनका उच्चारण स्वरों की सहायता से होता है तथा स्वरों के बिना जिनका उच्चारण संभव नहीं, वे वर्ण व्यञ्जन कहलाते हैं। इन्हें हल भी कहते हैं।

हम ‘क’ का उच्चारण नहीं कर सकते हैं। ‘क’ एक व्यञ्जन है। यदि ‘क’ का उच्चारण करना हो तो उससे पहले या उसके बाद स्वर का होना आवश्यक है। इस आधार पर हम ‘अक्’ अथवा ‘क’ (= क् + अ) का उच्चारण कर सकते हैं।
संस्कृत में ‘लृ’ अक्षर का प्रयोग न के बराबर होता है।

सामान्यतः छात्र समझते हैं कि ‘क’ एक व्यञ्जन है। यह उनकी भूल है। उच्चारण की सुविधा के लिए हम ‘क’ को व्यञ्जन मानते हैं पर उसमें अ स्वर मिला हुआ है। व्यञ्जन के अनुसार इसका सही रूप ‘क्’ है जिसे हम हल का चिह्न (्) लगाकर व्यक्त करते हैं।

व्यञ्जन के भेद-स्पर्श, अन्तःस्थ व ऊष्म
(i) स्पर्श-
क् ख् ग् घ् ङ् (क वर्ग) (कु) = 5
च् छ् ज् झ् ञ् (च वर्ग) (चु) = 5
ट् ठ् ड् ढ् ण् (ट वर्ग) (टु) = 5
त् थ् द् ध् न् (त वर्ग) (तु) = 5
प् फ् ब् भ् म् (प वर्ग) (पु) = 5
ये सभी 25 व्यञ्जन स्पर्श कहलाते हैं। इनके उच्चारण में जिह्वा मुख के किसी न किसी भाग (कण्ठ, तालु, मूर्धा, दन्त, ओष्ठ) का स्पर्श करती है।

(ii) अन्तःस्थ – य् र् ल् व् = 4
ये चार अन्तःस्थ कहलाते हैं। इनमें जिह्वा पूरा स्पर्श नहीं करती है, स्पर्श करते समय थोड़ा सा स्थान शेष रह जाता है, अतः ये स्वर तथा व्यञ्जन दोनों के बीच के वर्ण हैं पर इनकी गणना हम व्यञ्जन में ही करते हैं और इन्हें अन्तःस्थ की संज्ञा देते हैं।

(iii) ऊष्म – श् ष् स् ह् = 4
ये चार ऊष्म वर्ण हैं, इनके उच्चारण में जिह्वा मुख के किसी भाग के साथ रगड़ खाती है तथा ऊष्मा (गर्मी) पैदा होती है। अतः इन्हें ऊष्म नाम दिया गया है।

अयोगवाह
जिन वर्णों का उच्चारण स्वरों की सहायता के बिना नहीं हो सकता तथा जो स्वरों के साथ मिलकर स्वरों के बाद ही बोले जाते हैं वे अयोगवाह कहलाते हैं। वे स्वरों के पहले नहीं बोले जा सकते। अयोगवाह तीन हैं। यथा-
(i) अनुस्वार – किसी स्वर के बाद न् या म् के स्थान पर अनुस्वार आता है। जैसे- सः फलम् खादति – सः फलं खादति। हंसः, कंसः।
(ii) अनुनासिक – इसका प्रयोग स्वर के बाद होता है जैसे- हँसना, पुंल्लिङ्गम्।
(iii) विसर्ग (:) – विसर्ग का प्रयोग किसी स्वर के बाद होता है। इसके उच्चारण में ‘ह्’ की ध्वनि पैदा होती है। जैसे- रामः, हरिः इत्यादि।

बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्नाः

प्रश्न 1.
वर्णानाम् समूहः किं कथ्यते?
(क) वर्ण
(ख) वर्णमाला
(ग) स्वर
(घ) व्यञ्जन
उत्तराणि:
(ख) वर्णमाला

प्रश्न 2.
___________ वर्णानाम् भेदः न अस्ति?
(क) स्वरः
(ख) व्यञ्जन
(ग) अयोगवाह
(घ) पदं
उत्तराणि:
(घ) पदं

प्रश्न 3.
येषाम् वर्णानाम् उच्चारणं स्वतन्त्ररूपेण भवति ते स्वराः ___________ च कथ्यन्ते।
(क) अण्
(ख) अट्
(ग) अल्
(घ) अच्
उत्तराणि:
(घ) अच्

प्रश्न 4.
ह्रस्वस्वराः के सन्ति?
(क) आ, इ, उ, ऋ, लृ
(ख) अ, इ, उ, ऋ, लृ
(ग) अ ई उ ऋ लृ
(घ) आ ई ए ऋ
उत्तराणि:
(ख) अ, इ, उ, ऋ, लृ

प्रश्न 5.
दीर्घस्वराः ___________ सन्ति।
(क) सप्त
(ख) अष्ट
(ग) षट्
(घ) पञ्च
उत्तराणि:
(ख) अष्ट

प्रश्न 6.
येषाम् वर्णानाम् उच्चारणं स्वरैः सहायतया भवति ते हल् ___________ च कथ्यन्ते।
(क) व्यञ्जनानि
(ख) प्लुत्
(ग) अनुनासिक
(घ) अनुस्वार
उत्तराणि:
(क) व्यञ्जनानि

प्रश्न 7.
___________ इति अन्तःस्थाः वर्णाः भवन्ति।
(क) य् ह् र् व्
(ख) य्, र्, ह्, व
(ग) य्, र्, ल्, व्
(घ) य्, र्, व्, ह्
उत्तराणि:
(ग) य्, र्, ल्, व्

प्रश्न 8.
उष्मवर्णाः केचन सन्ति।
(क) श्, ष्, स्, व्
(ख) श्, ष्, स्, ह्
(ग) श्, ष्, ह्, र्
(घ) श्, ष्, र्, ह्
उत्तराणि:
(ख) श्, ष्, स्, ह्

प्रश्न 9.
अनुस्वार, विसर्ग, जिह्वामूलीय ___________ च अयोगवाह कथ्यन्ते।
(क) उपध्मानीय
(ख) स्पर्श
(ग) मानीय
(घ) उष्म
उत्तराणि:
(क) उपध्मानीय

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखितवर्णेषु भिन्नवर्गीय किं वर्ण अस्ति?
क, ख, च, घ, ङ
उत्तराणि:

प्रश्न 11.
स्पर्शव्यञ्जनानाम् संख्या कति सन्ति?
(क) 20
(ख) 35
(ग) 25
(घ) 15
उत्तराणि:
(ग) 25

प्रश्न 12.
अशुद्धकथनं (✗) निड्नेन अङ्कितं कुरुत-
(क) ल् अन्तस्थः वर्णः अस्ति।
(ख) ह् उष्मवर्णः अस्ति।
(ग) आ हृस्वस्वरः अस्ति।
(घ) न अनुनासिकवर्णः अस्ति।
उत्तराणि:
(ग) आ हृस्वस्वरः अस्ति।

Class 12 Accountancy 1 Mark Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement

Question 1.
Mevo Ltd., a financial enterprise had advanced a loan of ₹ 3,00,000, invested ₹ 6,00,000 in shares of the other companies and purchased machinery for ₹ 9,00,000. It received dividend of ₹ 70,000 on investment in shares. The company sold an old machine of the book value of ₹ 79,000 at a loss of ₹ 10,000.
Compute Cash flows from Investing Activities. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement 1
Note: As it is clearly mentioned that shares are purchased for investment. They have been treated as investing activities.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of ‘Cash Equivalents’ for the purpose of preparing Cash Flow Statement.(CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
“Cast equivalents” means short term highly liquid investments that are readily convertible into known amount of cash & which are subject to an in significant risk of changes in value.
For Ex-short term marketable securities.
The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to provide information about cash receipt, cash payments, and the net change in cash resulting from the operating, investing and financing activities of a company during the period.

Question 3.
What is meant by ‘Cash Flows? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Cash Flows imply movement of cash in and out due to some non-cash items.

Question 4.
K Ltd., a manufacturing company obtained a loan of ₹ 6,00,000, advanced a loan of ₹ 1,00,000 and purchased machinery for ₹ 5,00,000. Calculate the amount of Cash Flow from financing and investing activities.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement 2

Question 5.
How will ‘commission received’ be treated while preparing cash-flow-statement ? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
It will be treated as Cash flows from operating activities.

Question 6.
How is ‘dividend paid’ treated by a financial enterprise for the purpose of preparing cash flow statement?
Answer:
Dividend paid is treated as a financing activity.

Question 7.
When can ‘Receipt of Dividend’ be classified as an operating activity ₹ State. Also give reason in support of your answer. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Receipt of dividend can be an operating activity for a financial company as it is a principal revenue generating activity.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Cash Flow Statement’ ? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
A Cash Flow Statement is a statement that provides information about the historical changes in Cash & Cash Equivalents of an enterprise by classifying cash flows into Operating, Investing and Financing Activities.

Question 9.
What is meant by ‘Cash Flows’? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Cash Flows imply movement of cash in and out due to some non-cash items.

Question 10.
K Ltd., a manufacturing company obtained a loan of ₹6,00,000, advanced a loan of ₹1,00,000 and purchased machinery for ₹5,00,000. Calculate the amount of Cash Flow from financing and investing activities.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement 3

Question 11.
How will ‘commission received’ be treated while preparing cash-flow-statement ? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
It will be treated as Cash flows from operating activities.

Question 12.
How is ‘dividend paid’ treated by a financial enterprise for the purpose of preparing cash flow statement?(CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Dividend paid is treated as a financing activity.

Question 13.
M/s Mevo and Sons.; a bamboo pens producing company, purchased a machinery for ₹ 9,00,000.
It received dividend of ₹ 70,000 on investment in shares. The company also sold an old machine of the book value of ₹ 79,000 at a loss of ₹ 10,000. Compute Cash flow from Investing Activities
(CBSE SP 2019-20)
Answer:
Cash flow from Investing Activities
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement 4

Question 14.
Give any two examples of cash flows from operating activities.
Answer:
(i) Cash Sales
(ii) Cash Purchases

Question 15.
What is meant by ‘Financing Activities’ for preparing Cash Flow Statement? (CBSE 2019 Compt.)
Answer:
Financing activities are the activities that result in change in capital or borrowings of the enterprise.

Question 16.
What is mean by investing activities for preparing Cash Flow Statement? (CBSE 2019 Compt.)
Answer:
Investing activities (as per AS-3) are the acquisition and disposal of long term assets and other investments not included in cash equivalents.

Question 17.
State the primary objective of preparing Cash Flow Statement. (CBSE 2019 Compt.)
Answer:
The primary objective of preparing Cash Flow Statement is to provide useful information about cash inflows and outflows of an enterprise during a particular period.

Question 18.
What is meant by‘Cash Flow Statement’? (CBSE 2019 Compt.)
Answer:
Cash Flow Statement is a statement showing inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents during a particular period.

Question 19.
Cashier of Y Ltd. withdrew ₹ 2,00,000 from bank. Will this transaction result into inflow, outflow or no flow of cash? Give reason in support of your answer. (CBSE 2019 Compt.)
Answer:
No flow of cash as there is no change in cash and cash equivalents.

Question 20.
Interest received and paid is considered as which type of activity by a finance company while preparing the cash flow statement. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Operating Activity for both.

Question 21.
Under which type of activity will you classify ‘Rent received’ while preparing cash flow statement? (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Rent received is inflow of cash from Investing Activities.

Question 22.
Give any one example of cash inflows from operating activities other than cash receipts from sale of goods and rendering of services.
Answer:
Royalties

Question 23.
P P Limited is Share Broker Company. G G Limited is engaged in manufacturing of packaged food. P P Limited purchased 5,000 equity shares of₹ 100 each of Savita Limited. G G Limited also purchased 10,000 equity shares of₹ 100 each of Savita Limited.
For the purpose of preparing their respective Cash Flow Statements, under which category of activities the purchase of shares will be classified by P P Limited and G G Limited? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
(a) For P P Limited: Operating Activity
(b) For G G Limited: Investing Activity

Question 24.
Cash Flow Statement shows inflows and outflows of ‘Cash’ and ‘Cash Equivalents’ from various activities of an enterprise during a particular period. State one component of cash. (Compt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Demand deposits with bank.

Question 25.
Give an example of an activity, which is a financing activity for every type of enterprise. (Compt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Issue of shares.

Question 26.
Net increase in working capital other than cash and cash equivalents will increase, decrease or not change cash flow from operating activities. Give reason in support ofyour answer. [Delhi 2017]
Answer:
Decrease.

Question 27.
‘Payment and Receipt of interest and dividend’ is classified as which type of activity while preparing cash flow statement? [Delhi 2017]
Answer:
Payment of Interest and Dividend: Financing Activity Receipt of Interest and Dividend: Investing Activity

Question 28.
‘Cheques and drafts in hand’ are not considered while preparing cash flow statement. Why? [Delhi 2017]
Answer:
Cheques and Drafts in hand are not considered while preparing cash flow statements as they are part of cash and cash equivalents only.

Question 29.
State any one advantage of preparing cash flow statement. [Delhi 2017]
Answer:
It helps in short term financial planning.

Question 30.
Normally, what should be the maturity period for a short-term investment from the date of its acquisition
to be qualified as cash equivalents? (Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
90 days/ 3 months.

Question 31.
State whether the following will increase, decrease or have no effect on cash flow from operating activities while preparing ‘Cash Flow Statement’ :
(i) Decrease in outstanding employees benefits expenses by ₹ 3,000
(ii) Increase in prepaid insurance by ₹ 2,000. (Compt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(i) Decrease
(ii) Decrease

Question 32.
Will ‘acquisition of machinery by issue of equity shares’ be considered while preparing ‘Cash Flow Statement’ ?
Answer:
No.

Question 33.
The Goodwill of X Ltd. increased from ₹ 2,00,000 in 2013-14 to ₹ 3,50,000 in 2014-15. Where will you show the treatment while preparing Cash Flow Statement for the year ended 31st March 2015? (CBSE Sample Paper 2016, 2017)
Answer:
Investing Activities.

Question 34.
Does movement between items that constitute cash or cash equivalents result into cash flow?
Answer:
No flow of cash and cash equivalents.

Question 35.
‘An enterprise may hold securities and loans for dealing or trading purposes in which case they are similar to inventory acquired specifically for resale.’ Is the statement correct?
Answer:
Yes

Question 36.
‘G Ltd.’ is carrying on a paper manufacturing business. In the current year, it purchased machinery for 7 30,00,000, it paid salaries of ₹ 60,000 to its employees; it required funds for expansion and therefore, issued shares of ₹ 20,00,000. It earned a profit of₹ 9,00,000 for the current year. Find out cash flows from operating activities. (Delhi Compartment 2015)
Answer:
₹ 9,00,000 (as per indirect method and other information is not relevant)

Question 37.
Finserve Ltd. Is carrying on a mutual fund business. It invested ₹ 30,00,000 in shares and ₹ 15,00,000 in
debentures of various companies during the year. It received ₹ 3,00,000 as dividend and interest. Find out cash flows from investing activities. (CBSE Sample Paper 2015)
Answer:
Nil.

Question 38.
State with reason whether the issue of 9 % debentures to a vendor for the purchaser of machinery of ₹ 50,000 will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing cash flow statement. (CBSE Compartment Delhi 2014)
Answer:
No flow of cash.

Question 39.
Interest received by a finance company is classified under which kind of activity while preparing a cash flow statement. (CBSE Sample Paper 2014)
Answer:
Operating Activity.

Question 40.
While preparing cash flow statement of Sharda Ltd. Depreciation provided on fixed asset was added to the net profit to calculate cash flow from operating activities. Was the accountant correct in doing so Give reason.(CBSE Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Yes.

Question 41.
While preparing the cash flow statement of Alka Ltd. Dividend paid was shown as an operating activity by the accountant of the company. Was he correct in doing so?
Answer:
No.

Question 42.
Asia Ltd. declared payment of dividend of ₹ 50,000 on its equity shares. Mention with reason whether it is cash inflow, cash outflow or no cash flow.
Answer:
No cash flow.

Question 43.
A company has issued bonus equity shares of ₹ 2,00,000. Mention with reason whether it is cash inflow, cash outflow or no cash.
Answer:
No cash flow.

Question 44.
Mention the case in which interest received (other than interest on calls in arrears) is treated as cash inflow from operating activities.
Answer:
Cash inflow company.

Question 45.
State with reason whether deposit of cash into bank will result into inflow, outflow or no flow cash. (CBSE 2011 Delhi)
Answer:
No cash flow equivalents.

Class 12 Accountancy 1 Mark Questions Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios

Question 1.
What will be the effect on current ratio if a bills payable is discharged on maturity? (CBSE SP 2019-20)
Answer:
The current ratio will increase

Question 2.
Debt Equity Ratio of a company is 1:2. Purchase of a Fixed asset for ₹ 5,00,000 on long term deferred payment basis will increase, decrease or not change the ratio?
Answer:
Increased

Question 3.
It is a simple arithmetical expression of relationship between two figures. Name the term.
Answer:
Ratio

Question 4.
The liquidity of a business firm is measured by its ability to satisfy its long-term obligations as they become due. Name a ratio used for this purpose.
Answer:
Current Ratio.

Question 5.
X Ltd. has a Debt-Equity Ratio at 3 : 1. According to the management it should be maintained at 1 : 1. What is the choice to do so?
Answer:
To increase the equity or reduce the debt.

Question 6.
How the solvency of a business is assessed by Financial Statement Analysis? (CBSE Delhi 2012)
Answer:
With the help of solvency ratios.

Question 7.
Assuming that the debt to equity ratio is 1 : 2, state giving reason, whether the ratio will improve, decline or will have no change in case equity shares are issued for cash. (CBSE Foreign 2006)
Answer:
Decrease.

Question 8.
Debt to equity ratio of a company is 08 : 1. State whether long term loan obtained by the company will increase, decrease or not change the ratio. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Increase.

Question 9.
Inventory Turnover ratio of a company is 3 times. State, giving reason, whether the ratio improve, decline or do not change because of increase in the value of closing stock by ₹ 5,000. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Decrease.

Question 10.
Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio of a company is 6 times. State with reason whether the ratio will improve, decrease or not change due to increase in the value of closing inventory by ₹ 50,000. (CBSE Foreign 2008)
Answer:
No change. .

Question 11.
If a company has earned ₹ 10,00,000 as profit before interest and tax, ROI is 20%. State the capital employed in the company.
Answer:
₹ 5,00,000
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios 1

Question 12.
What will be operating profit if operating ratio is 88.94? (CBSE Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Operating Profit = 100 – 88.94 = 11.06

Question 13.
State with reason whether repayment of long-term loan will result in increase, decrease or no change of debt- equity ratio. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2010 Compt.)
Answer:
Decrease.

Question 14.
A company has Share Capital of ₹ 5,00,000, Reserves and Surplus of ₹ 2,00,000 and Debt Equity Ratio of 1.8 : 1. It has issued additional Share Capital of ₹ 2,00,000 for cash and bonus shares of₹ 1,00,000. What will be new Debt Equity Ratio?
Answer:
1.4 : 1

Class 12 Accountancy 1 Mark Questions Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements

Question 1.
State any one limitation of Financial Statement Analysis. (CBSE Compartment Delhi 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Historical Analysis of financial Statement.

Question 2.
State any one objective of analysis of financial statements. (CBSE Compartment Delhi 2014)
Answer:
To measure earning capacity of business.

Question 3.
State the type of Financial Statement Analysis in which figures of the same items of various years are compared.
Answer:
Horizontal analysis.

Question 4.
Which type of financial statement analysis helps a company to establish the relationship between different items financial statement of a same year?
Answer:
Vertical analysis.

Question 5.
“One of the objectives of Financial Statement Analysis is to assess solvency of business”. What does the term ‘solvency’ mean here ?
Answer:
Solvency means ability to pay the debts.