MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling with Answers

Controlling Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Controlling Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 8 MCQs On Controlling

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a feature of controlling?
(a) Continuous process
(b) Action-oriented
(c) Keeping employees busy
(d) Pervasive function

Answer

Answer: (c) Keeping employees busy


Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an importance of controlling?
(a) Better coordination
(b) Better use of resources
(c) Better planning
(d) Better grievance handling

Answer

Answer: (d) Better grievance handling


Question 3.
Which one of the following is a step of controlling?
(a) Assessing personnel required
(b) Taking corrective action
(c) Assessing environment
(d) Taking disciplinary action

Answer

Answer: (b) Taking corrective action


Question 4.
___ is the process of ensuring that actual results are in accordance with planned results.
(a) Controlling
(b) Coordinating
(c) Planning
(d) Directing

Answer

Answer: (a) Controlling


___ is the process of ensuring that actual results are in accordance with planned results.

Question 5.
___ is the focus point for a manager while controlling, as controlling at every step is not possible
(a) Controlling
(b) Coordinating
(c) Critical point control
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Critical point control


Question 6.
Controlling is ___.
(a) Forward looking
(b) Backward looking
(c) Continous process
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 7.
In a marketing firm, the Financial Manager pays more attention towards an increase of 3% in the marketing cost as compared to a 15% increase in the courier expenses. Identify the concept being used by the manager.
(a) Management by exception
(b) Critical point control
(c) Corrective action
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Critical point control


Question 8.
Reducing the workers, absenteeism in a factory by 20% is an example of
(a) Quantitative standard
(b) Qualitative standard
(c) Deviation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Quantitative standard


Question 9.
The need for the controlling function is felt in
(a) Business organisations
(b) Political organisations
(c) Social organisations
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 10.
When the deviations between the actual performance and the planned performance are within the limits
(a) A limited corrective action is required
(b) No corrective action is required
(c) A major corrective action is required
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) No corrective action is required


Question 11.
The comparison of actual performance with the planned performance becomes easier if the standards are set in
(a) Qualitative terms
(b) Quantitative terms
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Quantitative terms


Question 12.
Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the controlling process.
(a) Measurement of actual performance, Taking corrective action, Setting performance standards, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations
(b) Comparison of actual performance with standards, Setting performance standards. Measurement of actual performance, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action
(c) Setting performance standards, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action
(d) Taking corrective action, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Setting performance standards

Answer

Answer: (c) Setting performance standards, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action


Question 13.
Deviations are said to be positive in nature when
(a) Planned performance is more than the actual performance
(b) Actual performance is more than the planned performance
(c) Both planned and actual performances are same
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Actual performance is more than the planned performance


Question 14.
The controlling function is performed by
(a) Top level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 15.
Om Prakash has set up a small business unit for the manufacturing of detergent. In order to market the detergent in the local residential areas, he has appointed a team of ten salesmen. Each salesman is expected to sell at least 200 units of the detergent within a week’s time. Identify the point of importance of controlling being highlighted in the above case.
(a) Controlling helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(b) It ensures efficient use of resources.
(c) It helps in improving employee motivation.
(d) It facilitates co-ordination in action.

Answer

Answer: (c) It helps in improving employee motivation.
Explanation:
By making employees aware of the expected performance


Question 16.
Which of the following is not an importance of controlling function?
(a) It ensures order and discipline.
(b) It restricts co-ordination in action.
(c) It helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(d) It improves employee motivation.

Answer

Answer: (b) It restricts co-ordination in action.
Explanation:
It facilitates co-ordination in action


Question 17.
Yash runs a logistic company. The Tour Incharges of each trip in the company are expected to submit a report to the Event Manager on the completion of every trip. Identify the step in the controlling process being described in the above lines.
(a) Setting of standards
(b) Measurement of actual performance
(c) Taking corrective action
(d) Analysing the deviations

Answer

Answer: (b) Measurement of actual performance


Question 18.
Controlling is known as a backward-looking function because
(a) It relates to future course of action.
(b) It is like a post-mortem of the past activities
(c) To find out deviation, it aims at improving future performance.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) It is like a post-mortem of the past activities


Question 19.
In an artificial plants manufacturing unit, the standard output set for a worker is 50 units per day. Dinesh produces 48 units in one day. In the given case, the value of deviation is
(a) -2
(b) + 2
(c) 98
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) -2


Question 20.
This concept of Control Management is based on the belief that if you try to control everything, you may end up controlling nothing.
(a) Critical point control
(b) Key result areas
(c) Management by exception
(d) Deviations

Answer

Answer: (c) Management by exception


This concept of Control Management is based on the belief that if you try to control everything, you may end up controlling nothing.

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Controlling helps in achieving organisational objectives.

Answer

Answer: True; by suggesting corrective action, if required.


2. Control by action involves reporting of exceptional deviation between actual performance and standard performance to top management.

Answer

Answer: False; management by exception involves such reporting.


3. Management by exception is controlling performance in key result areas.

Answer

Answer: False; controlling performance in key result areas is critical point control.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Controlling CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets with Answers

Financial Markets Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Financial Markets Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 10 MCQs On Financial Markets

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a function of financial market?
(a) Mobilisation of savings
(b) Price determination of securities
(c) Floating of companies
(d) Lowering transaction cost

Answer

Answer: (c) Floating of companies


Question 2.
Which one of the following is a money market instrument?
(a) Unit of mutual fund
(b) Debenture
(c) Bond
(d) Treasury bill

Answer

Answer: (d) Treasury bill


Which one of the following is a money market instrument?

Question 3.
Primary and secondary markets develop simultaneously because they
(a) complement each other.
(b) complement with each other
(c) control each other.
(d) function independently.

Answer

Answer: (a) complement each other.


Question 4.
Secondary market is in the form of
(a) stock exchange.
(b) money market
(c) new issue market.
(d) commercial exchange

Answer

Answer: (a) stock exchange.


Question 5.
SEBI is a regulator of
(a) capital market.
(b) money market
(c) commodity market.
(d) overseas market

Answer

Answer: (a) capital market.


Question 6.
___ is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by reputed business organisations at a price lower than its face value and redeemable at par.
(a) Treasury bill
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Certificate of deposit
(d) Promissory note

Answer

Answer: (b) Commercial paper


Question 7.
___ is a source of financing to meet very short-term fund requirements of commercial banks with a provision of renewal.
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Call Money

Answer

Answer: (d) Call Money


Question 8.
___ is the market which helps existing investors to sell their securities.
(a) Primary market
(b) Secondary market
(c) Capital market
(d) Commodity market

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary market


Question 9.
___ is the institution which provides a platform for trading of existing securities having long-term maturity.
(a) SEBI
(b) WTO
(c) Stock exchange
(d) RBI

Answer

Answer: (c) Stock exchange


Question 10.
After the trade has been executed, the broker issues a Contract Note to the investor within
(a) 52 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 12 hours

Answer

Answer: (b) 24 hours


Question 11.
On this day, the exchange will deliver the share or make payment to the other broker,
(a) Pay-in day
(b) Pay-out day
(c) Transaction day
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Pay-out day


Question 12.
The mandatory detail that an investor has to provide to the broker at the time of opening a demat account is
(a) Date of birth and address
(b) PAN number
(c) Residential status (Indian/NRI)
(d) Bank account details.

Answer

Answer: (b) PAN number


Question 13.
It is a number assigned to each transaction by the stock exchange and is printed on the contract note.
(a) PAN number
(b) Unique Order Code
(c) Contract Note
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Unique Order Code


Question 14.
It acts like a bank and keeps securities in electronic form on behalf of the investor,
(a) Depository Participant
(b) Depository
(c) Stock exchange
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Depository


Question 15.
The process of holding shares in electronic form is known as
(a) Demutualisation
(b) Dematerialisation
(c) Speculation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Dematerialisation


Question 16.
Stock Exchange works as a mechanism for valuation of securities through the forces of demand and supply. Identify the related function of performed by the stock exchanges.
(a) Providing liquidity and marketability to existing securities.
(b) Safety of transaction.
(c) Pricing of security.
(d) Spreading of equity cult.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pricing of security.


Question 17.
PK Enterprises Limited has sold an entire lot of 5,00,000 equity shares @ ₹9 each to Prosperous Bank Private Limited. The bank intum will offer the shares to general public for subscription @ ₹11 per share. Identify the method of floatation being described in the given lines.
(a) Private placement
(b) Offer through prospectus
(c) Offer for sale
(d) Rights issue

Answer

Answer: (c) Offer for sale


Question 18.
Which of the following participants represent capital market?
(a) Development banks
(b) Commercial banks
(c) Stock exchanges
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 19.
A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of
(a) Equity shares
(b) Preference shares
(c) Debentures
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 20.
It is a short-term, negotiable, self-liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms.
(a) Commercial bill
(b) Commercial papers
(c) Call money
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial bill


It is a short-term, negotiable, self-liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms.

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Providing liquidity is an important function of stock exchange.

Answer

Answer: True; providing liquidity to securities is an important function of stock exchange.


2. Money Market is the market in which financial instruments having long-term maturity are dealt with.

Answer

Answer: False; financial instruments having short-term maturity are dealt with in the money market.


3. Stock exchange regulates the capital market.

Answer

Answer: False; SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) regulates the capital market.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Financial Markets CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business with Answers

Small Business Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Small Business Class 11 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 9 MCQs On Small Business

Small Business Class 11 MCQ Chapter 9  Question 1.
Expand EOUs
(a) Essential Operating units
(b) Export Order Units
(c) Export Oriented units
(d) Essential order units

Answer

Answer: (c) Export Oriented units


MCQ Questions For Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Question 2.
Which of the following is organised by individuals?
(a) Cottage Industries
(b) Railway industry
(c) None of these
(d) Chemical industry

Answer

Answer: (a) Cottage Industries


MCQ On Small Scale Industries Chapter 9 Question 3.
Any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power is known as ________
(a) City Industry
(b) Town Industry
(c) Village Industry
(d) District Industry

Answer

Answer: (c) Village Industry


Small Scale Industries MCQ Chapter 9 Question 4.
A small scale serivce and business enterprise is one whose investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery excluding land and building does not exceed ______
(a) Rs.25 Lakhs
(b) Rs.30 Lakhs
(c) Rs.10 Lakhs
(d) Rs.15 Lakhs

Answer

Answer: (c) Rs.10 Lakhs


Small Business MCQ Chapter 9 Question 5.
The small scale industry can enjoy the status of _______ unit if it exports more than 50% of its production.
(a) Domestic unit
(b) Export Oriented units
(c) Small scale unit
(d) Import oriented units

Answer

Answer: (b) Export Oriented units


Question 6.
_____ is defined as one in which the investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery does not exceed rupees one crore.
(a) Limited Companies
(b) None of these
(c) Small Scale Industry
(d) Large Scale industry

Answer

Answer: (c) Small Scale Industry


Question 7.
Which of the following is part of ?Village and Small Industries Sector??
(a) Handicrafts
(b) Sericulture
(c) Handlooms
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 8.
In India, the ?Village and Small Industries? Sector consists of both traditional and modern small industries. This sector has ___________subgroups.
(a) Eleven
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Eight

Answer

Answer: (d) Eight


Question 9.
Limit of investment in small scale industry is _________
(a) one crore
(b) two crore
(c) five crore
(d) Ten crore

Answer

Answer: (a) one crore


Question 10.
________ are also known as Rural industries or Traditional industries
(a) Food industry
(b) Cottage Industries
(c) None of these
(d) Agricultural industry

Answer

Answer: (b) Cottage Industries


Question 11.
Micro enterprises are those whose investment in plant and machinery does not exceed rupees___
(a) 5 Lakh
(b) 3 Lakh
(c) 1 Lakh
(d) 2 Lakh

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 Lakh


Question 12.
Small scale industries owned and managed by women entrepreneurs have share capital of not less than __________
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 51 percent
(d) 20 percent

Answer

Answer: (c) 51 percent


Question 13.
The small scale industry can enjoy the status of ________ if it supplies not less than 50% of its production to another industry, referred to as the parent unit.
(a) Village industries
(b) Micro Business industry
(c) Export oriented unit
(d) Ancillary small industry

Answer

Answer: (d) Ancillary small industry


Question 14.
Which of the following comes under the Modern Small Industries?
(a) Coir
(b) Handicrafts
(c) Khadi
(d) Powerlooms

Answer

Answer: (d) Powerlooms


Question 15.
A tiny unit is defined as an industrial or business enterprise whose investment in plant and machinery is not more than ___________
(a) Rs. 25 Lakhs
(b) Rs.30 Lakhs
(c) Rs.35 Lakhs
(d) Rs.50 Lakhs

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs. 25 Lakhs


One Mark Questions

1. What do you mean by small business?

Answer

Answer: A business which operates on a small scale and required less capital, less labour and less machines is called small business.


2. Give full form of NSIC.

Answer

Answer: National small Industries Corporation (NSIC)


3. Give full form of DIC.

Answer

Answer: District Industries Centre (DIC)


4. What is mining?

Answer

Answer: The process or business of extracting ore or minerals from the ground.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 9 Small Business with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Small Business CBSE Class 11 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Business Studies MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner MCQ With Answers

Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs On Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner

MCQ On Retirement And Death Of A Partner Class 12  Question 1.
On retirement of a partner’s the amount of General Reserve is transferred to all partner’s capital account in:
(a) New Profit Sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Question 2.
X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Goodwill does not appear in the books but it is agreed to be worth 1,00,000 Rs.. X retires from the firm and Y and Z decide to share profits equally. X’s share of goodwill will be debited to Y’s and Z’s Capital A/cs in………ratio:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 : 3


Retirement And Death Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 3.
x,y are z are partners and share profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. y retires and x takes 1/10 from y and z takes 1/5 from y. The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(a) 7 : 13
(b) 13 : 7
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 : 2


MCQ On Retirement Of Partner Class 12 Question 4.
The old profit-sharing ratio among Rajender, Satish and Tejpal were 2 : 2 : 1. The new profit-sharing ratio after Satish’s retirement is 3 : 2. The gaining ratio is :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1


Retiring Or Outgoing Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 5.
The amount due to the deceased partner is paid to his……….
(a) Father
(b) Friend
(c) Wife
(d) Executors

Answer

Answer: (d) Executors


Retirement Or Death Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 6.
In case of death of a partner, the whole amount standing to the credit of his capital account is transferred to :
(a) Capital Accounts of all partners
(b) Capital Accounts of remaining partners
(c) His Executor’s Account
(d) Account of the Government

Answer

Answer: (c) His Executor’s Account


Retirement Of Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 7.
On the death of a partner in a firm payments are made to;
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Executor’s A/c
(c) Current A/c
(d) Loan A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Executor’s A/c


MCQ On Death Of A Partner Class 12 Question 8.
X, Y and Z share profits in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3}: \frac{1}{6}, \mathbf{Z}\) dies. New ratio of X and Y will be :
(a) 3 : 2.
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2.


Retirement Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
The executors of deceased partner will be paid interest on the amount due from the date of death of the partner at:
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 7% p.a.
(d) 8% p.a.

Answer

Answer: (b) 6% p.a.


MCQ Of Retirement Of A Partner Class 12 Question 10.
In the event of death of a partner, the accumulated profits and losses are shared by the partners in their:
(a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(c) Capital Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio


Question 11.
On the death of a partner, the amount of Joint Life Insurance Policy is credited to the Capital Accounts of:
(a) Only the deceased partner
(b) All partners including the deceased partner
(c) Remaining partners, in the new profit-sharing ratio
(d) Remaining partners, in their old profit-sharing ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) All partners including the deceased partner


Question 12.
On death of a partner, the remaining partner(s) who have gained due to change in profit-sharing ratio should compensate the:
(a) Deceased partner
(b) Remaining partners (who have sacrificed) as well as decreased partner
(c) Remaining partners (who have sacrificed)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deceased partner


Question 13.
B, C and D are partners sharing profit in the ratio 7:5:4. D died on 30th June, 2016 and profits for the year 2015-16 were ₹ 12,000. How much share in profits for the period 1st April, 2016 to 30th June, 2016 will be credited to D’s Account:
(a) ₹ 3,000
(b) ₹ 750
(c) Nil
(d) ₹ 1,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 750


Question 14.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. C died on 31st March, 2016. The profits of the financial year ending 31st March, 2016 is ₹ 64,000. The share of the deceased partner in the profits will be:
(a) ₹ 9,200
(b) ₹ 12,800
(c) ₹ 3,100
(d) ₹ 6,100

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 12,800


Question 15.
JLP of the partners is a/an…………..account
(a) Nominal
(b) Personal
(c) Liability
(d) Asset

Answer

Answer: (d) Asset


Question 16.
Joint Life Policy amount received by a firm is distributed in:
(a) Opening Capital Ratio
(b) Closing Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio of Partners
(d) New Profit-sharing Ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio of Partners


Joint Life Policy amount received by a firm is distributed in:

Question 17.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. They had a Joint Life Policy of ₹ 3,00,000. Surrender value of JLP in Balance Sheet is ₹ 90,000. C dies what is share of each partner in JLP ?
(a) ₹ 1,05,000 ; ₹ 70,000; ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 45,000 ; ₹ 30,000; ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000 ; ₹ 1,00,000 ; ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 1,95,000 ; ₹ 1,30,000 ; ₹ 65,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 1,50,000 ; ₹ 1,00,000 ; ₹ 50,000


Question 18.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 5 :4. On 30th June, 2015 Z died and profits for the year ending 31st March, 2016 were ₹ 2,40,000. How much share in profits for the period 1st April to 30th June, 2015 will be credited to Z’s account assuming the profit occurred evenly throughout the year ;
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) Nil

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 15,000


Question 19.
Revaluation Account is prepared at the time of …………
(a) Admission of a partner
(b) Retirement of a partner
(c) Death of a partner
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 20.
As per section 37 to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the executors would be entitled at their choice to interest calculated from the date of death till the date of payment on the final amount due to the deceased partner at………..percent per annum.
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (c) 6


Question 21.
X, Y and Z are the partners sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1 : 1. Firm has a joint life policy of ₹ 1,20,000 and in the balance sheet it is appeaming at the surrender value, i.e., ₹ 20,000. On the death of X how this JLP will be distributed among partners:
(a) 50,000 : 25,000 : 25,000
(b) 60,000 : 30,000 : 30,000
(c) 40,000 : 35,000 : 25,000
(d) whole ₹ 1,20,000 to A

Answer

Answer: (b) 60,000 : 30,000 : 30,000


Question 22.
On death of a partner, the firm gets for joint life policy taken for all partners.
(a) Policy amount
(b) Surrender value
(c) Policy amount of deceased partner
(d) Surrender value of all partners

Answer

Answer: (a) Policy amount


Question 23.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. On 1.3.2016 C died. The average profits of the firm for last four years were ₹ 72,000 Books are closed on 31st December. C’s share of profit till the date of his death will be:
(a) ₹ 2,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 1,400
(d) ₹ 24,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 2,000


Question 24.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. C dies and goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000. The amount payable to the executor’s of the deceased partner will be :
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 25,000
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 10,000


Question 25.
M, L and A are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 9:4:3. They have taken a joint life policy of ₹ 96,000. A dies. What is the share of A in the JLP amount ?
(a) ₹ 18,000
(b) ₹ 24,000
(c) ₹ 54,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 18,000


Question 26.
Which account is prepared at the time retirement or death of a partner to show the changes in the value of assets and liabilities:
(a) Revaluation A/c
(b) Realisation A/c
(c) Partner’s Capital A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Revaluation A/c


Question 27.
What are the methods of calculating share of the deceased partner in the profit of the firm upto the date of death:
(a) On time basis
(b) On sales basis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 28.
If three partners A, B & C are sharing profits as 5:3:2, then on the death of a partner A, how much B & C will pay to A’s executor on account of goodwill ? Good-will is to be calculated on the basis of 2 years purchase of last 3 years average profits. Profits for the last three years are 10,80,000 Rs. :
(a) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,42,000
(b) ₹ 2,44,000 and ₹ 2,16,000
(c) ₹ 3,60,000 and ₹ 2,16,000
(d) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,44,000

Answer

Answer: (d) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,44,000


Question 29.
On death of a partner, his excutor is paid the profits of
the deceased partner for the relevant period. This payment is recorded in Profit & Loss A/c :
(a) Adjustment
(b) Appropriation
(c) Suspense
(d) Reserve

Answer

Answer: (c) Suspense


Question 30.
On the retirement of a partner any accumulated profit should be credited to the capital accounts of:
(a) All partners in old profit-sharing ratio
(b) Remaining partners in new profit-sharing ratio
(c) Retiring partner only in his share
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) All partners in old profit-sharing ratio


Question 31.
On the retirement of a partner, full amount of goodwill may be credited to the capital accounts of:
(a) Retiring partners
(b) Remaining partners
(c) All partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) All partners


Question 32.
Outgoing partner is compensated for parting with firm’s future profits in favour of remaining partners. The remaining partners contribute to such compensation in:
(a) Gaining Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Sacrificing Ratio
(d) Profit-sharing Ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) Gaining Ratio


Question 33.
Gaining ratio is calculated :
(a) At the time of admission of a new partner
(b) At the time of retirement of a partner
(c) On the dissolution of partnership firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) At the time of retirement of a partner


Question 34.
How unrecorded assets are treated at the time of retriement of a partner ?
(a) Credited to Revaluation Account
(b) Credited to Capital Account of Retiring Partner
(c) Debited to Revaluation Account
(d) Credited to Partner’s Capital Accounts

Answer

Answer: (a) Credited to Revaluation Account


Question 35.
On the retirement of a partner, profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities should be credited to the Capital Accounts of:
(a) All partners in the old profit-sharing ratio
(b) The remaining partners in their old profit-sharing ratio
(c) The remaining partners in their new profit-sharing ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) All partners in the old profit-sharing ratio


Question 36.
On retirement of a partner, the retiring Partner’s Capital Account will be credited with:
(a) His/her share of goodwill
(b) Goodwill of the firm
(c) Share of goodwill of remaining partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) His/her share of goodwill


Question 37.
Joint life policy be taken by the firm on the lives of:
(a) All the partners jointly
(b) All the partners separately
(c) All employees of the firm
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 38.
A, Band Care equal partners in a firm. B retires and the remaining partners decide to share profits of the new firm in the ratio of 5 : 4. Gaining ratio will be:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 1


Question 39.
A, B are C are sharing profits in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3} \div \frac{1}{6}\) C retired. Gaining ratio will be :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 : 2


Question 40.
The amount of General Reserve is transferred to all partner’s capital accounts in:
(a) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio


Question 41.
Abhishek, Rajat and Vivek are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. If Vivek retires, the new profit sharing ratio between Abhishek and Rajat will be:
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 : 2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 : 3


Question 42.
The balance of Joint Life Policy Account and Joint Life Policy Reserve A/c is:
(a) Always Equal
(b) Always Unequal
(c) Not Necessary
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Not Necessary


Question 43.
Anand, Bahadur and Chander are partners sharing profit equally. On Chander’s retirement, his share is acquired by Anand and Bahadur in the ratio of 3: 2. The new profit-sharing ratio between Anand and Bahadur will be:
(a) 8 : 7
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 8 : 7


Question 44.
Profit and loss on revaluation at the time of retirement is shared by:
(a) Remaining Partners
(b) All Partners
(c) New Partner
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) All Partners


Question 45.
X, Y, Z are equal partners in a firm. Z retires from the firm. The new profit-sharing ratio between X and Y is 1:2. The gaining ratio will be:
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) Only Y gains by 1/3

Answer

Answer: (d) Only Y gains by 1/3


Question 46.
X, Y, Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 4. Y retires and X and Z share their profits in equal ratio. New ratio of X and Z will be :
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 : 1


Question 47.
A, B and C are partners. Their capitals are ₹ 1,00,000, ₹ 75,000 and ₹ 50,000 respectively. On C’s retirement his share is acquired by A and B in the ratio of 6 : 4 Gaining ratio will be :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2


Question 48.
At the time of retirement of partner, firm gets from the insurance company against joint policy taken jointly for all the partners :
(a) Policy Amount + Bonus
(b) Surrender Value
(c) Policy Amount
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Surrender Value


Question 49.
Gaining Ratio is :
(a) New Ratio-sacrificing ratio
(b) Old Ratio-sacrificing ratio
(c) New ratio-old ratio
(d) Old ratio-new ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) New ratio-old ratio


Question 50.
Partnership Act provides that interest on amount of capital balance left by the retired partner be paid at:
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) Bank Rate
(d) 8%

Answer

Answer: (b) 6%


Partnership Act provides that interest on amount of capital balance left by the retired partner be paid at:

Question 51.
Heri, Roy and Prasad are partners and profit-sharing ratio is 3: 5:1. Roy now wants to retire and his share is taken by Prasad. Find the new ratio of Hari and Prasad:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) Equal

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 2


Question 52.
A, B and C are partners with profit-sharing ratio as 5 :3 :2. A retires. Find the gaining ratio :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 :2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2


Question 53.
Surrender value of an insurance policy means that value:
(a) Which is received an death of a partner
(b) Which is received when a policy matures
(c) Which can be received before the due date of the policy
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Which can be received before the due date of the policy


Question 54.
P, Q and R are partners and share profit in the ratio of 5:3:2. R retires and surrenders 3/5th of his share in favour of P and 2/5th of the share to Q. Find new profit sharing ratio:
(a) 7 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 31 : 19
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 31 : 19


Question 55.
Govind, Hari and Pratap are partners. On retirement of Govind, the goodwill already appears in the Balance Sheet at ₹ 24,000. The goodwill will be written off:
(a) By debiting all Partners’ Capital Accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio
(b) By debiting remaining Partners’ Capital Accounts in their new profit-sharing ratio
(c) By debiting retiring Partner’s Capital Account from his share of goodwill
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By debiting all Partners’ Capital Accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio


Question 56.
Goodwill is paid out of the retiring partner in :
(a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Equal Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio


Question 57.
On retirement of a partner, his share of goodwill is written off among continuing partners in there :
(a) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) New Capital Ratio
(c) Gaining Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Gaining Ratio


Question 58.
On retirement of a partner, the retiring partner’s capital account will be credited with :
(a) His/her share of goodwill
(b) Goodwill of the firm
(c) Shares of goodwill of remaining partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) His/her share of goodwill


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Accountancy MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers

Cash Flow Statement Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Cash Flow Statement Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement MCQ With Answers

Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 11 MCQs On Cash Flow Statement

Cash Flow Analysis Is Based On The MCQ Chapter 11 Question 1.
Preparation of cash flow statement is :
(a) Mendatory
(b) Recommendatory
(c) Required under the Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Mendatory


Cash Flow Statement MCQ Chapter 11 Question 2.
Issue of shares in consideration of purchase of plant and machinery results into :
(a) Inflow of Cash
(b) Outflow of Cash
(c) Neither Inflow nor Outflow
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Neither Inflow nor Outflow


Cash Flow Statement Is Prepared From MCQ Chapter 11 Question 3.
If net profit is 7 50,000 after writing off goodwill 7 10,000 then the cash flow from operating activities will be:
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 30,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 60,000


Cash From Operations Is Equal To MCQ Chapter 11 Question 4.
If net profit is ₹ 35,000 after writing off good will ₹ 6,000 and loss on sale of furniture ₹ 1,000, cash flow from operating activities will be :
(a) ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 42,000
(c) ₹ 29,000
(d) ₹ 28,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 42,000


MCQ On Cash Flow Statement Chapter 11 Question 5.
Cash sales in :
(a) Operating Activity
(b) Investing Activity
(c) Financing Activity
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Operating Activity


MCQ On Cash Flow Statement Class 12 Chapter 11 Question 6.
Cash from operating activities will decrease due to :
(a) Increase in Current Assets
(b) Decrease in Current Liabilities
(c) Neither of the two
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Cash Flow Is A Part Of MCQ Chapter 11 Question 7.
Which of the following is an example of Cash Flow from Operating Activities ?
(a) Purchase of Machinery
(b) Issue of Shares
(c) Purchases of Inventory for Cash
(d) Purchases of Investment

Answer

Answer: (c) Purchases of Inventory for Cash


Which of the following is an example of Cash Flow from Operating Activities ?

Cash Flow Statement MCQ Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 11 Question 8.
While calculating operating profit which will be added to net profit:
(a) Interest received
(b) Profit on sale of Asset
(c) Increase in General Reserve
(d) Refund of Tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Increase in General Reserve


Cash Flow Statement MCQs Class 12 Chapter 11 Question 9.
While calculating cash flow from operating netivities which will be deducted ?
(a) Increase in Creditors
(b) Increase in Debtors
(c) Decrease in Debtors
(d) Decrease in Prepaid Expenses

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in Debtors


Question 10.
While calculating cash flow from operating activities, which will be added ?
(a) Increase in Stock
(b) Increase in Creditors
(c) Decrease in Bills Payable
(d) Increase in Debtors

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in Creditors


Question 11.
An example of Cash Flow from Investing Activities :
(a) Cash Sales
(b) Issue of Shares
(c) Payment of cash for purchase of machinery
(d) Payment of Dividend

Answer

Answer: (c) Payment of cash for purchase of machinery


Question 12.
An example of Cash Flows from Financing Activity is :
(a) Sale of goods
(b) Sale of Investment
(c) Cash receipts from issue of shares
(d) Interest received

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash receipts from issue of shares


Question 13.
How will you treat payment of ‘Interest of Debentures’ while preparing a Cash Flow Statement ?
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalents

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities


Question 14.
Where will you show purchase of goodwill in Cash Flow Statement:
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalent

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities


Question 15.
Interest received by a finance company is classified under which kind of activity while preparing a Cash Flow Statement ?
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalent

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities


Question 16.
Which of the following item is considered as cash equivalents:
(a) Bank Overdraft
(b) Bills Receivable
(c) Debtors
(d) Short-term Investment

Answer

Answer: (a) Bank Overdraft


Question 17.
Which of the following item is not considered as cash equivalents ?
(a) Bank Overdraft
(b) Commercial Papers
(c) Treasury Bills
(d) Investment

Answer

Answer: (d) Investment


Question 18.
Cash payment to employees is a Cash Flow from:
(a) Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Finance Activities
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Operating Activities


Question 19.
Which of the following is not a Cash in Flow ?
(a) Sale of Fixed Asset
(b) Purchase of Fixed Asset
(c) Issue of Debentures
(d) Sale of Goods for Cash

Answer

Answer: (b) Purchase of Fixed Asset


Question 20.
In cash flow statement, the item of ‘Interest’ is shown in:
(a) Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Financial Activities
(d) In both (d) & (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) In both (d) & (c)


Question 21.
Which of the following is not a Cash Outflow:
(a) Increase in Creditors
(b) Increase in Debtors
(c) Increase in Stock
(d) Increase in prepaid expenses

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in Creditors


Question 22.
Cash from operation is equal to :
(a) Net Profit + Increase in Current Assets
(b) Net Profit + Decrease in Current Liabilities
(c) Operating Profit + Adjustment of Current Assets and Current Liabilities
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Net Profit + Decrease in Current Liabilities


Question 23.
Income tax refund is a cash of:
(a) Source
(b) Application
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Source


Question 24.
Cash Flow Statement in based upon:
(a) Cash basis of accounting
(b) Accrual basis of accounting
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash basis of accounting


Question 25.
Cash Flow Statement is related to:
(a) AS-3
(b) AS-6
(c) AS-9
(d) AS-12

Answer

Answer: (b) AS-6


Question 26.
Cash Flow Statement is prepared from:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Additional Information
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 27.
Following Is included in Cash Flow from Operating Activities:
(a) Royalties, Fees, Commission
(b) Purchase of Debentures
(c) Purchase of Machinery
(d) issue of Shares

Answer

Answer: (a) Royalties, Fees, Commission


Question 28.
Following are included in cash equivalent:
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Trade Bill
(c) Bank Deposits of Short Maturity Period
(d) All of above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of above


Question 29.
Claims received from Insurance Companies are treated as:
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities


Question 30.
Which activity comes under ‘Operating Activities’ ?
(a) Purchase of Land
(b) Issue of Debentures
(c) Proceeds from Issuance of Equity Shares
(d) Cash Sales

Answer

Answer: (d) Cash Sales


Question 31.
Which of the following is not a cash inflow ?
(a) Decrease in Debtors
(b) Issue of Debentures
(c) Decrease in Creditors
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Decrease in Creditors


Question 32.
Which one of following is not a non-cash item ?
(a) Cash Sales
(b) Goodwill written off
(c) Depreciation
(d) Provision of Bad Debts

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Sales


Question 33.
Cash flow statement according to AS-3 is mandatory to:
(a) All enterprises
(b) Companies listed on a stock exchange
(c) Enterprises having turnover expending 50 Rs crore
(d) (b) & (c) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (b) & (c) both


Question 34.
Decrease in Current Asset is……….in operating profit
(a) Subtracted
(b) Added
(c) Divided
(d) Multiplied

Answer

Answer: (b) Added


Question 35.
Following are true about cash equivalent:
(a) More Liquid Short-term Investment
(b) Minimum risk
(c) Maturity of 3 months or less than 3 months
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 36.
Which of the following activity comes under Financial Activities ?
(a) Receipts from issurence of Equity Shares
(b) Cash Sales
(c) Bank Overdraft
(d) Purchase of Debentures

Answer

Answer: (a) Receipts from issurence of Equity Shares


Question 37.
An analysis of cash flow is useful for..—.planning.
(a) Short-term
(b) Long-term
(c) Medium-term
(d) Very Long-period

Answer

Answer: (a) Short-term


Question 38.
Which calculating cash flow from operating activities which is added net profit ?
(a) Increase in Stock
(b) Decrease in Stock
(c) Increase in Debtors
(d) Decrease in Creditors

Answer

Answer: (b) Decrease in Stock


Question 39.
Which of the following is not the source of Cash ?
(a) Purchase of Fixed Assets
(b) Funds from Operations
(c) Issue of Debentures
(d) Sale of Fixed Assets

Answer

Answer: (a) Purchase of Fixed Assets


Question 40.
While calculating profit from operating activities, which will be added back to net profit:
(a) Goodwill Written off
(b) Depreciation
(c) Loss oh Sale of Fixed Assets
(d) All the Above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the Above


While calculating profit from operating activities, which will be added back to net profit:

Question 41.
Profit during the year ₹ 20,000. During the year, there was increase in stock by ₹ 9,000 and decrease in debentures of ₹ 5,000. What is the amount of cash from operating activities ?
(a) ₹ 6,000
(b) ₹ 16,000
(c) ₹ 24,000
(d) ₹ 34,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 16,000


Question 42.
Given:
Net Profit during the year ₹ 1,00,000
Debtors in the beginning the year of ₹ 30,000
Debtors at the end of the year ₹ 36,000
What is the amount of cash from operating activities ?
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 94,000
(c) ₹ 1,06,000
(d) ₹ 1,66,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 94,000


Question 43.
Net Profit during the year ₹ 30,000
Creditors in the beginning ₹ 24,000
Creditors at the end ₹ 16,000
What is the amount of cash from operating activities :
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 34,000
(c) ₹ 22,000
(d) ₹ 40,000

Answer

Answer: (c) 7 22,000


Question 44.
Redemption of Debentures/Preference shares results into:
(a) Source of fund
(b) Use Or application of fund
(c) No flow of fund
(d) No flow of cash

Answer

Answer: (b) Use Or application of fund


Question 45.
Which of the following is not an example of cash outflows ?
(a) Repayment of loans
(b) Decrease in creditors
(c) Issue of debentures
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Issue of debentures


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Cash Flow Statement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Accountancy MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers

Consumer Protection Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Consumer Protection Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 12 MCQs On Consumer Protection

MCQ On Consumer Protection Class 12 Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a reason for importance of consumer protection from the point of view of consumers?
(a) Consumer ignorance
(b) Consumer apathy
(c) Consumer exploitation
(d) Unorganised consumers

Answer

Answer: (b) Consumer apathy


Which one of the following is not a reason for importance of consumer protection from the point of view of consumers?

Consumer Protection Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
From the point of view of business, which one of the following is a reason because of which consumer protection is important?
(a) Dynamic environment
(b) Fast technological development
(c) Government intervention
(d) Competitive market

Answer

Answer: (c) Government intervention


MCQ On Consumer Protection Act Class 12 Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a consumer right?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to seek redressal
(c) Right to get discount
(d) Right to be heard

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to get discount


Consumer Protection Act MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
In which year did Consumer Protection Act come into existence?
(a) 1986
(b) 1999
(c) 1991
(d) 1976

Answer

Answer: (a) 1986


Consumer Protection MCQ Class 12 Question 5.
A District Forum has jurisdiction to entertain a consumer complaint involving product value:
(a) Up to ₹ 20 lakh
(b) Up to ₹ 10 lakh
(c) Between ₹ 20 lakh and ₹ 1 crore
(d) Above ₹ 1 crore

Answer

Answer: (a) Up to ₹ 20 lakh


Question 6.
___ mark is used for electrical products.
(a) ISI
(b) FPO
(c) ISO
(d) Agmark

Answer

Answer: (a) ISI


Question 7.
___ is one of the redressal agencies for redressing consumer grievances.
(a) COPRA
(b) State Commission
(c) Consumer Organisation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) State Commission


Question 8.
A complaint can be filed against ___ who adopt(s) unfair trade practices.
(a) Trader only
(b) Manufacturer only
(c) Trader and Manufacturer
(d) Consumer

Answer

Answer: (c) Trader and Manufacturer


Question 9.
Right to ___ is a right to be protected against products which are hazardous to life or health.
(a) Information
(b) Safety
(c) Seek Redressal
(d) Consumer Education

Answer

Answer: (b) Safety


Question 10.
___ means any person who buys any goods for personal use or hires or avails of any services for a consideration.
(a) Consumer
(b) Manufacturer
(c) Trader
(d) Service Provider

Answer

Answer: (a) Consumer


Question 11.
___ implies safeguard against anti-consumer trade practices of producers and traders.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Redressal Forum
(c) National Commission
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Consumer Protection


Question 12.
In case a consumer is not satisfied with the order passed in the State Commission, he can further make an appeal in the National Commission within a time period of
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 days


Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the National Commission?
(a) It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the Central Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹1 crore.
(d) Where the aggrieved party was not satisfied with the order of the National Commission, the case can be taken to the Supreme Court of India.

Answer

Answer: (a) It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman.


Question 14.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the District Forum?
(a) It consists of a President and three other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the District Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the appropriate District Forum when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, does not exceed ?10 lakhs.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 15.
In case an aggrieved consumer is not satisfied with the decision of the State Commission, he can make a further appeal in
(a) National Commission
(b) District Forum
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) National Commission


Question 16.
Which of the following types of cases are filed in the State Commission?
(a) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(b) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹2 crore.
(c) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹40 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.


Question 17.
Identify the responsibility of consumers being highlighted in the picture given below.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 6

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers 3
(a) Be honest in your dealings
(b) Learn about the risks associated with products and services
(c) Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal
(d) Respect the environment.

Answer

Answer: (b) Learn about the risks associated with products and services


Question 18.
Identify the right of consumers being promoted in the given picture.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 4
(a) Right to seek redressal
(b) Right to consumer education
(c) Right to information
(d) Right to be heard

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to information


Question 19.
Identify the right of consumers being exhibited in the picture on your right.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 2
(a) Right to choose
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to choose


Identify the right of consumers being exhibited in the picture on your right.

Question 20.
Naina, her husband and her two minor daughters were travelling from Mumbai to Delhi, availing a company’s flight services in 2018. The airlines had issued boarding passes to all of them. Naina claimed in her plea that the airlines left all her family at the Mumbai Airport without informing them, despite their being in the airport premises. The family had to stay in a hotel and purchase new tickets the next day. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC). on hearing the plea, asked an airline company to pay ₹50,000 to Naina and her family. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to seek redressal


True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Right to be informed says that the consumer has the right to acquire knowledge and be well-informed throughout his life.

Answer

Answer: False; Right to Consumer Education is the right of the consumer to acquire knowledge and be well- informed throughout his life.


Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act is applicable throughout India.

Answer

Answer: False; The Consumer Protection Act is applicable throughout India except in Jammu and Kashmir.


Question 3.
Buying standardised products is a consumer right.

Answer

Answer: False; it is a consumer responsibility.


Question 4.
The Central Government can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act.

Answer

Answer: True; the complaint can be filed under Section 2(b) of the Consumer Protection Act.


Question 5.
National Commission consists of a president and six other members.

Answer

Answer: False; it consists of four other members.


Question 6.
Consumer awareness is a campaign for protecting consumer interests.

Answer

Answer: False; consumer awareness is making a consumer aware of his rights and liabilities.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Consumer Protection CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers

Financial Management Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Financial Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 9 MCQs On Financial Management

Question 1.
Which one of the following is related to planning, organising, directing and controlling of financial activities?
(a) Financial decision
(b) Capital structure
(c) Investment decision
(d) Financial management

Answer

Answer: (d) Financial management


Question 2.
Wealth maximisation depends on
(a) market price per share.
(b) market price of finished good.
(c) market price of inventory.
(d) market price of fixed assets.

Answer

Answer: (a) market price per share.


Wealth maximisation depends on

Question 3.
Investment decision involves
(a) investment in fixed assets.
(b) investment in current assets.
(c) investment in fixed and current assets.
(d) investment in Government securities.

Answer

Answer: (c) investment in fixed and current assets.


Question 4.
If dividend portion of total earnings is high, portion of retained earnings will be
(a) high.
(b) low.
(c) moderate.
(d) equal.

Answer

Answer: (b) low.


Question 5.
Financial procedures are determined by
(a) financial planning.
(b) financial leverage.
(c) financial decisions.
(d) capital structure.

Answer

Answer: (a) financial planning.


Question 6.
Capital structure shows
(a) Debtor-creditor ratio.
(b) Fixed assets-current assets ratio.
(c) Debt-equity ratio.
(d) Interest coverage ratio.

Answer

Answer: (c) Debt-equity ratio.


Question 7.
Fixed capital requirements are determined by
(a) nature of business.
(b) nature of business environment.
(c) nature of Government control.
(d) nature of marketing efforts.

Answer

Answer: (a) nature of business.


Question 8.
Working capital requirements are low when an organisation has
(a) high technology.
(b) high debtors.
(c) high inventory.
(d) high creditors.

Answer

Answer: (d) high creditors.


Question 9.
___ is concerned with optimum procurement as well as usage of finance.
(a) Financial Analysis
(b) Financial Planning
(c) Financial Management
(d) Budgeting

Answer

Answer: (c) Financial Management


Question 10.
___ represents investment in current assets required for day-to-day operations of the business.
(a) Long-term capital
(b) Working capital
(c) Capital Budgeting
(d) Medium-term capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Working capital


Question 11.
___ involves increasing the proportion of debt and preference shares in total capital.
(a) Trading on equity
(b) Capital Budgeting
(c) Financing decision
(d) Financial Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) Trading on equity


Question 12.
___ is the time span between acquisition of goods and realisation of sale proceeds.
(a) Working capital
(b) Payback Period
(c) Operating Cycle
(d) Account Receivables Period

Answer

Answer: (c) Operating Cycle


Question 13.
___ Gross working capital represents the total investment in assets.
(a) Current
(b) Fixed
(c) Tangible
(d) Intangible

Answer

Answer: (a) Current


Question 14.
___ capital refers to investment in long-term assets.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Working
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (c) Working


Question 15.
The working capital requirement of a business is not likely to be high when?
(a) The nature of business is trading
(b) Scale of operation of business is small
(c) It is difficult to procure raw material
(d) The rate of inflation is low

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to procure raw material


Question 16.
Under which of the following circumstances the fixed capital requirement of a business is not likely to be high?
(a) When the raw material is not easily available
(b) Capital intensive techniques of production are used
(c) The growth prospects of a company a high
(d) When the financial alternatives are easily available

Answer

Answer: (d) When the financial alternatives are easily available


Question 17.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to use of fixed capital?
(a) It affects the long term growth of the business.
(b) Large amount of funds are involved.
(c) The business risk involved is low.
(d) The investment decisions are irreversible.

Answer

Answer: (c) The business risk involved is low.


Question 18.
Under which of the following situations a company is not likely to issue equity capital?
(a) When the debt service coverage ratio is high.
(b) When the interest coverage ratio is high.
(c) When the cost of debt capital is low.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Under which of the following situations a company is not likely to issue equity capital?

Question 19.
If the rate of return on investment for a company is 16%, a situation of unfavourable financial leverage will be said to arise when the rate of interest payable on debt capital is
(a) More than 16 %
(b) Less than 16 %
(c) Equal to 16%
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) More than 16 %


Question 20.
The total capital of Uranium Private Limited is ?50 lacs. The amount of debt is ?20 lacs. The company has earned a profit of ^10 lacs during the current financial year. Its return on investment (ROI) for the present year is
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 10%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (a) 20%


True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. The primary objective of financial management is to arrange wealth for shareholders.

Answer

Answer: False; the primary objective of financial management is to maximise shareholders’ wealth.


2. Financing decision is the decision about dividend payment and retained earnings.

Answer

Answer: False; dividend decison is such a decision.


3. Investment decision is the decision about investment, financing and dividend.

Answer

Answer: False; financial decision is the decision about investment, financing and dividend.


4. Return on investment shows analysis of an investment.

Answer

Answer: False; return on investment shows profitability of an investment.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Financial Management CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers

Analysis of Financial Statements Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Analysis of Financial Statements Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements MCQ With Answers

Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 9 MCQs On Analysis of Financial Statements

Financial Statement Analysis Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Interpretation of Financial Statements includes:
(a) Criticisms and Analysis
(b) Comparison and Trend Study
(c) Drawing Conclusion
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Financial Statement Analysis MCQ Question 2.
Horizontal Analysis is also known as :
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Structural Analysis
(c) Static Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Dynamic Analysis


Analysis Of Financial Statements Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Vertical Analysis is also known as :
(a) Static Analysis
(b) Dynamic Analysis
(c) Structural Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Static Analysis


Financial Statement Analysis MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
Comparative Statements are also known as :
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Horizontal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) External Analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Horizontal Analysis


MCQ On Financial Statement Analysis Class 12 Question 5.
Common-size Statement are also known as:
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Horizontal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) External Analysis

Answer

Answer: (c) Vertical Analysis


Common-size Statement are also known as:

Analysis Of Financial Statements MCQ Question 6.
The most commonly used tools for financial analysis are:
(a) Comparative Statements
(b) Common-size Statement
(c) Accounting Ratios
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Financial Analysis Is Useful For MCQ Question 7.
The analysis of financial statement by a shareholder is an example of:
(a) External Analysis
(b) Internal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) Horizontal Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) External Analysis


MCQ Of Financial Statement Analysis Question 8.
For calculating trend percentages any year is selected as:
(a) Current year
(b) Previous year
(c) Base year
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Base year


Question 9.
Tools for comparison of financial statements are :
(a) Comparative Balance Sheet
(b) Comparative Income Statement
(c) Common-size Statement
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 10.
Trend ratios and trend percentage are used in :
(a) Dynamic analysis
(b) Static analysis
(c) Horizontal analysis
(d) Vertical Analysis

Answer

Answer: (c) Horizontal analysis


Question 11.
Comparative Financial Statements show:
(a) Financial position of a concern
(b) Earning capacity of a concern
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of them


Question 12.
Comparative financial analysis process shows the comparison between the items of which statement:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Statement
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) both


Question 13.
Which of these are not the method of financial statement analysis ?
(a) Ratio Analysis
(b) Comparative Analysis
(c) Trend Analysis
(d) Capitalisation Method

Answer

Answer: (d) Capitalisation Method


Question 14.
Common-size financial statements are mostly prepared:
(a) In proportion
(b) In percentage
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In percentage


Question 15.
Tangible assets of company increased from T 4,00,000 to T 5,00,000. What is the percentage of change ?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33%
(d) 50%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%


Question 16.
A company’s shareholders fund was 7 8,00,000 in the year 2015. It because 7 12,00,000 in the year 2016. What is percentage of change ?
(a) 100%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 33.3%

Answer

Answer: (c) 50%


Question 17.
A company’s net sales are ₹ 15,00,000; cost of sales is ₹ 10,00,000 and indirect expenses are ₹ 3,00,000, the amount gross profit will be:
(a) ₹ 13,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 12,00,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 2,00,000


Question 18.
Sales less Cost of goods sold is called :
(a) Operating Profit
(b) Gross Profit
(c) Net Profit
(d) Total Profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Gross Profit


Question 19.
If total assets of a firm are 7 12,00,000 and its non of non-current assets to total assets ?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 25%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (b) 75%


Question 20.
If total assets of a firm are 7 10,00,000 and its non-current assets are 7 6,00,000, what will be the percentage of current assets on total assets ?
(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 40%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (c) 40%


Question 21.
In a common-size Balance Sheet, total equity and liabilities are assumed to be equal to :
(a) 1,000
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 100


Question 22.
Break-even point refers to that point where :
(a) Total Costs are more than Total Sales
(b) Total Costs are less than Total Sales
(c) Total Costs are half of the Total Sales
(d) Total Cost are equal to total sales

Answer

Answer: (d) Total Cost are equal to total sales


Question 23.
Payment of Income Tax is considered as :
(a) Direct Expenses
(b) Indirect Expenses
(c) Operating Expenses
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Indirect Expenses


Question 24.
Vertical Analysis is also known as :
(a) Fluctuation Analysis
(b) Static Analysis
(c) Horizontal Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Static Analysis


Question 25.
Financial analysis is useful:
(a) For Investors
(b) For Shareholders
(c) For Debenture holders
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 26.
Analysis of financial statements involve :
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & Loss statement
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 27.
Financial analysis is significant because it:
(a) Ignores qualitative aspect
(b) Judges operational efficiency
(c) Suffers from the limitations of financial statements
(d) It is affected by personal ability and bias of the analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Judges operational efficiency


Question 28.
What is shown by the Income Statement ?
(a) Accuracy of books of accounts
(b) Profit or loss of a certain period
(c) Balance of Cash Book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Profit or loss of a certain period


Question 29.
What is shown by Balance Sheet ?
(a) Accuracy of books of accounts
(b) Profit or loss of a specific period
(c) Financial position on a specific date
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Financial position on a specific date


Question 30.
Which of the following is the purpose or objective of financial analysis ?
(a) To assess the current profitability of the firm
(b) To measure the solvency of the firm
(c) To assess the short-term and long-term liquidity position of the firm
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 31.
Out of the following which parties are interested in financial statements ?
(a) Managers
(b) Financial Institutions
(c) Creditors
(d) All the these

Answer

Answer: (d) All the these


Question 32.
Which of the following is not a limitations of financial statement analysis ?
(a) To measure the financial strength
(b) Affected by window-dressing
(c) Do not reflect changes in price level
(d) Lack of Qualitative Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) To measure the financial strength


Question 33.
Break-even Analysis shows:
(a) Relationship between cost and sales
(b) Relationship between production and purchases
(c) Relationship between cost and revenue
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Relationship between cost and sales


Question 34.
Which of the following shows the actual financial position of n enterprise ?
(a) Fund Flow
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) P & L A/c
(d) Ratio Analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance Sheet


Question 35.
The financial statements of a business enterprise include:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Cash Flow Statement
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


The financial statements of a business enterprise include:

Question 36.
An annual report is issued by company to its :
(a) Directors
(b) Auditors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Management

Answer

Answer: (c) Shareholders


Question 37.
Balance Sheet provides information about financial position of the enterprise :
(a) At a Point of Time
(b) Over a Period of Time
(c) For a Period of Time
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) At a Point of Time


Question 38.
Profit & Loss Account is also called :
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Income Statements
(c) Operating Profit
(d) Investment

Answer

Answer: (b) Income Statements


Question 39.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders funds
(b) Assets = Total funds
(c) Assets = Funds of outsiders .
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders funds


Question 40.
In which meeting of company directors report is presented ?
(a) Directors Meeting
(b) Annual General Meeting
(c) Manager’s Meeting
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Annual General Meeting


Question 41.
On the basis of process, which of the following is the type of financial analysis ?
(a) Horizontal Analysis
(b) Vertical Analysis
(c) Ratio Analysis
(d) (a) and (b) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (a) and (b) both


Question 42.
Which Of the following is limitation of financial analysis ?
(a) Window-dressing
(b) Basis of Valuation
(c) Lack of Accuracy
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 43.
Which of the following is not the limitations of financial analysis ?
(a) Lack of Accuracy
(b) Based on Historical facts
(c) Basis of Valuation
(d) Information of Profit and Loss

Answer

Answer: (d) Information of Profit and Loss


Question 44.
When Financial Statements of two or more organisations are analysed, it is called :
(a) Intra-firm Analysis
(b) Inter-firm Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Inter-firm Analysis


Question 45.
Which of the following statement correct ?
(a) Retained Earnings = Total Income
(b) Retained Earnings = Revenue-expenses
(c) Retained Earnings = Gross Profit
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Retained Earnings = Revenue-expenses


Question 46.
Which of the following is a type of Financial Analysis on the basis of material used ?
(a) Internal Analysis
(b) External Analysis
(c) Internal Audit
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Analysis of Financial Statements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Accountancy MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 13 Entrepreneurship Development with Answers

Entrepreneurship Development Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 13 Entrepreneurship Development with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Entrepreneurship Development Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 13 Entrepreneurship Development MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 13 MCQs On Entrepreneurship Development

Entrepreneurship Is Ensured By Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Self-actualisation needs on the job are fulfilled by :
(a) Ensuring hard work in the job
(b) Ensuring quality products
(c) Participating in a training programme
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Participating in a training programme


Entrepreneurship Fails To Lead MCQ Class 12 Question 2.
The attitude of Indian Government Machinery towards entrepreneurial development programme is :
(a) Destructive
(b) Negative
(c) Constructive
(d) Non-cooperative

Answer

Answer: (d) Non-cooperative


The attitude of Indian Government Machinery towards entrepreneurial development programme is:

Question 3.
According to sociological approach, entrepreneurship
(a) Process of sensitivity
(b) Process of role performance
(c) Process of economic change
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Process of role performance


Question 4.
Which of the following attitudes Is not generally associated with successful entrepreneurship :
(a) Competition and co-operation
(b) Desire to influence others
(c) Innovation and product improvement
(d) Status quo in business

Answer

Answer: (d) Status quo in business


Question 5.
The function of entrepreneur are:
(a) To imagine a business idea
(b) To study project feasibility
(c) To setup enterprise
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 6.
Which of the following sentence is not a characteristic of entrepreneurship:
(a) Risk taking
(b) Innovation
(c) Creative activity
(d) Managerial training

Answer

Answer: (d) Managerial training


Question 7.
An entrepreneur is:
(a) Born
(b) Made
(c) Bom and made both
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Born and made both


Question 8.
Entrepreneurship fails to lead :
(a) Partnership firm
(b) New corporate division
(c) New subsidiary venture
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Partnership firm


Question 9.
__ gives financial assistance to entrepreneurs:
(a) ICICI
(b) SBI
(c) Indian Bank
(d) IMF

Answer

Answer: (a) ICICI


Question 10.
Social and economic development of a Nation is the result of………..:
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Planning
(c) Operation
(d) Government

Answer

Answer: (a) Entrepreneur


Question 11.
The future of entrepreneurial in India is:
(a) In dark
(b) Bright
(c) In difficulty
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Bright


Question 12.
Entrepreneurial Development Institute of India was established by:
(a) Maharashtra Government
(b) Gujarat Government
(c) Madhya Pradesh Government
(d) Tamilnadu Government

Answer

Answer: (b) Gujarat Government


Question 13.
Entrepreneurship is ensured by:
(a) Subsidiaries
(b) Larger Firm
(c) Medium Firm
(d) Small Firm

Answer

Answer: (b) Larger Firm


Question 14.
In India entrepreneurial development programme is :
(a) Necessary
(b) Unnecessary
(c) Wastage of time
(d) Wastage of money

Answer

Answer: (a) Necessary


Question 15.
Entrepreneurial Development Programee provides :
(a) Self-employment
(b) Education & training
(c) Skill increment
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Self-employment


Question 16.
Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs theory is governed by the fact that:
(a) People are universally motivated by needs
(b) People are socially motivated by needs
(c) People are politically motivated by needs
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) People are politically motivated by needs


Question 17.
Critical evaluation points of entrepreneurial development programme are:
(a) Organisational policies
(b) Lack of suitable selection procedure
(c) Lack quality of technical and vocational education and training
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 18.
Entrepreneurship falls to lead :
(a) Partnership firm
(b) New corporate division
(c) New subsidiary venture
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Partnership firm


Question 19.
Anentrepreneureissaidtobe:
(a) Promotor of economic development
(b) Motivator of economic development
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Both the above


Question 20.
Which of the following sentence is inconsistent in the context of entrepreneur:
(a) He is owner of the business
(b) He is risk taker
(c) He operates production activities
(d) He searches out business opportunities

Answer

Answer: (c) He operates production activities


Which of the following sentence is inconsistent in the context of entrepreneur:

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 13 Entrepreneurship Development with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Entrepreneurship Development CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers

Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQs On Nature and Significance of Management

Nature And Significance Of Management MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Management is a goal-oriented process.
(b) Management is a continuous process.
(c) Management is a dynamic process.
(d) Management is a rigid process.

Answer

Answer: (d) Management is a rigid process.


Nature And Significance Of Management Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an importance of management?
(a) Integrating various interest groups
(b)Developing society
(c) Disciplining employees
(d) Inculcating creativity

Answer

Answer: (c) Disciplining employees


Which one of the following is not an importance of management?

MCQ Of Nature And Significance Of Management Question 3.
Management is not
(a) an applied science.
(b) a pure science.
(c) an art.
(d) an art and science both.

Answer

Answer: (b)a pure science.


MCQ On Nature And Significance Of Management Question 4.
In which category does management fall?
(a) Well-established profession
(b) Semi-profession
(c) Emerging profession
(d) Marginal profession

Answer

Answer: (c) Emerging profession


Nature And Significance Of Management MCQ Pdf Question 5.
Top management is concerned with formulation of
(a) guidelines for supervisors.
(b) long-term plans.
(c) short-term plans.
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) long-term plans.


Chapter 1 Business Studies Class 12 MCQ Question 6.
Coordination is
(a) a management function.
(b) the essence of management.
(c) an objective of management.
(d) a social objective.

Answer

Answer: (b) the essence of management.


Management Is Not A MCQ Question 7.
The element that aims at integrating group efforts to achieve group objectives is called ___
(a) Cooperation
(b) Coordination
(c) Management
(d) Directing

Answer

Answer: (b) Coordination


Question 8.
Managing Director is the position of ___ level of management in a large company.
(a) Top
(b) Middle
(c) Lower
(d) Middle and Lower

Answer

Answer: (a) Top


Question 9.
Management is multidimensional because it has ___ dimension(s).
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (c) Three


Question 10.
Management is a ___ directed process as it aims at achieving specified goals.
(a) Continuously
(b) Future
(c) Goal
(d) Deliberately

Answer

Answer: (c) Goal


Question 11.
___ is a systematised body of knowledge that explains certain general truths or operation of general laws.
(a) Science
(b) Art
(c) Profession
(d) Art and Profession both

Answer

Answer: (a) Science


Question 12.
Identify the feature of co-ordination being highlighted in the given statement: “Coordination is not a one time function, it begins at the planning stage and continue till controlling.”
(a) Coordination ensures unity of action
(b) Coordination is an all pervasive function
(c) Coordination is a continuous process
(d) Coordination is a deliberate function

Answer

Answer: (c) Coordination is a continuous process


Question 13.
Co-ordination is considered to be the essence of management because
(a) It is a common thread that runs through all the activities within the organisation
(b) It is implicit and inherent in all functions of the organisation
(c) It is a force that binds all the functions of management
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 14.
This function of Management related to placing the right person at the right job is
(a) Organising
(b) Staffing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (b) Staffing


Question 15.
This function of management relating to laying down the foundation for carrying out the other functions of management successfully is
(a) Organising
(b) Staffing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: (c) Planning


Question 16.
Organising as a function of management involves deciding
(a) What activities and resources are required
(b) Who will do a particular task
(c) Where will it be done
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 17.
The main task of this level of management is to determine the overall organisational objectives and strategies for their realisation.
(a) Operational management
(b) Middle level management
(c) First line managers
(d) Top level management

Answer

Answer: (d) Top level management


Question 18.
Which of the following statements is not true for lower level management?
(a) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business.
(b) Ensure the quality of the output
(c) They strive to reduce the wastage of resources
(d) They ensure that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business.
Explanation:
Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business-top level management


Question 19.
Which of the following is a function of top level management?
(a) Ensuring quality of output
(b) Assigning necessary duties and responsibilities to their departments
(c) Taking responsibility for all the activities of the business and its impact on the society
(d) Ensuring that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.

Answer

Answer: (d) Ensuring that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.
Explanation:
Ensuring quality of output; Ensuring the safety standards are maintained within the organisation – lower level management and assigning necessary duties and responsibilities to their departments – middle level management.


Question 20.
Which of the following is not a designation related to middle level management?
(a) Operations Head
(b) Sales Manager
(c) Chief Operating Officer
(d) Divisional Manager

Answer

Answer: (c) Chief Operating Officer
Explanation:
Chief Operating Officer is a designation for top level management.


Which of the following is not a designation related to middle level management?

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. “Management principles can be applied to all types of activities.”

Answer

Answer: True; management is pervasive.


2. “Coordination is required at all levels of management in all management functions.”

Answer

Answer: True; coordination is pervasive.


3. “Management involves the decisions by a manager and it is not a group activity.”

Answer

Answer: False; management is a group activity because it unites individual efforts in common direction.


4. Top management level is responsible for implementing plans and strategies of the organisation.

Answer

Answer: False; it is the responsibility of the middle management level.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Nature and Significance of Management CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Business Studies MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 11 Marketing Management with Answers

Marketing Management Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 11 Marketing Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Marketing Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 11 Marketing Management MCQ With Answers

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 11 MCQs On Marketing Management

Marketing Management Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
With which element is exchange mechanism related?
(a) Publicity
(b) Marketing
(c) Advertising
(d) Branding

Answer

Answer: (b) Marketing


Marketing Management MCQ Class 12 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a marketing management philosophy?
(a) Societal marketing concept
(b) Distribution concept
(c) Direct marketing concept
(d) Channel concept

Answer

Answer: (a) Societal marketing concept


Marketing Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a marketing mix?
(a) Product
(b) Physical distribution
(c) Product pricing
(d) Production process

Answer

Answer: (d) Production process


Which one of the following is not a marketing mix?

MCQ Of Marketing Management Class 12 Question 4.
Which one of the following factors is not relevant to price fixation?
(a) Obtaining market leadership
(b) Age of an organisation
(c) Value for money
(d) Product differentiation

Answer

Answer: (b) Age of an organisation


MCQ On Marketing Management Class 12 Question 5.
For heavy equipment, which of the following channels is more relevant?
(a) Zero-level
(b) One-level
(c) Two-level
(d) Three-level

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero-level


Marketing MCQs Class 12 Question 6.
Which one of the following promotion tools has mass reach?
(a) Advertising
(b) Personal selling
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Public relations

Answer

Answer: (a) Advertising


Marketing MCQ Class 12 Question 7.
Mail order selling is a __ channel of distribution.
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Direct and Indirect
(d) Sole

Answer

Answer: (a) Direct


Class 12 Marketing Management MCQ Question 8.
___ is the deliberate action of an organisation for promoting goodwill between itself and the society.
(a) Marketing mix
(b) Advertising
(c) Public relations
(d) Selling

Answer

Answer: (c) Public relations


Marketing Management MCQ Pdf Class 12 Question 9.
___ ensures that products reach the ultimate customers from the manufacturers.
(a) Selling
(b) Marketing
(c) Physical distribution
(d) Sales promotion

Answer

Answer: (c) Physical distribution


Class 12 Marketing MCQ Question 10.
___ involves designing and producing container or wrapper of the product.
(a) Marketing
(b) Selling
(c) Advertising
(d) Packaging

Answer

Answer: (d) Packaging


Marketing Management Class 12 MCQs Question 11.
Marketing is called a ___ process because it involves interaction of buyers and sellers.
(a) Economic
(b) Social
(c) Legal
(d) Political

Answer

Answer: (b) Social


Question 12.
___ is the marketing function which is concerned with informing the customers about the firm’s products.
(a) Transportation
(b) Selling
(c) Advertising
(d) Public Relations

Answer

Answer: (c) Advertising


Question 13.
Registering a trademark gives to the users.
(a) Finance
(b) Fame
(c) Protection
(d) Information

Answer

Answer: (c) Protection


Question 14.
Within 2 years of it’s inception, Bhavishya Limited has created a very positive reputation about itself and its products in the eyes of general public by participating extensively in various social welfare programs. Identify the component of promotion mixing described in the given lines.
(a) Advertising
(b) Personal selling
(c) Public relation
(d) Sales promotion

Answer

Answer: (c) Public relation


Question 15.
Under which of the following conditions does a business need not maintain high level of inventory?
(a) When higher level of customer services need to be provided
(b) When high degree of accurate sales forecast can be made
(c) When the responsiveness of the distribution system is low
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) When high degree of accurate sales forecast can be made


Question 16.
Hena is planning to set up a small manufacturing unit for manufacturing eco-friendly packaging material. She has decided to market her products through the conventional channel of distribution, which involves wholesalers and retailers. Identify the channel of distribution being adopted by the company.
(a) Zero level channel
(b) One level channel
(c) Two level channel
(d) Three level channel

Answer

Answer: (c) Two level channel


Question 17.
Kannu has decided to sell her range of organic food products through her own retail outlets. Identify the channel of distribution being adopted by the company.
(a) Zero level channel
(b) One level channel
(c) Two level channel
(d) Three level channel

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero level channel


Question 18.
Under which of the following situations is a company not likely to fix a lower price for its product?
(a) When the competition has introduced a substitute product
(b) If the demand for a product is inelastic
(c) When the company wants to attain market share leadership
(d) When the demand for the product is low

Answer

Answer: (b) If the demand for a product is inelastic


Under which of the following situations is a company not likely to fix a lower price for its product?

Question 19.
A salesman of a company dealing in pet foods is paid a fixed salary of ?20000 per month and furthermore, ?20 extra per unit of the product sold beyond the target sales. Identify the type of cost being described in the given example.
(a) Fixed cost
(b) Variable cost
(c) Semi-variable cost
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Semi-variable cost


Question 20.
Identify the related function of labelling being depicted below as given on the pack of the chips.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 11 Marketing 4
(a) Describes the product and specifies its content
(b) Grading of products
(c) Helps in promotion of the products
(d) Identification of the product or brand
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 11 Marketing Management with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: (c) Helps in promotion of the products


True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Advertising is the function of marketing which is concerned with the cost and location of target market.

Answer

Answer: False; transportation is the function of marketing.


Question 2.
There is personal communication in case of advertising.

Answer

Answer: False; there is impersonal communication.


Question 3.
There is no personal contact in personal selling.

Answer

Answer: False; there is personal contact.


Question 4.
Labelling involves putting identification marks on the package.

Answer

Answer: True; labelling involves putting identification marks on the package. A label may be a part of the package or it may be a tag attached to the product.


Question 5.
Marketing mix is a blend of multiple financial decisions.

Answer

Answer: False; marketing mix is a blend of product, price, physical distribution and promotion decisions.


Question 6.
The main focus of selling concept is production volume.

Answer

Answer: False; the main focus of selling concept is the existing product.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 11 Marketing Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Marketing Management CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.