Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Here we are providing Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

The Making of Global World Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Question 1.
What is silk route?
Answer:
It is a route through which the Chinese silk would move from China to West-bound regions.

Question 2.
Give examples of goods sent to Europe from Asia.
Answer:
Silk, pottery, textiles, spices.

Question 3.
What would Europe give to Asia in return to silk, spices etc.?
Answer:
Precious metals: gold and silver.

Question 4.
Who were the American Indians?
Answer:
America’s original inhabitants were known as the American Indians.

Question 5.
How do you say that a crop could make the difference between life and death? Give example.
Answer:
It a crop was available, people would eat it and live; if it was not available, people would die Europe’s poor lived as potato was available: the people of Ireland died when the potato crop was destroyed by disease.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 6.
When do you find world shrinking?
Answer:
The pre-modern world began shrinking when the European sailors found new sea route to Asia and discovered”Americas.

Question 7.
Name the countries where precious metals such as silver and gold were found?
Answer:
Present Peru and Mexico, and El Dorado.

Question 8.
Mention the problems Europe had faced until the 19th century.
Answer:
Poverty, hunger, diseases, religious confiets.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘flow of trade’?
Answer:
Flow of trade refers to trade in goods (cloth, wheat).

Question 10.
What do you mean by ‘flow of labour?
Answer:
Flow of labour refers to migration: people moving out in search of employment.

Question 11.
What do you mean by ‘flow of capital’?
Answer:
Flow of capital refers to investment of capital over long distances.

Question 12.
What were the com laws? Why were these laws later scrapped?
Answer:
Corn laws were laws enacted by Britain so to disallow ‘corns’ in the country. As food prices arose, the industrialists and the urban dwellers forced the government to withdraw these laws.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 13.
Why were certain colonies in Punjab described as the canal colonies?
Answer:
The British government built a network of canals, in the then semi deserts areas of Punjab. Colonies established around these canals were called the canal colonies.

Question 14.
Mention as to what had helped imagine a transformed 194-century world?
Answer:
Railways, steamship, telegraph etc. etc.

Question 15.
Trade and profit apart, what was the darker side of colonialism for the colonial people?
Answer:
Loss of their freedoms, and also of livelihood. The colonialists made use of the natural resources o the colonies for’ their colonial design.

Question 16.
Why were the Europeans attracted to Africa?
Answer:
The Europeans were attracted to Africa due to its vast resources of land and minerals, in late 19th century.

Question 17.
Why were the inheritance laws introduced in Africa?
Answer:
The purpose behind the inheritance laws was to displace the peasants from their ‘and, and force them to work as wages.

Question 18.
What was rinderpest?
Answer:
Rinderpest was a deadly cattle disease. It spread in Africa in 1890s.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 19.
From which regions of India did the indentured workers come to work with the plantation employers?
Answer:
Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, some districts of Tamil Nadu.

Question 20.
What is described as the new system of slavery?
Answer:
The 19th century indenture was described as the new system of slavery.

Question 21.
What is Hosay’?
Answer:
‘Hosay’ (for Imam Hussain) a notorious I carnival being transformed from Muharram.

Question 22.
Who were the Allies and the central powers during the World War I?
Answer:
Allies: Britain, France, Russia, later the USA.
Central Powers: Germany. Austria-Hungary j and the Ottoman Turkey.

Question 23.
Why do we say that the World War I | was the first modern industrial war?
Answer:
The World War I is described as the first modem industrial war because it saw the use of machine guns, tanks, aircrafts, chemical weapons etc. on a massive scale.

Question 24.
Why was Britain burdened with huge external debt after the World War I?
Answer:
Britain had borrowed liberally from the USA. It was unable to recover from economic losses during the war.

Question 25.
The World War I led to an economic boom initially and economic depression later. Explain.
Answer:
The World War I resulted in economic recovery initially leading to mass production as well as mass consumption in early 1920s. But soon mass production had no buyers, hence economic depression in 1929-30.

Question 26.
What was the effect the Great Depression on India?
Answer:
Foodgrains prices fell 50%; jute prices fell 60% all this leading to rural indebtedness.

Question 27.
At which conference was the International Monetary Fund established and for what purposes?
Answer:
At Bretton Woods conference, to deal with the external surpluses and deficits of its members.

Question 28.
Why was the World Bank established?
Answer:
The World Bank (earlier called the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) was set up, after the World War II, to finance post-war reconstruction.

Question 29.
How have the human societies become interlinked? Explain.
Answer:
All through history, human societies have become steadily more interlinked. From ancient times, travellers, traders, priests and pilgrims travelled vast distances for knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfilment, or to escape persecution. They carried goods, money, values, skills, ideas, inventions, and even germs and diseases
Some such examples are:

  • As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the Indus valley civilisations with present- day West Asia,
  • For more than a millennia, cowries (the Hindi coudi Seashells used as a form of currency) from the Maldives found their way to China and East Africa.
  • The long distance spread of disease carrying germs may be traced as far back as the seventh century.

Question 30.
Give examples as to how food offers a link between peoples of different region.
Answer:
Food offers many examples of long distance cultural exchange Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. Even ‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world might share common origins. Take spaghetti and noodles. It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti. Or, perhaps Arabs traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily, an island now in Italy.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 31.
Explain what we mean when we say that the world shrank in the 1500s.
Answer:
By shrinking of the world what we mean is that the people of the world have come closer. With the new sea route to Asia, it was now approachable to the Europeans. The discovery of America, unknown until then, came to be known to the world. Europe, Asia, Europe, Australia – all these seemed nearer to each other.

Question 32.
How did smallpox pave way for the conquest of Americas by the Spanish.
Answer:
In fact, the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was the germs such as those of smallpox that they carried on their person. Because of their long isolation, America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that can from Europe. Smallpox in particular provec a deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.

Question 33.
Why did some Europeans move from | Europe to America during most part of the 17th 1 century?
Answer:
Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe. Cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread. Religious conflicts were common, and religious dissenters were persecuted. Thousands therefore fled Europe for America, where by the eighteenth century, plantations worked by slaves captured in Africa. Nearly 5 crore people migrated from Europe to America and Australia during the 19th century.

Question 34.
How did the coming of the world economy lead to large migration of the people.
Answer:
Increase in agricultural products led to sale abroad Railways, were needed to link the agricultural regions to the ports, New harbours had to be built and old ones expanded to ship the new cargoes, People had to settle on the lands to bring them under cultivation. This meant building homes and settlements. All these activities in turn required capital and labour.

Capital flowed from financial centres such as Landon. The demand for labour in places where labour was in short supply – as in America and Australia – led to more migration. All over the world some 150 million are estimated to have left their homes, crossed oceans and vast distances over land in search of a better future.

Question 35.
Give briefly the process of colonization of the world during the 19 century.
Answer:
The European powers carved up the borders of the African countries during late 19th century. In 1885, the big European powers met in Berlin to complete the carving up of Africa between them Britain and France made vast additions to their overseas territories in the late nineteenth century. Belgium and Germany became new colonial powers. The US also became a colonial power in the late 1890s by taking over some colonies earlier held by Spain.

The geographical explorations did contribute to the colonization of Africa. Sir Henry Morton Stanley refers about Livingston’s exploration, in helping the conquest of Africa.

Question 36.
Give a brief account of the rinderpest, the devastating cattle disease.
Answer:
Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s. It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa. Entering Africa in the east, rinderpest moved west like forest fire’, reaching Africa’s Atlantic coast in 1892. It reached the Cape.

Along the way rinderpest killed 90 per cent of the cattle. The loss of cattle destroyed African livelihoods. Planters, mine owners and colonial governments now successfully monopolised what scarce cattle resources remained, to strengthen their power and to force Africans into the labour market. Control over the scarce resource of cattle”enabled European colonisers to conquer and subdue Africa.

Question 37.
Explain with examples how the Indian bankers and traders financed export agriculture.
Answer:
The Indian Bankers and traders, such as Shikarpuri Shroffs and Nattukottai Chettiars financed export agriculture in Central and Southeast Asia, using either their own funds or those borrowed from European banks. They had a sophisticated system to transfer money over large distances, and even developed indigenous forms of corporate organisation.

Indian traders and moneylenders also followed European colonisers into Africa. Hyderabadi Sindhi traders, however, ventured beyond European colonies.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 38.
Give example as to how the trade in Indian textile declined but increased in raw material ?
Answer:
With stiff competition in international market, export in textile declined. It declined from some 30% around 1800 to 15% by 1815, and by
1870, it came below 3%. But the export in raw- material steadily increased between 1812 and 1871, the share of raw-cotton exports rose from 5% to 35%.

Question 39.
How was the economic depression harmful for jute production in India ?
Answer:
The economic depression (1929-30) proved harmful for the Indian jute producers. The producers grow raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form of gunny bags. But as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than 60 percent. Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to increase output in the hope of higher incomes faced ever lower prices, and fell deeper and deeper into debt.

Question 40.
Why did the Bretton Woods institutions shift their attention towards developing countries
Answer:
The IMF and the World Bank (the two Bretton Woods institutions) were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries. They were not equipped to cope with the challenge of poverty and lack of development in the former colonies. But as Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies, they grew less dependent on the IMI and the World Bank. Thus from the late 1950s, the Bretton Woods institutions began to shift their attention more towards developing countries.

Question 41.
Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity.
Answer:

  • A nation is more important than an individual. So a person is known by his/her language he/she speaks or the traditions are follows. For example, if a person speaks Hindi in England and celebrates Holi or Diwali there, he/ she will be identified as an Indian easily.
  • Since traditions and languages take a very long time to develop in a particular region, these get deeply rooted among the people of that region.
  • People may come and people may go but languages and traditions go on forever, although these might change their form.

Question 42.
Briefly summarise the two lessons learnt by economists and politicians from the inter-war economic experience?
Answer:

  1. Since the wars destroyed the economies of many countries of the world and pushed them back by many years so the economists, as well as the politicians, thought that they must work very hard for the economic development and stability of the industrialised countries.
  2. Now, they understood the value of interdependence of different national economies all over the world, which slowly transformed into the era of globalisation.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Question 43.
Substantiate with examples how the silk routes were helpful in linking the world?
Answer:
The silk routes are a good example of pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name silk routes points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, overland and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa.

They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.

Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this: Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

Question 44.
Do you agree that by 1890, a global agricultural economy had taken place?
Answer:
By 1890, a global agricultural economy had taken shape, accompanied by complex changes in labour movement patterns, capital flows, ecologies and technology. Foud no longer came from a nearby village or town, but from thousands of miles away. It was not grown by a peasant tilling his own land, but by an agricultural worker, perhaps recently arrived, who was now working on a large farm that only a generation ago had most likely been a forest.

It was transported by railway, built for that very purpose, and by MPs which were increasingly manned in these decades by low-paid workers from southern Europe, Asia, Africa and the Caribbean.

Indeed, so rapidly did regional specialisation in the production of commodities develop, that between 1820 and 1914 world trade is estimated to have multiplied 25 to 40 times. Nearly 60 per cent of this trade comprised ‘primary products’ that is agricultural products such as wheat and cotton, and minerals such as coal.

Question 45.
How did the Great Depression affect the US economy?
Answer:
The US was also the industrial country most severely affected by the depression. With the fall in prices and the prospect of a depression, US banks had also slashed domestic lending and called back loans, Farms could not sell their harvests, households were ruined, and businesses collapsed. Faced with falling incomes.

What are MNCs?
Multinational corporations (MNCs) are large companies that operate in several countries at the same time. The first MNCs were established in the 1920s Many more came up in the 1950s and 1960s as US businesses expanded worldwide and Western Europe and Japan also recovered to become powerful industrial economies.

The worldwide spread of MNCs was a notable feature of the 1950s and 1960s. This was partly because high import tariffs imposed by different governments forced MNCs to locate their manufacturing operations and become ‘domestic producers’ in as many countries as possible.

Many households in the US could not repay what they had borrowed and were forced to give up their homes, cars and other consumer durables. The consumer’s prosperity of the 1920s now disappeared in a puff of dust. As unemployment soared, people trudged long distances looking for any work they could find.

Ultimately, the US banking system itself collapsed. Unable to recover investments, collect loans and repay depositors.
thousands of banks went bankrupt and were forced to close. The numbers are phenomenal. by 1933 over 4,000 banks had closed and between 1929 and 1932 about 110,000 companies had collapsed.

Question 46.
How would you explain that from mid-1970s, international financial system substantially changed?
Answer:
From the mid-1970s the international financial system also changed in important ways.

(i) Earlier, developing countries could turn to International institutions for loans and development assistance. But now they were
forced to borrow from Western commercial banks and private lending institutions. This led to periodic debt crises in the developing world, and lower incomes and increased poverty, especially in Africa and Latin America.

(ii) The índustrial world was also hit by unemployment that began rising from the mid 1970s and remained high until the early 1990s. From the late 1970s MNCs also began to shift production operations to low wage Asian countries.

(iii) China had been cut off from the post war world economy since its revolution in 1949. But new economic policies in China and the collapse of the Soviet Union and Soviet-style communism in Eastern Europe brought many countries back into the fold of the world economy.

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World

Map Skill

On the outline map of Africa, draw map of colonial Africa at the end of the 19th century.
Answer:
See map below:

Class 10 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Making of Global World 1

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words.

(i) …………………………….. or seashells were used as a form of currency.
Answer:
Cowdies

(ii) Most of our common foods came from ……………………………… .
Answer:
American Indians,

(iii) Silk routes pertain to a particular country called …………………………….. .
Answer:
China

(iv) The Great Depression occurred during …………………………….. .
Answer:
1929-30.

(v) Most India …………………………….. workers come from eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
indenture.

2. Choose the most appropriate alternative:

(i) ‘Chutney motive was popular in
(a) Chicago
(b) Landon
(c) Trinidad
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(c) Trinidad

(ii) The headquarter of the English Last India company was in:
(a) Yorkshire
(b) Landon
(c) Glasgow
(d) Liverpool
Answer:
(b) Landon

(iii) One of the Following was the producer of car in the USA
(a) Henry Ford
(b) Farty Taft
(c) Gerald Ford
(d) Bill Gates
Answer:
(a) Henry Ford

(iv) Group of 77 belong to the following nations:
(a) Developed
(b) Developing
(c) African
(d) Asian
Answer:
(b) Developing

(v) One of the following in Bretton Woods institutions
(a) IMF
(b) WHO
(c) ILO
(d) UNESCO
Answer:
(a) IMF

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Here we are providing Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Nationalism in India Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Question 1.
Mention the significance of the Home Rule Movement. State its two features.
Answer:
The significance of the Home Rule movement in India’s freedom struggle cannot be denied. It gave the nationalist movement a boost needed at that time. The two features of the Home Rule Movement were:

  1. Demand for a dominion status.
  2. Demand for Home rule.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the Kakori Conspiracy Case? Name the two terrorists hanged in this case.
Answer:
The British government struck at the workers of the Hindustan Republican Association by arresting a large number of terrorist youth and trying them in Kakori Conspiracy Case (1925) Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla were hanged in this case.

Question 3.
Why did the British government appoint Simon Commission? Why did the Indians boycott it?
Answer:
The British government appointed the Simon Commission” in 1923 to examine the working of the Government of India Act, 1919.
The Indians boycotted the Commission because,

  • it was appointed by the Conservative Party government, unsympathetic towards India’s cause,
  • it consisted of all Englishmen.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for launching Civil Disobedience Movement by the Congress?
Answer:

  • The Indian National Congress had already resolved in the Lahore session of 1929 to launch the movement.
  • The British Government was unwilling to solve the Indian”political problems, i.e., liberation of the country.

Question 5.
What were the two important decisions taken in the Lahore session of Indian National Congress of 1929?
Answer:
A session of the Indian National Congress was held at Lahore in 1929. The two important decisions taken here were :

  1. Declaration of complete independence and its unilateral celebration on January 26, 1930.
  2. Launching of a civil disobedience movement in 1930.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 6.
What were the objectives of the Constituent Assembly (1946)?
Answer:
The following were the objectives of the Constituent Assembly :

  • To make the Constitution of India.
  • To act as the Parliament of India When the British leave the country.

Question 7.
What do you know about the Montague’s Declaration?
Answer:
The Montague’s declaration was made in August 1917. The British policy of administration was pronounced. It was said that the ultimate aim of the British rule in India was the establishment of responsible government in the country.

Question 8.
What was dyarchy in the context of the Government of India Act, 1919?
Answer:
Dyarchy, in the context of the Government of India Act, (1919) was the introduction of the dual rule in the provinces: the reserved departments under the councillors, all Englishmen; the transferred departments under the ministers, all Indians.

Question 9.
Why is Dandi March important? Give reason.
Answer:
Dandi March is important because it was at that place” that Gandhiji made all out of the seawater on April 6, 1930. It was the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 10.
When and by whom was the Indian National Army (IN A) reorganised? What was its main purpose?
Answer:
The Indian National Army was reorganised by Subhash Chandra Bose in Singapore in 1943. The main purpose of INA was to liberate India from the yoke of the British rule.

Question 11.
Who was the architect of the two-nation theory? What was its main object?
Answer:
The two-nation theory was advocated by M.A.Jinnah The main purpose of this theory was to have two separate independent states for the Hindus and the Muslims.

Question 12.
Why did Gandhiji launch individual satyagraha? Why was the first satyagraha?
Answer:
Gandhiji launched individual Satyagraha in 1940 with the object of dissuading the Indians in joining the war. Vinoba Bhave was the first satyagrahi.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 13.
How did the people discover their unity while fighting”against colonialism?
Answer:
People began discovering their unity in the process of their struggle against colonialism.

Question 14.
Why did forced recruitment cause widespread anger India on the eve of world war?
Answer:
On the eve of World War I, the villagers in India faced hardships such as inflation, increasing custom duties, taxation sailing crops. When the British government began forced recruitment in the army, the villagers were angry.

Question 15.
When was the Khilafat committee formed and for what purposes?
Answer:
The Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in 1919 to defend the temporal powers of the Khalifa, the spiritual head of the Islamic world.

Question 16.
Why was the Nagpur session of the Congress important?
Answer:
The Nagpur session of the Congress (1920) was important because it was in this session that the non-cooperation programme was adopted.

Question 17.
Why was the rural India in turmoil by 1930?
Answer:
The economic depression had its effect all over the world. Agricultural prices began to fall from 1926 and collapsed after 1930. The demand for agricultural products also fell leading to the decline of export. The peasants could not sell their products, nor could they pay their revenue.

Question 18.
Why was the Lahore session of the Congress (1929) important?
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Congress (1929) was important because it was here that the Congress passed the “Purna Swaraj” resolution. The Indians had celebrated 26th January 1930 as the independence day.

Question 19.
Mention the social groups which were lukewarm to the civil disobedience movement.
Answer:
The Dalits, the upper-caste Hindus, some Muslim organisations were lukewarm to the civil disobedience movement launched by Gandhiji.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 20.
It is said that the ideas of nationalism developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore? Give example.
Answer:
It is true that the ideas of nationalism developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore, for example, himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths and led the movement for folk revival.

Question 21.
When and why was the Muslim League founded? What was the main idea which led to I the partition of India in 1987 Elucidate?
Answer:
The Muslim League was founded in 1906 at Dhaka. Its”objectives included the following:

  • To protect and promote the interests of the Muslims.
  • To bring the Muslims and the British closer in each other.
  • To foster friendship with other communities of India.

The main idea which led to the partition of India in 1947 was Jinnah’s two-nation theory and his direct action strategy (use of violence) to get Pakistan.

Question 22.
What was the contribution of the revolutionaries to the growth of Indian Nationalism?
Answer:
The contribution of the revolutionaries to the growth of Indian nationalism canot be underestimated. They awakened the common masses and filled in them the spirit of nationalism. They attempted to highlight injustice metal out The Indians in India as well as abroad. They demanded supreme sacrifice from the people to get the country free from the British.

Question 23.
Describe the role of revolutionaries in the Indian National Movement.
Answer:
The role of the revolutionaries in the Indian National Movement can hardly be denied. The revolutionaries had no faith in the British and hence wanted them to leave the country. For ousting the British, the revolutionaries did not hesitate in resorting to the extremist and revolutionary activities. In Punjab, Bengal, Maharashtra and Chennai (Madras), they followed policy of terrorising the British rulers. They were successful in generating”awakening among the people.

Question 24.
Discuss four important provisions of the Act of 1919.
Answer:

  1. The Act of 1919 increased the membership strength of the legislative bodies: both at the centre as well as in the states.
  2. It enhanced the powers of the legislative bodies.
  3. At the provincial level, dyarchy was introduced.
  4. The Governor-General and the Governors got discretionary powers to override the decisions of the legislative bodies.

Question 25.
What was the Rowlatt Act? Why did the Indians oppose it?
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act was an Act passed by the British Government in India. The Act authorised the police to arrest and imprison any person without trying him in any court. It was an oppressive Act. The Indians opposed the Ad because it was detrimental to the freedoms and liberties of the people. As it was also arbitrary and dictatorial; the Act was condemned by the’Tndians.

Question 26.
Why and by whom was the Khilafat Movement organised?
Answer:
The Khilafat movement was organised by Ali brothers Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali. They launched this movement

  • to prevent the possibilities of dis membership of Turkey following its defeat in the First World War,
  • to ask the Muslims not to join the army on the side of the English,
  • to strengthen Hindu Muslim unity.
  • to establish the glory of the Turkish Ottoman Empire.

Question 27.
Analyse the significance of the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement in India’s struggle for freedom.
Answer:
The Khilafat and the Non-Cooperation Movements had their special role in the history of India’s freedom movement. The Khilafat movement was launched by Ali brothers and the Non-Cooperation Movement, by Mahatma Gandhi The leaders of both the movements joined each other’s movement and shook the very foundations of the British Government. Both the movements laid stress on the Hindu Muslim unity, both brought the mass of the people in liberation struggle against the British imperialism.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 28.
Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
Gandhiji had launched Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920. The movement went so well that the Britishers were shaken. The lawyers came out of the courts, the students from the schools and colleges. The Indians boycotted official functions. All of a sudden, there broke out violence in a place called Chauri Chaura where the mob had attacked a police station killing 22 police personnel. As Gandhiji wanted the movement to be non-violent the use of violence forced him to withdraw the movement.

Question 29.
What was the significance of 1931 Karachi session of the Congress.
Answer:
Significant contribution of 1931 Karachi session:

  • The Congress session at Karachi in 1981 approved the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
  • The most significant contribution of the Karachi session was a resolution passed on Fundamental Rights and Economic policy
  • The Congress suspended the civil disobedience movement and agreed to take part in Round Table Conference in London.

Question 30.
When and why did the Quit India Movement start? What were its effects on the national movement?
Answer:
The Quit India movement was launched in August. 1942. It was launched so to ask the British quit the country, for their failure to grant independence to India. As the Indian leaders were arrested before launching of the movement, the movement came to be launched by the people.
The while country rose against the British. Despite the repressive measures of the British Government, the movement spread in the whole country. It shook the British rule.

Question 31.
In what way did communalism obstruct the growth of nationalism in India?
Answer:
Communalism was a potent factor which had obstructed the growth of nationalism in India. It did so because it worked in the framework of the narrow interests. It separated one set of people from the other set of people. It created wide distances between the people belonging to one religion and those belonging to the other. It resulted in enmity and hatred among the different communities and led to communal riots. The communal enmity had ultimately ended in the partition of India into two dominions.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 32.
What was the role played by Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army) in India’s struggle for freedom?
Answer:
The role played by the Indian National Army in India’s struggle for freedom cannot be denied. In fact, the Indian National Army proved a serious external danger to the British. It forced the British to leave the country as early as possible. Subhash Chandra Bose gave the slogans of ‘Delhi Chalo’ and ‘Jai Hind’, to the Indians.

Question 33.
State briefly the effects of non cooperation on the economic front.
Answer:
The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed. and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from ₹ 102 crore to ₹ 57 crore. In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.

As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

Question 34.
Explain as to why the non-cooperation movement slowed down in the cities. Give reasons. ‘
Answer:
The non-cooperation movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons. Khadi cloth was ofter more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. How then could they boycott mill cloth for too long? Similarly, the boycott of British institutions posed a problem.

For the movement to be successful, alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British ones. These were slow to come up. So students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Question 35.
Who was Baba Ramchandra ?
Answer:
Baba Ramchandra was a sanyasi who led the peasant movement in Awadh. The movement was against talukdars and landlords who demand high rents from peasants. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords farms without any payment. As tenants they had no security of tenure, being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land.

The peasant movement demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of legal, and social boycott of oppressive landlords. As the movement spread in 1921, the houses of talukdars and merchants were attacked bazaars were looted, and grain hoards were taken over.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 36.
“Nationalism, in the early 20 century, came to be associated with the image of Bharat Mata”. Explain with illustration.
Answer:
It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland.

Later it was included in his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual.

Question 37.
How did the tribal peasants interpreted the message of Gandhiji and the satyagraha? Explain it with the Gudem revolt.
Answer:
Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma”Gandhi and the idea of Swraj in yet another way. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, for instance, a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s – not a form of struggle that the Congress could approve. Here, as in other forest regions, the colonial government had closed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and emits.

This enraged the hill people. Not only were their livelihoods affected but they felt that their traditional rights were being denied When the government began forcing there to”contribute begar for road building, the hill people revolted. The person who came to lead them was an interesting figure. Alluri Sitaram Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers. He could make correct astrological predictions and heal people, and he could survive even bullet shots.

Captivated by Raju, the rebels proclaimed that he was an incarnation of God. Raju talked of the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi, said he was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking But at the same time he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence. The Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj. Raju was captured and executed in 1924, and over time became a folk hero.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 38.
What were the Khilafat and the Non- cooperation” movements? Name some important leaders of these movements.
Answer:
Khilafat Movement: It was a movement launched by Ali brothers-Shaukat All and Mohammad Ali to oppose the British policy of dismembering the Turkish Ottoman Empire and the office of the Caliph in Turkey, the religious head of the Muslim community.

Non-Cooperation Movement: It was a movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to protest against the British policy of repression through the Rowiati Act and the Jallianwala massacre in 1919.

Gandhiji launched the movement to demonstrate non-cooperation with the British Government by boycotting elections, schools and courts on the one hand, and on the other, attempting to bring about unity among the various sections of the Indian society by using Charkha and Swadeshi The movement was to be carried on through peaceful measures. But an accident occurred at Chauri-Chaura. The movement was withdrawn in 1922.

The leaders of the Khilafat movement were Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali. The leader of the Non-Cooperation Movement was Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 39.
What did the slogan of Swaraj mean? How was the slogan of Complete Independence different from it? When and where was the slogan of Complete Independence adopted?
Answer:
Swaraj’ meant that the autonomy be given to the Indians. Following the Calcutta (now Kolkata) Congress session in 1905, the Indian. National Congress sought to demand Swaraj. What Swaraj meant was the freedom to rule ! which was to mean that the power to administer the affairs be handed over to the Indians.

In other words, it meant that the power to be given to the elected Indians who should be responsible to the legislature, and the legislature to be responsible to the people to be more specific, the rulers have to be Indians, and not the English.

Complete independence or what may be called the Purna Swaraj was to be different from the word ‘Swaraj’. Swaraj had the indication of internal autonomy, though the external autonomy was to be exercised by the British The Purna Swaraj or the complete independence, as a resolution was passed at the Lahore Congress Session of 1929.

Through the 1929 complete independence resolution, the Congress sought complete freedom from the British internal autonomy as well as freedom to act on its own in relation to the other countries. The complete independence resolution was passed by the Congress in 1929 at the Lahore Congress Session.

Question 40.
When was the Muslim League formed? Describe briefly the policies of the Muslim League from 1906 to 1940. When was the formation of a separate state of Pakistan adopted as the aim of the Muslim League?
Answer:
The Muslim League was formed in December 1906 with the aim of seeking the Muslim representation in the government and bringing the Britishers and the Muslims, closer to each other, From the day one, the League thought of itself, though mistakenly, as the sole representative of the Muslims, and began projecting the Congress as the Flindu organisation.

From 1906 to around 1911, the Britishers supported the League and the league approved of the British policies in India. The League supported the proposal of the Bengal partition: it did not participate in the nationalist movement against the proposals of Bengal partition. But as the war aims of the British home Government against the Turkish Empire, dismembering it became clearer, the League and the British Government in India drew distant and consequently the League drew closer to the Congress.

The League and the Congress annual sessions began at the same time and in the same cities in 1914, 1915, 1916. There was the Lucknow Pact (1916) between the Congress and the League: the Congress agreeing the communal representation demands of the League, and the League supporting the Congress demand of Swaraj.

With the end of the war and with the rise of the modernist Kamal Pasha in Turkey, the League and the British, in India, had nothing against each other. So the League began going away from the Congress and began coming closer to the Britishers in India. Thereafter, started the dominance of the fundamentalists in the League, the distance between the League and the Congress kept widening.

Responding to the challenge posed by the Secretary of State, Lord Birkenhead, the All-Party Conference (1928) prepared a Constitution for India which the League supported but which it rejected in the League’s son, there came up Jinnah’s 14 points. These 14-points constituted nothing but separate electorate representation. Their demand for separate electorate representation kept increasing year after year.

As the League’s public support was never strong, it did not obtain much electoral victories in the elections held in 1937 under the Government of India Act, 1935. The league had its government only in two provinces. When the Congress ministries resigned in protest against the Viceroy’s declaration of war in 1939, the League organised the day of deliverance. In 1910, the Muslim League encouraged by the Britishers, got passed the Pakistan resolution at its Lahore session in 1940.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 41.
Write notes on the following: Simon Commission; 26 January 1930; Ghadar Party; India League; the Indian National”Army; the Meerut and Lahore Conspiracy Cases.
Answer:
Simon Commission: The commission, known as Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 which visited India in 1928 to enquire into the functioning of the diarchy as proposed by the Government of India Act, 1919. The Swaraj Party also hastened the appointment of Simon Commission.

The Congress boycotted the Simon Commission for it had no faith in it because it was wholly constituted by all-Englishmen. The commission was greeted by all black flags with slogans such as “Simon, go back”. However, the government came up with lathi blows against the demonstrators.

26th January 1930: This day has been an important day in the history of the Indian nationalist movement. It was on this day that the Indians celebrated the unilateral independence day and thereafter every year. In the Lahore Congress Session (1929) the Congress had fixed January 26, 1930 to celebrate the unilateral independence day. But when India became independent on August 15, 1947 the 26th January came to be celebrated as the Republic Day.

The Ghadar Party: The Ghadar, meaning the Rebellion Party was formed in 1913 by the Indian revolutionaries in the United States of America and Canada. Both the Hindus and the Muslims manned this party. The Ghadar party was pledged to wage the war of independence against the British rule in India. The Ghadarites decided to send money and aminurutions to India to help the revolutionaries fight the government. They were always ready to help the Indian revolutionaries.

India League: The Indians outside India, established the India League. The headquarter of the Indian League was at London its chief objectives were to raise the voice of India and her problems in England and create public opinion in India’s favour. Numerous Englishmen had supported the India League.

The Indian National Army (INA): The Indian National Army was reorganised by Netaji Subash Chandra Bose in Singapore in 1943. The army consisted of the Indians settled in southeast Asia and their soldiers who had left the British royal army in India.

Bose made the army strong and powerful and wanted to free India through armed forces. During the war and with the help of Asia (especially the Japanese) forces captured some areas in the North-East India He gave the Indians slogans such as Delhi Chalo’, ‘Jai Hind’, ‘Give me blood, I will give you freedom’. Some INA officials (Shah Nawaz, Sehgal and Dhillon) were tried after the war, but the Government had to bow to the rising and emotional nationalism created by the Hindu Muslim Sikh unity in 1945.

The Meerut and Lahore conspiracy cases: The Meerut conspiracy case was related to the arrest of some labour leaders in -1920s. The Lahore conspiracy case was related to two members of the Hindustan Republican Socialist Association – Bhagat Singh and B.K.Dutt in early 1930. The two cases aroused intense nationalism The Indian leaders provided legal assistance in both the cases. Whereas the Lahore leaders were freed, Bhagat Singh, Sukh Dev and Rajguru were sentenced to death.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 42.
“The British were responsible for both the unification and the partition of India.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
The British came to India as traders and became rulers. Following the revolt of 1857, the British Government took over the administration of India. The British rule, in India, was constructive as well as destructive. The British rule, in India, was constructive in the sense that it brought about political unity in the country.

Through uniformity of laws and through the use of English language, the British rulers brought the Indians on a common platform where they came to know the imperialist designs of the British rule in India, Through the English language, the Indians came together and shared their suffering.

But at the same time, the British rule in India was destructive It was destructive in the sense that it divided the communities among themselves. The Britishers exploited the Hindus against the Muslims, and the Muslims against the Hindus. They pursue the policy of divide and rule and encouraged the Muslim League to keep seeking demands after demands. The result was the partition of India.

Question 43.
What led to the launching of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920? State as to how non-cooperation movement was effective?
Answer:
The causes to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 Gandhiji wanted that the national movement must be led by all Hindu and Muslims. He got an opportunity of making the national movement of Hindus and Muslims. The Muslims were also annoyed by the British Government.

The British government did not give proper treatment to Sultan of Turkey though Indian Muslim helped Britishers in the first World War Indian Muslims decided to agitate. Thus, along with Non-cooperation Movement, Khilafat Movement started.

The Non-cooperation Movement launched in 1920 was to be strictly non-violent. The people were asked to boycott the British goods, to use items made by Indians only, to boycott government jobs, government schools, colleges and courts.

The Congress in its Nagpur session advised the people to observe the following during Non-cooperation Movement:

  • To surrender titles and honorary offices.
  • To resign from nominated seats in the councils.
  • To boycott government darbars and other functions.
  • To withdraw gradually, children from the government schools and colleges.
  • To boycott orders of the courts.
  • To refuse to join British forces in Mesopotamia.
  • To boycott election to the councils.
  • To boycott foreign goods.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 44.
Explain the main features of the Non-cooperation Movement in India’s freedom struggle.
Answer:
Gandhiji launched the Non-cooperation Movement in 1920.
The main features of the Non-cooperation movement can be stated as under:

  • To boycott all the official functions of the Government.
  • To surrender all titles bestowed by the Government.
  • To ask the Indians to boycott British schools, colleges and courts.
  • To denounce all the retrogressive measures adopted by the Government.
  • To demand ‘Swaraj’ from the Britishers.
  • To emphasise on the Hindu-Muslim unity.

The movement went very well. It shook the very foundations of the British rule in India. Following the use of violence in Chauri Chaura (Gorakhpur). Gandhiji withdrew the movement. The”movement was able to create awakening among the Indians.

Question 45.
Discuss the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34).
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 when he violated the Salt Law at Dandi. It was in accordance with the Poorna Swaraj resolution of 1929. As per the resolve of the Civil Disobedience movement, Gandhiji declared. Let every villager fetch or manufacture, contraband salt, sisters should picket liquor shops, opium dens and foreign cloth dealers’ shops. Foreign cloth should be burnt. Hindus should eschew untouchability.

Under the auspices of the movement, the Hartals were organised, foreign cloth dealers’ shops were picketed, opium and liquor dens were boycotted. As the movement progressed, the leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested.

The Government resorted to oppressive measures and came heavy on the demonstrators. The Indian National Congress boycotted the First Round Table Conference held in 1930. The movement was called off in view of the Gandhi- Irwin pact of 1931. The movement created political awakening among the Indians and brought independence close to them.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 46.
Prove by giving examples that the policy of non-violence adopted by Gandhiji was mainly instrumental in achieving Indian independence. (Any four).
Answer:

  • Gandhi’s policy of non-violence was supported by his urge for mass participation in the freedom struggle. He made the Congress a mass Congress. The Congress movement became a movement in which peasants, students, women and others came to participate in the liberation struggle.
  • Gandhi’s non-violence meant non-cooperation. In all his movements, Gandhiji advocated non-cooperation and boycott of foreign-made goods.
  • Gandhi’s non-violence also meant civil- disobedience. He launched civil disobedience movement in 1930 to press the fulfilment of his demands. He never confronted violence with violence
  • Gandhi’s non-violence meant maximum inconvenience for oneself so to give the other maximum convenience.

Question 47.
Why did various classes and groups of Indians participate in the civil disobedience movement?
Answer:
The following classes and social groups of Indians participated in the civil disobedience movement:
(i) In the countryside, rich peasant communities like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.

As their cash income disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand and the refusal of the government to reduce the revenue demand led to widespread resentment. These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

(ii) The Indian merchants and industrialists had made huge profits and become powerful Keen on expanding their business they now reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities. They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.

To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce told Industries (FICCI) in 1927 Led by prominent industrialists like Pursholtamdas Thakurdas and GD, Birla, the industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.

(iii) The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in the Nagpur region. As the industrialists came closer to the Congres workers stayed aloof. But in spite of that, some workers did participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement, selectively adopting some of the ideas of the Gandhian programme, like boycott of foreign goods, as part of their own movements against low wages and poor working conditions. There were strikes by railway workers in 1930 and dockworkers in 1932. In 1930 thousands of workers in Chotaragpur tin mines wore Gandhi caps and participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns.

(iv) Another important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large-scale participation of women. During Gandhiji’s salt march, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to him. They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many went to jail.

In urban areas these women were from high-caste families; in rural areas, they came from rich peasant households. Moved by Gandhiji’s call they began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.

Question 48.
State the main features of the Indian National Movement from 1942 to 1947.
Answer:
The main features of the Indian National Movement from 1942 to 1947 can be stated as under:

  • The failure of the Cripps proposal (April 1942) disappointed many Indians. They thought of adopting harsher methods.
  • The continuous failures of the Allied Powers and the success of the Axis powers, especially of japan in Asia gave the Indians enough courage to state their demands in clearer terms.
  • The Quit India Resolution of August 1942, following the arrest of all the members of the Congress Working Committee, awakened tremendous consciousness among the people.
  • The role of Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) led by Subhash Chandra Bose fought for India’s independence from abroad.
  • The victory of the Allied powers and of the Labour Party in English elections created hopes among the Indians for an early resolution of India’s problems.
  • The INA trials, the Mountbatten plan and the Indian Independence Act all brought the Indians close to their independence.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 49.
Why did the Indian National Congress change its goal from Swaraj to Complete Swaraj?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress changed its goal of Swaraj (1906) to Complete Swaraj (1929) because of numerous reasons Some such causes can be summed up as under:

  • The pressure of the younger generation of the Indian National Congress was mounting in favour of Complete Swaraj year after year.
  • The British Government in India, kept pursuing the policy of divide and rule thus making, the Congress believe that it should launch a – movement for greater demand. Complete Swaraj instead of Swaraj.
  • The demand of Complete Swaraj had the backing of the masses while that of Swaraj, the demand of the few English educated people.
  • The demand of Complete Swaraj was the only alternative to the communalistic politics of the Muslim League.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:

Question 1.
The national song, ……………………… was composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
Answer:
Vande Matram.

Class 10 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nationalism in India

Question 2.
……………………… was the architect of two-nation theory.
Answer:
Jinnah.

Question 3.
The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in
Answer:
1931.

2. Match the following:

A B
Manford Reforms C.R. Das
Swarajya party Khilafat Movement
All Brothers Subhash Chandra Bose
Gandhi Ji 1919
Azad Hind Fauj Dyer
Jalliawala Massacre Civil Disobedience Movement

Answer:

A B
Manford reforms 1919
Swarajya party C.R. Das
Ali Brothers Khilafat Movement
Gandhiji Subhash Chandra Bose
Azad Hind Fauj Civil Disobedience Movement
Jalliawala Massacre Dyer

Question 3.
Choose the most appropriate alternative:
(i) The Rowlatt Act was proposed in:
(a) 1917
(b) 1918
(c) 1919
(d) 1920
Answer:
(c) 1919

(ii) One of the following was not the earlier satyagraha launched by Gandhiji:
(a) Individual
(b) Champaran
(c) Kheda
(d) Ahmedabad
Answer:
(a) Individual

(iii) Dr Iqbal presided the Muslim League session in:
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1933
Answer:
(a) 1930

(iv) A pact resolving the communal issue was undertaken in 1932. Where was the pact signed?
(a) Patna
(b) Poona
(c) Peshwar
(d) Patti
Answer:
(b) Poona

(v) Anandmath was written by:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Debandranath Tagore
Answer:
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Work-Life and Leisure Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions And Answers Question 1.
From where do the migrants usually come in the cities. Mention one example.
Answer:
Usually, the migrants come from nearby rural areas. In 1851, more than three fourth of the adults in Manchester (Britain) were people from the nearby rural region.

Writing And City Life Extra Question And Answer Question 2.
Name the five types of industries which grew in London in the 19th century.
Answer:

  1. Clothing and footwear,
  2. wood and furniture,
  3. metal and engineering,
  4. printing and stationary precision products such as surgical instruments.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions And Answers In Bengali Question 3.
Who is a philanthropist?
Answer:
Someone who works for social upliftment and charity donating time and money is known as philanthropist.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Mcq With Answers Question 4.
What is a metropolis?
Answer:
Metropolis is a large densely city of a country.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

History Class 10 Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 5.
Note the second largest city of the world.
Answer:
Mumbai, also an important city of the Indian subcondiment.

Ncert Solutions For Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Question 6.
How can you define urbanisation?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the development of a city or town terms” of trade and expanding of population.

Work, Life And Leisure Class 10 Solutions Question 7.
When was the underground railway opened in London and between which two places?
Answer:
The underground railway was opened on January 10, 1863, and between Paddington and Farrington street in London.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Question 8.
What is asphyxiation?
Answer:
Asphyxiation is suffocation due to lack of oxygen supply.

Question 9.
Give two reasons which enabled large number of people to live outside London and travel to work.
Answer:

  1. Better planned suburbs and
  2. a good railway network.

Question 10.
What do you mean by individualism?
Answer:
Individualism is a theory which promotes liberty rights, or independent action of the individual rather than of the”community.

Question 11.
What and when were the entertainment resorts in the 19th century London?
Answer:
Pleasure gardens became entertainment resorts in the 19th century London providing facilities such as sports and entertainments and refreshments for the well-to-do.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 12.
What was the Bloody Sunday of November 1887?
Answer:
A riot brutely suppressed by the Police in 1887 is known as Bloody Sunday in London.

Question 13.
Why is a large city an opportunity?
Answer:
A large city is an opportunity because it provides employment, as it did with the industrialization coming in.

Question 14.
Name the three Presidencies and their cities in the colonial India.
Answer:
The three Presidencies were: Bengal, Bombay and Madras, and three Presidencies were Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.

Question 15.
When and where was the first cotton textile mill established in India?
Answer:
The first cotton textile till was established in Bombay in 1854.

Question 16.
When and why was the women mill workforce drop in Bombay?
Answer:
Between 1919 and 1926, the women mill workforce was 27% of the total workers. It dropped to 10% by 1930, due to machines or men taking on the jobs.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 17.
What is ‘mill village’?
Answer:
Place of living by the workers near their place of work.

Question 18.
What do you mean by chawls in reference to Bombay?
Answer:
Chawls, in reference to Bombay, were multi-storeyed structures built in the native parts of the city of Bombay.

Question 19.
What were the three major groups of people in Singapore in the early days of its formation?
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 20.
Give an account of expansion of the city of London.
Answer:
By 1750, one out of every nine people of England and Wales lived in London. It was a colossal city with a population of about 675,000. Over the nineteenth century, London continued to expand. Its population multiplied fourfold in the 70 years between 1810 and 1880, increasing from 1 million to about 4 million.

Question 21.
Why did the poor die of the lack of housing accommodation in late 19lh century London?
Answer:
The lack of proper housing becomes a cause for early death and of poverty. Charles Booth, a Liverpool shipowner writes that as many as a million Londoners (about one-fifth of the population of London at the time were very poor and were expected to live only up to an average age of 29 (compared to the average lile expectancy of 55 among the gentry and the middle class).

These people were more than likely to die in a ‘workhouse, hospital or lunatic asylum. London, he concluded ‘needed the rebuilding of at least 400,000 rooms to house its poorest citizens.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 22.
Why were people afraid of travelling underground when the underground railway began functioning?
Answer:
The people, at first, were afraid of travelling the unground railways. This is what one newspaper reader reported: “The compartment in which I sat was filled with passengers who were smoking pipes. The atmosphere was a mixture of sulphur, coal dust and foul fumes from the gas lamps above so that by the time we reached Moorgate, I was near dead of asphyxiation and heat should think these underground railways must soon be discontinued for they eat health.

Question 23.
How do you explain that the curly industrial life was largely male-dominated?
Answer:
With industrialisation and urbanisation, men and women did not have equal access to this new urban space. As women lost their industrial jobs and conservative people tailed against their presence in public spaces, women were forced to withdraw into their homes.

The public space became increasingly a male preserve and the domestic sphere was seen as the proper place for women. Most political movements of the nineteenth century, such as Chartism (a movement demanding the role for all adult males). and the 10-hour movement (limiting hours of work in factories), mobilised large numbers of men.

Question 24.
Give examples of leisure and entertainment activities as cities grew.
Answer:
As cities grew, there also grew leisure, art, and entertainment. In London, libraries and museums came up: seaside holidaying was resorted; music halls beginning functioning. When the entry to the British Museum Library became free in 1810, visitors swamped the museum their number jumped to 127,643 in 1824-25, shooting up to 25,901 by 1846. Music-halls were popular among the lower classes, and, by the early twentieth century, cinema became the greal mass entertainment for mixed audiences.

British industrial workers were increasingly encouraged to spend their holidays by the sea, so as to derive the benefits of the sun and bracing winds Over 1 million British people went to the seaside at Blackpool in 1883, by 1939 their numbers had gone up to 7 million,

Question 25.
Give a brief history of the city of Bombay.
Answer:
In the 17th century, Bombay was a group of seven islands under Portuguese control. In 1661, control of the islands passed into British hands after the marriage of Britain’s King Charles. It to the Portuguese princess. The East India Company quickly shifted its base from Surat, its principal western port to Bombay.

At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton textiles from Gujarat. Later, in the nineteenth century, the city functioned as a port through which large quantities of raw materials such as cotton and opium would pass. Gradually, it also became an important administrative centre in western India, and then, by the end of the nineteenth century, a major industrial centre.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 26.
When was the Bombay improvement Trust established? What was the object of the Rent Act of 1918?
Answer:
The city of Bombay Improvement Trust was established in 1898. It focused on clearing poorer houses out of the city centre, By 1918, Trust schemes had deprived 64,000 people of their homes, but only 14,000 were rehoused. In 1918, a Rent Act was passed to keep rents reasonable, but it had the opposite effect of producing a severe housing crisis since landlords withdrew houses from the market.

Question 27.
What was the contribution of the Bombay Port Trust in reclaim nation project?
Answer:
A successful reclamation project was undertaken by the Bombay Port Trust, which built a dry dock between 1914 and 1918 and used the excavated earth to create the 22-acre Ballard Estate. Subsequently, the famous Marine Drive or Bombay was developed.

Question 28.
Give a brief account of the life of the working women in numerous jobs.
Answer:
Factories employed large numbers of women in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. With Technological developments, women gradually lost their industrial jobs and were forced to work within households.

The 1861 census recorded a quarter of a million domestic servants in London, of whom the vast majority were women, many of them recent migrants A large number of women used their homes to increase family income by taking in lodgers or through such activities as tailoring, washing or matchbox making.

However, there was a change once again in the twentieth century. As women got employment in wartime industries and offices, they withdrew from cosmetic service.

Question 29.
Mention a variety of steps which were taken to clean up London during 19th-20th centuries.
Answer:
A variety of steps were taken to clean up London.

  • Attempts were made to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city.
  • Large blocks of apartments were built, akin to those in Berlin and new York-cities which had similar housing problems.
  • Rent control was introduced in Britain during the First World War to case the impact of a severe housing shortage.
  • (iv) Many wealthy residents of London were able to afford a holiday home in the countryside.
  • Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principle of the Garden City, a pleasant space full of plants and trees, where people would both live and work. Following Howard’s ideas, Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker designed the garden city.
  • There were common grade 1 spaces, beautiful views and great attention to detail.
  • Between the two world wars (1919-39) the responsibility for housing the working classes was accepted by the British state and a million houses, most of them single-family cottages, were built by local authorities.

Question 30.
What are Chawls of Bombay? Give an account of life and living in a Chawl.
Answer:
Chawls are multi-storeyed structures which had been built in 1860s in the town occupied by the indigenous natives, mostly owned by landlords and merchants. Each chawl was divided into smaller one-room tenements which had no private toilets.

Many families could reside at a time in a lenement The Census of 1901 reported that the mass of the island’s population or 80 percent of the total resides in tenements of one room, the average number of occupants lies between 4 and 5. High rents forced workers to share homes, eiiter with relatives or caste fellows who were streaming into the city.

People had to keep the windows of their rooms closed even in humid weather due to the close proximity of filthy gutters, privies, buffalo stables etc.’Yet, though water was scarce, and people often quarrelled every morning for a turn at the tap observers found that houses were kept quite clean.

The homes being shall, streets and neighbourhoods were used for a variety of activities such as cooking, washing and sleeping Liquor shops and akharas came up in any emply spot. Streets were also used for different types of leisure activities.

Chawls were also the place for exchange of news about jobs, strikes, riots or demonstrations.
Caste and family groups in the mill neighbourhoods were headed by someone who was similar to a village headman. Sometimes, the jobber in the mills could be the local neighbourhood leader He settled disputes, organised food supplies, or arranged informal credit.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 31.
Give a brief description of how Singapore developed as a planned nation.
Answer:
Singapore is a successful, rich, and well-planned city, a model for city planning worldwide. Yet the city’s rise to this status is quite recent. Until 1965, Singapore, though an important port, shared all the problems of other Asian cities, Planning was known in Singapore since 1822, but benefited only the small community of white people who ruled Singapore.

For the majority of its inhabitants, there was overcrowding, lack of sanitation, poor housing and poverty. All this changed after the city became an independent nation in 1965 under the leadership of Lee Kuan Yew, President of the People’s Action Party.

A massive housing and development programme was undertaken and it completely altered the face of the island nation. Through a programme of total planning which left nothing to chance, every inch of the island’s territory was controlled in its use. The government itself wen popular support by providing nearly 85 percent of the population with ownership housing of good quality.

The tall housing blocks, which were well ventilated and serviced, were examples of good physical planning. But the buildings also redesigned social life: crime was reduced through external corridors, the aged were housed alongside their families, ‘void decks’ or empty floors were provided in all buildings for community activities.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate alternative:

Question 1.
Metapolisis
(a) large but not a densely city
(b) a densely but a small city
(c) large as well as densely city
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) large as well as densely city

Question 2.
The capital of Britain is:
(a) Manchester
(b) London
(c) Liverpool
(d) Blackpool
Answer:
(b) London

Question 3.
Baron Haussmann was a French
(a) poet
(b) legislator
(c) architect
(d) shoemaker
Answer:
(c) architect

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 4.
Dadasahab Phalke made the following movie :
(a) Raja Harishchandra
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Raja jai Singh
(d) Raja and Rani
Answer:
(a) Raja Harishchandra

2. Choose true (✓) or False (✗):

Question 1.
Bombay is India’s film capital
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Hasan Manto were associated with tea trade in India
Answer:
(✗)

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

Question 3.
Haussmann was an architect.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Individualism is a theory of community.
Answer:
(✗).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Pastoralists in the Modern World Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Question 1.
Who were the small cottagers of England 7
Answer:
Those villagers who worked on the common land to earn their livings and lived in their cottages close to the common land about the 16th century England were called the small cottagers.

Question 2.
How was the cultivation done in the countryside open system?
Answer:
Each Villager was allotted a number of strips to cultivate in a public meeting at the beginning of the year.

Question 3.
What made the rich farmers expand their wool production?
Answer:
The rise in the prices of wool in the world market made the rich farmers expand their wool production.

Question 4.
What did the British Parliament do for legalising the enclosures?
Answer:
The British Parliament passed about 4000 acts so to legalise the enclosures.

Question 5.
In which areas did the enclosures happen in England?
Answer:
The Midlands and the counties around.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Question 6.
What hardships did the poor face with the coming of the enclosures? Mention two such hardships?
Answer:

  • The poor could not collect firewood from, the forests;
  • They could not graze their cattle on the common land.

Question 7.
Where is the Great Plain located in USA?
Answer:
The Great Plain is located across the River Mississippi.

Question 8.
Who, invented the first mechanical reaper and when?
Answer:
Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper in 1831.

Question 9.
Mention the time of the black blizzard by Western Kansas.
Answer:
April 14, 1935.

Question 10.
Mention the two major commercial crops of the early 19th century India.
Answer:
Indigo and opium.

Question 11.
By which year the British government in Bengal had established a monopoly of trade in opium?
Answer:
By 1773.

Question 12.
Do you think that the history of modernization is all the history of growth and development?
Answer:
The history of modernization is not merely the history of growth and development; it is also the history of displacements and impoverishment.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Question 13.
Why were there the threatening letters around 1830 in England sent to the rich farmers using threshing machines?
Answer:
With the use of threshing machines by the rich farmers in England in course of their agricultural produce, there were threatening letters urging them to stop the use of such machines. The use of such machines deprived workmen of their livelihood. Most of these letters were signed in the name of Captain Swing. Alarmed landlords feared attacks by armed bands at night, many destroyed their own machines.

Question 14.
What was the reaction of the government in England against Swing’s threatening letters?
Answer:
Captain Swing’s threatening letters to the rich farmers using threshing machines was creating anxiety and alarm. The use of violence and fire was common in England. Either the farmers broke the machines themselves or these were broken. Government swung into action. Those suspected of rioting were rounded up, 1976 prisoners were tried, nine men were hanged, 505 transported and 644 put behind bars.

Question 15.
What makes the period after 1780s different from an earlier period in English history?
Answer:
In earlier times, rapid population growth was not often followed by period of food shortage. The food production in the past did not expand as rapidly as did the population. But in the 19th century, this did not happen in England. Grain production grew as rapidly as did population. Even though the population increased rapidly, in 1868 England was producing 80% of the food it needed. The rest was imported.

Question 16.
How and why the USA became a dust bowl in 1930s?
Answer:
The American dream of a land of plenty turned into a dust bowl in 1930s with duststorms around. In part, they came because the early 1930s were years of persistent drought. The rains failed year after year, and temperatures soared. The wind blew with ferocious speed.

But ordinary dust storms became black blizzards only because the entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripped of all grass that held it together. When wheat cultivation had expanded dramatically in the early nineteenth century, zealous farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation and tractors had turned the soil over, and broken the sod into dust.

Question 17.
Why were English interested in exporting opium in China?
Answer:
As England was a buyer of the Chinese tea, for tea was a popular drink. England wanted to sell some commodity to China so that tea trade could survive without paying cash. The commodity was opium. The illegal trade of opium was flourishing. By early, 1820, about 10,000 crates were being smuggled into China, 15 years later, over 3,5000 crates were being unloaded every year.

While the English cultivated a taste for Chinese tea, the Chinese became addicted to opium. People of all classes took to the drugs shopkeepers and peddlers, officials and army men, aristocrats and paupers. Lin Ze-xu, Special Commissioner at Canton in 1839, estimated that there were over 4 million opium smokers in China.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

Question 18.
Why were the farmers interested to enclose the common land in 16th-17th century England?
Answer:
As the price of wool increased in the world market during the 16th-17th centuries rich farmers wanted to expand wool production to earn profits. They were eager to improve their sheep breeds and ensure good feed for them. They were keen on controlling large areas of land in compact blocks to allow improved breeding. So they began dividing and enclosing common land and building hedges,’ around their holdings to separate, their property from that of others. They drove out villagers who had small cottages on the commons, and they prevented to poor from entering the enclosed fields.

Till the middle of the eighteenth century, the enclosure movement proceeded very slowly. The early, enclosures were usually created by individual landlords. They were not supported by the state or the church. After the mid-eighteenth century, however, the enclosure movement swept through the countryside; changing the English landscape forever. Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of land was enclosed. The British Parliament no longer watched this process from a distance. It passed 4,000 acts legalising these enclosures.

Question 19.
Explain as to how the story of agrarian expansion in the USA is closely related to the westward movement of the white settlers?
Answer:
The story of the agrarian expansion in the USA is closely connected with the westward movement of the white settlers. After the American War of Independence from 1775 to 1783 and the formation of the United States of America, the white, Americans began to move westward. By the time Thomas Jefferson became President of the USA in 1800, over 700,000 white settlers had moved on to the Appalachian plateau through the passes. Seen from the east coast, America seemed to be a land of promise. Its wilderness could be turned into cultivated fields.

Forest timber could be cut for export, animals hunted for skin, mountains mined for gold and minerals. But this meant that the American Indians had to be cleared from the land. In the decades after 180.0, the US government committed itself to a policy of driving the American Indians westward, first beyond the river Mississippi, and then further west. Numerous wars were waged in which Indians were massacred and many of their villages burnt. The Indians resisted, won many victories in wars, but were ultimately forced to; sign treaties, give up their land and move westward.

As the Indians retreated; the settlers poured in. They came in successive waves. They, settled on the Appalachian plateau by the first decade of the eighteenth century, and then moved into, the Mississippi valley between 1820 and 1850. They slashed and burnt forests, pulled out the stumps, cleared the land for cultivation, and built log cabins in the forest clearings. Then they cleared larger areas and erected fences around the fields. They ploughed the land and sowed corn and wheat.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose right (✓) or false (✗) from the following:

(i) The earlier enclosures helped the growth of wheat production in England.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) The British parliament passed the enclosure acts so to legalise the enclosures.
Answer:
(✓)

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

(iii) Captain Swing was a real character who favoured the use of the threshing machines in England.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The white settlers in the USA uprooted the native Americans.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) The opium trade brought for the English huge profits.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill in the blanks with words given in the brackets:

(i) The enclosure system helped the ……………………………. farmers. (poor, rich)
Answer:
rich

(ii) ……………………………. machines were responsible for creating unemployments England. (Threshing, Sowing)
Answer:
Threshing

(iii) “Wheat will win war for us”……………………………. said it. (Wilson, Washington)
Answer:
Wilson

(iv) England had opium trade with…………………………….(China, India)
Answer:
China

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

(v) The Indian cultivators were ……………………………. to cultivate opium. (willing, unwilling)
Answer:
Unwilling.

3. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The following was the leader of the rioters of the thrashing machines:
(a) Captain Swing
(b) Major Swing
(c) Col. Swing
(d) Lt. Swing.
Answer:
(a) Captain Swing

(ii) The white Americans uprooted the following:
(a) Red Indians.
(b) White Indians
(c) Blue Indians
(d) Black Indians
Answer:
(a) Red Indians.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Pastoralists in the Modern World

(iii) Great Agrarian Depression in the USA occurred in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1930
(c) 1940
(d) 1950
Answer:
(b) 1930

(iv) Opium trade helped the following:
(a) Chinese
(b) Indians
(c) English
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) English.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Population Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Question 1.
Name the states with positive sex ratio.
Answer:

  • Kerala,
  • Pondicherry.

Question 2.
How can the population be divided?
Answer:
The population can be divided according to the categories of people of various age groups.

Question 3.
Which age group is mainly responsible for the high dependency ratio of India?
Answer:
0-14.

Question 4.
Who can be taken as a literate person?
Answer:
A person who can read and Write with certain understanding and more than seven years old is known as a literate person.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 5.
In which year the population policy in India has been implemented?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 6.
What is the average per capita calory consumption is urban areas?
Answer:
2100 approximately.

Question 7.
What is the per capita calorie consumption in the rural areas?
Answer:
2400.

Question 8.
Which, part of the population suffers from anaemia? ,
Answer:
Adolescent girls.

Question 9.
What is the current birth rate of the our country?
Answer:
42.2 per thousand.

Question 10.
What is the current death rate of our country?
Answer:
87 per thousand.

Question 11.
How many million. plus cities are there in our country?
Answer:
23.

Question 12.
What was percentage of the urban population of our country in 1951?
Answer:
17.29%.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 13.
What was the percentage of the urban population of our country in 1991?
Answer:
25.72%.

Question 14.
Has the urban sector of our country grown uniformly?
Answer:
No.

Question 15.
Name the cities which have shown a large share of migration.
Answer:
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata.

Question 16.
Which cities in India are known as the megacities?
Answer:
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata.

Question 17.
What was the population of the world in 1830?
Answer:
1000 million.

Question 18.
How much part of the total geographical area of the world is shared by India?
Answer:
About 2.4%.

Question 19.
What is the share of India in total world population?
Answer:
16.7%.

Question 20.
What is the sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh?
Answer:
898.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 21.
What do you understand by the productive population?
Or
Differentiate between productive population and dependent population.
Or
What is understood by the dependent population?
Answer:
Productive Population: It is the part of the population engaged in productive activities. The people of this group generally fall in the age group of 15-59 years.

Dependent Population: This is the part of the population which is not engaged in productive work. In other words, this part of the population does not contribute in increasing income. Generally, this is the part of population which falls below the 15 years of age and above the 59 years. India has a high dependency ratio with regard to the age group of 0-14 years.

Question 22.
Why is India’s consumption is higher than production?
Answer:
India has a high dependency ratio. Because of this fact, a large proportion of country’s resources are diverted towards satisfying the consumption need of the dependent population.
Therefore, consumption is higher than production. This situation is adversely affecting the development of the country.

Question 23.
Why the sex ratio in India is unfavourable?
Or
Point out the main reasons responsible for unfavourable sex ratio in India.
Answer:
The sex ratio is meant by the number of females on per 1000 males. In India, except Kerala and Pondicherry, sex ratio is unfavourable, meaningless number of females in comparison to males.

The main responsible reason behind the unfavourable sex ratio are the following:

  • A large portion of the Indian population provide less care to the female children as compared to male children.
  • Women face greater risks to their lives especially at the time of childbirth.
  • Dowry system and female infanticide take many women lives.
  • Illiteracy and poverty lead them to die earlier.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 24.
What is meant by the child labour? Why is it banned?
Answer:
Child labour is the term which indicates the children who are below 14 years old and employed in factories or business establishments.

The article 390 (f) of the Indian constitution lays down that the State should ensure that the children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in the conditions of freedom and dignity hence the children must be protected against exploitation.

Acting on these guidelines of the Directive Principles of our Constitution, the government of India has banned child labour so that children may be protected against exploitation and moral and material abandonment.
Again the child labour has been banned to enable the children to receive proper education so that they may develop into healthy citizens of future.

Question 25.
What do you understand by the dependency ratio? Why dependency ratio in our country is much higher than the countries like Japan?
Or
Point out the reasons behind the high dependency ratio of India.
Answer:
Dependency ratio is the number of the dependent persons per hundred on working persons. The dependency ratio is calculated by dividing dependent population by the active population and multiplying it by 100.
In 1991, the dependency ratio in India was 78% which was much high as compared to the countries like Japan where it was only about 48.8%.

The Reasons Behind High Dependency Ratio of India:

  • The number of the population below 14 years is quite high in India.
  • The persons above 59 years old form a large part of the population of India.
  • Due to lack of work opportunity, a large number of people are unemployed or underemployed. They also increase the number of dependency ratio.

Question 26.
Why rural migration could hot be controlled even after adopting modem techniques in agriculture?
Answer:
It is a fact that inspite of adopting modern agricultural techniques, rural migration could not be stopped.

The main reasons behind this fact are the following:

  • Due to small land-holdings and non-availability of finance and marketing facilities, agriculture is unable to hold any charm among the rural people.
  • Agriculture is unable to provide the regular good jobs to the overgrowing rural population. Hence the migration towards the cities from the rural areas cannot be stopped.

Question 27.
Why has there been such a sudden abrupt rise in population of India after 1921?
Or
Point out the responsible reasons behind the steep rise in India’s population since 1921.
Answer:
1921 A.D. is an important landmark in the population history of India. Before 1921, the population of India was almost stable. One the other hand, after the year 1921, the rise in population was constant and very high. It is the reason that the year 1921 is called as great divide between two trends of halting population and constantly increasing population.

The main responsible factors behind this situation are the following:

  • Steady fall in the death rate.
  • New discoveries in the field of medicine.
  • Public health services have been extended to more and more people.
  • After independence stress was laid on better lying conditions.
  • Measures have been successfully taken to check epidemics like plague, smallpox, malaria etc.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 28.
What is Census?
Answer:
Census is meant by the count of population of a country. In our India, census takes place every ten years. The last census was held in 2001. The census is in fact an enquiry based on a questionnaire. In this questionnaire, the questions relate the various kinds of information about the members of the household.

These questions are not only related to age and occupations of people, but also to the type of facilities available in the households. On the basis of these studies, the government provides details about births, deaths, migration, literacy, sex ratio etc. The first census, in India, was held in 1872, the first complete census in 1887.

Question 29.
Define sex-ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is meant by the number of females per thousand males in the population. Sex ratio in our country has remained favourable to the males. At the beginning of the twentieth century, the sex ratio in India was 972. But is deteriorated over the decades.

During the last decade, there has been light improvement in this ratio, as it increased from 929 in 1991 to 933 in 2001. In this regard, the encouraging factor is Kerala and Pondicherry as these are the only states with sex ratio in favour of females.

Question 30.
Explain birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate: It is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is different from actual number of births during that particular year. Death rate: It is the number of deaths pert thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
Discuss one factor that causes growth of population in India.
Answer:
there are many factors that cause over-growth of population in India:

However, among all of them illiteracy is major factor because of the following reasons :

  • Because of the illiteracy, a large part of the population remain unaware of the harms of the over-population.
  • Illiteracy keep the persons with lack of knowledge about the family planning measures.
  • Women are not aware of their rights and health factors due to illiteracy.
  • It keeps the people bound with the customs of years ago which tells them that the children are the gifts from God.
  • Because as the illiterates, they give undue importance to have a male child.

This illiteracy is a big factor causing over¬population. Hence, making the people aware and literate the population can be controlled.

Question 32.
How does occupational structure reflect the levels of growth of a country?
Answer:
There are three types of occupational structure in a society:

  1. Primary,
  2. Secondary,
  3. Tertiary.

1. The Primary Activities: These are the activities in which the natural products are produced. Or these activities are purely nature-based. Agriculture, fisheries, mining are the these kind of activities.

2. The Secondary Activities: These are the activities which are dependent on the primary activities. Cotton mills, textile industries, jute mills, are the examples of this kind of activities.

3. The Tertiary Activities: These are the occupations which are service-based. For example, the banking, the railways, the transport,-the teaching, medical, engineering etc, are the tertiary activities. As a country makes progress it moves toward the secondary and tertiary activities. The more developed economy it is, the more is engaged with the tertiary activities.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Question 33.
Explain female literacy and population growth.
Answer:
A person who can read and write with certain understanding and is more than seven years old is taken as a literate person. The present literacy level of India is 65.35%. 54% of the Indian females are literate. It means about half of the female population of our country is literate. It is a good signal for checking the overgrowth of the population.

Question 34.
Point out the reasons behind the rapid overgrowth of the population in the metropolitan cities in India:
Answer:
It is a fact that the population of India is growing very rapidly. In the same time, the population of the metropolitan cities is giving a cause for concern.

Reasons behind this overgrowth :

  • Metropolitan cities of India are developing themselves as the world-class cities. Hence, they attract people from all over the country.
  • These cities provide more work opportunities. Hence, the victims of unemployment come here to find work.
  • Most of the Indian parts are poorly undeveloped. Hence the people come over these cities to find out more developed life opportunities.
  • Many of the people migrate to these cities to lead luxurious lifestyles.
  • For many people living in a metropolitan city is a symbol of high status.

All of the above factors and many more are responsible for the rapid growth of population in these cities.

Question 35.
What is meant by the birth rate and the growth rate? How would you differentiate between them?
Answer:
Birth rate is meant by the number of live bom children on per thousand persons in a given period. The Growth rate indicates the difference between the birth rate and death, rate at a given period. Growth rate also indicates the rate at which the population in a region grows at a given time.

Growth rate is algo related with the difference between the number of the ‘immigrants’ and emigrants. Though this factor is not very prominent in normal times yet is becomes very prominent due to special circumstances. For example; in 1947 and again in 1971, the growth rate in India jumped due to the refugees.

Question 36.
Give an account of the areas which are known as the sparsely populated areas in India.
Answer:
The areas with sparse populations are the following:
1. The Hilly States of the North-East India: The northeast of India is not conducted by die overgrowth of population. Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura etc. are the states with very low number of persons. The difficult climatic setup and dense forest areas make these areas remain sparsely populated areas.

2. The Himalayan Region: This region is sparsely populated because of the following facts:

  • The whole of the area of this region is mountainous.
  • It is’ very difficult to develop the transportation facilities over here.
  • Cultivating is also equally difficult in these areas.
  • These areas are also covered with thick forests.
  • Rivers flowing in these areas are very swift and not suitable for navigation.

3. The Tarai Areas: These are the area lying at the foot of the Himalayas. These are sparsely populated because of the uneven land, dense forests, heavy rainfall and also lack of transport means.

4. Desert Areas: The Thar and the Rann of Kachcha are sparsely populated because of their unhealthy climatic positions.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentence and (✗) before the incorrect ones.

(i) Migration means movement of people across the regions and territories.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The average density of population is India is about 400.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The bulk of the peninsular blocks have moderate density of population.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) The year 1921 is called the year of great divide.
Answer:
(✗)

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

(v) Madhya Pradesh has a low population density.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) The world population at present in near about 10 billion.
Answer:
(✗)

(vii) It is projected that India will overtake China in population in 2045.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) India’s population almost doubled between 1951-1981.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill in the following blanks with the most suitable words:

(i) Birth rate is different from actual number of ……………………… .
Answer:
Births

(ii) The present birth rate of our country is ……………………… .
Answer:
26%

(iii) Internal migration does not change the size of ………………………
Answer:
Population

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

(iv) Sex-ratio is meant by the number of females per ……………………… males.
Answer:
Thousand

(v) There are ……………………… cities in our country with a population of one million.
Answer:

3. Match the following Lists:

List I List II
(i) Stabilization of Population 1952
(ii) National Population Policy 2045
(iii) 2100 calories Urban areas
(iv) 2400 calories 2000
(v) Adolescents Rural areas
(vi) Anaemia Girls
(vii) Population Policy Implemented. 10-19 years old.

Answer:

List I List II
(i) Stabilization of Population 2045
(ii) National Population Policy 2000
(iii) 2100 calories Urban areas
(iv) 2400 calories Rural areas
(v) Adolescents 10-19 years old
(vi) Anaemia Girls
(vii) Population Policy Implemented. 1952.

4. Match the following two lists:

List I (States) List II (% of literacy)
1. Kerala 88.49%
2. Mizoram 87.52%
3. Lakshadweep 90.92%

Answer:

List I (States) List-II(% of literacy)
1. Kerala 90.92%
2. Mizoram 88. 52%
3. Lakshadweep 87.52%

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Population

5. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The following year is known as the year of the great divide:
(a) 1921
(b) 1981
(c) 1941
(d) 1951
Answer:
(a) 1921

(ii) The following state, is India, is the biggest state of India:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

(iii) When is India likely to overtake China in population?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
Answer:
(c) 2045

(iv) The following state in India, has the highest literacy rate:
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(d) Kerala.

(v) The following is not among India’s five states constituting India’s half population:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Maharashtra.
Answer:
(a) Sikkim.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Democracy in the Contemporary World Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 1

Question 1.
How is Allende pronounced?
Answer:
Allende is pronounced as Avendo.

Question 2.
When was Allende’s government overthrown?
Answer:
Allende’s government was overthrown on September 11, 1973.

Question 3.
When was Allende made President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was made the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 4.
Mention the name of the political party which came to power in Chile in 1970.
Answer:
Popular Unity.

Question 5.
Who succeeded Allende in Chile in a.military coup?
Answer:
General Augusta Planchet succeeded Allende.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 6.
Where is Calama located?
Answer:
Calama is located about thousand miles away from the capital of Chile, Santiago.

Question 7.
How did the women of Calama demonstrate their grief?
Answer:
They remained silence, always in silence.

Question 8.
Which state in our country has a shape similar to Chile?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Can you find, examples similar to what happened to Women of Calama from other countries?
Answer:
In Russia during the Czarist regime.

Question 10.
Can you identify who is the President of Chile now?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet (Jan, 2006).

Question 11.
Why did newspapers in that country not write about women of Calama in those years?
Answer:
The newspapers in that country, in the those years, were under state censorship.

Question 12.
Which political party governed Poland in 1980?
Answer:
The Polish UnitedWorkers Party-a one-party monopoly of power.

Question 13.
In which factory in the city of Golansk file strike began in 1980?
Answer:
Lenin Shipward.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 14.
Name the person who joined the strikers in Poland in 1980.
Answer:
Lech Walesa.

Question 15.
Name any two countries where the Communist Party ruled during the Polish events in 1980.
Answer:
Bulgaria and Hungary.

Question 16.
Identify a few countries around Poland.
Answer:
Germany, Lithuania, Belarus, Slovakia, Ukraine.

Question 17.
Why did strike begin in shipyard?
Answer:
The strike began to take back a crane operator a woman worker, who faced unjust dismissal from service.

Question 18.
Why was an independent trade union so important for Poland?
Answer:
It was the first trade union formed independent of the government’s, control.

Question 19.
When did the Glorious revolution occur in England?
Answer:
The glorious revolution occurred in England ih 1688.

Question 20.
When did the 13 colonies declared independent in what is now known as the United States of America 7
Answer:
In 1776.

Question 21.
Mention the several steps taken by the AHende’s government to help the poor workers.
Answer:
The Allende’s government, in Chile, took several steps to help the poor workers.
These included

  • reforms in the educational system,
  • free milk for children,
  • redistribution of land among the farmers.

Question 22.
Give two reasons Why AHende’s political party was popular in Chile?
Answer:
Allende’s political party, the Popular Unity was popular in Chile for reasons given below:

  1. It was opposed to foreign companies exploiting natural resources (copper) against the interests of the people of Chile.
  2. The rich opposed the Allende’s political party, though the workers, by and large, liked Allende’s efforts.

Question 23.
What did Pinocfiet’s regime dp after overthrowing Allende’s government in Chile in 1973?
Answer:
Pinochet’s regime, after taking over the power, began torturing people and killing those who were supporting Allende In the process, more than 2000 people were killed by the military regime. Many more were, reported ‘missing’. No one knows what had happened to them.

Question 24.
Why did Allende refer to “workers” in his speech? Why would have the rich opposed to him?
Answer:
Before Allende’s government wa$ taken over by Pinochet’s military regime, he got the opportunity to address his people, referring them as ‘workers’; The rich-opposed Allende because his policies were pro-workers and pro-poor.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 25.
Think why would women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet? Why people could not react to those events?
Answer:
The women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet because if they spoke, their children would be killed by the military. People, could not react to military’s torture because they knew that if they reacted, they would also be tortured.

Question 26.
How was Poland ruled in 1980?
Answer:
Poland, in 1980, was ruled by the Polish United Worker Party. Then there was a one-party monopoly of power in Poland. No one was permitted to oppose the official party line. The government trade unions owned all the factories. These trade unions were not independent of the ruling party.

Question 27.
Why did the strike begin in Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk?
Answer:
The workers of the Lenin Shipyard started strike in the city of Gdansk. The demand of the workers was to take back a crane operator, a woman worker, who faced an unjust dismissal from service.

Question 28.
Which other demands were put forth as the strike spread across the whole city of Gdansk?
Answer:
The Lenin Shipyard strike spread as Lech Walesa, also dismissed from the service as an electrician, joined the strike.

The demands of the workers began swelling:

  • all the workers removed from the service be taken back;
  • the workers sought right to have independent trade unions;
  • political process be made freed;
  • censorship on the press be removed.

Question 29.
Mention two provisions of the 21 point agreement made between the Polish government and the workers led by Walesa.
Answer:
The two provisions of the 21 point, agreement between the Polish government and the workers were:

  1. The workers’ right to form independent trade unions was guaranteed.
  2. They got the right to go on strike.

Question 30.
Why did the Polish government led by Polish United Workers Party got panicky?
Answer:
The Polish Workers United Party got panicky as the solidarity, led by Walesa had more than one crore workers as its members; the revelations that the government was corrupt and mismanaged made the latter declare the martial in the country. As thousands of the Solidarity members were put in prison, the government withdrew freedoms given of the people.

Question 31.
What led to the rise of Walesa attaining power in Poland?
Answer:
In late 1980s, Walesa was gaining popularity. He led another strike in 1988. The government had already become weak; the economy was bn its .decline; there was no hope of government’s getting support from the USSR. An agreement resulted in having free elections in the country. The solidarity won 99 seats of the Senate which had a total strength of 100. Lech Walesa became the President in October 1990.

Question 32.
What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was popular in 1990?
Answer:
The following are the reasons to say that the Solidarity was popular in Poland in 1990:

  • Solidarity was a trade union organized to protect the interests of the workers.
  • It sought to gain rights in favour of the workers, i.e. the right to organise, and right to strike
  • It sought to gain rights such as freedoms to talk about freely and to express protests.
  • It was able to organise itself under the able leadership of men like Lech Walesa.

Question 33.
What freedoms were devised to the people in Chile and Poland when they did not have democracy?
Answer:
When Chile and Poland did not have democracy in 1970s and 1980s respectively, the people were denied numerous freedoms.

Some of these were :

  • They were denied right to personal liberties;
  • They were denied right to freedom of speech;
  • They were not allowed to organise strikes;
  • They were not allowed to register their protests freely;
  • They were not permitted to express their views in the press; press was also not free.

Question 34.
Can you think of reasons why people would have liked a change in their government?
Answer:
The people would have liked to have a change in their government because they would have liked a democracy in place of non-democracy; their desire to have a change would have ushered an era of freedoms and prosperity for the people.

Question 35.
Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of non-democracy.
Answer:

  • Salazar overthrew the elected, government in 1926.
  • From 1926 to 1974, Salazar ruled as a dictator.
  • Salazar suppressed opposition; killed their leaders;
  • He organised ‘concentration camps’ where lie punished those who were involved in working-class in forests.
  • He ruled through spies who were present at public place?.
  • Citizens were denied freedoms; they could not discuss politics in the open.

Question 36.
What could be the impact of the presence of secret police in public place? Why is it necessary for people to discuss politics without fear?
Answer:
The presence of secret police in public places: cafes, railway stations, post offices, hospitals, universities, factories- would mean having a reign of terror. Under such system, citizens would not talk against the regime for fear of being arrested -and tortured. Politics without fear is a guarantee of democracy; with fear, that of a non-democracy.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 37.
Why were women given voting rights much later than men in most countries? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Franchise (Voting rights) movements started in different countries at different times. These movements sought male franchise first. This is why men got voting rights earlier. In India this did not happen so because democratic and voting rights ushered for all at the same time after independence.

Question 38.
How did the French Revolution, the Glorious Revolution and the American War of independence help pave the way for democracy?
Answer:
The French revolution of 1789 did not establish a secure and stable democracy, in France. But it prepared the ground for and inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe. The French revolution was preceded by a more limited but no less significant movement in Britain. This culminated in the ‘Glorious’ revolution of 1688. Around the same time as the French revolution, the British colonies in what is today the United States of America declared themselves independent.

Since the principle underlying the Declaration of Independence of 1776 was democratic, it was natural that they set up a democratic system in the Constitution of the United States of America. These developments decided once for all that there are no divine rights of the kings,- that men and women constitute the basis on which their rights and liberties are built, that men and women are born equal and born free.

Question 39.
How would you describe Salazar’s regim? as a dictatorship? Elections were held in Salazar’s Portugal. Why should it not be called a democracy?
Answer:
Salazar captured power in Portugal in 1926. For about a half-century, he ruled the country as a a.dictator. He was cruel to the opposition leaders, tortured them and killed them. His government started concentration camps on a barren island to punish those involved in working-class protests. The spies and informers of the secret police were present in all public- places-cafes, railway stations, post offices/ hospitals, offices, universities and factories. Being fearful of arrest, the citizen could not dare to discuss politics in the open.

After 1945, the government allowed opposition to campaign for one month before elections. This one month of free time’ was never enough to mobilise people politically for support during elections a$ no opposition was allowed after elections. The elections were held irregularly, every four or seven years. The opposition never won a single seat in these elections.

Question 40.
The late 17th century and the early 20th century saw some “democracies” in the world. Why were they not called democracies in the sense we use in the world today?
Answer:
Some countries of the world could be called ‘democracies’ by the beginning of the twentieth century. But these countries, which became democratic in the 19th century, did not allow all people to vote. Often the women did not have a right to vote. In some countries, only people owning property had the right to vote. In the United States of America, the blacks did not have a right to vote all over the country until the second half of the twentieth century. So we cannot say that these were full democracies in the sense in. which we understand it today.

Never, the beginning for democracy had begun. These countries had some of the following things common to them:

  • The governments were no more dictatorial. A measure of governmental accountability was seen.
  • Some kind of limited representative systems had started.
  • People had started launching movements for their rights.

Question 41.
Where do you place Ghana as a democratic nation?
Answer:
The country that is today called Ghana used to be a British colony called Gold Coast. This country became independent in 1957. It was among the first counties in Africa to be liberated from colonialism. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom. Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and a teacher himself was active in the independence struggle of his country. For him, like many other African nationalists, the struggle against foreign rule was linked to establishing democratic rule.

After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana. He was a friend of Jawaharlal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats, in Africa. But unlike Nehru, he deviated from the path of democracy and got himself elected the president for life. Nkrumah justified his actions by arguing that “Even a system based on a democratic constitution may need backing up in the period following independence by emergency measures of a totalitarian kind”. Shortly thereafter, in 1966, he was overthrown by military, Ghana was no longer a democracy.

Question 42.
Explain with examples as to how democracy lias been adopted in the world since 1990s.
Answer:
The 1990 saw’ numerous changes in the World. The communist regime came to an end in Poland, and Hungary in eastern European countries. The USSR disintegrated as a simple country and multi-party system came to be adopted. Major changes, especially in Pakistan and Bangladesh” made a transition from army rule to democratic regime in 1990s. In Nepal, the monarch gave up many of his powers to become a constitutional monarch’ to be guided by elected leaders. These changes ‘ were not permanent and were reversed in Pakistan and Nepal. Yet the overall trend in this period is of more and more countries turning to democracy.

This phase continues till now. By 2002, about 140 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever before. More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances,vtowards democracy, during this period. but even today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely. They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot decide how they will live in the present and in the future.

Question 43.
Give a detailed account of developments that took place in Myanmar since 1990.
Answer:
Elections were held in Myanmar (earlier Burma) in 1990. The NED (National League for Democracy), led by Aung Sang Suti Kyi won with a comprehensive victory. But the military rulers of Myanmar refused to recognise the election results and put the elected pro-democracy leaders including Suu Kyi under house arrest. Political activists, accused of even the most trivial offences, have been jailed from seven to fifteen years.

Anyone caught publicly airing view’s or issuing statements critical of the regime was sentenced up to twenty years in prison. Due to the coercive policies of the military-ruled government in Myanmar, about 6 to 10 lakh people in that country, have been uprooted from their homes and have taken shelter elsewhere.

Despite the restrictions of house arrest, Suu Kyi continued to campaign for democracy. According to her, “The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the world community. Her struggle has won international recognition; She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Yet the people in Myanmar are still struggling for establishing a democratic government.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 44.
Are we moving towards global democracy? Give examples.
Answer:
We know that democracy has expanded. Now more arid more people in Asia and Africa are also able to take part in forming governments in their countries. But does this trend also hold true for relationships among different countries or people from different countries? Are we moving towards global democracy? A quick look at some of the major global institutions suggests that we are not.

Expansion of democracy within nations has not led to greater democracy at the international level. Consider these facts :
1. The United Nations (UN) is the largest and best-known international organisation in the world. Every one of its 192 member countries has one vote in the UN General Assembly.

But all the crucial decisions about taking action in any conflict situation are taken by the 15 member Security Council. While ten of its members are non-permanent, the real power is with five ‘permanent’ members-USA, Russia, UK, France and China. Any one of; these five can ‘veto’, that is to reject of to stall, any decision of the Security Council.

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest money lenders for any country in the World. Its 173 member states do not have equal voting power. The vote of each country is weighted by how much money it has given to IMF. Eight of the leading ‘G-8’ (Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, Russia, and France) countries have a majority of votes. The World Bank has a similar .system of voting. The President of the World Bank is always a citizen of the USA, nominated by the Treasury Secretary (Finance Minister) of the US government.

3. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the key-global institution that decides upon rules of trade among different countries. Every decision of the WTO has to be by consensus of all the countries. So it appears to be fully democratic. But most of the-decisions are taken in informal meeting which are secret and to which only some powerful countries are invited.

In fact, While nations are becoming more democratic than they were earlier/ international organisations are becoming less democratic. In this sense, the collapse of ‘ the USSR had negative effect on democracy.
Now, the USA is the only superpower in the world.

This has encouraged the USA to act unilaterally, without seeking the consent of or even consultation with other countries. This has led more and more people and countries to say that the UN should be more democratised. Only through equal participation of all the members, can the UN be a democratic organisation. In this way, the world also can be more democratic.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with suitable words/names/events:

(i) The deposed leader of Chile in 1973 was …………………………………… . (Pinochet, Allende)
Answer:
Allende

(ii) Calama is a place a thousand miles away from …………………………………… . (Chicago, Santiago)
Answer:
Santiago

(iii) The name of the trade union leader in Poland in 1980s was …………………………………… .(Walesa, Luxembourg).
Answer:
Walesa

(iv) The French Revolution occurred in …………………………………… .(1776,1789).
Answer:
1789

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

(v) Salazar was a dictator of …………………………………… .(Myanmar, Portugal).
Answer:
Portugal

(vi) Suu Kyi got the Nobel Prize in …………………………………… . (Economics, Peace)
Answer:
Peace.

2. Choose (✓) or (✗) from the following:

(i) Russia is indulging in democracy promotion these lays.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) Myanmar is the changed name of Burma.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Gold Coast is known as Namibia now.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) Salazar was a dictator of Portugal.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Poland had a popularly elected President in Pinochet.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) Democracy is the best form of government.
Answer:
(✓)

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Democracy in the Contemporary World

3. Choose the right answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The name of Allende political party was
(a) Solidarity
(b) Popular Unity
(c) United Workers Party
Answer:
(b) Popular Unity

(ii) Myanmar was once known as:
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Burma
(c) Laos
(d) Indonesia.
Answer:
(b) Burma

(iii) The following country changed from democracy to non-democracy:
(a) USA
(b) Chile
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Chile

(iv) Walesa was elected leader in October 1990 of:
(a) Chile
(b) Poland
(c) Portugal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(b) Poland

(v) WTO is a global institution associated with:
(a) Transport
(b) Trade
(c) Television
(d) Traffic
Answer:
(b) Trade

(vi) One of the following is not a member of G-8:
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Japan
(c) Canada
Answer:
(b) Sweden.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 7

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is calligraphy?
Answer:
Calligraphy is the art of beautiful and stylised writings.

Print Culture And The Modern World Extra Questions Question 2.
Where did the earliest print technology develop in the world?
Answer:
The earliest print technology developed in China, Japan and Korea; it was, their, hand printing, around 594 AD.

Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name the explorer who brought with him the print technology to Italy.
Answer:
Marco Polo, in 1295.

Print Culture And The Modern World Question Answers Pdf Question 4.
Who had developed the first known printing press and when?
Answer:
Johann Gutenberg, in 1430.

Class 10 History Print Culture And Modern World Notes Question 5.
Who was Martin Luther?
Answer:
Martin Luther was a Protestant reformer. He wrote Ninety Five Thesis in 1517, criticizing the practice and rituals of the Roman Catholic church.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Why was Luther deeply grateful to printing?
Answer:
Printing, for Martin Luther, was one of the greatest gift of God to the people.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Mcq With Answers Question 7.
Why did the Roman church begin maintaining an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558 onward?
Answer:
The Roman church was troubled by the effects of the popular reading questioning it. So it maintained such an index from 1558 onward.

Class 12 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
What were Priliotheque Bleue ?
Answer:
Peilictheque Bleue were low-priced small books in France.

Class 12 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Whose writings, in France, were widely printed and read during the eighteenth century?
Answer:
Voltaire, and Rousseau.

Print Culture And The Modern World Important Questions Question 10.
Name a socialist whose discoveries, when published, influenced scientifically-minded readers.
Answer:
Isaac Newton.

Print Culture Class 10 Important Questions Question 11.
Whose novels, during the mid 18th century, had provided the basis for opposing despotion?
Answer:
Louise Sebastien Mercier’s novels destroyed the basis of despotism. He once proclaimed: “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer.

Print Culture And The Modern World Pdf Question 12.
Which magazines were especially meant for women?
Answer:
Penny magazines.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Ch 7 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 13.
How were the earlier manuscripts written in India?
Answer:
The earlier manuscripts were handwritten and in languages such as Sanskrit Persian, Arabic, and also in Vernacular language.

Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 14.
Who brought the printing technology to India?
Answer:
The Portuguese.

Class 6 Science Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 15.
Who brought out the weekly Bengal Gazzette?
Answer:
Gangadhar Bhattacharya, a close associate of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Question 16.
When was Tulsidas’s Ramcharitmas brought out in the printed form?
Answer:
In 1810, from Calcutta.

Question 17.
Name the two presses of mid-19lh century India which published religious texts.
Answer:

  1. Naval Kishore Press (Lucknow).
  2. Seri Venkateshwar Press (Bombay).

Question 18.
Give two advantages of the print culture.
Answer:

  1. It stimulates the publication of conflicting opinions among communities;
  2. It connected communities and people in different parts of India.

Question 19.
Name the book Altaf Husain Ali I wrote in 1874?
Answer:
Majalis Un Nissu (Assemblies of Women).

Question 20.
Which book did Maulana Ashraf Ali write in 1905?
Answer:
Bihishit Zewar (The ornament of Paradise).

Question 21.
Name the first full-length autobiography published in the Bengali language.
Answer:
Amar Jiban by Rashundari Debi.

Question 22.
Who wrote Istri Dharam Vichae?
Answer:
Ram Chaddha.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Question 23.
What does Battrola signify?
Answer:
Battrala signifies the area developed to the printing of popular books. It is located in central Calcutta.

Question 24.
For what art form is Kitagawa Utamaro known? 1
Answer:
Kitagawa Utamaro, born in Edo in 1753, was widely known for his contributions to an art form called ukiyo (‘pictures of the floating world’) or depiction of ordinary human experiences, especially urban ones. These prints travelled to contemporary US and Europe and influenced artists like Manet; and Van Gogh.

Question 25.
How did print technology travel from China to Italy and later in other parts of Europe?
Answer:
In 1295, Marco Polo, a great explorer, returned to Italy after many years of exploration in China. Marco Polo brought this knowledge back with him. Now Italians began producing books with woodblocks, and soon the technology spread to other parts of Europe, where luxury editions were still handwritten on very expensive vellum, meant for aristocratic circles and rich monastic libraries.

Question 26.
What do you know by the print resolution?
Answer:
Print resolution was not just a development, a new way of producing books; it transformed the lives of people, changing their relationship to information and knowledge, and with institutions and authorities. It influenced popular perceptions and opened up new ways of looking at things.

Question 27.
What is reading mania? Explain.
Answer:
Through the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, literacy rates went up in most parts of Europe. Churches of different denominations set up schools in villages, carrying literacy to peasants and artisans.

By the end of the eighteenth century, in some parts of Europe literacy rates were as high as 60 to 80 per cent. As literacy and schools spread in European countries, there was a virtual reading mania. People wanted books to read and printers produced books in ever-increasing number.

Question 28.
How was the printing press a danger to despotism? What does Mercier say about it?
Answer:
Louis Sebastien Mercier, a novelist in eighteenth-century France, declared: “The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force that will sweep despotism away.’ In many of Mercier’s novels, the heroes are transformed by acts of reading.

They devour books, are lost in the world books create, and become enlightened in the process. Convinced of the power of print in bringing enlightenment and destroying the basis of despotism, Mercier proclaimed: Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Treble before the virtual writer.

Question 29.
What do you know about the Grimm Brothers of Germany?
Answer:
The Grimm Brothers in Germany spent years compiling traditional folk tales gathered from peasants. What they collected was edited before the stories were published in a collection in 1812. Anything that was considered unsuitable for children or would appear vulgar to the elites, was not included in the published version.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Question 30.
‘Women were important readers as well as writers’ Explain.
Answer:
Women became important readers as well as writers Penny magazines were especially meant for women, as were manuals teaching proper behaviour and housekeeping. When novels began to be written in the nineteenth-century women were seen as important readers.

Some of the best-known novelists were women: Jane Austen, the Bronte sisters, George Eliot. Their writings became important in defining a new type of woman: a person with will, strength of personality, determination and the power to think.

Question 31.
How did print come to India? Give a brief account.
Answer:
The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century. Jesuit priests learnt Konkani and printed several tracts. By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in the Konkani and in Kanara languages: Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579 at Cochin, and in 1713 the first Malayalam book was printed by them. By 1710, Dutch Protestant missionaries had printed 32 Tamil texts, many of them translations of older works.

Question 32.
Which printed technology appeared in 1820s in India?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy published Sambd Kaumudi from 1821 and the Hindu orthodoxy commissioned the Samachar Chandrika to oppose his opinions. From 1822. Iwo Persian newspapers were published, Jam-i-Jahu Nama and Samsul Akhbar. In the same year, a Gujarati newspaper, the Bombay Samachar, made its appearance.

Question 33.
What new visual culture was taking place in late 19th century India?
Answer:
By the end of the nineteenth century, a new visual culture was taking shape. With the setting up of an increasing number of printing presses, visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple copies. Painters like Raja Ravi Verma produced images for mass circulation.

Question 34.
How did the print technology development in China?
Answer:
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China. This was a system of hand printing. From AD 594 onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper – also invented there against the inked surface of ‘Woodblocks. As both sides of the thin, porous sheet could not be printed, the traditional Chinese ‘accordion book’ was folded and stitched at the side. Superbly skilled craftsmen could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy the beauty of calligraphy.

The imperial state in China was, for a very long time, the major producer of printed material. China possessed a huge bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel through civil service examinations Textbooks for this examination were printed in vast numbers under the sponsorship of the imperial state.

From the sixteenth century, the number of examination candidates Went up and that increased the volume of print. By the seventeenth century, as urban culture bloomed in China, the uses of print diversified Print was no longer used just by scholar-officials.

Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected trade information. Reading increasingly became a leisure activity. From hand-printing, there began mechanical printing. From China, the print technology moved to Europe through the Silk Route.

Question 35.
Did everyone welcome printed books? Why were some people apprehensive?
Answer:
Printed books were both welcomed as well as unwelcomed. Those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people to think differently and move them to action. This had significance in different spheres of life. Not everyone welcomed the printed book and those who did also had fears about it. Many were apprehensive of the effects that the easier access to the printed word and the wider circulation of books, could have on people’s minds.

It was feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might spread. If that happened the authority of valuable literature would be destroyed. Expressed by religious authorities and monarchs, as well as many writers and artists, this anxiety was the basis of widespread criticism of the new printed literature that had began to circulate.

Question 36.
Why do some historians think that the print culture created the basis for the French Revolution? What are the three types of argument? Explain.
Answer:
Many historians have argued that print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred.
Three types of arguments have been usually put forward.

First: print popularized the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality.

They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning critical and rational.

Second: Print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become aware of the power of reason and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs Within this public culture, new ideas of social revolution came into being.

Third: by the 1780s there was an outpouring of literature that mocked the royalty and criticised their morality. In the process, it raised questions about the existing social order. Cartoons and caricatures typically suggested that the monarchy remained absorbed only in sensual pleasures while the common people suffered immense hardships.

This literature was circulated underground and led to the growth of hostile sentiments against the monarchy. Indeed, print did not directly shape their minds but it did open the possibility of thinking differently.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Question 37.
Bring out newer innovations in the print technology since the eighteenth century.
Answer:
By the late eighteenth century, the press came to be made out of metal. Through the nineteenth century, there were a series of further innovations in printing technology. By the mid-nineteenth century, Richard M. Hoe of New York had perfected the power-driven cylindrical press. This was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour. This press was particularly useful for printing newspapers. In the late nineteenth century, the offset press was developed which could print up to six colours at a time.

From the turn of the twentieth century, electrically operated presses accelerated printing operations. A series of other developments followed. Methods of feeding paper improved, the quality of plates became better, automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls of the colour register were introduced. The accumulation of several individual mechanical improvements transformed the appearance of printed texts.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate alternative:

Question 1.
On what model was the Vernacular Press Act (1878) was passed in India?
(a) American Press Laws
(b) French Press Law’s
(c) Irish Press Laws
(d) Australian Press Laws
Answer:
(c) Irish Press Laws

Question 2.
Istri Dharsun Vichar was written by:
(a) Ram Chhddha
(b) Laxman Chaddha
(c) Bharat Chaddha
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Ram Chhddha

Question 3.
Raja Ravi Varma was:
(a) an architect
(b) a doctor
(c) a painter
(d) a novelist.
Answer:
(c) a painter

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Print Culture and the Modern World

Question 4.
Chapbooks were:
(a) low-priced books
(b) high-priced books
(c) cheap books
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) low-priced books

2. Choose true (✓) or false (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
Gutenberg was a French artist.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Print technology owes its origin to Japan.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Warren Hastings was the Governor-General of Australia.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Amar Jiban was the first full-length autobiography written in the Assamese language.
Answer:
(✗).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Question 1.
How much-cultivated area rose during 1880-1920?
Answer:
The cultivated area rose by 9.7 million hectares between 1880 and 1920.

Question 2.
Why was railways essential to the colonial rulers?
Answer:

  • For colonial trade,
  • movement of troops.

Question 3.
Which places did the Indus Valley Railway touch when introduced?
Answer:
Multan on the one hand and Sukkur on the other hand, a distance of nearly 300 miles.

Question 4.
Which places were joined together by the Northern State Railway?
Answer:
Lahore on the one hand and Multan on the other.

Question 5.
Who was Dietrich Brandis and who appointed him?
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German forest expert. The British Government appointed him as Inspector General of Forests in India.

Question 6.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 7.
Which Act divided the forest into reserved, protected and village forests?
Answer:
The Act of 1878.

Question 8.
Could the villagers according to the Act of 1878, make use of the reserved forests?
Answer:
The villagers could not take anything from the reserved forests, even for their own use.

Question 9.
What is scientific forestry?
Answer:
Scientific forestry is a system of cutting trees Controlled by the forest department in which old trees are cut and new ones planted.

Question 10.
What is lading?
Answer:
Lading is local name for shifting cultivation of Southeast Asia. In Central America, it is called milpa, while in Sri Lanka, it is called Chena.

Question 11.
Why did the colonial government decide to ban shifting cultivation? Give one reason.
Answer:
It was difficult for the government to calculate, taxes on shifting cultivation.

Question 12.
Name some of the nomadic and pastoral communities of Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Korava, Karacba, and Yerukula.

Question 13.
Name the leaders of the movements of Santhal Pargana, Chhotanagpur, Andhra Pradesh who resisted the British colonialists.
Answer:

  • Santhal Pargana: Siddhu & Kanu
  • Chhotanagpur: Birsa Munda
  • Andhra Pradesh: Alluri Sitarama Raju.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 14.
Who were the Kalangs?
Answer:
The Kalangs were a community- of Java (Indonesia) who were skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.

Question 15.
“The forest area is. fast disappearing”. Substantiate.
Answer:
The forest area indeed is fast disappearing. Between 1700 and 1995, which may be characterized as the period of industrialization, 13.-9 million sq km of forests or 9.3% of the world’s total areas had been cleared for

  • industrial use,
  • cultivation,
  • pasture’s, and fuelwood.

Question 16.
What were the banana republics?
Answer:
The power of an American owned United Fruit Company to grow bananas on the large industrial scale, in Central America is said to be banana republics.

Question 17.
Should the land unused be improved or remain with the Aboriginals,? Give your arguments.
Answer:
The land unused remains unproductive. It may be in regions like the Central America or Australia. It is important that the land be used or improved upon so to be productive. It is the land that helps us grow crops, and take from it numerous natural resources. The land wasted is the land lost. It is important that the people make use of it, and make it productive.

Question 18.
As the oak forests were disappearing, how did England manage to have timber for its shipbuilding requirement?
Answer:
By the early nineteenth century, oak forest in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. By 1920s, search parties were sent to explore the forest resources of India. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a massive scale and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on scientific forestry. ‘
Answer:
The Imperial Forest Research Institute, set up at Dehradun in 1906, taught what is called scientific forestry. In scientific forestry, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of tree was planted in straight rows.

This is called a plantation. Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees, and made working plans for forest management. The colonial rulers planned how much of the plantation area was to be cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some future years.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 20.
What were the forest Acts and what characteristics they had?
Answer:
After the Forest Act was enacted in 1865, it was amended twice, once in 1878 and then in 1927. The 1878 Act divided forests into there categories; reserved, protected and village forests. The best forests were called ‘reserved forests’. Villagers could not fake anything from these forests. For house building or fuel, they could take the wood.

Question 21.
Give the status of the Bastar region.
Answer:
In 1947 Bastar kingdom was merged with Ranker kingdom and became Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh. In 1998 it was divided again into three districts, Ranker, Bastar and Dantewada. In 2001, these became part of Chhattisgarh. Tire 1910 rebellion first started in the Kanger forest area and soon spread to other parts of the state.

Question 22.
Mention the location of the Bastar region. ?
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh and borders Andhra Pradesh/Orissa and Maharashtra. The central part of Bastar is on a plateau. To the north of this plateau is the Chhattisgarh plain and to its South is the Godavari plain. The river Indrawati winds across Bastar east to west.

Question 23.
What is deforestation? How has cultivation been responsible for clearing of forests.
Answer:
The disappearance of forests is deforestation. The process of deforestation has become more systematic and extensive during the colonial rule. In 1600 about one-sixth of India’s landmass was under cultivation. Now the figure has gone up to about half. As population grew, so grew the demand for food, and so began the process of cultivation.

In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly. Two major reasons were: first, the British directly encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton. The demand, for these crops, increased in nineteenth century. Secondly, in early 19th century, the colonial state thought that the forests Were unproductive and that land cultivation would not only yield agricultural products/but also revenue for the state. That is why we find that between 1880 and 1920, cultivation area rose by 9.7 million hectares.

Question 24.
Why did the British make use of timber for railway in India? Explain.
Answer:
The spread of railways, ever since 1850, created a new demand. Railways were essential for colonial trade and for the movement of troops. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel, and to lay railway lines, sleepers were essential to hold the tracks together. From the 1860s, the railway network expanded rapidly. By 1890′, about 25,500 km of track had been laid. In 1946, the length of the tracks had increased to over 765,000 km.

As the railway tracks spread through India, a larger and larger number of trees were felled. As early as the 1,850s, in the Madras. Presidency alone, 35,000, trees were being cut annually for sleepers. The government gave out contracts to individuals to supply the required quantities. These contractors began cutting trees indiscriminately. Forests around the railway tracks fast started disappearing.

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 25.
How did the forest laws bring days of hardships for the villagers? Explain.
Answer:
The villagers had the face the days of hardships because of the stricter forest laws. After these Acts, all their everyday practices-cutting wood for houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became illegal.

People were now forced to steal wood from the forests, and if they were caught, they were at the mercy of the forest guards who would take bribes from them. Women who collected fuelwood were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards to harass people for demanding free food from them.

The villagers had to abandon the shifting cultivation, for the government restricted this type of farming due to heavy losses of timber burnt during the process. It felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railways timber. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.

Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

Question 26.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Dutch Scientific Forestry.
(ii) Sarnin’s challenge.
Answer:
(i) Dutch Scientific Forestry In the nineteenth century, when it became important to control territory and not just people, the Dutch enacted forest laws in Java, restricting villagers access to forests. Now wood could only be cut for specified purposes like making riverboats or constructing houses, and only from specific forests under close supervision. Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in young stands, transporting wood without a permit, or travelling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle.

(ii) Samin’s challenge-Around 1890, Surontiko, Samin of Randbulafung village, a teak forest village, began questioning state ownership of tine forest. He argued that the state had not created the wind, water, early and wood, so it could not own it. Soon a widespread movement developed. Amongst those who helped organise it were Samin’s sons-in-law. By 1907, 3,000 families were following his ideas. Some of the Saminists protested by lying down on their land when the Dutch came to survey it, while others refused to pay taxes or fines or perform labour.

Objective Type Questions

1. Select correct (✓) or wrong (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
Banana Republics belong to regions such as the Central America.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Railway tracks required, at one point of time, wooden sleepers.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Brandis was an English forest expert.
Answer:
(✗)

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 4.
Indian Forest Service was set up in 1865.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
George Yule killed 400 tigers.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Select the correct word from the four alternatives given herein:

Question 1.
Bastar is bordered by the following :
(a) Orissa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Orissa

Question 2.
Gunda Dhur belonged to the following village:
(a) Bastar
(b) Jagdalpur
(c) Nathan
(d) Palam
Answer:
(c) Nathan

Question 3.
Java is a place in:
(a) Thailand
(b) Singapore
(c) Indonesia
(d) Myanmar.
Answer:
(c) Indonesia

Class 9 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Forest Society and Colonialism

Question 4.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at :
(a) Hard war
(b) Dehradun
(c) Kashipur
(d) Badali
Answer:
(b) Dehradun

Question 5.
The forest act, first, was passed in :
(a)1864
(b) 1S66
(c) 1865
(d) 1867.
Answer:
(c) 1865

3. Fill in the blanks with the words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
In the Madras Presidency, as early as 1850s, about 35000 trees were cut ……………………… (annually, six-monthly)
Answer:
annually

Question 2.
Brandis was a forest expert ……………………… . (German, Brazilian)
Answer:
German

Question 3.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehradun in ……………………… (1905,1906)
Answer:
1906

Question 4.
George Yule was a …………………….. administrator. (German, Dutch)
Answer:
British.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

The Delhi Sultans Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who lived in Delhi before Delhi Sultans occupied it?
Answer:
Many rich Jaina merchants lived in f the city of Delhi before Delhi Sultans occupied it.

The Delhi Sultans Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Name the coin that was in circulation in Delhi.
Answer:
Dehliwal was the name of coin that was in the circulation in Delhi.

The Delhi Sultanate Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
What is the main source of information about Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
The main source of information about Delhi Sultanate is “histories” Tarikh (singular) or tawarikh (plural), written in Persian

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who wrote tawarikh?
Answer:
The authors of tawarikh were learned men: Secretaries, administrators, poets and courtiers.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Delhi Sultanate Class 7 Worksheets With Answers Question 5.
What were the duties of Moqtada or the military commanders?
Answer:
The duty of Moqtada or multi or military commanders was to lead military campaigns and maintain law and order in their iqtas.

Class 7 History Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
Who was the most famous Mongol ruler?
Answer:
Genghis Khan was the most famous Mongol ruler. He invaded Transoxiana in 1219 and Delhi after some time.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is meant by the following terms: namaz, imam, khutba, qibla?
Answer:
namaz – prayer; imam.- leader of Muslims at the time of prayer; khutba – sermon delivered by imam during the Friday prayer; qibla – facing towards Mecca while praying.

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 8.
What was equal
Answer:
Iqra was the land governed by military commanders, as it was granted to them by Sultans in the place of cash salary for their services.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Questions On Delhi Sultanate Class 7 Question 9.
What were the limitations of the “histories” written by authors of “tawarikh”
Answer:
The “histories” written by authors of “tawarikhs” had following limitations :

  • It did not have the details of lives of ordinary men and women.
  • The authors of tawarikh lived in cities and hardly ever in villages. Therefore, they produced limited version of history.
  • They often wrote their histories for Sultans in hope of rich rewards.
  • They talked about ‘ideal’ social setup based on birthright and gender distinctions.

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 10.
How was revenue system reformed under Alauddin Khalji?
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji introduced following reforms in the revenue system :

  • The Central administration brought the assessment and collection of land revenue under its own control.
  • The rights of local chieftains to levy taxes were cancelled and they were forced to pay taxes.
  • The Sultan’s administrators measured the land and kept careful accounts.
  • Only three types of taxes were collected such as taxes on peasant’s produce, cattle and houses.

The Delhi Sultans Class 7 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11.
Write a note of Suri dynasty and Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:

  • Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545) began his career as a manager of a small territory of his uncle in Bihar.
  • He challenged and defeated the Mughal emperor Humanyu.
  • He captured Delhi and established the Suri dynasty.
  • He introduced administrative system of Alauddin Khalji with some new changes and made it more efficient.
  • Sher Shah’s administrative system became model followed by the Great emperor Akbar when he consolidated Mughal empire.

The Delhi Sultans Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 12.
What role did bandagan play in the administration of Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:

  • Bandagan was the special slaves purchased for military services.
  • The early Delhi Sultans preferred the services of bandagans than the aristocrats and landed chieftains as governers.
  • Bandagans were carefully trained for some of the most important political offices in the kingdom.
  • These new clients were appointed as generals and governors. Therefore, bandagans played an important role in administration of Delhi Sultanate.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Delhi became the first capital of which of the following kingdom?
(a) Chahamanas Dynasty
(b) Khalji Dynasty
(c) Sayyid Dynasty
(d) Lodi Dynasty.
Answer:
(a) Chahamanas Dynasty.

2. Name the coin that was in circulation in Delhi.
(a) Gold coin
(b) Silver coin
(c) Dehliwal
(d) Bronze coin.
Answer:
(c) Dehliwal.

3. Which of the following were the cities built by Delhi Sultans in Delhi?
(a) Dehli-i-Kuhna
(b) Jahanpanah
(c) Siri
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

4. Which of the following is the most valuable source of information about Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Inscriptions
(b) Coins
(c) Histories; tarikh (singular) or tawarikh (plural)
(d) Architecture.
Answer:
(c) Histories; tarikh (singular) or tawarikh (plural).

5. Who wrote tawarikh?
(a) Secretaries
(b) Administrators
(c) Poets and courtiers
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

6. Why did Iltutmish favour bandagan?
(a) Bandagan were special slaves purchased for military service.
(b) Bandagan were large landowners.
(c) Bandagan were brahmans.
(d) Bandagan were agricultural labourers.
Answer:
(a) Bandagan were special slaves purchased for military service.

7. Which of the following were the duties of Moqtada or the military commanders?
(a) To lead military campaigns
(b) To maintain law and order in their iqtas
(c) To provide suggestions in respect of tax collections
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

8. Who was the most famous Mongols ruler?
(a) Pulkeshin-II
(b) Genghis Khan
(c) Ananga Pala
(d) Prithviraja Chauhan.
Answer:
(b) Genghis Khan.

9. Which of the following periods saw the emergence of new ruling groups like the Afghans and the Rajputs in the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Tenth century
(b) Twelfth century
(c) Fourteenth century
(d) Sixteenth century.
Answer:
(d) Sixteenth century.

10. Which of the following adminis¬tration became the model followed by the great emperor Akbar when he consolidated the Mughal empire?
(а) Khizr Khan’s administration
(b) Alauddin Khalji’s administration
(c) Sher Shah Suri’s administration
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq’s administration
Answer:
(c) Sher Shah Suri’s administration.

Important Years Or Periods Rajput Dynasties:

Early 12th Cen-1165: Tomaras

1130-1145: Ananga Pala

1165-1192: Chauhans

1175-1192: Prithviraj Chauhan

1206-1290: Early Turkish Ruler

1206-1210: Qutbuddin Aybak

1210-1236: Shamsuddin Iltutinish

1236-1240: Raziyya

1266-1287: Ghiyasuddln Balban

1290-4320: Khaiji Dynasty

1290-1296: Jalaluddin

1296-1316: Alauddin Khalji

1320-1414: Tughluq Dynasty

1320-1324: Ghiyasuddin Thghluq

1324-1351: Muhammad Tughluq

1351-1388: Firuz Shah Thghluq

1414-1451: Sayyid Dynasty

1414-1421: Khizr Khan

1451-1526: Lodhi Dynasty

1451-1489: BahIulùdi

1540-1545: Slier Shah Sun.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers The Delhi Sultans

Important Terms:

→ Birthright: Privileges claimed on account of birth. For example, people believed that nobles inherited their
rights to govern because they were born in certain families.

→ Gender distinctions: Social and biological differences between women and men. Usually, these differences are used to argue that men are superior to women.

→ Hinterland: The lands adjacent to a city or port that supply it of goods and services.

→ Garrison town: A fortified settlement with soldiers.

→ Client: Someone who is under the protection of another; a dependent or hanger-on.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Nutrition in Animals

Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What does animal nutrition include?
Answer:
Animal nutrition includes nutrient requirement, mode of intake of food and its utilisation in the body.

Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 2.
Name the largest gland of the human body.
Answer:
Liver.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is digestive system?
Answer:
The digestive tract and the associated glands together constitute the digestive system.

Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name the four types of teeth.
Answer:
Incisor, canine, premolar and molar.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Notes Questions And Answers Question 5.
What is the function of saliva?
Answer:
It breaks down starch into simple sugar.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is cud?
Answer:
The partially digested food stored in rumen is called cud.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions Answers Question 7.
Write the arrangement of teeth in mouth.
Answer:
The arrangement of teeth from left to right is as follows :
3 molars + 2 premolars + 1 canine
+ 4 incisors + 1 canines + 2 premolars + 3 molars.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Question Answer Question 8.
What should one do to keep teeth healthy?
Answer:

  • One should clean the teeth with a brush or dantun.
  • One should use dental floss (a special strong thread which is moved between two teeth to take out trapped food particles) at least twice a day.
  • One should rinse the mouth properly after every meal.
  • Also, one should not put dirty fingers or any unwashed object into the mouth.

Nutrition In Animals Extra Questions Question 9.
Draw a diagram to show movement of food in the oesophagus of alimentary canal.
Answer:
Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers

Class 7 Science Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 10.
What is stomach?
Answer:
The stomach is a thick-walled bag. Its shape is like a flattened U and it is the widest part of the alimentary canal.

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 11.
What is amoeba?
Answer:
Amoeba is a microscopic single-celled organism usually found in pond water. Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 12.
What is alimentary canal?
Answer:
The complete track from mouth to anus through which food is taken, digested, absorbed and undigested food or waste passes out is called alimentary canal.

Class 7 Nutrition In Animals Extra Questions Question 13.
Name all the parts of alimentary canal.
Answer:

  • The buccal cavity,
  • oesophagus,
  • stomach,
  • small intestine,
  • large intestine and
  • the anus.

Extra Questions On Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Question 14.
Draw a diagram of arrangement of teeth in mouth.
Answer:
Nutrition In Animals Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers

Extra Questions For Class 7 Science Nutrition In Animals Question 15.
What is tooth decay?
Answer:
If we do not clean our teeth and mouth after eating, many harmful bacteria also begin to live and grow in it. These bacteria break down the sugars present in the leftover food and release acids. The acids gradually damage the teeth. This is called tooth decay.

Question 16.
Draw a figure of amoeba and show its various parts.
Answer:
Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Extra Questions

Question 17.
Write the functions of stomach.
Answer:
It receives food from the food pipe or oesophagus at one end and opens into the small intestine at the other.
The inner lining of the stomach secretes mucous, hydrochloric acid and digestive juices. The mucous protects the lining of the stomach. The acid kills many bacteria that enter along with the food and
makes the medium in the stomach acidic. The digestive juices break down the proteins into simpler substances called amino acids.

Question 18.
Write briefly about the large intestine.
Answer:
The large intestine is wider and shorter than small intestine. It is about 1.5 metres in length. Its function is to absorb water and some salts from the undigested food material. The remaining waste passes into the rectum and remains there as semi-solid faeces. The faecal matter is removed through the anus from time to time. This is called egestion.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

Question 19.
How does nutrition occurs in amoeba?
Answer:
Amoeba feeds on some microscopic organisms. When it senses food, it pushes out pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it. The food becomes trapped in a food vacuole. Digestive juices are secreted into the food vacuole. They act on the food and break it down into simpler substances. Gradually the digested food is absorbed. The absorbed substances are used for growth, maintenance and multiplication. The undigested residue of the food is expelled outside by the vacuole.

Question 20.
Can you guess what the role of villi could be in the intestine?
Answer:
The villi increase the surface area for absorption of the digested food. Each villus has a network of thin and small blood vessels close to its surface. The surface of the villi absorbs the digested food materials.

Question 21.
Paheli wants to know why these animals (ruminants) cannot chew food properly at the time they take it in?
Answer:
The ruminants mainly feed on rass and bush which primarily contain cellulose or roughage. For the breakdown of cellulose a lot of chewing and saliva are needed. So, the ruminants need to chew the grass for long time. That is why, they chew it twice. If they chew for long while eating, they will get less time to eat and they will remain hungry.

Question 23.
Boojho wants to know why we cannot digest cellulose like the cattle do?
Answer:
Ruminants have a large sac-like structure called Caecum which is present in between the small intestine and large intestine.
The cellulose of the food is digested here by the action of certain bacteria which are not present in humans.

Question 24.
What are villi? What is their location and function?
Answer:
The inner walls of the small intestine have thousands of finger-like outgrowths. These are called villi. Villi are found in the small intestine. The villi increase the surface area for absorption of the digested food. Each villus has a network of thin
and small blood vessels close to its surface. The surface of the villi absorbs the digested food materials.

Question 25.
Name the type of carbohydrate that can be digested by ruminants but not by humans. Give the reason also.
Answer:
Cellulose is a type of carbohydrate that can be digested by ruminants but not by humans. Ruminants have a large sac-like structure called Caecum which is present in between the small intestine and large intestine. The cellulose is digested here by the action of certain bacteria which are not present in humans.

Question 26.
Why do we get instant energy from glucose?
Answer:
Glucose is the simplest form of carbohydrate which can be broken down easily to produce energy in our body. So, we get
instant energy from glucose.

Question 27.
Can we survive only on raw, leafy vegetables/grass ? Discuss.
Answer:
No. Because to live a healthy life we need a complete balance of all nutrients. Raw grcenveg(tables may have cellulose which can not be digested by us. So, only green lead vegetables will not solve the purpose. We must have to ingest food rich in proteins fat.,vitamins, minerals along with carbohydrates.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the mode of feeding in snail?
(i) Capturing
(ii) Sucking
(iii) Scraping
(iv) Swallowing.
Answer:
(ii) Sucking.

2. Which of the following animals’ shows ‘scraping5 mode of feeding?
(i) Snail
(ii) Mosquito
(iii) Lice
(iv) Ant.
Answer:
(iv) Ant.

3. Butterfly feeds on :
(i) sugar
(ii) small insects
(iii) nectar
(iv) blood
Answer:
(iii) nectar.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

4. How many teeth are found in an adult human being?
(i) 20
(ii) 24
(iii) 28
(iv) 32
Answer:
(iv) 32.

5. Which teeth is used for piercing and tearing?
(i) Incisor
(ii) Canine
(iii) Premolar
(iv) Molar.
Answer:
(ii) Canine.

6. Incisors are :
(i) cutting and biting teeth.
(ii) piercing and tearing teeth.
(iii) chewing and grinding teeth.
(iv) cutting and grinding teeth.
Answer:
(i) cutting and biting teeth.

7. How many chewing and grinding teeth are found in an adult human being?
(i) 4
(ii) 8
(iii) 12
(iv) 20.
Answer:
(iv) 20.

8. The total number of teeth in upper jaw is :
(i) same as of lower jaw.
(ii) two more than that of lower jaw.
(iii) two less than that of lower jaw.
(iv) four more than that of lower jaw.
Answer:
(i) same as of lower jaw.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 2

9. What happens when iodine comes in contact with starch?
(i) Iodine turns red.
(ii) Iodine turns blue-black.
(iii) Starch turns red.
(iv) Starch turns blue-black.
Answer:
(ii) Iodine turns blue-black.

10. What is the action of saliva on starch?
(i) It breaks starch into protein.
(ii) It breaks starch into fat.
(iii) It breaks starch into sugar.
(iv) No reaction occurs.
Answer:
(iii) It breaks starch into sugar.

11. Which area of the tongue tastes sweetness?
(i) Left side
(ii) Right side
(iii) Middle part
(iv) Tip.
Answer:
(iv) Tip.

12. The left side of the tongue tastes :
(i) bitterness
(ii) sourness
(iii) sweetness
(iv) saltiness.
Answer:
(ii) sourness.

13. The structures that are found on the tongue and responsible for various tastes are called as :
(i) taste pores
(ii) taste glands
(iii) taste buds
(iv) taste organs
Answer:
(iii) taste buds.

Keywords:

→ Absorption: Process of taking in digested food by the walls of intestine is known as absorption.

→ Amino acid: A constituent of protein.

→ Amoeba: It is a microscopic unicellular organism usually found in pond water.

→ Assimilation: The absorbed digested food materials are transported via the blood vessels in different organs of the body where they are used to build complex substances such as the proteins required by the body. This is called assimilation.

→ Bile: It is a digestive juice secreted by liver that helps in digestion of fats.

→ Buccal cavity: The mouth with all its internal parts like teeth, tongue, salivary glands, etc. is called buccal cavity.

→ Canine: The teeth used for piercing and tearing.

→ Cellulose: A type of carbohydrate found mainly in grasses.

→ Digestion: The breakdown of complex components of food into simpler substances is called digestion.

→ Egestion: The removal of faecal matter through the anus from time to time is called egestion.

→ Fatty acid: It is a simple form of fat formed after the digestion of fats.

→ Food vacuole: The part of amoeba where food is trapped and digested is called food vacuole.

→ Gall bladder: A sac like structure attached to the liver that stores bile juice temporarily is called gall bladder.

→ Glycerol: A digested outcome of fats.

→ Incisor: The front four teeth, two in each jaw in the mouth used for cutting food.

→ Ingestion: The process of taking food into the body is called ingestion.

→ Liver: It is the largest gland in the body that secretes digestive juices.

→ Milk teeth: The first set of teeth grows during infancy and they fall off at the age between six to eight years. These are termed as milk teeth.

→ Molar: Teeth for chewing and grinding present at the end of jaw.

→ Permanent teeth: The second set of teeth developed after falling of milk teeth are called permanent teeth.

→ Oesophagus: It is the food pipe that runs along the neck and the chest and connects mouth with stomach.

→ Pancreas: The pancreas is a lar’e cream coloured gland located just below the stomach which secretes digestive juices.

→ Premolar: The teeth used for chewing and grinding present just before nioIat teeth.

→ Pseudopodia: The flnger-like injections of amoeba that help it in movement and capturing fooð&re called pseudopodia.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions and Answers Pollution of Air and Water

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Questions Answers Question 1.
Which monument in India is now one of the seven wonders of the world?
Answer:
It is Taj Mahal.

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 2.
Why is the beauty of Taj Mahal threatened?
Answer:
Because of the air pollution in the area surrounding the Taj.

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions Question 3.
Name two sources of air pollutants.
Answer:
Factories and vehicles are the two prominent sources of air pollution.

Ncert Science Class 8 Chapter 18 Extra Questions With Answers Question 4.
Which gas is most responsible for global warming?
Answer:
CO2 is most responsible for global warming.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Worksheets With Answers Question 5.
Name the greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapour, etc. are called greenhouse gases.

Pollution Of Air And Water Question Answer Question 6.
Name the ambitious plan to save the river?
Answer:
It is called Ganga Action Plan.

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
What does untreated sewage thrown directly into rivers contain?
Answer:
Untreated sewage contains food- wastes, detergents and microorganisms.

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Question 8.
What does water contaminated with sewage may contain?
Answer:
It contains bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites.

Pollution Of Air And Water Extra Questions Question 9.
What is potable water?
Answer:
Water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water.

Question Answers Of Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Question 10.
What is the impact of reducing quality of air and water on our lives?
Answer:
There is a great impact of reducing quality of air and water on our lives. The number of people suffering from various pollution-borne diseases is rising day by day.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science Pollution Of Air And Water Question 11.
State the constituents of air.
Answer:
Air consists of a mixture of gases. By volume about 78% of thik mixture is nitrogen and about 21% is oxygen. Carbon dioxide, argon, methane, ozone, water vapour are also present in very small quantity.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Extra Questions Of Chapter 18 Science Class 8 Question 12.
What is meant by air pollution?
Answer:
When the air is contaminated by unwanted substances which cause harmful effects on both the living and non-living components, it is referred to as air pollution.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Extra Questions Question 13.
What reduces visibility in air?
Answer:
Automobiles which burn diesel and petrol, produce tiny particles which remain suspended in air for long periods. They reduce visibility in air.

Ch 18 Science Class 8 Extra Questions Question 14.
Are non-living things also affected by air pollution?
Answer:
Yes, the air pollution is affecting not only living beings, but also the non-living things. An example of this is discolouring the white marble of Taj Mahal due to air pollution. Similarly, many other buildings, monuments and statues are also getting affected.

Pollution Of Air And Water Class 8 Question Answer Question 15.
Which industries are responsible for the yellowing of Taj in Agra?
Answer:
The industries located in and around Agra are rubber processing, automobiles, chemicals and especially the Mathura oil refinery have been responsible for the yellowing of Taj in Agra.

Question 16.
What are the reasons of water scarcity?
Answer:
Water is becoming scarce day by day due to increase in population, industries and agricultural activities.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Question 17.
How is water getting polluted?
Answer:
Whenever substances such as sewage, toxic chemicals, silt, etc., which are harmful to life, get mixed with water, the water becomes polluted.

Question 18.
What is the impact of putting chemical fertilizers in water?
Answer:
Putting chemical fertilizers in water leads to algae bloom, which increase toxicity of water. Again when they die, they are fed by decomposers like bacteria, which uses dissolved oxygen of water. Thus, survival of organism living in water become tough and they die out of stress.

Question 19.
What is the thick fog-like layer in the atmosphere during winter? How is it formed?
Answer:
The thick fog like layer seen in the atmosphere especially in winter is smog. The smog is made up of smoke and fog. Oxides of nitrogen combine with other air pollutants and fog contributing to the formation of smog. It causes breathing difficulties such as asthma, cough and wheezing in children.

Question 20.
What are the directives of supreme court to control air pollution to save Taj?
Answer:
The supreme court has taken several steps to save the Taj Mahal from getting damaged by toxic chemicals.

  • It has ordered the industries to switch to cleaner fuels like CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) and LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas).
  • The automobiles should switch to unleaded petrol in the Taj zone.

Question 21.
What are the impacts of global warming on atmosphere?
Answer:
Global warming can cause sea levels to rise dramatically. In many places, coastal areas have already been flooded. Global warming could result in wide-ranging effects on rainfall patterns, agriculture, forests, plants and animals. It also brings about climatic changes. It may bring about the rise in temperature to more than two degrees Celsius, a level considered dangerous.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Question 22.
How does water becomes impure? How will you know that water is impure?
Answer:
Water becomes dirty after using it for washing clothes, bathing, etc. This means that we are adding such materials to water, which degrade its quality. These materials come from human sources, but, they could also be from natural sources. By the smell, colour, acidity and turbidity of the water we can know that water is impure.

Question 23.
How is Ganga one of the ten endangered rivers of the world?
Answer:
A study by the World Wide Fund for Nature found that Ganga is one of the ten endangered rivers in the world. It is because towns and cities, through which this river flows, dispose off large quantities of garbage, untreated sewage, dead bodies, and many other harmful things, directly into the river. In fact, the river is “dead” at many places where the pollution levels are so high that aquatic life cannot survive.

Question 24.
What is Ganga Action Plan? What is its aim?
Answer:
The Ganga Action Plan is an ambitious plan which was launched to save the river Ganga in 1985. It aims to reduce pollution levels by treating domestic sewage, building electric crematories and reducing industrial waste. Apart from this water treatment plants are installed for physical, chemical and biological treatment of water.

Question 25.
Radha saw her grandmother using oil and vinegar while preserving vegetables and fruits. Why oil and vinegar has been, used for preservation?
Answer:
Preservation by oil and vinegar: The layer of oil on “top of food prevents oxygen from entering the food. Some microbes do not survive in absence of oxygen. Some microbes cannot survive in acidic environments and thus vinegar is an effective food preservative.

Question 26.
Is hot water also a pollutant?
Answer:
Yes, hot water too is a pollutant. This is usually the water from power plants and industries that is released into the rivers. It can raise the temperature of the water bodies in turn depleting oxygen content, adversely affecting the aquatic animals and plants.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Question 27.
What are the ways in which atmospheric air gets polluted? Discuss.
Answer:
The ways in which atmospheric air gets polluted are :

  • Many industries like petroleum refineries and automobiles produce gaseous pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide.
  • Sulphur dioxide is produced by combustion of fuels like coal in power plants, which causes respiratory problems including permanent lung damage.
  • CFGs used in refineries,’ ACs and aerosol sprays damage in ozone layer of? atmosphere, which protects us from harmful UV rays of the Sun.
  • Automobile which burn diesel and petrol, produce tiny particles, that reduce visibility.
  • Industrial processes like steelmaking and mining involves such processes which release a lot of harmful gases, solid particles, dust, etc.- which contribute in polluting air.

Question 28.
Describe greenhouse effect and its side effects as global warming.
Answer:
The sun rays that pass through the atmosphere, warms the earth’s surface. Apart of these radiation that falls on the earth is 3 absorbed by it and a part is reflected back j into space. Some of the reflected radiations are trapped by the atmosphere and are not allowed to go out of the earth’s atmosphere.

These trapped radiations further warm the earth. This resembles a greenhouse in a nursery where sun’s heat is allowed to get in but is not allowed to go out. The trapped heat warms the greenhouse. The trapping off radiation by the earth’s atmosphere performs a similar function. That is why it is called the greenhouse effect. As a result of greenhouse effect, the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere is gradually increasing. This is known as global warming.
Global warming has become a serious threat to the survival of life on earth, because :

  • It has already started melting the icebergs, due to which level of water in the sea has increased and many cities at coastal areas are threatened to be submerged completely.
  • It will too result in changes in climate and rainfall patterns.

Question 29.
Differentiate between manure and fertilizers.
Answer:

Fertilizer Manure
1. Fertilizer is a synthetic substance or an inorganic compound. 1. Manure is a natural substance obtained by the decomposition of cattle dung, human waste and plant residues.
2. A fertilizer is prepared in factories. 2. Manure can be prepared in the fields.
3. A fertilizer does not provide any humus to the soil. 3. Manure provides a lot of humus to the soil.
4. Fertilisers are very rich in plant nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. 4. Manure is relatively less rich in plant nutrients.
5. Chemicals in fertilisers are washed away to the nearby water bodies, causing soil, and water pollution. 5. No side effects of manure are absorbed.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 18

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Acid rain refers to
(a) air pollution
(b) falling of acid
(c) mixture of sulphur and nitrogen oxide in air.
Answer:
(c) mixture of sulphur and nitrogen oxide in air.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science