Category: CBSE Class 9

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Online Education for The Bond of Love Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive

The Bond of Love Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Bond Of Love Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How did the author get the baby sloth bear?
Answer:
The author got the baby sloth bear in a freak accident. Once the author and his friends were passing through the sugarcane fields near Mysore, Bruno’s mother was wantonly shot dead by one of his companions. The cub was found moving on the body of his mother. It was in great shock and tried to flee but the author managed to capture it, and bring it home.

The Bond Of Love Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why did the author not kill the sloth bear when she appeared suddenly?
Answer:
Being kind-hearted, the author did not kill any animals without any motive or provocation. As the sloth bear had not provoked or attacked him, he did not kill it. That is why he describes his companions shooting of her a wanton act.

Bond Of Love Extra Questions Question 3.
Why did one of the author’s companions kill the bear?
Answer:
One of the author’s companions killed the bear wantonly, in a moment of impulsive rush of blood. He may have though the bear would attack them and he may have shot it as an impulsive act born of self-preservation.

Bond Of Love Class 9 Extra Questions Question 4.
How did the author capture the bear cub?
Answer:
When the bear cub’s mother was shot, it ran around its prostrate parent making a pitiful noise. The author ran up to it to attempt a capture. It scooted into the sugarcane field. Following it with his companions, the author was at last able to grab it by the scruff of its neck and put it in a gunny bag.

The Bond Of Love Extra Questions Question 5.
How did the author’s wife receive the baby sloth bear?
Answer:
The author’s wife was extremely happy to get the baby sloth bear as a pet. She put a coloured ribbon around his neck and named him Bruno.

Extra Questions Of Bond Of Love Question 6.
How was Bruno, the baby bear, fed initially? What followed within a few days?
Answer:
Initially, the little Bmno was given milk from a bottle. But soon he started eating all kinds of food and drank all kinds of drinks. He ate a variety of dishes like porridge, vegetables, nuts, fruits, meat, eggs, chocolates etc., and drank milk, tea, coffee, lime-juice, buttermilk, even beer and alcoholic liquor.

Extra Questions Of The Bond Of Love Question 7.
“One day an accident befell him”. What accident befell Bruno?
Answer:
One day Bmno ate the rat poison (barium carbonate) kept in the library to kill rats. The poison affected his nervous and muscular system and left him paralysed. He rapidly became weak, panted heavily, vomited, and was unable to move.

Extra Questions Of The Bond Of Love Class 9 Question 8.
How was Bruno cured of paralysis?
Answer:
Bruno had mistakenly consumed poison and had got paralysed. However, he managed to crawl to the author’s wife on his stumps. He was taken to the veterinary doctor who and injected 10 cc of the antidote into him. The first dose had no effect. Then another dose was injected which cured Bruno absolutely. After ten minutes of the dose, his breathing became normal and he could move his arms and legs.

The Bond Of Love Extra Question Answer Question 9.
Why did Bruno drink the engine oil? What was the result?
Answer:
Once the narrator had drained the old engine oil from the sump of his car and kept it to treat termites. Bruno, who would drink anything that came his way, drank about one gallon of this oil too. However, it did not have any effect on him.

The Bond Of Love Class 9 Extra Questions Question 10.
What used to be Bruno’s activities at the author’s home?
Answer:
In the beginning, Bruno was left free. He spent his time in playing, running into the kitchen and going to sleep in our beds. As he grew older, he became more mischievous and playful. He learnt to do a few tricks, too. At the command, ‘Baba, wrestle’, or ‘Baba, box,’ he vigorously tackled anyone who came forward for a rough and tumble. If someone said ‘Baba, hold gun’, he would point the stick at the person. If he was asked, ‘Baba, where’s baby?’ he immediately produced and cradled affectionately a stump of wood which he had carefully concealed in his straw bed.

Class 9 The Bond Of Love Extra Questions Question 11.
How did Bruno become attached to the family of the author?
Answer:
Bruno got lot of love in the family of the author and he grew very fond of them. It slowly got attached even to the two Alsatian dogs and to all the children of the tenants. But, above all, he loved the author’s wife and she loved him dearly too.

Class 9 English The Bond Of Love Extra Questions Question 12.
How did Bruno come to be called ‘Baba’?
Answer:
Bruno came to be called ‘Baba’ which in Hindustani means a ‘young boy’ after the narrator’s wife developed a special bond of affection for him. She loved him as she loved her son and started calling him ‘Baba’.

The Bond Of Love Important Questions Question 13.
What kind of tricks did Bruno, the pet bear, do?
Answer:
Bruno was mischievous and played a lot of tricks. When he was called to wrestle, he would vigorously tackle anyone who came forward. When asked to hold the gun, he pointed a stick at the person. On being asked where the baby was, he brought out a stump of wood and cradled it as if it were a baby.

Question 14.
Why had Bruno to be kept in chains most of the time?
Answer:
Bruno had grown up very fast. Therefore, it was felt that it could be dangerous to let him move about freely around the children of the tenants. Therefore, it was decided to keep Bruno in chains.

Question 15.
Who advised the author’s wife to send Bruno to a zoo and why? What was her reaction?
Answer:
The narrator, his son and even some friends advised the author’s wife to send Bruno to a zoo because he was now too big to be kept at home. They felt he may become a danger to children. But she loved the pet bear so deeply that she could not accept the proposal readily. It took her three weeks to make up her mind and give her consent.

Question 16.
Bruno was a loving and playful pet. Why, then, did he have to be sent away?
Answer:
Bruno was certainly a loving and playful pet. He had developed affection for everyone around him and was particularly attached to the author’s wife. However, he had to be sent away to the zoo because he had grown too big to be kept at home. He could be a threat to the people in the neighbourhood, especially children.

Question 17.
How was the problem of what to do with Bruno solved?
Answer:
As he grew up and became larger in size, the author, his son and some friends felt that Bruno could no longer be kept at home. The problem of what to do with Bruno was solved when the narrator’s wife, though reluctantly, gave her consent to send Bruno to the zoo in Mysore. A letter was written to the curator of the zoo who replied in the positive. Bruno was put in a cage and sent away in a lorry that had been sent by the zoo authorities.

Question 18.
How did the narrator’s wife react when Baba was sent to Mysore zoo?
Answer:
When Baba was sent to Mysore zoo, the narrator’s wife felt so miserable that she could not be consoled. She wept and kept worrying about the bear. She refused to eat anything for some days. She wrote letters to the curator of the zoo to inquire about Baba’s well being.

Question 19.
What did the letters from the curator and the friends who visited the zoo report about Baba?
Answer:
The letters from the curator of the zoo reported that though Baba was well, he was sad and upset, and refused to eat. The friends who visited the zoo gave similar reports telling that he had grown very thin and kept fretting all the time.

Question 20.
When did the author take his wife to the Mysore zoo? Why?
Answer:
The author’s wife was deeply disturbed to hear reports of her dear Bruno was sad and refused to eat. She wanted to go to mysore and see him for herself. Though the author had managed to prevent her from going to the Mysore zoo for three months, one day she put her foot down and told him that if he was not ready to take her to the zoo by car, she would go by bus or train. So, the narrator took her to the zoo by car to see her Baba.

Question 21.
What had the author thought would happen when he took his wife to see Bruno?
Answer:
The author and his friends had conjectured that the bear would not recognise his wife to see him as three months had elapsed since Bruno had been sent to the zoo. However, contrary to their expectations, Bruno had not forgotten her. He was delighted to see her.

Question 22.
How did Baba behave when he saw the narrator’s wife in the zoo?
Answer:
Baba was overjoyed to see the narrator’s wife. He recognised her from a distance of some yards and howled with happiness. To express his pleasure at meeting her again, he stood on his head.

Question 23.
How did the author’s wife do when she met her ‘Baba’ at the zoo?
Answer:
At the zoo, the author’s wife rushed to the cage where Baba was been kept. She showed her love by stroking him affectionately through the bars and sat near the cage for three hours. She fed him tea, lemonade, cakes, ice-cream and what not.

Question 24.
Describe the scene at the time of the closing of the zoo when Bruno and the narrator’s wife had to separate again.
Answer:
As the closing time at the zoo drew near, the author’s wife was desolate. She cried bitterly at the thought of being parted from her Baba. He, too, cried bitterly. This touching scene saddened the curator and the keepers of the zoo.

Question 25.
What request did the narrator’s wife make to the curator? Did the curator grant the request?
Answer:
The narrator’s wife requested the curator of the zoo to allow her to take her pet sloth bear, Baba, back home. He refused initially, saying that Baba was a government property and he could not be given away. But afterwards, seeing how unhappy both she and Bruno were at being parted, he suggested that they should contact the Superintendent in Bangalore for permission to take Baba home.

Question 26.
How did Baba reach back home?
Answer:
At the request of the narrator’s wife, the Superintendent of the zoo agreed to permit her to have Baba back home. He wrote a letter to the curator and asked him to lend a cage so that the bear could be brought home safely. The cage was carefully put on the top of the car and Baba travelled back to his home in Bangalore.

Question 27.
What kind of a place was prepared for Baba at the narrator’s home and why?
Answer:
To prevent Baba from ever becoming a threat to the children of the tenants, an island measuring twenty feet long and fifteen feet wide was created in the compound by digging a six feet wide and seven feet deep moat around it. This island became Baba’s home.

Question 28.
Describe the house on the island in which Baba would sleep at night.
Answer:
A wooden box that was once used to keep the fowls was put on the island for Baba to sleep at night. Straw was placed inside to keep it warm and Bruno’s toys—his ‘baby’, the gnarled stump, and his ‘gun’, the piece of bamboo—were also placed there for him to play with.

Question 29.
How would the narrator’s wife reach the island where Baba was kept?
Answer:
The narrator had tied a rope to the overhanging branch of a mango tree with a loop at its end. To reach the island, his wife would put one foot in the loop and kick off with the other to cross the six-foot wide pit around the island. She would then spend hours sitting on a chair with Baba in her lap.

Question 30.
How does the story illustrate that animals love human beings just as humans love them?
Answer:
Bruno’s is a story of emotional bonding between a woman and a bear. The author’s wife loved her pet bear, Bruno deeply. In turn, Bruno performed many playful tricks which amused the lady. They enjoyed each other’s company. When Bruno was sent to a zoo, the parting was as painful for the author’s wife as it was for Bruno. Seeing their plight, Bruno was brought home again. The entire episode shows the mutual love between the two.

The Bond of Love Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
How was Bruno brought to the author’s home? How did he become it member of the family?
Answer:
The baby bear was brought to the author’s home by chance. Once, when the author and his companions, were going to Mysore, they were passing through the sugarcane fields when they saw people driving away the wild pigs from the fields by shooting at them. Some of the animals were shot and some escaped. When the author thought that everything was over, suddenly a black sloth bear came out panting in the hot sun, and one of the author’s companions wantonly killed the bear.

The cub who was riding the back of his mother ran around its prostrate parent making a pitiful noise. Filled with pity, the author chased him and captured him. He brought the baby bear home and gifted it to his wife as a pet. The author’s wife accepted him with love and named him Bruno to mark that he was no longer a homeless, wild animal. Soon there developed a bond of love between Bruno and the author’s wife and Bruno came to be called ‘Baba’ which means a ‘small boy’. He had now become a true family member who enjoyed complete freedom and deep affection.

Question 2.
On two occasions Bruno ate/drank something that should not be eaten or drunk. What happened to him on these occasions?
Answer:
Bruno, the bear cub, was an inquisitive and playful one. Moreover, he enjoyed a variety of dishes and drinks in the author’s home. On the one hand, he was curious about things around him and on the other he had become very fond of eating and drinking. Once the narrator had kept some barium carbonate for killing rats in the library.

Bruno went there as he usually did and, seeing the poison that had been kept there, he consumed it. The poison had an immediate effect on him and, as paralysis set in, he could not stand on his feet. However, he managed to drag himself on his stumps to reach the author’s wife who at once called him.

Bruno began weakening rapidly, he was vomiting and breathing heavily, as his flanks heaved and mouth gaped. The author rushed to the veterinary doctor who, after consulting his book, gave Bruno an injection of 10 cc of the antidote for barium chloride. Since the first injection did not improve his condition, another injection of the same potency was given. After ten minutes, Bruno’s heavy breathing became normal.

After thirty minutes, he stood on his feet and ate a good meal.On another occasion, Bruno drank engine oil. It so happened that the author had emptied the sump of his car and about one gallon of the engine oil had been collected. The narrauthor had kept it to kill the termites. Bruno drank the whole of it. However, the engine oil did not have any effect on him.

Question 3.
Why was Bruno sent to the Mysore zoo and why was he ultimately brought back home?
Answer:
As months passed, Bruno, the cub bear, grew big in size. The author and his son felt it was not advisable to keep a fully grown wild animal at home, especially with the children of the tenants around. So, they felt Bruno should be sent to the zoo in Mysore. Their friends, too, offered the same advice. Although the author’s wife opposed the proposal for some time, she ultimately gave her consent after three weeks.

After her approval, they wrote a letter to the curator of the zooasking if he wanted a tame bear for his collection. Once they received a positive response from the curator of the zoo, Baba was sent to the Mysore zoo. However, the separation was unbearable both for the author’s wife and Baba.

Both were inconsolable and would not eat properly. Bruno, especially, grew very weak and fretted. After three months of separation, the narrator’s wife put her foot down and had to be taken to the zoo in a car. On seeing each other after so long, both the narrator’s wife and Baba expressed their joy and pleasure. He recognized her from a distance, howled with .delight and stood on his head in happiness.

She patted him through the bars of his cage and fed him a variety of food and drinks that she had brought. When it was closing time at the zoo both the narrator’s wife and Baba cried so bitterly that even the curator was moved. She requested the curator to send Baba back and he suggested to seek the Superintendent’s permission. The Superintendent, who was a kind fellow, agreed and at his recommendation, the curator had the bear sent back home to Bangalore.

Question 4.
How was Bruno transported back to Bangalore from the Mysore zoo? What special arrangements were made to keep him at home?
Answer:
Bruno, the pet bear, was transported back to Bangalore in a cage lent by the Mysore zoo authorities. The cage containing Bruno was hoisted on top of the car and tied securely. The vehicle was driven slowly and carefully, lest he was hurt. At the writer’s home in Bangalore, special arrangements were made to keep Bruno at a safe distance from the tenants’ children.

An island was made for Baba that was twenty feet long and fifteen feet wide, and was surrounded by a dry pit, or moat, six feet wide and seven feet deep. A wooden box that once housed fowls was brought and put on the island for Baba to sleep in at night. Straw was placed inside to keep him warm, his toys – the gnarled stump, his ‘baby’, and the piece of bamboo, which was his ‘gun’ – both of which had been sentimentally preserved by the author’s wife were put back for him to play with. After that the coolies hoisted the cage on to the island and Baba was released.

Question 5.
The author ends the story “The Bond of Love” with the rhetorical question: “But who can say now that a sloth bear has no sense of affection, no memory and no individual characteristics?” Discuss this statement in the light of Bruno’s character.
Answer:
The Bond of Love revolves around the mutual, sincere and selfless love of the narrator’s wife and her pet bear, Bruno. The young bear loved and brought up like a child by the author’s wife, proves that he richly deserves this love because he himself is capable of showing equally deep and faithful love.

He is treated like a member of the family and he himself proves that he is as much bound by loyal love to the members of the family as they are to him. The deep emotions of Bruno come to the fore when he is sent to the Mysore zoo. He is so pained by the separation from his mistress that he frets terribly and refuses to eat anything. He grows very lean and thin.

Even three months is not long enough a period for him to reconcile himself to the separation from the author’s wife. When she goes to see him, he recognizes her at once, even from a distance of some yards, and expresses his delight by howling and standing on his head. At the closing time of the zoo he cries bitterly at the thought of parting again from his mistress. His emotions move the hearts of the zoo curator and the keepers who agree to give Bruno back to the author’s family. This proves that animals too feel love and affection.

The Bond of Love Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
I got him for her by accident.

(a) Who says this?
Answer:
The author Kenneth Anderson says this.

(b) Who do ‘him’ and ‘her’ refer to?
Answer:
‘Him’ refers to the young sloth bear cub that the author had captured in the sugarcane fields in Mysore. ‘Her’ refers to the author’s wife.

(c) Why did the speaker take ‘him’ to ‘her’?
Answer:
The bear’s cub mother had been shot and wantonly killed by one of author’s companions.

(d) What did ‘she’ name ‘him’?
Answer:
She named him Bruno.

Question 2.
Some were shot and some escaped. We thought that everything was over when suddenly a black sloth bear came out panting in the hot sun

(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in the above extract? Where were they at the time?
Answer:
We refers to the author of the story and his companions. They were near the sugarcane fields in Mysore.

(b) Who were shot at and why?
Answer:
The wild pigs who had entered the fields and were destroying the crops, were shot at to kill them or to make them run away.

(c) What does the author mean by his remark, “Everything was over”?
Answer:
The author means that the shooting had stopped and the animals had either been driven away or killed.

(d) What happened suddenly?
Answer:
Suddenly, a black sloth bear appeared on the scene panting in the hot sun.

Question 3.
As we watched the fallen animal we were surprised to see that the black fur on its back moved and left the prostrate body.

(a) Where was the ‘fallen animal’? Why had it fallen?
Answer:
The fallen animal was in some sugarcane fields near Mysore at the time. It had fallen after being wantonly shot dead by one of the author’s companions.

(b) What was the ‘black fur’ that moved on the animal’s back?
Answer:
The ‘black fur’ that moved on the animal’s back was its cub that had been riding her back at the time.

(c) What did the author do when he saw the little creature?
Answer:
The author ran up to the little creature to attempt a capture.

(d) What did the little creature do to the author when he grabbed it?
Answer:
As the author grabbed it by the scruff of its neck, it snapped and tried to scratch the author with its long, hooked claws.

Question 4.
The little creature ran around its prostrate parent making a pitiful noise.

(a) Who is the Tittle creature’ referred to in the above line?
Answer:
The little creature referred to is the young cub of the sloth bear who had been shot dead.

(b) Who lay prostrate and why?
Answer:
The little creature’s mother lay prostrate because she had been shot dead by one of the author’s companions.

(c) What did the little creature do?
Answer:
The little creature ran around the body of his mother which lay flat on the ground, making a pitiful noise.

(d) What did the speaker decide to do with the creature?
Answer:
The speaker decided to take the little creature home and give it to his wife to take care of.

Question 5.
She was delighted! She at once put a coloured ribbon around its neck, and after discovering the cub was a ‘boy ’ she christened it Bruno.

(a) Who is ‘she’?
Answer:
She is the author’s wife.

(b) Why was ‘she’ delighted?
Answer:
She was delighted because her husband presented her a young sloth bear cub as a pet.

(c) What does this extract reveal about her character?
Answer:
This extract reveals that she had a tender and affectionate heart that was full of love for animals.

(d) How did she take care of Bruno?
Answer:
Bruno was a little bear cub. The author’s wife fed him milk from a bottle and looked after him.

Question 6.
Bruno soon took to drinking milk from a bottle. It was but a step further and within a very few days he started eating and drinking everything else.

(a) How was Bruno fed in the beginning?
Answer:
In the beginning, Bruno was fed milk from a bottle.

(b) What did he start eating within a very few days?
Answer:
Within the next few days Bruno was eating everything including vegetables, fruit, nuts, meat (especially pork), curry and rice regardless of spices and chillies, bread, eggs, chocolates, sweets, pudding, ice . cream, etc.

(c) What did Bruno drink?
Answer:
Bruno drank all kinds of liquids including drink: milk, tea, coffee, lime-juice, aerated water, buttermilk, beer, alcoholic liquor.

(d) On two occasions Bruno ate/drank something that should not be eaten/drunk. What was it?
Answer:
Once Bruno ate the rat poison which was kept to get rid of rats from the library. On another occasion, Bruno drank the discarded engine oil which was kept in the garage.

Question 7.
Paralysis set in to the extent that he could not stand on his feet. But he dragged himself on his stumps to my wife, who called me. I guessed what had happened.

(a) Why did paralysis strike him?
Answer:
Paralysis struck him because he had consumed the rat-poison, barium carbonate kept in the library.

(b) What other symptoms did he suffer?
Answer:
He was paralysed and unable to move and soon he was breathing heavily and vomiting.

(c) How did ‘he’ manage to reach the author’s wife in spite of the paralysis?
Answer:
In spite of the paralysis, he dragged himself on his stumps to the author’s wife who then called the author.

(d) What light does this throw on his character?
Answer:
He was an inquisitive and playful creature. He entered the library and finding the rat-poison kept there, he ate it.

Question 8.
He promptly drank the lot. But it had no ill effects whatever.

(a) What was ‘it’ that ‘he’ drank?
Answer:
He drank the engine oil which the author had drained out from the sump of his car.

(b) What had the author kept ‘it’ for?
Answer:
The author had kept the engine oil to use against the termites if they attacked.

(c) What was its effect?
Answer:
It had no effect at all on Bruno, the pet bear.

(d) What similar incident had happened to him earlier?
Answer:
Earlier, he had found rat-poison lying in the library and had consumed that.

Question 9.
The months rolled on and Bruno had grown many times the size he was when he came. He had equalled the Alsatians in height and had even outgrown them.

(a) What happened to Bruno over the next few months?
Answer:
Over the next few months, Bruno grew large. In fact, he became bigger than the two dogs the author had.

(b) Which other pet did the author and his family have?
Answer:
The author and his family had Alsatian dogs as pets.

(c) What qualities did Bruno share with the other pets?
Answer:
Bruno was just as sweet, just as mischievous, just as playful as the Alsatians.

(d)
What new name did the author’s wife give Bruno?
Answer:
The author’s wife started calling Bruno Baba, a Hindustani word meaning little boy.

Question 10.
But was just as sweet, just as mischievous, just as playful. And he was very fond of us all. Above all, he loved my wife, and she loved him too! She had changed his name from Bruno, to Baba, a Hindustani word signifying ‘small boy ’.

(a) Who is Bruno being compared with here?
Answer:
Bruno is being compared with the two Alsatian dogs in the author’s home.

(b) Which of his traits are being compared to ‘theirs’?
Answer:
He is being compared to them for traits like sweet nature, playful temperament and mischievous behaviour.

(c) What kind of relationship was there between the author’s wife and Bruno?
Answer:
The author’s wife and the pet bear Bruno had a deep love for each other.

(d) Why did the author’s wife change his name from Bruno to Baba?
Answer:
In Hindustani language, ‘Baba’ is a name of endearment for a small boy in the family. For the author’s wife, Bruno was nothing less than a dear son. Therefore, she changed his name from Bruno to Baba.

Question 11.
After some weeks of such advice she at last consented. Hastily, and before she could change her mind, a letter was written to the curator of the zoo.

(a) What advice was given to her? By whom?
Answer:
She was advised that Bruno, the pet sloth bear should be sent to a zoo. This advice was given by the author, their son, and their friends.

(b) Why was she being advised to follow that course?
Answer:
She was being advised to follow that course because Bruno had become too big to be kept at home.

(c) Did ‘she’ readily agree to the advice? Why/Why not?
Answer:
No, the author’s wife did not readily agree to the advice. She was so affectionately attached to the bear that she could not think of parting from him. It took them weeks to convince her to give her consent.

(d) Why was the letter to the curator of the zoo written hastily?
Answer:
The author did not want to wait as he was afraid that his wife could change her mind about sending the bear to the zoo. Therefore, he hastily wrote a letter to the curator.

Question 12.
We all missed him greatly; but in a sense we were relieved.

(a) Who do ‘we all’ stand for?
Answer:
‘We all’ stands to the author, his wife, his son and the children of the tenants.

(b) Who did they miss? Why?
Answer:
They missed Baba, the bear who had been sent away to the zoo in Mysore.

(c) Why did they feel relieved?
Answer:
They felt relieved because Baba had grown very big and it could have been dangerous to keep him at home with the tenants’ children around him.

(d) How did the author’s wife react to his absence?
Answer:
When Bruno was gone, the author’s wife was inconsolable. She wept and fretted. For the first few days she would not eat a thing.

Question 13.
After that, friends visiting Mysore were begged to make a point of going to the zoo and seeing how Baba was getting along. They reported that he was well but looked very thin and sad. All the keepers at the zoo said he was fretting.

(a) What does the author mean by the phrase “after that”?
Answer:
By “after that” the author means after Bruno had been sent to the Mysore zoo.

(b) Who begged their friends to go to Mysore zoo? Why?
Answer:
The author, his wife and family begged their friends visiting Mysore to go to the zoo because they wanted news of Bruno and how he was faring at the zoo.

(c) What news did the friends bring?
Answer:
Their friends told the author and his wife that Bruno was well but looked very thin and sad. All the keepers at the zoo said he was fretting because he missed the author’s family.

(d) What lesson do you learn from this?
Answer:
We learn that even animals understand the language of love. They respond to love in equal measure and also feel the pangs of separation.

Question 14.
Friends had conjectured that the bear would not recognise her. I had thought so too. But while she was yet some yards from his cage Baba saw her and recognised her.

(a) What had the author and his friends thought about Bruno?
Answer:
They had thought Bruno would not recognise the author’s wife because of the passage of time.

(b) What did Bruno do to show he had recognised her?
Answer:
As soon as Bruno saw her he howled with happiness and he stood on his head in delight.

(c) What did the author’s wife do?
Answer:
She patted Bruno on the head. Then she sat down and fed him tea, lemonade, cakes, ice-cream and what not.

(d) What happened when it was time for the author and his wife to leave the zoo??
Answer:
When it was time for them to leave, the author’s wife and Bruno cried bitterly and even the hardened curator and the keepers at the zoo felt depressed. The author realised he would have to take Bruno back home.

Question 15.
“I cannot give away Government property. But if my boss, the superintendent at Bangalore agrees, certainly you may have him back. ”

(a) Who says these words? To whom?
Answer:
These words are spoken by the curator of the Mysore zoo to the author, Kenneth Anderson.

(b) Who is Government property? How had he become Government property?
Answer:
Bruno was Government property. He had become Government property when the author and his family had given him to the zoo three months ago.

(c) Who wanted him back? Why?
Answer:
The author and his wife wanted Bruno back because both had been desolate and fretting without each other and both had given up eating.

(d) Where was the Superintendent’s office? What did he say?
Answer:
The Superintendent’s office was in Bangalore. He readily agreed to let Bruno go.

Question 16.
Once home, a squad of coolies were engagedfor special work in our compound.

(a) Who returned home? From where?
Answer:
The author and his wife returned home after meeting Bruno at the Mysore zoo.

(b) Where had they gone? Why?
Answer:
They had gone to the Mysore zoo to see Bruno as they had heard reports that he was missing the author’s wife and was fretting and not eating.

(c) What was the “special work” that the coolies were engaged for?
Answer:
A squad of coolies was hired to make an island for Baba. The island was made for Baba.

(d) Why was the special work being done?
Answer:
The author wanted to keep Bruno at a distance from the children of the tenants as he was by now a folly- grown bear.

Question 17.
In a few days the coolies hoisted the cage on to the island and Baba was released. He was delighted; standing on his hind legs, he pointed his ‘gun’ and cradled his ‘baby

(a) What ‘island’ does the author talk about?
Answer:
The island was a piece of land in the author’s compound which was surrounded by a dry moat. This place was prepared to keep the bear, Bruno.

(b) Why was a separate island required to house Baba?
Answer:
Baba was quite grown up and could be dangerous for the children of tenants. Therefore, it was necessary that he should be kept on a separate island.

(c) Why was Baba delighted?
Answer:
Baba was delighted because he had come back home after three months in the zoo where he had terribly missed the family, particularly the author’s wife.

(d) What were Baba’s ‘gun’ and ‘baby’?
Answer:
Baba’s ‘gun’ was a piece of bamboo which he playfully used as a gun and the ‘baby’ was a piece of bamboo that he would cradle affectionately.

Online Education for Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Question 1.
Which was the form of life which appeared on the earth?
Answer:
Plants or vegetation.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the plants – for us?
Answer:
Every form of life in the earth is dependent either directly or indirectly on the plants hence these are very significant.

Question 3.
How many flowering plants are there in India?
Answer:
About 15000.

Question 4.
What is the use of Sarpagandha?
Answer:
Sarpagahdha is used for the treatment of the blood pressure.

Question 5.
How many species of the plants have been listed as endangered in India?
Answer:
52.

Question 6.
Which of the international agencies has included Indian plants in the medical list?
Answer:
The World Conservation Union.

Question 7.
Name the Indian states where Tropical deciduous forests are found.
Answer:

• The north-eastern states,
• The foothills of the Himalayas,
• Jharkhand,
• West Orissa,
• Chhattisgarh,
• Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.

Question 8.
Give two examples of deciduous trees.
Answer:

1. Teak,
2. Sal.

Question 9.
Give three examples of the trees of the tropical rains forests.
Answer:

1. Ebony,
2. Mahogany,
3. Rosewood.

Question 10.
Name the place where thorny forests are found in India.
Answer:
The north-western part of the .country including the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.

Question 11.
In which state is the Sundarban located?
Answer:
In West Bengal.

Question 12.
Name the major vegetation region to which Acacia and Teak trees belong.
Answer:
Acacia-Thom forests.
Teak-Tropical deciduous forests.

Question 13.
In which type of vegetation region are the date-palm and the mahogani trees found?
Answer:

• Date palm trees-Thorn forests.
• Mahogany trees.

Question 14.
How many species of birds are there in India?
Answer:
Near about 1200.

Question 15.
In what kind of water do the Sundari trees flourish?
Answer:
Sundari trees flourish both in fresh and saltwater.

Question 16.
Name the Indian states where elephants are found.
Answer:

• Assam,
• Kerala,
• Karnataka.

Question 17.
Name the national bird of India.
Answer:
Peacock.

Question 18.
Name the national animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Question 19.
Name two migratory birds.
Answer:

1. Siberian crane,
2. Flamingo.

Question 20.
Name two endangered species of wildlife.
Answer:

1. Tigers,
2. Rhinoceros.

Question 21.
Point out some most important characteristics of the monsoon.
Answer:

• These are found almost all over India.
• They grow in the areas with the rainfall between 200 cm-75 cm.
• These forests have Sal and Teak trees.
• These trees shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in summer.

Question 22.
Point out the importance of the biosphere reserves.
Answer:

• The biosphere reserves are very important in preserving the endangered species of animals and plants.
• These are the important source of transmission of the natural heritage to the future generations.
• These inspire the people of the surrounding areas to protect tire wildlife.
• These provide opportunities for research.
• These are also important for promoting the tourism.

Question 23.
Name the states where the following biosphere reserves are situated.
(i) Nilgiri
(ii) Nanda Devi
(iii) Manas
(iv) Simlipal
(v) Nokrek
(vi) Sundarban
(vii) Pachmarhi
(viii) Dehang Debong
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves States
(i) Nilgiri – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Karnataka
(ii) Nanda Devi – Uttranchal
(iii) Manas – Assam
(iv) Simlipal – Orissa
(v) Nokrek – Meghalaya
(vi) Sundarban – West Bengal
(vii) Pachmarhi – Madhya Pradesh
(viii) Dehang Debong – Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 24.
What is the reason that the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves during the summer?
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forests are the trees like, sal, sandal, shisham etc. All of these trees shed their leaves in summer. The main reasons behind this fact is that the leaves get dry by the . scorching heat of the summer and as a result they leave the branches automatically.

Question 25.
What are the main reasons that the evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats ?
Answer:
The evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats because of the following reasons :
1. The western slopes of the Western Ghats get heavy rainfall because they are on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and here the monsoon winds are very active.
2. The trees grown here do not have a distinct season of sheding leaves as the region is warm and wet throughout the year.

Question 26.
Point out the importance of the plant kingdom.
Answer:
The first form of life on the earth belongs to the plant kingdom. Plant kingdom developed the life system for the animal kingdom. Plants are the primary source which convert the sunlight into foods. The plants not only add beauty to the nature but also provide oxygen to us. Without oxygen, we can not live. Hence the plant kingdom is very important for us.

Question 27.
How the natural vegetation of Rajasthan can be conserved?
Answer:
Following steps may be taken to conserve the natural vegetation in Rajasthan:

• Cultivated area should be increased by the irrigation facilities.
• Indira Gandhi Nahar is fulfilling this purpose quite effectively.
• The desert areas should be reduced by growing more and more trees and grasses so that sands do not expand more adjoining areas.

Question 28.
What is the reason that thorny type of vegetation is found in Rajasthan?
Answer:
Thorny type of vegetation which is composed of the trees like kikar, babul, khair, datepalm, scrubs and thorny bushes etc. are found mainly in Rajasthan. The main reasons behind this fact are the following:
1. Such type of vegetation is confined in areas .with less than 75 cm rainfall and Rajasthan is directly, this kind of area.

2. This type of vegetation have long roots so that they can thrive in a dry area like Rajasthan where underground water is found very deep.

Question 29.
What is meant by vegetation? How much ‘natural is the natural vegetation of India today? ’
Answer:
Vegetation is meant by the species of plants. India is very rich in vegetation. India is tenth in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. There are more than 47000 plant species in India. More than 15,000 plants are flowering plants. Sarpagandha which is used to treat blood pressure is found only in India.

However, the most of the vegetal cover of India is no more natural. Natural vegetation is meant only by the plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long period. But in India except some inaccessible regions like the Himalayas and the desert, the vegetation has been destroyed or replaced or even degraded by the human occupancy. Hence, they cannot be taken as natural vegetation anymore.

Question 30.
What is a biome? State the number of biomes into which the land ecosystem is divided and also the basis for the grouping.
Answer:
Biome is meant by a very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life. Though the animals are included in the biomes mainly plant formations are used as the basis of their grouping.

The five principle biomes of the world may be listed in order of availability of soil, water and heat are:

1. forests,
2. savana,
3. grassland,
4. desert,
5. tundra.

Within a biome, much variation may be found in the assemblage of plant and animal species.
Biomes are useful for studying the world patterns of vegetable cover.

Question 31.
Discuss how the relief and rainfall influence the distribution of natural vegetation in India.
Answer:
The relief and the rainfall surely influence the distribution of the natural vegetation in India. These are actually the most important factors influencing the natural vegetation of an area. The plants occur in distinct groups in areas having similar climatic conditions and rainfall though such areas may be far from each other.

Question 32.
Describe the major vegetation zones of the Himalayan region.
Answer:

• In the foothills of the Himalayas the tropical deciduous forests are found;
• Between the height of 1000-2000 mtrs, wet temperate type forests are found.
• Between 1500-3000 mtrs, the evergreen broad-leave trees like oak and chestnuts are predominantly found.
• The southern slopes of Himalayas are mostly covered by the temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fur, spruce and cedar etc.

Question 33.
Mention the uses of forests.
Answer:
Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of environment. They modify local climate, control soil erosion, regulate stream flow, support a variety of industries, provide livelihood for many communities and offer panoramic or scenic view for. recreation. They control wind force and temperature and causes rainfall.

They provide humus to the soil and shelter to the wildlife. India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes due to several factors such as the growing demand for cultivated land, development of industries and mining, urbanisation and over-grazing of pastures.

Question 34.
Distinguish between Moist Deciduous forests and Dry Deciduous forests.
Answer:

Moist Deciduous forests	Dry Deciduous forests
1. These are the forests found in the areas with rainfall between 100-200 cm.	1. These are found in the areas with the rainfall of 70 -100 cm.
2. Teak is the most common tree of these forests.	2. These forests have given way to thorn forests.
3. These are mainly the country and especially in the north-eastern states in the foothills of Himalaya.	3. These are found in the mainly found eastern part of in Bihar, U. P., and Peninsular Plateau.

Question 35.
Distinguish between Extinct Species and Endangered Species.
Answer:

Extinct Species	Endangered Species
1. These are the species of plants and animals not seen in the world anymore. These have not been sighted during the last 6-10 decades.	1. These are the species which are in the danger of getting extinct.
2. In India about 20 species of plants have become extinct.	2. In India there are about 1300 endangered species of plant.
3. These cannot be protected anymore or brought back.	3. These can be protected and can be saved from being extinct.

Question 36.
Name two plants of each type of vegetation.
Answer:

• Tropical Rain plants: Ebony, rosewood.
• Deciduous plants: kliair, Kusum
• throws-scrubs: Acacias, palms
• Temperate Plant: Pine, spruce
• Alpine-Tundra: Junipers, pines
• Tidal plants : Palm, agar.

Question 37.
Which steps should be taken to preserve the natural vegetation?
Answer:
To preserve the natural vegetation following steps should be taken:
1. Cutting of the trees in the forests must be stopped. The government has taken adequate steps in this direction. Forest department has been created for this purpose. Laws have been implemented to punish the persons found in felling and cutting of the trees. However, awareness among the people is more important. Without this awareness, desired results cannot be achieved.

2. The people must cooperate to check the felling of trees. They infact must take active part in this regard.
Fortunately, many persons have come forward in this direction.
Movements like (Chipko Andolan’ has been launched by the people themselves.

3. Necessary wood for industrial purposes and for other activities, must be taken through planned manner. So that both purposes- industrial growth and the environment protection- can be achieved.

4. Wherever the trees have been cut for whatever reason; new trees must be planted to maintain the ecological balance.

5. Functions like ‘Vanmahotsava’ should be celebrated everywhere, it would help in growing the awareness.

6. 33% of the total land area must be brought under forest area.

Question 38.
Give a brief account of the wildlife in India.
Answer:
The fauna in India is very rich and varied. It consists of a variety of fish, birds and animals including amphibians, reptiles, mammals, small insects and worms.

In fact there are more than 89,000 species of wildlife in India.

• The biggest of the mammals are the elephants. Elephants are mainly found in the jungles of Assam, Kerala and Karnataka.
• Camels are mainly found in Rajasthan.
• Wild asses are found in the Rann of Kachchh.
• The rhinoceroses are found in marshy and swampy lands of Assam.
• Lions are mainly found in Gir forest of Gujarat
• Royal tigers are found in Sundarbans.
• Leopards of various types are found in the Himalayan region.
• The Himalayan ranges are the home of several other species like wild sheep, mountain goats, wild goats, the shew, the tapir and the snow leopard etc.
• Various species of the monkeys are also found in India.
• In India buffaloes, Nilgiri Chouringha, gazel, deer etc.
• A number of variety of birds are found in India. The chief among them are the peacocks, geese, pheasants, ducks, mynahs, pigeons, parrots, cranes, and also found hornbills and sunbirds etc.

Question 39.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Indian flora
Answer:
Flora means the plants of a particular region or period. India has been known for its flora since ancient times. In Ayurveda at least 2000 kinds of flora has been described. There are about 15,000 flowering plants are found in India. In total, India has more than 47,000 plant species. The World Conservation Unions Red list has names of 352 medical plants found in India. The Rawvolfia which is used to treat blood pressure is found only in India. However, more than 52 species have been identified as endangered.

(ii) Tropical rain forests
Answer:
These forests are found in the k rainy parts of the Western Ghats and also in the island groups of Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar. These forests are at their best in the areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season. In these types of forests, trees reach great heights even up to 60 metres and more. Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds like trees, shrubs and even creepers. These forests appear green the year.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences:

(i) Humans are not the part and parcel of the ecosystem.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) Sarpagandha is used for treatment of blood sugar.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) There are about 15,000 flowering plants in India.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) All plants and animals of an area are interdependent
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Nearly 40% of the total plant species of our country have come from outside India.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) Tropical rain forests are restricted to time heavy rainy parts of the country.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) The thorn forests are found in Andaman.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) India has less than 10,000 animal species.
Answer:
(✗)

2. Fill up the blanks with appropriate words:

(i) The Indian birds constitute ……………………………….. % of the world’s total number of birds.
Answer:
13

(ii) Like flora, India is also rich in its ……………………………….. .
Answer:
fauna

(iii) Leopards are members of the ……………………………….. family.
Answer:
cat

(iv) Yak is found in ……………………………….. .
Answer:
Ladakh

(v) Ranathambhor is in ……………………………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan

(vi) Flamingo is beautiful ……………………………….. .
Answer:
bird.

3. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The following is a tree found in tropical rain forests:
(a) mahogany
(b) shisham
(c) palms
(d) spruce.
Answer:
(a) mahogany

(ii) The following is a type of animal found in tropical rain forests:
(a) tiger
(b) elephant
(c) rabbit
(d) snow leopard
Answer:
(b) elephant

(iii) The following is the type of animal found in the Alpine and Tundra Vegetation:
(a) worms
(b) camels
(c) yaks
(d) turtles
Answer:
(c) yaks

(iv) The following type of timber is found in deciduous forests:
(a) Acacias
(b) silver fir
(c) ebony
(d) sandalwood
Answer:
(d) sandalwood

(v) There are the following number of national parkes in India:
(a) 89
(b) 90
(c) 91
(d) 92
Answer:
(a) 89.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Working of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
What percentage of civil posts and services under the Government of India have been reserved for the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC)?
Answer:
27% the vacancies.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question And Answers Question 2.
With what name was the Second Backward Classes Commission known as?
Answer:
Mandal Commission.

Class 9 Working Of Institutions Extra Questions Question 3.
Which Office Order was supposed to affect thousands of jobs every year?
Answer:
OM No. 36012/31/90-Est (SCT) dated 13.8.1990.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Question Answer Question 4.
When was the Mandal Commission constituted?
Answer:
1978.

Working Of Institutions Extra Questions Question 5.
Write the sentence each about the role played by the following people with reference to Office Memorandum No 36012/31/90.
1. Joint Secretary
2. B. P. Mandal
3. V.P. Singh
4. Indira Sawhney.
Answer:
1. Joint Secretary: The officer who signed OM No. 36012/31/90.
2. BP Mandal: The person who had headed the Second Backward Classes Commission.
3. V. P. Singh: The Prime Minister when OM 36012/31/90 was issued.
4. Indira Sawhney: One who filed a case against the Union of India in the Supreme Court relating to the Mandal Commission recommendations.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Question 6.
How does a democracy work?
Answer:
A democracy works through certain political institutions.

Extra Questions Of Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 7.
What is the function of the Department of Personnel and Training?
Answer:
The Department of Personnel and Training decides about how and on what terms should the government employees be recruited.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 8.
What does the Cabinet do?
Answer:
The Cabinet meeting decides the major decisions about the country.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
What does the Supreme Court do?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is an institution where disputes about any policy or its implementation are resolved.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Question 10.
What is the job of the Parliament in India?
Answer:
The Parliament makes laws for the country.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question Answer Question 11.
Which body does the Prime Minister head?
Answer:
Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 12.
What is the name of the national legislature in the USA?
Answer:
Congress: It has two houses :
the House of Representatives and the Senate.

Extra Questions On Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 13.
With what name is the British legislature known as?
Answer:
Parliament;

• The House of Common,
• The House of Lords.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 14.
How many members and on what basis does the President of India nominate on tire Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President of India nominates 12 members in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of art, sciences, literature and social service.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 15.
What is tenure of the Rajya Sabha member?
Answer:
A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a period of six years, 1/3 of the total members retire every two years.

Question 16.
By whom is it decided whether a bill is a money bill or not?
Answer:
By the Speaker.

Question 17.
Where is the money bill sent after being passed by the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha.

Question 18.
Who presides over the joint sittings of the Parliament?
Answer:
The Speaker.

Question 19.
When does a bill become an Act of Parliament?
Answer:
On receipt of the assent of the President, the bill becomes an Act of Parliament.

Question 20.
Which kind of bill must have the consent of the President before being introduced?
Answer:
Money bill.

Question 21.
Within how many days the Rajya Sabha has to return money bill?
Answer:
14 days.

Question 22.
What is the maximum number of the members in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
550 At present, the number is 543.

Question 23.
Which of the Constitutional Amendment had frozen the ‘number of representatives in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
42nd Constitutional Amendment.

Question 24.
Up to when the freeze has been extended by the National Population Policy 2000?
Answer:
Up to 2026.

Question 25.
Which court is at the top of the judicial system in India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 26.
What are the powers and functions of the Prime, Minister of India?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the head of the central government. All the powers vested in the President are actually exercised by the Council of Ministers under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
As a matter of fact the most powerful office in. the central government is that of the Prime Minister.

Powers and Functions of the Prime Minister-

• He selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
• He allocates portfolios among the ministers.
• He can drop any minister.
• He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
• He decides about the policies of the government.
• He coordinates the v/ork of different ministers.
• He is also the chairman of the planning commission.
• The entire government is associated with the name of the Prime Minister.

Question 27.
Write a note on the Vice-President of India.
Answer:
The VicerPresident performs the duties and the. functions of a President in his absence or illness. If the President resigns or dies in office, the Vice-President officiates till a new President is elected.
The Vice-President is also the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President in our country is elected for 5 years by an electoral college.

A candidate for the office of the Vice-President must be a citizen of India and must be of 35 years of age or above as well as he must be eligible to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 28.
Write a short note on the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Council of Ministers in our country is headed by the Prime Minister. In the council, there are three categories of ministers:

• The cabinet ministers,
• The ministers of state,
• deputy ministers. It is essential for the members of the Council of Ministers to be members of either house of The parliaments.

If a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he has to acquire its membership within six months of his appointment. The ministers are individually responsible for their ministries and departments. This responsibility is enforced through the Prime Minister. The Council of Ministers remains in power as long as it enjoys the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 29.
How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? Mention some of his functions.
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok‘Sabha among themselves. The Speaker presides over the sessions and conducts its business. The Speaker may be a member of any political party. However once elected, he has to conduct, the business of the house impartially. It is the Speaker who keeps the house in order. Though he does not vote during the voting in the house, yet he can use his casting vote in case of a tie.

Question 30.
What do you know about the state legislature?
Answer:
India is a federal country. Each of its states has a legislature. Some of the state legislatures have two houses while the maximum number of the states have only one house, the lower one. The upper house in a state legislature is known as Vidhan Parishad while the lower house is known as the Vidhan Sabha. According to the provisions of our constitution, no legislative assembly is allowed to have more than 500 or less than 60 members.

The members of the Vidhan Sabha are elected by the people. A citizen of India of 25 years or more is able to be elected as its member.’ The Legislative Assembly is generally elected for 5 years. However, it may be dissolved before its term. Just like the Parliament, in a state .legislature, the lower house that is the Legislative Assembly is more powerful than the Legislative Council.

Question 31.
What is meant by Financial Emergency?
Answer:
Financial Emergency is a situation in which the President of India feels that the financial Stability or the credit of India is threatened. And to cope with this situation he declares financial emergency. In financial emergency, the President can reduce the salaries of all government officials including the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

Question 32.
Write a few lines on the emergency arising out of the failure of constitutional machinery in States.
Answer:
When the President of our country is satisfied on the basis of the report of the governor of a state or even from other sources that the government in the state cannot be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. In such a situation, he can declare emergency in that state. In this situation, the President can take over the entire work of the executive and dissolve or suspend the State Assembly. The governor rules in the name of the President. The budget is passed by the Parliament.

Question 33.
How many houses does the Parliament of India has? How is the Lok Sabha constituted?
Answer:
The Parliament consists of two Houses. The first House is the Lok Sabha or the House of the People (in Hindi Lok means people and Sabha means assembly or council). The people directly elect Members of the Lok Sabha for a period of five years. We have already studied the method of election for the 543 members of Lok Sabha.

Question 34.
Give briefly the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The second House of India’s Parliament is called the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States. The Rajya Sabha represents the states Its total strength is 250; 12 out of them are nominated by the President on the basis of art, literature, science, social service. A member of the Rajya Sabha is elected for six years, with one-third retiring every second year. If is never without numbers.

Question 35.
Can we say that the political executive is more powerful in the presidential system than in parliamentary system?
Answer:
Not really. Sometimes, strength becomes weakness. In a presidential system, two different parties can run two different centres of power. Often the president cannot get the parliament to support. her or his policies. In a parliamentary system, the same party controls political executive and the parliament. So the political executive can work without obstacles.

Question 36.
How’ are the ministers appointed in India?
Answer:
After the appointment of the Prime Minister, the President appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers are usually from the party or the coalition that has the majority in Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister is free to choose ministers, as long as they are members of the Parliament. Sometimes, a person who is not a Member of Parliament can also become a minister. But such a person has to get elected to one of the Houses of the Parliament within six months of appointment as minister.

Question 37.
Do you agree that the President remains a nominal executive? How is he elected?
Answer:
The President is not elected directly by the people. The Constitution has set up a very elaborate and complex system for the election of the President, The President is elected by all the elected MPs and MLAs in the country. Their votes have different values, depending on how many people they represent.

Their votes are counted through a complicated system called ‘single transferable vote system. This complicated system of election meets two aims. The President can be seen to represent the entire nation. At the same time, the President can never claim the kind of direct popular mandate that the Prime Minister can. This ensures that the president remains a nominal executive.

Question 38.
Explain the term Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
Answer:
When anyone approaches the courts in case public interest is adversely affected by the actions of the government, it is called public interest litigation. The courts intervene to prevent the misuse of government power in making decisions. They check malpractices on the part of public officials. That is the reason why of all the political institutions in the country the judiciary enjoys high confidence of the people.

Question 39.
Answer following for the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha :

Question 40.
Describe the functions of the government briefly.
Answer:
Administration involves a lot of governmental activities. For example, the government is responsible for ensuring the security of the citizens and providing facilities for education and health to all. It collects taxes and spends money thus raised on army, police and development programmes. It formulates several welfare schemes and elements, them.

Some persons have to take decisions on how to go about these activities. Some have to implement these decisions. If disputes arise on these decisions or in their implementation, there should be someone to determine what is right and what is wrong.

It is important that everyone should know who is responsible for doing what. It is also important that these activities are not influenced too much by the personal likes and dislikes of someone who happens Lobe doing that. So, to attend all these tasks several arrangements are made in aHrnbdem democracies. Such arrangements are called institutions. A democracy works throùgh political institutions. It works well when these institutions do what, people expect of them, do it efficiently and are answerable to the people.

Question 41.
Discuss some of the major functions of the Parliament in a democracy.
Answer:
Legislature existš in every democracy. It exercises political authority on behalf of the people in many ways :
(a) The parliament is the final authority for making the laws in any country. This task of lawmaking or legislation is so crucial that these assemblies are called legislatures. Parliaments all over the world can make new laws, change the existing laws, or abolish the existing laws and make new ones in their place, In most countries, the parliaments can also amend the Constitution in some situations.

(b) The parliaments all over the world can criticise and exercise some control over those who run the government. In some countries like India, this control is direct and full. Those who run the government can do so only as long as the parliament wants them to.

(c) Parliaments control public finances. In most countries, any money raised from the people can be spent only when the parliament sanctions it.

(d) The parliaments are the highest forum of discussion and debate about public issues and national policy in any country. Parliament can. seek information about any matter related to government.

(e) Parliament chooses the real chief executive called also the Prime Minister, and it can also force him to resign if he loses its confidence.
It is because of these functions and powers that the Parliament is described as supreme.

Question 42.
In what respects does the Lok Sabha appear more powerful than the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Our Constitution clearly gives more powers to the directly elected house, the Lok Sabha as compared to the Rajya Sabha. This is clear from the following. Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the houses. But if there is a difference between the two Houses, the final decision is taken by a joint session in which members of both the houses meet together. Because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha is likely to prevail in such a meeting.

(i) Lok Sabha exercises more powers in financial matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other finance-related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.

(ii) Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the government. The government continues in power only as long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confi¬dence’ in the Council of Ministers, all of them including the Prime Minister have to quit. This the Rajya Sabha cannot do.

Question 43.
What do you mean by ‘Political Executive”? Briefly state functions/powers.
Answer:
At different levels of any government, we find functionaries who take day-to-day decisions but do not exercise supreme power on behalf of the people. All those functionaries are collectively known as the executive. They are called executives because they are in charge of the ‘execution’ of the policies of the government. Thus, when we refer to ‘the government’ we usually mean the executive. The executive in a democratic country consists of two parts.

Those who are elected by the people for a specific period are called the political executives. These are political leaders who take the big decisions. Those who are appointed on a long-term basis are called the permanent executive or civil services. Those working in evil services are called civil servants. These are officers who work under political executives and assist them in carrying out the day-to-day administration.

In both the parliamentary and presidential systems, tire political executive does a lot more than we think it does; The role of the executive is not limited to implementing laws made by the parliament, it also includes: The political executive actively participates in lawmaking. It is the cabinet that proposes a draft legislation that is passed by the parliament as the National Commission on Backward Glasses Act 1993.

In fact, it is mandatory that all legislation; that has to do with financial; matters should be proposed by the government, The executive frames policies and rules that are as important as the law itself. Let us recall that O.M. No. 36012/30/90 was an executive order, net a law. Subsequent decisions about who could benefit from these reservations were e also made by the executive.

Question 44.
Why is the Prime Minister the most important political office in the country?
Answer:
In a parliamentary system like ours, the head of the government is different from the head of the state. Both of them are part of the executive. But the head of the government exercises most of the real powers. This position is called the Prime Minister in most countries with parliamentary system. In our country too the Prime Minister is the head to the government. That is why the Prime Minister is the most important political office in the country.

In a parliamentary system, the head of the state appoints the head of the government. In our country7 the President appoints the Prime Minister. But this is only a formal description. What it means in real life is that the President appoints leader of the majority party or the coalition of parties that command majority in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

As the head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide-ranging powers. He chairs cabinet meetings. He coordinates the work of different departments. His decisions are final in case disagreements arise between departments; He exercises general supervision of different ministries. All ministers work under his leadership. The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers. Tie also has the power to dismiss ministers. When he quits, the entire ministry quits.

The extent of power that Prime Minister really wields varies a lot. It depends upon, the personality of the holder of the office, his or her authority in the ruling party and the image and following among the people. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, exercised enormous authority because he was the supreme leader to the ruling Congress party at that time. He also had great influence on the public. But this was not true of all other Prime Ministers.

Objective Type Questions

(i) The proposal for a law is called a …………………. .
Answer:
Bill

(ii) On the receipt of the assent of the …………………. the bill becomes an Act of Parliament.
Answer:
President

(iii) In the Rajya Sabha, every member is elected for …………………. years.
Answer:
6

(iv) The Rajya Sabha must return the money bill with its recommendations within …………………. days.
Answer:
14

(v) The …………………. of the Assembly elect one of its members as speaker.
Answer:
Members

(vi) …………………. presides over the joint sittings of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Speaker.

2. Put (✓) before correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect sentences.

(i) When Rajya Sabha does not return the money bill within 14 days it is deemed to have been passed.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The strength of Legislative Assemblies in different states, varies.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) If there is disagreement between the two houses on the bill the President may convene a joint sitting.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) The questions without stars are meant for legislators.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The answers to all the questions and the supplementary questions given by ministers make the government responsive to Parliament.
Answer:
(✓)

3. Choose the correct alternative from the following ones:

(i) Mandal Commission was constituted in:
(a) 1976
(b) 1977
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
Answer:
(c) 1978

(ii) The following appoints the Prime Minister of India :
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) People
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(a) President

(iii) The following is called the apex court:
(a) District court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme court
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Supreme court

(iv) Parliament, in India, consists of the following:
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Both Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(d) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
(d) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(v) The Prime Minister heads the following :
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Council of Ministers.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Online Education for Climate Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4

Question 1.
Point out the two main characteristics of the tropical climate.
Answer:

1. Relatively high temperature almost through the year.
2. Relatively dry winters.

Question 2.
Name the monsoon winds causing heavy rains along the Tamil Nadu Cost.
Answer:
The Retreating South-West Monsoon.

Question 3.
Give two examples of equal climate.
Answer:

1. Mumbai,
2. Bangalore.

Question 4.
Name two places in India with an extreme climate.
Answer:

1. Jaisalmer,
2. Drass.

Question 5.
From which month the retreating south-west monsoon season in India begin ?
Answer:
October.

Question 6.
Which are the rainy months in the Tamil Nadu Coast?
Answer:

• October,
• November.

Question 7.
What are ‘Jet streams’?
Answer:
Jet streams’ are the fast blowing winds of a steady velocity. These winds move in a narrow zone of the upper atmosphere.

Question 8.
How many seasons can be recognised in India? Give their names.
Answer:
In India mainly four seasons can be recognised. These are:

• Cold weather season
• Hot weather season
• Monsoon season
• Retreating monsoon season.

Question 9.
What is meant b.y the term ‘loo’?
Answer:
‘Lop’ is a type of local wind which blow in the north-western part of India. This is a very hot and dry wind.

Question 10.
Which place in India record the highest rainfall in the world?
Answer:
Mawsyngram, located on tire crest of the southern range of Khasi hills receives die highest average annual rainfall in the world.

Question 11.
Name the four months in which India receives the bulk of rainfall.
Answer:

1. June,
2. July,
3. August,
4. September.

Question 12.
What are the ‘retreating monsoons’?
Answer:
The term ‘retreating monsoons’ indicates the reversal of the southwest monsoons which begin to withdraw from the. Northern plains by the beginning of October.

Question 13.
Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature in a day ?
Answer:
North-western part of India particularly the desert area of Rajas then experiences the highest range of temperature in a day.

Question 14.
What are the major factors influencing the climate of India?
Answer:
The major factors influencing the climate of India are the following:

Question 15.
Name the states of the eastern coast. frequently having tropical cyclones.
Answer:

• Andhra Pradesh,
• Tamil Nadu.

Question 16.
Name the states which are affected by ‘Kal Baisakhi’.
Answer:

• Assam,
• West Bengal.

Question 17.
What is associated in the ‘break’ or ‘burst’ of the monsoon ?
Answer:
Lightening and violent thunder.

Question 18.
What is the main ‘reason of heavy rainfall in the north-eastern states ?
Answer:
The main reason of the heavy rainfall in the north-eastern states are the south western monsoons arising from the Bay of Bengal. These directly strike the north-eastern hills of north-eastern states.

Question 19.
Why do the western slopes of the Western Ghats receive more rainfall?
Answer:
The branch of the south-western monsoon which arise from the Arabian Sea strike the western slopes of the Western Ghats and cause rainfall more than 2500 millimetres.

Question 20.
Point out the variation of the precipitation in India.
Answer:
The precipitation in India varies from over 400 cm in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh.

Question 21.
What is meant by the rain shadow?
Answer:
The rain shadow is meant by the area which is the side, of the mountain not. getting enough rain. The winds after crossing the summits of the mountains descend along the slopes on the other side of the mountains. While descending they get warmed up and become dry.

There is one more reason that the moist winds do not cross over the other side of die mountains which are too high as in the case of the Himalayas which also render Tibet a dry region. This dry side of the mountain is called the leeward side and the rainless area on the leeward side is known as the rain shadow.

Question 22.
Discuss the reason why do the south-west monsoons give less rain in Tamil Nadu
Or
Why Chennai is dry even when it is raining heavily on the Malabar Coast in the month of July?
Or
Give the reasons why south-west. monsoons are less rainy in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Following are the reasons which cause Chennai keeping dry even when its raining heavily on the Malabar Coast in the month of July.

The Malabar Coast lies on the Western Ghats while Tamil Nadu or Chennai lies on the Eastern Ghats. In, the month of July when the monsoons arise from the Arabian sea and ‘first of all strike against the Western Ghats it rains heavily on the Malabar Coast.

Hence while leaving the Western Ghats these monsoons get almost deprived of their moisture. By the time they reach the Eastern ghats after covering a long distance, they cannot provide much-needed rain.

Question 23.
What is meant by the annual range of temperature?
Answer:
The annual range of temperature is meant by the difference between the maximum and the minimum temperature of a particular place within a particular period of time.’

Question 24.
What kina climate is in Thiruvananthapuram?
Answer:
Thiruvananthapuram has an equal kind of climate; not, very cold or hot. the main reason for its equal climate is that it is situated on the seashore. Sea always keeps this place with a moderate climate. Again this place is situated on a hill. Heise it remains free from the hot climate of the temperate zone:

Question 25.
Why do the southwesterly winds cause rain in India?
Answer:
During the months of June- September, the South-West monsoon blow northward from the Arabian SeS and Bay of Bengal. These southwest winds cause rainfall almost in the whole of the northern India. These southwest monsoons blow from the oceanic high-pressure areas towards the low-pressure areas of land so they make heavy rainfall.

Question 26.
Discuss the distribution of precipitation in the country and the consequences of its uneven distribution.
Answer:
The distribution of precipitation in India is quite uneven:

• Annual rainfall over 300, cm is received by the parts of western coast and north-eastern India. While western Rajsathan and. the adjoining parts of Gujrat, Haryana and Punjab receive rainfall even less than 50 cm.
• The interior of the Deccan Plateau or the east of the Sahyadris also receives low rainfall.
• The third area of low precipitation is around Leh in Kashmir.
• Rest of the country receives moderate rainfall.
• Himalayas region receives snowfall too.

Question 27.
What are the main characteristics of Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea branch of Monsoon’ strikes the Western Ghats and causes heavy- rains in Konkan and Malabar. It becomes comparatively dry when it reaches the Deccan Plateau and Madhya Pradesh. The branch of the Arabian Sea Monsoon passes over West Rajasthan and the Aravalli Hills.

Question 28.
What is the reason that the rainfall decreases while going upward in the Ganga Valley but increases while going up the Indus. Valley?
or
How would you prove that the rainfall decreases while going eastward from West Bengal to Punjab?
Answer:
The monsoons rise both from the Bay of Bengal as well as from the Arabian Sea. The monsoons arriving from the Bay of Bengal cause heavy rainfall in the Brahmaputra Valley. Then because of the Himalayas, they take a Western turn and move up the Ganga Valley.

Here as they proceed westwards, become drier and drier and cause less and less rairi moving forward. It is the reason that Kolkata receives rainfall about 120cm, Patna 100, Allahabad 15 cm and Delhi about 56′ cm. Thus, moving upward the rainfall definitely decreases. It is the reason why Punjab gets less rain than West Bengal.

Question 29.
Discuss the factors controlling die Indian weather conditions.
Answer:
The main factors controlling the Indian weather conditions are the following:
1. Atmospheric Pressure: A big part of India lies in the area of north-east trade winds which are devoid of moisture and do not give fain. This is the reason that India has a quite long arid land. But the whole country is not arid.

During summer, the land of India gets heated more than its water parts. Because of this the low-pressure areas, develop over the interior vast landmass of Asia and high-pressure areas develop over the Indian ocean in the south: As the air moves from the high-pressure area to low pressure areas, the moisture-laden winds of the sea blow towards the landmass of Asia including India. These moisture-laden winds cause widespread rains in India in the summer season.

2. Upper Air Circulation: When the jet streams move eastwards, the Tibetan Highlands bifurcate them into two branches. The southern branch blow south of the Himalayas. This branch exercises an important effect on the winter weather in India.

3. Tropical Cyclones: The jet streams are attracted towards the. tropical depression in summer weather. These depressions attract the rain-bearing monsoons towards them and help in distribution of the monsoon rainfall over a large part of India.

4. The Western Disturbances: These are brought by the jet currents. When these disturbances enter India from west and north-west during winter they cause some rain in north-western parts of India. In the summer season, these jet currents move northwards and give place to an easterly jet stream which flow Over north India along 25°N.

Question 30.
Give an account of the hot weather season in India.
Answer:
It is a well-known fact that due to. apparent northward movement of the sun, the global heat belt shifts northward. Because of this fact from March to May, it is hot weather season in India. In March the highest day temperatures come around 38°C. This temperature is found in the Deccan Plateau. The temperature reaches around 42°C in Gujrat and Madhya Pradesh by April.

In fact temperatures, around 48°C are commonly found in the north-western part of the country in May. In peninsular India, these temperatures reveal the moderating influence of the Ocean.
The summer months experience rising temperature and falling air pressure in the northern part of the country.
A striking feature of the hot weather, season is the loo. The loo is meant by the strong, hot dry winds blowing during day over northern and northwestern India.

Sometimes they even continue until late in the evening. Direct exposure to these winds may even prove to be fatal. Dust storms are very common during the month of May in northern India. These storms bring temporary relief as they lower the temperature and may bring light rain and cool breeze.

This is also the season for localised thunderstorms, associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail. In West Bengal, these storms are known as the ‘Kaal Baisakhi: Towards the dose of the summer seasons, pre-monsoon showers are common especially, in Kerala and Karnataka. They help in the early ripening of mangoes, and are often referred to as ‘mango showers’.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences.

(i) There are variations in the form and type of precipitation.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) An easterly jet stream takes its place and flows over northern India along 25°N.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) The annual precipitation varies from over 400 cm in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and Western Rajasthan.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Coastal areas experience more contrast in temperature conditions.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The climate of a place is determined by the interplay of various factors.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) The pattern of air circulation is very different at the higher level of the atmosphere.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) Trade winds originate from the subtropical high-pressure belts of the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill up the blanks in the following sentences with suitable words :

(i) The phenomenon of the monsoon is very………………. .
Answer:
old,

(ii) During ………………………………. there is a high-pressure area in north of the Himalayas.
Answer:
winter,

(iii) The Tibetan ……………………………….act as a barrier for the westerly jet stream and it gets bifurcated.
Answer:
Highland,

(iv) The ………………………………. areas do not experience much variation in temperature.
Answer:
coastal,

(v) Due to apparent northward movement of the sun, the ………………………………. heat belt shifts northward.
Answer:
global,

(vi) By early Tune, the ………………………………. pressure conditions over the north-western plains get further intensified.
Answer:
low.

3. Find out the correct sentences among the given ones

(i) Winds. blow from high-pressure areas to the low-pressure areas.
(ii) Monsoon is confined only to the tropical lands lying between 20°N and 20°S.
(iii) During winter, there is a high-pressure area south of the Himalayas.
(iv) Port Darwin is in the Northern Territory of Australia.
(v) The meteorological department of India makes a long term prediction of the monsoons likely behaviour on the basis of 16 parameters.
Answer:
Correct Sentences—(ii), (iv), (v).

4. Match List I with List II:

List I (Cities)	List-II (Rainfall)
(i) Kolkota	120
(ii) Patna	56
(iii) Allahabad	102
(iv) Delhi	91

Answer:

List –I (Cities)	List-II (Rainfall)
(i) Kolkata	120 cm
(ii) Patna	102 cm
(iii) Allahabad	91 cm
(iv) Delhi	56 cm.

5. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The following is an example of extreme climate:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Jaisalmer.
Answer:
(d) Jaisalmer.

(ii) The following is an example of the equable climate:
(a) Delhi
(b) Banglore
(c) Jaipur
(d) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Banglore

(iii) Where do the cyclones depression originate?
(a) In Rajasthan
(b) In Arabian Sea.
(c) In Andaman Sea
(d) In Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) In Andaman Sea

(iv) Where do the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon merge in the Ganga plains?
(a) northwestern part
(b) northeastern part
(c) south-western part
(d) south-eastern part
Answer:
(a) northwestern part

(v) “El Nind” is a word from the following language:
(a) English
(b) French
(c) Spanish
(d) German
Answer:
(c) Spanish.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for The Last Leaf Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Moments, Extra Questions for Class 9 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-english/

Online Education for The Last Leaf Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Moments

The Last Leaf Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Last Leaf Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Where did Sue and Johnsy stay? What was their profession?
Answer:
They lived in a small flat on the fourth storey of an old house. They were both artists.

The Last Leaf Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why was Sue worried when Johnsy fell ill?
Answer:
Sue was worried because Johnsy would lie on her bed without moving, and would just gaze out of her window all day. Even though the doctor came every day, there was no change in her condition.

The Last Leaf Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
What illness did Johnsy have? Who looked after her?
Answer:
Johnsy was suffering from pneumonia. Her friend Sue looked after her.

The Last Leaf Questions And Answers Question 4.
What worried the doctor?
Answer:
The doctor was worried because there was no improvement in Johnsy’s condition. He felt that Johnsy was not responding to treatment because she had made up her mind not to do so. He felt she had lost her will to live and hence the medicines were not going to be useful to her.

Extra Questions Of The Last Leaf Question 5.
How did Sue try to revive Johnsy’s interest in life?
Answer:
Sue talked to her about clothes and fashions. Then she brought her drawing board into Johnsy’s room and started painting. She also whistled while painting, hoping to distracting Johnsy’s mind from her illness.

The Last Leaf Extra Question Answer Question 6.
Why was Johnsy counting the leaves on the creeper outside her window?
Answer:
Johnsy had made up her mind that the day the last leaf fell off the creeper, she would die. So she was counting the leaves as they fell off the creeper.

Last Leaf Class 9 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why did Sue go to Behrman?
Answer:
Sue went to Behrman because she had to paint an old miner and she wanted him as the model for the painting.

Class 9 English The Last Leaf Extra Questions Question 8.
Who was Behrman?
Answer:
Behrman was a sixty year old painter whose only ambition was to paint a masterpiece. He lived in the same building as Sue and Johnsy, and sometimes acted as a model for their paintings.

Class 9 The Last Leaf Extra Questions Question 9.
What did Sue confide in Behrman?
Answer:
She told him about her worries about Johnsy, who refused to recover from her illness because of her belief that she was going to die the day the last leaf fell off the creeper outside her window.

The Last Leaf Important Questions Question 10.
What did Sue feel when she saw the last leaf on the creeper? Who was at the window with her?
Answer:
Sue felt extremely worried that the lead would fall off by the next morning, and if Johnsy saw that, she would not survive. Behrman, an old painter and her neighbour, was at the window with her.

Extra Question Answer Of The Last Leaf Class 9 Question 11.
Why was Sue nervous to draw back the window curtains?
Answer:
She was worried that the last leaf on the creeper might have fallen off in the wind and snow the previous night, and that her friend Johnsy would consider it as a warning that she was also going to die soon.

The Last Leaf Question Answer Question 12.
How did the sight of the last leaf affect Johnsy?
Answer:
The sight of the last leaf clinging on to the creeper inspite of the wind and snow revived Johnsy and gave her the faith that she would survive. She realised how much she had troubled Sue by her gloom and depression, and also thought of the fact that it was a sin to want to die. ‘

Extra Questions Of Last Leaf Question 13.
How did the doctor react to Johnsy’s recovery? What news did he give Sue?
Answer:
He declared that as Johnsy’s will to live had been revived, she would recover soon. He informed Sue that their neighbour Behrman had fallen ill with pneumonia and that he did not expect him to survive.

Extra Questions From The Last Leaf Question 14.
How did Behrman die?
Answer:
He died of pneumonia. He had been out in the stormy night, painting a leaf on the creeper outside Johnsy’s window. He came home soaked in the rain and fell ill there. The janitor found him there in the morning.

Question 15.
What did the presence of the paints and brushes near Behrman’s bed signify?
Answer:
They signified that he had been out painting in the middle of the snowy, windy night.

Question 16.
Why had Behrman felt the need to paint the leaf on the creeper?
Answer:
Johnsy, his neighbour who had been suffering from pneumonia, had developed a strong belief that she would die the day the last leaf of the creeper outside her window fell. Behrman felt that he had to paint the leaf that night in order to save her life, as all the leaves had fallen off in the storm.

Question 17.
What impression do you get of Behrman?
Answer:
Behrman appears to be a selfless, caring man, who was fond of his neighbours, and put their welfare before his own. He is a great painter, because the leaf he paints is so realistic that no one can distinguish it from a real one.

Question 18.
What was Behrman’s masterpiece? Why was it called so?
Answer:
The leaf that he painted on the creeper was his masterpiece, because it was realistic that Johnsy did not realise that it had been painted. As a result, she recovered from her illness. Even though it was not a famous painting, it was one that saved a life, and thus, it was a masterpiece.

Question 19.
Do you think Johnsy was a good friend? Give reasons for your answer?
Answer:
Either Yes or No is acceptable, as long as it is supported by sufficient arguments No, I don’t think she was a good friend, because she did not respond to the love and care showered on her by Sue. She did not respond to the doctor’s treatment just because she had decided in her head that she would die the day the last leaf on the creeper fell, and she ignored any attempts by her friend to help her. Yes, she was a good friend, as she did finally realise and appreciate all that Sue had done for her. She apologised and made an effort to recover, thereby showing that she cared about Sue’s friendship.

Question 20.
What was Johnsy’s illness? What ultimately cured her: medicine, or her will to live?
Answer:
Johnsy was suffering from pneumonia. She was not responding to medicines, because she had no will to live. When she finally made up her mind to get better, she recovered from her illness.

Question 21.
Do you think the feeling of depression Johnsy had is common among teenagers? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, feelings of depression can be common among teenagers. They are usually sheltered and protected from the ups and downs of life by their parents as children, and often find it difficult to deal with obstacles and challenges as they grow up.

Question 22.
Behrman has a dream. What is it? Does it come true?
Answer:
Behrman had a dream of painting a masterpiece. It did come true when he painted the leaf on the wall on which the creeper was growing. The painting was so realistic that it helped revive Johnsy who had been waiting for the last leaf on the creeper to fall.

Question 23.
What was Behrman’s masterpiece? What makes Sue say so?
Answer:
His masterpiece was the leaf that he painted on the wall next to the creeper. Sue called it his masterpiece because it was so realistic that no one realised that it had been painted.

Question 24.
How long had Behrman been ill? Why did he die so quickly?
Answer:
Behrman had been ill for two days. He died very quickly, because he had gone out in the storm and remained . in his wet clothes even after he returned to his flat. He was about sixty years old, and caught a chill very quickly. Further, he was found to be ill by the janitor, as he lived alone, which also suggests that he did not really have anyone to take care of him.

Question 25.
Johnsy calls herself ‘wicked’. Do you agree with her?
Answer:
Johnsy can be called wicked, because she not only lost her will to live, she also ignored all the attempts by her friend Sue to help her. Even though Sue was going to great efforts to take care of her, Johnsy did not respond. In fact, it was because of her stubborn nature that Behrman ultimately lost his life.

The Last Leaf Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Do you think Behrman was a great artist or a great human being? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
In my opinion, Behrman was a great human being. No doubt he was a talented artist, which is evident from his painting of the leaf on the wall. The painting was so realistic that everyone thought it was a real leaf, which saved Johnsy’s life. Johnsy had made up her mind that she would die of her illness the day the last leaf fell off the creeper.

However, Behrman decided to help Sue, her friend, who was worried about the effect the falling of the last leaf would have on Johnsy. This shows how caring, selfless and concerned he was. He went out in the stormy and cold night to paint the leaf, and came back soaked to the skin, in no condition to even remove his wet clothes and shoes. He made the supreme sacrifice of his life to save the life of another human being.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the characters of Sue and Johnsy?
Answer:
Sue and Johnsy were both artists and good friends. They shared a small flat in an old building. Sue was a very loyal and caring friend. She did everything she could to take care of Johnsy when she fell ill with pneumonia. She not only took care of Johnsy physically, but also helped by earning money by selling her paintings. She cooked and ensured that Johnsy received the best treatment.

Johnsy on the other hand appears to have been a depressed and gloomy person, who is very self-absorbed. She did not have the will to fight against her illness, and did not respond to the doctor or to Sue’s care and concern. She was highly imaginative and superstitious, as she came to believe that her life was linked to the number of leaves on the creeper outside her window. She believed that she would die the day the last leaf of the creeper fell.

It was because of this stubborn belief that Behrman, an older artist, lost his life when he went out in the storm to paint a leaf onto the creeper so that Johnsy would not realise that the last leaf had actually fallen.

Question 3.
This story shows the power of the mind. Discuss.
Answer:
Yes, the story reveals the power of one’s thoughts and the mind in making us believe in something. In this story, we see that one of the characters, Johnsy, is suffering from pneumonia. She believes that she will not survive, and as a result even medicines have no effect on her. Even her doctor was worried about her chances of recovery. Later, we see the power of the mind once again when she recovers.

At this point, her belief was that she would only live as long as the last leaf stayed on the creeper. When she sees that the leaf does not fall off despite the wind and stormy conditions, it makes her believe that even she might be able to survive. Even though it is not a real leaf, and was just painted by Behrman, Johnsy draws inspiration from it, and slowly gains the will to live. Therefore, the story clearly expresses the power of the mind in changing the course of our lives.

Question 4.
Why has the story been called ‘The Last Leaf? Do you think it is appropriate? Give reasons for your answer?
Answer:
As the title suggests, the story revolves around the importance of a single leaf on a tree. The leaf is particularly important in saving the life of a girl, who had convinced herself that she would die the moment the last leaf fell off the tree. However, the leaf miraculously stays on the tree, giving the girl hope to survive. The title also refers to the fact that the leaf is the last artwork made by an out of work painter, which also becomes his masterpiece.

Question 5.
What is the theme and message of the story?
Answer:
The story explores the idea of the impact of true art, and what makes a painting a true masterpiece. It also highlights the themes of selflessness and the supreme sacrifice of self to save the life of another human being. It also explores the loyalties of a true friendship, and the levels to which we can go to help a friend. The story shares a message of the power of love and friendship. It reminds us that selflessness is the highest virtue one can attain.

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Electoral Politics Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is considered as the barometer of democracy?
Answer:
Elections.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Learn Insta Question 2.
What is known as the lifeline of the election procedure?
Answer:
The political parties are known as the lifeline of the election procedure.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Question Answers Question 3.
Name the state where the National Conference is active in politics.
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
In which state AI’ADMK is a prominent party?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Question 5.
What is the name of the Chief Election Commissioner during whose tenure a large number of electoral -reforms were carried out?
Answer:
T. N. Seshah.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
What are the means Of electronic media?
Answer:

• Radio,
• Television,
• Cinema.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Answers Question 7.
By whom the election procedure of our country is controlled?
Answer:
By the Election Commission.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is the election called which is held when Lok Sabha or the State Assembly is dissolved before die expiry of its full term?
Answer:
Mid-term election.

Class 9 Electoral Politics Extra Questions Question 9.
What is meant by an election?
Answer:
An election is the contest which is held between different political parties in order to get people’s support.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Learninsta Question 10.
On which principle is the system of universal adult franchise based?
Answer:
On the principle of “one person one vote”.

Extra Question Answer Of Chapter 4 Civics Class 9th Question 11.
What do you mean by the democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is the form of the government “which is elected by the people, ruled by the people and works for the welfare of the people.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 12.
What is meant by the political equality?
Answer:
Political equality is the situation every political party has equal right to fight’ elections.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 Electoral Politics Extra Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is the difference between a party candidate and independent candidate?
Answer:
A party candidate fights an election on the basis of the principles of the party he belongs. He uses the party election symbol as his election symbol. On the other hand, an independent candidate fights election on his own principles. He uses the symbol provided, by the Election Commission specially to him.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Learn Insta Question 14.
Why are the symbols allotted to die political parties?
Answer:
The parties are allotted different symbols so that they can have their distinct identity and a voter can easily identify to which party candidate he is going to vote.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Questions Answers Question 15.
Which political party did Chaudhary Devi Lai form in 1987?
Answer:
Lok Dal.

Question 16.
Which movement did Chaudhary Devi Lai launch in 1987?
Answer:
Nyaya Yudh.

Question 17.
Which party ruled before the elections in Haryana before 1987?
Answer:
The Congress Party.

Question 18.
Which party formed the government after 1987 elections?
Answer:
The Lok Dal.

Question 19.
Was Devi Lai very popular at that time?
Answer:
Yes, Devi Lai was very popular at. that time.

Question 20.
Did Lok Dal make arty promises to people?
Answer:
The Lok Dal headed by Devi Lai promised to build a new Haryana.

Question 21.
Did Devi Lai fulfil promise to waive farmer loans on becoming Chief Minister?
Answer:
Yes, after, becoming Chief Minister, Devi Lai fulfilled the promise he made in election campaign by passing an order waiving the loans of the farmers, agricultural labourers, and small shopkeepers.

Question 22.
Devi Lai had not given any manifesto to the people. What are the other means by which people could know about his priorities?
Answer:
Devi Lai’s approach was direct- talking to liis audience.

Question 23.
What are the different methods used by political parties during the election campaign to seek vote?
Answer:
Processions, public meetings, door to door campaign, holding corner meetings, distributing pamphlets, badges etc.

Question 24.
How many seats did the Lok Dal also capture in the 1987 elections?
Answer:
60 seats out of 90; Lok Dal together with Bhartiya Janata Party captured 76 seats.

Question 25.
How many seats did the Congress Party obtain in 1987?
Answer:
5 seats.

Question 26.
Why are elections considered essential for any representative democracy in our times?
Answer:
The elections are considered essential for democracy because of the following reasons :

• The voters are able to choose who will make laws for them.
• They can choose who will sit in government and take major decisions.
• They can choose the party whose ‘ policies will guide the government and lawmaking.

These choices are not made once and for all. In democratic elections, the people get a chance to make a fresh choice after some time. If they want they can retain the same party’, the same government and the same representatives. But if they are hot, satisfied with the performance of any of these, they can make a change at that level or at all the levels. This ensures that representatives remain answerable to the people.

Question 27.
It is said that the elections are about political competition. Explain.
Answer:
Elections are all about political competition. The competition takes various forms. The most obvious form is the competition among political parties. At the level of constituency, it takes the form of competition among several candidates. Very often the competition turns into a personality race among the top leaders of various parties. Elections also involve competition among various policies and ideologies. If there is no competition, there is no point in having elections.

Question 28.
“Political competition provide a system of rewards and punishment”. Discuss.
Answer:
Political competition provides a system of rewards and punishment. It is a system where political leaders are rewarded for good work and punished for not serving the people. It is like school examinations; There is no need for examination if we could be sure that all the students will study sincerely all the times. But we cannot be sure of that. That is why, We have examinations as a system of rewards and punishment.

Question 29.
A political party won the elections in 1986. Since then no new elections have taken place and that party continues to run the government. Is this country democratic today? Give your reasons to argue for or against it? Why should it be necessary to contest elections again and again?
Answer:
In any democracy, elections have not to be only free and fair, they have to be conducted timely also, A political party, winning the elections and forming the government can not remain in power forever, nor that country be called democratic. For a country to be called democratic, elections have to be conducted frequently, i.e. at fixed times, and regularly as well.

Question 30.
Based on this account of Haryana. elections, are the following statements correct? Give facts from that example to support what you say.
(a) The party that ruled before the elections and the one that formed government after the elections was the same.
(b) Devi Lai fulfilled his promise to waive farmer loans on becoming chief minister.
(c) People vote. They can vote in support of existing government or support another party.
(d) Members of the majority party elect their leader. This person becomes the chief minister.
(e) Political parties tell the voters as to what they would do if voted to power.
(f) Political parties make their promises’ known to voters in a statement, called election manifesto.
(g) The contesting parties appeal to voters on the basis of a slogan.
Answer:
(a) No, party that ruled before the elections was the Congress Party; party that ruled after the elections was the Lok Dal
(b) It is correct: Devi Lai fulfilled the promise to waive the farmers’ loans after he took over as the chief minister.
(c) Yes, by voting, the people either support the existing, government or can support another party.
(d) True, the members of the legislature belonging to the majority party elect their leader; the leader is appointed, the chief minister, if the party belongs to a state.
(e) This is done by the political parties by issuing its election manifesto; promises made to the voters.
(f) Correct: this is what the election manifesto does.
(g) This is also true; numerous political parties resort to slogans. Devi Lai used the slogan in 1987; it was ‘Bharashtachar band aur pani ka prabhandh.

Question 32.
What type of legal declaration is given when the nomination form is filled?
Answer:
Every candidate, contesting elections, has to make a legal declaration giving details of:

• Serious criminal cases pending against them.
• Details of their and their family assets and liabilities.
• Education qualifications.

This system was started after, an important judgement of the Supreme Court of India.

Question 33.
What may be the reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
The reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities is to avoid the risk of the candidate’s amassing money through unfair means.

Question 34.
Give some of the successful slogans by different political parties in various elections in India in the past.
Answer:
Some of the successful slogans are asunder:
The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of “Remove Poverty” (Garibi Hatao) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to recurrent all the policies of the government to remove poverty from the country.

“Save Democracy” was the slogan used by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977. The party promised to undo the excesses committed during Emergency and restore civil liberties.

The Left Front used the slogan of “Land to the Tiller” in the West Bengal assembly elections held in 1977.
“Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus” was the slogan used by N. T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh assembly elections in 1983.

Question 35.
Give details of the election laws which prohibit the candidates when they indulge in election campaign.
Answer:
According to our election laws, no party or candidate can:

• Bribe or threaten the voters.
• Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion etc.
• Use government resources for election campaign.
• Spend more than Rs. 25 Lakh for a Lok Sabha election or Rs. 10 Lakhs in an assembly election.

If they do so/their election can be rejected by court even after they have been declared elected. Minimum conditions of a Democratic Elections First, everyone should be able to choose; Everyone can vote and every vote should have equal value. Second, there should be something to choose from. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.

Third, the voice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years.
Fourth, the candidate preferred by the people should get elected. Fifth, elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 36.
Mention the details about a model code of conduct for the election campaign as agreed by all the political parties in India.
Answer:
The following sum up the Model Code of conduct for the election campaign:

• Any place of worship shall not be used for election propaganda.
• Criticisms of the opponents shall be limited to their policies, programmes, past records and work and will not mention their personal lives.
• No flags, banners, notices, slogans shall be placed on any building without the permission of the owner.
• The government transport including official aircrafts, vehicles, machinery and personnel shall not be used by ministers and the ruling party.
• The ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects or make any promises of providing public facilities after elections have been announced.

Question 37.
Explain Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:
The Universal Adult Franchise ‘ refers to the enjoyment of right to vote by all the adult citizens of the county, without any discrimination i.e., on the basis of caste, creed, colour, sex, education and place of birth. It is a well-known fact that every citizen of India who is 18 years of age and above and who is not otherwise disqualified, is entitled to vote in the elections.

Question 38.
“It is said elections are the barometers of Democracy”. What do you understand by this sentence?
Answer:
In a democratic form of government, tiie elections are considered as barometers of democracy because the elections are very crucial in democratic setup. Elections provide opportunity to the people to judge the performance of the representatives. Elections also generate a new political attitude which can determine the future course of the country at. large.

Question 39.
Write a short note on the Election Commission.
Answer:
The election commission is the highest body in our country to conduct the elections. It not only conducts tire elections but also controls and even supervises this process. All elections to the parliament and to the state legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice President are conducted by the Election commission. It is the Election Commission which fixes and announces the dates of the elections in our country. The Election Commission also makes sure that the party in power does not take undue advantage over other parties.

Question 40.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
When a candidate is not satisfied about the way the elections have been held in his constituency, he Can file a petition in the court and question the election of another candidate. This kind of petition is called an election petition. Being accepted, this kind of petition leads to a by-election to that particular seat.

Question 41.
What is the importance of the electoral symbols?
Or
Why that different political parties are given different electoral symbols?
Answer:
All the political parties, as well as the independent candidates, also are allotted symbols by the Election Commission. All the major well-Renown political parties have been allotted permanent symbols. These symbols are well-known and quite popular among the public An Indian can easily recognize a Congress candidate by the symbol of palm as well a BJP candidate by the lotus.

Election symbols are allotted mainly, because of the following reasons :

• These symbols help the ordinary man and even an illiterate to recognise the parties.
• These symbols help the. political parties to arrange their processions and meetings and carry on their propaganda from street to street.
• Symbols also help in the situation when there are more than one candidate of the same name in the same constituency
• In fact symbols make it easy to caste one’s vote.

Question 42.
State briefly the importance of regular electoral competitions.
Answer:
Regular electoral competition provides incentives to political parties and leaders. They know that if they do good work that would make them popular and increase their chances of victory in the next elections. But if, they fail to satisfy the voters with their work they will not be able ta win again. So, if a political party or leader was motivated only by desire to be in power and to continue to be so, even then they would be forced to serve the people.

This is a bit like market. Even if a shopkeeper is interested, only in his profit, he is forced to give good service to the customers, If he does not, the customer will go to some other shop. Similarly, political competition may cause divisions and some ugliness, but it finally, helps to force political parties and leaders to serve the people.

Question 43.
How is this election process complete in a country?
Answer:
The following steps are the major ones in the election process in our country :

• Elections are announced together with their dates for purposes such as of nomination filling ‘forms, scrutiny etc.,
• The Election Commission makes sure that the political party in power does not take any undue advantage over other parties.
• The candidates fill up the nomination papers.
• The nomination papers or the applications are scrutinized.
• The candidates not willing to contest any more withdraw their candidature.
• The final list of the candidates is published. ,
• Campaigning done by the candidates and their supporters.
• On the day of the election, casting of votes is performed in a free and fair atmosphere.
• After the counting, results are announced.
  Thus, the election procedure in Our country is completed.

Question 44.
Prepare a brief list of the minimum conditions of any democratic elections.
Answer:
The following is the list of minimum conditions in any democratic elections :

• First, everyone should be able to choose. This means that everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
• Second, there should be something to chose from/Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.
• Third; the choice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years,
• Fourth, whoever people choose should get elected. Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 45.
Give a brief account of election campaign.
Answer:
The main purpose of election is to give people a chance to choose the representatives, the government and’ the policies they prefer. Therefore, it is necessary to have a free and.open discussion about who is a better representative, which party will give a better government or what.is a good policy. This is what happens during election campaign. In our country, there are two weeks between the declaration of candidates and the polling of votes.

During this period the candidates contact their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilise their supporters. This is also, the period when newspapers and television news are full of election related stories and debates. But election campaign is not limited to the two weeks only. Political parties start preparing for election, months before the election actually takes place.

Question 46.
State briefly some challenges to free and fair election.
Answer:
There are always challenges to free and fair election. Some of these are:

1. Candidates and parties with a lot of money may not be sure of their victory, but they do enjoy a big and unfair advantage over others.
2. In some parts of the country, candidates with criminal connection have been able to push others out of electoral race and secure ‘tickets from more parties;
3. Very often elections offer little choice to ordinary citizens, for both the major parties are similar to each other and do not wish to raise any major issue;
4. Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties; and
5. Election campaign often does not raise any basic questions and therefore does not offer any real voice to the people.

Question 47.
What is the importance of the independent Election Commission? How does such a commission help ensure free and fair elections?
Answer:
In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and very powerful Election Commission. A Commission enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed the Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC.

The Election Commission is a very powerful body:

• Our Constitution gives it tire power to take decision on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the declaration of elections to the declaration of results;
• The Commission lias the power to implement the Code of Conduct and punish any a candidates or party that violates it;
• During the period of the elections, the EC can order, the government to follow some guidelines, including transferring some government officials like the Collector or SP; and
• When government officers work on election duty, they are under the control of the EC and not the government.

Question 48.
Why are certain constituencies reserved and for whom?
Answer:
There are some constituencies which are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes (ST). In reserved (SC) constituency, only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Caste can stand for election. Similarly, only those belonging to Scheduled Tribe can contest. election from a reserved (ST) constituency.

The number of seats so reserved is in proportion to their population. Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 79 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 41 for the Scheduled Tribes. In the panchayat and Nagar Palika elections, one-third of the seats are reserved in a similar manner for women candidates. In many states, seats in panchayat and Nagar Palika are reserved for Other Backward Classes as well. This varies from state to state.

Why do we have this system? Isn’t this system unfair to those from other communities? It might seem so. But the gains of this system are much bigger. This system makes our democracy a representative democracy. If there were no system of reservation, very few persons from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes would have been elected to the Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabhas. They would not have had the resources. the education and conditions to contest elections against others.

They would have been discriminated against by others and prevented from winning elections. If that had happened, our parliament and assemblies would have been deprived of the voice of a significant section of our population. In any case the reserved seats do not take away the legitimate share of anyone else. The proportion of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Tribes is exactly in proportion to their share in population. In fact, inspired by the success of this system, women’s movement has been demanding a similar system for women as well.

Question 49.
Give a list of slogan raised during elections.
Answer:
In election campagins, political parties try to focus public attention on some big issues. They want to attract the public to that issue and get them to vote for their party on that basis. Let us look at some oi the successful slogans givne by different political parties in various elections.

The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Remove poverty) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to reorient all the policies of the government to remove. poverty from the country. Save Democracy was the slogan given by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977.

The party promised to undo the excesses committed during Emergency and restore civil liberties. The Left Front used the slogan of Land to the Tiller in the West Bengal Assembly elections held in 1977.
Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus was the slogan used by N. T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh Assembly elections in 1983.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences:

(i) The election in our country is conducted by secret ballot.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The candidates are given a date for withdrawal of their names.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Elections are the barometers of democracy.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Radio is a medium of the expression of the public opinion.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Correct reporting is dependent on the freedom of the press.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) No one can predict the result of an election.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) The influence of the opposition parties spread over the whole country.
Answer:
(✗)

2. Complete the following sentences

(i). In 1998, general -elections, ………………………….. formed the government at the centre.
Answer:
Coalition

(ii) A single party getting the majority or ………………………….. of parties form the government.
Answer:
Group

(iii) ………………………….. is the electoral symbol of the Congress.
Answer:
Hand

(iv) The candidates are given a ………………………….. for withdrawal of their names.
Answer:
Date

(v) Election ………………………….. carry party’s promises about major issues.
Answer:
Manifestoes

(vi) In the general elections of …………………………..the Congress party was defeated for the first time.
Answer:
1977

3. Choose the Correct-answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The following type of Samiti Devi Lai had formed in 1987:
(a) Nyaya
(b) Sanghparash
(c) Vidhan
(d) Sewa
Answer:
(b) Sanghparash

(ii) The Devi Lai Lok Dal party obtained the following number of seats in the Haryana Vidhan Sabha:
(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 60
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 60

(iii) The current Lok Sabha strength is:
(a) 540
(b) 541
(c) 542
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(iv) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Castes seats in the Lok Sabha are:
(a) 76
(b) 77
(c) 78
(d) 79
Answer:
(d) 79

(v) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
Answer:
(a) 41.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 10 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-maths/

Online Education Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Circles with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles with Solutions Answers

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
In the figure, O is the centre of a circle passing through points A, B, C and D and ∠ADC = 120°. Find the value of x.

Solution:
Since ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
∠ADC + ∠ABC = 180°
[∴ opp. ∠s of a cyclic quad. are supplementary]
120° + ∠ABC = 180°
∠ABC = 180° – 120° = 60°
Now, ∠ACB = 90° [angle in a semicircle]
In rt. ∠ed ∆CB, ∠ACB = 90°
∠CAB + ∠ABC = 90°
x + 60° = 90°
x = 90° -60°
x = 30°

Class 9 Circles Extra Questions Question 2.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, ∠AOB = 60° and CDB = 90°. Find ∠OBC.

Solution:
Since angle subtended at the centre by an arc is double the angle
subtended at the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠ACB = \(\frac{1}{3}\) ∠AOB = \(\frac{1}{3}\) x 60° = 30°
Now, in ACBD, by using angle sum property, we have
∠CBD + ∠BDC + ∠DCB = 180°
∠CBO + 90° + ∠ACB = 180°
[∵ ∠CBO = ∠CBD and ∠ACB = ∠DCB are the same ∠s]
∠CBO + 90° + 30° = 180°
∠CBO = 180o – 90° – 30° = 60°
or ∠OBC = 60°

Circles Extra Questions Class 9 Question 3.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with chords AP and BP being produced to R and Q respectively. If ∠QPR = 35°, find the measure of ∠AOB.

Solution:
∠APB = ∠RPQ = 35° [vert. opp. ∠s]
Now, ∠AOB and ∠APB are angles subtended by an arc AB at centre and at the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠AOB = 2∠APB = 2 × 35° = 70°

Circle Class 9 Extra Questions Question 4.
In the figure, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. Find the value of x.

Solution:
In ∆PRS, by using angle sum property, we have
∠PSR + ∠SRP + ∠RPS = 180°
∠PSR + 50° + 35o = 180°
∠PSR = 180° – 85o = 95°
Since PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral
∴ ∠PSR + ∠PQR = 180°
[∵ opp. ∠s of a cyclic quad. are supplementary]
95° + x = 180°
x = 180° – 95°
x = 85°

Extra Questions Of Circles Class 9 Question 5.
In the given figure, ∠ACP = 40° and BPD = 120°, then find ∠CBD.

Solution:
∠BDP = ∠ACP = 40° [angle in same segment]
Now, in ∆BPD, we have
∠PBD + ∠BPD + ∠BDP = 180°
⇒ ∠PBD + 120° + 40° = 180°
⇒ ∠PBD = 180° – 160o = 20°
or ∠CBD = 20°

Extra Questions On Circles Class 9 Question 6.
In the given figure, if ∠BEC = 120°, ∠DCE = 25°, then find ∠BAC.

Solution:
∠BEC is exterior angle of ∆CDE.
∴ ∠CDE + ∠DCE = ∠BEC
⇒ ∠CDE + 25° = 120°
⇒ ∠CDE = 95°
Now, ∠BAC = ∠CDE [∵ angle in same segment are equal]
⇒ ∠BAC = 95°

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Class 9 Maths Circles Extra Questions Question 1.
In the given figure, PQR = 100°, where P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. Find LOPR.

Solution:
Take any point A on the circumcircle of the circle.
Join AP and AR.
∵ APQR is a cyclic quadrilateral.
∴ ∠PAR + ∠PQR = 180° [sum of opposite angles of a cyclic quad. is 180°]
∠PAR + 100° = 180°
⇒ Since ∠POR and ∠PAR are the angles subtended by an arc PR at the centre of the circle and circumcircle of the circle.
∠POR = 2∠PAR = 2 x 80° = 160°
∴ In APOR, we have OP = OR [radii of same circle]
∠OPR = ∠ORP [angles opposite to equal sides]
Now, ∠POR + ∠OPR + ∠ORP = 180°
⇒ 160° + ∠OPR + ∠OPR = 180°
⇒ 2∠OPR = 20°
⇒ ∠OPR = 10°

Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
In figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AB is extended to F and BE || DC. If ∠FBE = 20° and DAB = 95°, then find ∠ADC.

Solution:
Sum of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is 180°
∴ ∠DAB + ∠BCD = 180°
⇒ 95° + ∠BCD = 180°
⇒ ∠BCD = 180° – 95° = 85°
∵ BE || DC
∴ ∠CBE = ∠BCD = 85°[alternate interior angles]
∴ ∠CBF = CBE + ∠FBE = 85° + 20° = 105°
Now, ∠ABC + 2CBF = 180° [linear pair]
and ∠ABC + ∠ADC = 180° [opposite angles of cyclic quad.]
Thus, ∠ABC + ∠ADC = ∠ABC + 2CBF
⇒ ∠ADC = CBF
⇒ ∠ADC = 105° [∵ CBF = 105°]

Circles Class 9 Important Questions Question 3.
If the diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are diameters of the circle through the opposite vertices of the quadrilateral. Prove that the quadrilateral is a rectangle.
Solution:
Here, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AC and BD are diameters.

Since AC is a diameter.
∴ ∠ABC = ∠ADC = 90°
[∵ angle of a semicircle = 90°]
Also, BD is a diameter
∴ ∠BAD = ∠BCD = 90° [∵ angle of a semicircle = 90°]
Now, all the angles of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are 90 each.
Hence, ABCD is a rectangle.

Circle Extra Questions Class 9 Question 4.
Equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the centre.

Solution:
Given : In a circle C(O, r), chord AB = chord CD
To Prove : ∠AOB = ∠COD.
Proof : In ∆AOB and ∆COD
AO = CO (radii of same circle]
BO = DO [radii of same circle]
Chord AB = Chord CD (given]
⇒ ∆AOB = ACOD [by SSS congruence axiom]
⇒ ∠AOB = COD (c.p.c.t.]

Extra Questions For Class 9 Maths Circles With Solutions Question 5.
In the figure, chord AB of circle with centre O, is produced to Csuch that BC = OB. CO is joined and produced to meet the circle in D. If ∠ACD = y and ∠AOD = x, show that x = 3y.

Solution:
In AOBC, OB = BC
⇒ ∠BOC = ∠BCO = y [angles opp. to equal sides are equal]

∠OBA is the exterior angle of ∆BOC
So, ∠ABO = 2y [ext. angle is equal to the sum of int. opp. angles]
Similarly, ∠AOD is the exterior angle of ∆AOC
∴ x = 2y + y = 3y

Questions On Circles For Class 9 Question 6.
In the given figure, P is the centre of the circle. Prove that : ∠XPZ = 2(∠X∠Y + ∠YXZ).

Solution:
Arc XY subtends ∠XPY at the centre P and ∠XZY in the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠XPY = 2 (∠X∠Y)
Similarly, arc YZ subtends ∠YPZ at the centre P and ∠YXZ in the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠YPZ = 2(∠YXZ) ….(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
∠XPY + ∠YPZ = 2 (∠XZY + ∠YXZ)
∠XP2 = 2 (∠XZY + ∠YXZ)

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions With Solutions Pdf Question 1.
In the given figure, AB and CD are two equal chords of a circle with centre O. OP and OQ are perpendiculars on chords AB and CD respectively. If ∠POQ = 120°, find ∠ APQ.

Solution: Since
AB = CD
∴ OP = OQ [∵ equal chords are equidistant from the centre]
∠OPQ = ∠OQP:
[by using isosceles triangle property, angles opp. to equal sides of a ∆]
In APOQ, by using angle sum property, we have
∠OPQ + ∠OQP + ∠POQ = 180°
⇒ ∠OPQ + ∠OPQ + 120° = 180°
⇒ 2∠0PQ = 60°
⇒ ∠OPO = 30°
Now, ∠APQ + ∠OPQ = 90°
⇒ ∠APQ + 30° = 90°
⇒ ∠APQ = 90° – 30o = 60°
Hence, ∠APQ = 60°

Class 9 Circles Extra Questions Pdf Question 2.
Two circles whose centres are O and O’ intersect at P. Through P, a line parallel to OO’, intersecting the circles at C and D is drawn as shown in the figure. Prove that CD = 2OO’.

Solution:
Draw OA ⊥ CD and O’B ⊥ CD
Now, OA ⊥ CD
OA ⊥ CP
CA = AP = \(\frac{1}{2}\)CP
CP = 2AP ….(i)

Similarly, O’B ⊥ CD
O’B ⊥ PD
⇒ PB = BD = \(\frac{1}{2}\)PD
⇒ PD = 2PB
Also, CD = CP + PD
= 2AP + 2PB = 2(AP + PB) = 2AB
CD = 2OO’ [∵ OABO’ is a rectangle]

Ch 10 Maths Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A, B and C intersects (produce if necessary) at E. Prove that AE = AD.
Solution:

Given : ABCD is a parallelogram. Circle through A, B and C intersects CD produced in E.
To Prove: AE = AD
Proof : ABCE is a cyclic quadrilateral.
∴ ∠B + ∠E = 180° …(i)
ABCD is a parallelogram.
∴ ∠B = ∠1 … (ii)
Also, ∠1 + ∠2 = 180° [linear pair]
∠B + ∠2 = 180° …(iii) [using (ii)]
Now, from (i) and (iii), we have
∠B + ∠E = ∠B + ∠2
∠E = ∠2 In ∆DE, we have
∠E = ∠2
⇒ AD = AE [side opposite to equal angles of a A]

Circles Class 9 Questions With Solutions Question 4.
If two equal chords of a circle intersect within a circle, prove that the line segment joining the point of intersection to the centre makes equal angles with the chords.
Solution:

Join OP, draw OL ⊥ AB and OM ⊥ CD.
Thus, L and M are the mid-points of AB and CD respectively. Also, equal chords are equidistant from the centre.
∴ OL = OM
Now, in right-angled As OLP and OMP
OL = OM
OP = OP [common]
∠OLP = ∠OMP [each = 90°]
So, by RHS congruence axiom, we have
∆OLP ≅ ∆OMP
Hence, ∠OPL = ∠OPM [c.p.c.t.]

Class 9 Maths Ch 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
If two circles intersect in two points, prove that the line through their centres is the perpendicular bisector of the common chord.
Solution:

Given : Two circles Clo, r) and C(O’, s)intersect at P and Q.
To Prove : OO’ is perpendicular bisector of the chord PQ.
Const. : Join OP, OQ, O’P and O’Q
Proof : In ∆OPO’ and ∆OQO’
OP = OQ [radii of same circle]
OᏢ = QQ [radii of same circle]
OO’ = OO [common]
⇒ ∆OPO’ ≅ ∆OQO’ [by SSS congruence axiom]
⇒ ∠POM = ∠QOM [c.p.c.t.]
Now, in ∆POM and ∆QOM
OP = OQ
(radii of same circle]
∠POM = ∠OOM [proved above]
OM = OM [common]
∆POM ≅ ∆QOM [by SAS congruence axiom]
PM = QM and ∠PMO = ∠QMO [c.p.c.t.]
Also, ∠PMO+ ∠QMO = 180° [linear pair]
⇒ ∠PMO = ∠QMO = 90°
Hence, OO’ is the perpendicular bisector of the chord PQ.

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle of radius r сm, OP and OQ are perpendiculars to AB and CD respectively and PQ = 1cm. If AB || CD, AB = 6cm and CD = 8cm, determine r.

Solution:
Since the perpendicular drawn from the centre of the circle to a chord bisects the chord. Therefore, P and Q are mid-points of AB and CD respectively.
Consequently, AP = BP = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB = 3 cm
and CQ = QD = \(\frac{1}{2}\)CD = 4 cm
In right-angled AQAP, we have
OA² = OP² + AP²
r² = OP² + 3²
r² = OP² + 9
In right-angled ∆OCQ, we have
OC² = OQ² + CQ²
r² = OQ² + 4²
p² = OQ² + 16 … (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
OP² + 9 = OQ² + 16
OP² – OQ² = 16 – 9
x² – (x – 1)² = 16 -9 [where OP = x and PQ = 1 cm given]
x² – y² – 1 + 2x = 7
2x = 7 + 1
x = 4
⇒ OP = 4 cm
From (i), we have
r² = (4)² + 9
r² = 16 + 9 = 25
r = 5 cm

Question 2.
In a circle of radius 5 cm, AB and AC are two chords such that AB = AC = 6 cm, as shown in the figure. Find the length of the chord BC.

Solution:
Here, OA = OB = 5 cm [radii]
AB = AC = 6 cm
∴ B and C are equidistant from A.
∴ AO is the perpendicular bisector of chord BC and it intersect BC in M.
Now, in rt. ∠ed ∆AMB, M = 90° ….(i)
∴ By using Pythagoras Theorem, we have
BM² = AB² – AM²
= 36 – AM²
Also, in rt. ∠ed ∆BMO, ∠M = 90°
∴ By using Pythagoras Theorem, we have
BM² = BO² – MO² = 25 – (AO – AM)²
From (i) and (ii), we obtain
25 – (AO – AM)² = 36 – AM\(\frac{1}{2}\)
25 – AOC – AM² + 240 × AM = 36 – AM\(\frac{1}{2}\)
25 – 25 + 2 × 5 × AM = 36
10 AM = 36
AM = 3.6 cm
From (i), we have
BM² = 36 – (3.6)² = 36 – 12.96 = 23.04
BM = √23.04 = 4.8 cm
Thus, BC = 2 × BM
= 2 × 4.8 = 9.6 cm
Hence, the length of the chord BC is 9.6 cm.

Question 3.
In the given figure, AC is a diameter of the circle with centre O. Chord BD is perpendicular to AC. Write down the measures of angles a, b, c and d in terms of x.

Solution:
Here, AC is a diameter of the circle.
∴ ∠ADC = 90°
⇒ ∠a + ∠d = 90°
In right-angled ∆AED, ∠E = 90°
∴ ∠a + 2b = 90°
From (i) and (ii), we obtain
∠b = ∠d ….(iii)
Also, ∠a = ∠c … (iv)
[∠s subtended by the same segment are equal]
Now, ∠AOB and ∠ADB are angles subtended by an arc AB at the centre and at the remaining part of the circle.

Question 4.
Show that the quadrilateral formed by angle bisectors of a cyclic quadrilateral is also cyclic.

Solution:
Given : A cyclic quadrilateral ABCD in which AP, BP, CR and DR are the angle bisectors of ∠A, ∠B, 2C and ∠D respectively such that a quadrilateral PQRS is formed. To Prove: PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Proof : Since ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral.
∴ ∠A + 2C = 180° and ∠B + ∠D = 180°
Also, AP, BP, CR and DR are the angle bisectors of ∠A, ∠B, ∠C and ∠D respectively.

or ∠1 + ∠3 = 90°
and ∠2 + ∠4 = 90°
Now, in ∆APB, by angle sum property of a ∆
∠1 + ∠2 + ∠P = 180° … (iii)
Again, in ∆CRD, by angle sum property of a ∆
∠3 + ∠4 + ∠R = 180° …(iv)
Adding (iii) and (iv), we have
∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 + ∠P + ∠R = 180° + 180°
90° + 90° + ∠P + ∠R = 360° [using (ii)]
∠P + ∠R= 360° – 180° = 180°
i.e., the sum of one pair of the opposite angles of quadrilateral PQRS is 180°.
Hence, the quadrilateral PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral.

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
PQ and PR are the two chords of a circle of radius r. If the perpendiculars drawn from the centre of the circle to these chords are of lengths a and b, PQ = 2PR, then prove that:
\(b^{2}=\frac{a^{2}}{4}+\frac{3}{4} r^{2}\)
Solution:
In circle Clo, r), PQ and PR are two chords, draw OM I PQ, OL I PR, such that OM = a
and OL = b. Join OP. Since the perpendicular from the centre of the circle to the chord of the circle, bisects the chord.

Question 2.
Bisectors of angles A, B and C of triangle ABC intersect its circumcircle at D, E and F respectively. Prove that the angles of the ∠DEF are 90° – \(\frac{\angle A}{2}\), 90° – \(\frac{\angle B}{2}\) and 90° – \(\frac{\angle C}{2}\) respectively.
Solution:

Let ∠BAD = x, ∠ABE = y
and ∠ACF = 2, then
∠CAD = x, ∠CBE = y
and ∠BCF = 2 [AD, BE and CF is bisector of ∠A, ∠B and ∠C]
In ∆BC,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
⇒ 2x + 2y + 2Z = 180°
or x + y + Z = 90° …(i)
Now, ∠ADE = ∠ABE
and ∠ADF = ∠ACF [angles in the same segment of a circle]
⇒ ∠ADE = y and ∠ADF = Z
⇒ ∠ADE + ∠ADF = y + Z
or ∠D = y + Z …(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
x + 2D = 90°
⇒ ∠D = 90° – x

Circles Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
A small cottage industry employing people from a nearby slum area prepares round table cloths having six equal designs in the six segment formed by equal chords AB, BC, CD, DE, EF and FA. If O is the centre of round table cloth (see figure). Find ∠AOB, ∠AEB and ∠AFB. What value is depicted through this question ?

Solution:
Since six equal designs in the six segment formed by equal chords AB, BC, CD, DE, EF and FA.
Therefore, we have six equilateral triangles as shown in the figure. Since ∆AOB, ∆BOC, ∆COD, ∆DOE, ∆EOF
∴ Each angle is equal to 60°.

∠AOB = 60°
∠AOB, ∠AEB and ∠AFB are angles subtended by an arc AB at the FK centre and at the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠AEB = ∠AFB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠AOB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 60° = 30°
Thus, ∠AEB = ∠AFB = 30°
Value depicted : By employing people from a slum area to prepare round table clothes reali∠e their social responsibility to work for helping the ones in need.

Question 2.
A circular park of radius 10 m is situated in a colony. Three students Ashok, Raman and Kanaihya are standing at equal distances on its circumference each having a toy telephone in his hands to talk each other about Honesty, Peace and Discipline.
(i) Find the length of the string of each phone.
(ii) Write the role of discipline in students’ life.
Solution:
(i) Let us assume A, B and C be the positions of three students Ashok, Raman and Kanaihya
respectively on the circumference of the circular park with centre O and radius 10 m. Since the centre of circle coincides with the centroid of the equilateral ∆ABC.

Thus, the length of each string is 10√3 m.
(ii) In students’ life, discipline is necessary. It motivates as well as nurture the students to make him a responsible citizen.

Here we are providing Online Education for Weathering the Storm in Ersama Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Moments, Extra Questions for Class 9 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-english/

Online Education for Weathering the Storm in Ersama Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Moments

Weathering the Storm in Ersama Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why had Prashant gone to Ersama? What happened there?
Answer:
He had gone to Ersama to spend a day with a friend. He was caught in a terrible cyclonic storm, the likes of which he had never been a witness to.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Describe the storm that hit Ersama on the 27th of October, 1999?
Answer:
It was a dark and menacing storm which had a terrific wind velocity of 350kms/hr. It was accompanied by heavy and incessant rain flooding the whole area.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Questions Question 3.
How long did the cyclone last? How did Prashant and his friend’s family spend the stormy night?
Answer:
The cyclone continued for almost thirty six hours. They spent the night sitting on the roof of the house in the open, because water had filled into the house.

Extra Questions Of Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 4.
How was his friend’s family luckier than the rest of the villagers?
Answer:
His friend’s family had a strong house made of brick and mortar which was able to withstand the fury of the wind, even though coconut trees had fallen onto the roof, damaging it. However, these trees provided the family with food till they were rescued.

Weathering Storm In Ersama Extra Questions Question 5.
Describe the scene that met Prashant’s horrified eyes in the morning at Ersama?
Answer:
It was a devastating sight. A raging, deadly brown sheet of water covered everything as far as the eye could see. Only a few fractured cement houses still stood. Bloated human corpses and animal carcasses floated in every direction.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Short Questions And Answers Question 6.
How long did Prashant stay at his friend’s house? What were the thoughts that kept disturbing him?
Answer:
He stayed at his friend’s house for two more days. The only thought that kept disturbing him was whether his family had survived the calamity or if he was going to lose his loved ones once again.

Class 9 Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Questions Question 7.
Why did the two days seem like two years to Prashant?
Answer:
As he sat on the rooftop of his friend’s damaged house, unable to venture back home through the rain and flooded roads, he felt helpless and worried about his family back in his village. He was so keen to return to them that the two days seemed like two years to him.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Important Questions Question 8.
What made Prashant venture out from the safety of his friend’s house in the dangerous situation?
Answer:
Prashant was worried that his family may have been swept away in his village, and he was determined to find out what had happened to them without any further delay.

Extra Questions On Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 9.
How did Prashant prepare himself for the long trek home?
Answer:
He took a sturdy stick and then started on his eighteen kilometre long expedition back to his village, wading through the swollen flood waters.

Class 9 English Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Questions Question 10.
What were the dangers faced by Prashant on his way back to his village? How did he face them?
Answer:
The whole path back to his village was under water. He used his stick to determine the shallow parts that he could walk on. At places, he had to wade through waist deep water.

Extra Question Answer Of Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 11.
What did Prashant see on his way back home?
Answer:
He saw a number of dead bodies of humans and animals floating in the flood water. He also saw that several villages had been entirely destroyed, where not even a single house remained standing.

Extra Questions From Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 12.
Why did Prashant’s heart sink on reaching his village?
Answer:
His heart sank on seeing the extent of damage that his village had sustained. He saw only the remains of the roof of his house in place of the house. Some of the family belongings were caught in the nearby branches of trees. His family was nowhere to be seen.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extract Based Questions Question 13.
Where did Prashant go to look for his family? Who did he spot first?
Answer:
Prashant went to the Red Cross shelter to look for his family. He spotted his grandmother first.

Extra Questions Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 14.
Why did his grandmother rush towards Prashant?
Answer:
She rushed towards him out of joy at seeing him alive. She considered it a miracle that he was safe and sound and had been restored to the family.

Extra Questions For Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 15.
Who were the family members that Prashant found at the shelter?
Answer:
He found his grandmother, his brother, sister, his uncles and aunts at the shelter.

Class 9 English Moments Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 16.
What was the extent of damage caused by the storm in Prashant’s village?
Answer:
Eighty six lives had been lost in the village, and ninety six houses had been washed away in the village.

Weathering The Storm Of Ersama Extra Questions Question 17.
Why did Prashant decide to step in and lead the villagers?
Answer:
Prashant realised that the people at the shelter were being engulfed by a deathly grief and there wasn’t enough food for the survivors. He also realised that someone had to show the people a way out of the situation and gain control over their feelings and emotions.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Weathering The Storm In Ersama Question 18.
What was the first successful mission organised by the group of villagers under Prashant’s leadership?
Answer:
The first mission was to pressurise the village merchant to part with his rice so that the hungry villagers could be fed.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Questions Answers Question 19.
After feeding the survivors, what was the next task organised and fulfilled by Prashant?
Answer:
He organised a team of volunteers to clean the shelter of filth, urine, vomit and floating carcasses, and to take care of the wounds nad fractures of the many who had been injured.

Weathering The Storm In Ersama Extra Question Answer Question20.
What was the event that took place on the fourth day at the camp?
Answer:
On this day, a military helicopter flew over the shelter and dropped some food parcels on the ground close to the shelter.

Question 21.
Why did Prashant ask the children to lie on the sand with utensils on their stomachs?
Answer:
He did this so that the helicopter pilots would see them and drop down the food packets for them.

Question 22.
How did Prashant help the orphaned children?
Answer:
He brought them together and put up a polythene sheet shelter for them. Women were mobilised to look after them while the men got food and materials to build the shelter.

Question 23.
How did Prashant help the women to overcome their grief?
Answer:
He did this by persuading them to start working in the food-for-work programme started by an NGO.

Question 24.
Why was Prashant not keen to send the orphans and widows to government institutions?
Answer:
He was against this idea as he felt that in such institutions, children would grow up without love, and widows would suffer from stigma and loneliness.

Question 25.
How did Prashant’s wounded spirit heal?
Answer:
It healed because he was so busy making sure that the victims were taken care of by various government agencies and NGOs that he had no time to worry about his own loss and pain.

Weathering the Storm in Ersama Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What havoc had the super cyclone wrecked in the lives of the people of Orissa?
Answer:
The super cyclone caused great damage and destruction, leaving hundreds of men, women, children and animals dead or injured. It blew away houses, brought down trees and wiped out entire villages. The whole area was submerged in water. Family members were separated and it left behind many orphans and widows. In addition, people had to go without food for days together.

Question 2.
How has Prashant, a teenager, been able to help the people of his village?
Answer:
Prashant took over the responsibility of leading the village. He was instrumental in organising the survivors into groups to cook, clean, and rebuild the village from scratch. He supervised the building of shelters and made sure that people who were wounded and injured received adequate medical help.

He also made sure that the orphans and widows were not packed off to impersonal foster care at government institutions, but resettled them in their own community, in new foster families made up of widows taking care of the orphans. He also organised cricket matches and other sports events to bring some joy into the lives of the children and persuaded the women to work in the food-for-work programme started by an NGO.

Question 3.
How did the people of the community help one another? What role did the women of Kalikuda play during these days?
Answer:
First of all, they worked as a team under the leadership of Prashant. They helped him in pressurising the local merchant to part with rice to feed the survivors. They cooked food by collecting branches from fallen trees. They cleaned the shelter of filth, urine, vomit and floating carcasses and took care of the people with wounds and injuries. They also helped to create new foster families made up of childless widows and children without adult care. The women also worked with an NGO in their food-for-work programme.

Question 4.
Why did Prashant and the other volunteers resist the plan to set up institutions for orphans and widows? What alternatives did they consider?
Answer:
Prashant and the other volunteers were aware of the stigma attached to being sent to the government institutions, and the loneliness that the widows would have to suffer there. Similarly, the orphans would have to live a life away from their roots, at the mercy of people who would not be sensitive to their emotional needs. To solve this problem, they came up with the brilliant idea of creating foster families where the childless widows would care for the orphaned children, thereby fulfilling their mutual emotional needs.

Question 5.
Do you think Prashant is a good leader? Do you think young people can get together to help people during natural calamities?
Answer:
Undoubtedly, Prashant is a born leader, which he proves by helping the people of Kalikuda village. He helps them to literally rise from the debris of a super cyclonic storm that had almost wiped out the whole village. He leads by example, selflessly identifying the most urgent needs and working to fulfil them. In the process, he puts aside his own grief and suffering, in trying to find relief and help for the other survivors.

He gauges the falling spirits of the village people and gets them to work manually to remove the debris, rebuild structures, and ensure that the people get something to eat. In a bid to help his people, he even forgets about his own loss, pain and grief. He finds a brilliant solution for the care of those left widowed or orphaned, by creating foster families with childless widows looking after orphaned children. From his example, we can see that it is possible for young people to work together and make a huge difference to the entire community in situations like natural calamities.

Online Education In this page, we are providing Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 11 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work, Power And Energy with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams.

Online Education for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers Work, Power And Energy

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work, Power And Energy with Answers Solutions

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Work And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define the following terms.
(a) Work was done
(b) Energy
(c) Mechanical energy
(d) Kinetic energy
(e) Potential energy
(f) Power
(g) Commercial unit of energy.
Answer:
(a) Work done: Work done by a force acting on an object is equal to the magnitude of the force multiplied by the distance moved in the direction of the force.
(b) Energy: Energy of a body is defined as the capacity or ability of the body to do work.
(c) Mechanical energy: Mechanical energy includes kinetic energy and potential energy.
(d) Kinetic energy: The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion.
(e) Potential energy: The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration.
(f) Power: Power is defined as the rate of doing work or the rate of transfer of energy.
(g) Commercial unit of energy: The energy used in households, industries, and commercial establishment are usually expressed in kilowatt-hour.
1 kWh 1 unit = 3.6 x 10⁶J

Work And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Numericals Question 2.
Write down the type of energy stored in
(a) spring of a watch
(b) flowing water
(c) rolling stone
(d) raised hammer
(e) running athlete
Answer:
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) kinetic energy
(d) potential energy
(e) kinetic energy.

Work And Energy Class 9 Important Questions And Answers Question 3.
What will be the kinetic energy of a body when its mass is made four-time and the velocity is doubled?
Answer:
Initial kinetic energy,
\(E_{K_{i}}=\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)
Final kinetic energy,
\(E_{K_{f}}=\frac{1}{2}(4 m) \times(2 v)^{2}\)
= 16 x \(\frac {1}{2}\)mυ²
\(E_{K_{f}}=16 E_{K_{i}}\)

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 4.
If we lift a body of 7 kg vertically upwards to a height of 10 m, calculate the work done in lifting the body.
Answer:
Given, m = 7 kg
s = 10m
Workdone, W = F x s
E = mg x s
W = 7 x 10 x 10 J
w = 7000 J

Class 9 Work And Energy Extra Questions Question 5.
State the transformation of energy that takes place when

• Green plants prepare their food.
• Head of a nail hammered hard and it becomes hot.

Answer:

• Solar energy of sun into chemical energy.
• The kinetic energy of the hammer into heat energy.

Extra Questions Of Work And Energy Class 9 Question 6.
How much work is done by a man who tries to push the wall of a house but fails to do so?
Answer:
W = Fs = 0
As there is no displacement.

Work And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Establish a relationship between SI unit and commercial unit of energy.
Answer:
SI unit of energy is joule and the commercial unit of energy is the joule.
1kWh = 1000 W x 3600 s = 3.6 x 10⁶J

Questions On Work Energy And Power For Class 9 Question 8.
Write down the energy transformation taking place
(a) In electric bulb
(b) In torch
(c) In the thermal power station
(d) In solar cell
(e) Electric heater
Answer:
(a) Electricity into light energy
(b) The chemical energy of the cell into light and heat energy
(c) The chemical energy of fuel into electricity
(d) Solar energy into electricity
(e) Electricity into heat energy.

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
A body of mass m is moving in a circular path of radius r. How much work is done on the body?
Answer:
Zero. This is because the centripetal force acting on the body is perpendicular to the displacement of the body.

Extra Questions On Work And Energy Class 9 Question 10.
A horse of mass 200 kg and a dog of mass 20 kg are running at the same speed. Which of the two possesses more kinetic energy? How?
Answer:
The kinetic energy of the horse is more as kinetic energy is directly proportional to mass.

Class 9 Science Ch 11 Extra Questions Question 11.
What is the condition for work done to be positive?
Answer:
For positive work, the angle between force and displacement should be acute.

Class 9 Science Work And Energy Extra Questions Question 12.
Write down the relation between kinetic energy and momentum of a body.
Answer:
\(E_{K}=\frac{p^{2}}{2 m}\)
E_k = kinetic energy of a body
p = momentum of the body
m = mass of the body.

Work Energy And Power Class 9 Extra Questions Question 13.
A cyclist comes to a skidding stop at 50 m. During this process, the force on the cycle due to the road is 1000 N and is directed opposite to the motion. How much work does the road do on the cycle?
Answer:
Given,
Displacement, s = 50 m
Force, F = – 1000 N
Workdone, W = F x s
W = -1000 x 50J
W = 50000J

Class 9 Physics Work And Energy Extra Questions Question 14.
A boy pushes a book by applying a force of 40 N. Find the work done by this force as the book is displaced through 25 cm along the path.
Answer:
Given, Force (F) = 40 N
Displacement (s) = 25 cm = x 10^-2 m
Workdone, W = F x s
= 40 x 25 x 10^-2
= 10J
∴ W = 10J

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Work And Energy Class 9 Questions Question 1.
State law of conservation of energy and law of conservation of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy: Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can only be transformed from one form to another.
Conservation of mechanical energy: If there is no energy, then the mechanical energy of a system is always constant.

Work And Energy Class 9 Important Questions Question 2.
Define (a) 1 joule (b) 1 watt.
Answer:
(a) 1 joule is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 N displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the force.
(b) 1 watt is the power of an agent, which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second.

Ch 11 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
Write down SI unit of the following quantities.
(a) work
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) power
Answer:
(a) joule (J)
(b) joule (J)
(c) joule (J)
(d) watt (W).

Work And Energy Class 9 Extra Numericals Question 4.
What is the sequence of energy change that takes place in the production of electricity from adam?
Answer:
The potential energy of stored water is converted into the rotational kinetic energy of turbine blades. The rotational kinetic energy of turbine blades is finally converted into electric energy by the generator.

Work Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Question 5.
A light and a heavy object have the same momentum. Find out the ratio of their kinetic energies. Which one has larger kinetic energy?
Answer:
The relation between kinetic energy and momentum
Given,

Question 6.
Why a man does not do work when he moves on a level road while carrying a box on his head?
Answer:
When a man carries a load on his head, the angle between displacement (s) and force (F) is 900. Therefore work done is zero.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Numericals

Question 7.
If an electric iron of 1200 W is used for 30 minutes every day, find electric energy consumed in the month of April.
Answer:
Given,
Power, P = 1200 W
time, t = 30 minutes
Power, p = \(\frac {W}{t}\) = \(\frac {E}{t}\)
E = P x t
Energy consumed, E = 1200 x 30 x 60
= 2.16 x 10⁶J = 2.16MJ

Question 8.
What is work done by a force of gravity in the following cases?
(a) Satellite moving around the Earth in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km.
(b) A stone of mass 250 g is thrown up through a height of 2.5 m.
Answer:
(a) Zero
(b) Given,
mass (m) = 250 g = 0.25 kg
height (h) = 2.5 m
Workdone, W = Fs = mgh
= 0.25 x 10 x 2.5
= 6.25 J
W = 625 J

Question 9.
A car and a truck have kinetic energies of 8 x 10 J and 9 x 10 J respectively. If they are brought to a halt at the same distance, find the ratio of the force applied to both the vehicles.
Answer:
Given,
Kinetic energy of car, \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 8 x 10 J
Kinetic energy of truck, \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 9 x 10 J
W = Fs
Work done,

Question 10.
A bus of mass 10,000 kg is moving with a velocity 90 km/h. Calculate the work done to stop this bus.
Answer:
Given,
mass of object, m = 1000 kg
Initial velocity of object, u = 90 km/h

= 25 m/s
Work done = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mυ² – \(\frac {1}{2}\) mu² = 0 – \(\frac {1}{2}\) x 10000 x (25)² = 312.5 x 10⁴ J

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is inereásed by applying constant force F, for some distance in the direction of motion. Prove that the increase ¡n the kinetic energy of the body is equal to the work done by the force on the body.
Answer:
Let us consider an object lying on a frictionless surface having mass ‘m’.

A force of constant magnitude ‘F’ is acting on the body. Here initial velocity of the body is u and the final velocity is u. As there is no dissipative forces, work on the body will be stored in the form of a change in kinetic energy. It can be proved as
W = Fs …………(1)
and hence from the equation of motion
υ² – u² = 2as
s = \(\frac{v^{2}-u^{2}}{2 a}\) ………….(2)
Asweknowthat F = ma
Using (1), (2) and (3),
W = ma x \(\frac{v^{2}-u^{2}}{2 a}\)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) m (υ² – u²)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\)mυ² – \(\frac {1}{2}\)mu²
= change in kinetic energy

Question 2.
Derive an expression for potential energy. Write Its SI unit.
Answer:
When work is done on the body, the work is stored in the form of energy. Consider an object of mass, m. Let it be raised through a height, h from the ground. A force is required to do this. The minimum force required to raise the object is equal to the weight of the object, mg. The object gains energy equal to the work done on it. Let the work done on the object against gravity h be W.
i.e., W = force x displacement = mgh

Since work done on the object is equal to mgh, an energy equal to mgh units is gained by the object. This is the potential energy (E_p) of the object.
∴ E_p = mgh
SI unit of potential energy is the joule (J).

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Numericals

Question 3.
A girl having a mass of 35 kg sits on a trolley of mass 5 kg. The trolley is given an initial velocity of 4 ms1 by applying a force. The trolley comes to rest after traversing a distance of 16 m.
(a) How much work is done on the trolley?
(b) How much work is done by the girl?
Answer:
Given, mass of girl, m = 35 kg
mass of trolley, m = 5 kg.
initial velocity of trolley, u = 4 m/s

(a) using work done = change in kinetic energy
W = \(E_{K_{f}}-E_{K_{i}}\)
= o – \(\frac {1}{2}\) x 40 x (4)² = – 320
∴ W = 320 J_J
(b) Work done by the girl = 0.

Question 4.
Express kilowatt in terms of joule per second. A 150 kg car engine develops 500 W for each kg. What forces does it exert in moving the car at a speed of 20 ms^-1?
Answer:
1 kW = iooo w = 10³ J/S
Given, mass (m) = 150 kg
power (P) = 500 W
velocity (u) = 20 m/s
Using P = Fυ
or, 500 = F x 20
= F =\(\frac {500}{20}\) = 25
F= 25 N

Question 5.
How is the power related to the speed at which a body can be lifted? How many kilogrims will a man working at the power of 100 W, be able to lift at constant speed of 1 mr1 vertically? (g = 10 ms^-2)
Answer:
We know that,

or, p = \(\frac {F.s}{t}\) P = Fυ = mg.υ [F = mg]
where, F = force
s = displacement
υ = velocity
t = time
Given,
power (P) = 100 W
velocity (υ) = 1 m/s
g = 10 m/s²
or, 100 = m x 10 x 1
∴ m = 10 kg

Question 6.
A car of mass 2000 kg is lifted up a distance of 30 m by a crane in 1 minute. A second crane does the same job in 2 minutes. What is the power applied by each crane?
Answer:
Given, mass of the car to be lifted, m = 2000 kg
height through which the car is to be lifted, h = 30 m
Time taken by first crane, t₁ = 1 minute = 60 s
time taken by second crane, t₁ = 2 minutes = 120 s
Amount of work done by each crane,
W = mgh = 2000 x 10 x 30 J
W= 6 x 10⁶ J
Power of first crane, ‘
P₁ = \(\frac{W_{1}}{t_{1}}=\frac{6 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{J}}{60 \mathrm{s}}\) = 10kW
Power of second crane
P₂ = \(\frac{W_{2}}{t_{2}}=\frac{6 \times 10^{5} \mathrm{J}}{120 \mathrm{s}}\) = 10kW

Question 7.
Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of June, if 6 bulbs of 100 W for5 hours, 4 tube lights of 60 W for 5 hours, a TV of 50 W for 6 hours are used per day. The cost per unit is ₹ 5.
Answer:
Total energy used in a day = (6 x 100 x 5 + 4 x 60 x 5 + 1 x 50 x 6) Wh
= (3000+ 1200 +300)Wh = 4500 Wh
Total energy = 4.5 kWh = 4.5 unit
Total energy used in 30 days = 4.5 x 30 = 135 units
Bill amount = 135 units x ₹ 5 unit = ₹ 675.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
State the conditions for positive, negative, and zero work. Give at least one example of each.
Answer:
1. Zero work: If the angle between force and displacement is 90°, then work done is said to be zero work.
Example: When a man carries a load on his head and moves on a level road. Work done by the man on the load is zero.

2. Positive work: Work done is said to be positive if the force applied on an object and displacement are in the same direction.
W = Fs

Example: Work done by the force of gravity on a falling body is positive.
3. Negative work: Work done is said to be negative if the applied force on an object and displacement is in opposite direction.
W = -Fs
Her displacement is taken to be negative (- s).

Example: Work done by friction force applied is negative on a moving body.

Question 2.
Give a reason for the following:
(a) A bullet is released on firing the pistol.
(b) An arrow moves forward when released from the stretched bow.
(c) Winding the spring of a toy car makes it to run on the ground.
(d) Falling water from a dam generates electricity.
(e) Winding the spring of our watch, the hands of the watch movement.
Answer:
(a) The chemical energy of gun powder is converted into kinetic energy of the bullet.
(b) The elastic potential energy in a stretched bow is converted into kinetic energy of the arrow.
(c) The potential energy of a spring is converted into kinetic energy of the toy.
(d) The kinetic energy of water is converted into electric energy.
(e) The potential energy of spring due to its windings is converted into mechanical energy of the watch.

Question 3.
State the law of conservation of energy. Show that the energy of a freely falling body is conserved.
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can only be transformed ‘ m A from one form to another. The total energy before and after the transformation always remains constant.
Let us consider an object of mass ‘m’ dropped from a height h.
Total energy at point A

\(E_{T_{A}}=E_{K}+E_{P}\)
or, \(E_{T_{A}}=0+m g h\)
∴ \(E_{T_{A}}=m g h\)
Total energy at point B,
\(E_{T_{B}}=E_{T}+E_{p}\)
For finding out velocity at point B
apply υ² – u² = 2as
\(v_{\mathrm{B}}^{2}=2 g h\) = 2gh
Hence, \(E_{T_{B}}=\frac{1}{2} m \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{B}}^{2}+m g\)
\(E_{T_{B}}=\frac{1}{2} m(2 g h)=m g h\)
Here, \(E_{T_{A}}=E_{T_{B}}\)
Hence if there is no energy loss, total energy is conserved.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
A running man has half the kinetic energy that a body of half of his mass has. The man speeds up by 1 m/s and then has the same kinetic energy as the boy. What are the original speeds of the man and the boy?
Answer:
Let us take
mass of boy = m
mass of man = M
velocity of boy = u
velocity of man = υ
Here, m = \(\frac {M}{2}\)
Initially
E_Kof man = \(\frac {1}{2}\) E_K of boy
\(\frac {1}{2}\) Mυ² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mu² x \(\frac {1}{2}\)
and \(\frac {1}{2}\) Mυ² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{M}{2}\right) u^{2} \times \frac{1}{2}\)
∴ υ² = \(\frac{u^{2}}{4}\) ………….(1)

Finally
E_K of man = E_K of boy
\(\frac {1}{2}\)M(υ +1)² = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mu²
\(\frac {1}{2}\)M(υ +1)² = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{M}{2}\right) u^{2}\)
(υ +1)² = \(\frac{u^{2}}{2}\)
∴ υ +1 = \(\frac{u}{\sqrt{2}}\) …………(2)
υ = \({\sqrt{2}}\) + 1 = 2.41 m/s
and u = 4.82 m/s

Question 2.
Avinash can run with a speed of 8 m/s against the frictional force of 10 N, and Kapil can move with a speed of 3 m/s against the frictional force of 25 N. Who is more powerful and why?
Answer:
Power can be expressed as, P = Fu
Power of Avinash, P = Fu = 10 x 8 = 80 W
Power of Kapil, P = Fu = 25 x 3 = 75 W
Avinash is more powerful than Kapil.

Question 3.
The weight of a person on a planet A is about half that on the earth. He can jump up to 0.4 m height on the surface of the earth. How high can he can jump on planet A?
Answer:
For the case, of jump, the energy imparted by the person is converted into potential energy,
Hence,
(m_Ag_A)h_A = (m_eg_e)h_e ………(1)
Given, m_Ag_A = \(\frac{m_{e} g_{e}}{2}\) ………….(2)
Using (1) and (2),
\(\frac{h_{\mathrm{A}}}{2}=h_{e}\)
∴ h_A = 2h_e = 2 x 0.4 = 0.8m

Question 4.
A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of the bal] is reduced by 40% after striking the ground, how much high can the ball bounce back? (g 10 m/s²)
Answer:
Given,
height, h = 10
If the energy of the ball is reduced by 40%, the remaining energy of the ball is 60% of initial.
Hence ball will rebound to 60% of the initial height
h = \(\frac {60}{100}\) x 10 m
∴ h = 6m

Question 5.
Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it. Without raising or lowering it
(a) How much work is done by men in lifting the box?
(b) How much work they do in just holding it?
Answer:
Given, mass of block, m = 250 kg
height, h = 1 m
(a) work done in lifting,
W = Fs = mgh = 250 x 10 x 1
W = 2500 J
(b) work done in holding, W = 0

Question 6.
What is power? How do you differentiate kilowatt from kilowatt-hour? The Jog falls in Karnataka state are nearly 20 m high. 2000 tonnes of water falls from it in a minute. Calculate the equivalent power if all this energy can be utilized. (g = 10 ms^-2)
Answer:
1. Power is rate of doing work.
2. Kilowatt is the unit of power and kilowatt-hour is unit of energy.
3. Given, height, h = 20 m
Mass per unit time,
m/t = 2000 tonnes per minutes = \(\frac{2000 \times 10^{3}}{60}\) kg/s
Power P = \(\frac{W}{t}=\frac{m g h}{t}=\frac{2000 \times 10^{3}}{60}\) = 10 x 20
∴ P = 6.67 x 10⁶ W = 6.67 MW

Question 7.
What happens to the kinetic energy when:
1.  the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity?
2. the velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass?
3. the mass of the body is doubled but velocity is reduced to one fourth?
Answer:
1. The kinetic energy of body is given by,
E_k = \(\frac {1}{2}\) mυ⁶, E_k ∝ m. If the mass of the body is doubled its kinetic energy is also doubled.

2. Kinetic energy, E_k ∝ u²
If velocity of the body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes four times.

3. Initial kinetic energy,
\(E_{K_{i}}\)= \(\frac {1}{2}\) mu²
Final kinetic energy,
\(E_{K_{f}}\) = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(2m) \(\left(\frac{v}{4}\right)^{2}=\frac{m v^{2}}{16}\)
Kinetic Energy becomes one eighth.

Question 8.
Why is the water at the bottom of a waterfall warmer than the water on the top?
Answer:
When waterfalls, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy of molecules, and the kinetic energy of molecules is converted into heat energy.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
Aman is a student of class IX. He saw an old man trying to keep his box on the roof of a bus but was unable to do so. Aman picked up his box and placed the box on the roof of the bus.
The old man thanked Aman.
Answer the following questions based on the given paragraph:

• Is the work done by Aman while placing the box on the roof of the bus positive or negative?
• Is the work done by gravity on the box positive or negative?
• What values are shown by Aman?

Answer:

• Positive
• Negative
• Aman is a kind and helpful person.

Question 2.
In the winter season, John gifted an electric heater to his grandfather. The electric heater uses electricity to increase room temperature.
Answer the following questions based on the above paragraph:

• Write down the energy transformation in the electric heater.
• What values are shown by John?

Answer:

• Electric heater converts electricity into heat energy.
• John is an intelligent and caring person.

Question 3.
The government of a state decided to construct dams on the river for power generation. Nowadays the demand of electricity is continuously increasing and therefore more generation is required.
Answer the following questions based on the above paragraph:
(a) Write down the type of energy conversion is taking place in dams.
(b) Write down the values shown by the state government.
Answer:
(a) The potential energy of stored water is converted into electricity.
(b) The state government is working efficiently and showing good governance.