Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Mention another measure taken by the Supreme Court in this regard. (2)
Answer:
The Supreme Court has made it mandatory for every candidate contesting elections to file an affidavit giving details of the immovable and movable assets possessed by him and the criminal cases pending against him.

Related Theory:
An affidavit is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information. It has to be signed by a notarised offcer.

Question 2.
What are feature films? Which organization certifies both Indian and foreign feature films in India? (2)
Answer:
A feature film or feature-length film is a narrative film which is a principal or sole presentation in a commercial entertainment program.
The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign feature films.

Related Theory:
In Film certification, the authority certifies and ensures that nothing which is obscene and instigative is portrayed on the screen. It also ensures that no film instigates sedition or anything anti-state.

Question 3.
Read the given data and answer the following questions.
35 year old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in the garment export industry of Delhi. She was employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to health insurance, provident fund, overtime at a double rate, when Sushila’s factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she finally got a job 30 km away, away from where she lives. Even after working in this factory for several years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier. Sushila leaves her house every morning, seven days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from work means no wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to her home have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less.
(A) Which sector does Sushila as a “permanent worker” belong to? (1)
Answer:
Sushila belongs to an organised sector as a worker because the terms of her employment are all permanent and resemble employment of organised sector.

(B) What can you comment upon the state of labour laws in the region/state where Sushila works? (1)
Answer:
The labour laws seem loose and weak. They are not enforced or enforced very . weakly because Sushila does not get any wages for leaves, has no provisions for minimum wages and has to work for really long hours.

Caution:
For data based questions, it would be easier for the students to read the source multiple times and underline important points- any points that help solve the questions directly or indirectly.

Question 4.
Who was Natesa Shastri? What was Natesa Shastri’s belief about Indian folklore? (2)
Answer:
Natesa Shastri was the publisher of the famous Tamil folk tales, The Folklore of Southern India. Natesa Shastri believed that Indian folklore was national literature and the true manifestation of Indian people’s real thoughts and beliefs.

Related Theory:
The published a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales in Madras which encouraged people to realize the importance of their nationality. As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.

Question 5.
Which institution mediates between the borrowers and the lenders? (2)
Answer:
Banks mediate between borrowers who are in need of money and lenders who have surplus money and deposit it in the bank to earn some interest. Banks become a mediator and facilitate depositing and loaning money.

Related Theory:
People who have surplus money deposit that in banks in their accounts. Borrowers are loaned this surplus money deposited by people and the banks invest the rest to earn profits.

SECTION – B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. Do you agree? Justify.
OR
Credit plays a positive role in the lives of people. Do you agree? Elaborate your stand. (3)
Answer:
Yes, globalisation and greater competition among producers has definitely been of advantage to consumers particularly the well- off sections in the urban areas.

• Globalisation has facilitated greater choice before consumers who enjoy improved quality for several products.
• Globalisation has also made it possible for consumers to buy products made alL over the world at one click or tap.
• It has integrated markets everywhere and hence prices of products have become competitive and more affordable for the consumers.

OR

Credit does play a very positive role in the lives of the people.

• When a trader obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production, he meets the ongoing expenses of production and pays back the loan with the profits.
• Credit helps factory owners complete production on time and thereby increase their earnings.
• When farmers get cheap loans before the sowing seasons, they are able to buy better equipment, fertilizers and pesticides and earn more profits. Thus, credit plays a positive role in the lives of people.

Question 7.
Gandhi believed that one way to integrate Muslims in the Indian national movement was to take up the Khilafat issue. Highlight why the Khilafat issue was so important to the Muslims? (3)
Answer:
Khilafat issue was a movement in defence of Khalifa’s temporal powers. Khalifa or the Caliph was the ruler of Turkey and also the spiritual head of the Islamic world. During the first world war, Britain was fighting from the enemy side and after winning, threatened to impose a treaty on him which would cause essential loss to his authority and freedom. To Muslims, this treaty was almost an attack on their religion. They were extremely sensitive to this and thus began this movement.

Question 8.
This party was formed in 1925. Believes in Marxism-Leninism, secularism and democracy. Identify the political party through the given hints and enumerate its features. (3)
Answer:
This party is the Communist Party of India. The following are its features:

• The CPI is opposed to the forces of secessionism and communalism.
• It wants to promote the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.
• After a split in this party in 1964, CPI(M) was formed.

SECTION – C [2 × 5 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
How is a democratic government also a responsive government? Explain with an example.
OR
What brought various groups and classes of Indians together in a freedom struggle? (5)
Answer:
Democracy produces an accountable government in the following ways:

• It provides regular, free and fair elections.
• It facilitates open public debate on major policies and legislations.
• It gives citizens the right to information about the activities and decisions of the government.
• Democracy produces a responsive government because it is formed by the representatives chosen by the people. They implement these policies and programmes according to the opinions of the people.
• This government is also accountable to the people who elect it. They can always change their decisions in the next elections if the representatives do not work according to them.

OR

Multiple factors brought various groups and classes of Indians together in a freedom struggle:

• A growing anger against the colonial government brought together Indians from various castes, classes and sects.
• Rediscovery of India’s past and glorious retelling of its achievements brought people closer to each other.
• The British brought India under one system of administration and regulation. Every citizen was equally affected by their discriminatory policies.
• Western educated Indians learned the importance of equality and unity after studying various revolutions.
• They spread awareness values of equality, unity and justice among others which brought a lot of people together.

Question 10.
Mention the steps to reduce industrial pollution of fresh water.
OR
Why is it necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending in rural areas? Explain. (5)
Answer:
The steps to reduce industrial pollution of freshwater are as follows:

• By minimising the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in various stages.
• Rainwater harvesting
• Treatment of hot water and effluents before disposing them off in rivers and ponds.
• Treatment of industrial effluents in multiple steps should be done to reduce harmful effects.
• Recycling of wastewater is another measure.

OR

Banks and cooperatives should increase their lending in rural areas because of the following factors:

• India largely depends on agriculture for earning foreign exchanges. Farmers and agricultural workers in rural areas need more money and special attention to invest in their work.
• Most of the people in rural areas are illiterate. They are exploited by informal lenders for their benefit. A reliable source of credit is extremely necessary as it prevents them from falling into debt traps.
• Most loans from informal lenders carry very high interest rates and do not add to the income of the borrowers.
• Banks and co-operative societies provide loans to the rural households and help them boost their income. Incentives are also given to farmers for quick repayment. This makes them financially wise.
• For better crop production, easy credit is required.

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets. The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilizers which have a combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
(A) How is the chemical industry useful for the fertilizer industry? (1)
Answer:
It supplies important compounds like phosphatic fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilizers which have a combination of compounds. Explanation: Chemical industries supply multiple chemicals to the fertilizers industry indirectly. They form raw materials for fertilizer industries.

Related Theory:
There are various nitrogenous chemical fertilizers like ammonium sulphate, calcium ammonium nitrate, basic calcium nitrate, calcium cyanamide (nitrolium), urea etc produced in the chemical industry.

(B) Do you think production of chemicals is harmful for the environment? Validate your stand. If you agree, mention one step which can be taken to reduce the effects. (2)
Answer:
Production of chemicals, especially petrochemicals, is harmful for the environment but necessary for the country because they are responsible for the production of multiple goods which are exported to earn foreign exchange.

(C) Name at least 2 inorganic and 2 organic products of the chemical industry. (1)
Answer:
Two inorganic and organic products of the chemical industry are:
(a) Urea (Organic)
(b) Phenol (Organic)
(c) Sulphuric Acid (Inorganic)
(d) Nitric Acid (Inorganic)

Related Theory:

• Organic compounds are generally any chemical compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen bonds.
• Inorganic compounds do not contain Carbon-Hydrogen bonds.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Expectations from democracy also function as the criteria for judging any democratic country. What is most distinctive about democracy is that its examination never gets over. As democracy passes one test, it produces another test. As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better. That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations, and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy: it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project.
(A) Given an option to choose, which kind of political system would you like to live in and why? (1)
Answer:
I would like to be a citizen of a country which has a democratic set up. This is because its citizens are empowered through various mechanisms like free elections fundamental rights and other such things. It is also favourable because it gives birth to its own examination and tests and this examination never gets over.

(B) How does a democracy change the people who live in it? (1)
Answer:
A democracy converts the people who live in it from subjects to citizens and empowers them. This is the sign of a successful democracy.

(C) It is said that a democracy is a rule of the majority. There is a large number of poor in the country hence they are in majority. So, democracy must be a rule of the poor’. Do you agree? (1)
Answer:
No, it is not justified, because the rule of majority does not mean the rule of people who are in majority because of their economi’. status or number only. Majority is not formed by the same people every time. Every person has a different opinion of an ideology and they do not conform to their economic status while choosing the ideology they want to support. Majority is not rigidly defined in any way.

SECTION – E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place marked as A in Bihar where peasants struggled against the Indigo Plantation system. (1)

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Indore Cotton Textile Plant
OR
Visakhapatnam Port (1)
(b) Namrup Thermal Power plant (1)
Answer:
(A) Champaran

(B) (a) Indore Cotton Textile Plant
OR
Visakhapatnam Port

(b) Namrup Thermal Power plant

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
The Quit India movement was the final nail in the coffin of the British government. Support this statement by giving one reason. (2)
Answer:
The Quit India movement was aimed at the immediate overthrow of British administration and transfer of powers of administration to Indians.

Caution:
Each movement had different objectives and hence should be remembered clearly. For example, the Civil disobedience movement only asked for more autonomy and self-governing institutions while the Quit India movement asked for complete withdrawal of the British from the country

Question 2.
Define a tidal port. Also give an example of one. (2)
Answer:
Tidal ports are those ports in which the level of water within the port varies with the change in the level of water in the oceans. For example, Kandla port.

Related Theory:
Tidal ports also refer to the place where energy is derived from the waves of the ocean. Tidal energy is the energy driven out of the waves of the oceans which arise and fall during the tides, caused due to various reasons.

Question 3.
How does information and communication technology boost foreign trade? (2)
Answer:
Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. These facilities help boost foreign trade.

Related Theory:
Telecommunications facilities include mails, telephonic communications with mobiles and fax etc help the sellers and buyers contact each other and access information about one another.

Question 4.
Read the given data and answer the following questions.
The Indian Railway Network runs on multiple gauge operations extending over 68,442 km.

(A) Define the term gauge? (1)
Answer:
The gauge of a railway track is the distance between two running rails.

(B) What is the criterion of classifyingrailway tracks into Broad Gauge and Narrow Gauge? (1)
Answer:
They are classified based on distances between two rails or the width between the two rails.

Related Theory:
Broad Gauge is also called wide gauge.

Question 5.
The Left front is an alliance. What does an alliance mean? (2)
Answer:
Multi-parties join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power and are called an alliance or a front. For example, Left front.

Related Theory
Coalition of multiple parties form alliances and fronts. Two more examples are the National Democratic Alliance and United Progressive Alliance. Both of these alliances are functional in contemporary politics.

SECTION – B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
The understanding of plantation workers of Assam of the concept of Swaraj was different and descriptive of their situations. Support the statement.
OR
The Jallianwala Bagh incident was a result of the rising nationalist sentiments among Indians. Mention some circumstances which expressed these emotions. (3)
Answer:
Their understanding can be underlined in the following points:

• The plantation workers of Swaraj were extremely exploited by their employers.
• They were not allowed to leave the plantations and were made to work in miserable conditions.
• They understood Swaraj as the right to move freely in and out of the plantations and thus defied the authorities and left for their homes as a sign of protest.

OR
The circumstances that led to the Jallianwala Bagh incident are as follows:

• The hartals, strikes and rallies launched by Gandhi after the Rowlatt Act were met with brutal resistance.
• Alarmed by popular upsurge, the British decided to clamp down on the nationalist leaders.
• General Dyer took command of Punjab and imposed martial law censoring national movements and repressing these sentiments.
  Thereafter, he openly fired on the public to spread fear among them.

Question 7.
The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life. Do you agree? Elaborate upon your stand. (3)
Answer:
Money definitely plays a central role in our daily life. It fulfills the following functions:

• It is used as a medium of exchange to carry out transactions, whether immediate or deferred.
• Money buys us every commodity of necessity including food, clothing, shelter and water etc.
• Money provides us with social security. It is needed to procure services like transport, education, healthcare, entertainment, recreation, and so on.

Related Theory:

• In an economy where money is in use, by providing the crucial intermediate step, money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants.
• Payment can also be made through cheques. For that, the payer who has an account with the bank, makes out a cheque for a specific amount.

Question 8.
Opposition parties mobilise opposition against the government. Validate the given statement. (3)
Answer:
Opposition parties are those political parties which are unable to achieve the required majority in the elections.

These political parties play the role of opposition in legislative institutions and fulfill the following functions:

• They question the relevance and appropriateness of government’s schemes and steps.
• They educate the people politically and help people mobilise demands in front of the government for better rules and regulations.
• They present alternative solutions and draft regulations through their manifestos and public appearances to mould public opinion.

SECTION – C [2 × 5 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
Expectations from democracy also function as the criterion for judging any democratic country. What Is the meaning of the given statement?
OR
Discuss the timeUne of the Awadh Rebellion. Highlight the issues raised by the peasants in that revolt. (5)
Answer:

1. Expectations from democracy keep on increasing every minute, even more so when democracy begins to fulfill their existing expectations. This works in the favour of democracy.
2. People come up with more expectations when asked about how good a democracy functions.
3. The very fact that they come up with more expectations and complaints demonstrates how actively a democracy has succeeded in educating the people about political processes, their rights and expectations.
4. Hence, the fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy.
5. This shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty which is the very purpose of democracy.

OR

In Awadh, peasants led by Baba Ramchandra, revolted against the talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses.

• Peasants had to work at landlords’ farms without any payment.
• As tenants, they had no security of tenure. They could acquire no right over the leased land.
• The peasant movement demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of begar, and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
• Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ram Chandra together toured around Awadh, collecting grievances and trying to integrate this movement of rebellion with the Non-Cooperation struggle.
• The movement took a violent turn and there were several attacks on talukdars, grain hoards were looted and taken over.

Question 10.
The key to the decision of the factory Location is the Least cost. What does the given statement mean?
OR
Banks are willing to Lend to the poor women when organised in SHGs, even though they have no collateral as such. Validate the statement. (5)
Answer:
The given statement means that an ideal factory location is basically chosen after considering multiple factors but the most functional factor is the least cost.

1. Any location is an ideal factory location if it facilitates the minimal cost of production.
2. The cost of production which includes multiple costs including that of raw materials, rent of the place, wages of the labour involved, cost of transportation to the market should be the least for it to be called an ideal factory location.
3. An Ideal factory location should be close to an abundant source of raw materials to reduce the transportation costs to a minimum.
4. It should be well connected to a market to reduce the marketing and promotion costs.

OR
Banks are willing to lend to the poor women when organised in SHGs, even though they have no collateral as such. This can be asserted as follows:

• SHG are formed of 15-20 people as members usually belonging to one neighborhood.
• SHGs encourage regular saving habits. The members of an SHG meet and save regularly and thus a habit of regularity and compliance is inculcated.
• Members borrow small amounts of money at less rates of interest. In return, no collateral is demanded to encourage economic habits and spending among these people.
• Small loans are given to members of SHGs by the banks without any collateral because members are responsible to return the borrowed amount by themselves.
• It reduces their dependence on informal sources of credit. It saves them from debt traps and brings them into formal economy.

SECTION -D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ford Motors is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai.
This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.
By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico, Brazil and the United States of America. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
(A) Why does Ford Motors want to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe? (1)
Answer:
Ford Motors wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe because raw material is easily available here. This makes India a prospective producer and supplier of components required to make the motors.

(B) Using the given case as an example, explain how Globalisation has helped the producer company. (2)
Answer:
It is only because of globalisation that Ford Motors was able to establish a unit in Ford India. Globalisation has helped to reduce the trade barriers imposed by countries. It has helped companies come closer and exchange information, technology and share markets.

Explanation:
Globalisation has helped Ford Motors establish a unit in India and earn better profits by reducing the cost of production. Here in the given case, the unit in India will help Ford Motors reduce their cost of production because raw materials are easily available.

Caution:
Including examples along with theory in the answer will always get the students more marks. The key to answering questions is to look for keywords like elucidate, validate, justify.

(C) If other native companies request the government to raise tariff against Ford’s products, what would the measure be called? (1)
Answer:
Raising any tariff will lead to closing of the economy. Hence the measure would be known as raising the trade barriers.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In order to strengthen the flow of information from the grassroot to the higher level, the government has made special provision to extend the twenty-four hours STD facility to every village in the country. There is a uniform rate of STD facilities all over India. It has been made possible by integrating the development in space technology with communication technology.

Mass communication provides entertainment and creates awareness among people about various national programmes and policies. It includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films. All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages for various categories of people, spread over different parts of the country. The national television channel of India, is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.
It broadcasts a variety of programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc. for people of different age groups.
(A) What is the full form of STD? (1)
Answer:
Subscriber Trunk Dialing is the full form of STD.

(B) How do telecom networks help in connecting Indians with one another? (1)
Answer:
Telecom networks in India help Indians connect to each other all the time through telephone lines. They are connected even during the times of calamities, pandemics and outbreaks of diseases. This helps in sending medical help to these regions as well.

Related Theory:
Telecom sector also strengthens the flow of information from the grassroot to the higher level and for that the government has made special provision to extend the twenty-four hours STD facility to every village in the country.

(C) How has it been made possible to have uniform STD networks all round the country? (2)
Answer:
This has been made possible by launching artificial satellites which revolve around the earth. By integrating the development in space technology with communication technology, uniform STD prices and lines has been made possible.

SECTION – E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927. (1)

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Vijayanagar Iron and Steel Plant
OR
Noida Software Technology Park (1)
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport (1)

Answer:
(A) Madras

(B) (a) Vijayanagar Iron and Steel Plant
OR
Noida Sofware Technology Park

(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
How did Gandhi fight against the racist regime in South Africa? (2)
Answer:
Gandhi fought against the racist regime in South Africa with mass agitation using the method of Satyagraha,

Related Theory:
Thousar,ds of workers joined the satyagraha against racist laws that denied rights to non-whites in South Africa. This satyagraha was launched by Gandhi in the form of multiple movements.

Question 2.
Define the term Foreign investment. (2)
Answer:
Any investment made by foreign companies by either buying equity or bonds in native companies is called foreign investment.

Related Theory:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Question 3.
What can be done to put pressure on political parties? (2)
Answer:
Pressure can be put on political parties by citizens through processions, petitions and protests. These demonstrations prove extremely effcientt.

Related Theory:
Pressure can be put on political parties by people using multiple ways like processions, demonstrations, protests and petitions. People also form organizations like pressure groups, unions or interest groups to influence political parties indirectly.

Question 4.
Railways lndia bi”d the economic life of the country. Validate the statement. (2)
Answer:
Railways in India facilitate multifarious economic activities like agriculture, business, sightseeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of industrial goods over longer distances.

Related Theory
Railways give a boost to industrial and agricultural businesses by providing a transportation facility. They also help carry finished goods to the market.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions.

(A) Why do rich households borrow mostly formal sector credit sources? (1)
Answer:
Rich households are more educated to finish the documentation-related formalities and have more facilities and properties to pledge as security. Poor households do not have these facilities.

(B) What are some of the sources of informal from credit? (1)
Answer:
Some sources of informal credit are:

1. Mahajans
2. Relatives
3. Moneylenders

SECTION -B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Do you think democracy and economic development are interrelated? Validate your stand. (3)
Answer:

• Democracy and economic development have not followed each other in various cases. Economic development depends on factors like a country’s population size, global situation, production, size of economic activity, trade relations, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc.
• Democracy can not ensure or guarantee of economic development.

Question 7.
The economic effects of the Non-cooperation movement were extremely prominent and dramatic. Enlist some of these effects.
OR
The Second Round Table Conference was a complete disappointment. Do you agree? Support your stand by giving a few reasons. (3)
Answer:
The economic effects of Non-cooperation movement were very dramatic.

• Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
• The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922.
• Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.

OR
The Second round table conference failed miserably. This was because-

• Gandhi hoped for more autonomy and self-governing institutions as a result from this conference.
• The negotiations broke down and Gandhi returned back disappointed.
• As a result, he relaunched the Civil diso-bedience movement upon coming back. The conference was thus a complete failure.

Question 8.
Why has Aluminium gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries? (3)
Answer:
Aluminium possesses the following qualities that make it popular as a substitute of steel, copper and zinc, etc.

• It is light and hence is used to manufacture aircraft and other equipment.
• It is resistant to corrosion. It is also a good conductor of heat.
• It becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals as an alloy. It thus helps to manufacture utensils and wires.

SECTION – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
Hindustan Socialist Republican Army was established not to promote a culture of gun and arms but to revolutionise society. Elaborate upon the given statement.
OR
What is defection? What steps have been mentioned in the Constitution of India to prevent defection? (5)
Answer:
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Feroz Shah Kotla ground in Delhi in 1928 because:

1. Some Nationalists believed that British couldn’t be overthrown by non-violence and Satyagraha alone.
2. In the same pursuit, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power.
3. In April 1929, BhagatSingh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly to create a fear among the British.
4. The organisation was highly inspired by the socialist revolutionary ideas from the Russian revolution.
5. Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society and hence he helped to form the HSRA.

OR
Defection is one of the most prevalent political ills in Indian politics. It directly harms the democratic nature of our election procedures. The Constitution of India was amended to include a new schedule with laws and rules against defection.

• The law says that those MLAs and MPs who change parties, will lose their seats in the legislature.
• Independent leaders will also lose their candidature if they were to join a political party during a given duration from their election.
• The new scheduLe also has multiple other laws to control the transfer of ministers from one party to another for the sake of money or authority. For example penalty.

Question 10.
The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another. They may vary depending on the nature of the lender and the borrower. What is credit? What are the terms of credit? Explain their meaning.
OR
What are pipeline? Give a detailed description of the three most important pipeline networks present in the country. (5)
Answer:
Credit is generally defined as an agreement in which a lender lends a particular amount or sum of money to a borrower in return of a guarantee to be paid back later.

The important terms of credit are defined as follows:

• Collateral: Collateral refers to an asset like a building or vehicle owned by the borrower, which is pledged as a security against which the loan is given to the borrower.
• Documentation: Before lending money, the lenders require proper papers of borrowers including the salary slip, income and employment records as a measure of security.
• Interest rate: While borrowing or lending money, both parties decide the rate of interest on which the amount is being lent.
• Duration of credit: Duration for which the credit is borrowed is another term of credit. It can vary according to the need of the borrower.

Related Theory
The borrower pays the principal amount added to the interest amount while repaying the loan.
OR
Piplelines are an alternative mode of transportation used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants.

There are three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country:

1. One pipeline runs from an oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh), via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad.
2. Another pipeline runs through Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab, via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat. It has branches to connect Koyali in Gujarat to Chakshu.
3. Another gas pipeline runs from Hazira in Gujarat to Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, via Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh.
   These pipelines also have outlets and branches in different regions and cities in between the entry and end points.

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Chinese manufacturers Learn of an opportunity to export toys to India, where toys are sold at a high price. They start exporting pLastic toys to India. Buyers in India now have the option of choosing between Indian and Chinese toys. Because of the cheaper prices and new designs, Chinese toys have become more popular in the Indian market. Within a year, 70 to 80 percent of the toy shops have replaced Indian toys with Chinese toys. Toys are now cheaper in the Indian markets than earlier. What is happening here? As a result of trade, Chinese toys come into the Indian markets. In the competition between Indian and Chinese toys, Chinese toys prove better. Indian buyers have a greater choice of toys and at lower prices. For the Chinese toy makers, this provides an opportunity to expand business. The opposite is true for Indian toy makers. They face losses, as their toys are selling much less.
(A) What allows Chinese producers to reach beyond domestic markets? (1)
Answer:
Absence of any major trade barriers and easy trading processes because of better transportation and communication facilities allow Chinese producers of toys to reach beyond their domestic markets.

(B) What is the competition between Chinese and Indian toys likely to lead to? (2)
Answer:
The competition between Chinese and Indian toys is likely to lead to the following things:

• It might cause the Indian toy makers to strive for better technologies and cheaper raw materials.
• It is likely to cause destruction among the Indian toy industries. Multiple Indian toy makers are rendered out of business.
• Chinese toy makers are likely to buy Indian companies to increase their consumer base.

(C) A group of companies in India wishes to import high quality toys from China but have to pay a huge import tax on them leading to a decline in their sales. Ascertain the role of the import tax in this situation. (1)
Answer:
Here, the import tax led to a decline in the sales of toys imported from China. The import tax acted like a trade barrier here.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of swaraj in yet another way. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, for instance, a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s – not a form of struggle that the Congress could approve. Here, as in other forest regions, the colonial government had closed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. This enraged the hill people. Not only were their livelihoods affected but they felt that their traditional rights were being denied.

When the government began forcing them to contribute begar for road building, the hill people revolted. The person who came to lead them was an interesting figure. Alluri Sitaram Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers: he could make correct astrological predictions and heal people, and he could survive even bullet shots. Captivated by Raju, the rebels proclaimed that he was an incarnation of God. Raju talked of the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi, said he was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement, and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. But at the same time he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence. The Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj. Raju was captured and executed in 1924, and over time became a folk hero.
(A) Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju? (1)
Answer:
Alluri Sitarama Raju was a tribal leader who declared himself an incarnation of God and incited the local people against the British and organised them into a guerilla movement. He Led this movement and claimed he could heal people.

(B) How was Alluri Sitaram different from Mahatma Gandhi? (1)
Answer:
Alluri Sitaram was also a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and convinced people to give up drinking and boycott foreign goods. However, he was also different from Mahatma Gandhi because he believed that only violence could drive the British out of the country and the use of non-violence would not produce any results.

(C) How did the British government take away the rights of the tribal people? (2)
Answer:
The colonial government had dosed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. This enraged the hill people because they thought that this was an attack upon their traditions and their freedom.

Caution:
It is important for the students to be able to distinguish between different issues of different community/caste groups.

SECTION -E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of the following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place which is associated with the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. (1)

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Pune Software Technology Park
OR
Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant 1

(b) Marmagao Port 1

Answer:
(A) Dandi
OR
(B) (a) Pune Software Technology Park Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant

(b) Marmagao Port

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

Question 1.
In which of the following circuits, heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors connected to a 12 V battery will be maximum?

OR
Study the following circuit and find out:
(A) Current in 12 Ω resistor. (1)
(B) Difference in the readings of A₁ and A₁, if any. (1)

Answer:
Net Resistance in case (i), R = 2Ω
Net Resistance in case (ii), R = 2Ω + 2Ω = 40
Net Resistance in case (iii), \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1
⇒ R = 10
We know that, heat is given by the formula:
⇒ H = \(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\) × t
where , H = heat produced
V = potential difference
R = resistance
T = time taken
Since net resistance is the minimum in case (iii) and heat produced is inversely proportional to the resistance, so heat produced will be the maximum in case (iii).
OR
(A) In the circuit, the two resistors of 24 Ω each are connected in parallel to each other. The equivalent resistance of the two resistances in parallel is given by \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}\). where R₁ and R₂ are the two resistances in parallel.
= \(\frac{1}{24}+\frac{1}{24}\) = \(\frac{2}{24}+\frac{1}{12}\)
As this combination is in series with the 12 Ω resistance, the total resistance in the circuit is given by R = R_p + 12 = 12 + 12 = 24 Ω.
Current is given by / = \(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{6}{24}\)A = 0.25A R
The current flowing through the 12 Ohm resistance = 0.25 A

(B) Since the same current flows through every part of a circuit having resistances connected in series, both A₁ and A₂ will give the same reading, 0.25 A

Question 2.
Why covalent compounds are poor conductors of electricity? Why do covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points?
OR
Why certain compounds are called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the member of each series. (2)
Answer:
Covalent compounds are poor conductors of electricity as they do not have charged particles since the electrons are shared between atoms.
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points as they have weak inter moLecular forces due to which little energy is required in changing state by overcoming the force of attraction.
OR
Certain compounds are called hydrocarbons because they are formed mainly from carbon and hydrogen.
The general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes:
General formula of Alkanes = C_nH_2n+2
where n = number of carbon atoms
General formula of Alkenes = C_nH_2n+2
where n = number of carbon atoms
General formula of Alkynes = C_nH_2n-2
where n = number of carbon atoms
Structure of the first member of each series:
Structure of Alkane (Methane):

Question 3.
Two types of pollination have been shown in the given diagrams. Identify and differentiate between them ?

OR
Mention one organism each which shows the following type of reproduction and also write one difference between them.

Answer:
Fig (a) represents self pollination and fig. (b) represents cross pollination. Differences between the two are as following:

Self-Pollination	Cross Pollination
(1) Self-Pollination occurs within a flower or two between two on flowers of the same speces.	Cross-pollination occurs between flowers borne different plants of the same species.
(2) Pollen grains are produced in small numbers	Pollen grains are produced in small numbers.
(3) Flower are not attractive.	Flowers are attractive.
(4) There is no wastage of pollen grains and it is economical.	There is wastage of pollen grains and it is not economical.

Related Theory:
Pollination precedes fertilisation as fertilisation in plants can take place only after pollination carries the male gamete producing pollen grains to the female sex organs.
OR
(A) Plasmodium
(B) Leishmania
Leishmania shows binary fission and Plasmodium shows multiple fission. In binary fission, division of one cell into two similar cells. In multiple fission, many individuals are formed from a single individual.

Question 4.
How did Mendel’s experiments successfully show that traits may be dominant or recessive? Explain with an example. (2)
Answer:
Mendel took pea plants of two different characters i.e., talL plants and short plants. The first generation of progeny formed were all tail. This shows that traits may be either dominant or recessive, there is no way to obtain in between traits.

Question 5.
The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of solar energy. What happens to this energy of the sunlight that falls on the leaves of green plants? (2)

Answer:
1% of total energy from the sunlight that falls on leaves is captured and utilized by plants for photosynthesis.

Related Theory:
As per 10% law, only 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level. The remaining 90% energy is used in life processes or some amount goes to the atmosphere as heart.

Question 6.
(A) Carbon is not the only element showing catenation. However, carbon is the only element forming millions of compounds. Comment on the statement. (1)
Answer:
Carbon tends to form millions of compounds as it has two major advantages:

1. Small size: Carbon has appropriate size and leads to formation of stable compounds.
2. Tetravalent: Carbon has the valency of 4 which enables it to form multiple bonds with similar atoms as well as different atoms.

(B) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane? (1)
Answer:
Cyclonexane is a cyclic compound with formula C₆H₁₀ The structure of the compound is represented as:

Question 7.
(A) What is the unit of current? Express it in terms of charge and time. (1)
Answer:
The SI unit of current is Ampere. Current I can be expressed in terms of the charge (Q) flowing in time (t) as: I = \(\frac{Q}{t}\)

(B) The following table gives the value of resistivity of some materials:

Material	Resistivity (Ohm-m)
P	44 × 10– 6
Q	1010 – 1012
R	1.62 × 10-6
S	1015-1017

Which material would you suggest to be used in electric heating devices? Give a reason for your choice. (1 )
Answer:
As materials used in electric heating devices are generally made up of alloys having resistivity in the range of 10^-8 Ohm^-m to 10^-6 Ohm-m, material P will be used for electric heating devices as it’s resistivity is more than that of R, which is a metal since its resistivity is very low. Q and S are insulators as they have very high resistivity.

Section – B

Question 8.
(A) Under what conditions a permanent electromagnet is obtained if a current carrying solenoid is used? (½)

(B) How will you differentiate between an electromagnet and a permanent magnet? (1½)
OR
(A) A magnetic compass needle is placed in the plane of paper near point A, as shown in the figure. In which plane should a straight current carrying conductor be placed so that it passes through A and there is no change in the deflection of the compass? Under what condition is the deflection maximum and why? (½)

(B) In the arrangement shown in the figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially, the key is not inserted. Then, the key is inserted and later removed. What will be the result of this? (1½)

Answer:
(A) If a current carrying solenoid is used, the following conditions must be met to obtain a permanent electromagnet:

• The current via the solenoid must be a direct current.
• A magnetic substance, such as steel, is used to make the rod inside.
• The magnetic substance must have a strong retentivity and not readily lose it.

(B) Difference between permanent magnet and electromagnet:

Permanent Magnet	Electromagnet
Very strong electromagnets cannot be produced.	Very strong electromagnets can be produced.
Its strength is-fixed.	Strength can be changed by changing the current through coil.
Polarities are fixed	Polarities can be reversed by changing the direction of the current.
Cannot be Immediately demagnetized.	Can be demagnetized immediately by stopping the current in the coil.
Example of permanent magnet is a bar magnet.	Example of a temporary magnet is solenoid wounded across a nail and connected to a battery.

OR
(A) The straight current carrying conductor should be placed in the same plane as that of paper. According to the Right hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction of the current and if a magnetic compass is brought closer to the current carrying conductor, the deflection is maximum. But, when the needle is placed near the point P on the plane as that of the paper as given in the figure, there is no deflection.

(B) A potential difference is induced in coil- 2 whenever the electric current through coil-1 is changing (starting or stopping). Coil-1 is called the primary coil and coil-2 is called the secondary coil. As the current in the first coil changes, the magnetic field associated with it also changes. Thus the magnetic field lines around the secondary coil also change.

Hence, the change in magnetic field lines associated with the secondary coil is the cause of induced electric current in it by a process called electromagnetic induction. Due to this reason, a momentary deflectionin the galvanometer will be observed, which will soon die out when the current flowing through the first coil attains a steady state.

Due to a similar phenomenon, a momentary deflection is again observed in the opposite direction, when the key is removed as in this case, the current is decreasing in the circuit.

Question 9.
Give reasons:
(A) Testis are located ouside the abdominal cavity. (1)
Answer:
Formation of germ cells or sperms takes place in the testis. These are locted outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum because sperm formation requires a lower than normal body temperature.

(B) Offsprings formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations. (1)
Answer:
The process of sexual reproduction combines DNA from two different individuals. When the germ-cells from two individuals combine during sexual reproduction to form a new individual, it results in re-establishment of the number of chromosomes and the DNA content in the new generation. DNA copying mechanisms creates variations, which are useful for ensuring the survival of the species.

(C) Reproduction is essential for living organisms. (1)
Answer:
Reproduction is one of the important characteristic/function of living things. The ability of an organism to produce young ones of its own kind is not essential for survival but it is essential for the continuity of species, for generations to continue.

Question 10.
A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type of food habit would you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with the help of a food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous in another aspect. How? (3)
Answer:
Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable toxic chemicals into the food chain.
Non-biodegradable chemicals get concentrated at every trophic level by the process of biological magnification. As the concentration increases with the number of trophic levels in food chain, man will get high concentration of the chemicals in non-vegetarian food chain than in vegetarian food chain.

For Example:

Vegetarian food chain has advantages in terms of available energy to the man because it has less number of trophic Levels. As 90% of energy is Lost in the environment, at every trophic Level, a Lesser number of trophic Levels will resuLt in Lesser energy Loss.

Question 11.
How is the sex of a new-born determined in humans? (3)
Answer:
In human beings, 23 pairs of chromosomes are present, out of which 22 pairs are exactly the same in both male and female. The 23rd pair of chromosome, known as sex chromosome, is different in males and females.

• Females have a perfect pair of sex chromosome, XX. Therefore, male is known as heterogametic.
• Males have a mismatched pair of sex chromosomes, XY. Therefore, female is known as homogametic.

During spermatogenesis in males, two types of gametes are produced. 50% of gametes produced carry X chromosomes whereas 50% of gametes carry Y chromosome. On the other hand, females produce only one type of ovum containing X chromosomes.

There is an equal probability of fertilization of the ovum with the sperm carrying either X or Y chromosomes. In case the ovum fertilizes with the sperm carrying X chromosomes, the zygote develops into a female (XX) child. Fertilization of the ovum with Y chromosomes carrying sperm result in a male (XY) child.
If the male sex chromosome is X, then the child is female (XX).
If the male sex chromosome is Y, then the child is male (XY).

Question 12.
(A) Draw a diagram to show magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet in a given region. (1)
Answer:
Magnetic field lines around the bar magnet in a region can be represented as given below

(B) What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid indicate? (1)
Answer:
The divergence of magnetic field lines indicates the decrease in strength of the magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.

Related Theory:
The word divergence means how much the tines of forces are moving away from the source. More the divergence tess is the fietd tine concentration and hence tess is the strength and vice-versa.

(C) Mention the shape of the magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor. (1)
Answer:
The shape of magnetic field lines around the straight current carrying conductor is in the form of concentric circles.

Question 13.
Write tree points of difference between asexual and sexual type of reproduction.
OR
What are variations? Describe why variations are observed in the offspring formed by sexual reproduction. 3
Answer:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
In this type of reproduction, the offspring arises from a single parent.	The offspring arises from two parents.
Gametes are not produced.	Gametes are produced.
No fertilisation and zygote formation takes place here.	Gamete formation is followed by fusion of male and female gametes (fertilisation) leading to zygote formation.
Meiosis does not occur at anytime during reproduction.	Meiosis occurs at the time of gamete formation.
Its role in the origin of new species is minimum.	It plays an important role in the origin of new species.

OR
The difference between an ideal and a real reality is always variation. A change in data, projected outcomes, or minor changes in production quality are the most common forms of variation. Variation can be detected between individuals of the same species, and it is this difference that is known as variation. During reproduction, some differences are passed down from parents to offspring via genes. Inherited variation is the term for this type of variation. Some variation occurs between the variants as a result of variances in the environment or what an individual performs.

During sexual reproduction, two types of gametes fuse. Although the gametes contain the same number of chromosomes, their DNA is not identical. This situation generates variations among the offsprings. Due to lot of variations, sexual reproduction aLlows species to change to more advanced forms from one generation to the next and speed up evolution.

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
In graph shown below, atomic radius is plotted against the atomic number.

(A) What happens to the atomic radius as you go from Atomic number 3 to 10 and then 11-18? Cite evidence from the graph. (1)
(B) Locate the elements of the periodic table that create major peaks on the graph. (1)
(C) Identify the trend that is demonstrated in the graph. (2)
OR
Using the concepts of periodic table, explain briefly why the pattern is depicted in the graph. Identify the elements that form lowest points in the graph. Explain giving reasons. (2)
Answer:
(A) Atomic radius decreases as we move from atomic number 3 to 10 and 11 to 18. The reason for this is due to increased effective nuclear charge that is due to the addition of electron in the same shell which increases the effective nuclear charge and contracts the radius.

(B) The major peaks observed in the graph are:
X – Hydrogen
Y – Li
Z – Na
P – K
Q – Rb

(C) The atomic radius decreases as we move in a period and increases as we move down in a group.
OR
The trend that is observed here is due to increased effective nuclear charge that is observed in the period. As we move down in a group, there is addition of shells which leads to decrease in effective nuclear charge.
The lowest points in the graph is depicted by noble gases, He, Ne, Ar, Kr and Xe respectively. These elements have complete octet and thereby remain inert. The maximum effective nuclear charge is experienced by these elements and hence their atomic radius is the smallest.

Question 15.
Components of an electrical circuit or electronic circuit can be connected in series or parallel. Components connected in series are connected along a single conductive path, so the same current flows through all of the components but voltage is dropped across each of the resistances. Components connected in parallel are connected along multiple paths so that the current can split up; the same voltage is applied to each component.
In the circuit I shown below, the two bulbs have been connected in parallel whereas in circuit II, they are connected in series.

(A) Two bulbs of 60 W and 40 W are connected in parallel. The current through the 60 W bulb is 0.6 A. What will be the current through the 40W bulb? (1)
(B) What will be the total resistance between the points A and B ? (1)
(C) A certain circuit is composed of two parallel resistors. The total resistance is 4 Ohm. One of the resistors is 6 Ohm. What will be the value of the other resistor? (2)
OR
Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply, are rated 10 W. How many lamps can be connected in parallel with each other if the maximum allowable current is 5 A? Also draw a VI graph on series and parallel combination of two given resistances R₁ and R2₁. (2)
Answer:
(A) When devices are connected in parallel, the potential difference across them is equal but the currents are in inverse ratios of their resistances.

Let V be the potential difference, I current across 60 W bulb and 12 across 40 W bulb.
P = VI ⇒ V = \(\frac{P}{I}\)
Therefore, V = \(\frac{60}{0.6}\) = 100 V.
The current I₂ through 40 W bulb is:
I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
I = \(\frac{40}{100}\) A = 0.4A

(B) The resistances 1 Ohm and 2 Ohm are in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}\) = \(\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{3}{2}\) ⇒ R_P = \(\frac{2}{3}\)Ω = 0.67 Ω
This combination is connected in series with the 4 Ohm and 3 Ohm resistances. Therefore, equivalent resistance between A and B is (4 + 0.67 + 3) Ohm or 7.67 Ohm.

(C) The equivalent resistance for resistances connected in parallel is given by:

OR
Let the maximum number of bulbs each of 10 W that can be connected in parallel to the 220 V electric supply = n.
The current drawn by one bulb = I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
= \(\frac{10}{220}\)A or, n = 110.
When resistances are connected in series, their equivalent resistance is more than when they are connected in parallel.

As Resistance = VI slope of V-l graph = Reciprocal of slope of l-V graph, the slope for resistances in series is greater than slope of resistance in parallel.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study-based questions.

Question 1.
If the mean of numbers 2, a, 6 and 7 is 15 and the mean of numbers 6, 18 1, a, b is 20, then find the value of b.

OR

Consider the following distribution:

Class	0-15	15-30	30-45	45-60
Frequency	5	9	11	15

Find the median class of the distribution. (2)
Answer:
Given: Mean of 2, a, 6 and 7 is 15.
∴ \(\frac{2+a+6+7}{4}\) = 15
⇒ 15 + a =60
⇒ a = 45 ………………………………. (i)
Also, mean of 6, 18, 1, a and b is 20.
∴ \(\frac{6+18+1+a+b}{5}\) = 20
⇒ 25 + a + b = 100
⇒ 25 + 45 + b = 100 [From (i)]
⇒ b = 100 – 70
⇒ = 30
Hence, the value of b is 30.
OR

Class	0-15	15-30	30-45	45-60
Frequency	5	9	11	15
Cumulative Frequency	5	5 + 9 = 14	14+11 = 25	25+15 = 40

Hence, sum of frequencies, N = 40

∴ \(\frac{N}{2}\) = 20

Cumulative frequency just greater than 20 is 25, which belongs to class 30-45.
∴ Median class = 30 – 45

Question 2.
Solve the following quadratic equation for x : 9x² – 6b²x – (a⁴ – b⁴) = 0. (2)
Answer:
Let
We have,
9x² – 6b²x – (a⁴ – b⁴) = 0
Using quadratic formula,

Question 3.
Find the 23^rd term of the A.P. -4\(\frac{1}{2}\), -3, -1\(\frac{1}{2}\)….. (2)
Answer:

Concept Applied
The nth term of an A.P. is given as an = a + (n – 1) d.

Question 4.
In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle from an external point P. CD is another tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, QC = QD = 3 cm, then find PC + PD.

Answer:
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ PA = PB, CA = CQ, DQ = DB

Now,
PC + PD = (PA – AC) + (PB – BD)
= (PA – QC) + (PA – QD)
[∵ AC = QC, PB = PA, BD = QD]
= (12 – 3) + (12 – 3)
= 18 cm

Question 5.
Find the missing frequency x of the following distribution, if mode is 34.5.

Marks obtained	Number of students
0-10	4
10-20	8
20-30	10
30-40	X
40-50	8

Answer:
Given: Mode = 34.5
Modal class = 30 – 40

We know,

⇒ 4.5 (2x – 18) = 10x – 100
⇒ 10x – 9x = 100 – 81
⇒ x = 19
Hence, the value of missing frequency x is 19

Question 6.
An A.P. consists of 50 terms. If its 3^rd and last terms are 12 and 106, respectively, find the 29^th term.
OR
Resham created an A.P. whose five times of the fifth term is equal to ten times its 10^th term. Show that 15^th term of the A.P. is zero. (2)
Answer:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the A.P.
Then, a₃ = 12
⇒ a + 2d = 12 …………………………….(i)
and last term, l = 106
⇒ a₅₀ = 106
[∵ There are 50 terms in A.P.]
⇒ a + 49d = 106 ………………………………(ii)
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
d = 2, a = 8
So, 29^th term, a₂₉ = a + 28d
= 8 + 28 x 2
= 64
Hence, 29^th term of the A.P. is 64.

Caution
Since there are 50 terms in the A.P, so 106 will be 50^th term of the A.P.
OR
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the A.P.
Then, 5a₅ = 10a₁₀ (Given)
⇒ 5 (a + 4d) = 10 (a + 9d)
⇒ 5a + 20d = 10a + 90d
⇒ -5a = 70 d
⇒ a = -14d ………………………………(i)
Now, 15^th term = a₁₅
= a + 14d
= -14d + 14d [From (i)]
= 0
So, 15^th term of the A.P. is zero.

Hence, proved.

SECTION – B
(12 Marks)

Question 7.
A metallic spherical shell of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8 cm, respectively, is melted and recast into a cone of base diameter 8 cm. Find the height of the cone. (3)
Answer:
Let the height of the cone be H cm.
Then, volume of spherical shell = volume of cone

Hence, height of the cone is 14 cm.

Question 8.
A statue 1.6 m tall, stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of pedestal is 45°. Find the height of the pedestal. [Use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73]. (3)
Answer:
Let AB be the statue which is standing on the top of pedestal BC and P be the point of observation on the ground.


Hence, height of the pedestal is 2.184 m.

Question 9.
A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispheres attached on both ends, as shown in the figure. If the whole length of the solid is 108 cm and diameter of the hemispherical ends is 35 cm, find the cost of polishing its surface at the rate of 55 paise per cm². (3)
Answer:

Here,
Height of cylindrical part (h)
= Total length – 2 × Radius of hemispherical part.
= 108 – 2 × \(\left(\frac{35}{2}\right)\)
= 73 cm
∴ CSA of solid = CSA of cylinder + 2 × CSA of hemisphere
= 2πrh + 2 x (2πr²)

= 8030 + 3850
= 11880 cm²
Now, Rate of polishing
= 55 paise per cm²
= ₹ 0.55 per cm²

Total cost of polishing
= Rate x CSA of solid
= 0.55 x 11880
= ₹ 6534

Question 10.
In the given figure, PQ is a chord of a circle and PT is a tangent touching the circle at P, such that ∠QPT = 60°. Find the measure of ∠PRQ.

Draw a line segment PQ of length 7.2 cm and divide it in the ratio 4 : 7. Also, measure the two parts. (3)
Answer:
We have,

We know, angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it on circumference of the circle.

Steps of construction:

• Draw a line segment PQ of length 7.2 cm.
• From point P, draw a ray PX such that ∠QPX is acute.
• On ray PX, mark 4 + 7 i.e. 11 points, namely, P₁, P₂, …….P₁₁ at equal distances.
• Join P₁₁Q.
• From point P₄, draw a line P₄A, parallel to P₁₁Q, intersecting PQ at A.

Thus, point A divides PQ in the ratio 4 : 7.

So, PA = 2.62 cm and QA = 4.58 cm.

SECTION – C
(16 Marks)

Question 11.
In a class test, marks obtained by 120 students are given in the following frequency distribution.

Marks	Number of students
0-10	1
10-20	3
20-30	7
30-40	10
40-50	15
50-60	X
60-70	9
70-80	27
80-90	18
90 -100	y

If mean marks of the students is 59, then find the values of x and y. (4)
Answer:


Putting the value of y in eq. (i), we get
x = 30 – 1
= 29

Hence, the values of x and y are 29 and 1 respectively.

Question 12.
An airplane is flying at a height of 300 m above the ground. Flying at this height, the angles of depression from the airplane of two points on both banks of a river in opposite direction of the plane, are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the width of the river. [Use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732]

OR

A boy standing on a horizontal plane finds a bird flying at a distance of 100 m from him at an elevation of 30°. A girl standing on the roof of a 20 m high building, finds the elevation of the same bird to be 45°. If the boy and the girl are on the opposite sides of the bird, find the distance of the bird from the girl. [Use \(\sqrt{2}\) = 1.414]. (4)
Answer:
Let A be the position of aeroplane in the sky and AB be its vertical height. Also, let P, Q be the two points on both banks of the river.

∴ AB = 300 m, ∠XAP = ∠APB = 45°, ∠YAQ = ∠AQB = 60°

So, width of river = PQ = PB + BQ
= 300 + 173.2
= 473.2
Hence, width of the river is 473.2 m.
OR
Let P be the position of the boy, B be the position of bird and Q be the position the girl standing on the roof of building QM.

Hence, distance of the bird from the girl is 42.42 m.

Question 13.
Case Study-1
Toy blocks are wooden or plastic or foam pieces of various geometrical shapes and colors that are used for constructing other shapes and figures.

Kareem’s younger cousin was playing with the blocks which consists of different shapes. He saw that his cousin has put a circular block into a hollow triangular block and the two blocks perfectly fit each other.

It reminds him a question, in which a circle is inscribed in a DABC such that the sides BC, AC and AB touches the circle at points D, E and F respectively.

If length of sides AB, BC and AC are 9 cm, 8 cm and 7 cm respectively then, answer the following questions.
(A) If AB = AC, then prove that BD = DC. (2)
(B) Find the radius of the incircle. (2)
Answer:
(A) We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ AF = AE, BF = BD, CD = CE [Given]
Now, AB = AC
⇒ AF + BF = AE + EC
⇒ BF = EC [∵ AF = AE]
⇒ BD = DC
[∵ BF = BD, EC = DC]
Hence, proved.

(B) We have,
AB = 9 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC = 7 cm


Hence, radius of the circle is \(\sqrt{5}\) cm.

Question 14.
Case Study-2
Two students, Paul and Shree, of Class X while solving a quadratic equation, committed the

following mistakes. Paul made a mistake in the constant term and get the roots as 6 and 8. While Shree committed an error in the coefficient of x and got the roots as 3 and 14

Based on the above information answer the following questions.
(A) Find the correct quadratic equation. (2)
(B) Write the discriminant and nature of roots of the correct quadratic equation. (2)
Answer:
(A) Since, Paul made mistake in writing the constantterm ofthe equation, so its coefficient of x must be correct.

∴ Correct sum of roots = 6 + 8 = 14

Similarly, Shree made mistake in writing the coefficient of x of the equation, so its constantterm must be correct.

∴ Correct product of roots = 3 x 14 = 42

So, the correct quadratic equation is:
x² – (sum ofroots)x+product of roots = 0
⇒ x² – 14x + 42 = 0

(B) From part (A), the correct quadratic equation is: x² – 14x + 42 = 0
∴ Discriminant = b2 – 4ac
Here, a = 1, b = -14, c = 42
∴ Discriminant = (-14)² – 4 x 1 x 42
= 196 – 168
= 28
Since, value of discriminant is greater than zero, so the nature of roots is real and unequal.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 hours
Maximum Marks: 25

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains three sections A, B and C. Each section is compulsory.
• Section A has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section B has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section C has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.

SECTION – A (8 Marks)
(This section has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks.
Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 1.
Explain SFTP. Define FTPS. (2)
Answer:
SFTP also called SSH File Transfer Protocol, is a network protocol for accessing, transferring and managing files on remote systems. SFTP uses SSH to transfer files and requires that the client be authenticated by the server.
OR
File Transfer Protocol with SSL Security (FTPS) is an extension to the FTP protocol that adds Secure Socket Layer (SSL). It mainly enables performing or delivering standard FTP communication on top of an SSL-based security connection.

Question 2.
Write the HTML code to create a link for
“https:\\Wwww.britannica.com”. (2)
Answer:
Code is as follows:
<html>
<body>
<a href = “https:\\www.britannica. com “>Encyclopedia</a>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Tables in HTML can be created using <TABLE> tag. Discuss the significance of tables in a webpage. (2)
Answer:
A table is a grid of rows and columns. Tables are useful for laying out text and images on a Web page. A table allows you to quickly and easily read the values that indicate some kind of connection between different types of data, Tables can be used to restrict the output so that the display remains constant, or fixed.

Question 4.
Smriti is creating a web page that displays notes of Python. The paragraphs of the webpage are to be displayed in font Times New Roman, the colour of the text will be blue and size will be 11 pixels. Help her by writing a CSS code for the paragraph element. (2)
Answer:
p {font-family : times new roman ; color: blue; font-size: 11px;}

Section -B (9 Marks)
(This section has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-1 (LA-1). Each question is of 3 marks.
Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 5.
Describe protocol and explain any two common protocols. (3)
Answer:
Protocol is a set of rules that needs to be followed by the devices like computer and mobile phones in order to have successful and reliable data communication. It is a standardized method for transmitting or establishing communication between different devices,

There are various types of protocols used for communicating with devices on network. The most commonly used protocols are as follows:
1. HTTP: HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) is the set of rules for transferring hypertext (i.e. text, graphic, image sound, video etc.) on World Wide Web. It defines how messages are formatted and transmitted and what actions should web servers and browsers take in response to various commands.

2. TCP/IP: TCP/IP is the set of protocols used over the Internet. It defines rules computer must follow to communicate with each other over the internet. The TCP is responsible for breaking the data into packets before sending over a network. It also assembles the packets again at the destination. IP is responsible for addressing and sending these data packets over the Internet so that it reaches the correct destination.

Question 6.
Shradha is making a working model for her physics project. She is searching some content to create the model. Suggest her any three tips for effective searching. (3)
Answer:
Tips for effective searching are as follows:

• Use quotation marks to find exact topic matching your keyword.
• Use +(plus symbol) to match options.
• Use a hyphen (or minus symbol) to exculde a word from search result.

Related Theory:
Search queries should not be framed as questions because the search engine searches for each word in the query separately.

Question 7.
There are many things you should keep in mind when preparing your email. One of them is maximum size of file attachments. Give reason.
OR
Discuss any six disadvantages of video conferencing (3)
Answer:
Many email servers do not allow email attachments over a certain size. The reasons behind the size restriction are as follows:

• Over the Internet, a message will often pass through several mail transfer agents to reach the recipients. Each of these has to store the message before forwarding it on and many servers therefore, need to impose size limits.
• Large attachments may internally be sent within an organisation, they are unreliable when sending across Internet.
• In general, 10 MB is considered safe for the maximum size of an E-mail but, Google’s gmail service increased its limit to 25 MB.

OR
Following are some of the disadvantages of
video conferencing:

• Special hardware and software are required to meet the needs of video conferencing which will be an additional expense.
• A fast Internet connection is required.
• Delay in responses due to remote locations or slow internet connection may lead to lack of communication.
• Personal interaction like handshake and eye contact is missing which is required for some meetings.
• It requires special training to work with the hardware and software.
• All the participants have to be online at same time.
• People in different time zones might face problem in attending the meeting at same time.
• Chaos in the background is also the most common problem. This may include poor lighting and background noises.
  Note: Write any six points.

Section – C (8 Marks)
(This section has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-ll (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.
Question-8 is of case-based type.)

Question 8.
Read the case study given below and attempt any 4 sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.

Kaushik works for a Multinational company. The company is starting its new branch in California. They are transferring some of their Sample Paper best workers to that branch. Kaushik also got the opportunity. He has to apply for a passport (4)
(A) Kaushik can online apply for the passport. Give the URL of the site where he can apply.
Answer:
http://passport.gov.in
Related Theory:
This URL offers online passport applications and other passport and VISA related services.

(B) Kaushik also wants to update some of his documents, such as Aadhar card, Pan card etc. Name The URL that provides services by the various government entities on one platform.
Answer:
www.india.gov.in

Explanation: india.gov.in is the Indian government’s web portal for citizens. It provides information resources and online services from government sources, accessible from a single point. It is also known as the National Portal of India.

(C) Using ……………… unified mobile application Kaushik can get access to central and state government e-services.
Answer:
UMANG

Explanation: UMANG or Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance is an app launched by the Government of India to provide access to various government services at one place. This app is a common platform for various government services such as gas booking, Aadhaar, crop insurance, EPF and National Pension System.

(D) Kaushik’s son wants to download and keep all his marksheets and Identity proofs in digital format …………………., an e-government service provides this facility.
Answer:
DigiLocker.

Related Theory:
DigiLocker helps citizens to download and store a soft copy of important documents tike PAN, Aadhar , mark sheets, certificates, driving licence etc. This reduces the risk of missing physical documents and is easy to share with anyone.

(E) Kaushik is benefitted by government services that fall under G2C category. What does G2C stand for?
Answer:
Government to Citizens </tr>

Explanation: G2C (Government to Citizens) is the e-commerce between government and the public (citizens). It covers the products and the services provided by the government to citizens online.

Question 9.
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Specification 1: Table Border should be 1. Specification 2: The data in cells should be center aligned.
Specification: Attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 3: Attribute rowspan and coLspan should be used wherever required. Specification 4: The table should exactly contain same number of rows and columns as shown above.
Specification 5: The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table. (4)
Answer:

<html>
<body>
<table border="1">
<tr align = "center">
<td rowspan=''2">Name</td>
<td colspan="2">Region</td>
</tr>
<tr align = "center">
<td>city</td>
<td>State</td>
</tr>
<tr align = "center">
<td>Arun Sharma</td>
<td>lndore</td>
<td>Madhya Pradesh</td>
</tr>
<tr align = "center">
<td>Jasmine</td>
<td>Jaipur</td>
<td>Rajasthan</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 hours
Maximum Marks: 25

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains three sections A, B and C. Each section is compulsory.
• Section A has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section B has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section C has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.

Section – A (8 Marks)
(This section has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question)

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term Newsgroup?
OR
Explain the term web portal. (2)
Answer:
A newsgroup is an online community bulletin board where groups of users with common- interests can create, post, comment and reply to the topics of similar interests.

Related Theory:
A group of related messages is called threads.
OR
Web Portal is a specially designed website that collects information from various sources such as emails, online forums, search engines and provides it on one platform, in a uniform way.

Question 2.
You plan to create a table whose border thickness is 3 pixels, space between cells is 5 pixels and gap between cell and data is 7 pixels. What will be the code for it? (2)
Answer:
<TABLE border= 3 cellspacing =5 cellpadding =7>

Related Theory:

• CELLSPACING attribute is used to specify the space between cells in a table i.e., the distance between two cells.
• CELLPADDING attribute is used to specify the space between the contents of a cell and its border. Both the values are given in pixels

Question 3.
Html Hyperlinks are generally divided into two categories: Internal links and External links. Distinguish between them. (2)
Answer:

External Linking	Internal Linking
1. To establish a link with an external doc­ument is known as external linking.	1. A link that connects the various sections of the same docu­ment is known as In­ternal Link.
2. HREF attribute is used with <A> tag to create an external link.	2. Name attribute is used along with <A> tag to create an in­ternal link.

Question 4.
Anita wants to add an audio as well as video on her webpage. Name and define one tag that can add both. (2)
Answer:
The <embed> tag is a container for an external resource. It can be used to add both audio and video on a webpage.

Related Theory:
The embedded object can be any media clip, file, program or any other application that can be run or viewed from within a web page.

Section – B (9 Marks)
(This section has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 5.
When Rashi uses Gmail, two protocols SMTP and POP are used. Differentiate between both the protocols. (3)
Answer:

SMTP	POP
1. SMTP stands for Sim­ple Mail Transfer Pro­tocol.	1. POP stands for Post Offce Protocol.
2. SMTP is a protocol that transfers the mail from the send­ers computer to the mail box on receiver’s mail server.	2. POP allows to re­trieve and organize mails from the mail­box on receiver’s mail server to receiver’s computer.
3. It is used for sending the message to the receiver.	3. It is used for access­ing message from mail box.

Related Theory:
The latest version used is POP3.

Question 6.
Newsgroups and emails both can be used to communicate. How is newsgroup different from E-mail messages? (3)
Answer:

Email	Newsgroups
Email is used to send written messages between individuals or groups of individuals.	A newsgroup is like a community bulletin board.
Only the users marked as recipient can read a mail mes­sage.	Every message sent by any user is posted by the news server for everyone to read.
We can send/recieve message from any of the mail server appli­cations.	One can send mes­sage or read a mes­sage on a particular newsgroup for which he/she has sub­scribed.

Question 7.
‘E-governance means providing government services electronically. Describe the different types of e-governance services.
OR
Comfy shoes Ltd. has launched their website that has many web pages, each of which renders a certain kind of information. Discuss the types of web pages a website can contain. (3)
Answer:
E-governance is of four types:

1. Government to citizens (G2C): The primary aim of G2C is to supply facilities to the citizens without geographic land barriers.
2. Government to Business (G2B): It contains services interchanged between business sectors and government. It plays an important role in business development by easy online access to government project plans for business.
3. Government to Government (G2G): It refers to the interaction between different government departments, firms and agencies. G2G builds a common database for all agencies to upgrade their services.
4. Government to Employee (G2E): Its main aim is to bring employees together on a single platform to improvise knowledge sharing. It also provides online facilities to the employees for leave application, viewing salary record and checking their balance holidays.

OR
A website is a collection of many web pages. These webpages may be of following types:

• Home page: A home page is a webpage that serves as the starting point of website. It is the default webpage that loads when you visit a web address.
• About page: An About page is a page that displays general information about the person or organization that is responsible for the website. It usually serves a description of the site’s history and mission or purpose.
• Content demo page: A Content page is a page that is associated to the home page of a website. It serves all the information contained in a website. A content page usually consists of text, links, images, audio, animation or videos.
• Register page: Register page is also known as registration or sign up page. It enables users and organizations to independently register and gain access to the website.
• FAQ page: FAQ stands for Frequently-Asked Questions. It is a page on a website that gives quick answers to customer questions. This page is generally included in the business websites.
• Contact Us page: A contact-us page is a common web page on a website for visitors to contact the organization or individual. This page contains one or more of the following items: an e-mail address, phone number, postal address, location, fax number etc.

Section – C (8 Marks)
(This section has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks. Question-8 is of case-based type.)

Question 8.
Read the case study given below and attempt any 4 sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Sameer Malhotra is a Public Relations Officer in IDB Bank. His job responsibility is to make new customers for his bank. During work from home period, he made contacts with his customers on phone calls and by emails. (4)
(A) Sameer can send email using his ____________
Answer:
Email Id
Explanation: E-mail ID also known as email address is a unique identifier for an email account It is used to send and receive email messages over the Internet.

(B) The customers usually mark such mails as spam. What is spam?
Answer:
Spam is defined as irrelevant or unsolicited e-mails sent typically to a large number of users, for the purpose of advertising, phishing, spreading malware, etc.

(C) If any customer wants to download the mail sent by Sameer then it can be done from ____________
Answer:
Mail box
Explanation: A mail box or inbox is the main folder that stores your incoming mail.

(D) If Sameer wants to send the same promotional mail to multiple customers, then what should he do?
Answer:
He can give multiple email addresses in ‘To’ field separated by comma.

(E) How can Sameer send a copy of same mail to his senior without letting the customers know about it?
Answer:
He can give the email id of his senior in ‘Bcc’ field.

Question 9.
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications. (4)

Observe the following table carefully.
Specification 1: The value of table border should be 3 pixels, and border colour should be blue.
Specification 2: The image named “googlelogo. png” should be added in front of Google.
Specification 3: The image named “Firefox. png” should be added in front of Firefox.
Specification 4: The attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 5: Use Table header tags wherever required.
Answer:

<html>
<body>
<table border="3px" bordercolor = “blue">
<tr> 
<th colspan = ”2">Search Engine</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Google</td>
<tdximg src=“google.png"
height=" 50 px" width = "50px" alt="Sorry Image could not be displayed”> </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Mozila Firefox</td>
<td>img src=”firefox.jpg"
height="50px" width="50px” alt= "Sorry Image could not be displayed"> </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 hours
Maximum Marks: 25

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains three sections A, B and C. Each section is compulsory.
• Section A has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section B has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section C has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.

SECTION – A (8 Marks)
(This section has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks.
Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 1.
Explain the term DNS. (2)
Answer:
DNS stands for Domain Name System. It is an IP service that translates the name of a domain into an individual IP address.

Caution:
The ‘Domain Name System’ and ‘Domain’ are two different concepts. The main difference between domain and DNS is that the domain is a piece of string that helps to identify a particular website e.g. www.amazon.com. In contrast the DNS (Domain Name System) is a server that translates the domain to the corresponding IP address to provide the required webpage. For example the web address www.amazon.com is translated to machine readable IP address 192.0. 2.44.

Question 2.
When happens when we click on a hyperlink in a Web page? (2)
Answer:
Upon clicking a hyperlink in a Web page, it leads to the document or webpage linked to it.

Related Theory:
The connected webpage is given using HRFF attribute.

Question 3.
Define cellpadding. (2)
Answer:
CELLPADDING attribute is used to specify the space between the contents of a cell and its border. The value for this attribute is given in pixels.

Question 4.
Kriti is building a website. She wants to embed audio files “playguitar.mp3” and “playguitar.ogg” on the homepage of the website. It should display all the controls. If the files are not supported by the browser, then a message “Audio file not supported by browser” should display. Write a code for given specification.
OR
Simran has used Font-style property in her code. Name the values that can be provided to this property. (2)
Answer:
<audio controls = “controls” >
<source src=”playguitar.mp3″ type=”audio/ mp3″>
<source src=”playguitar.ogg” type=”audio/ agg”>
Audio file not supported by browser
</audio>
OR
Font-style property can have one of the three values: Normal, Italic and Oblique

Section – B (9 Marks)
(This section has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-1 (LA-1). Each question is of 3 marks.
Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 5.
Discuss the types of blog. (3)
Answer:
Depending upon the type of information served, a blog can be categorized as follows:
Personal Blog: This is the most common type of blog. Maximum number of blogs on internet belong to this category. Most of the bloggers post stories about their interests and experiences such as cooking, travel experiences, social cause etc.

News and Views: This type of bloc contains factual stories about news, maintained by journalists. Professional journalists post stories and views about the latest events. Visitors can add their opinions as well.

Company Blogs: To let their customers and client know about the company, many companies run blogs. They keep on updating their clients or customers about their new products or about the progress being made on some project.

Micro-Blogs: In this type of blog one can post very short comments that others can follow. Twitter is the best example of a micro blog where one can only post 140 characters with each entry called a tweet. These entries can be of persons own interests or about his life.

Question 6.
Money Manager Pvt. Ltd. is a finance company. It has organized a training program for employees that belong to age group 50 years or more. In today’s session they are learning how to compose and send an emaiL Help them by explaining the structure of an email.
OR
When using a search engine to search, why would you use quotation marks around search terms? (3)
Answer:
An E-mail message consists of following fields:

• To: Mail-id of recipient
• Cc: Cc stands for Carbon copy. It allows you to send the same mail message to multiple recipients at the same time.
• Bcc: Bcc stands for Blind carbon copy.
  It allows the sender to send same mail message to multiple recipients without letting them know that some other person has also received the same message.
• Subject: It is the title of the mail message.
• Body: It contains the text of a message.
• Attachments: It allows you to attach one or more files or documents like Word document, image, video, Web page etc. with you mail.
• Other options: Other options like emoticons, bold, italics hyperlink etc., are used to make message more interactive.
• Formatting : Using the formatting tab, you can format the message.
• Send button: Once you complete drafting the E-mail message, click. Send button to send the E-mail message.

OR
Using quotation marks around search queries helps in effective searching in following ways:

• Quotation mark is used around a phrase or search terms. It limits the search results to only those Web pages that contain the exact phrase, that has been specified.
• Using quotation marks ensures that, the phrase or query will be searched for as a whole and not picked apart by the search engine. Without the quotation marks, the results will include any page that contains the individual words we have used regardless of the order of the words.
• For example typing Computer Network without quotation marks could potentially retrieve all items that mention Computer, all items that mention Network as well as the items about Computer Network. This could lead to results that seem to have nothing to do with our topic. For best results, we should write “Computer Network”.

Question 7.
Fatima is a school owner and wants an internet connection for the computer lab of her school. Explain her the various ways to connect with the internet. (3)
Answer:
There are mainly three ways of connecting to the Internet, which are as follows:
1. Dial-up Connection: A dial-up connection uses a standard phone line and analog modem to access the Internet. The computer is connected with modem that connects through the standard phone lines. It serves as the data transfer medium. User needs to enter the password and specify a username at the time of initiating the connection. A dial¬up connection is the least expensive way to access the Internet, but it also slowest connection.

2. Broadband connection: Broadband refers to high speed data communication that uses various high-capacity transmission technologies to transmit data, voice, and video across long distances. Common mediums of transmission include coaxial cable, fiber optic cable, and radio waves. Broadband removes the need for dial-up as it is always connected.

Wireless connection: Rather than physically connecting devices with cables, wireless networking is a method of transferring data between computers and others networking devices using radio frequency waves. For wireless connectivity computers requires a wireless adaptor. WiFi, WiMAX and LTE are different methods of wireless connection.

Section – C (8 Marks)
(This section has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-ll (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.
Question-8 is of case-based type.)

Question 8.
Read the case study given below and attempt any 4 sub-questions (dut of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Shalini is an undergraduate student. Like many of her friends she too shares her pictures online. She also chats with her friends in online group. (4)
(A) Shalini has an account on different social networking sites. What is social networking?
Answer:
A social networking service is an online platform used by people to build social networks or social relationships with other people.

(B) Shalini shares her pictures from her account. Name any two social networking sites that allow to share pictures and videos.
Answer:
Instagram and Pinterest

(C) Shalini and her friends get together online at same time and sends text messages to each other. This is called ………………… .
Answer:
Chatting.
Related Theory:
Chat is a real time communication between two or more users via computer or mobile devices. It is a virtual means of communication that not only allows exchange of text messages but also sharing of audios and videos.

(D) The place where Shalini and her friends chat is called ……………… .
Answer:
Chat room.
Related Theory:
Chat rooms are actually chat servers or websites that offer their users with common interests to communicate in real time.

(E) Shalini is also member of some virtual groups where she can participate in discussions with them on some specific topics. What are these groups called?
Answer:
E-group:
Explanation: E-group is an online community of like minded individuals who come together virtually to discuss and share ideas, opinions, experiences and topics of their interests.

Question 9.
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Specification 1: Table Border should be 1.
Specification 2: The table header tag should be used wherever required.
Specification 3: Attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 4: Attribute rowspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 5: The table should exactly contain same number of rows and columns as shown above. The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table. (4)
Answer:
The code will be as follows:

<html>
<body>
<table border = 1>
<tr>
<th>Column l</th>
<th>Column 2</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Cell l</td>
<td rowspan="2">Cell 2</td> </tr>
<tr>
<td>Cell 3</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 hours
Maximum Marks: 25

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains three sections A, B and C. Each section is compulsory.
• Section A has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section B has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.
• Section C has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks.

Section – A (8 Marks)
(This section has 4 questions of short answer type. Each question is of 2 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question)

Question 1.
Garvit is creating a website far a writer to showcase his stories and articles. He wants to show complete text in italics and indent the first line of all the paragraphs by 10 pixels. Write the CSS property for him. (2)
Answer:
p {font-style : italic; text-indent: 10 px;}
Explanation: Font-style property is used to make the text italic/ oblique/ normaL Text- indent property is used to indent the first line.

Question 2.
‘Happy Journey’ is a travel agency. The website of the agency displays tour packages in a table. The website developer has used COLSPAN and ROWSPAN attributes in his code. What is the difference between both the attributes? (2)
Answer:
The differences between COLSPAN and ROWSPAN are as follows:

COLSPAN	ROWSPAN
1. It merges two or more Cells in a row same column as a single Cell vertically.	1. It merges two or more Cells in the into a single Cell horizontally.
2. COLSPAN attribute defines the num¬ber of columns a cell should span or merge.	2. ROWSPAN attribute specifies the number of rows a cell should span.

Related Theory:
CELL SPACING attribute is used to specify the space between ceils in a table i.e., the distance between two cells. Cell padding defines spcae between cell walls.

Question 3.
Sagar wants to add a link clicking upon which it redirects to send mail to an email address instead of web page. Help him with explaining the code. (2)
Answer:
The [mailto: email address] along with href attribute in <a> tag creates a link that redirects to email address. It opens the default email client to send an email to the specified email address. The general format for creating an email link is as follows:
<a href = “mailto: abc@xyz.com”>Send Email</a>

Question 4.
The inbox of email account is cluttered very often with spam and junk mails. Differentiate between spam and junk mail.
OR
Hardik noticed that some web addresses use HTTP protocol while others are using HTTPS. State differences between HTTP and HTTPS. (2)
Answer:

Spam mail	Junk mail
1. Spam emails are un­solicited messages sent to a large num­ber of people.	1. Junk emails are also unwanted mail.
2. These mail can be malware, viruses, phishing links or other malicious content	2. These are genuine messages for mar­keting, promotional, sales purposes etc.

Related Theory:
You can mark the mail in inbox as Spam. This will move the marked unwanted mail to Spam folder.
OR

HTTP	HTTPS
1. HTTP refers to the protocol that allows transferring of data on World Wide Web.	1. HTTPS is a protocol that allows trans­ferring of data in en­crypted form using SSL certificate.
2. It is used for sending information which is not very sensitive.	2. It is used to transfer sensitive information such as login details etc.

Explanation:
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. The HTTP protocol does not provide the security of the data, while HTTPS ensures the security of the data. Therefore, HTTPS is a secure version of the HTTP protocol. It allows transferring the data in an encrypted form. The use of HTTPS protocol is mainly required where we need to enter the bank account details, login credentials etc.

Section – B (9 Marks)
(This section has 3 questions of Long Answer Type-I (LA-I). Each question is of 3 marks. Internal choice is provided in 1 question.)

Question 5.
A web browser plays an important role in net surfing. What is a web browser? Discuss the types of web browsers.
OR
What do you mean by E-shopping? Give three advantages of it. (3)
Answer:
A web browser is a software program that allows a user to locate, access, and display web pages. A web browser or simply browser is used mainly for displaying and accessing websites on the internet. A typical web browser fetches the data from a web server and then displays the webpage on the user’s screen. In addition it is also used to display content created using languages such as HTML and XML.

Web browsers are of two types:

1. Text Web Browser: A Web browser that displays only text-based information and ignores graphic content is known as text Web browser, e.g. Lynx. Under slower internet connections, usually, they render pages faster than graphical web browsers.
2. Graphical Web Browser: A Web browser that supports both text and graphic information is known as graphical Web browser, e.g. Internet Explorer, Firefox, Netscape, Safari, Google Chrome, Opera.

OR
E-shopping or Online Shopping is the process of buying goods and services from merchants who sell their products on Internet.

Advantages of E-Shopping

• Finding a product online is much more easier than looking for it in the local store.
• Now-a-days online shopping is very reliable.
• Most of the stores provide money back guarantee.
• You have infinite options to choose a product from.

Question 6.
SMS and MMS are the most popular means of communication. Differentiate between the two of them. (3)
Answer:

SMS	MMS
1. SMS stands for Short Message Service.	1. MMS stands for Multi­media Message Service.
2. It is a text messaging service. Images in SMS appear as links.	2. MMS consists of mul­timedia contents such as image, audio and video files.
3. The maximum limit is 160 characters.	3. It can be 1600 charac­ters long.

Question 7.
‘Differentiate between absolute URL and relative URL (3)
Answer:
A URL is the web address to the site and its subpages or web pages. URL are of two types:
Absolute URL and Relative URL.

The difference between these two is as follows:

Absolute URL	Relative URL
An absolute URL contains the entire address of the website or webpage.	The relative URL does not use the full web address and only contains the location following the domain.
It begins with the protocol (HTTP or HTTPS) to the do­main name (e.g. www.abc.com) and includes the location of the webpage in the folder system.	It assumes that the link you add is on the same site and is 1 part of the same root domain. The relative path starts with the forward-slash and leads the browser to stay within the cur­rent site.
An example of an absolute URL is: http://www.abc.com/ xyz.html	An example of a relative URL is: /xyz.html

Section – C (8 Marks)
(This section has 2 questions of Long Answer Type-II (LA-II). Each question is of 4 marks. Question-8 is of case-based type.)

Question 8.
Read the case study given below and attempt any 4 sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark. (4)
Lakshya wants to search some content on internet for his geography project. He typed a URL in the web browser to open the web site.
(A) The URL he typed is also called ________ of the web site.
Answer:
Web address.

Related Theory:
A URL i.e. Uniform Resource Locator is a unique location or address of a web site on a web server.

(B) Lakshya wants to download the information for his project. Help him understand what is downloading?
Answer:
Downloading is the process of saving web pages, images and files from a web server on users local host computer using internet.

(C) Lakshya uses web browser to work on internet. Define web browser.
Answer:
A web browser or a browser is an application or software used to access and view websites.

Related Theory:
Opera, Google Chrome, Microsoft Edge are examples of web browser.

(D) Which type of software Lakshya will use to find information on internet?
Answer:
Search Engine.
Explanation: The websites used to search any type of information on internet are called search engines.

(E) Lakhya wants to search information on rivers of India excluding Ganga. The query for this search will be
Answer:
India + River – Ganga Explanation: In a search query + (plus symbol) is used to match options and a hyphen (or minus symbol) is used to exclude a word from search result.

Question 9.
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications. (4)

Specification 1: The caption of the table should be ‘Number of students’.
Specification 2: The value of the border attribute should be 2.
Specification 3: The distance between cells should be 3 and the space between data and cell walls should be 5.
Specification 4: The data should be in the center of the cell.
Specification 5: The web page should contain text exactly as shown in the above image.
Answer:

<html>
<body>
<table border=2 cellspacing=3 cellpadding =5>
<caption>Number of Students</caption> <tr>
<th> Class </th>
<th> Students</th>
</tr>
<tr align= center>
<td>X A</td>
<td> 56</td>
</tr>
<tr align= center>
<td> X B </td>
<td> 58 </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION – A
Reading (10 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.
Politeness has been correctly defined as benevolence in trifles. It is the desire to put people we meet perfectly at ease, and save them from every kind of petty discomfort and annoyance. The limited part of benevolence called politeness requires only an inclination to make people happy while they are in our presence. This can be done without any sacrifice on our part or only with a slight sacrifice of personal comfort.

5. Politeness is said to be one of the important characteristics of a civilised person. It must be implemented in every walk of life. An honest and polite person is polite with everyone elders, people of lower status, workers, and even children. Not only with humans but we must also be polite with animals.
Politeness is a skill. Like any other skill, you can master it with practice. The greatest enemy

10. of politeness is-ego. To be a polite person, you have to sacrifice your ego. It is difficult for an egoist to be polite. You have to apply politeness in your thinking, speech, and actions. Actions work more than words. Polite actions will give positive results. In our daily lives, we come across many incidents where people are unnecessarily rude. Politeness will reduce your stress and help you be productive. Apart from immediate benefits, you protect your

15. future as well. Being polite makes you mentally healthy.
Different rules of behaviour have to be observed at different places, for example in the street or in the drawing-room, at home or at school, in the company of friends or with strangers. We must also consider the great diversity of social etiquette which distinguishes one country from another.
Politeness, besides being a duty that we owe to others, is also a valuable possession for

20. ourselves. It costs nothing, and yet may in many cases bring much profit. The great advantage of this excellence of conduct was very clearly expressed by Dr Johnson when he said that the difference between a well-bred and an ill-bred man is that one immediately attracts your liking, the other your dislike.

On the basis of gour understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions from the six given below. (1 × 5)
(A) What does the writer mean by saying one can be polite with ‘a slight sacrifice of personal comfort’? (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given phrase, the writer means that one needs to just come out of their comfort zone a little or avoid any slight inconvenience in order to make others happy by being polite.

(B) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that means the same from lines 1-5.
Ronit is the youngest brother so, he usually help his elder siblings with work in a negligible amount. (1)
Answer:
Ronit is the youngest brother, so he usually helps his elder siblings with work in trifle.

(C) State the meaning of‘ill-bred ’ as implied in the passage. (1)
Answer:
An ‘ill-bred’ person is the one who is rude and lacks mannerism in his conduct in his upbringing. But in this passage, the word has been used appropriately for the people who lack ‘politeness’ in them.

(D) How has the writer explained the importance of politeness in a conduct? (1)
Answer:
The writer has explained the importance of politeness by stating that a polite person receives love and like instantly from others while an impolite person receives dislike.

(E) List two examples that can make us learn how polite a person really is in his life in the passage. (1)
Answer:
A bonafide polite person will always be polite with animals along with people. He will also be polite with strangers too.

(F) How does the writer justify politeness as a ‘skill’? (1)
Answer:
The writer justifies politeness as a ‘skill’ by stating that in the way a skill can be honed and made better through practice, politeness too can be made better by practising verbally and through polite actions.

Question 2.
Read the following excerpt from a case study titled ‘Discriminating Gender’.
Children in India live in diverse circumstances and have equally diverse needs and rights. Along with their needs to be educated, healthy, and skillful, they need, and have rights to adequate nutrition, to live in a safe and supportive environment, have opportunities to reach their optimal nentiat and generally lead healthy, joyful, and fulfilling lives so that they can become productive and well-adjusted citizens of tomorrow.

5. Children in our country face many challenges. Many of them are first-generation learners and face a myriad of problems throughout their schooling. Due to the socio-economic and cultural determinants, they may be vulnerable in many ways. Peer pressure and lack of positive role models may prompt them to make unsafe and unhealthy choices.
Anxiety and depression amongst the students, to the point of turning them suicidal, have been a cause for concern in the recent past. Girls are more vulnerable and face discrimination at many levels from being unwelcome since birth

10. to being pulled out of school for a variety of reasons. Dropping out of school, low motivation for academics, and general disinterest in sports and physical activities are some of the problems that need to be addressed. A survey done by Educating India, shows that nearly 65% of girls in the rural areas have depression as they felt inferior to boys due to their parents making them drop the school. The survey was conducted on 100 girls through a questionnaire that had 5 questions which was tabulated and studied. (Table 1)

15. Child malnutrition is rampant in most parts of the country. This has an adverse bearing on their cognitive capacities, learning performance, and physical capacity. India is one among the many countries where child malnutrition is severe. Malnutrition is a major underlying cause of child mortality in India. Our children have the right to have a good quality education, skill-building facilities, a safe and supportive environment, positive role models, empowerment, and friendly health services and counselling. Well-informed and skilled children are likely to make better 20. decisions concerning their careers and relationships, habits, physical and mental health, and also will be successful and an asset to the society.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions from the six given below. (1 × 5)
(A) What does the writer mean by saying that most of the children are ‘first generation learners’? (1)
Answer:
First generation learners refer to those students whose parents did not obtain a Higher Secondary Education. So, the writer means that many of the children in India belong to ‘first generation learners.’

(B) Comment on the significance of preventing ‘malnutrition in children’ as given in the lines 15-20. (1)
Answer:
Preventing ‘malnutrition in children’ is significant in order to improve children’s cognitive capacities, learning performance, and physical capacity. It is also important to control child mortality in India.

(C) Justify the writer’s opinion of ‘skilled children’ as an asset to society. (1)
Answer:
The writer has justified his opinion of ‘skilled children’ being an asset to society by saying that skilled children make better decisions for their career, relationships and health. This makes them successful in life and successful people are assets to the society.

(D) Why does the writer say that children face a‘myriad of problems’in schooling? (1)
Answer:
The writer say that children face a ‘myriad of problems’ in schooling as many of them suffer due to their socio-economic background and cultural differences.

(E) Parents in the rural areas still choose their sons over daughters to send to school. How does evidence from table support this statement? (1)
Answer:
From the table, we can see that 77% of girls have said ‘yes’ to the fact that they were not given the chance to study like their brothers.

(F) What is the purpose of ‘Can’t Say’ column in Question 4 of the table (questionnaire)? (1)
Answer:
The ‘Can’t Say’ column is for those girls who might have any other reason of their depression or who are just unaware of the cause of their emotions.

Section – B: [10 marks]
WRITING AND GRAMMAR

Question 3.
Attempt ANY ONE from (A) and (B).
(A) Study the concept chart from a recent study by WHO that has described some positive effects of quitting smoking.

Write a paragraph in not more than 120 words, analysing the given information. (5)
Answer:
Global warming refers to an increase in the average temperature of the Earth as a result of the greenhouse effect in which, gases in the upper atmosphere trap solar radiation close to the planet’s surface instead of allowing it to dissipate into space. The world is reeling in the after¬effects of global warming, with recurring environmental disasters like earthquakes, floods, cyclones, etc., causing loss of life and property. Increasing numbers of vehicles and mass deforestation have led to a spike in greenhouse gases.

Both natural and human-made conditions can be responsible, but humans can reduce it. Using less energy or alternative, non-polluting energy sources like solar and wind powers and afforestation can slow or stop global warming. Decomposing waste in landfills produces methane and other greenhouse gases. Waste also requires energy to manufacture in the first place, which can be reduced.

(B) You are Anuj of 451 C, Kailash Colony, New Delhi. You come across the following advertisement by Alexa Graphics Solution:

You are interested in doing a short-term course in computer graphics during vacation. Write a letter to the Director, Alexa Graphics Solution, in about 120 words, inquiring about their short-term courses and asking for other necessary details. (5)
Answer:
451 C, Kailash Colony
New Delhi
10^th June, 20XX

The Director
Alexa Graphics Solutions
Laxmi Nagar
New Delhi

Subject: Inquiry regarding the computer graphic course

Dear Sir/Madam
I have completed my XII grade with computer science as one of the subjects.
I would like to learn computer graphics and wish to join a short-term course for the same in your institution. Kindly send me the details about the courses offered, duration, fee structure and the eligibility criteria.

Also tell if you provide weekend courses or night classes.
Thanking you in anticipation.
Yours sincerely
Anuj

Question 4.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction. The first one has been done for you.

Books helped us know more about our ancestry. Through books, we get to knew about great writers, poets or philosophers. Books have solutions in them By reading books, our knowledge increased. One should develop a habit of reading books.
Answer:

(a) Explanation: As the sentence is in the present tense, ‘know’ is the correct answer.
(b) Explanation: ’or’ is used to define a choice between things while ‘and’ is used to define things collectively. The correct conjunction to be used here is ‘and’. Hence, it is the right answer.
(c) Explanation: As the sentence is in the present tense, ‘increases’ is the correct answer.

Question 5.
Read the conversation between a teacher and student and complete the passage that follows.
Raman: Mr Vijay is on the line Sir. He wants to know if you received his email.
Boss: I don’t know if it is in the mailbox Raman!
Raman: Yes, it is Sir! It says “You have still not replied to the earlier urgent email sent to you last week. Please reply at the earliest.”

The boss’s secretary Raman told him that Mr Vijay was on the line. He was asking
(a) ……………………. The boss told Raman that he did not know if it was in the mailbox. Raman informed the boss that there was a mail which said that he had not repLied to the earlier urgent e-maiL (b) ……………………… There was a request to repLy to it. (1 + 1)
Answer:
(a) if he had received the email
(b) that was sent to him last week

Section – C [20 marks]
LITERATURE

Question 6.
Answer ANY SIX questions in 30-40 words each.
(A) What was the significance of baker’s dress in the narrator’s childhood days? (2)
Answer:
During the narrator’s childhood, the bakers would wear a shirt and trousers which were shorter than full-length ones and longer than half-pants. People who wear such pants even today are nicknamed as “pader”.

(B) Justify Amanda’s choice of being Rapunzel in the poem, ‘Amanda’. (2)
Answer:
In the poem ‘Amanda’, Amanda was fed up of her mother’s constant nagging and thus, wanted to live alone like Rapunzel who lived alone in a tower, with no one to nag her all the time. Amanda thought that Rapunzel’s life must have been very peaceful and wonderful.

(C) Comment on the tone of a person when he said to Kisa Gotami, “Do not remind us of our deepest grief.’’ (2)
Answer:
The tone of the person in the quote is solemn because universality of grief and pain makes us solemn, which is unavoidable and harsh truth. Nobody can escape death.

(D) Fun can prove to be cruel if it extends beyond limit. Using evidence from the peom, explain how this concept is represented in ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’. (2)
Answer:
In the poem The Tale of Custard the Dragon’, Belinda tickled Custard for fun so much that it turned into cruelty. Her other pets bullied Custard by calling him Percival who was the legendary brave knight of King Arthur teasingly. All that teasing was beyond fun and rather bullying.

(E) What advice did the Tehsildar give Ramlal at the opening ceremony of the primary school in Bholi’s village? (2)
Answer:
When the Tehsildar came to perform at the opening ceremony of the village school, he advised Ramlal that as he was the revenue officiaL of the village, he must set an example for the villagers by sending his daughters to school.

(F) Briefly state what life-changing decision has the poet Walt Whitman taken in the poem ‘Animals’. (2)
Answer:
In the poem ‘Animals’, Walt Whitman has decided to leave behind the society of humans because he finds them complicated and false. He decides to live with animals because they still retain the basic aspects of their nature as a living being which humans gave up long ago.

(G) The narrator is not unhappy at his failure in finding Lutkins. Comment. (2)
Answer:
The narrator hated city life and was unhappy at the thought of serving summons on people. His ride through the village made him very happy. He was overjoyed to meet the hack driver. So he was happy though he had not found Lutkins.

Question 7.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each.
(A) In the greed of achieving an objective, people may even shake hands with their rivals at times. Critically examine Lomov’s visit to Chubukov for marrying Natalya, even when the two families never got well along, based on your reading of the chapter ‘The Proposal’. (4)
Answer:
In the chapter, ‘The Proposal1, Lomov was an unmarried man in his mid-thirties. He couldn’t get a bride of his choice but looking for a bride at his advancing age. So, he decided to compromise by proposing to Natalya for the marriage in order to his greedy personal objective. Natalya, on the other hand, was Chubukov’s daughter and Lomov’s immediate neighbour.

She was too waiting for someone’s proposal as she was not married. Both the families never got well along. Even after that, Lomov wanted to marry Natalya as he had no other option he thought Natalya was fairly good-looking, well-educated and a great housekeeper. So, Lomov visited Chubukov’s home with a proposal to marry his daughter in order to achieve his objective of getting married.

(B) Ebright had nothing really to do in his hometown Reading when he was young. His mother kept him busy with new books and equipment. Reflecting upon Ebright’s curiosity in the chapter ‘Making of a Scientist’, develop a conversation between Ebright and his mother when Ebright gets bored.
You may start like:
Ebright: Mom…l have nothing to do. This town is devoid of interesting things! Ebright’s mother: Why Richie? Don’t you
(4)
Answer:
Ebright: Mom.J have nothing to do. This town is devoid of interesting things! Ebright’s Mother: Why Richie? Don’t you have to collect colourful butterflies, rocks and rock fossils tomorrow? Also, I will buy you some new books on butterflies by Dr Urquhart. I have heard they are extremely good.

Ebright: Oh great! I can also click pictures of the natural objects. I need a telescope for gazing stars at night. Can you buy me one, mom?

Ebright’s Mother: Sure Richie. You also need to finish up your school project at the earliest. I will help you with that. Your friends might come over the weekend to stay with you.

Ebright: Thanks mom!

(C) A person’s surrounding plays a very crucial role in shaping its decisions and desires in life. In context of the story ‘Madam Rides the Bus’, evaluate how Valli developed interest and desire in her to ride the bus.(4)
Answer:
Valli an eight-year-old girl condensed no playmate of her age. She used to stand at the doorway of her house and watch the happenings of the street. She enjoyed the views of the outside world and learned a lot from the instances that she viewed. Her favourite time of the day was an hour during mid-day, when a bus used to ply between her village and the nearest town.

She used to get excited by looking at the people in the bus. Many of her friends used to describe their experiences of the bus ride to Valli, listening to which, she became jealous. Looking at the bus for days from the door of her house, she developed a strong desire to ride it herself all alone.

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 10 Science 2021-2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Answers 2021-2022 Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Paper Class 10 Science with Solutions 2022 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Paper Class 10 Science 2021-2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Carries 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers 2022 Solved Term 1 & Term 2.

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers 2022 with Solutions Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 4

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers 2021 with Solutions (Old Pattern)

• Sample Paper Class 10 Science Set 1 (New 2020-21)
• Science Sample Paper Class 10 Set 2 (New 2020-21)
• Class 10 Science Sample Paper Set 3 (New 2020-21)
• Sample Paper of Science Class 10 Set 4 for Practice (New 2020-21)
• Sample Paper of Class 10 Science Set 5 for Practice (New 2020-21)

CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper Design 2022

Section	SA I (2 Marks)	SA II (3 Marks)	Case-based (4 Marks)
A	7Q (3 Internal Choice)	–	–
B	–	6Q (2 Internal Choice)	–
C	–	–	2Q (2 Internal Choice)
Total	14M	18M	8M

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10th Science with Solutions 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on NCERT Science Sample Paper Class 10 2022 Solved Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.