CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper contains three sections-A. B and C. Each part is compulsory.
  • Section-A has 6 short answer type (SA1) questions of 2 marks each.
  • Section-B has 4 short answer type (SA2) questions of 3 marks each.
  • Section-C has 4 long answer type questions (LA) of 4 marks each.
  • There is an Internal choice in some of the questions.
  • Q14 is a case-based problem having 2 sub parts of 2 marks each.

Section – A
(Section – A has 6 short answer type (SA-1) questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 1

Question 2.
A die is rolled. If the outcome is an odd number, what is the probability that it is a prime number? (2)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 3.
A line makes the same angle θ with x and z-axes. If the angle β which it makes with y-axis is such that sin2β = 3 sin2θ, then find the value of cos2θ.
OR
If the distance of the point (1,1,1) from the origin is half its distance from the plane x + y + z + k = 0, then find k. (2)

Question 4.
Write the probability distribution of the random variable “number of heads” when one coin is tossed. (2)

Question 5.
Find the vector projection of \(\vec{a}\) on \(\vec{b}\), where \(\vec{a}\) = Sj – 3k and \(\vec{b}\) = î + ĵ + k̂. (2)

Question 6.
Show that xdy – (y + 2x2) dx = 0 is a linear differential equation. (2)
Answer:
We have,
x dy – (y + 2x2) dx = 0
or \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = \(\frac{y+2 x^{2}}{x}=\frac{y}{x}+2 x\)
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}-\frac{1}{x} y\) = 2x
This is of the type \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + P(x)y = Q(x), where P(x)
= \(\frac{1}{x}\) and Q(x) = 2x. x
∴ The given differential equation is a Linear differential equation.
Hence proved.

SECTION – B
(Section – B has 4 short answer type (SA-2) questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
Evaluate \(\int \frac{1}{3 \sin x+4 \cos x}\) dx. (3)
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 2
Answer:
Let I = \(\int \frac{1}{3 \sin x+4 \cos x}\) dx
Let r cos α = 3 and r sin α = 4.
Then, r2 = 25, i.e., r = 5 and α = tan-1\(\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\)
∴ 3 sin x + 4 cos x
= 5 cos α sin x + 5 sin α cos x
= 5 sin (x + α)
Now, I = \(\int \frac{1}{5 \sin (x+\alpha)}\) dx
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) ∫cosec (x + α) dx
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) log |cosec (x + α) – cot (x + α)| + C
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) log |cosec (x + tan-1\(\frac{4}{3}\) – cot (x + tan-1\(\frac{4}{3}\)| + C
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 8.
Show that the points A(- 2, 3, 5), B (1, 2, 3) and C (7, 0, -1) are collinear. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 4

Question 9.
Prove that \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b}+\vec{c})+\vec{b} \times(\vec{c}+\vec{a})+\vec{c} \times(\vec{a}+\vec{b})\) = 0. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 10.
Sketch the bounded region and find the area of the region bounded by the curve y = |x – 1| and the line y = 1.
OR
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2 = 4x, the lines x = 1 and x = 4 and the x-axis in the first quadrant. (3)
Answer:
We have, y = |x – 1|
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 6
Now, required area = ar(rect OBCD) – ar(∆OAD) – ar(∆ABC)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 7
OR
y2 = 4x represents a parabola whose vertex is at the origin, axis of symmetry is x-axis, focus on the positive direction of x-axis and it opens to the right.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 8

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(Section – C has 4 long answer type questions (LA) of 4 marks each.)

Question 11.
Show that the points (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and 3 (î + ĵ + k̂)are equidistant from the plane \(\vec{r}\). (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂) + 9 = 0 and lies on opposite side of it.
OR
Find the point(s) on the line through the points A(l, 2, 3) and B (3, 5, 9) which are at a distance of 14 units from the mid-point of AB. (4)
Answer:
Mid-point of vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 9
If the vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂) are equidistant and lies on opposite side of the
plane \(\vec{r}\) . (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂)+ 9 = 0, then their mid-point must satisfy the equation of the plane.
Since, (2î + ĵ + 3k̂) . (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂) + 9
= 10 + 2 – 21 + 9
= 0 = R.H.S.
Hence, the vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂) are equidistant and lies on opposite side of the given plane.
Hence, proved.
The equation of the line AB joining A(1, 2, 3) and B(3, 5, 9) is
\(\frac{x-1}{3-1}=\frac{y-2}{5-2}=\frac{z-3}{9-3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{6}\) = λ(say)
∴ Any point on this line is
(2λ + 1, 3λ + 2, 6λ + 3) …(i)
Since, this point is at a distance of 14 units from the mid-point of AB i.e., \(\left(2, \frac{7}{2}, 6\right)\).
∴ \(\sqrt{(2 \lambda+1-2)^{2}+\left(3 \lambda+2-\frac{7}{2}\right)^{2}+(6 \lambda+3-6)^{2}}\) [Using distance formula]
i.e., (2λ – 1)2 + (3λ – \(\frac{1}{2}\))2 + (6λ – 3)2 = 196 [squaring both sides]
⇒ 49λ – 49λ – \(\frac{735}{4}\) = 0
or 4λ – 4λ – 15 = 0
⇒ (2λ + 3) (2λ – 5) = 0
⇒ λ = \(\frac{5}{2}\), – \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Substituting the values of λ in (i), we get the
requirec points as (6, \(\frac{19}{2}\), 18) and (- 2, –\(\frac{5}{2}\), – 6).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 12.
Solve the differential equation: \(\frac{d y}{d x} \sqrt{1+x+y}\) = x + y – 1 (4)
Answer:
Given differential equation is:
\(\frac{d y}{d x} \sqrt{1+x+y}\) = x + y – 1 ……. (i)
Put \(\sqrt{1+x+y}\) = z
or 1 + x + y = z2
Differentiating w.r.t x, we get
0 + 1 + \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2z\(\frac{d z}{d x}\)
Substituting these values in (i), we get
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 10
⇒ 4 – 2z = A(z – 1) + B(z + 2)
⇒ 4 – 2z = (A + B)z – A + 2B
Comparing coefficients of z and constant terms both sides, we get
A + B = – 2
and – A + 2B = 4
Solving these equations, we get
B = \(\frac{2}{3}\), A = – \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ \(\frac{2 z^{2}}{z^{2}+z-2}\) = 2 + \(\left(-\frac{8}{3}\right) \frac{1}{z+2}+\frac{2}{3} \frac{1}{z-1}\)
Substituting this value in (ii), we get
⇒ \(2\left\{1+\frac{1}{3(z-1)}-\frac{4}{3(z+2)}\right\}\)dz = dx
Integrating on both sides, we have
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 11
= x + C
Which is the required solution of the given differential equation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 13.
Evaluate (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 12
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 14

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

CASE-BASED/DATA-BASED

Question 14.
There are two shops in a village market named Vijay General Store and Anand General Store. In Vijay General Store, 30 tin of pure mustard oil, 40 tin of adulterated mustard oil, while in Anand General Store, 50 tin of pure mustard oil 60 tin of adulterated mustard oil are there. Mr. Gautam wants to buy one tin of mustard oil from any store selecting at random.
Based on the above information, answer the following two questions:
(A) Find the conditional probability than an
adulterated mustard oil tin is bought, given that (i) Vijay General Store is selected at random (ii) Anand General Store is selected at random. (2)
(B) Mr. Gautam wants to know quality of mustard oil Before purchasing, he selected a store at random and then selected a tin of mustard oil at random. If the tin selected at random has adulterated oil, then find the probability that the selected tin is from Vijay General Store. (2)
Answer:
Let E1, E2 and A be the events defined as follows:
E1: Selection of Vijay General Store
E2: Selection of Anond General Store
A: Purchasing of a tin having adulterated mustard oil.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 15

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

There is a time when everyone has to face grief. When someone dear to oneself dies, one is left in a state in which grief and shock overcome the ordinary life. One is left in a situation when one feels there is nothing one can do. Grief and mourning are always associated with death. It also happens with other kinds of losses. It could be the loss of one’s job, loss of one’s house or the loss of a close friend.

5. The best people able to cope with these are those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning ritual. In India, we have diverse rituals which nowadays are being discarded. But these help in surmounting the crisis. The near and dear ones come to share the grief and apply balm with their words of solace. In a modern society, one is expected to act as if nothing has happened, but research has shown that mourning is an essential part

10. of coming to terms with loss. There comes a time when one has to give up one’s grief and rejoin the main stream of life. Mourning in itself passes through these phases. Firstly, it is in the nature of shock and disbelief. A feeling of numbness overtakes. The brain is not in a position to accept. It so happens that one expects the arrival of the lost one, thinking that nothing will change and he/she will be with the lost one. In the second phase, one realises the truth that the loss has actually happened,

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

15. and it was not a dream. It is then that one feels the pain. Then one recollects the old moments and the memory of guilt creeps in. Here, the affected person displays odd behaviour and has difficulty in activities like eating and sleeping. One may remain in this stage for weeks, months and sometimes years.

In the next phase, one experiences relief from pain and negative feeling. This leads to the 20. positive side. Then one feels one must make alternative arrangements or replacements. Here, one is ready to cope with the situation. One knows one cannot recover what one has lost, but is conscious of the future, accepts the loss and is ready for the alternative.

On passing through all the stages of grief, it seems that time has passed like a river under the bridge. This shows that mourning has been successful. One cannot forget the loss but one 25. comes to terms with the reality.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s opinion of mourning being a successful step in overcoming the loss. (1)

(B) State the way the people in modern society are expected to react to a loss that is evident from lines 7-12 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)

(C) The writer says that the best people to cope with loss are the ones who ‘come from a strict mourning culture’. Why does he think so? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that a person who loses his loved one displays odd behaviours? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20 – 25.
Ram panicked when his experiment didn’t go well because he didn’t have any other set-up for the competition. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint of grief? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I don’t understand why Amanda is being so reckless. She needs to have ……… that no matter how hard Ms. Casey tries not to let her in the cheerleading team again. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(H) Grief and mourning are always associated with death. What are the other kinds of losses other than the ones given in the passage? (1)

(I) Analyse the better way of coping with a loss – ignorance or acceptance. (1)
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, a research states that mourning is an essential part of coming to terms with loss. As there are many phases of grief and disbelief in the loss of a lost one, mourning helps pass the affected person through these phases by making him understand and accept the loss over time.

(B) The people in modern society are expected to react as if nothing has happened. I think the reason behind it is that people think ignorance or suppressing emotions might help them overcome the loss or their feeling of sorrow.

(C) As per the writer, the best people to cope with loss are the ones belonging to a strict mourning culture because mourning makes it easy for the brain to accept that the loss has actually happened. It helps a person to overcome his pain by reliving it through lamenting.

(D) The writer says that a person, who loses a loved one, displays odd behavior because it is a big emotional damage that he goes through. So, in that grieving phase, he loses his control over all activities like eating or sleeping, and it takes a lot of time for him to get back to his normal lifestyle.

(E) alternative arrangements

(F) The writer uses the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ to express that when a person experiences a loss of his loved one, his body, mind and soul is not ready to accept it. His emotions get so disturbed that he doesn’t even feel alive for a period of time.

(G) come to terms with reality

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(H) The other kinds of loses that a person may face in his life are divorces, loss of a relationship with a close one, family fued, best friend tiffs, failure in exams, poor performance in a competition, losing after several trials, etc.

(I) The better way of coping with a loss is definitely acceptance. Ignorance may work only for a few hours or days but it keeps the guilt alive always. However, once you accept the Loss, you move on forever.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
On August 4th, the United Nations (UN) released the secretary-general’s policy brief on the impact of COVID-19 on the world’s education system. The policy’s brief points to the fact that the closure of schools and other learning spaces have impacted 94% of the world’s student population (up to 99% in

5. low and lower-middle-income countries). It suggests that despite the delivery of lessons by radio, TV and online, and efforts of teachers and parents, many students still do not have access to education. It highlights how learners with disabilities, those from marginalised communities, displaced and refugee students,

10. and those in remote areas are at highest risk of being left behind. And it warns that the knock-on effects on child nutrition, child marriage and gender equality could be enormous.

The cumulative impact of all these on children may lead to a “generational catastrophe” that could waste human potential, undermine decades of progress, and exacerbate.

15. entrenched inequalities. This is not good news for any nation, more so for those in the low and lower-middle-income segments such as India. According to UNESCO, nearly 321 million Indian children have been at home since 2020 March-end. There is no clarity on when schools will reopen.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 2
20. In the last few decades, especially since the enactment of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, India has seen a surge in school enrolments and infrastructure development in the primary and secondary segments. But the learning outcomes have not kept pace. The pandemic has now exacerbated this existing challenge. In addition, the extended period of closure means students don’t have access to midday meals; 25. and with parental incomes under strain, there could be a spike in drop-out rates, especially among girls.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

While the focus must be now be ensuring the safety of students, teachers and staff, and putting in place protocols for school reopening, there has to be an extensive assessment of the learning loss and well-thought-out plans.

30. to bridge the learning gap, and schemes to retain students. This entails tweaking the syllabus and changing pedagogy. This forced break must also be used to align the sector to the National Education Policy (NEP), which was released last week, especially to its foundational learning goals. Last but not least, governments will have to arrange for funds.

35. required for the sector. This will be a challenge post-COVID-19, but starving the education sector of finances will be irresponsible, for it is crucial to meeting India’s development goals and creating an inclusive society.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 3
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘exacerbate entrenched inequalities’? (1)
(B) What grave reality does the survey on the effect of COVID on Indian school kids from school closure shows for girls? (1)
(C) With reference to fig. 1, write possible reasons about the impact on children in China due to COVID. (1)
(D) What can be concluded for the methods used by the schools for keeping up with regular studies, with reference to fig. 3?
(E) The school closures may also lead to ill child nutrition. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Why are ‘placing protocols’ recommended as a significant step on school reopening? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 25-35 indicating the pattern of teaching a particular academic subject. (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given phrase, the researcher means that COVID has disrupted the entire education system in the world which may worsen the already rigid inequalities that are prevalent for children, especially in low-income segment countries like India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(B) The survey shows that the loss in parental income under the COVID strain will lead to a big drop-out rate and the nearest target for that would be girls because parents in India would prefer their sons to daughters for continuing their studies.

(C) In fig.l, it is evident that the Chinese students are the most affected school kids. This may be due to a large number of cases of virus, high number of students’ enrolments, more schools, and a high population in the nation.

(D) Clearly in fig. 3, we can see that in spite of schools taking actions like referring their entire studies over online classes, app tutorial and webinars, nothing is proving to overcome the impact on t children as the number of students affected world wide are only rising.

(E) The school closures will surely affect the child nutrition as several of the children rely upon the ‘mid-day meal’ schemes for their daily nutrition and with the closure of schools, they will have no access to it.

(F) Placing protocols is very crucial on schools reopening because we must not forget that the presence of deadly viruses is still lingering. Crowded places like schools, including little children who aren’t able to keep their own safety properly, are at a higher risk.

(G) Pedagogy

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Raj Krishna Agrawal, the Principal of St. Eve Modern School. You were invited to inaugurate the local book exhibition by the community. Draft a formal reply accepting the invitation. (3)
Answer:
Mr. Raj Krishna Agrawal thanks the community people for inviting him to inaugurate the local book exhibition in the city on Sunday, the 13th of April, 20XX, at 2.00 p.m. He accepts the invitation and is honored to be the Guest of Honour for the event. He will reach the venue at 1.50 p.m. sharp.

Regards
Mr Raj Krishna Agrawal
Principal, St. Eve Modern School

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) St. Agnes School, Ahemdabad, requires two sports coaches (one male and one female). Each should be a degree holder in physical education as well as an SAI-certified coach in athletics. You have seen their advertisement and you know that you have these qualifications. Write an application in 120- 150 words along with your resume. You are Brijnesh/Uma Patel of M-42, Saras Road, Ahemdabad.
OR
(B) Your state government has banned the use of plastic bags. Your are Sonali Singh Chadda. As a reporter of The Times of India, write a report in about 120-150 words on how the ban is being ignored and what damage the indiscriminate use of plastic bags is causing to the environment, covering all the details like people still seen with poly bags, plastic clogs drains, kill wildlife, non-biodegradable, toxic, etc.
Answer:
M-42
Saras Road
Ahmedabad
30th September, 20XX
The Principal
St. Agnes School
Ahmedabad

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Subject: Application for the post of sports coach.

Sir/Ma’am,
This is with reference to your advertisement in The Gujarat Times, dated 28th September, 20XX, for the post of a sports coach.

I wish to apply for the same. I have all the qualities that would suit the post best. I am a certified SAI Coach in Athletics and I hold a bachelor degree in Physical Education. I have served as a Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years and then joined the AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmedabad, from where I got my SAI certification.

I will be highly thankful to you if you shortlist me for the personal interview. I am enclosing my resume for your perusal.

Yours faithfully,
Brijnesh/Uma Patel

Resume
Father’s Name : Mr Akhilesh Patel
Name : Uma Patel
Address : M-42, Saras Road, Ahmadabad
Date of Birth : 4th or March, 19XX
MaritaL Status : Unmarried
EducationaL Qualifications : BPEd from Asaram Institute, Anand SAI certification in athletics from AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmadabad
Job experience : Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years
Expected salary : negotiable

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Caution :
Students often write irrelevant details of the candidate in the job letters. Avoid giving any confusing details of the candidate in both the body and the bio-data in the letter. Never give different details of the candidate in the body of the letter and the bio-data.

OR

Plastics Ban Ignored, threat to Environment
keeps going on
By Sonali Singh Chadda, Staff Reporter,
The Times of India

New Delhi, 12th August, 20XX: The government has banned the production and use of plastic bags in our country. But unfortunately, nobody seems to follow the rule. Not only people are seen using a huge number of poly bags daily but are also seen discarding them in the drains uncaring about the fact that they will block the flow of drain water. Polybags are a threat to our environment. They cause pollution, kill wildlife and are responsible for using up the natural resources of the earth. They are one of the main factors that litter the landscape. If burnt, they will infuse the surrounding air with toxic fumes.

The main problem of plastic bags is that they are non-biodegradable. The decomposition of plastic takes around a thousand years, so with the plastic rubbish produced each day it is likely that this problem will never be solved. While the government works out ways to lessen the impact of polybags on the environment, the citizens of the nation should too follow the ways laid.

Caution :
Students often get confused when they do not get sufficient details in the questions about any generic topic. In these questions, it is always better to write general information. Avoid giving any factual data without a backing.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – C
Literature (18 marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How was the crofter ‘generous with his confidences’ when he spoke to the peddler? (2)
(B) ‘Gandhi was a visionary’. Substantiate the statement in regard with the chapter ‘Indigo’.
You may begin your answer like this: Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness…
(C) Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘fluttering through her wool’. Expound both the literal and metaphoric meanings of the statement. (2)
(D) Validate why is grandeur associated with the ‘mighty dead’? (2)
(E) Why does Jack insist that it was the wizard that was hit and not the mother? (2)
(F) Rationalize what clues the answer sheet of Evans provided to the Governor. (2)
Answer:
(A) The crofter was generous with his confidences with the peddler. He told the peddler that he had been a crofter but now his cow supported him. He further added that the cow would give milk for the creamery every day, and that last month, he had received thirty kronors as payment from it. The crofter didn’t even think once before telling tales to the peddler.

(B) Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness and observation in him. He was definitely a visionary who saw that the peasants of Champaran need to be free from the shackles of their fear from the British and then fight for their rights. He knew that the fear in them is greater than their desire for justice.

(C) Literally, the statement means that as Aunt Jennifer has grown old and weak, she doesn’t have enough strength to pull through the needle. Metaphorically, her nervousness and fright from her household circumstances has made it difficult for her to pull throw the needle.

(D) The mighty dead rulers had sacrificed their precious lives for the sake of their nations and others. They are often associated with ‘grandeur’ because they lived a glorious and a heroic life.

(E) Jack does not want his daughter to have a negative opinion about a mother. He wants Jo to accept that a mother can never take any wrong decision for her children. Thus, from a mother’s perspective, he justifies Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(F) The answer sheet had been cleverly attached to the last page of the question paper by Evans to outwit his opponents and mislead the police. It was from his answer-sheet that the police got the clue that Evans had hit McLeery whom Evans was himself impersonating. The six figure reference was a clue to a place that landed him in the middle of Chipping Norton.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, John Keats compares a beautiful thing to things like a ‘bower’ and ‘endless fountain of immortal drink’. Expound in about 120-150 words. (4)
(B) The story ‘the Rattrap’ is based on a rattrap seller who thinks the world to be nothing but a rattrap. Explain how he himself ended up being caged in the same rattrap. Examine the story in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)
(C) The question paper and correction slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans in the chapter ‘Evans Tries an O-level. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) In this poem, John Keats says that a thing of beauty provides a soothing joy to our minds and souls forever. As a man’s life is full of trials and tribulations, he faces a lot of dilemmas and gloom. The things of beauty provide a relief from those everyday dilemmas to men. The poet then compares the thing of beauty with a ‘bower’ which is a cool shady sideway near the cold crystal water streams that gives a nice soothing place to rest in scorching heats. A beautiful thing similarly soothes a man’s stressed mind.

Next, he compares a thing of beauty to ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink’. He says that all these beautiful things are a gift of nature which shower endlessly and continues forever. The imprints of beautiful things are permanent on our minds. They provide an endless source of inspiration. In fact, fountain of immortal drink refers to grandeur of heroism which inspires us and gives one the courage to flight for a cause.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Indeed, the question paper and correction ’ slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans. In one instance, we see that the Governor received a call from the Assistant Secretary of the Examination Board saying that there was a correction slip, which was not attached to the question paper. The Secretary requested the Governor if he could read out the correction to Evans. The correction read ‘zum goldenen Lowen’.

In reality, it was not a correction but an indication informing Evans about the location he needed to reach after his escape. Later, when the Governor learned about Evans’ escape, Rev. McLeery, who was Evans in real, showed him the question paper at the back of which, instructions were given to help Evans escape. These instructions were to misguide the prison authorities.

The paper also helped the Governor at the end. By putting together the index and centre numbers, the Governor got the hint of Evans location. With the six digit reference and the help of a survey map, the Governor got the hint that Evans had escaped to a place called Chipping Norton.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 1.
Find net value added at factor cost: (₹ Lakh)
(i) Durable use producer goods with a life span of 10 gears 10
(ii) Single-use producer goods 5
(iii) Sales 20
(iv) Unsold output produced during the year 2
(v) Taxes on production 1
Answer:
NVAFC = Sales + Unsold Output – Single use
producer goods – Depreciation – Taxes on production
= 20 + 2 – 5 – (10/10) – 1
=20 + 2 – 5 – 1 – 1
= ₹15 lakhs

Question 2.
If in an economy: Change in Initial investments (Δl) = ₹700 crores Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2 Find the values of the following:
(A) Investment Multiplier (K)
(B) Change in final income (ΔY) (2)
OR
Estimate the change in initial investment if Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 0.10 and change in final income is ₹15,000 crores. (2)
Answer:
K = 1/M PS
K = 1/0.2 = 5
ΔY = K(Δl)
ΔY = 5 x ₹700
= ₹3.500 crores
OR
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/MPS
K = 1/0.10 = 10
K = ΔY/Δl
10 = ₹15.000/Δl
Δl = ₹1.500
Change in initial investment
= ₹1.500 crore

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 3.
State whether the following statement is true or false:
“As per Keynesian theory in an economy, full employment can never exist.”
OR
State whether the following statement is true or false:

Aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes downward from left to right. (2)
Answer:
True
Full employment can never exist as some people mΔY not be willing to work at all or not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate. It is known as voluntary unemployment. Thus, some natural rate or unemployment alwΔYs exists in the economy.
OR
False
Expenditure is positively related to income thus, aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes upward from left to right.

Question 4.
Distinguish between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution. (2)
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to the large increase in production of food grain resulting from the use of high yield variety (FIYV) seeds of food crops (like wheat and rice) and supportive technology during mid 1960s to mid 70s. Whereas, Golden Revolution refers to the process where India has emerged as a leader in producing a variety of horticulture crops.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 5.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
OR
Since independence, the benefits of the increase in economic growth in India have trickled down to the people at the bottom of population pyramid. Defend or refute with valid reason. (2)
Answer:
Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation. Technology used in the informal sector enterprises is outdated; they also do not maintain any accounts. Workers of this sector live in slums and are squatters. Thus, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector.
OR
The statement is refuted as there have been different factors (like massive rate of growth of population, unequal distribution of wealth, skewed benefits accruing from green revolution, etc.) due to which benefits of increase in the Gross Domestic Product have not trickled down completely to the people at the bottom of population pyramid.

Question 6.
“Some infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on production of goods and services while others give indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.” Elucidate. (3)
Answer:
Some divide infrastructure into two categories – economic and social. Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation and communication are included in the former category thus, economic infrastructure is the basic facilities which directly benefit the process of production and distribution in an economy. Those related to education, health and housing are included in the latter thus, social infrastructure gives indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 7.
“The Great Leap Forward intended to transform China from an agrarian economy to modern society.” Explain.
OR
Nations incorporate international membership and encompass geopolitical entities that operationally transcend a single nation-state? Explain why. (3)

Read the following case carefully and answer questions number 8 and 9 given below:

Budget 2021: Covid-19 brings back focus on Yoga, industry puts these demands Yoga has been part of Indian culture for thousands of years and is widely accepted around the world for its health and wellness creating aspects. The global coronavirus pandemic, caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 or SARS-CoV-2, has once again shifted focus towards this age-old practice. While in a pre-COVID era most people opted for yoga as a weight loss measure, the pandemic has made them aware of the importance of their wellness, health, and immunity for which practicing yoga is best. Boosting immunity is an essential requisite to fight against highly infectious coronavirus. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranayamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection.

Experts believe that the yoga industry is making the desired impact on the people of India and in turn, it seems to create a change in the development of individuals and also become a national interest. Shilpa Ambre – CFO, SARVA Yoga – told Financial Express Online that it is the right time to promote the industry by extending all the required support. Praising the Modi government for exceptionally brilliant work in spreading the importance of yoga in the past few years, Mita Vinay said that allocating some dedicated budget will help the yoga industry flourish at the right time and the right way. She also feels that loans at a low-interest rate will help yoga teachers start their own yogashala or studios. “Many talented teachers are not able to go all out spreading the positive effects of yoga because of the lack of the opportunity, I would like to see a low-interest loan provided to the yoga teachers who wish to open their yogashala or studio.”

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

https://www.financialexpress.com/budget/budget-2021-covid-19-brings-back-focus-on-yoga-industry-puts-these-demands /2156744/
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, communes were started. Under the Commune system, people collectively cultivated lands. In 1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population.
OR
Regional economic integration/groupings are one of the major tools for developing international trade activities. It focuses on the transformation of a small nationaL economy into a larger economic unit. Regional and economic groups such as SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G-8, G-20, BRICS, etc. are formed to increase economic cooperation between neighboring nations or those with similar economic interests. The formation of grouping is considered more important in developing countries because all developing countries face competition not only from developed countries but also within themselves due to the limited economic space. In addition, co-operation with other economies in our region is also necessary, as all major economic activities in the region contribute to the overall human development of the shared environment.

Question 8.
How allocating budget to popularize yoga will impact GDP? (3)
Answer:
Government expenditure on popularizing yoga raises Gross Domestic Product because it is government’s final consumption expenditure.

It is a productive expenditure which improves the productive capacity of the economy. Yoga helps to improve the quality of the labour force by enhancing mental and physical stability of the people. This improves the production process and higher the production efficiency, higher will be the GDP growth.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 9.
Government should allocate budget to popularize yoga among the masses. Analyse its impact welfare of the people. (3)
Answer:
Expenditure on spreading the importance of Yoga will raise welfare of the people because yogic exercises improve health and thus, raises efficiency of the people. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranΔYamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection and increases efficiency.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions on the basis of the following data:
(A) Comment upon the population growth rates among the three countries.
(B) Which country has most skewed in sex ratio?

Source: World Development Indicators, 2015.
www.worldbankorg
Answer:
(A) The given data shows that the annual
growth rate of population is maximum in Pakistan standing at 2.1%, whereas; the same stands at a meager 0.5% in case of China (might be a direct result of the One-Child Policy adopted). The annual population growth rate of India is in the danger zone of more than 1% p.a. India will be overtaking China as the most populous country in the world in near future.

(B) Amongst the three countries stated above, India has most skewed data sex ratio (929 female per 1000 male). This is one of the major concerns for the demographers in India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 11.
(A) “Domestic/household services performed by a woman may not be considered as an economic activity”. Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason.

(B) ‘Compensation to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a welfare measure taken by the government”. State with valid reason, should it be included/not included in the estimation of national income of India. (5)
Answer:
(A) The given statement is defended; as it is difficult to measure the monetary value of the services performed by a woman (homemaker). Therefore, these activities mΔY not be considered as an economic activity.

(B) Compensation given to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a social welfare measure taken by the government. However, it is not included in estimation of national income as it is a transfer pΔYment which does not lead to corresponding flow of goods and services.

Question 12.
The saving function of an economy is given as:
S = – 25 + 0.25 Y.
If the planned investment is ₹200 crores, calculate the following:
(A) Equilibrium level of income in the economy.
(B) Aggregate demand at income of ₹ 500
crores. (5)
OR
Answer the following questions based on the data given below:
(i) Planned investment = ₹100 crore
(ii) C = 50 + 0.5 Y
(A) Determine the equilibrium level of income.
(B) Calculate the saving and consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of National Income. (5)
Answer:
(A) We know that the equilibrium level of income in an economy is determined when: S = l
According to the question:
– 25 + 0.25Y = 200
0.25Y = 225
Y = ₹900 crores

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(B) We know that in an economy: AD = C + l According to the question, AD at income of ₹900 crores will be;
AD = 25+(l – 0.25)Y + 200
AD = 25+0.75(500) + 200
AD = ₹600 crore
OR
(A) At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + 1
Y = (50 + 0.5Y) +100
Y – 0.5Y = 150
Y = 150/0.5 = ₹300 crores
Equilibrium level of income
= ₹300 crores

(B) S = – C + (1 – b) Y
= – 50 + (1 – 0.5) (300)
= ₹ 100 crores
Y = C + S
300 = C + 100
C = 300 – 100 = ₹ 200 crores

Question 13.
“It refers to facilities and systems that enable the functionality of a community. The lack of it places pressure on the existing systems in place. Overcrowded schools and healthcare facilities, overpopulation, and unemployment lead to an underperforming economy.”

Identify the type of infrastructure and its importance for an economy. (5)
Answer:
Social Infrastructure: Importance of Social Infrastructure for an Economy:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

  • It contributes to the healthy and strong growth of the new generation so that we can be more productive human resources in the future.
  • Social infrastructure contributes to the growth of society as it helps in the growth of literacy.
  • Social infrastructure facilitates skill-building, which is an important parameter in the context of economic growth.
  • It helps to improve and provide quality health care for the people.
  • Social infrastructure contributes to the building of a working economy, which goes hand in hand with a significant amount of money to create an effective system for growth and development.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 35
Time : 2 hours

Instructions

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections -A, B and C.
  • Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks
  • Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
  • Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
  • Internal choices have been given for question numbers -1, 3, 8 and 12.

Section-A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
The branches of Digital Cinemas were operating without any network between them. Looking at the advancement of digital technologies, they want to implement networks in their branches . Help them understand the advantages they would enjoy with networks. Also, inform about the different types of networks that can be implemented.
Or
While studying protocols, Mr. Thakur discovered existence of VoIP . Help him to understand the protocol and also explain him the advantages of it.
Answer:
There are some advantages of computer networking, which are as follows

  • It enhances communication and availability of information.
  • It allows for more convenient resource sharing.
  • It makes file sharing easier.
  • It is highly flexible.
  • It is an inexpensive system.
  • It increases cost efficiency.
  • It boosts storage capacity.
  • It lacks independence.

Categories of networks on the basis of distance, they support

  • LAN (Local Area Network) A network of computers within a small area such as : a room, a building or a campus.
  • MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) A network spread across a city.
  • WAN (Wide Area Network) A network spread across countries, states and continents, i.e. a larger geographical area.

OR

VoIP is an IP telephony term for a set of facilities used to manage the delivery of voice information over Internet. It enables a user to make cheap telephone calls over a broadband Internet connection, instead of using a regular telephone service.

A major advantage of VoIP is that avoids the tolls charged by ordinary telephone service. A user can make a call locally or in other parts of US or Canada, or anywhere else in the world, eliminating long distance fees by using a VoIP service.

The concept of VoIP is used in wireless LAN networks and sometimes referred to as WVoIP, VoFI, VoWi-Fi and Wi-Fi VoIP.
Advantages of VoIP

  • The biggest single advantage of VoIP has over standard telephone systems is low cost.
  • Using services such as true VoIP, subscribers can call one another at no cost to other party.
  • Routing phone calls over existing data networks eliminate the need for separate voice and data networks.
  • The ability to transmit more than one telephone call over a single broadband connection.
  • VoIP consists advance telephone features, e.g. call routing, screen POP and IVR.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 2.
(i) Anish is a web developer and can write web pages but he is not conversant with how to host the web pages to a server. Explain him the concept of web hosting.
Answer:
Web hosting is a service that makes our site or web application accessible on the Internet. It’s also one of the most essential elements to consider when building a website. Web hosting is typically provided by web hosts, which are businesses that maintain, configure and run physical servers that house websites.

(ii) Rishita finds the word www in front of all the URLs and website addresses. She is curious about what is www? Explain her the concept.
Answer:
WWW stands for World Wide Web, which is also known as the Web. It is a collection of websites or web pages stored in web servers and connected to local computers through the Internet. These websites contain text pages, digital images, audios, videos, etc. Users can access the content of these sites from any part of the world over the Internet using their devices such as computers, laptops, cell phones, etc. The WWW, along with Internet, enables the retrieval and display of text and media to your device.

Question 3.
Some of the MySQL numeric functions are not properly understood by Niharika . Help her with an explanation and example of each of the functions given below
(i) POWER()
(ii) MOD()
OR
Write the uses of following MySQL functions with one example of each.
(i) MID()
(ii) LEFT()
Answer:
(i) POWER()/POW() function returns the power of a number.
e.g. SELECT POWERt (2, 5);
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 1

(ii) MOD() function returns the remainder of a number dividing by another number.
e.g. SELECT MOD(12, 2);
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 2

Or

(i) MID() function returns a substring of the specified length starting from the specified position.
e.g. MID( ‘HELLO’ ,3);
Output
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

(ii) LEFT() function returns the left most number of characters as specified,
e.g. LEFT(‘HELLO’,1);
Output
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 5

Question 4.
Rishabh, a beginner in web surfing came to know that for surfing the web a computer/ smartphone equipped with a modem, an internet connection and a web browser is required . He understands the other requirements but has less knowledge about web browsers.
Explain him the concept of web browser.
Answer:
A web browser or simply browser, is an application used to access and view websites. Common web browsers include Microsoft Edge, Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox and Apple Safari.

A web browser takes you anywhere on the Internet. It retrieves information from other parts of the web and displays it on your desktop or mobile device. The information is transferred using the HyperText Transfer Protocol, which defines how text, image and video are transmitted on the web.

Question 5.
Samadrita wants to find the outputs of the following queries using SUBSTRQ and MOD() functions. Help her to find the outputs.
(i) SELECT SUBSTR(“testcases”,-5.3);
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 6
The SUBSTR() function extracts certain number of characters from a string . Here the function extracts characters starting from position – 5 and then 3 characters from the right.

(ii) SELECT M0D( 17.7,3);
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 7
The MOD() function returns the remainder of division.

Question 6.
Ramesh had learnt the ORDER BY and GROUP BY clauses of SQL a few time back. Now, he is not very comfortable about the terms . Help him to recall back the differences.
Answer:

ORDER BY clause GROUP BY clause
It is used to arrange records of a table. It is used to group records on common values of a column.
It works on individual records. It works on groups of records.
The attribute can be under aggregate function under ORDER BY statement. The attribute cannot be under aggregate function under GROUP BY statement.
It has two types-Ascending and Descending. No such variations.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 7.
Priya is not able to find the outputs of the following SQL queries on the Drinks table. Her manager had instructed her to find out some aggregate results based on the table. Help her in finding the outputs.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 8
Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Brand) FROM Drinks;
(ii) SELECT SUM(Price) FROM Drinks WHERE Brand=“Coca – Col a” ;
Or Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT MAX(Price).MIN(Price) FROM Drinks;
(ii) SELECT COUNT(Price) FROM Drinks;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 9

Section B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Mr. Siladitya wants to find outputs of some MySQL functions, although he is well conversant with some functions, but not all and specially when working with multiple functions together. Help him in finding the outputs in the following cases.
Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT UCASE(LEFT(‘school ’ ,4));
(ii) SELECT C0NCAT( LEFT(‘ Happy ’ , 2), RIGHT( ‘ Days ’, 2));
(iii) SELECT M0NTH(‘2021-09-08’);
Or
(i) SELECT SUBSTR(‘Christmas’,2,4);
(ii) SELECT SUBSTR( ‘ Wi ntervacati on ’ ,-5,3);
(ii) SELECT MIDC ’SCIENTIFIC’ ,3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 11

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 9.
Ankita is writing the following queries but not getting the proper outputs. Help her in correcting the errors.

(i) SELECT MAX(Salary) Employee;
Answer:
SELECT MAX(Salary) FROM Employee;

(ii) SELECT MEAN(Salary) FROM Employee;
Answer:
SELECT AVG(Salary) FROM Employee;

(iii) SELECT L0WEST(Sal ary) FROM Employee;
Answer:
SELECT MIN(Salary) FROM Employee;

Question 10.
Vijay is not clear about how he can use the following MySQL functions, explain him the uses of the following functions.
(i) TRIM()
Answer:
TRIM() It removes any extra spaces from right and left of a string,but not from the middle,
e.g.
SELECT TRIM(‘ Zebra crossing ’);
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 12

(ii) SUBSTR()
Answer:
SUBSTR() It extracts certain number of characters from any part of a string,
e.g. SELECT SUBSTR
(‘Elephantsinafrica’ ,2,4);

Output
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 13

(iii) RIGHT()
Answer:
RIGHT() It extracts characters from right of a string.
e.g. SELECT RIGHT(‘Writersbui1ding’,5);

Output
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 14

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Section-C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Akhilesh a clerical staff in a Doctor’s Dispensary. He maintains records of visiting doctors in a table Doctor. He wants to analyse some data and find some results such as total number of doctors of certain departments , average charges in some departments etc. Help him in writing proper queries to get the results.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 15

(i) To display the maximum charges among the Ortho doctors.
Answer:
SELECT MAX(Charges) FROM Doctor WHERE Dept=“0rtho”;

(ii) To display the doctor names in uppercase along with their department names concatenated.
Answer:
SELECT CONCAT(UCASE(Dname),Dept) FROM Doctor;

(iii) To display each department and the total number of doctors in them.
Answer:
SELECT Dept,COUNT(*) FROM Doctor GROUP BY Dept;

(iv) To display each department and the average charges of each.
Answer:
SELECT Dept, AVG(Charges) FROM Doctor GROUP BY Dept;

Question 12.
Simran has prepared a table storing details of some contractual job applicants. Her colleague who left the organisation, had written some queries to generate certain outputs from the table. She was told by her manager to find the outputs of the queries, Help her in finding the outputs.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 16
(i) SELECT Name, JoinYear FROM Applicants WHERE Gender=‘F’ AND C_ID=‘A02’ ;
(ii) SELECT MIN(JoinYear) FROM Applicants WHERE l 3ender=‘M’;
(iii) SELECT AVG(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE C_ID= ‘A01’ OR c_: [D=‘AO 5 ’ ;
(iv) SELECT SUM(Fee), C_ID FROM Applicants GROUP BY C_ID HAVING COUNT(*)=2;

OR
(i) SELECT MAX(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE Name LIKE “A%”;
(ii) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Gender) FROM Applicants;
(iii) SELECT SUM(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE Gender=“M”;
(iv) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Applicants;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 17
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 13.
Green Valley Public School has 4 buildings in its campus . Distance between the buildings and the number of computers in each is given below
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with solutions 19

Building Number of Computers
A 150
B 10
C 25
D 30

 

Building Distance
A-B 10 m
A-C 1250 m
A-D 25 m
B-C 30 m
B-D 2000 m

(i) Which building is best suitable for placement of server ?
Answer:
Building A, as it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) If building A to D is to be connected, which device will be required for strong signals ?
Answer:
A repeater would be required, as signals become weak in long distances which can be amplified by a repeater.

(iii) Which building would need a switch/hub ?
Answer:
Hub/switch would be required in all the buildings as they connect multiple computers.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

(iv) Which topology would you suggest for connecting computers in each building ?
Answer:
Star topology would be the best as it has multiple positive features.

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CBSE Sample Papers 2022-2023 for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7 and 6 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 with Solutions

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Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic) SQP MS
Mathematics (Standard) SQP MS
Science SQP MS
Social Science SQP MS
English (Language & Literature) SQP MS
Hindi A SQP MS
Hindi B SQP MS
Sanskrit SQP MS
Computer Application SQP MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy SQP MS
Elements of Business SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bahasa Melayu SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Gurung SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Rai Language SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sherpa SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tamang SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu AP SQP MS
Telugu Telangana SQP MS
Thai SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu A SQP MS
Urdu B SQP MS

Class XII Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Applied Mathematics SQP MS
Mathematics SQP MS
Physics SQP MS
Chemistry SQP MS
Biology SQP MS
English Core SQP MS
English Elective SQP MS
Hindi Elective SQP MS
Hindi Core SQP MS
Sanskrit Core SQP MS
Sanskrit Elective SQP MS
Economics SQP MS
Geography SQP MS
History SQP MS
Political Science SQP MS
Accountancy SQP MS
Business Studies SQP MS
Entrepreneurship SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
Informatics Practices SQP MS
Computer Science SQP MS
Sociology SQP MS
Psychology SQP MS
Physical Education SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Bharatanatyam SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Biotechnology SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
Carnatic Melodic SQP MS
Carnatic Percussion SQP MS
Carnatic Vocal SQP MS
Dance Manipuri SQP MS
Dance Odissi SQP MS
Engg. Graphic SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Kathak SQP MS
Kathakali SQP MS
Kuchipudi SQP MS
Legal Studies SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Applied Arts (Commercial Art) SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
KTPI SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Graphic SQP MS
Sculpture SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu (AP) SQP MS
Telugu (Telangana) SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu Core SQP MS
Urdu Elective SQP MS

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 in Hindi Medium with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 with Answers

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 & Marking Scheme PDF Download

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 Pdf with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Solutions Answers Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Papers of Class 10th Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions in Hindi Medium

Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic) SQP MS
Mathematics (Standard) SQP MS
Science SQP MS
Social Science SQP MS
English (Language & Literature) SQP MS
Hindi A SQP MS
Hindi B SQP MS
Sanskrit SQP MS
Computer Application SQP MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy SQP MS
Elements of Business SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bahasa Melayu SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Gurung SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Rai Language SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sherpa SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tamang SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu AP SQP MS
Telugu Telangana SQP MS
Thai SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu A SQP MS
Urdu B SQP MS

We hope these Solved Sample Paper of Class 10 CBSE 2021 2022 Pdf with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Class 10th Sample Papers Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  • Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
  • Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
  • Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
  • Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
  • Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Calculate the due dates of the following bills: [2]

Date of Bill Period
(a) 29th January 2020 1 month
(b) 23rd December 2020 60 days
(c) 13th April 2020 3 months
(d) 10th January 2019 2 months

Answer:
(a) 29th Jan + 1 months + 3 days = 3rd March 2020
(b) 23rd Dec + 60 days + 3 days = 21st February 2021
(c) 13th April + 3 months + 3 days = 16lhAugust 2020
(d) 10th Jan + 2 months + 3 days = 13th March 2019

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 2.
The following is the Trial Balance of Thakur Bros, as at 28th February 2018:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1
The following transactions were recorded during the month of March 2018 :
(a) Credit purchase of goods ₹ 2,20,000
(b) Credit sales of goods ₹ 3,75,000
(c) Purchase Return ₹ 15,000
(d) Sales Return ₹ 10,000
You are required to prepare the Trial Balance as on 31st March 2018. [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 2

Commonly Made Errors: Students tend to subtract the Sales return and Purchase Return from the Sales and purchases respectively.

Answering Tip: Students need to keep in mind the journal entries of the returns and see the accounts affected by the transactions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Percent yield calculator is online tool that finds the percent yield for the given amount of actual yield calculator and theoretical yield.

Question 3.
On 1st October, 2014, ₹ sells goods to Y for ₹ 25,000 and draws two bills of exchange on him: the first for ? 10,000 for two months and second for ₹ 15,000 for 3 months. Y accepts and returns these bills to ₹. Both the bills are sent to the bank for collection. In due course, ₹ receives the information from the bank that the bill for ₹ 10,000 has been duly met and the other bill for ₹ 15,000 has been dishonoured. Noting charges paid on the dishonour of the second bill are ₹100. Pass Journal entries in the books of ₹. [3]
OR
A purchased goods for ₹ 15,000 from B on 1st March. 2013 and gives him two Bills. One for ₹ 10,000 at two months and other for ₹ 5000 at four months. A meet the first bill at maturity but on 25th June, 2013 he was declared insolvent and 60 paise in a rupee amount was received from him on August 20,2013. Journalise in the books of B and prepare A’s A/c. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 5

Commonly Made Errors: On the payment of second bill, some students debit the unreceived amount to discount A/c.

Answering Tip: Since A has been declared insolvent, the amount not received from him becomes unrecoverable. Therefore, this amount is to be debited to Bad debts A/c.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 4.
Rectify the following errors through Journal entries and also show the wrong entries passed:
(i) An amount of ₹ 4,500 spent for the extension of machinery has been debited to Wages Account.
(ii) ₹ 150 paid as cartage for the newly purchased furniture, posted to Cartage Account.
(iii) A builder’s bill for ₹ 3,000 for erection of a small cycle shed was debited to Repairs Account.
(iv) A cheque of ₹ 1,500 received from Komal was dishonoured and had been posted to the debit side of ‘Allowance A/c’.
(v) ₹ 750 paid for the newly purchased ‘Fan’ posted to Purchase Account. (RD [5]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 6
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 7

Commonly Made Errors:

  • Students debit the Office expenseaccount instead of furniture and fixtures A/c in the rectification entry for purchase of fan.
  • Students tend to debit Bank A/c for rectifying the entry of the dishonour of cheque.

Answering Tips

  • As purchase of fan is a part of office fixtures, so it will be rectified by debiting the furniture and fixtures A/c.
  • When Cheque received is dishonoured, the account of the person from whom the cheque was received is debited.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer In Accounts)

Question 5.
Operating profit earned by M/s Arora and Sachdeva in 2013-14 was ₹ 17,00,000. Its non-operating incomes were ₹ 1,50,000 and non-operating expenses were ₹ 3,75,000. Calculate the amount of net profit earned by the firm. [2]
Answer:
Net Profit = Operating Profit + Non- operating Income – Non-operating Expenses
= ₹ 17,00,000 + ₹ 1,50,000 – ₹ 3,75,000 = ₹ 14,75,000
Net profit earned by M/S Arora and Sachdeva in 2005-06 was ₹ 14,75,000.

Question 6.
From the following information, calculate capital at the beginning: [2]

Capital at the end of the year 4,00,000
Drawings made during the year 60,000
Fresh Capital introduced during the year 1,00,000
Profit of the current year 80,000

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 8

Question 7.
Briefly discuss the functional components of a computer system. [3]
OR
Differentiate between Manual and Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
A computer is a combination of hardware and software resources which integrate together and provide various functionalities to the user. Hardware is the physical component of a computer like the processor, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc. while software is the set of programs or instructions that are required by the hardware resources to function properly. There are a few basic components that aids the working-cycle of a computer i.e. the Input- Process- Output Cycle and these are called as the functional components of a computer. It needs certain input, processes that input and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output. The memory unit holds the data and instructions during the processing.

OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 9

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 8.
Hari maintains his books of account on single entry system. His books provide the following information:

Particulars Jan. 1,2012 (₹) Dec. 31,2012 (₹)
Furniture 200 200
Stock 2,800 3,050
Sundry Debtors 2,100 3,400
Cash 150 200
Sundry Creditors 1,750 1,900
Bills Receivable 300
Loan 500
Investments 1,000

His drawings during the year were ₹ 500.
Depredate furniture by 10% and provide a reserve forbad debts at 10% on sundry debtors. Calculate profit or loss earned by the firm. [3]
OR
Ronak, who keeps his books on Single Entry System, has his capital on 31st March, 2016, ₹ 1,20,000 and on 1st April, 2015 was ₹ 1,16,700. He further informs that during the year, he withdrew for his personal expenses ₹ 19,400. He also sold his personal investment of ₹ 1,10,000 at 5% premium and brought that money into the business. Prepare a statement of Profit or Loss. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 11

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 9.
Give Journal Entries for the following Adjustments in final accounts assuming CGST and SGST @9% each:
(A) Salaries ₹ 5,000 are outstanding.
(B) Insurance amounting to ₹ 2,000 is paid in advance
(C) ₹ 4,000 for rent have been received in advance.
(D) Commission earned but not yet received ₹ 1,000. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 13

Commonly Made Errors: Students calculate GST for Salaries and Prepaid Insurance and Rent.

Answering Tip: Students need to recall that GST is not levied on Salaries and GST is not accounted on Prepaid expenses.

Question 10.
The following is the statement of affairs of Avinash as on 1st April 2014:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 14
His position on 31st March 2015 are:
Cash in Hand ₹ 3,000; Cash at Bank ₹ 5,000; Stock ₹ 44,000; Debtors ₹ 21,000; Fixed Assets ₹ 80,000; Creditors ₹ 22,000.
You are informed that Avinash has taken stocks worth ₹ 4,500 for his private use and that he has been regularly transferring ₹ 2,000 per month from his business banking account by way of drawings. Out of his drawings, he spent ₹ 15,000 for purchasing a scooter for the business on 1st October 2017.
You are requested to find out his profit or loss and also prepare the Statement of Affairs after considering the following:
(a) Depreciate Fixed Assets and Scooter by 10% p.a.
(b) Write Bad-debts ₹ 1,000 and provide 5% for doubtful debts on Sundry Debtors.
(c) Commission earned but not received by him was ₹ 2,500.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 15
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 16
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 17

Working capital:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 11.
The following balance was extracted from the books of M/s Panchsheel Garments on March 31st, 2014.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 19
Prepare the trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31st, 2014 and a balance sheet as on that date taking into account the following information:
(i) Unexpired insurance ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Salary due but not paid 1,800.
(iii) Wages outstanding 200.
(iv) Interest on capital @ 5%.
(v) Scooter is depreciated @ 5%.
(vi) Furniture is depreciated @ 10%.
(vii) Closing stock was valued at ₹ 15,000. {5]
OR
From the following balances of M/s Nilu Sarees as on March 31,2014. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account and balance sheet as on date.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 20
Stock as on March 31st, 2011 ₹ 22,000.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 21
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 22

Working Note:

  • Calculation of Interest on capital: 5% of ₹ 50,000 = ₹ 2,500
  • Calculation of Depreciation on Scooter: 5% of ₹ 8,000 = ₹ 400
  • Calculation of Depreciation on Furniture: 10% of ₹ 5,200 = ₹ 520

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 24
Note: The balance of suspense account has been given in the credit side of the trial balance, hence is to be transferred to the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 12.
Jagdish the new accounting manager wants to install the Accounting software for accounting to help his company in making the accounts faster. His C.E.O wants him to give a presentation in the board meeting. State the advantages of using Accounting Information System, that Jagdish can use in his presentation. [5]
Answer:
The advantages of using computerized accounting software are:
1. Automation: Since all the calculations are handled by the software, computerized accounting eliminates many of the mundane and time-consuming processes associated with manual accounting. For example, once issued, invoices are processed automatically making accounting less time-consuming.

2. Accuracy: This accounting system is designed to be accurate to the minutest detail. Once the data is entered into the system, all the calculations, including additions and subtractions, are done automatically by software.

3. Data Access: Using accounting software, it becomes much easier for different individuals to access accounting data outside of the office, securely. This is particularly true if an online accounting solution is being used.

4. Reliability: Because the calculations are so accurate, the financial statements prepared by computers are highly reliable.

5. Scalable: When a company grows, the amount of accounting necessary not only increases but becomes more complex. With computerized accounting, everything is kept straight forward. because shifting through data using software is easier than shifting through a bunch of papers.

6. Speed: Using accounting software, the entire process of preparing accounts becomes faster. Further more, statements and reports can be generated instantly at the dick of a button. Managers do not have to wait for hours, even days, to lay their hands on an important report.

7. Security: The latest data can be saved and stored in off-site locations, so it is safe from natural and man-made disasters like earthquakes, fires, floods and terrorist attacks. In case of a disaster, the system can be quickly restored on other computers. This level of precaution is taken by Clever Accounting.

8. Cost-effective: Since using computerized accounting is more efficient than paper-based accounting, work will be done faster and time will be saved. When one considers, Clever Accounting, one of the latest online accounting solutions, which starts at a low monthly subscription, then computerized accounting really becomes a no-brainer.

9. Visuals: Viewing your accounts using a computer allows you to take advantage of the option to view your data in different formats. You can view data in tables and using different types of charts.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

  • There are 12 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
  • SECTION A – Q. No. 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • SECTION B – Q. No. 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • SECTION C- Q. No. 12 is case based question carrying 5 marks.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section – A
(Section A-Question No 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated (any 2):
(a) Benzoic acid, Phenol, Picric acid, Salicylic acid (pka values).
Answer:
Picric acid < salicylic acid < benzoic acid <phenol

Explanation:

  • Picric acid (2,4,6 – Trinitrophenol) – Presence of electron-withdrawing group (-NO2) increases the acidic character.
  • Salicylic acid (2-Hydroxy benzoic acid) – Stability of salicylate ion due to intramolecular H-bonding.
  • Benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) – More stability of benzoate ion due to resonance which is prominent on carboxylate ion.
  • Phenol (C6H5OH) – Stability of phenoxide ion due to resonance.

(b) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Methyl tert butyl ketone (reactivity towards NH2OH).
Answer:
Methyl tert – butyl ketone < acetone< Acetaldehyde

Explanation:

  • More the steric hinderance, difficult is the attack of nucleophile.
  • Methyl tert-butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde.
    (Max. steric hinderance) (Min. steric hinderance)

(c) ethanol, ethanoic acid, benzoic acid (boiling point) (2)
Answer:
ethanol

we can calculate the dilution of tube by dilution factor formula and…View the full answer.

Question 2.
Solutions of two electrolytes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are diluted. The Am of ‘B’ increases 1.5 times while that of A increases 25 times. Which of the two is a strong electrolyte? Justify your answer. Graphically show the behavior of ‘A’ and ‘B’. (2)
Answer:
B is a strong electrolyte. The molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution as there is no increase in number of ions on dilution as strong electrolytes are completely dissociated.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1

Related Theory:
For strong electrolytes number of ions remains same at oil concentrations due to their complete dissociation. The ions become far apart from one another and their interionic forces decrease Hence, molar conductivity increases slowly with increase in dilution.

For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with an increase in dilution, so molar conductivity increases maximum near-infinite dilution.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 3.
Give reasons to support the answer
(a) Presence of Alpha hydrogen in aldehydes and ketones is essential for aldol condensation.
Answer:
The alpha hydrogen atoms are acidic in nature due to presence of electron withdrawing carbonyl. group. These can be easily removed by a bose and the carbanion formed is resonance stabilized.

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2

(b) 3 -Hydroxy pentan-2-one shows positive Tollen’s test. (2)
Answer:
Tollen’s reagent is o weak oxidizing agent not capable of breaking the C-C bond in ketones . Thus ketones cannot be oxidized using Totlen’s reagent itseLf gets reduced to Ag.

Explanation:
3-Hydroxy pentan-2-one does not give Tollen’s test

Related Theory:
Aldehydes have a proton attached to the carbonyl carbon which can be abstracted, aUowing them to be easily oxidized to form carboxylic acids. The lack of this hydrogen, makes ketones generally inert to these oxidation conditions i.e with mild oxidizing agents Like Tollen’s reagent.

Section – B
(Section B-Question No 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
Account for the following:
(a) Aniline cannot be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal conditions.
(b) N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8K, although both are isomeric in nature.
(c) Acylation of aniline is carried out in the presence of pyridine.
OR
Convert the following:
(a) Phenol to N-phenylethanamide.
(b) Chloroethane to methanamine.
(c) Propanenitrile to ethanol. (3)
Answer:
(a) in case of chlorobenzene, the C—Cl bond is quite difficult to break as it acquires a partial double bond character due to conjugation.
So Under the normal conditions, ammonolysis of chlorobenzene does not yield aniline.

(b) Primary and secondary amines are engaged in intermolecular association due to hydrogen bonding between nitrogen of one and hydrogen of another molecule. Due to the presence of two hydrogen atoms, the intermolecular association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there is one hydrogen atom available for hydrogen bond formation in it

(c) During the acylation of aniline, stronger base pyridine is added. This done in order to remove the HCl so formed during the reaction and to shift the equilibrium to the right hand side.

OR

(a) Phenol into IM-pherylethanamide
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 3

(b) Chloroethane to methanamine
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 4

(c) Propanenitrile to ethanal
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 5

Related Theory:
(a) Since aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions due to resonance effect causing partial double bond character of C-X bond, so a of chiorobenzene cannot be substituted with ammonia (nucleophite).

(b) N-ethyl ethanamine CH3CH2NCH2CH3 is a secondary amine whereas butanamine (CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2) is a primary amine. Since intermolecular hydrogen bonding is more in 1° amines than those in 2° amines so boiling points of 1° amines are higher than those of2°amines.

(c) Pyridine is used to remove the side product formed in the acylation reaction i.e., HCl from the reaction mixture. Being a strong base, it acts as an acceptor for the acid by-product formed in the reaction.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(a) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (ag) is green in colour whereas [Ni(H2O)4 (en)]2+ (aq) is blue in colour, give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Write the formula and hybridization of the following compound: tris(ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) sulphate
OR
In a coordination entity, the electronic configuration of the central metal ion is t2g3eg1
(a) Is the coordination compound a high spin or low spin complex?
(b) Draw the crystal field splitting diagram for the above complex.
Answer:
(a) The colour of coordination compound depends upon the type of ligand and d-d transition taking place.
H2O is weak field ligand, which causes small splitting, leading to the d-d transition corresponding green colour, however due to the presence of (en) which is strong field ligand , the splitting is increased . Due to the change in t2g – eg splitting the colouration of the compound changes from green to blue. :

(b) Formula of the compound is [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2 (SO4)3
The hybridisation of the compound is: d2sp3
OR
(a) As the fourth electron enters one of the eg orbitals giving the configuration t2g3 eg1, which indicates ∆0< P hence forms high spin complex.

(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 6

Related Theory:
(a) The cause of the cotour of coordination compounds can be explained by Crystal Field Theory. The colours exhibited by transition- metal complexes are caused by

  • excitation of an electron from a lower-energy d orbital to a higher-energy d orbital, which is called a d-d transition,
  • The specific ligands(strong or weak) coordinated to the central metal atom.

(b) According to Valence Bond Theory (VBT), Co(en)3]2(SO4)3 forms inner orbital complex involving d2sp3 hybridization.
OR
Related Theory:
(a) According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), given configuration t2g3 eg1 shows that splitting energy ∆o is less than pairing energy P(∆o < P) causing no pairing of electrons, so high spin complex will be formed.

Question 6.
Account for the following:
(a) Ti(IV) is more stable than Ti(II) or Ti(III).
(b) In case of transition elements, ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
(c) Zinc is a comparatively a soft metal, iron and chromium are typically hard. 3
Answer:
(a) Ti is having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2 4s2. Ti (IV) is more stable as Ti4+ acquires nearest noble gas configuration on loss of 4 e.

(b) In the case of transition elements, ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with T increasing atomic number.

As the new electron enters a d orbital each time the nuclear charge increases by unity. The shielding effect of a d electron is not that effective, hence the net electrostatic attraction between the nuclear charge and the outermost electron increases and the ionic radius decreases.

(c) Iron and Chromium are having high enthalpy of atomization due to the presence of unpaired electrons, which accounts for their hardness. However, Zinc has low enthalpy of atomization as it has no unpaired electron. Hence zinc is comparatively a soft metal.

Related Theory:
(a) By losing its four electrons of 3d2 4s2, Ti4+ attains stable configuration of the nearest noble gas with the complete octet.

Caution:
(b) Students should read the question carefully. Question is asking about the trend of ionic radii of transition metal ions and not about the trend of atomic radii of transition metal atoms because both the trends are different.

Related Theory:
(c) Zn has completely filled d-orbital, hence it cannot form metallic bonds (less enthalpy of atomization),while Cr has half filled d-orbital (3d5) and Fe has partially filled d-orbital (3d6) and can form metallic bonds (high enthalpies ofatomization). Since metallic bonds make a metal hard, Cr and Fe are hard metals and Zn is a soft metal.

Question 7.
An alkene ‘A’ (Mol. formula C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ gives positive Fehling’s test and also forms iodoform on treatment with I2 and NaOH. Compound ‘C’ does not give Fehling’s test but forms an iodoform. Identify the compounds A, B and C. Write the reaction for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C. (3)
Answer:
Compound A is an alkene, on ozonolysis, it will give carbonyl compounds. As both B and C have >C=0 group, B gives positive Fehling’s test so it is an aldehyde and it gives iodoform test so it has CH3C=0 group. This means the aldehyde is acetaldehyde. C does not give Fehling’s test, so it is a ketone. It gives a positive iodoform test so it is a methyl ketone means it has CH3C=0 group

Compound A (C5H10) on ozonlysis gives B (CH3CHO) + C (CH3COR) SO “C” is CH3COCH3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 19

  • CH3CHO + 2Cu2+ + 5OH → CH3COO + Cu20 (red ppt) + 3H2O
  • CH3COCH3 + 2Cu2+ + 5OH → No reaction
  • CH3CHO + 3I3 + 3 NaOH → CHI3 (yellow ppt) + 3HI + HCOONa
  • CH3COCH3 + 3I2 + 3 NaOH → CHI3 (yellow ppt) + 3HI + CH3COONa

A = CH3CH = C(CH3)2
B = CH3CHO
C = CH3COCH3

Related Theory:
Alkenes on ozonolysis give carbonyl compounds > C = O group.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 8.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow: semi-permeable membrane
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 8
(a) Which process is represented in the figure?
Answer:
electrodialysis

Explanation:
Electrodialysis is a process by which a colloidal solution is purified under the influence of electric field.

(b) What is the application of this process?
Answer:
purification of colloidal solution.

Explanation:
During this process of purification, the colloidal solution containing ionic impurities is put in bag of parchment paper under electric field so that ions can pass through the parchment paper but colloidal solution does not.

(c) Can the same process occur without applying electric field? Why is the electric field applied? (3)
Answer:
Yes. Dialysis is a very slow process to increase its speed electric field is applied.

Explanation:
Electrodialysis is faster process than normal dialysis under the influence of electric field.

Question 9.
What happens when reactions:
(a) N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
(b) Benzylchloride is treated with ammonia followed by the reaction with Chloromethane.
(c) Aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcohoLic potassium hydroxide.
OR
(a) Write the tUPAC name for the following organic compound:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 9
(b) Complete the following: (3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 10
Answer:
(a) When N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyt chloride. N.N-diethylbenzenesutphonamide is formed.
(b) When benzytchloride is treated with ammonia , Benzytamine is formed which on reation with Chioromethane yields a secondary amine. N-methylbenzytamine.
(C) When aniLine reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide. phenyl isocyanides or phenyt isonitrite is formed.
OR
(i) N-Ethyt-N-methytbenzenamine or N-EthyL-N-ethytaniline

(ii)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 11

Related Theory:
(a) The reaction of the benzene suiphonyl chionde (Hinsbergs reagent) with secondary amines like N-Ethylethanamine gibes a suiphonamide product (N, N-Diethylbenzenesulphonomide) that is NOT soluble ¡n alkall
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 12

(b) Benzy chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) undergoes nucleophilic substitution with ammonia (NH3) to give Benzylamine (CH5CH2NH,) which on reaction with chtorornethane (CH3Cl) undergoes alkylation to give N-methyl benzyiomine, a secondary amine.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 13

(c) Carbyl amine reaction/Ho ffmonWs carbytomines test/Isocyonide test: Aliphotic or aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH give foul smelting alkyt isacyariides or carbytamines. This test is not given by secondary or tertiary amines.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 14

Related Theory:
(a) It is a tertiary amine so alkyl groups attached to N atoms will be named first in their alphabetical order followed by the name of parent amine (with the largest olkyl group).

(b) Compound C and D given in the question are from the deleted portion of Chapter 13- Amines

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 10.
Represent the cell in whkh the following reaction takes place. The value of E° for the cell ¡s 1.260 V. What is the value of E?
2Al(s) + 3Cd2+(0.1M) → 3Cd(s) + 2Al3+(0.01M)
Answer:
Al(s)/Cd2+(0.1M)//Al3+(0.01M)/Cd(s)
2Al(s) + 3Cd2+(0.1M) → 3Cd(s) + 2Al3+(0.01M)

Ecell = E°cell\(\frac{-0.059}{n}\)log\(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Al}^{3+}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{Cd}^{2+}\right]^{3}}\)

Ecell = 1.26 – \(\frac{0.059}{6}\)log\(\frac{(0.01)^{2}}{(0.1)^{3}}\)
= 1.26 – \(\frac{0.059}{6}\)(-1)
= 1.26 + 0.009
= 1.269 V

Caution:
Students generally forget to put powers of stoichiometric coefficients on concentration of ions in Nernst equation so see the stoichiometric coefficients carefully and try to avoid the very common mistake.

NERNST Equation:
cell = Ecell – \(\frac{0.059}{n}\) log\(\frac{[P]^{x}}{[R]^{y}}\)

Question 11.
(a) Why are fluorides of transition metals more stable in their higher oxidation state as compared to the lower oxidation state?
(b) Which one of the following would feel attraction when placed in magnetic field: Co2+, Ag+, Ti4+, Zn2+
(c) It has been observed that first ionization energy of 5d series of transition elements are higher than that of 3d and Ad series, explain why?
OR
On the basis of the figure given below, answer the following questions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 15
(a) Why Manganese has Lower melting point than Chromium?
(b) Why do transition metals of 3d series have Lower melting points as compared to 4d series?
(c) In the third transition series, identify and name the metal with the highest melting point. (3)
Answer:
(a) The ability of fluorine to stabilize the highest Oxidation state is attributed to the higher lattice energy or high bond enthalpy.

(b) Co2+ has three unpaired electrons so it would be paramagnetic in nature, hence Co2+ ion would be attracted to magnetic field.

(c) The transition elements of 5d series have intervening 4f orbitals. There is greater effective nuclear charge acting on outer valence electrons due to the weak shielding by 4f electrons. Hence first ionisation energy of 5d series of transition elements are higher than that of 3d and 4d series.

OR

(a) Manganese is having lower melting point as compared to chromium, as it has highest number of unpaired electrons, weak interatomic metal bonding, hence no delocalisation of electrons.

(b) There is much more frequent metal – metal bonding in compounds of the heavy transition metals i.e., 4d and 5d series, which accounts for lower melting point of 3d series.

(c) Tungsten

Related Theory:
(a) Transition metal fluorides in their higher oxidation station state forms smaller cation due to which lattice enthalpy increases and so the stability increases.

(b) Magnetic moment {μ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)}of Co2+ is maximum due to the presence three unpaired electrons so attracted by external magnetic field.

(c) First ionisation stionisation enthalpies of 5d elements are higher than those of 3d or 4d elements this is due to the greater effective nuclear charge acting on outer valence electrons because of weak shielding by Af electrons causing lanthanoid contraction.

OR

Related Theory:
(a) Manganese has 5 electrons in its d-orbital with half-filled stable configuration so delocalization of the electrons. Hence these electrons are not free to participate in metallic bonding. Manganese has less heat of atomization and hence its melting point is also low.

(b) The size of 4d-series transition metal elements is Consequently, the melting point of elements larger than 3d-series transition metal elements of 3d-series is lower than the elements of (atomic size increases down the group) so force 4d-series. of attraction of nucleus towards outermost electrons becomes Less. Hence the outer most valence electron is available for strong metallic bond formation so a large amount of heat energy is required to break this type of metallic bond.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Section – C
(Section C-Question No 12 is case-based question carrying 5 marks.)

Question 12.
Case Study-1
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Are there nuclear reactions going on in our bodies?
There are nuclear reactions constantly occurring in our bodies, but there are very few of them compared to the chemical reactions, and they do not affect our bodies much. All of the physical processes that take place to keep a human body running are chemical processes. Nuclear reactions can lead to chemical damage, which the body may notice and try to fix.

The nuclear reaction occurring in our bodies is radioactive decay. This is the change of a less stable nucleus to a more stable nucleus. Every atom has either a stable nucleus or an unstable nucleus, depending on how big it is and on the ratio of protons to neutrons. The ratio of neutrons to protons in a stable nucleus is thus around 1:1 for small nuclei (Z < 20). Nuclei with too many neutrons, too few neutrons, or that are simply too big are unstable. They eventually transform to a stable form through radioactive decay. Wherever there are atoms with unstable nuclei (radioactive atoms), there are nuclear reactions occurring naturally. The interesting thing is that there are small amounts of radioactive atoms everywhere: in your chair, in the ground, in the food you eat, and yes, in your body.

The most common natural radioactive isotopes in humans are carbon-14 and potassium-40. Chemically, these isotopes behave exactly like stable carbon and potassium. For this reason, the body uses carbon-14 and potassium-40 just like it does normal carbon and potassium; building them into the different parts of the cells, without knowing that they are radioactive. In time, carbon-14 atoms decay to stable nitrogen atoms and potassium-40 atoms decay to stable calcium atoms.

Chemicals in the body that relied on having a carbon-14 atom or potassium-40 atom in a certain spot will suddenly have a nitrogen or calcium atom. Such a change damages the chemical. Normally, such changes are so rare, that the body can repair the damage or filter away the damaged chemicals.

The natural occurrence of carbon-14 decay in the body is the core principle behind carbon dating. As long as a person is alive and still eating, every carbon-14 atom that decays into a nitrogen atom is replaced on average with a new carbon-14 atom. But once a person dies, he stops replacing the decaying carbon-14 atoms. Slowly the carbon-14 atoms decay to nitrogen without being replaced, so that there is less and less carbon-14 in a dead body. The rate at which carbon-14 decays is constant and follows first order kinetics. It has a half-life of nearly 6000 years, so by measuring the relative amount of carbon-14 in a bone, archeologists can calculate when the person died.

All living organisms consume carbon, so carbon dating can be used to date any living organism, and any object made from a living organism. Bones, wood, leather, and write in continuation to above line paper can be accurately dated, as long as they first existed within the last 60,000 years. This is all because of the fact that nuclear reactions naturally occur in living organisms.

(source: The textbook Chemistry: The Practical Science by Paul B. Kelter, Michael D. Mosher and Andrew Scott states)
(a) Why is Carbon -14 radioactive while Carbon -12 not? (Atomic number of Carbon: 6)
(b) Researchers have uncovered the youngest known dinosaur bone, dating around 65 million years ago. How was the age of this fossil estimated?
(c) Which are the two most common radioactive decays happening in human body?
(d) Suppose an organism has 20 g of Carbon -14 at its time of death. Approximately how much Carbon -14 remains after 10,320 years? (Given antilog 0.517 = 3.289)
OR
(d) Approximately how old is a fossil with 12g of Carbon -14 If it initially possessed 32 g of Carbon -14? (Given tog 2,867 = 0.4280) (5)
Answer:
(a) Ratio of neutrons to protons is 2.3:1 which is not the stable ratio of 1:1

(b) Age of fossils can be estimated by C-14 decay. All living organisms have C-14 which decays without being replaced back once the organism dies.

(c) Carbon-14 atoms decay to stable nitrogen atoms and potassium-40 atoms decay to stable calcium.

(d) t = \(\frac{2.303}{k}\) log\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Co}}{\mathrm{Ct}}\right)\)
Co = 20 g Ct = ?
t = 10320 gears k = \(\frac{0.693}{6000}\) (half-Life given in passage) substituting in equation:
10320 = \(\frac{2.303}{\left(\frac{0.693}{6000}\right)}\)log\(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
0.517 = Log\(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\) antiLog (0.517) = \(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
3.289 = \(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
Ct = 6.17 g.
OR
t = \(\frac{2.303}{k}\)log\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Co}}{\mathrm{Ct}}\right)\)
Co = 32g Ct = 12
t =? k = \(\frac{0.693}{6000}\) (half Life given in passage)
substituting in equation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 16

(d) All nuclear reactions in radioactive decaj are of FIRST ORDER.
Formula used:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 17
Formula used:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms, and Companies)

Fibonacci calculator is a simple and useful tool that can help you to calculate Fibonacci extension.

Question 1.
Following information has been provided by Fitbit Sports Academy. You are required to calculate the sports materials consumed during the year 2020-21:
Receipts and Payments Account (An Extract)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1
Additional Information:
Sports Materials in Hand on 31st March 2020 – ₹ 11,000. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 2
Alternatively, Sports Material consumed can also be calculated as
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 3
Sports Materials Consumed = Opening Stock + Purchases — Closing Stock
= ₹ 4,000 + ₹ 67,000 – ₹ 11,000
= ₹ 60,000.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

The Recursive Sequences Formula Calculator finds the equation of the sequence and also allows you to view the next terms in the sequence.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Revaluation Account and Realisation Account based on:
(A) Time of preparation
(B) Effect on accounts (2)
Answer:
Difference between Revaluation Account and Realisation Account

Basis of Difference Revaluation Account Realization Account
(A) Time of preparation A revaluation Account is prepared when there is any change in the partnership deed like admission of a partner, retirement of a partner, or death of a partner. The realization Account is prepared at the time of dissolution of a partnership firm.
(B) Effect on accounts In Revaluation Account, the assets and Liabilities accounts are revaluated not closed. In Realisation, accounts
are the assets and closed.

Question 3.
In a partnership firm, Juhi, Sakhi, Kiara, and Tiska were partners sharing profits and losses is the ratio of 3:2: 2:1. On February 1, 2021, Tiska retired from the firm and the new profit sharing ratio decided between Juhi, Sakhi and Kiara was 3/5, 1/5, and 1/5 respectively.

At the time of Tiska’s retirement, the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 10,80,000. Paas the necessary journal entry in the books of the firm for the treatment of goodwill on Tiska’s retirement. Also, show working notes clearly. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 4
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Gaining Rutio:
Old Profit sharing ratio of Juhi, Sakshi, Kiara and Tiska = 3: 2 : 2: 1
New profit sharing ratio of Juhi, Sokshi and Kiara = 3: 1: 1
Gaining Ratio = New Profit Shoring Ratio — Old Profit Shoring Ratio
Juhi Gain/Sacnfice = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{3}{8}=\frac{24-15}{40}=\frac{9}{40}\) (Gain)
Sakshi’s Gain/Sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}=\frac{8-10}{40}=\left(\frac{2}{40}\right)\) (Sacrifice)
Kiara s Gain/Sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}=\frac{8-10}{40}=\left(\frac{2}{40}\right)\) (Sacrifice)

(ii) CalcuLation of Share of Goodwill
Tiska’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{1}{8}\) = ₹ 1.35,000
As Sakshi and Kiara are also sacrificing partners, both of them wilt be compensated along with Tiska by Juhi in their sacrificing ratio.
Juhi’ Gain = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{9}{40}\) = ₹ 2,43,000
Sakshi’s Sacrifice = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{2}{40}\) = ₹ 54,000
Kiara’s Sacrifice = ₹ 10,80,000 x \(\frac{2}{40}\) = ₹ 54,000

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Question 4.
How are the following items of subscriptions shown in the Income and Expenditure Account of Picasa Club for the year ended 31st March 2020 and Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2020?

Particulars Amount (₹)
Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 March 2020 3,58,500
Subscriptions outstanding on 31 March 2019 30,000
Subscriptions received in advance on 31 March 2019 22,500
Subscriptions received in advance on 31 March 2020 13,500
Subscriptions outstanding on 3l March 2020 37,500

OR
In the foLLowing Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31 March 2021, determine
the missing information:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 5 (3)
Answer:
In the Books of Picasa Limited Income and Expenditure Account (An Extract)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 6
Balance Sheet (An Extract)
as at 31St March 2020

Liabilities Amount (₹) Assets Amount (₹)
Subscriptions Received in Advance 13,500 Subscriptions Outstanding 37,500

OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 5.
In a partnership firm ‘Sarega Limited’, Samar, Reeta, and Gagan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4:3:1. As per the terms of the Partnership Deed of the firm, on the death of any partner, goodwill was to be valued at 50% of the net profits credited to that Partner’s Capital Account during the last three completed years before his/her death.
The profits and losses for the last five years were:
2016-17 ₹ 1,20,000
2017-18 ₹ 1,94,00
2018-19 ₹ 2,10,000
2019-20 ₹ 60,000
2020-2 1 ₹ 1,68O00
On 1st April, 2021, Samar dies. On that date, land and building was found undervalued by ₹ 1,60,000, which was to be considered.
Calculate the amount of Samar’s share of goodwill in the firm and pass the necessary adjusting journal entries of goodwill and revaluation of assets. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 8
Working Notes:
Total Profit of last three year’s = ₹ 2,10,000 + ₹ 60,000 +₹ 1,68,000 = ₹ 4,38,000
Sama’s share in prcMt already credited ta his account = ₹ 4, 38, 000 x \(\frac{4}{8}\) = ₹2,19,000
∴ Sarnar’s share of goodwill = Rs. 2.19.000 x \(\frac{50}{100}\) = ₹ 1,09,500.

Question 6.
On 1st Nov. 2020, Tata Ltd. issued 20,000, 10% debenture of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%, redeemable at par after four years. The debentures were fully subscribed. It has a balance of ₹ 40,000 in capital reserve and ₹ 75,000 in Securities Premium Reserve which the company decided to use for writing off the discount on issue of debentures. Pass the journal entries for issue of debentures and writing off the discount. Also, prepare discount on issue of Debentures Account.
OR
Wisdom Fireworks Limited issued 10,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par for cash. It also raised a loan of ₹ 1,60,000 from Punjab National Bank, for which the company placed with the bark ₹ 2,00,000,12% debentures as collateral security.

As per the terms, Punjab National Bank is obliged and bound to immediately release the debentures as soon as the loan is repaid. How will you show the debentures in the Balance Sheet of Wisdom Fireworks Limited assuming that the company has recorded the issue of debentures as collateral in the book. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 9
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 11

Question 7.
The Balance Sheet of X, Y, and Z who were sharing profits and losses in ratio of their capitals stood as follows:
Balance Sheet
as on 31st March 2020
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 12
Y retired on 1st April, 2020 and the following adjustments were agreed upon:
(i) Out of the insurance premium debited to Profit and Loss Account, ₹ 1,500 to be carried forward as Prepaid Insurance.
(ii) Provision for Doubtful Debts to be brought up to 5% of Sundry Debtors.
(iii) Land and Building to be appreciated by 20%.
(iv) A provision of ₹ 4,000 be made in respect of outstanding bills for repairs.
(v) Goodwill of the firm was determined at ₹ 21,600.
(vi) Y’s share of goodwill be adjusted to that of X and Z who will share profits in future in the ratio of 3 :1.
Pass necessary Journal entries and prepare the Balance Sheet after Y’s retirement.
OR
Rohit and Virat are equal partners of a partnership firm ‘RV Limited’. They decided to dissolve their partnership firm on 31st March 2020, at which date the Balance Sheet of the firm stood as:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 13
Additional Information:
(i) The assets realized were:
Stock ₹ 22,000; Debtors ₹ 7,500; Machinery ₹ 16,000; Land & Building ₹ 35,000.
(ii) Virat took over the Furniture & Fittings at ₹ 9,000.
(iii) Rohit agreed to accept ₹ 2,500 in full settlement of his Loan Account.
(iv) Dissolution Expenses amounted to ₹ 2,500.
You are required to prepare:
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Capital Account of Partners
(C) Bank Account. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 14
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 16
Working notes:
(1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 17
(2)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 18

(3) Calculation of Old Ratio:
Capitol Ratio = CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 19
∴ Old Ratio of X, Y and Z= 3:2: 1

(4) CalcuLation of Gaining Ratio:
Old Ratio of X,Y and Z = 3:2:1
New Ratio of X and Z =3:1
Gaining Ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio
X’s Gain = \(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{3}{6}=\frac{9-6}{12}=\frac{3}{12}\)
Z’ s Gain = \(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{6}=\frac{3-2}{12}=\frac{1}{12}\)
Gaining Ratio of X and Z = 3: 1

(5) Adjustment of Good will:
Goodwiti of the Firm = ₹ 21,600
Y’s Share of GoodwilL = ₹ 21,600 x \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 7,200
Y’s share of goodwill will be compensated b X and Z in their Gaining Ratio i.e., 3: 1
X will compensate = 7.200 x \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 5,400
Y will compensate = 7,200 x \(\frac{1}{4}\) = ₹ 1,800
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 20
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 21
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 22

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 8.
Himadri Construction Limited engaged in the business of construction with a registered office in Bangalore, Karnataka was incorporated on 1st April 2016. The company is doing well and wants to penetrate their roots in other cities. With such objective Himadri Construction Limited purchased the running business of Godavari Construction Limited having business in Coimbatore, Mysore and Salem for a sum of ₹ 90,00,000. The assets and liabilities of Godavari Construction Limited consisted of the following:
Land ₹ 42,00,000
BuiLdings ₹ 36,00,000
Inventories ₹ 12,00,000
Sundry Debtors ₹ 18,00,000
Sundry Creditors ₹ 12,00,000
Himadri Construction Limited paid ₹ 18,00,000 in cash and for the balance amount issued 10% Debentures of? 100 each at par, redeemable after 6 years at par for the sum due to Godavari Construction Limited.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
(B) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of purchase of business of Godavari Construction Limited.
(C) Pass journal entry for payment made in cash to Godavari Construction Limited.
(D) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Godavari Construction Limited.
(E) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to Godavari Construction Limited. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 24
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 25
(D) Amount paid in Cash = ₹ 18,00,000
Amount paid through Debentures = ₹ 90,00,000 – ₹ 18,00.000 = ₹ 72,00,000
Number of Debentures Issued to Godavari Construction Limited
= \(\)\frac{\text { Amount Due }}{\text { Issue Price }}=\frac{₹ 72,00,000}{₹ 100}[/lattex] = 72,000

(E) In the Books of Himadri Construction Limited
Journal
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 26

Question 9.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Society Welfare Club for the year ended 31st March, 2020:
Receipts and Payments Account
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 27
Additional Information:

Particulars 31st March 2019 (₹ ) 31st March 2020 (₹ )
Outstanding Salary to Staff 2,400 3,600
Prepaid Insurance 1,400 600
Outstanding Subscriptions 7,500 5,000
Subscriptions Received in Advance 3,500 2,000
Outstanding Electricity Charges 2,500
Stock of Stationery 4,500 1,400
Equipments 51,200 1,00,400
Building 4,80,000 2,28,000
Investments 2,80,000 1,40,000

From the information provided, you are required to prepare Income and Expenditure Account of Society Welfare Club for the year ended 31st March 2020. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 28
Working Note:
(1) CalcuLation of Depreciation on Equipments:
Amount of Depreciation on Equipments = Opening Balance + Purchase during the year – Sale during the year- Closing Balance
= ₹ 51,200 + ₹ 60,000 – 0 – ₹ 1,00,400
= ₹ 10,800

(2) CaLculation of Depreciation on Building:
Amount of Depreciation on Building = Opening Balance + Purchase during the year – Sale during the year – Closing Balance
= ₹ 2,40,000 + 0- 0 – ₹ 2,28,000
= ₹ 12,000

PART-B
Option-1
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State which of the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow, or no flow of Cash and Cash Equivalents:
(A) Cash is withdrawn from Bank.
(B) Declaration of Interim Dividend. (2)
Answer:
(A) Cash withdrawn from Bank will, resuLt into no flow of Cash and Cash Equivalents.
(B) Declaration of Interim Dividend will resuLt into the outflow of Cash and Cash Equivalents.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 11.
From the following Statement of Profit and Loss, prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 29
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 30
OR
The Balance Sheets of Sohan Limited and Mohan Limited as at 31st March 2021 was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 31
You are required to prepare Common Size Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2021. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 32
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 33

Question 12.
From the following Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March 2019, Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2019 and Notes to Accounts of Rathi Limited, prepare its Cash Flow Statement:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 34
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2019
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 35
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 36 (5)

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 37

CBSE Sanskrit Sample Papers Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Pdf Term 1 & Term 2

Online Education Solved CBSE Sanskrit Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Pdf Term 1 & Term 2: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Answers 2021-2022 Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Question Papers with Answers will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

Online Education for CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Paper 2021 2022 with Solutions | Sanskrit Sample Paper Class 10 with Answers Term 1 & Term 2

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Sanskrit Carries 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2022 Solved Term 1 & Term 2.

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2022 with Solutions Term 2

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2021 with Solutions (Old Pattern)

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Question Paper Design 2022

भाग
(Section)

प्रश्नों के प्रारूप
(Question Type)
0.5 Mark Questions 1 Mark Questions 2 Marks Questions 5 Marks Questions

कुल
(Section-wise)

अपठिताव बोधनम् अपठित गद्यांश: 2Q
(2 out of 3) + 1Q + 3Q (3 out of 4)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
10 अंक
रचनात्मक कार्यम् पत्र लेखनम् (औपचारिकम् एवं अनौपचारिकम्) 10Q 15 अंक
चित्रवर्णनम् अथवा अनुच्छेद लेखमन् 1Q
(anyone)
रचनानुवादः (वाक्यरचनाकौशलम्) 5Q
(5 out of 7)
पठिताव बोधनम् पठित गद्यांशः 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
15 अंक
पठित पद्यांशः 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
पठित नाट्यांशम् 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
श्लोकः अन्वयं पूर्तिः अथवा श्लोक : भावार्थ : पूर्तिः 4Q
(any one)
घटनाक्रम् 8Q
कुल 14 अंक 17 अंक 4 अंक 5 अंक 40 अंक

CBSE Class 10th Sanskrit Sample Paper Design 2020-21

CBSE Class 10th Sanskrit Sample Paper Design

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Question Papers with Answers

We hope these CBSE Sanskrit Sample Papers Class 10 with Solutions Pdf 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on NCERT Sanskrit Board Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study-based questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – A
(12 Marks)

Question 1.
Three cubes of a metal whose edges are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, are melted and converted into a single cube whose diagonal is 12\(\sqrt{3}\) cm. Find the edges of the three cubes.
OR
The sum of the radius of base and height of a solid right circular cylinder is 37 cm. If the total surface area of the cylinder is 1628 sq. cm, find the volume of the cylinder. (2)
Answer:
Given: Ratio of edges of three cubes = 3 : 4 : 5
∴ Let the three edges be 3x, 4x and 5x respectively.

Also,
Diagonal of bigger cube = 12\(\sqrt{3}\)cm
∴ Edge of bigger cube = \(\frac{12 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 12cm
[Diagonal of a cube = \(\sqrt{3}\) x Edge of the cube]

Now,
Volume of bigger cube = Volume of three cubes
⇒ (12)3 = (3x)3 + (4x)3 + (5x)3
⇒ 12 x 12 x 12 = 27x3 + 64x3 + 125x3
⇒ 12 x 12 x 12 = 216x3
⇒ x3 = \(\frac{12 \times 12 \times 12}{216}\) = 2 x 2 x 2
⇒ x = 2
∴ Edges of three cubes are 3x, 4x and 5x i.e. 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively.
OR
Let r, h be the radius of base and height of solid right circular cylinder.
Then, according to the question r + h = 37 cm
and TSA of cylinder = 1628 cm2
⇒ 2πr(h + r) = 1628
⇒ 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x r x 37 = 1628
⇒ r = \(r=\frac{1628 \times 7}{2 \times 22 \times 37}=7\) = 7
So, h = 37 – r
= 37 – 7
= 30 cm

∴ Volume of cylinder = πr2h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x (7)2 x 30
= 4620 cm3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 2.
Mr. Rawat, HR manager of XYZ company, prepared a report on the number of leaves taken by its employees during the year 2020-21.

Number of leaves Number of employees
0-10 7
10-20 13
20-30 10
30-40 12
40-50 8
50-60 11

Find the frequency of the class, succeeding the modal class of the above distribution. (2)
Answer:
We know, class with maximum frequency is called modal class.
Here, class with maximum frequency i.e. 13 is 10 – 20
∴ Modal class = 10 – 20
So, class succeeding the modal class is 20-30. Hence, the frequency of required class 20 – 30 is 10.

Question 3.
Prove that tangents drawn at the ends of diameter of a circle are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Given: A circle with centre O and diameter AOB at which tangents PQ and MN are drawn.

To prove: PQ || MN
Proof: We know, tangent is perpendicular to radius at the point of contact.
∴ PQ ⊥ OA and MN ⊥ OB
∴ ∠OAP = 90° and ∠OBN = 90°
⇒ ∠OAP = ∠OBN
But ∠OAP and ∠OBN form a pair of alternate angles between the lines PQ and MN, which are intersected by a transversal AB.
∴ PQ || MN
Hence proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 4.
A ladder, leaning against a wall, makes an angle of 60° with it. If the length of the ladder is 15 m, find the height of the wall. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the ladder and BC be the wall.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 5
Hence, height of the wall is 7.5 m.

Question 5.
The average score of boys in an examination of a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. If the average score of the school in the examination is 71.8, then find the ratio of number of girls to the number of boys, who appeared in the examination. (2)
Answer:
Let the number of boys in the school be x and the number of girls be y.
Now, average score of boys = 71
∴ Total score of boys = 71 × x
= 71x
Also, average score of girls = 73
Total score of girls =73 × y
= 73y

Now,
Average score of school
\(=\frac{\text { Tota score of school }}{\text { Total number of students in school }}\)
⇒ 71.8 = \(\frac{71 x+73 y}{x+y}\)
⇒ 71.8 (x + y) = 71x + 73y
⇒ 71.8x – 71x = 73y – 71.8y
⇒ 0.8x = 1.2y
⇒ \(\frac{y}{x}=\frac{0.8}{1.2}\)
= \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Hence, the ratio of number of girls to the number of boys is 2 : 3.

Caution
In average score of school both boys and girls will be included, as a school constitute both boys and girls.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 6.
The following figure shows the observation of point C from point A. Find the angle of depression of point C from the point A.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 1
A tower of height h m casts a shadow 90 m long and at the same time, a pole 80 m long, casts a shadow 120 m long. Find the value of h. (2)
Answer:
In ΔABC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 6
Now, angle of depression of point C from point A
= ∠XAC
= ∠ACB [Alternate angles]
30°

Caution
Here, we need to calculate ∠XAC, so calculating ∠ACB is not the final answer.
OR
Let AB be the tower and BC be its shadow. Similarly, let PQ be the pole and QR be its shadow.

Also, let angle of elevation of the Sun be θ.
∴ AB = h, BC = 90 m, PQ = 80 m, QR = 120 m and ∠C = ∠R = 0.
So, in ΔPQR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 7
Hence, the value of h is 60.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – B
(12 Marks)

Question 7.
The sum of first seven terms of an A.P. is 63 and the sum of its next seven terms is 161. Find the tenth term of the A.P. (3)
Answer:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the A.P.
We have, S7 = 63
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 8
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
a = 3, d = 2
Now, 10th term, a10 = a + 9d = 3 + 9 x 2
= 21
Hence, tenth term of the A.P. is 21.

Caution
Here, 161 is the sum of next seven terms of the A.P. i.e. sum of 8th to 14th terms of the A.P., so apply the formula wisely.

Question 8.
Draw a line segment XY of length 5.4 cm and mark a point P on it such that PX = \(\frac{3}{5}\)XY. (3)
Answer:
We have,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 9

Steps of construction:

  • Draw a line segment XY of length 5.4 cm.
  • From point X, draw a ray XM such that ∠YXM is acute.
  • On ray XM, mark 2 + 3 e. 5 points, namely X1, X2, X3, X4 and X5 at equal distances.
  • Join X5Y.
  • From point X3, draw a line X3P, parallel to X5Y, intersecting XY at P.

Thus, point P divides XY in the ratio 3 : 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 9.
The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°. At a point R, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower PQ is 45°. Find the height of the tower PQ. [Use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732] (3)
Answer:
We have, RX = 40 m, ∠QRM = 45°, ∠QXP = 60°.
Here, RX = PM = 40 m and RM = XP
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 11
Hence, height of the tower PQ is 94.64 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 10.
Solve for x:
\(\frac{2}{x+1}+\frac{3}{2(x-2)}=\frac{23}{5 x}, x \neq 0,-1,2\)
OR
In a class test, the sum of Shrishti’s marks in maths and science is 45. If she had 1 more mark in maths and 1 less in science, the product of marks would have been 500. Find her marks in maths and science. (3)
Answer:
We have,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 12
Let the Shrishti’s marks in maths be x.
Then, her marks in science = 45 – x
Now, according to the question,
(x + 1) [(45 – x) – 1] = 500
⇒ (x + l) (44 – x) = 500
⇒ 44x + 44 – x2 – x = 500
⇒ x2 – 43x + 456 = 0
⇒ x2 – 24x – 19x + 456 = 0
⇒ x(x- 24) – 19(x- 24) = 0
⇒ (x – 19) (x – 24) = 0
x = 19, 24
if x = 19, then (45 – x) = 45 – 19 = 26
If x = 24, then (45 – x) = 45 – 24 = 21

Hence, she either got 19 marks in maths 26 marks in science or 24 marks in maths 21 marks in science.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(16 Marks)

Question 11.
Rohan has a solid wax cylinder of diameter 21 cm and height 21 cm. From it, he curved out a conical cavity of maximum volume. From the remaining wax, he formed a solid sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere. (4)
Answer:
For a conical cavity of maximum volume Diameter of cavity = Diameter of cylinder
= 21 cm
and,Height of cavity = Height of cylinder
= 21 cm
∴ Radius of cavity (r) = \(\frac{21}{2}\) cm
Let the radius of the sphere be R.
Since, volume of remaining wax = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone
And the spherical ball is formed from this remaining wax,
∴ Volume of sphere = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 14
∴ Diameter of shere = 2R = 2 x \(\frac{21}{2}\) = 21cm.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 12
In the given figure, quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribing a circle with centre O and AD ⊥ AB. If the radius of incircle is 10 cm, then find the value of x.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 2
PA and PB are the two tangents to a circle with centre O in which OP is equal to diameter of the circle. Prove that ΔAPB is equilateral. (4)
Answer:
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 15
∴ AP = AS, BP = BQ,
CQ = CR and DR = DS
Now, in quadrilateral OPAS,
OS = OP = Radii, AP = AS and ∠PAS = 90°
i.e. adjacent sides are equal and an angle is a right angle.
∴ OPAS is a square.
∴ AP = AS = 10 cm
Now, CR = CQ = 27 cm
So, BP = BQ
= BC – CQ
= 38 – 27
= 11cm
So, x = AB = AP + BP
= 10 + 11
= 21
Hence, the value of x is 21.
OR
Given: A circle with centre 0 in which tangent PA and PB are drawn from an external point P.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 16
Also, OP is equal to diameter of the circle.
To prove: ΔAPB is equilateral.
Construction: Join OA and OB.
Proof: Let radius of the circle be r.
∴ OA = OB = r and OP = 2r
Now, ∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
[Tangent ⊥ Radius]
Let ∠OPA = 0
Then, in right angled triangle AOP
\(\sin \theta=\frac{\mathrm{OA}}{\mathrm{OP}}=\frac{r}{2 r}=\frac{1}{2}=\sin 30^{\circ}\)
⇒ θ = 30°
Since, tangents are equally inclined to the line segment joining the centre of the circle to their common external point.
∴ ∠OPA = ∠OPB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠APB
or, ∠APB = 2∠OPA = 2 x 30° = 60°
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ In ΔAPB,
PA = PB
⇒ ∠PBA = ∠PAB = x° (say)
So, \(x^{\circ}=\frac{180^{\circ}-\angle \mathrm{APB}}{2}=\frac{180^{\circ}-60^{\circ}}{2}\)
= 60°
i.e. ∠PBA = ∠PAB = ∠APB = 60°
∴ ΔAPB is an equilateral triangle.

Hence, proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 13.
Case Study-1
A loan is an amount which one receives from a bank with the assurance of returning it in the future along with some fixed annual interest.

Deepak took a loan of ₹ 1,18,000 from HDFC bank to invest in his start-up. He has to repay this loan by paying every month, starting with the first installment of ₹ 1000. Since, his start-up was going well, he decided to increase the installment of loan by ₹ 100 every month.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 3
Based on this information answer the following question.
(A) What amount of ban he still have to pay after the 30th installment? (2)
(B) What amount will be paid to the bank as the last installment of ban? (2)
Answer:
(A) Since installments paid by Deepak, each successive month, increases uniformly by a fixed amount, so his series of installments form an A.P. with a = 1000 and d = 100.
∴ Amount paid till 30 installments
= S30
= \(\frac{30}{2}\) [2 x 1000 + (30 – 1) x 100]
∵ [Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 15 x 4900
= 73500

So, amountto be pay after 30th installment = Total amount to be paid – A amount paid till 30 installments = ₹ (1,18,000-73,500)
= ₹ 44,500

(B) Let the loan of ₹ 1,18,000 be repaid to the bank in n months.
Then, Sn = 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2 x 1000 + (n – 1) x 100] = 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [1900+ 100n] = 118000
⇒ n(950 + 50n) = 118000
⇒ 50n2 + 950n – 2360 = 0
or n2 + 19n – 2360 = 0
⇒ (n + 59) (n – 40) = 0
⇒ n = -59, 40
Since, number of months cannot be negative
∴ n = 40
Amount paid in last installment = a40
= a + 39d
= 1000 + 39 x 100
= 4900
Hence, the amount paid in the last installment of the loan is ₹ 4900.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 14.
Case Study-2
‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ is a country-wide campaign initiated by our Honourable Prime Minister of India, Mr. Narendra Singh Modi in the year 2014 to eliminate open defecation, to improve solid waste management and to accelerate the efforts to achieve universal sanitisation.

As part of the ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, some houses of a locality in Agra decided to clean up and beautify a Primary School of their locality by planting a number of plants. They involved the school kids and the local community in doing so.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 4
Here is the data indicating the number of plants contributed by different houses:

Number of plants contributed Number of houses
1-3 10
4-6 8
7-9 X
10-12 7
13-15 12
16-18 4

(A) If the mean number of plants contributed be 8.9, then how many houses contributed 7 to 9 plants? (2)
(B) Find the median number of plants contributed. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 17
Hence, 9 houses contributed 7 to 9 plants.

(B)

Class Frequency Cumulative Frequency
0.5 – 3.5 10 10
3.5 – 6.5 8 18
6.5 – 9.5 X = 9 27
9.5 – 12.5 7 34
12.5 -15.5 12 46
15.5 -18.5 4 50
N = 50

Here, \(\frac{N}{2}=25\)
Cumulative frequency just greater than 25 is 27 which belongs to class 6.5 – 9.5.
∴ Median class = 6.5 – 9.5.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 18