Raju

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers The Mughal Empire with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for The Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What were mansabdar’s military responsibilities?
Answer:

• A man Sardar had to maintain a specified number of Sawar or cavalrymen.
• He had to get horses registered and branded.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who was Todar Mai?
Answer:
Today Mai was Akbar’s revenue minister. He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Short Questions And Answers Question 3.
Who was Abul Fazl?
Answer:
Abul Fazl was Akbar’s friend and counsellor. He wrote the books Akbar Nama and Ain-i Akbari.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Worksheets With Answers Question 4.
Which do you think is a fairer division of inheritance: Primogeniture or coparcenary?
Answer:
According to my, coparcenary is the fairer division of inheritance as it is based on the principle of equality.

The Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
Who were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire?
Answer:
The peasants and artisans were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire.

Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
Where did Akbar hold discussions with religious scholars?
Answer:
Akbar held discussions with religious scholars at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra in ibadat khana.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 7.
What was meant by the following terms: Subadar, Diwan, Bakhshi, Sadr, Faujdars and Kotwal?
Answer:
These terms stood for the following persons respectively: Subadar-governor of province, Diwan- finance officer, Bakshi-military paymaster, Sadr-religious minister, audits-military commanders and kotwal-police commander.

Mughal Empire Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 8.
Who participated in the ibadat khana discussions?
Answer:
Apart from. Akbar and Abul Fazl, ulemas, Brahmanas, Jesuit priests and Zoroastrians participated in the ibadat khana discussions.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 9.
What type of relations did Mughals have with Rajput rulers?
Answer:

• Mughals had mixed relations with Rajput rulers.
• At one hand Rajput rulers married their daughters in Mughal families. In return, they acquired higher mansabs in the Mughal court.
• On the other hand, there was Sisodiya Rajputs of Mewar who did not accept Mughal authority. This led to a battle between the two, and Sisodiyas were defeated. Mughals treated them honourably.

Class 7 History Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 10.
Explain the mansabdari system.
Answer:

• Mansabdari system was based on the ranks given to the noblemen.
• The man says were decided by a grading system to fix rank, salary and military responsibility to a noble.
• Rank and salary of a man Sardar was determined by a numerical value called Zat.
• Mansabdars maintained horses and horsemen to be presented to king at demand.
• Mansabdars were paid in land grants called jagirs

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 11.
What were the features of revenue system of Mughal empire?
Answer:

• The revenue system was reformed under Akbar by his revenue minister, Raja Todar Mai.
• Today Mal carried out a careful survey of crop yields, prices and areas cultivated for a 10 year period, 1570-80.
• On the basis of this data, tax was fixed on each crop in cash.
• Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops.
• This system was not followed in Gujarat and Bengal.

History Class 7 Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 12.
Explain main causes of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire?
Answer:
The following were the main causes of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire :

• Collapse of the mansabdari system: By the time of Aurangzeb the mansabdari system became unmanageable as corruption and the number of awaiting mcznsabdars increased.
• Inequalities in man sabdars: During Shah Jahan’s reign the highest-ranking mansabdars made only 5.6% of the total mansabdars of his court i.e., 5.6% mansabdars received 61.5% of the total revenue of the empire. Therefore, the dissatisfied mansabdars challenged the authority of the emperor.
• Increase in regional power centres: The extremely powerful elite of Mughal Empire carved out thèir individual regional states, such as Hyderabad and Awadh.
• Maratha war: In Deccan, Marathas always challenged the Mughal authority, and the region always remained unstable. All these factors combined with the coming weak Mughal rulers led to the decline of Mughal Empire.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which community of warriors posed the immediate threat to the newly established Mughal empire?
(a) Rajputs
(b) Maratha
(c) Afghans
(d) Arabs.
Answer:
(c) Afghans.

2. How did Akbar treat Sisodiya Raj puts after defeating them?
(a) Honourably
(b) Cruelly
(c) Insulted them
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Honourably.

3. What were mansabdar’s military responsibilities?
(a) To maintain a special number of Sawar or Cavalrymen
(b) To get horses registered and branded
(c) To make buildings for them
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Who was Todar Mal?
(a) Court poet of Akbar
(b) Revenue Minister of Akbar
(c) Chief Advisor
(d) A Mansabdar
Answer:
(b) Revenue Minister of Akbar.

5. Which of. the following were Todar Mai’s great contributions as the Revenue Minister of Akbar?
(a) He introduced many taxes.
(b) He introduced a new agricultural tax.
(c) He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.
(d) He collected revenue with cruelty.
Answer:
(c) He surveyed past records and reformed revenue system called zabt.

6. Who was Abul Fazl?
(a) Akbar’s friend and courtier
(b) A man Sardar
(c) Revenue Minister of Akbar
(d) A large landowner.
Answer:
(a) Akbar’s friend and courtier.

7. Who wrote Akbar Nama and Ain-i- Akbari?
(a) Birbal
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Todar Mai
(d) Tansen.
Answer:
(b) Abul Fazl.

8. Where did Akbar hold discussions with religious scholars?
(a) Lai Quila in Delhi
(b) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra
(c) Purana Quila in Delhi
(d) Jama Masjid in Delhi.
Answer:
(b) Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra

9. Who were the primary producers in the Mughal Empire?
(a) Traders
(b) Cloth merchants
(c) Peasants and artisans
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Peasants and artisans.

10. Which one of the following was the cause of decline of the mighty Mughal Empire?
(a) Collapse of the man sabdari system
(b) Inequalities in man sabdars
(c) Maratha war
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

11. Which of the following was the feature of the man sabdari system?
(a) The man says were decided by a grading system to fix, rank and military responsibility to a noble.
(b) Rank and salary of a man Sardar was determined by a numerical value.
(c) Mansabdars maintained horses and horsemen
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Important Years Or Periods:

1227: Genghis Khan, the Mongol ruler died.

1398: Timur captured Delhi.

1404: Timur, the ruler of Iran, Iraq and the modern-day Turkey died.

1494: Babur succeeded to the throne of Ferghana when he was only 12 years old.

1504: Babur seized Kabul.

1526: Babur defeated Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodhi, at Panipat and captured Delhi and Agra.

1527: Babur defeated Rana Sanga, Rajput rulers and allies at Khanna.

1528: Babur defeated Rajputs at Chanderi.

1530-40, 1555-56: Humayun ruled Mughal empire in the subcontinent.

1539: Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun at the battle of Chausa.

1540: Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun at the battle of Kanauj forcing him to flee to Iran.

1555: Humayun recaptured Delhi.

1556-1605: Rule of Akbar.

1568: Akbar captured Sisodiya capital of Chittor.

1569: Akbar captured Ranthambhor.

1570-1585: Akbar expanded his rule in Gujarat, Bihar, Bengal and Orissa.

1585-1605: Akbar captured Qandahar, Kashmir, Kabul, Berar,

1605-1627:Khandesh, Ahmadnagar. : Rule of Jahangir.

1627-1658: Rule of Shah Jahan.

1632: Ahmadnagar was finally annexed and Bijapur was subdued.

1658-1707: Rule of Aurangzeb.

1663: Aurangzeb defeated Ahoms

1685 in Assam: Annexation of Bijapur.

1687: Annexation of Golconda.

Important Terms:

→ Rule of primogeniture: When the eldest son inherits his father’s estate, it is called the rule of primogeniture.

→ Coparcenary: The rule under which the estate is divided amongst all the sons.

→ Mansab: A position or rank of nobles in the Mughal empire.

→ Zat: The numerical value by which’ rank and salary of a man Sardar (the holder of a man sab) were decided.

→ Jagir: Land granted to a man Sardar for collecting revenue that would be his salary.

→ Zabt: The revenue system of Mughals, as it was established by Raja Todar Mai, was called zabt.

→Dogma: A statement or an interpretation declared as authoritative with the expectation that it would be followed without question.

→ Bigot: An individual who is intolerant of another person’s religious beliefs or culture.

→ Sulh-i kul: The policy of “Universal Peace”. It was promoted by Akbar for religious tolerance in his realm.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Combustion and Flame Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Combustion and Flame

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why is food called fuel for our body?
Answer:
In our body, food is broken down by reaction with oxygen and heat is produced. That is why food is called fuel for our body.

Class 8 Combustion And Flame Question Answer Question 2.
Why does a piece of wood not burn by bringing a burning matchstick near it?
Answer:
Wood has high ignition temperature. A burning matchstick cannot produce so much heat to reach the ignition temperature of wood. Therefore, wood does not burn.

Combustion And Flame Question Answer Question 3.
Why is it important for all of us to know the telephone numbers of the fire service station?
Answer:
Who knows when and where suddenly fire breaks out. The fire brigade from the fire service station could be called when fire occurs anywhere. This can be -done only when we know the telephone numbers of fire- services.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Question Answer Question 4.
How can the fire caused by burning liquid fuels be extinguished?
Answer:
It can be extinguished by throwing sand or soil over it.

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Short Question Answer Question 5.
Name two types of fire extinguishers.
Answer:
Soda acid fire extinguishers and hydrocarbon fire extinguishers are two types of fire extinguishers.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Questions Answers Question 6.
Name a substance which burns itself in air.
Answer:
Phosphorus.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Learn Insta Question 7.
Does charcoal produce a flame on burning?
Answer:
No, charcoal does not vaporise and so does not produce a flame.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Question 8.
Which gas is formed during the incomplete combustion of any fuel?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide gas.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Solutions Question 9.
Define calorific value of fuel.
Answer:
Calorific value: The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is called its calorific value. The calorific value of. a fuel is expressed in a unit called kilojoule per kg (kJ/kg). An ideal fuel has high calorific value.

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Combustion And Flame Question Answer Question 10.
Define ignition temperature.
Answer:
Ignition temperature is the lowest temperature at which a combustible substance catches fire. An ideal fuel should have a proper ignition temperature.

Class 8 Science Chapter Combustion And Flame Question 11.
Define combustible and non-combustible substances.
Answer:
The substance that undergoes combustion is said to be combustible.
The substance that does not undergo combustion is called non-combustible.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 12.
Define ignition temperature. Do all combustible substances have same ignition temperature?
Answer:
The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its ignition temperature.
All combustible substances do not have same ignition temperature. In fact, each combustible substance has i different ignition temperature.

Ncert Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 13.
Does combustible substance catch fire on its own? Why?
Answer:
A combustible substance does not catch fire or bum on its own. It is so because a combustible substance does not catch fire as long as its temperature is lower than its ignition temperature.

Extra Question Of Class 8 Science Question 14.
Define spontaneous combustion.
Answer:
The type of combustion in which a material suddenly bursts into flames without the application of any apparent cause is called spontaneous combustion, e.g., combustion of coal dust.

Combustion And Flame Class 8 Pdf Download Question 15.
What causes fires in coal mine?
Answer:
Spontaneous ‘combustion of coal dust results in many disastrous fires in coal mines.

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 16.
What leads to deforestation? What is its effect?
Answer:
Cutting of trees leads to deforestation. It is quite harmful as it leads to global warming.

Question 17.
Is there any ideal fuel? If not, what is the alternative?
Answer:
There is probably no fuel that could be considered as an ideal fuel. We should, as an alternative, look for a fuel which fulfils most of the requirements for a particular use.

Question 18.
What is global warming? What causes it?
Answer:
The increase in temperature of earth’s atmosphere is termed as global warming.
The excess increase of carbon dioxide in atmosphere causes global warming because carbon dioxide facilitates greenhouse effect, i.e., carbon dioxide traps hot radiations emitted by the earth’s surface.

Question 19.
What is done to extinguish fire due to burning of oil or petrol?
Answer:
Fire produced by burning of oil or petrol can be controlled by throwing sand or soil over it.

Question 20.
What is flame?
Answer:
When a fuel is burned, a hot luminous gas emerges out of the burning fuel. This gas is called flame. Flames are a result of the substances which vaporize on burning. Example includes kerosene oil, wax, etc. which form flames on burning.

Question 21.
Explain greenhouse effect. Mention any two greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Greenhouse effect is warming of earth’s surface and atmosphere due to trapping of sun’s heat by certain gases in the earth’s atmosphere. Water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane and certain other gases in the air are responsible for the Greenhouse effect of those gases, water vapour has the largest effect.

Question 22.
What is the role of water in extinguishing fire?
Answer:
Water cools the combustible material, so that its temperature is brought below its ignition temperature. This prevents the fire from spreading. Water vapours also surround the combustible materials helping in cutting the supply of air. So, the fire is extinguished.

Question 23.
Why can we not use water to extinguish fire that is caused due to burning of oil or petrol?
Answer:
When water is used to extinguish fire due to burning of oil/petrol, water being heavier than oil/petrol settles down below it and it continues to burn. That is why we cannot use water to extinguish fire in such a situation.

Question 24.
What would you do in case of fire produced by electric short circuit?
Answer:
In the case of fire caused by electric short circuit, water is not used at all because it is a conductor of electricity and may cause electrocution or electric shock. The only solution is to cut off the supply of electricity and then use the spray of water on the flame to extinguish fire or use fire extinguisher.

Question 25.
What is the working methodology of fire extinguisher?
Answer:
Fire extinguisher functions in one of the following ways :

1. either it cuts off supply of air to the combustible substance.
2. or it brings down the temperature of the combustible substances well below its ignition temperature.

Question 26.
What are the causes of forest fires? How can it be kept under control?
Answer:
Forest fires sometimes occur due to the heat of the sun. However, most forest fires are due to the carelessness of human beings. So, it is important to remember that the campfires must be completely extinguished before leaving a forest after a picnic or any visit and people should not throw any burning thing in the forest.

Question 27.
What do you mean by explosion? How does it take place?
Answer:
Explosion is a sudden reaction in which heat, light, sound and large amount of gas is evolved. Explosion can also take place if pressure is applied on the cracker or any other combustible material kept in large amount.

Question 28.
What are the characteristics of an ideal fuel?
Answer:
The characteristics of an ideal fuel are:

• It should be readily available,
• It should be cheap,
• It should bum easily in air at a moderate rate,
• It should produce a large amount of heat, and
• It should not leave behind any undesirable substances.

Question 29.
What are the disadvantages of burning wood in a chulha?
Answer:
Disadvantages of burning wood in a chulha are :

• It produces a lot of smoke, which causes respiratory problems.
• Burning of wood leaves behind ashes, which are undesirable substances.
• Cutting of wood for fuel leads to deforestation.

Question 30.
What are the disadvantages of global warming?
Answer:
Global warming causes the rise in temperature of the atmosphere of the earth. This leads to melting of polar glaciers resulting into rise in sea level and causing floods in the coastal areas.

Question 31.
What is the function of a fire extinguisher? Describe various types of fire extinguishers.
Answer:
Fire extinguishers either cut off supply of air to the combustible substance or it brings down the temperature of the combustible substance well below its ignition temperature.

There are various types of fire extinguishers used for controlling fire :

• Soda acid fire extinguishers: It is based on the principle of cooling the fire. Carbon dioxide is liberated along with water. Water puts off the fire by lowering the temperature of the combustible material below its ignition temperature and carbon dioxide cuts off the supply of air to the combustible substances.
• Hydrocarbon fire extinguishers: It is based on the principle of covering burning material and cut off of oxygen supply to the fire. In this fire extinguisher, sodium bicarbonate comes out under pressure in the form of a foam. The foam covers the whole surface of oil. It cuts off the supply of air and the fire is controlled.

Question 32.
What are the harmful effects of fuel consumption on the environment? Describe.
Answer:
The increasing fuel consumption has the following harmful effects on the environment.

• Carbon fuels like wood, coal, petroleum release unburnt, carbon particles. These particles are dangerous pollutants causing respiratory diseases, such as asthma.
• Incomplete combustion (combustion in insufficient supply of oxygen or air) forms carbon monoxide gas. It is a very poisonous gas.
• Combustion of most fuels releases carbon dioxide in the environment. Increased percentage of carbon dioxide in the air is believed to cause global warming.
• Burning of coal and diesel releases sulphur dioxide gas. It is an extremely Suffocating and corrosive gas.
• Petrol engines are responsible for the formation of nitrogen oxide gas.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. From the following the ideal fuel is
(a) Wood
(b) Coal
(c) CNG
Answer:
(c) CNG.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Physical Features of India Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Question 1.
What is the name of the highest range of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Himadri.

Question 2.
What is the average altitude of the Himalayas ?
Answer:
4000 metres.

Question 3.
What is the length of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Nearly 2500 km.

Question 4.
Point out the height of the highest peak of the world.
Answer:
The highest peak of the world is the Mount Everest. Its height is 8848 mts.

Question 5.
What is meant by an I-shaped valley?
Answer:
I-shaped valley is meant by the valley having vertical walls on either sides.

Question 6.
Name the state where Sahyadri is located.
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 7.
What do you know about Ghilka?
Answer:
Chilka is one of the freshwater lagoons of the eastern coastal plain of India.

Question 8.
By which name the Dihang is famous?
Answer:
Brahmaputra.

Question 9.
What is a bar?
Answer:
It is a deposit of sand or mud in a river channel.

Question 10.
Which hills are comprised by the Purvachal?
Answer:
The Patkai Bum, The Naga hills, The Mizo hills.

Question 11.
How the alluvial fans are formed?
Answer:
The alluvial fans are formed by the Himalayan rivers which flow down the slopes of the mountains and reach the plains.

Question 12.
What is the famous name of Tsangpo?
Answer:
Brahmaputra.

Question 13.
Point out the characteristics of I-shaped valleys.
Answer:
I-shaped valleys have steep vertical’ walls on either side of the river.

Question 14.
In how many directions the Himalayas are divided into east-west direction?
Answer:
Four.

Question 15.
What is the height of Nanda Devi?
Answer:
7817 mtrs.

Question 16.
Where is the Satpura range located?
Answer:
In

• Madhya Pradesh and in
• Gujrat.

Question 17.
Where is Sh’iwalik?
Answer:
In

• Himachal Pradesh and in
• Uttaranchal.

Question 18.
In which coast is cochin situated?
Answer:
Malabar.

Question 19.
Where is New Moor Island?
Answer:
In the Bay of Bengal.

Question 20.
To which physiographic division of India does the Aravalli belong?
Answer:
To the Mountainous Range.

Question 21.
Which two forces are responsible for shaping the present landform features of India?
Answer:
The two forces, mainly responsible for shaping the present landform features of India are the following:

1. Internal movements below the earth’s crust.
2. External forces operating on the surface of the earth.

Question 22.
What are tectonic plates?
Answer:
Tectonic plates are also known as the lithospheric plates. These are the plates which are resulted from the internal heat of the earth and the currents of the semi-molten rocks which begin to move towards the crust and tear it apart dividing into large plates.

These are the seven major tectonic plates :

1. South America.
2. North America,
3. Eurasian,
4. Antarctica,
5. Pacific,
6. Indo- Australian,
7. Africa.

Question 23.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?
Answer:
The continents of today which were the part of Ganwanaland are the following:

• South America,
• Africa,
• Australia,
• Antarctica,
• Parts of Asia including India.

Question 24.
What is the ‘Bhabar’?
Answer:
Bhabar is one of the most important type of Indian relief. In fact, a narrow belt covered with pebbles lies along the foot of the Shiyaliks from the Indus to the Tista. These are laid down by numerous streams descending the slope of the river bed. This belt is about 80 to 16 km in width and is known as the ‘Bhabar’.

Question 25.
Why is the peninsular massif considered the oldest landmass?
Answer:
The peninsular massif is considered the oldest landmass because, it is, geologically, one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. It was once a part of the Gondwanaland till its surface and drifting, laying somewhere near the south pole along with Australia, South Africa and South America.

Question 26.
How are the Himadri Himalayas different from the Himachal Himalayas?
Answer:
The difference between the Himadri Himalayas and the Himachal Himalayas can’ be stated as under:
Himachal Himalayas

• This range of Himalayas is the middle range of the Himalayas.
• It is also known as the middle Himalayas.
• Its average altitude is between 3700 and 4500 metres.
• It contains all the important hill stations, example: Dharamsala, Dalhousie, Shimla.

Question 27.
Distinguish between Island groups of the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
Answer:

Island Groups of the of Bengal	Island Groups of the Arabian sea
1. The Andaman and Nicobar group of lay in the Bay of Bengal.	1. The Lakshadweep group of islands lay in the Arabian Sea.
2. This group of islands consists of as many as 200 islands spread Over an area of 350 km.	2. This group- of islands consists of small coral islands. These are 36 in number spread over to a mere 32 sq km.
3. The islands are large and numerous.	3. These islands are small and less numerous.
4. The islands form a lush green, densely forested and pictures of the archipelago.	4. The islands are characterised by a great diversity in terms of flora and fauna.

Question 28.
Give reasons:
(i) Siwaliks are prone to landslides.
(ii) Eastern coastal plains are more fertile.
Answer:
(i) As the Siwaliks are made of unconsolidated sediments, they are prone to landslides.
(ii) As the eastern coastal plains have thick- alluvial deposits in the delta tracks, they are relatively more fertile.

Question 29.
Explain the characteristic features of the Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The following are the characteristic features of the Peninsular plateau:

• It is a tableland composed of the old crystalline ignores and metamorphic rocks.
• It is the oldest landmass, formed due to the .breaking and drafting of the Gondwanaland.
• It represents a senile topography characterised by broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
• It is divided into two broad divisions, the central Highlands and the Deccan plateau.

Question 30.
How are the Arabian sea formed?
Answer:
During the formation: of the Himalayas, an extensive volcanic eruption took place in the north-western part of the plateau. This part was subsided, the Indian Ocean advanced to occupy- this depression And it resulted into the formation of the Arabian sea.

Question 31.
Write short notes on the following;
(i) The Middle Himalayas.
Answer:
The MiddleHimalaya is, also Rnwon as Himachal. It lies to the south of the Himadri, It extends over an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700-4500 mtrs.

The main ranges of the MiddleHimalaya are:

• The Pir Panjal,
• The Dhaoladhar,
• The Mahabharat.

The Middle Himalaya is the part of Himalaya which contains all the important hills stations like:

• Dharmashala,
• Dalhousie,
• Shimla,
• Mussorie,
• Darjeeling etc.

Question 32.
Distinguish between
(i) A Delta and Estuary.
(ii) A Tributary and A Distributary
Answer:
(i) A Delta and Estuary:

A Delta	An Estuary
1. It is generally a triangular landform, formed by the deposition of segments at the inouth of river.	1. It is a narrow deep valley at the mouth of a river.
2. It is always formed by a river.	2. It is formed where the currents and tides are strong.
3. A-delta resembles the Greek letter Δ.	3. This is formed when the sediments are automatically removed before they are deposited. Hence the mouth of the river remains clear.

(ii) A tributary and a distributary:

A Tributary	A Distributary
1. It is a river or a stream joining a larger river.	1. It is the channel which is formed by a river at its mouth.
2. It joins the main river by adding waters from its basin.	2. It carries away a part of the water from the main river.
3. Yamuna is an example of a tributary of Ganga.	3. Ganga while entering the bay of Bengal forms’ many distributaries.
4. It is responsible for the increase in the volume of water of the main river.	4. It decreases the volume of water of the main river.

Question 33.
Describe how the Himalayas were formed.
Answer:
Formation of the Himalayas: The Indo-Australian plate which was separated from the Gondwanaland crafted slowly towards north It collided with the much larger Eurasian plate in the northern hemisphere approximately 5 crores of years ago.

The northern edge of the Indo-Australian plate was pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. Under the impact of this collision, the sedimentary rocks of the enclosed ocean were folded to form the mountain system of central Asia including the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Differentiate between the plateau and the plain.
Answer:
Plateau is a elevated land which has relatively extensive and levelled surface. A plateau is generally bound by deep slopes on one or more sides. The plateau rises abruptly. Plateau is comparatively cooller than the plains. A plateau is uneven and rocky.

Plain: It is an area which is flat and Law- lying. This area generally does not go above 300 metres from the sea level.

Question 35.
Point out some of the main features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta.
Answer:

• Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta is the largest delta in the world.
• It is obviously a well-watered delta.
• It is the most fertile delta of the world.
• The lower part of this delta has become marshy owing to the free mingling of river and sea waters by the high and low tides.

Question 36.
Write down the main features, of the Ganga Basin.
Answer:

• The Ganga Basin is the largest part, of tire Great Northern Plain.
• The Ganga Basin lies to the south of the Himalayas.
• The Ganga Basin extends from Ambala to Sunder ban.
• It is nearly 1800 Km. long.
• A large number of perennial rivers flow through this plain.
• These rivers are very useful in irrigation.
• It provides a large scope for generating hydel power.

Question 37.
Do you agree that the physiographic divisions of India are complementary to each other?
Answer:
India is a vast country with lots of variety. These varieties are also seen in the physiographical divisions of India. These diversities and divisions are, however, complementary to each other.

For example, all the three major divisions:

1. The Great Mountain’ Wall of the North
2. The Northern Plains,
3. The Great Peninsular Plateau, are complementary to each other.

The Northern Mountains are the major source of water. On the other hand, the Peninsula has provided the stable block which went a long way in building the Northern plains and the Mountains. The Northern plains which provide fertile sites, get the fertility from the Himalayan rivers. The- peninsular plateau is also of equal importance. The western ghats of this part play important role in monsoon rain.

Question 38.
The Himalayas are of great importance to India, Discuss.
Answer:
The Himalayas are no doubt of great importance for India in physical as Avell as in historical aspects. Physiographical Importance: The Himalayas are the lofty and impassable natural barriers on the northern border of India.

The Himalayas act like a natural wall keeping the fertile Indo Gangetic plains Safe from the cold bleak winds from the North. The Himalayas provide us the water sources like the Ganga flowing throughout the year. The Himalayas also check the rain-bearing monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean which would otherwise blow across the north. The Himalayas cause the monsoon winds to shower on the valleys and the plains to their south. By this, the Himalayas make the Indo-Gangetic plain the most fertile and productive plain in the world.

Natural Beauty: The Himalayan peaks are snow-covered throughout the year. As such they provide attractive natural spots inviting tourists from all over the world.

Historical Importance: In the ancient times the Hitnalayas also, stood as a firm security guard providing safety to the Indian parts from the invading hoards from the North.

Question 39.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India?
Answer:
The major physiographic; divisions of Indiaarethe following
1. The Great Himalayan Mountains: These folded mountains extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh in northern India. The and these width varies from 230-400 km.

The Himalayas are further divided into three

• is the northernmost range of Himalayas. This range is also known as Great Himalaya or Inner Himalaya. The. average altitude of this range in about 6000 metres. This range contains all the prominent peaks including Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world.
• Himachal: It is the middle Himalaya extended over an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700 to 4500 metres. Pir Panjal, Dholadhar, Mahabharat ranges are the parts of this group. All the important hill stations of North India like Dharmashala, Dalhousie, Shimla, Darjeeling are located on this range.
• Shivalik: This is also known as Outer Himalaya. These ranges extend over the width of 10-50 km and have an altitude between 900 and 1100 metres.

2. The Northern Plains: It is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. The river valley civilizations of the Indus and the Ganga flourished in the region as they were based on the cultivation of crops. This part of the country is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. This part of the plain area extends between the mouths of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra covering a distance of about 3200 km.

3. The Peninsular Plateau: This is the oldest part of the Country. This is a triangular region with its base towards the Northern plains, between the Delhi ridge and Kajmahal Hills. This part has a general deviation of about 600-900 metres.

This part is again sub-divided into two parts :

1. The Central Highlands
2. The Deccan Plateau.

4. The Coastal Plains: This part is divided into the eastern and the western coastal plains. The western coastal plain stretches from Gujrat to Kerala.

5. The Islands: The Indian island groups are of different origins. The island of Lakshadweep group are formed of coral deposits. The Andaman Nicobar islands are bigger in size. They are more numerous and scattered.

Question 40.
Point out the general characteristics of the great Northern Plain:
Or
Describe the main features of the Northern Plain.
Answer:

• The great Northern Plain extends from the Punjab Plain in the west to the Brahmaputra Valley in the east.
• This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas.
• This plain possesses the alluvial deposits of the Ganga, Indus and the Satluj.
• The rivers flowing in this region are perennial.
• The average of this plain is less than 300 metres above sea level.
• The largest part of this area is formed by the Ganga
• This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant Water supply. The means of livelihood are easily available here.
• The density of the population is the highest in this region.
• The other part of the great Northern plain is formed by the Punjab plain.
• The eastern part of the great northern plain.
• In the south-eastern side of the Northern plain lies the Ganga Brahmaputra Delta. It is the largest delta in the world.

Question 41.
Write a detailed note on the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively. Running parallel to the western coast, the Western Ghats display great structural unity. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only such as locations of Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. These passes provide passages to the rail and the roads.

The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is 900-1600 metres as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahahadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.

The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by blocking the rain-bearing moist winds along the western; slopes of the Ghats. The Western Ghats are known by different local names. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.

The highest peaks include the Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and the Doda Betta peak (2,633 metres). Mahendragiri (1,500 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Sherry Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. All the rivers draining the eastern coastal plains have their sources in the Western Ghats.

Question 42.
Write a note on the Shiwaliks.
Answer:
The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Siwaliks. They extend over a width of 10-50 Km and have an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main’ Himalayan ranges located farther north.

The Siwaliks form almost a continuous chain to the south of the Himachal from Jammu and Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. Flat-bottomed strike valleys separate large portions of Siwaliks, at places. These valleys, covered with thick gravel and alluvium, are called, ‘duns’. The Dehra Dun, Kotli and Patli Duns are some of the dims.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect sentences.

(i) The Peninsular block may be sub-divided into two parts.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) Next to bhabar there is bhangar.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The Deccan plateau is situated between the Delhi Ridge and Rajmahal Hills.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The Deccan plateau extends southward from the Satpura.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) The southern part the Western Ghats are relatively smaller.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) Atolls in Malayalam refer to die ring.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) There are about 120 islands in the Andaman group.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) Lagoons are the saltwater lakes.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill up the following blanks:

(i) Atolls are …………………………. or horseshoe-shaped coral reefs.
Answer:
circular

(ii) Rivers of the western coast form …………………………. .
Answer:
estuaries

(iii) Nicobar group has …………………………. islands.
Answer:
19

(iv) The …………………………. coastal plain is comparatively much wider.
Answer:
eastern

(v) The coast of southern Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is popularly known as …………………………. .
Answer:
Coromandal coast.

3. Match out the following two lists.

List I	List II
(i) Parashat	Mountain
(ii) Mannar	River
(iii) Vembanad	Gulf
(iv) Minicoy	Plateau
(v) Malwa	Pills
(vi) Bhima	Lake
(vii) Kardamun	Island
(viii) Khyber	Pass

Answer:

List I	List II
(i) Parashat	Hills
(ii) Mannar	Gulf
(iii) Vembanad	Lake
(iv) Minicoy	Island
(v) Malwa	Plateau
(vi) B1izna	River
(vii) Kardamun	Mountain
(viii) Khyber	Pass

4. Answer the following questions in yes or no.

(i) The Mahanadi River flows through Gujrat.
Answer:
No

(ii) The Kosi is one of the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
Yes

(iii) The Tropic of |he cancer passes through the Rann of Kachina.
Answer:
Yes

(iv) 10° Channel passes through Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
No

(v) Satpura is a famous river.
Answer:
No

(vi) The son river is touched by the Equator.
Answer:
No

(vii) Andaman sea is in the western side of India.
Answer:
No

(viii) Khasi Hills are in the eastern side of India.
Answer:
Yes.

5. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The Gondwanaland was in the following part of our ancient supercontinent:
(a) southern
(b) eastern
(c) western
(d) northern
Answer:
(a) southern

(ii) The following sea was situated between the Angaraland and the Gondwanaland in the geological part:
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Tethys
(d) Black Sea.
Answer:
(c) Tethys

(iii) The following is not a part of the Purvanchal:
(a) Patkai Bum
(b) Naga Hills
(c) Pir Panjal
(d) Mizo Hills.
Answer:
(c) Pir Panjal

(iv) The following is a part of the Western Ghats:
(a) Anai Rudi
(b) Shevroy
(c) Javadi
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Javadi

(iv) The following is a part of the Eastern Ghats:
(a) Javadi
(b) Anai Mudi
(c) Doda Betta
(d) None of these;
Answer:
(a) Javadi.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Online Education for Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Question 1.
Who were ‘Nazis’?
Answer:
Persons who had no faith in democracy and socialism and believed in dictatorship. They were very brutal.

Question 2.
Who was the leader of ‘Nazis’?
Answer:
Hitler.

Question 3.
Name the party which was founded by Hitler.
Answer:
National Socialist German Worker’s Party (for short, Nazi Party).

Question 4.
When the Nazi Party was founded?
Answer:
In 1921.

Question 5.
In which year Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany by the President of Germany on 30 January 1933.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Reichstag’?
Answer:
The German Parliament was known as ‘Reichstag’.

Question 7.
In which year Hitler became the President of Germany?
Answer:
In 1934.

Question 8.
Mention the countries and places Nazi Germany occupied between 1937 and 1939.
Answer:
(i) Rhineland. (March. 1936)
(ii) Austria (March 1938)
(iii) Switzerland (September 1938)
(iv) Czechoslovakia (March, 1939)
(v) Poland (September ,1939).

Question 9.
Name the axis pówers during the World War-II.
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Japan.

Question 10.
Name the Allied Powers of the World War II.
Answer:
France, Great Britain and later joined by the USSR and the USA and other friendly nations.

Question 11.
What is genocidal war?
Answer:
The Wr Germany had waged agaInst the selected groups and the civilians of Europe.

Question 12.
Name the treaty signed after the World War-I between and victorious countries.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles.

Question 13.
Why is called the German Republic called as the Weimer Republic?
Answer:
A national assembly had met at a place called Weimer to establish a democratic polity. That is why it is called the Weimer Republic.

Question 14.
Who are called the November Criminals?
Answer:
The supporters of the Weimer Republic were called the November Criminals.

Question 15.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:
Germany had imperial ambitions and thus had sought to satisfy her imperial ambitions through war but she had suffered defeat. The outbreak of revolution in Germany towards the end of the First World War led to the collapse of the German monarchy.

However, even though Germany became a republic, the forces behind the monarchy – the industrialists, the big landowners and the officers of the army remained quite powerful.

The government of the German republic was not able to destroy their power. These forces began to turn to the anti-democratic forces represented by Nazism to extend their power and to check the power of the socialist movement. By 1933, Nazis became the ruler of Germany’.

Question 16.
Discuss the reasons that motivated Hitler to conquer Czechoslovakia in violation of the Munich Pact
Answer:
Germany coveted Czechoslovakia because it was very important due to her industries. The area also had strategic importance of the expansion of Germany in the east towards the Soviet Union. Sudetenland, which was, a part of Czechoslovakia, had substantial German population.

This area formed about one-fifth of the area of Czechoslovakia and had one of the largest ammunition factories in the world. As per the Munich Pact, Britain and France had agreed to Hitler’s occupation only of Sudetenland arid not the whole of Czechoslovakia.

Question 17.
Briefly describe the characteristics of the Weiner Constitution.
Answer:

• A German Republic Federation was to be established in the country which was to be called ‘Reich’.
• The Federal government would have the right to look after the safety; education, cinema, transport and some other subjects.
• The fundamental rights Were given to the citizens.
• The men and women of more than twenty years of age were granted the right of voting.
• The real power of the executive was vested in the Council of Ministers which was responsible to the Parliament.
• There were arrangements for referendum, initiative and. recall in this constitution.

Question 18.
Give an account of the genocide committed by the Nazis.
Answer:
The genocide committed by the Nazis had no parallel in the history of the world. During Hitler’s regime, the number of people killed included 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled, besides innumerable political opponents. Putting to death such a large number of people had required the mass-scale gassing of humans in various killing centres like Auschwitz.

Question 19.
Evaluate the Treaty of Versailles of 1919.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles also called peace treaty 1919, was signed between Germany on the one hand, and the Allied powers on the other. The peace treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per net of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.

The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. The War Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied countries suffered. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting’ to £ 6 billion. The Allied armies also occupied the resource-rich Rhinelarid for much of the 1920s.

Question 20.
What was the impact of the World War I on Europe, and especially on Germany?
Answer:
The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and financially. From a continent of creditors, Europe turned into one of debtors. Unfortunately, the infant Weimar Republic was being made to pay for the sins of the old. empire. The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation and was financially crippled by being forced to pay compensation.

Question 21.
State the two major defects of the Weimer constitution and its effects.
Answer:
The Weimer constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship. One was proportional representation. This made achieving a majority by any one party a near-impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions. Another defect was Article 48, which gave the President the powers to’ impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.

Question 22.
How did the common people react to Nazism?
Answer:
Many common people saw Nazism through Nazi eyes and spoke their language. They had hatred for the Jews, marking their Jews neighbours as suspicious ones. But every German was not a Nazi. Many organised active resistance to Nazism. The large majority of the Germans were passive onlookers and apathetic witnesses. They were too scared to act, to differ, to protest.

Question 23.
Who was Hitler? How could he rise to power?
Answer:
Born in 1889 in Austria, Hitler, called as Fuhrer; spent his youth in poverty. When the First World War broke out, he enrolled for the army, acted as a messenger in the front, became a corporal, and earned medals for bravery. The German defeat horrified him and the Versailles Treaty made him furious, In 1919, he joined a small group called the German Workers Party.

He subsequently took over the organisation arid renamed it the National Socialist German Workers Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party. Hitler was a powerful speaker. His. passion and his words moved people. He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of the German people.

Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacles in mobilising people. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instil a sense of unity among the people.

The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power. Nazi propaganda skillfully projected Hitler as a messiah, a saviour, as someone who had arrived to deliver people from their distress. It is an image that captured the imagination of a people whose sense of dignity and pride had been shattered, and who were living in a time of acute economic and political crises.

Question 24.
Describe briefly the policies and programmes of the Nazi Party.
Answer:
The programme and policies of Nazi Party was:

• To establish a vast German empire.
• To end up the harsh conditions of the Treaty of Versailles.
• To increase the economic and military power of Germany.
• To ban the coming of the foreign influence on Germany.
• To recapture the lost colonies of Germany in the first world war.
• Not to recognise jews as the citizens of Germany and to boycott them and not to give them important posts.
• To put an end to those parties which propagated against nationalism.
• To oppose communism.
• Not to set up parliamentary system of Government that was detrimental to the interest of country.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of Hitler’s foreign policy. How did he launch his offences?
Answer:
In foreign policy, Hitler did acquire a measure of success. He left the League of Nations in 1933; reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936; arid integrated Austria arid Germany in 1938 under the slogan, one people, one empire, one leader. He then went on to wrest German-speaking Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia and gobbled up the entire country.

In all of this he had the unspoken support of England, which had considered the Versailles verdict too harsh. These quick successes at home and abroad seemed to reverse the destiny of the country. Hitler chose war as the way out of approaching economic crisis. Resources were to be accumulated through expansion of territory. In September 1939, Germany invaded Poland. He started a war with France and England.

In September 1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy, and japan, strengthening Hitler’s claim to international power. Puppet regimes, supportive of Nazi Germany, were installed in a large part of Europe. By the end of 1940, Hitler was at the pinnacle of his power.

Hitler now moved to achieve his long term aim of conquering Eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans. He attacked the Soviet Union in June 1941. In this historic blunder, Hitler exposed the German western front to British aerial bombing and the eastern front to the powerful Soviet armies.

Question 26.
‘With Hitler coming to the power, democracy in Germany was systematically destroyed’. Explain the statement.
Answer:
On 30 January 1933, President Hindenburg offered the chancellorship, the highest position in the cabinet of ministers, to Hitler. Having acquired power, Hitler set out to dismantle the structures of democratic rule. A mysterious fire broke out in the German Parliament building. Hitler held the communists responsible for it, repressing them severely.

On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed This Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political; parties and trade unions were harmed except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Apart from the already existing regular police in green uniform and the SA or. the Storm Troopers, these included the Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD). It was the extra-constitutional powers of these newly organised forces that gave the Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct (✓) and the wrong (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
Germany fought the World War I as one the central powers.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The defeated Germany signed the peace treaty at London.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
The Weimer Republic belongs to France.
Answer:
(✗).

Question 4.
Hitler was born in 1889 in Germany.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
The name of the party founded by Hitler was popularly known as the Fascist Party.
Answer:
(✓).

2. Fill in the blanks from the words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
……………………………… was a nation fought as the allied power. (Britain, Germany)
Answer:
Britain

Question 2.
Adolf Hitler wrote the book, called ……………………… . (Doctrine of Fascism, Mein Kampf)
Answer:
Mein Kampf

Question 3.
The Nazi party was opposed to the ……………………… . (Jews, Aryans)
Answer:
Jews

Question 4.
Reichstag was the name of the …………….. parliament (French, German)
Answer:
German

Question 5.
The Treaty of Versailles was signed in …………………….. . (1918,1919)
Answer:
1919.

3. Select the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
Sudetenland, a part of the following, was taken away by Germany through the Munich Pact:
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Czechoslovakia
(c) France
(d) Britain.
Answer:
(b) Czechoslovakia

Question 2.
Germany attacked the USSR in the following year:
(a) May 1941
(b) June 1941
(c) July 1941
(d) August 1941.
Answer:
(b) June, 1941

Question 3.
The USA had bombed Hiroshima and Nagasaki which are the two cities of the following:
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) Italy
Answer:
(c) Japan

Question 4.
Hitler was a racist and was influenced by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Marx
(c) Legal
(d) Rousseau
Answer:
(a) Darwin

Question 5.
The war criminals were tried at the following place:
(a) Berlin
(b) Bonn
(c) Nuremberg
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nuremberg

Question 6.
Hitler became chancellor of Germany in:
(a) 1933
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936.
Answer:
(a) 1933

Question 7.
According to the. Nazi propaganda, one of the dangers was the German capitalism, the following was the other:
(a) Bolshevism
(b) Anarchism
(c) Liberalism
(d) None of the these
Answer:
(a) Bolshevism.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers The Age of Industrialisation Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Give two examples where modern development, as associated with progress, has created problems.
Answer:

1. Modern development, through industrialisation, has led to the destruction of the pre-industrial system. The Indian textiles industry has harmed artisans
2. Industrialisation has created pollution and damaged ecological balance. Environmental problems are around everywhere.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Notes Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who had controlled the pro-industrial system?
Answer:
Merchants used to control the pre-industrial system while the goods were produced by the peasants.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name some of the production process of the 18th century.
Answer:
Carding, twisting, spinning and rolling.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who had created the cotton mill?
Answer:
Richard Arkwright.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.
Answer:
Cotton was the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.

Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 6.
Why was in the first phase of industrialisation technological charges were not initially acceptable to the industrialists and the merchant?
Answer:
The new technology was expensive. Hence the merchants and the industrialists were cautious about using it.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation Important Question Answer Pdf Question 7.
Who had produced the steam engine and who had, and with what improved it?
Answer:
Newcomen had produced the steam engine and James Watt improved it by planting the new engine in 1781.

Extra Questions Of The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 8.
Why did the upper-class people in Victorian Britain preferred things produced by hand?
Answer:
Things produced by hand used to symbolize with the upper-class people, refinement, and clasy. Moreover, the handmade products were better finished and carefully designed and individually produced.

Extra Questions And Answer Of Age Of Industrialisation Question 9.
Why did the employment opportunities increase after 1840s?
Answer:
As the building activity intensified in the cities, roads widened, new railway stations came up employment opportunities greatly increased.

Extra Questions Of Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Explain with an example that there was a decline in textile export in India during the first half of the 19th century.
Answer:
The first half of the 19th century saw the decline of the textile export in India. In 1811-12, piece goods (textile) accounted for 33% of India’s export; by 1850-51, it was no more than 3%.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 11.
What were the two significant problems faced by the cotton weavers in India?
Answer:

1. Weavers export market had collapsed; the British government did not allow foreign sale of cotton in the country.
2. Their local market also shrank, Manchester imports were common.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
Why could not weaving industries survive?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, there was a lot of machine-made goods available in India. This led to the destruction of the weaving, industries.

The Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 13.
From where did the workers come?
Answer:
From Ratnagiri, villages of Kanpur district: United Provinces districts, surrounding areas near Calcutta.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 14.
Why did the Indian industrialists shift from yam to cotton production in the early years of the 20th century?
Answer:
Indian export of yarn to China declined. That is why the Indian industrialists shifted to cotton production.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 15.
How are consumers created?
Answer:
Consumers are created through numerous means. One such means is advertisements.

Question 16.
As numerous industries worked on seasonal labour, the industrialists preferred hand- labour. Explain.
Answer:
In many industries, the demand for labour was seasonal Gasworks and breweries were especially busy through the cold months. So they needed more workers to meet their peak demand. Bookbinders and printers, catering to Christmas demand, too needed extra hands before December.

At the waterfront, winter was the time that ships were repaired and spruced up. In all such industries where production fluctuated with the season industrialists usually preferred hand labour, employing workers for the season.

Question 17.
How was the lives of the workers with the abundance of labour in the market?
Answer:
The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. As news of possible jobs travelled to the countryside, hundreds tramped to the cities. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If one had a relative or a friend in a factory, one were more likely to get a job quickly. But not everyone had social connections. Many jobseekers had to wait weeks, spending nights under bridges or in other shelters.

Question 18.
Why Bombay and Calcutta as new ports grew in place of Surat and Hoogly ports?
Answer:
While Sural and Hoogly decayed, Bombay and Calcutta grew. This shift from the old ports to the new ones was an indicator of the growth of colonial power. Trade through the new ports came to be controlled by European companies and was carried in European ships while many of the old trading houses collapsed, those that wanted to survive had to now operate within a network shaped by European trading companies.

Question 19.
Which European agencies controlled the large sector of the Indian industries till the World War I?
Answer:
Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies in fact controlled a large sector of Indian industries. Three of the biggest ones were Bird Heiglers & Co, Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These Agencies mobilised capital, set up joint-stock companies and managed them. In most instances, Indian financiers provided the capital while the European Agencies made all investments and business decisions.

Question 20.
How do you say that despite the large-scale industries, there was the domination of the small-scale industries in India?
Answer:
While factory industries grew steadily after the war, large industries formed only a small segment of the economy. Most of them about 67 per cent in 1911 were located in Bengal and Bombay. Over the rest of the country, small-scale production continued to predominate Only a small proportion at the total industrial labour force worked in registered factories. 5 per cent in 1911 and 10 per cent in 1931. The rest worked in small workshops and household units, often located in alleys and bylanes, invisible to the passer-by.

Question 21.
Look at Figs. 3, 7 and 11 (Textbook. Page 111) then reread source B. Explain why many workers were opposed to the use of the Spinning Jenny.
Source B: A magistrate reported in 1790 about an incident when he was called in to protect a manufacturer’s property from being attacked by workers. From the depredations of a lawless Banditti of colliers and their wives, for the wives had lost their work to spinning engines they advanced at first with much insolence, avowing their intention of cutting to pieces the machine lately introduced in the woollen manufacture; which they suppose, if generally adopted, will lessen the demand for manual labour.

The women became clamorous. The men were more open to conviction and after some expostulation were induced to desist from their purpose and return peaceably home.
J.L. Hammond and B. Hammond, The Skilled Labourer 1760-1832, quoted in Maxine Berg, The Age of Manufactures.
Answer:

• With the introduction of Spinning Jenny, productivity increased, as many spindles could be yarned at a time from one wheel.
• This led to unemployment for many people. Their income also went down. So they opposed Spinning Jenny.

Question 22.
Explain how rapid was the process of industrialisation? Did industrialisation mean growth of factory industries only? Give reasons.
Answer:
The process of industrialization can be stated as follows :
First; The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals. Growing at a rapid pace. Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to 1840s. After that, the iron and steel industry led the way. With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. By 1973 Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton expert.

Second: The new industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, less than 20th percent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. Textiles was a dynamic sector, but a large portion of the output was produced not within factories, but outside, within domestic units.

Third: the pace of change in the traditional industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries, but they did not remain entirely stagnant either seemingly ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non-mechanised. Sectors such as food processing building, rottery glass work tanning, furniture making and production of implements.

Fourth: technological changes curred slowly. They did my spread dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists wife cautious about using it. The machines often broke down and repair was costly. They were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.

Question 23.
Substantiate that silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market before the age of industrialisation.
Answer:
Before the age of machine industries, silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market in textiles. Corser cotton were produced in many countries, but the liner varieties often came from India Armenian and Persian merchants took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, eastern Persia and Central Asia.

Bales of fine textiles were carried on came back via the northwest frontier, through mountain passes and across desires. A vibrant sea trade operated through the main pre-colonial ports. Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports. Masulipatam on the Coromandel coast and Hoogly in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian ports.

A variety of Indian merchants and bankers were involved in this network of export trade financing production, carrying goods and supplying exporter Supply merchants linked the port towns to the inland regions. They gave advances to weavers, procured the woven cloth from weaving villages and carried the supply to the ports. At the port, the big shippers and export merchants had brokers who negotiated the price and bought goods from the supply merchants operating inland.

Question 24.
Why did the industrial groups begin worrying about imports from other countries with the development of cotton industries in England?
Answer:
As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods, could sell in Britain without any competition from outside. At the same time, industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets is well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century.

At the end of the eighteenth century there had been virtually no import of cotton piece-get into India But by 1850 cotton piece-goods, constituted over 31 per cent of the value of non-imports and by the 1870, this figure was over 50 per cent. Cotton weavers in India thus faced we problems at the same.

Time their export market cold and the local market shank, being pulled with Manchester import Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them. By 1950s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories on decline anil desolation.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of the role of advertisements in selling goods.
Answer:
One way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the mind of people and create new needs Today we live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoarding streel walls television screens.

But if we look back into history we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a role in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they pul labels on the cloth bundles The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer The Label was also to be a mark of quality.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate Iterative:
(i) The following was the first symbol of new era of industrialisation
(a) cotton
(b) rubber
(c) iron
(d) silk
Answer:
(a) cotton

(ii) Spinning Jenny was devised by
(a) Hargreaves
(b) Watt
(c) Newcomen
(d) Boulton
Answer:
(a) Hargreaves

(iii) The first cotton mill was set up at
(a) Kanpur
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Surat
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

(iv) The first jute mill was set up in:
(a) Jallandhar
(b) Kanpur
(c) Cochin
(d) Bengal
Answer:
(d) Bengal.

2.Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word:

(i) J.N. Tata set up the iron and steel factory at
Answer:
Jamshedpur

(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore made profit from trade.
Answer:
China

(iii) ………………… was, during the industrialisation days, the workshop of the world.
Answer:
England

(iv) Jenny was devised by Hargreaves
Answer:
Spinning.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Cell Structure and Functions Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Cell Structure and Functions

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 1.
List some of the basic functions carried out by all living organisms.
Answer:
Growth and development, movement, digestion, respiration, excretion, reproduction, etc.

Cell Structure And Function Class 8 Extra Questions Question 2.
What is a cork?
Answer:
Cork is a part of the bark of a tree.

Class 8 Science Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is meant by cell in Latin?
Answer:
Cell in Latin means “hollow space”.

Cell Class 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
What instrument helped in studying the living cells?
Answer:
Microscopes helped in studying the living cells.

Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
How many cells are there in a human body? What about their shape and size?
Answer:
Human body has trillions of cells, which vary in shape and size on the basis of their functions.

Class 8 Science Chapter Cell Structure And Function Extra Questions Question 6.
What is the name of organism made of more than one cell?
Answer:
They are called multicellular.

Cell Structure And Function Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
What is meant by unicellular organisms?
Answer:
The single-celled organisms are called unicellular organisms, (uni = one, cellular = cell).

Class 8 Chapter 8 Science Extra Questions Question 8.
What is the size of cell of a bacteria ?
Answer:
0.1 to 0.5 micrometre (mm).

Cell Structure And Function Extra Question Answer Question 9.
What is tissue?
Answer:
Tissue is a group of similar cells performing a specific function.

Cell Structure And Function Class 8 Questions Question 10.
Is cell wall present or absent in animal cell?
Answer:
It is absent.

Class 8 Cell Extra Questions Question 11.
When can chromosomes be seen?
Answer:
The chromosomes can be seen only when the cell divides.

Chapter 8 Science Class 8 Extra Questions Question 12.
Name two organisms which are made of single cell.
Answer:
Amoeba and Paramecium.

Class 8 Science Cell Structure And Function Extra Questions Question 13.
When you cut your hair and nail, you do not feel pain. Why?
Answer:
When nail and hair are cut, we do not feel any pain because the cells of nails and hair are dead cells.

Class 8 Cell Structure And Function Questions Question 14.
Why are we able to know a lot about cell structure today?
Answer:
Today, we know a lot about cell- structure and its functions because of the improved microscopes having higher magnification.

Class 8th Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 15.
How are cells in the living organisms arranged?
Answer:
The cells in the living organisms are arranged in the similar manner as bricks are arranged to make a building.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 8 Class 8 Science Question 16.
What are basic structural units in buildings and living organisms?
Answer:
Bricks in buildings and cells in the living organisms are the basic structural units.

Ch 8 Science Class 8 Extra Questions Question 17.
Does egg of a hen represent a single cell?
Answer:
Yes, egg of a hen represents a single cell and is big enough to be seen by unaided eye.

Extra Questions On Cell Structure And Formation Class 8 Science Question 18.
While studying living cells with microscope, why do we use stains?
Answer:
Stains (dyes) are used to colour the parts of the cell to observe and study their detailed structure clearly under microscope.

Cell Class 8 Important Questions Question 19.
What is the difference between the functions of organisms with one cell and the organisms with multi cells?
Answer:
A single-celled organism captures and digests food, respires, excretes, grows and reproduces with its single cell. Similar functions in multicellular organisms are carried out by groups of specialised cells forming different tissues which in turn form organs.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Question 20.
What are the projections in Amoeba called? What do they do?
Answer:
The projections in Amoeba are known as pseudopodia (pseudo = false; podia = feet). These projections are in fact false feet and these appear and disappear as Amoeba moves or feeds.

Question 21.
What is the size of cells in living organisms?
Answer:
The size of cells in living organisms may be as small as a millionth of a metre or a few centimetres. However, most of the cells are microscopic in size and are not visible to the unaided eye.

Question 22.
What is the size of smallest cell? What is the size of red blood cells (RBCs) found in the human body?
Answer:
The size of the smallest cell is 0.1 to 0.5 micrometre (pm) found in bacteria and that of red blood cells in the human body measure seven micrometre.

Question 23.
Give example of a large cell. State the size of the largest cell.
Answer:
The hen’s egg is an example of large. cell, which is quite large that it can be seen by an unaided eye. The largest cell, measuring 170 x 130 mm, is the egg of an ostrich.

Question 24.
What are white and yellow parts of an egg called?
Answer:
In an egg, a white material surrounds the yellow part. The white material is called albumin, and the yellow component is called yolk.

Question 25.
Define the terms: tissue and organ.
Answer:
Tissue: A tissue is a group of similar cells performing a specific function.
Organ: It is a group of tissues performing a specific function.

Question 26.
Define nucleus. What is its role?
Answer:
The central dense round body in the centre of the cell is called nucleus. In addition to its role in inheritance, nucleus acts as control centre of the activities of the cell.

Question 27.
Define the term cytoplasm.
Answer:
The jelly-like substance found between the nucleus and the cell membrane is called cytoplasm.

Question 28.
How do we observe the cell by microscope?
Answer:
To observe the cell by microscope, sometimes an organ has to be cut into sections to observe various smaller components. Some components in these sections are visible through the microscope after staining (dying) with coloured dyes.

Question 29.
What was the observation of a part of the bark of a tree (cork) by Robert Hooke?
Answer:
Robert Hooke in 1665 observed slices of cork under a simple magnifying device. He took thin slices of cork and observed them under a microscope. He noticed partitioned boxes or compartments in the cork slice. These boxes appeared like a honeycomb. He coined the term cell for each box.

Question 30.
Describe the differences and similarities between cell and brick.
Answer:
The cells in the living organisms are arranged and appear like bricks in a building. Both bricks in the building and cells in the living organisms are basic structural units. The buildings, though built of similar bricks, have different designs, shapes and sizes. Similarly, in the living world, organisms differ from one another but all are made up of cells. But, cells in the living organisms are complex living structures, unlike non-living bricks.

Question 31.
Which part of the cell gives shape to it?
Answer:
Components of cells are enclosed in a membrane called cell membrane. This membrane provides shape to the cells in plants and animals. Cell wall is an additional covering over the cell membrane in plant cells. It gives shape and rigidity.

Question 32.
Is there any relation between the size of the body of the animal or plant with the size of the cell?
Answer:
The size of the cell, in fact, has no relation with the size of the body of the animal or plant. The size of the cell is related to its function. For example, nerve cells, both in the elephant and rat, are long and branched. They perform the same function of transferring messages in bigger as well as in the smaller organism.

Question 33.
How do cells/groups of cells perform different functions in multicellular organisms?
Answer:
The cell in a living organise is the basic structural unit. Cells combine to form tissues and a group of tissues is called an organ. These organs together constitute different systems in living beings and perform different functions. Each organ in the system performs different functions.

Question 34.
What constitutes cytoplasm?
Answer:
Cytoplasm is a fluid present between the cell membrane and the nucleus and is made up of basic elements like carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O) and nitrogen (N). These are found in the form of chemical substances like carbohydrates, proteins and water.

Question 35.
What are the components present in cytoplasm?
Answer:
Besides nucleus, various other components or organelles of cells are present in the cytoplasm. These are mitochondria, Golgi bodies, ribosomes, etc. Cytoplasm, along with nucleus, forms the living substance of a cell. This living substance is called protoplasm.

Question 36.
What is nucleolus? Describe its function in brief.
Answer:
Nucleolus is a small, spherical, dense body in the nucleus. The function of nucleolus is to assemble ribosomes.

Question 37.
What are prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
The cells having nuclear material without nuclear membrane are termed prokaryotic cells. The organisms with these kinds of cells are called prokaryotes (pro = primitive; karyon = nucleus). Examples are bacteria and blue-green algae.
The cells having a well-organised nucleus with a nuclear membrane are designated as eukaryotic cells. The organisms having these cells are called eukaryotes (EU = true; karyon = nucleus). Examples are onion, cells and cheek cells.

Question 38.
What is the function of nucleoplasm?
Answer:
Nucleoplasm of nucleus contains thread-like structures called chromosomes. These carry genes and help in inheritance.

Question 39.
Define the function of following:
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Gene
(d) Vacuole
(e) Plastid
Answer:
(a) Plasma membrane: It is the outer covering of the cell which separates its contents from the surrounding medium. It is made up of lipids and protein. The main function of cell membrane is to regulate the movement of molecules in and out of the cell.

(b) Mitochondria: Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell because energy is released from the mitochondria after respiration. They are the sites cellular respiration of or oxidation of food.

(c) Gene: Genes carry information of heredity help in inheritance or transfer of characters from the parents to the offspring.

(d) Vacuoles: Cells contain water-filled, sac-like structures called as vacuoles. They are large-sized in plant cells while either absent or small-sized in animal cells.

(e) Plastids: The coloured bodies in the cytoplasm of the cells are called plastids. Plastids are found in plant cells only. Chloroplast i.e., the green plastids contains chlorophyll for the process of photosynthesis. Through this process, plant cell prepares food which is ultimately stored in the form of starch.

Question 40.
What are the basic components of a cell? Describe their functions.
Answer:
The basic components of a cell are :
(i) Cell membrane
(ii) Cytoplasm
(iii) Nucleus

(i) Cell membrane separates the inside contents of the cell from outside. It being porous, allows movement of substances or materials both inwards and outwards of the cell.

(ii) Cytoplasm contains the cell organelle, which performs different functions.

(iii) Nucleus acts as a control centre of a cell. In addition to it, it also facilitates inheritance.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The longest cell in human being is
(a) blood cell
(b) nerve cell
(c) cheek cell
Answer:
(b) nerve cell.

2. The cells having nuclear material without nuclear membrane are called :
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Prokaryotic cell
(c) Eukaryotic cord.
Answer:
(a) Eukaryotic cell.

3. The change of shape of Amoeba is due to:
(a) Cell
(b) Pseudopodia
(c) None of these
Answer:
(b) Pseudopodia.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Federalism Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 2

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define Federalism.
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which the governmental power is divided into a central authority and it various constituent units.

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
What do you mean by unitary system of government?
Answer:
Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Question 3.
Write the dual objectives of the federal government.
Answer:
The federal system has dual objectives:

• To safeguard and promote unity of the country and
• To accommodate the regional diversity.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of federalism?
Answer:

• Agreement to live together : Government at different levels should agree to some rules of power sharing
• Mutual trust: They should also trust that each would abide by its part of the agreement.

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
Define Jurisdiction.
Answer:
Jurisdiction : The area over which someone has legal authority. The area may be defined in terms of geographical boundaries or in terms of certain kinds of subjects.

Class 10 Civics Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
Explain the contents of Union List.
Answer:
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.

Extra Questions Of Federalism Class 10 Question 7.
What are the subjects of State List?
Answer:

• State List contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture irrigation etc.
• The state governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the state list.

Extra Question Answers Of Chapter Federalism Question 8.
Who is authorized make laws about subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists?
Answer:
According to the Indian Constitution, the Union government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary subjects’.

Federalism Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 9.
Whose role is important in the implementation of constitutional provisions?
Answer:

• The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.
• In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.

Class 10 Federalism Extra Questions Question 10.
What was the basis of creation of new states in India?
Answer:

• In 1947, the boundaries of states of India were changed in order to create new states. This was done to ensure that people speaking same language lived in the same state.
• Same other states were created to recognize differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography.
  Example-Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.

Ch 2 Civics Class 10 Extra Questions Question 11.
What was the main fear of some national leaders on creation of new states on linguistic basis?
Answer:
When the demand for the formation of states on the basis of language was raised, some national leaders feared that it would lead to the disintegration of the country.

Federalism Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 12.
Do you think the creation of new states on the basis of language has helped India any way?
Answer:

• The experience shows that the formation of linguistic states has actually made the country more united and stronger.
• It has also made the administration easier.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions In Hindi Question 13.
Explain the composition and function of Gram Sabha?
Answer:

• The Gram Panchayat works under the overall supervision of Gram Sabha.
• All the voters in the village are its members.
• It meets at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget of the Gram Panchayat and to review the performance of the Gram Panchayat.

Civics Chapter 2 Class 10 Extra Questions Question 14.
Who controls municipalities and municipal corporations?
Answer:
Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 15.
What are the difficulties of the institutions of local self-government?
Answer:

• While elections are held regularly gram sabha are not held regularly.
• Most State governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments.
• The institutions of local self-governments do not have adequate resources also.

Question 16.
What is federalism? What are its two types?
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which the governmental power is divided between a central authority and its various constituent units. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.

The other are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day to day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.

Question 17.
How is the ‘Coming together federations formed?
Answer:
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government and within various state governments varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.

The first route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and. retaining identity they can increase their security. This type of coming together’ federations include USA, Switzerland and Australia. In this first category of federations, all the constituent stales usually have equal power and are strong vis-a-vis the federal government.

Question 18.
What do you mean by ‘holding together’ federations?
Answer:
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government and within various state governments varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.

The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations. In this second category the central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states Very often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers.

Question 19.
“All states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers.” Explain.
Answer:

• Most federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.
• Thus all states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers Some states enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
• Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this state without the permission of the state assembly.
• Indians who are not permanent residents of this state cannot buy land or house here.

Question 20.
Explain the main contributing factor towards success of federalism in India.
Answer:

• Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but these are not sufficient.
• If the federal experiment has succeeded in India, it is not merely because of the clearly laid out constitutional provisions.
• The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic politics in our country.
• This ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became a shared ideal in our country.

Question 21.
What is the rational behind decentralisation of power in India?
Answer:
The federal governments have two or more tiers of governments. But a vast country like India cannot be run only through these two tiers. States in India are as large as independent countries. In terms of population, Uttar Pradesh is bigger than Russia, Maharashtra is about as big as Germany.

Many of these states are internally very diverse. There is thus a need for power-sharing within these states. Federal power-sharing in India needs another tier of government, below that of the State governments. This is the for decentralisation of power. Thus, resulted a third tier of government, called Local Government.

Question 22.
“The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problems which are best settled at the local level” Justify.
Answer:

• When power is taken, away from Central, and State governments and given to local government, it is called decentralisation.
• The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
• People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently.
• Besides, at the local level, it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation.
• Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.

Question 23.
“There was very little decentralisation in effective terms before 1992.” Explain.
Answer:

• The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages anf towns.
• Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the states. But these were directly under the control of State governments
• Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.
• Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus there was very tittle decentralisation in effective terms.

Question 24.
Which problem undermined the spirit of federalism in before 1990?
Answer:

• The constitutional arrangements for sharing power work, in reality, depend to a large extent on how the ruling parties and the leader follow these arrangements,
• In India, for long time, the same party (Congress Party) ruled both at the centre and in most of the states. This meant that the state governments did not exercise their rights as autonomous federal units.
• As and when the ruling party at the state level was different, the parties that ruled at the centre tried to undermine the power of the states.

Question 26.
What steps have been taken after 1992 to decentralise power in India?
Answer:

• A major step towards dece¬ntralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
• Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies.
• Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward classes
• An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each state to conduct the panchayat and municipal elections.
• The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from state to state.

Question 27.
Describe the working of panchayat raj system in India.
Answer:
Rural local government is popularly known by the name Panchayati Raj, Each Village, or a group of villages in some states, has a Gram Panchayat. This is a council consisting of several ward members, often called Panchayat, and a President or Sarpanch. These are directly elected by all the adult people living in that ward or the village. It is the decision making body for the entire village. The panchayat works under the overall supervision of the Gram Sabha.

All the voters in the village are its members. It has to meet at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget of the gram panchayat and to review the performance of the gram panchayat. The local government structure goes right up to the district level. A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat Samiti or block.

The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area. All the panchayat in a district together constitutes the Zilla (district) Parishad. Most members of the Zilla Parishad are elected. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLA’S of that district and some other officials of other district-level bodies are also its members. Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zilla Parishad.

Question 28.
Analyse the benefits of decentralisation of power in India.
Answer:

• This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world
• There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc. all over the country.
• This number is bigger than the population of many countries in the world.
• Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country.
• It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy
• At the same time, there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly and enthusiastically, gram sabha are not held regularly
• Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments. Nor have they given adequate resource.

Question 29.
Explain some of the key features of federalism.
Answer:
Some of the key features of federalism are as following:

• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
• Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
• The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government are constitutionally safeguarded.
• The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of the both the levels government.
• Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire in case disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.

Question 30.
What makes India a federal country?
Answer:

• The Constitution of India declared India as a Union of States. Although it did not use the word federation, the Indian Union is based on the principle of federalism.
• The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union government or what we call the central government representing the union of India and die State governments.
• The Constitution clearly provided a three¬fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union government and the State governments.

Thus it contains three lists:
(a) Union List includes subjects of national importance such as the defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.

(b) State List contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.

(c) Concurrent list includes subjects of common interest to both the Union government as well as the State governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the union government will prevail.

4. According to the Indian constitution, the Union government has the power to legislate on ‘residuary’ subjects.

Question 31.
“Federal power-sharing is more effective today than it was in the early years after the constitution came into force.” Justify.
Answer:

• Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism has been strengthened in practice. The constitutional arrangements for sharing power, work in reality, depend to a large extent on how the ruling parties and leaders follow these arrangements.
• For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the states. This meant that the state governments did not exercise their rights as autonomous federal units.
• As and when the ruling party at the state level was different, the parties that ruled at the centre tried to undermine the power of the states.
• In those days, the Central government would often misuse the Constitution to dismiss the state governments that were controlled by rival parties. This undermined the spirit of federalism.
• All this changed significantly after 1990. This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the centre. Since no single party got a clear majority in Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government the centre.
• This led to a new culture of power-sharing and respect for the autonomy of the state governments.

Objective Type Questions

Four alternatives have been given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to be a:
(a) Unitary system
(b) Federal system
(c) Monarchy
(d) Autocracy
Answer:
(b) Federal system

Question 2.
A system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units- is called
(a) Federalism
(b) Unitary
(c) Monarchy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Federalism

Question 3.
A system of government in which either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government is called:
(a) Federalism
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Unitary
Answer:
(d) Unitary

Question 4.
USA is the example of
(a) Coming together federation
(b) Holding together federation
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Coming together federation

Question 5.
India is the example of:
(a) Coming together federation
(b) Holding together federation
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Holding together federation.

Question 6.
The Indian Constitution originally provided for a
(a) One-tier system of government
(b) Three-tier system of government
(c) Five-tier system of government
(d) Two-tier system of government
Answer:
(d) Two-tier system of government

Question 7.
Communication comes under:
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(c) Union list

Question 8.
Agriculture comes under.
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(b) State list

Question 9.
Education comes under
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(d) Concurrent list

Question 10.
Who has the power to legislate over residuary subjects?
(a) State
(b) Union
(c) District
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Union

Question 11.
If there is a conflict over law made by the union and state government, on the subject related to concurrent list, whose law would prevail?
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Union government

Question 12.
All States in the Indian union do not have identical powers:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Sometimes true
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) True

Question 13.
Which state has its own constitution?
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) J&K
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) J&K

Question 14.
Chandigarh is a
(a) State
(b) Union Territory
(c) District
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Union Territory.

Question 15.
Which is the official language of India?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Tamil
Answer:
(b) Hindi.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Online Education for Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

Question 1.
How many fundamental rights have given to the Indians by the Constitution?
Answer:
6.

Question 2.
How many rights are there in the Right to Freedom?
Answer:
6.

Question 3.
Is an Indian state allowed to discriminate against a citizen on the basis of place of birth?
Answer:
No.

Question 4.
In which form does the Indian Constitution provides for special provisions while guaranteeing the right to equality?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution provides for special provisions in the form of reserve posts while guaranteeing right to equality.

Question 5.
To whom the reserved posts have been provided?
Answer:
The reserved posts have been provided to the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and to the backward classes.

Question 6.
Which of the fundamental rights has abolished untouchability?
Answer:
Right to equality.

Question 7.
What will be done to a person practising untouchability?
Answer:
A person practising untouchability would be punished by law.

Question 18.
What kind of titles have not been abolished by the constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution has not abolished two types of the titles

• Military titles
• Academic titles.

Question 9.
On what basis the government can restrict the fundamental rights?
Answer:
The government can restrict the fundamental rights in the interest of the independence, sovereignty and integrity of the nation.

Question 10.
Name the various kinds of the writs.
Answer:

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition.
• Quo Warranto
• Certiorari.

Question 11.
Who can issue the writs?
Answer:
Courts.

Question 12.
During an emergency who is allowed to suspend the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
The Central Government.

Question 13.
Under which of the Fundamental rights the titles have been abolished by the government?
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 14.
By whom a citizen can be denied his life and liberty?
Answer:
Bylaw.

Question 15.
With do you think that the constitutions of different countries have sections on rights?
Answer:
It is so only to emphasise that such rights are fundamental for the development of human personality.

Question 16.
Do the citizens of all the countries have rights ensured to them?
Answer:
No, really Until recently, the people of South Africa (under white minority rule) had no rights ensured, to them.

Question 17.
Do all the countries have their rights codified?
Answer:
No. the rights given to the people of United Kingdom are based on common law.

Question 18.
Suppose there are no traffic rules in our country, what would have happened?
Answer:
Either accidents or traffic jams.

Question 19.
What is meant by rights?
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of the individual recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 20.
What type of right to earn a reasonable wage is?
Answer:
Right to work.

Question 21.
Whom are political rights available to?
Answer:
Political rights are available only to the citizens, and not to the foreigners.

Question 22.
What would happen to democracy if there are no rights?
Answer:
Democracy becomes meaningless if we do not have rights and the means to secure them.

Question 23.
When do we celebrate Human Rights Day?
Answer:
December 10, every year.

Question 24.
How are the rights in France described as?
Answer:
Rights of Man.

Question 25.
Mention anyone right as incorporated in the US Bill of Rights.
Answer:
Freedom of speech.

Question 26.
Where did the US forces put about 600,to people in 2002?
Answer:
In a prison in Guantanamo Bay.

Question 27.
When did the terrorist attack on USA?
Answer:
September 11, 2001.

Question 28.
In which country, the non-Muslims can follow their religions, but only in private.
Answer:
Saudi Arabia.

Question 29.
What did the Serbs demand of Kosovo Albanian in April 1999?
Answer:
Either the Kosovo Albanians leave the country or accept the dominance of the Serbs.

Question 30.
When was the National Human Rights Commission set up in India?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 31.
Define rights.
Answer:
Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be his best self. They are claims recognised by society and protected by law.

Question 32.
Mention some qualities of rights.
Answer:
Some .qualities of rights are as follows:

• Right is claim which has to be recognised by others. My right should be respected as should be yours.
• Right is recognised by society. It is social in nature. What is against society is not.a right. What is against the interest of society is also not a right.
• Right has to be protected and Sanctioned by law.

Question 33.
Mention some types of rights with example.
Answer:
Rights are of different types. They may be classified as civil, political, economic and social and cultural rights: Right to life, to equality, to family, right to freedoms, to acquire and own property, etc. are civil rights. Right to vote, to contest elections, and to seek any political office are political rights.

Right to work, to earn a reasonable wage, and to fulfil basic needs are economic rights. Right to culture, to religion, to speak in one’s own language, to get education, and to lead a decent life are social and cultural rights. However, all these rights are interconnected. These days we call all of them together as human rights.

Question 34.
Are all types of rights available to all the people? State with examples.
Answer:
Some of the rights are available to citizens as individuals. For example, the right to life is one such a right. Some rights are available to persons as members of a community. For example, the right to culture or language. Some rights are available to all persons residing in a country, whether one is a citizen or not.

For example, European or the refugees from Bangladesh or Sri Lanka living in India have certain rights along with Indian citizens. Similarly, Indians living in the United States too have some rights like that of the American citizens. Some right are available to citizens of a specific age. For example, the right to vote or to contest in elections only when one grows up.

Question 35.
Discuss the relationship between rights and democracy.
Answer:
Rights are necessary for the development of society, individual personality and for the realisation of human potential. Democracy becomes meaningless if we do not have rights and the means to secure them. It is the availability of these rights that make any political system democratic.

Even among democracies, we can know how democratic a country is by looking at the kind of rights available to its people and to what extent they are effective. So the expansion of democracy in any country is closely linked to the expansion of citizens’ rights. Democracy and citizens’ rights are therefore mutually complementary.

Question 36.
Explain briefly the evolution of rights.
Answer:
Rights did not emerge all of a sudden. They had evolved over a long time. They are a result of struggles of people. They change with changes in society. New rights emerge as societies develop. Over the last two hundred years, most democracies have adopted basic rights as essential ingredients of their constitutions and government.

The French National Assembly recognized certain rights of the citizens. It was called the Declaration of the Rights of Man. It proclaimed that all citizens are ‘equal in the eyes of the law. All have an equal right to all public places and employment according to their capacity and talent. In the same year, a Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution of the United States, of America. It gave to American citizens rights such as freedom of speech press, religion, assembly and to petition the government.

Question 37.
Write is short note on Human Rights.
Answer:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the United Nations in 1948 was an important milestone in the long struggle for rights in the world. It recognized certain rights as fundamental to human life. They are the right to life, liberty and security of person; the right to freedom of opinion and expression: the right to freedom of throughout, conscience and religion: and the right to own property.

Question 38.
Point out some aspects of the Rights to equality enjoyed by the citizens of India.
Answer:
Right to equality is one of the most important fundamental rights provided by the Constitution.

These rights have been given in the Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.

• Article 14 establishes equality before the law, It says the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protec¬tion of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 15 prohibits any sort of discrimination among the citizens of the Republic on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
• Article 16 of the Constitution of India provides equal opportunities in all fields of public employment.
• Article 17 has erased the age-long slur on the face of the Indian social order. Practising of. untouchability in any form has been made an offence punishable by law.
• Article 18 puts an end to all the titles other than educational and military.
  Thus, the Indian citizens have been provided the right to equality to enjoy their lives.

Question 39.
Describe special provisions which are provided for the advancement of the backward classes.
Answer:
Special provisions are also provided for the advancement of backward classes of citizens and those of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Equality does not mean that everyone gets, the same treatment, no matter what they need. Right to equality allows special treatment in favour of persons who belong to the weaker sections. For example, government reserves some seats in public educational institutions, or provide stipends to such persons. Similarly, government reserves some posts in favour of backward classes of citizens who are not adequately represented in government services.

But for such special provisions, it would not be possible for the boys and girls of these groups to get admission in premier educational institutions or to get good jobs. These special provisions and reservations are aimed at promoting socio-economic equality. For promoting social equality, the Constitution forbids the practice of untouchability in any form. Untouchability refers hr any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels. Such practice denies them interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So the Constitution made untouchability a punishable offence.

Question 40.
“The right to freedom is a cluster of six freedoms.” Explain.
Answer:
The right to freedom given by the constitution to its citizens includes six freedom rights. Hence the right to freedom is called a cluster of six freedoms.

These rights are the following;

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
• Freedom to form associations and unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle and
• Freedom to adopt in any profession or the right to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Every citizen has the right to all these freedoms. That means you cannot exercise your freedom in such a manner that violates others’ right to freedom. Your freedoms should not cause public nuisance or disorder. You are free to do everything which injures no one else. Freedom is the absence of interference by other’s in our affairs, so far as such affairs do not adversely affect other’s lives.

So our freedoms have some limitations. However, such restrictions have to be reasonable. They should be as per the law. Accordingly, the government imposes certain restrictions on our freedoms in the larger interests of the society.

The Constitution ensures protection of individual life and personal liberty. It says that no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. That means no government or police officer can interfere with the life and liberty of a citizen unless his action is supported by some provision of law.

Question 41.
Write short notes on:
Answer:
(i) Right Against Exploitation: This is a very important fundamental right. Earlier people were made to do work free of charge for landlords or the wealthy persons. This was known as beggar or forced labour.
It was the kind of labour which was done without any wage in return. Begar is now a crime and punishable by law.

Providing this right the Constitution also forbids employing of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories arid mines. This right makes us conscious about the fact that the children are our assets. They must he allowed to get education and lead happy childhood.

In actual practice, it is very easily seen that the children are working in much less wages. This is done because the child labour is much cheap. Children in fact cannot work like an adult hence they are given low wages. This is, however, a gross violation of the spirit and provisions of the constitution. In this situation, the right against exploitation is a legal weapon to protect today’s children. This right is considered a legal weapon because if this right is violated, one can go to the court of law to get justice.

(ii) Right to Freedom of Religion: Ours is a secular country. That means the government of India would not give any undue bias or preference to any religion. Every religion is equal before the state. Citizens of India are free to practise their respective religions. This is one of the fundamental rights of the citizens given by the Constitution. Foremost objective part of this right is to sustain the principle, of secularism in the country. No state-run institutions can give religious education. However, religious communities are free to set up charitable institutions of their own.

(iii) Cultural and Educational Rights: India is a vast country with a number of religions, languages as well as cultures. Hence the Indian Constitution provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities. Any community which has a language and script of its own has the right to conserve and develop them. No citizen can be discriminated against for, admission in state or state-aided institutions because of religion or language. All minorities, religious or linguistic, can set up their own educational institutions. Thus, they are able to preserve and develop their culture.

Question 42.
How can we secure our fundamental rights?
Answer:
One important characteristic of the rights in the Constitution is that they are enforceable. We have a right to seek the enforcement of the above-mentioned rights. This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies. This itself is a Fundamental Right. This right makes other rights effective. It is possible that sometimes our rights may be violated by fellow’ citizens, private bodies or by the government.

When any of our right is violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state. That is why, Dr Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the heart and soul of our Constitution.

Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the actions of the Legislatures, the Executive, and any other authorities instituted by the government. There can be no law or action that violates the Fundamental Rights. If any act of the Legislature or the Executive takes away or limits any of the Fundamental Rights it will be invalid. We can challenge such law’s of the central and state governments, the policies and actions of the government or the governmental organizations like the nationalized banks.

The Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to declare such laws or acts as invalid. They also enforce the Fundamental Rights against private individuals and bodies. The Supreme Court and High Courts have tire power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. They award compensation for the violation.

Question 43.
What are the rights guaranteed to the citizens of South Africa?
Answer:
The Constitution of South Africa guarantees its citizens several kinds of new rights. Some of these are :

• Rights to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
• Right to an. environment that is not harmful to their health or well being
• Rights to have access to adequate housing.
• Right to have access to health care services, sufficient food and water; no one may be refused emergency medical treatment.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before right sentences and (✗) before wrong sentences.

(i) Begar is a crime and punishable by law.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The Constitution never imposes restrictions on the rights of freedom.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The Constitution provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Right to Constitutional Remedies is not as much important as it is considered.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The court of law stands as a guard against the violation of the fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓).

2. Complete the following sentences:

(i) Democracy is not merely a ………………………… term.
Answer:
political

(ii) Directive Principles promote an environment to make ………………………… life comfortable.
Answer:
citizens

(iii) The ………………………… provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities.
Answer:
Constitution

(iv) To safeguard public property is a Fundamental ………………………… .
Answer:
duty

(v) We must cherish and …………………………the noble ideas of freedom struggle.
Answer:
follow.

3. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The constitution of India has granted the following number of fundamental rights :
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 6

(ii) Our rights are protected by the following right:
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

(iii) Untouchability is a crime against:
(a) Law only
(b) Constitution only
(c) Both law and constitution
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both law and constitution

(iv) Right to equality has the following aspect:
(a) Legal
(b) Political
(c) Social
(d) All above.
Answer:
(d) All above.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Online Education for Life in the Deserts Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 10

Life In The Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 1.
Write the features of the desert areas of the world.
Answer:

• Low rainfall,
• scanty vegetation and
• extreme temperatures.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
How deserts can be classified on the basis of temperature?
Answer:

• Hot deserts and
• Cold deserts.

Life In Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
Name the largest desert of the world. Also, mention its area.
Answer:
Sahara is the largest desert of the world. It has an area of around 8.54 million square kilometres.

Extra Questions On Life In Desert Class 7 Question 4.
Which type of vegetation is found in the Sahara desert?
Answer:
Vegetation in the Sahara desert includes cactus, date palms and acacia.

The Desert Class 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the prominent animal species found in the Sahara desert.
Answer:
Camels, hyenas, jackals, foxes, scorpions and many varieties of snakes and lizards.

Life In Desert Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 6.
What is oasis? Name an oasis found in the Sahara desert.
Answer:
A fertile, watered spot in a desert is called oasis. Ah, oasis in Sahara is Tafilalet Oasis (in Morocco). It has an area of about 13000 sq. km.

Life In Desert Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Name the minerals found in the Sahara desert.
Answer:
Oil, iron, phosphorus, manganese and uranium.

Ch 10 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Name two nomadic tribes of the Sahara.
Answer:
Bedouins and Tuaregs.

Life In The Deserts Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
The Sahara desert touches eleven countries. Name them.
Answer:

• Algeria,
• Chad,
• Egypt,
• Libya,
• Mali,
• Mauritania,
• Morocco,
• Niger,
• Sudan,
• Tunisia and
• Western Sahara.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 10.
Describe the relief of Sahara desert.
Answer:
Relief of Sahara consists of-

• Vast stretches of sands.
• Gravel plains.
• Elevated plateaus with bare rocky surface.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question Answer Question 11.
How is an oasis formed?
Answer:
Depressions are formed when the wind blows away the sands. In the depressions where underground water reaches the surface, an oasis is formed.

Life In Desert Class 7 Worksheet Question 12.
Describe the life of the people living near oasis in Sahara.
Answer:

• The oasis in the Sahara and the Nile valley in Egypt supports settled life.
• Due to the availability of water, people grow various crops such as rice, wheat, barley and beans. Date palms are also grown.
• Cotton is the major cash crop grown in this region.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 13.
How has discovery of oil changed the cultural landscape of the Sahara?
Answer:

• Gleaming glass cased office buildings tower over mosques and super-highways crisscross the ancient camel paths.
• Trucks are replacing camels in salt trade.
• Tuaregs are involving better occupations such as becoming guides to foreign tourists.
• Nomadic herdsmen are taking to city life finding jobs in oil and gas operations.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question 14.
Describe the life of nomadic tribes in the Sahara desert.
Answer:

• The Sahara desert is inhabited by various nomadic tribes such as Bedouins and Tuaregs.
• They rear livestock such as goats, sheep, camels and horses.
• These animals provide them with milk and hides from which they make leather for belts, slippers, water bottles. Hair is used formats, carpets, clothes and blankets.
• They wear heavy robes as protection against dust storms and hot winds.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Worksheet Question 15.
Describe the climatic conditions of the Sahara desert.
Answer:

• The climate of the Sahara desert is scorching hot and parch dry.
• It has a short rainy season.
• Days are unbelievably hot. The temperatures during the day may soar as high as 50°C.
• The nights may be freezing cold with temperatures nearing zero degrees.

Question 16.
Give an example of a cold desert.
Answer:
Ladakh.

Question 17.
Name the river flowing through Ladakh.
Answer:
Indus.

Question 18.
Why does Ladakh receive little rainfall?
Answer:
Ladakh receives little rainfall because it lies in the rainshadow area of the Himalayas.

Question 19.
Name one of the coldest inhabited place located in Ladakh.
Answer:
Drass.

Question 20.
Name the birds found in Ladakh.
Answer:
Robins, Redstarts, Tibetan Snowcock, Raven and Hoopoe.

Question 21.
People of Ladakh belong to which religion?
Answer:
Islam or Buddhism.

Question 22.
Mention some of the famous monasteries of Ladakh.
Answer:
Hemis, Thikse, Shey and Lamayuru.

Question 23.
Name the crops grown in Ladakh.
Answer:
Barley, potatoes, peas, beans and turnip.

Question 24.
How people in Ladakh keep themselves busy during winters?
Answer:
People in Ladakh keep themselves engaged in festivities and ceremonies during winters due to harsh climatic conditions.

Question 25.
What is Goncha?
Answer:
Goncha is the most common Ladakhi dress. It is a robe made of thick woollen cloth.

Question 26.
What is the capital of Ladakh? It is connected with which highway to which place?
Answer:
Leh is the capital of Ladakh. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir valley through the Zoji La Pass.

Question 27.
Can you name some more passes in the Himalayas?
Answer:

• Karakoram pass,
• Shipki La pass,
• Ashil pass and
• Bomdila pass.

Question 28.
Manali-Leh highway crosses which four passes?
Answer:

• Rohtang la,
• Baralacha la,
• Lungalacha la and
• Tanglang la.

Question 29.
What are the major tourist attractions in Ladakh?
Answer:

• Gompas,
• meadows and glaciers,
• ceremonies and festivities of local people.

Question 30.
Describe the location of Ladakh.
Answer:
Ladakh lies in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir. The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zaskar mountain in the southbound it.

Question 31.
Why Ladakh is a cold desert?
Answer:

• Located in the Himalayan rainshadow area.
• High altitude.
• Radiation of heat from bare rocks.

Question 32.
Which type of vegetation is found in the Ladakh region?
Answer:

• Scanty patches of grasses and shrubs.
• Groves of willows and poplars are seen in the valleys.
• During summers, fruit trees such as apples, apricots and walnuts bloom.

Question 33.
Mention the animals found in Ladakh. Also write their uses.
Answer:
Animals found in Ladakh –

• Wild goat,
• wild sheep,
• yak and
• special kinds of dogs.

Their uses-

• The animals are reared to provide milk, meat and hides.
• The yak’s milk is used to make cheese and butter.
• The hair of the sheep and goat is used to make woollens.

Question 34.
Describe the climate of Ladakh region.
Answer:

• The climate of Ladakh is extremely cold and dry.
• The day temperatures in summer are just above zero degree and the night temperatures are below 30°C.
• Winters are freezing cold. The temperature remains below 40°C for most of the time.
• This region receives a little rainfall, as low as 10 centimetres annually.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is the world’s largest desert?
(a) Atacama
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar
(d) Anatolia
Answer:
(b) Sahara.

2. Which one of the following is different from the others, with reference to the location of the Sahara desert?
(a) Egypt
(b) Western Sahara
(c) Mali
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(d) South Africa.

3. What kind of climate does the Sahara desert experience?
(a) Rainy
(b) Scorching hot and parch dry
(c) Cloudy
(d) Dry and cold.
Answer:
(b) Scorching hot and parch dry.

4. Which one of the following vegetations is not associated with the Sahara desert?
(a) Cactus
(b) Dale palm
(c) Acacia
(d) Rosewood.
Answer:
(d) Rosewood.

5. Which one of the following is grown in Egypt?
(a) Wheat
(b) Cotton
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane.
Answer:
(b) Cotton.

6. It replaced camels in the salt trade;
(a) Elephant
(b) Cow
(c) Truck
(d) Tiger.
Answer:
(c) Truck.

7. It is the cold desert of India;
(a) Ladakh
(b) Thar
(c) Tibet
(d) Mongolia.
Answer:
(a) Ladakh.

8. Which one of the following is the most important river of the Ladakh region?
(a) Ravi
(b) Indus.
(c) Chenab
(d) Zaskar.
Answer:
(b) Indus.

9. Why is the Ladakh region experience sparse vegetation?
(a) Due to extreme height
(b) Due to scanty rainfall
(c) Due to high aridity
(d) Due to extreme coldness.
Answer:
(c) Due to high aridity.

10. Which one of the following is used to make cheese and butter in Ladakh region?
(a) Yak’s milk
(b) Cow’s milk
(c) Camel’s milk
(d) Buffaloes milk.
Answer:
(a) Yak’s milk.

11. Which one of the following terms is used for the Ladakhi landscape by the Buddhist monasteries?
(a) Gompas
(b) Robins
(c) Redstarts
(d) Raven.
Answer:
(a) Gompas.

12. Which one of the following highways connects Leh to Kashmir valley?
(a) National Highway 7
(b) National Highway 8
(c) National Highway 1 A
(d) National Highway 1
Answer:
(c) National Highway 1 A.

13. The National Highway 1A connects Leh to Kashmir valley through;
(a) Sipki La Pass
(b) Bomdila Pass
(c) Karakoram
(d) Zojila Pass.
Answer:
(d) Zojila Pass.

14. Thiksey in Ladakh is famous for;
(a) Temple
(b) Monastery
(c) Church
(d) Institution.
Answer:
(b) Monastery.

15. Ladakh is also known as;
(a) Khapa-Chan (Snow land)
(b) Cold desert
(c) Dryland
(d) Tourist place
Answer:
(a) Khapa-Chan (Snow land).

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science