Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 5 with Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

Part-A
Multiple Choice Questions (40 Marks)

Reading (20 Marks)
Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (10 Marks)
1. One day Gandhiji and Vallabhbhai Patel were talking in the Yeravda jail when Gandhiji remarked, “At times even a dead snake can be of use.” And he related the following story to illustrate his point: Once a snake entered the house of an old woman. The old woman was frightened and cried out for help. Hearing her, the neighbours rushed up and killed the snake. Then they returned to their homes. Instead of throwing the dead snake far away, the old woman flung it onto her roof.

2. Sometime later a kite flying overhead spotted the dead snake. In its beak, the kite had a pearl necklace which it had picked up from somewhere. It dropped the necklace and flew away with the dead snake. When the old woman saw a bright, shining object on her roof she pulled it down with a pole. Finding that it was a pearl necklace she danced with joy!

3. One day a bania found a snake in his house. He could not find anyone to kill it for him and had not the courage to kill it himself. Besides, he hated killing any living creature. So, he covered the snake with a pot and let it there.

4. As luck would have it, that night some thieves broke into the bania’s house. They entered the kitchen and saw the overturned pot. “Ah”, they thought, “the bania has hidden something valuable here.” As they lifted the pot, the snake struck. Having come with the object of stealing, they barely left with their lives.

5. Once he came out of jail, Gandhiji went from city to city, village to village collecting funds for the Charkha Sangh. During one of his tours, he addressed a meeting in Orissa.

6. After his speech a poor old woman got up. She was bent with age, her hair was grey and her clothes were in tatters. The volunteers tried to stop her, but she fought her way to the place where Gandhiji was sitting. “I must see him,” she insisted, and going up to Gandhiji, she touched his feet.

7. Then from the folds of her sari, she brought out a copper coin and placed it at his feet. Gandhiji picked up the copper coin and put it away carefully.

8. The Charkha Sangh funds were under the charge of Jamnalal Bajaj. He asked Gandhi for the coin but Gandhi refused.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 = 10)
(i) The old woman was frightened and cried out for help:
(a) on seeing a snake
(b) out of joy
(c) to disturb others
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) on seeing a snake

(ii) The bania could not kill the snake because:
(a) he was kind to living creatures
(b) he could not find anyone
(c) he had no courage to kill it himself
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(iii) The thieves thought the bania had hidden something valuable:
(a) under the stone
(b) in the box
(c) under the pot
(d) in the hole
Answer:
(c) under the pot

(iv) What did the old woman give to Gandhiji?
(a) Copper coin
(b) Sari
(c) Shawl
(d) Charkha
Answer:
(a) Copper coin

(v) What is the synonym of the word ‘denied’ in para 8?
(a) Asked
(b) Charge
(c) Refused
(d) Funds
Answer:
(c) Refused

(vi) Where did the old woman throw the dead snake?
(a) In the field
(b) In the well
(c) On the roof
(d) On the tree
Answer:
(c) On the roof

(vii) What expresses best the meaning of ‘at times even a dead snake can be of use’?
(a) Even useless things can be used sometimes
(b) Dead snakes are of use
(c) Dead animals are useful
(d) Things are useful when they are dead
Answer:
(a) Even useless things can be used sometimes

(viii) What is the line that best sums up paragraph 2?
(a) People are greedy
(b) Greed is good
(c) Everything falls into place
(d) Everything has its use
Answer:
(c) Everything falls into place

(ix) What are the two correct meanings of the word ‘illustrate’?
1. To use pictures etc in a book
2. To draw a clear image
3. To paint clearly
4. To make meaning of something clear using examples
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1 and 4

(x) Select the option that makes the correct use of ‘address’ as used in the passage, to fill in
the blanks.
(a) The parliament speaker has right to ………………. the audience sitting there.
(b) Could you please write the correct …………………. and mail?
(c) You cannot leave behind luggage and ………………
(d) His letter is now ………………… to have been a mistake.
Answer:
(a) The parliament speaker has right to ………………. the audience sitting there.

(xi) The kite did not know the value of …………….. and dropped it.
(a) snake
(b) pearl
(c) pot
(d) clothes
Answer:
(b) pearl

(xii) The old woman wanted to touch Gandhiji’s feet:
(a) to pay him respect
(b) to rebuke him
(c) to greet him
(d) to give him a coin
Answer:
(a) to pay him respect

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: (10 Marks)
1. Man suffers from a distorted complex. He always considers animals as inferior beings only fit for exploitation. Man has been using domestic and wild animals for his selfish ends. Many animal lovers joined together to form the ‘Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals’.

2. The society has been working for the well-being and welfare of animals for many years. Its main aim is to change the attitude and thinking of people towards animals. It is quite sad that animals continue to be ill-treated, tortured and killed according to the whims of the people. About 15% of the people entertain the belief that animals are man’s slaves. They use, misuse and torture them accordingly. About 50% of the people exploit animals for selfish ends.

3. Horses and oxen are used for transport, carrying loads and in agricultural activities. Dogs, cats and many birds are domesticated for fun, entertainment and convenience. Wild animals like elephants, tigers, lions and deer are victims of poaching and killing. Animals are forced to do acrobatic feats in circus shows. Unfortunately, about 35% of people don’t think about the animals at all. They are totally indifferent to them.

4. The Government and the animal lovers must work together to bring a change in the attitude of the people. Animals should not be killed and poached for fun, furs or financial gains. They should be treated with kindness, care and sympathy. Cruelty towards animals must be legally punished.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 =10)
(i) In the line “………..-fit for exploitation”, the word ‘exploitation’ does not refer to:
(a) abuse
(b) ill-treatment
(c) oppression
(d) utilisation
Answer:
(d) utilisation

(ii) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the abuses of animals.
1. Used for transport
2. Used for carrying loads
3. Acrobatic feats in circus
4. Poaching
5. Agricultural activities
6. Domesticated for fun
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 6
(c) 5and 6
(d) 3and 4
Answer:
(d) 3and 4

(iii) Man always considers animals as:
(a) superior beings
(b) inferior beings
(c) powerful beings
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) inferior beings

(iv) Man considers animals fit for:
(a) exploitation
(b) working hard
(c) helping man
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) exploitation

(v) To serve his purpose, man has always been using:
(a) domestic animals
(b) wild animals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(vi) For many years, ‘Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals’ has been working for:
(a) destruction of animals
(b) exploitation of animals
(c) the welfare of animals
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) the welfare of animals

(vii) ‘ Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals ’ aims to change the attitude of man towards:
(a) other people
(b) animals
(c) plants
(d) society
Answer:
(b) animals

(viii) It is very disappointing that animals are still:
(a) ill-treated
(b) tortured
(c) killed
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ix) For what activities do people use horses and oxen?
(a) Carrying loads
(b) Transport
(c) Agricultural activities
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(x) For fun, entertainment and convenience, man domesticates:
(a) birds
(b) cats
(c) dogs
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(xi) Which of these animals is/are victims of poaching and killing?
(a) Lions
(b) Tigers
(c) Elephants
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(xii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE.
(a) Animals must not be exploited by man
(b) Animals should be treated well
(c) Animals should be killed only for food
(d) Animals can be used in circus to earn one’s livelihood
Answer:
(c) Animals should be killed only for food

Literature (10 Marks)
Question 3.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)
A. Even when each of his brothers and his little sister, whose wings were far shorter than his own, ran to the brink, flapped their wings, and flew away, he failed to muster up courage to take that plunge which appeared to him so desperate. His father and mother had come around calling to him shrilly, upbraiding him, threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. But for the life of him he could not move.
(i) The young seagull’s brothers and his sister had:
(a) beautiful wings than him
(b) longer wings than him
(c) stronger wings than him
(d) shorter wings than him
Answer:
(d) shorter wings than him

(ii) His parents, brother and sister regularly:
(a) supported him
(b) chided him
(c) scolded and threatened him
(d) accompanied him
Answer:
(c) scolded and threatened him

(iii) Who threatened the young seagull to starve on the ledge?
(a) His brother
(b) His sister
(c) His parents
(d) His mother
Answer:
(c) His parents

(iv) What could happen to him if he tried flying?
(a) He could fall into the sea
(b) He could fall over the rock
(c) He could fall on the ledge
(d) He could not get food
Answer:
(a) He could fall into the sea

(v) The extract uses the phrase, ‘flew away’. Which of these expressions is incorrect with
respect to the word ‘flew’?

(a) Option 1
(b) Option 2
(c) Option 3
(d) Option 4
Answer:
(d) Option 4

B. “I am sure that none of the boys and girls in Room Thirteen would purposely and deliberately hurt anyone’s feelings because his or her name happened to be a long, unfamiliar one.” “I prefer to think that what was said was said in thoughtlessness. I know that all of you feel the way I do, that this is a very unfortunate thing to have happened – unfortunate and sad, both. And I want you all to think about it.”
(i) What was said was said in:
(a) a thoughtful manner
(b) a casual manner
(c) in a deliberate manner
(d) thoughtlessness manner
Answer:
(d) thoughtlessness manner

(ii) None of the boys and girls:
(a) did it happily
(b) listened to the letter
(c) knew Peggy and Maddie
(d) did it purposely and deliberately
Answer:
(d) did it purposely and deliberately

(iii) Who is ‘I’ here?
(a) Wanda’s father
(b) Miss Mason
(c) Maddie
(d) Peggy
Answer:
(b) Miss Mason

(iv) What unfortunate thing had happened?
(a) Wanda had left the school
(b) Peggy had left the school
(c) Maddie had left the school
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Wanda had left the school

(v) Which word does ‘thoughtlessness’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Inconsiderate
(b) Careful
(c) Uncaring
(d) Insensitive
Answer:
(b) Careful

Question 4.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)
A. He stalks in his vivid stripes
The few steps of his cage,
On pads of velvet quiet,
In his quiet rage.

He should be lurking in shadow,
Sliding through long grass
Near the water hole
Where plump deer pass.
(i) The tiger is able to take only a few steps because:
(a) the cage is too small
(b) the forest is too small
(c) he is too weak to walk more
(d) he is afraid of the visitors
Answer:
(a) the cage is too small

(ii) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
(a) aabb; aabb
(b) abcb; abed
(c) abcb, abcb
(d) abca; abca
Answer:
(c) abcb, abcb

(iii) One cannot hear the sound of the tiger’s footsteps because:
(a) he was unable to move anywhere
(b) he has very soft feet like velvet
(c) no one goes around him
(d) he was moving in the cage
Answer:
(b) he has very soft feet like velvet

(iv) According to the extract, if the tiger were free, he would have hidden himself behind:

(a) option (1)
(b) option (2)
(c) option (3)
(d) option (4)
Answer:
(b) option (2)

(v) What is the tiger in the cage NOT able to do?
(a) Take sound sleep
(b) Move a long distance
(c) Catch his prey
(d) Sit properly
Answer:
(c) Catch his prey

B. What is the boy now, who has lost his ball
What, what is he to do? I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then
Merrily over – there it is in the water!

No use to say ‘O there are other balls’;
An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy’
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went.
(i) The poet wants to know about the boy’s:
(a) background
(b) reaction
(c) mood
(d) attitude
Answer:
(b) reaction

(ii) The poet says that the ball was jumping up and down:
(a) in the river
(b) in the street
(c) in boy’s hands
(d) on the roof
Answer:
(b) in the street

(iii) Pick the option that correctly classifies facts (F) and opinions (O) of the students below:

(a) F-1,2 and O – 3,4
(b) F-2,3 and O-1,4
(e) F-1,4 and O-2,3
(d) F-1,3 and O-2,4
Answer:
(b)F-2,3 and O-1,4

(iv) The boy is completely surrounded by:
(a) joy
(b) sorrow
(c) zeal
(d) difficulties
Answer:
(b) sorrow

(v) The lost ball reminds the boy of his:
(a) sweet memories
(b) childhood days
(c) friends
(d) relatives
Answer:
(a) sweet memories

Grammar (10 Marks)
Question 5.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the note about punctuality. (3 × 1 = 3)
Punctuality is of great importance. It is truly underestimated and (i) ………………. utmost importance. When we become punctual, the rest things (ii) …………….. our reach. We learn discipline and (iii) …………….. respect of others.
(i) (a) is given
(b) may given
(c) must give
(d) must be given
Answer:
(d) must be given

(ii) (a) should fall into
(b) can fall into
(c) falls into
(d) does fall into
Answer:
(b) can fall into

(iii) (a) have earn
(b) has earned
(c) earn
(d) does earn
Answer:
(c) earn

Question 6.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the librarian’s narration. (3 × 1 = 3)

I found Mayank sitting on a chair. I(i) ……………. the book. On hearing this, he (ii) ………………. out of station for a week. When I (iii) ……………… at once, he politely said that he worshipped library.
(i) (a) asked him why he hadn’t timely returned
(b) ask him that why he didn’t timely return
(c) told him that why he didn’t timely return
(d) said that why he hadn’t timely return
Answer:
(a) asked him why he hadn’t timely returned

(ii) (a) informed that he had
(b) told that he will
(c) said that he is
(d) replied that he was
Answer:
(d) replied that he was

(iii) (a) asked to return
(b) advised to return
(c) ordered to be returned
(d) said to be return
Answer:
(b) advised to return

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct options for any four of the six sentences given below. (4 × 1 = 4)
(i) Connaught Place …………………. get smog towers in ten months.
(a) will
(b) can
(c) shall
(d) might
Answer:
(c) shall

(ii) I who ……………… your friend, will assist and protect you.
(a) are
(b) is
(c) am
(d) have
Answer:
(c) am

(iii) There were ……………… than fifty students in the class.
(a) few
(b) no fewer
(c) less
(d) no less
Answer:
(b) no fewer

(iv) I ………………… appear in the Senior Secondary Examination next near.
(a) should
(b) will
(c) shall
(d) may
Answer:
(b) will

(v) Rani Lakshmi Bai is one of the best heroines that ………………… ever been born in India.
(a) has
(b) is
(c) have
(d) are
Answer:
(c) have

(vi) Draw ……………….. map of India on …………………….  black board.
(a) a, the
(b) an, a
(c) an, the
(d) the, a
Answer:
(a) a, the

Part-B – Subjective Questions (40 Marks)

Writing (10 Marks)
Question 8.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Write a letter seeking detailed enquiries from the General Manager, Holiday Inn, Kanpur for conducting the wedding reception of your younger brother at the hotel. Make specific enquiries about the catering cost per head, service and decoration charges. You can also ask for the advance amount to be paid. You are Krishna/Kamini of Kanpur.

B. You are Arjun Kapoor, resident of 43/9, Shyam Enclave, Delhi. You visited Manali with your family during the summer vacation. You had two double suites at Lake View Resort. Your stay at the hotel fell far short of the description in the brochure. Write a letter of complaint to the Customer Service Department to refund for your hotel stay.

Question 9.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. In the graph given below we get a shocking picture of deaths in the USA due to Corona Virus that showed a constant upward trend in the month of April 2020. Write an analytic paragraph describing the general trend and other details after analysing the graph.
Increase in Corona Virus Death Cases in USA from April 10 to May 2, 2020

B. The following pie chart represents the distribution of the overseas tourists and their age profile respectively. Study the chart carefully and write an analytic paragraph (120-150 words) giving the general trends and other necessary details. Don’ forget to compare the segments where relevant.

Literature (30 Marks)
Question 10.
Answer any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 2 = 8)
A. (any two) (2 × 2 = 4)
(i) Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him? Why/Why not?

(ii) What was the tiny wish that crept into Valli’s head?

(iii) What did Kisa Gotami do when her only son died? What did her neighbours think about her?

B. (any two) (2 × 2 = 4)
(i) What excuses did Mrs Pumphrey give for not following Dr Herriot’s advice? What was the effect of the ignorance?

(ii) Why did the narrator feel that Bill’s helpfulness for him was not entirely of brotherly love?

(iii) Do you think Mr Loisel had an enjoyable evening at the ball? Give reasons for you answer.

Question 11.
Answer any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 3 = 12)
A. (any two) (2 × 3 = 6)
(i) How did Mandela’s understanding of freedom change with age and experience?

(ii) How is the bravery of Belinda and her pets described in the poem? Do they really prove their courage and bravery?

(iii) There are some examples of diary or journal entries in the ‘Before You Read’ section. Compare these with what Anne writes in her diary. What language was the diary originally written in? In what way is Anne’s diary different?

B. (any two) (2 × 3 = 6)
(i) Describe the family of Ramlal, the Numberdar.

(ii) Describe the strange behaviour of Mrs. Hall’s furniture. How did the chair start moving and push Mr and Mrs Hall out of the room?

(iii) Why did Oliver Lutkins and his mother laugh at the lawyer (the narrator) when he served the summons? Why did Lutkins take him to his neighbour’s house for a cup of coffee?

Question 12.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Hesitations and fears play necessary parts in human life but we get success in any enterprise only when we overcome our doubts, hesitations and fears. Justify this statement in the light of the young seagull’s efforts to muster courage to fly in the air.

B. In spite of being so powerful and displaying rare bravery of killing and swallowing the pirate, why does the dragon Custard taunted as being a coward always asking for a nice safe cage?

Question 13.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Bholi’s real name is Sulekha. We are told this right at the beginning. But only in the last but one paragraph of the story is Bholi called Sulekha again. Why do you think she is called Sulekha at that point in the story?

B. Do you think the lawyer was gullible? How could he have avoided being taken for a ride?

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union -1707’ from the following
options.
(a) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(b) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer:
(c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.

Question 2.
Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Sevres
(b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne
(d) Treaty of Constantinople
Answer:
(d) Treaty of Constantinople

Question 3.
Which of the following was the reason for calling off ‘the Non-Cooperation Movement’ by Gandhiji?
(a) Pressure from the British Government
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest
(d) Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer:
(d) Chauri-Chaura incident

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of ………………. industry in India.
Or
Green Revolution has helped ………………. industry to expand in different parts of India.
Answer:
Information Technology
or
Fertilizer

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive Cultivation in India from the following
options:
(a) Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kumari – Jharkhand
(c) Khil – Andhra Pradesh
(d) Koman – Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Barley : Rabi crop, cotton: kharif, …………….: zaid crop
(a) Wheat
(b) Mustard
(c) Soyabean
(d) Cucumber
Answer:
(d) Cucumber

Question 7.
Identify the soil with the help of the following features.

• Red to brown in colour
• Sandy in texture and saline in nature
• Lacks humus and moisture

Answer:
Arid Soil

Question 8.
A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is
(a) Bajra
(b) Rajma
(c) Jowar
(d) Ragi
Answer:
(d) Ragi

Question 9.
Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in ………………. region of Sri Lanka.
(a) North and South
(b) North and East
(c) East and West
(d) South and East
Answer:
(b) North and East

Question 10.
Define Majoritarianism.
Or
Define Ethnicity.
Answer:
A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
Or
A social division based on shared culture/people belonging to same ethnic group believes in their common descent.

Question 11.
Which administrative authority legislates on Residuary subjects?
Or
Which administrative authority legislates on Union list?
Answer:
Union/Centre
or
Union/Centre

Question 12.
Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income.

(a) Country A
(b) Country B
(e) Country C
(d) Country D
Answer:
(a) Country A

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Mohan is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month. Mohan repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland.

Over the years his debt will –
(a) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount
(b) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(c) Reduce – as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment
(d) Be totally repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour

Or

Most of the agricultural labourers like Mohan depend upon loans from informal sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct-
(a) There are government bodies to supervise informal sector.
(b) Moneylenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest.
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high.
(d) Moneylenders use fair means to get their money back.
Answer:
(a) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount

or

(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high.

Question 14.
Which one of the following options describe ‘Collateral’?
(a) Double coincidence of wants
(b) Certain products for barter
(c) Trade in barter
(d) Asset as guarantee for loan
Answer:
(d) Asset as guarantee for loan

Question 15.
Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option.
(a) It is the only way for economic development of the country.
(b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world.
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries.
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another.
Answer:
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another.

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Section-B

Question 17.
Why did Gandhiji start Non-Cooperation Movement? Explain.
Answer:

• Against Rowlatt Act
• Jallianwala Bagh incidence
• Khilafat Andolan

Question 18.
Explain the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Or
“Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation”. Explain.
Answer:

• The ideas of La Patrie (the fatherland) and Le Citoyen (the citizen) emphasized the notion of united community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution.
• A new French flag, tricolour was chosen to replace the Royal Standard.
• Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
• New hymns were composed and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
• A centralized system of administration was introduced, uniform laws were made for all citizens.
  [Any three points]

Or

• Italians were scattered over several dynastic states.
• Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
• Italy was unified in 1861 and Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy.
• Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
• The unification of Italy was a result of many wars. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France by the Chief Minister Cavour.
• Garibaldi joined the fray.
  [To be evaluated as a whole]

Question 19.
Suggest and explain any three ways to protect land from degradation in various states of India.
Answer:

• Afforestation
• Proper management of grazing
• Planting of shelter belts of plants
• Stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes
• Control of mining activities
• Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any three points]

Question 20.
Describe any three steps taken by the government towards decentralization in the year 1992.
Or
Describe any three federal features of Indian democracy.
Answer:

• The Constitution mandate to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
• Reservation of seats in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other Backward Classes.
• Reservation of at least one third of all positions for women.
• Creation of an independent institution called the State Election Commission in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
• The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
  [Any three points]

Or

• Division of powers between the centre and states.
• There are three lists: Union List, State List, Concurrent List.
• Residuary subjects
• Control of union territories with Centre
  [Any three points]

Question 21.
Imagine yourself to be XYZ, a member of a women Self-Help Group. Analyse the ways through which your group provides loan to the members.
Answer:

• Self Help Groups pool their savings.
• A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save regularly.
• Saving per member varies from ? 25 to ? 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save.
• Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs.
• The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges.
• After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.
  [Any three points]

Question 22.
‘The issue of sustainability is important for development.’ Examine the statement.
Answer:

• Sustainable development aims at fulfilling the needs of today without compromising the needs of the future generation.
• Sustainability is the capability to use the resources judiciously and maintain the ecological balance.
• It lays emphasis on environmental protection and check environmental degradation.
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any three points]

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and stronger.

A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative ideology?
(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
Answer:
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society

Question 23.2.
Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options?
(a) To declare competition of German unification
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(c) To declare war against France
(d) To start the process of Italian unification
Answer:
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe

Question 23.3.
What did conservatives focus oh at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option.
(a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
(b) To establish socialism in Europe
(c) To introduce democracy in France
(d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria
Answer:
(a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe

Question 23.4.
How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.
(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(d) By giving power to the German confederation
Answer:
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe

Question 24.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.

Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
Manufacturing industries fall in and agriculture in
(a) Primary; Secondary Sector
(b) Secondary; Tertiary Sector
(c) Primary; Tertiary Sector
(d) Secondary; Primary Sector
Answer:
(d) Secondary; Primary Sector

Question 24.2.
Manufacturing provides job opportunities to reduce dependence on agriculture. Identify which sector the following jobs belong to:

Jobs created or promoted by manufacturing industries	Sector
a. Garment production	1. Primary
b. Research & Development	2. Tertiary
c. Banking	3. Secondary
d. Mining	4. Quaternary

Choose the correct option.
(a) a -1, b 2, c-3, d-4
(b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d -1
(c) a-2, b 3, e- 1, d-2
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Answer:
(b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d -1

Question 24.3.
Which of the following options does not help in modernising agriculture?
(a) Manufacturing farm equipment
(b) Providing unskilled labour force
(c) Supplying fertilizers and pesticides
(d) Producing tube well pumps and sprinklers
Answer:
(b) Providing unskilled labour force

Question 24.4.
In order to attract foreign manufacturing firms, a country needs to develop
(a) Agrarian facilities
(b) Cultivable lands
(c) Media facilities
(d) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(d) Infrastructure facilities

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all. Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.

Some people think that democracy produces less effective government. It is, of course, true that non-democratic rulers are very quick and efficient in decision making and implementation, whereas, democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means to examine the process of decision making.

This is known as transparency. This factor is often missing from a non-democratic government. There is another aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive, or clean. But a democratic government is people’s own government.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
People’s right to choose their own rulers is called as the –
(a) Right to Initiate
(b) Right to Plebiscite
(c) Right to Vote
(d) Right to Referendum
Answer:
(c) Right to Vote

Question 25.2.
Which of the following options helps in promoting transparency in the governance?
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to information
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to speech and expression
Answer:
(b) Right to information

Question 25.3.
…………… make/s the government legitimate.
(a) Credibility of politicians
(b) People’s movements
(c) Free and fair elections
(d) Holding of powers
Answer:
(c) Free and fair elections

Question 25.4.
Decisions in a democracy are more acceptable to the people because they are –
(a) Taken swiftly and implemented quickly
(b) Taken by giving privileges to the people
(c) Taken through elites’ votes
(d) Taken after following due processes
Answer:
(d) Taken after following due processes

Question 26.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2004, Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wanted to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Increased employment
(b) Foreign investment
(c) Foreign collaboration
(d) International competition
Answer:
(b) Foreign investment

Question 26.2.
According to the given passage, Ford Motors can be termed as a Multi-National Company
based on which of the following options?
(a) Production of different types of automobiles
(b) Largest automobile manufacturer in the world
(c) Because of large scale exports of cars across globe
(d) Industrial and commercial ventures across globe
Answer:
(d) Industrial and commercial ventures across globe

Question 26.3.
By setting up their production plants in India, Ford Motors wanted to-
(a) Collaborate with a leading Indian Automobile company
(b) Satisfy the demands of American, African and Indian markets
(c) Tap the benefits of low-cost production and a large market
(d) Take over small automobile manufacturing units in India
Answer:
(c) Tap the benefits of low-cost production and a large market

Question 26.4.
‘Ford Motors’ wish to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe is an evidence of-
(a) Promoting local industries of India
(b) Merging trade from different countries
(c) Supplying jobs to factory workers in India
(d) Interlinking of production across countries
Answer:
(d) Interlinking of production across countries

Section-D

Question 27.
How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging in the nineteenth century India? Explain.
Or
Explain the meaning and notion of ‘Swaraj ’ as perceived by the plantation workers. How did they respond to the call of ‘the Non-Cooperation movement’?
Answer:

• The identity of the nation is most often symbolised with the image of Bharat Mata.
• Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland.
• Novel Anandamath.
• Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata and portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual.
• Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore.
• Icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.
• During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed.
• Reinterpretation of history that to instill a sense of pride in the nation.
  [Any five points]

or
1. For plantation workers in Assam, Swaraj meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

2.

• Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to
  leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact they were rarely given such permission.
• When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations, and headed home.
• They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming, and everyone would be given land in their own villages.
• They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and
  steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.

Question 28.
Describe the role of mass communication in India.
Or
Describe the benefits of Roadways.
Answer:

• Mass communication provides entertainment.
• Creates awareness among people about various national programmes and policies. It includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films.
• All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages.
• Doordarshan broadcasts programmes of entertainment, educational, sports, etc. for people of different age groups.
• India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually.
• Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects to create awareness among people in different parts of the country.
• India produces short films, video feature films and video short films.
• Mass media creates awareness among people on various socio-economic and political issues.
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any five points]

or

• Roads need less capital than the railways.
• Road transport provides door-to-door service,
• The road transport provides flexible service to men and materials.
• Road transport is useful in small distances.
• Road transport is helpful in production of perishable goods as it facilitates the distribution of perishable goods from point of production to point of consumption.
• Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any five points]

Question 29.
Suggest and explain any five ways to reform political parties in India.
Answer:

• A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
• It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members.
• It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets; about l/3rd to its women candidates.
• There should be a quota for women in the decision-making bodies of the party.
• There should be state funding of elections.
• Vote casting should be made compulsory in each election.
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any five points]

Question 30.
‘Power sharing is the essence of a democratic government.’ Examine the statement.
Answer:

• Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive
  and judiciary also called as Horizontal power sharing. Example – India
• Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for
  the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Example – India
  (Union Government and State Government)
• Community government – Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. Example – Belgium
• Power-sharing between political parties, pressure groups and movements – Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
• In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.

Question 31.
‘Tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the development of Indian Economy’. Justify the statement.
Or
‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:

• Basic services:
  Services such as hospitals, educational institutions, postal services, transport, banks, insurance companies, are in this group.
• Development of primary and secondary sector:
  The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport, trade and storage.
• Rise in income levels:
  As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools *’ and professional training centres.
• Rise in information technology: Over the past decade or so, certain new services, such as those based on information and communication technology have become important and essential.
• Globalization: Due to globalization, people have become aware of new services and ‘ activities, and communication because of which the tertiary sector has gained importance.

or

• It promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
• It creates employment opportunities.
• It generates financial resources for development.
• It ensures equality of income, wealth and thus, a balanced regional development.
• It encourages development of small, medium and cottage industries.
• It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
• Contributes to community development, Human Development Index i.e. health and educational services.
• Any other relevant point.
  [Any five points]

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1927
(B) Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
(b) Namrup Thermal Plant
(c) Bengaluru Software Technology Park
(d) Vishakhapatnam Port
(e) Naraura Nuclear Power Plant

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course A Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 5 for Practice

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न ( अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
यह घटना सन 1899 की है। उन दिनों कोलकाता में प्लेग फैला हुआ था। शायद ही कोई ऐसा घर बचा था, जहाँ यह बीमारी न पहुँची हो। ऐसी विकट स्थिति में भी स्वामी विवेकानंद और उनके शिष्य रोगियों की सेवा-सुश्रूषा में जुटे हुए थे। वे अपने हाथों से नगर की गलियाँ और बाज़ार साफ़ करते थे और जिस घर में प्लेग का कोई मरीज होता था, उसे दवा आदि देकर उसका उपचार करते थे। उसी दौरान कुछ लोग स्वामी विवेकानंद के पास आए। उनका मुखिया बोला,

“स्वामी जी, इस धरती पर पाप बहुत बढ़ गया है, इसीलिए प्लेग की महामारी के रूप में भगवान लोगों को दंड दे रहे हैं, पर आप ऐसे लोगों को बचाने का यत्न कर रहे हैं। ऐसा करके आप भगवान के कार्यों में बाधा डाल रहे हैं।” मंडली के मुखिया की कील जैसी बातें सुनकर स्वामी जी गंभीरता से बोले, “सबसे पहले तो मैं आप सब विद्वानों का नमस्कार करता हूँ।” इसके बाद स्वामी जी बोले, “आप सब यह तो जानते ही होंगे कि मनुष्य इस जीवन में अपने कर्मों के कारण कष्ट और सुख पाता है।

ऐसा जो व्यक्ति कष्ट से पीड़ित है और तड़प रहा है, यदि दूसरा व्यक्ति उसके घावों पर मरहम लगा देता है तो वह स्वयं ही पुण्य का अधिकारी बन जाता है। आज यदि आपके अनुसार प्लेग से पीड़ित लोग पाप के भागी हैं और हमारे कार्यकर्ता इन लोगों की मदद कर रहे हैं, वे तो पुण्य के भागी बन रहे हैं। बताइए कि इस संदर्भ में आपको क्या कहना है?” उनकी बात सुनकर सभी लोग भौंचक्के रह गए और चुपचाप सिर झुकाकर वहाँ से चले गए।

(i) कोलकाता में कौन-सी महामारी फैली थी?
(क) चेचक
(ख) प्लेग
(ग) हैजा
(घ) स्वाइन फ्लू
उत्तर
(ख) प्लेग

(ii) महामारी के विषय में कुछ लोगों की धारणा थी कि
(क) यह ईश्वर का कहर है
(ख) इस पर नियंत्रण असंभव है
(ग) दवाओं द्वारा इसकी रोकथाम संभव है
(घ) लोगों को उनके पाप का दंड मिल रहा है
उत्तर
(घ) लोगों को उनके पाप का दंड मिल रहा है

(iii) कुछ लोगों की दृष्टि में विवेकानंद जी द्वारा पीड़ितों की सेवा करना था
(क) लोक कल्याण में बाधा
(ख) लोक कल्याण में सहायता
(ग) ईश्वर के कार्य में बाधा
(घ) ईश्वर के कार्य में सहायता
उत्तर
(ग) ईश्वर के कार्य में बाधा

(iv) स्वामी विवेकानंद जी के अनुसार उनके तथा कार्यकर्ताओं द्वारा किया जा रहा कार्य था
(क) मानवोचित कर्म
(ख) पाप कर्म
(ग) समाज सेवा
(घ) पुण्य का कार्य
उत्तर
(घ) पुण्य का कार्य

(v) उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक हो सकता है
(क) दंड
(ख) महामारी
(ग) कर्मों का फल
(घ) पाप और पुण्य
उत्तर
(घ) पाप और पुण्य

अथवा

महाभारत में देश के प्रायः अधिकांश वीर कौरवों के पक्ष में थे। मगर फिर भी जीत पांडवों की हुई, क्योंकि उन्होंने लाक्षा-गृह की मुसीबत झेली थी, वनवास के जोखिम को पार किया था। साहस की ज़िंदगी सबसे बड़ी जिंदगी होती है। ऐसी जिंदगी की सबसे बड़ी पहचान यह है कि यह बिलकुल निडर, बिल्कुल बेखौफ़ होती है। साहसी मनुष्य की पहली पहचान यह है कि वह इस बात की चिंता नहीं करता कि तमाशा देखने वाले लोग उसके बारे में क्या सोच रहे हैं।

जनमत की उपेक्षा करके जीने वाला आदमी दुनिया की असली ताकत होता है और मनुष्यता को प्रकाश भी उसी आदमी से मिलता है। अड़ोस-पड़ोस को देखकर चलना साधारण जीव का काम है। क्रांति करने वाले लोग अपने उद्देश्य की तुलना न तो पड़ोसी के उद्देश्य से करते हैं और न अपनी चाल को ही पड़ोसी की चाल देखकर मद्धिम बनाते हैं, बल्कि निडर होकर अपने लक्ष्य को पूरा करते हैं।

(i) इस गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक होगा
(क) संकट और विकास
(ख) साहस की आवश्यकता
(ग) हिम्मत और जिंदगी
(घ) स्वाभिमानी जीवन
उत्तर
(ग) हिम्मत और जिंदगी

(ii) पांडवों की जीत के पीछे क्या कारण बताया गया है?
(क) सत्य की शक्ति
(ख) कृष्ण का साथ
(ग) भाग्य का साथ ।
(घ) संकटों का मुकाबला
उत्तर
(घ) संकटों का मुकाबला

(iii) ‘साहस की जिंदगी सबसे बड़ी जिंदगी होती है।’ यह किस प्रकार का वाक्य है?
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) संयुक्त वाक्य
(ग) मिश्र वाक्य
(घ) नकारात्मक वाक्य
उत्तर
(क) सरल वाक्य

(iv) साहसी मनुष्य की पहचान क्या है?
(क) वह आस-पड़ोस को देखकर चलता है
(ख) वह मनमानी करता है
(ग) वह जनमत की उपेक्षा करता है
(घ) वह लोगों की निंदा की परवाह नहीं करता
उत्तर
(घ) वह लोगों की निंदा की परवाह नहीं करता

(v) क्रांतिकारी लोग
(क) निडर होकर मनमानी करते हैं
(ख) निडर होकर अपने लक्ष्य को पूरा करते हैं
(ग) आस-पड़ोस की चिंता करते हैं
(घ) कुछ नहीं करते हैं
उत्तर
(ख) निडर होकर अपने लक्ष्य को पूरा करते हैं

अपठित पद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)

भोर हुई पेड़ों की बीन बोलने लगी,
पात-पात हिले डाल-डाल डोलने लगी।
कहीं दूर किरणों के तार झनझना उठे,
सपनों के स्वर डूबे धरती के गान में।
लाखों ही लाख दीए तारों के खो गए,
पूरब के अधरों की हल्की मुस्कान में।
कुछ ऐसे पूरब के गाँव की हवा चली,
खपरैलों की दुनिया आँख खोलने लगी।
जमे हुए धुएँ-सी पहाड़ी है दूर की,
काजल की रेख-सी कतार है खजूर की।

सोने का कलश लिए उषा चली आ रही है,
माथे पर दमक रही आभा सिंदूर की।
धरती को परियों के सपनीले प्यार में,
नई चेतना नई उमंग बोलने लगी।
कुछ ऐसे मोर की बयार गुनगुना उठी,
अलसाए कुहरे की बाँह सिमटने लगी।
नरम-नरम किरणों की नई धूप में,
राहों के पेड़ों की छाँह लिपटने लगी।
लहराई माटी की धुली-धुली चेतना,
फसलों पर चुहचुहिया पाँख बोलने लगी।

(i) कवि ने किस समय का चित्रण किया है?
(क) प्रात:काल
(ख) संध्या
(ग) दोपहर
(घ) रात्रि
उत्तर
(क) प्रात:काल

(ii) दीए किसके हैं?
(क) जुगनुओं के
(ख) माटी के
(ग) तारों के
(घ) पीतल के
उत्तर
(ख) माटी के

(iii) दूर की पहाड़ी कैसी दिखाई दे रही है?
(क) अस्पष्ट
(ख) जमे हुए दही-सी
(ग) धुंधली
(घ) जमे हुए धुंए-सी
उत्तर
(घ) जमे हुए धुंए-सी

(iv) सोने का कलश क्या है?
(क) सूर्य
(ख) तारे
(ग) चंद्रमा
(घ) बादल
उत्तर
(क) सूर्य

(v) भोर की बयार के गुनगुनाने का परिणाम क्या हुआ?
(क) चुहचुहिया पाँख खोलने लगी
(ख) राहों के पेड़ों की चाह लिपटने लगी
(ग) अलसाए कुहरे की बाँह सिमटने लगी
(घ) माटी में चेतना आ गई
उत्तर
(ग) अलसाए कुहरे की बाँह सिमटने लगी

अथवा

हे प्रभु, निधि विनम्रता की तुम
वासी हो तुम दीन कुटी के
गंगा, यमुना, ब्रह्मपुत्र से
सिंचित इस सुंदर भारत में
खोज सकें हम तुमको |
इसमें हमें मदद दो
ग्रहणशीलता दो हमको, दो खुला हृदय
दो कृपया अपनी विनम्रता
शक्ति दो हमको दो तत्परता
ताकि देश की जनता से

हम हो पाएँ एकाकार
वर दो प्रभु
हम अलग न पड़ जाएँ उस ‘जन’ से
जिसकी सेवा करनी हमको
सहचर बनकर सेवक बनकर
त्याग, भक्ति और विनम्रता का
हमें बना दो पुतला प्रभुवर
जिससे हम अपने भारत को
ज़्यादा समझें, ज़्यादा चाहें।

(i) प्रभु क्या है?
(क) सर्वव्यापी
(ख) विनम्रता की निधि
(ग) सर्वसुलभ
(घ) करुणा-सागर
उत्तर
(ख) विनम्रता की निधि

(ii) कवि किसमें प्रभु की मदद चाहता है?
(क) नदियों के जल से सिंचित सुंदर भारत में उन्हें खोज सके
(ख) दीन-दुखियों की कुटी में उन्हें पा सके
(ग) कण-कण में छुपे प्रभु के दर्शन हेतु
(घ) करुणामय की दया हेतु
उत्तर
(ख) दीन-दुखियों की कुटी में उन्हें पा सके

(iii) वह प्रभु से क्या माँगता है?
(क) ग्रहणशीलता और खुला हृदय
(ख) उसकी विनम्रता
(ग) शक्ति और तत्परता
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

(iv) वह प्रभु से किसका पुतला बनने की कामना करता है?
(क) सहचर
(ख) सेवक
(ग) त्याग, भक्ति और विनम्रता
(घ) सामान्य का प्रतिरूप
उत्तर
(ग) त्याग, भक्ति और विनम्रता

(v) वह यह सब क्यों माँग रहा है?
(क) अपने लिए
(ख) देश को ज़्यादा समझने और चाहने के लिए
(ग) सबके लिए
(घ) भारत के लिए व्यावहारिक
उत्तर
(ख) देश को ज़्यादा समझने और चाहने के लिए

व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिएि। (1 x 4 = 4)

(i) जब बारिश हुई तब किसान झूमने लगा। वाक्य है
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य

(ii) हम चाहते हैं कि हिंसा बंद हो जाए। रेखांकित उपवाक्य है
(क) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ख) सर्वनाम उपवाक्य
(ग) क्रिया उपवाक्य
(घ) विशेषण उपवाक्य
उत्तर
(क) संज्ञा उपवाक्य

(iii) सरल वाक्य है
(क) वह कामचोर था, इसलिए विफल हुआ।
(ख) वह आया, परंतु कुछ नहीं बोला।
(ग) हम लोग तैरने के लिए नदी पर गए थे।
(घ) ऐसा काम करो, जिसमें फायदा हो।
उत्तर
(ग) हम लोग तैरने के लिए नदी पर गए थे।

(iv) संयुक्त वाक्य है
(क) मुझे नहीं पता कि वे कब आएँगे।
(ख) परीक्षा कठिन है, इसलिए परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण नहीं हुआ।
(ग) बच्चे शोर मचा रहा हैं।
(घ) जो जागत है, सो पावत है।
उत्तर
(क) मुझे नहीं पता कि वे कब आएँगे।

(v) ‘मैं लिख रहा हूँ जो ब्रह्म सत्य है।’ वाक्य में प्रधान उपवाक्य है
(क) ब्रह्य सत्य है
(ख) जो ब्रह्म सत्य है
(ग) मैं लिख रहा हूँ
(घ) लिख रहा हूँ
उत्तर
(क) ब्रह्य सत्य है

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिएि। (1 x 4 =4)

(i) ‘मुझसे पत्र नहीं लिखा गया।’ वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य है
(क) मैंने पत्र नहीं लिखा।
(ख) मैंने पत्र नहीं लिखा था।
(ग) मैं पत्र नहीं लिखता।
(घ) मैं पत्र नहीं लिख सकता।
उत्तर
(क) मैंने पत्र नहीं लिखा।

(ii) कर्मवाच्य है
(क) लड़के आँगन में सो रहे हैं।
(ख) अब चला जाए।
(ग) हम रोज़ नहाते हैं।
(घ) उससे दिन में फल खाए जाते हैं।
उत्तर
(घ) उससे दिन में फल खाए जाते हैं।

(iii) वाल्मीकि द्वारा रामायण लिखी गई। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाच्य
(ख) कर्मवाच्य
(ग) भाववाच्य
(घ) कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) कर्मवाच्य

(iv) भाववाच्य है
(क) पक्षी आकाश में उड़ते हैं।
(ख) बच्चा खूब रोया।
(ग) मुझसे बैठा नहीं जाता।
(घ) सिपाही द्वारा चोर पकड़ा गया।
उत्तर
(ग) मुझसे बैठा नहीं जाता।

(v) अशोक ने विश्व को शांति का संदेश दिया। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाच्य
(ख) कर्मवाच्य
(ग) भाववाच्य
(घ) कोई नही
उत्तर
(घ) कोई नही

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिएि। (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) माँ आपकी रक्षा करती है। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
(ग) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक
(घ) भाववाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
उत्तर
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक

(ii) मैं खुद पढ़ लूँगी। ‘खुद’ का पद-परिचय है–
(क) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग
(ख) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘पढ़ लूँगी’ क्रिया की विशेषता
(ग) निजवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग
(घ) उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग
उत्तर
(ग) निजवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग

(iii) मनुष्य का चरित्र उसका उत्तम गुण होता है। वाक्य में ‘उत्तम’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिग, ‘गुण’ विशेष्य
(ख) संख्यावाचक विशेषण, बहुवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, ‘गुण’ विशेष्य
(ग) गुणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिग, ‘गुण’ विशेष्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिग, ‘गुण’ विशेष्य

(iv) हम सभी भारतीयों का अभिवादन करते हैं। ‘भारतीयों’ का पद-परिचय होगा
(क) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंध कारक
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंध कारक
(ग) गुणावाचक विशेषण, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, ‘सभी’ विशेष्य
(घ) गुणावाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, ‘हम’ विशेष्य
उत्तर
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंध कारक

(v) वह लड़का घर जाता है । ‘वह’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
(ख) संकेतवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
(ग) संकेतवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, लड़का विशेष्य
(घ) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
उत्तर
(घ) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिएि। (1 x 4 = 4)

(i) ऐ मेरे वतन के लोगों ज़रा आँख में भर लो पानी। जो शहीद हुए हैं उनकी ज़रा यार करो कुर्बानी। इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा रस है?
(क) वीर रस
(ख) रौद्र रस
(ग) अद्भुत रस
(घ) करुण रस
उत्तर
(क) वीर रस

(ii) “ऊधो, मोहिं ब्रज बिसरत नाहीं। हंससुता की सुंदर कगरी और द्रुमन की छाँहीं।।” इन पंक्तियों में किस रस का स्थायी भाव है?
(क) विस्मय
(ख) रति
(ग) शोक
(घ) क्रोध
उत्तर
(ख) रति

(iii) किलक अरे मैं नेह निहारूँ। इन दाँतों पर मोती वारूँ।। इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा रस है?
(क) उत्साह
(ख) भक्ति
(ग) रति
(घ) वात्सल्य
उत्तर
(घ) वात्सल्य

(iv) उत्साह किस रस का स्थायी भाव है?
(क) वीभत्स
(ख) भयानक
(ग) रौद्र
(घ) वीर
उत्तर
(घ) वीर

(v) हास्य रस का उदाहरण है
(क) बसों मेरे नैनन में नंदलाल, मोर मुकुट मकराकृत कुंडल, अरुण तिलक दिए भाल।
(ख) सीस पर गंगा हँसे, भुजनि भुजंगा हँसे, हास ही को दंगा भयो नंगा के विवाह में।
(ग) दुख ही जीवन की कथा रही, क्या कहूँ आज जो नहीं कही।
(घ) लंका की सेना कपि के गर्जन रव से काँप गई, हनुमान के भीषण दर्शन से विनाश ही भाँप गई।
उत्तर
(ख) सीस पर गंगा हँसे, भुजनि भुजंगा हँसे, हास ही को दंगा भयो नंगा के विवाह में।

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
ठाली बैठे, कल्पना करते रहने की पुरानी आदत है। नवाब साहब की असुविधा और संकोच के कारण का अनुमान करने लगे। संभव है, नवाब साहब ने बिलकुल अकेले यात्रा कर सकने के अनुमान में किफ़ायत के विचार से सेकंड क्लास का टिकट खरीद लिया हो और अब गवारा न हो कि शहर का कोई सफेदपोश उन्हें मँझले दर्जे में सफर करता देखे।… अकेले सफर का वक्त काटने के लिए ही खीरे खरीदे होंगे और अब किसी सफेदपोश के सामने खीरा कैसे खाएँ? हम कनखियों से नवाब साहब की ओर देख रहे थे। नवाब साहब कुछ देर गाड़ी की खिड़की से बाहर देखकर स्थिति पर गौर करते रहे।

(i) लेखक की पुरानी आदत क्या थी?
(क) गीत गाते रहना
(ख) दूसरों से बातें करना
(ग) कल्पना करते रहना
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) कल्पना करते रहना

(ii) लेखक किसकी असुविधा और संकोच के कारण का अनुमान करने लगे?
(क) अपनी पत्नी की
(ख) स्वयं की
(ग) नवाब साहब की
(घ) अपने मित्रों की
उत्तर
(ग) नवाब साहब की

(iii) लेखक ने क्या-क्या अनुमान लगाया?
(क) नवाब साहब एकांत में यात्रा करना चाहते होंगे
(ख) बचत करना चाहते होंगे
(ग) अकेलेपन को दूर करने के लिए खीरे खरीदे होंगे
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

(iv) नवाब साहब खीरे क्यों नहीं खा रहे थे?
(क) संकोचवश
(ख) उन्हें खीरे अच्छे नहीं लगते
(ग) ट्रेन में खाना मना है
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) संकोचवश

(v) डिब्बे में चढ़ते समय लेखक का क्या अनुमान था?
(क) डिब्बे में भीड़ होगी
(ख) डिब्बा खाली होगा
(ग) डिब्बे में चढ़ना मुश्किल होगा
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(ख) डिब्बा खाली होगा

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 2 = 2)
(i) नेताजी का चश्मा कहानी में सुभाषचंद्र बोस जी की मूर्ति किससे बनी थी?
(क) लोहा
(ख) संगमरमर
(ग) कंक्रीट
(घ) मिट्टी
उत्तर
(ख) संगमरमर

(ii) भगत जी की बहू उन्हें छोड़कर क्यों नहीं जाना चाहती थी?
(क) सामाजिक मर्यादा के कारण
(ख) संपत्ति के लोभ में
(ग) पति से प्यार होने के कारण
(घ) ससुर की चिंता के कारण
उत्तर
(घ) ससुर की चिंता के कारण

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
मन की मन ही माँझ रही।
कहिए जाइ कौन पै ऊधौ, नाहीं परत कही।
अवधि अधार आस आवन की, तन मन बिथा सही।
अब इन जोग सँदेसनि सुनि-सुनि, बिरहिनि बिरह दही।
चाहति हुती गुहारि जितहिं तैं, उत तैं धार बही।
‘सूरदास’ अब धीर धरहिं क्यौं, मरजादा न लही।
उत्तर
(i) गोपियाँ अपनी मन की व्यथा को क्यों नहीं कह पा रही हैं?
(क) गोपियाँ श्रीकृष्ण के प्रेम-विरह में इतनी व्याकुल हैं कि अपने मन की बात भी करना नहीं चाहती हैं।
(ख) गोपिकाओं को अब तक ऐसा कोई नहीं मिला, जिससे वे अपने मन की व्यथा कह सकें।
(ग) श्रीकृष्ण के वियोग में गोपिकाएँ तन-मन से बहुत व्यथित हैं।
(घ) दिए गए विकल्पों के सभी उत्तर गलत हैं।
उत्तर
(घ) दिए गए विकल्पों के सभी उत्तर गलत हैं।

(ii) गोपियों का धैर्य क्यों टूटने लगा?
(क) उन्हें विश्वास था कि श्रीकृष्ण उनसे मिलने ज़रूर आएँगे, लेकिन श्रीकृष्ण नहीं आए।
(ख) श्रीकृष्ण ने उद्धव को योग-साधना सिखाने के लिए गोपियों के पास भेजा।
(ग) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।
(घ) दोनों विकल्प गलत हैं।
उत्तर
(ग) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।

(iii) गोपियों के पास उद्धव किसका संदेश लेकर आए थे?
(क) मथुरा के राजा कंस का
(ख) गोकुल के सरपंच का
(ग) श्रीकृष्ण जी का
(घ) दिए गए विकल्पों का सभी उत्तर गलत है।
उत्तर
(ग) श्रीकृष्ण जी का

(iv) किस मर्यादा के उल्लंघन की बात गोपियाँ उद्धव से कह रही हैं?
(क) कृष्ण के द्वारा प्रेम की मर्यादा का
(ख) उद्धव के उपदेश देने की मर्यादा के बारे में
(ग) गोपियों के प्रेम की मर्यादा के बारे में
(घ) दिए गए विकल्पों के सभी उत्तर सही हैं।
उत्तर
(क) कृष्ण के द्वारा प्रेम की मर्यादा का

(v) ‘बिरहिनि’ का अर्थ है
(क) वियोग में जीने वाली महिला
(ख) गायिका
(ग) एक तरह का गीत
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(क) वियोग में जीने वाली महिला

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 2 = 2)
(i) सहस्रबाहु की भुजाओं को किसने काट डाला था?
(क) लक्ष्मण ने
(ख) परशुराम ने
(ग) विष्णु ने
(घ) शिव ने
उत्तर
(ख) परशुराम ने

(ii) लड़की होना पर लड़की जैसा मत दिखना’ का क्या आशय है?
(क) आवश्यकता अनुरूप कठोर और कोमल
(ख) कठोर दिखना
(ग) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं
(घ) कोमल दिखना
उत्तर
(घ) कोमल दिखना

का खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 4 = 8)

(क) बालगोबिन भगत की मृत्यु उन्हीं के अनुरूप हुई?
(ख) लेखक को नवाब साहब का मौन रहना भी अखर रहा था और बातें करना भी कचोटने लगा। क्यों?
(ग) ‘फ़ादर को याद करना एक उदास शांत संगीत को सुनने जैसा है,’ ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
(घ) सेनानी न होते हुए भी चश्मे वाले को लोग कैप्टन क्यों कहते थे?

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 3 = 6)
(क) ‘कन्यादान’ कविता में माँ ने बेटी को ऐसा क्यों कहा, ‘लड़की होना, पर लड़की जैसी दिखाई मत देना’?
(ख) ‘अट नहीं रही’ कविता में कवि की आँख फागुन की सुंदरता से क्यों नहीं हट रही है?
(ग) ‘गाधिसुनू’ किसे कहा गया है? वे मुनि की किस बात पर मन ही मन मुस्कुरा रहे थे?

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए। (3 x 2 = 6)
(क) और देखते ही देखते नई दिल्ली का कायापलट होने लगा?’ नई दिल्ली के कायापलट के लिए क्या-क्या प्रयत्न किए गए होंगे?
(ख) ‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’…. पाठ में गंतोक को मेहनतकश बादशाहों का शहर क्यों कहा गया है?
(ग) गुरुजी की फटकार से रोता हुआ बालक भोलानाथ यकायक चुप कैसे हो गया?

लेखन (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (5 x 1 =5)
(क) महानगरीय जीवनः वरदान या अभिशाप
संकेत-बिंदु-

• शहरों की ओर बढ़ते कदम
• दिवास्वप्न
• वरदान रूप
• महानगरीय जीवन-एक अभिशाप।

(ख) बदलती दुनिया में पीछे छूटते जीवन-मूल्य
संकेत-बिंदु-

• संसार परिवर्तनशील
• बदलाव का प्रभाव
• खोते नैतिक मूल्य।

(ग) सत्संगति का प्रभाव
संकेत-बिंदु-

• सत्संगति का अर्थ
• सत्संगति से लाभ
• विद्यार्थी में सत्संगति का महत्व।

प्रश्न 15.
आपका मित्र बोर्ड की परीक्षा में प्रथम घोषित किया गया है। इस अवसर पर उसे लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में बधाई पत्र लिखिए। (5 x 1 =5)
अथवा
चेक बुक खो जाने की सूचना देते हुए अपने बैंक के प्रबंधक को 80-100 शब्दों में पत्र लिखिए।(5 x 1 =5)

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय के वार्षिकोत्सव के अवसर पर विद्यार्थियों द्वारा निर्मित हस्तकला की वस्तुओं की प्रदर्शनी के प्रचार हेतु लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन लिखिए। (5 x 1 =5)
अथवा
‘हरियाली’ पौधशाला के पौधों की बिक्री बढ़ाने हेतु 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।

प्रश्न 17.
प्रधानाचार्य की और से विद्यालय की वार्षिक पत्रिका हेतु विद्यार्थियों को लेख आदि भेजने का संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (5 x 1 =5)
अथवा
मित्र को विद्यालय की रजत जयंती हेतु शुभकामना संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए।

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard with Solutions and marking scheme Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 4 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Find the distance between the lines 2x + 4 = 0 and x – 5 = 0.
OR
Find the distance of P (3, -2) from the y-axis.
Solution:
7 units OR 3 units

Question 2.
Find the value of k for which the given system has unique solution. 2x + 3y – 5 = 0, kx – 6y – 8 = 0
Solution:
k ≠ – 4

Question 3.
If cosec \(\theta=\frac{5}{3} \), then find the value of cos θ + tan θ.
Solution:
\(\frac{31}{20}\)

Question 4.
The given figure is a sector of circle of radius 10.5 cm. Find the perimeter of the sector.  [Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\) ]

Solution:
32 cm

Question 5.
If in an equilateral triangle, the length of the median is √3 cm, then find the length of the side of equilateral triangle.
OR
In an equilateral triangle of side 3 √3 cm, find the length of the altitude.
Solution:
2 cm OR 4.5 cm

Question 6.
Find the nature of roots of ax² + bx + c = 0, a > 0, b = 0, c > 0.
Solution:
no real roots

Question 7.
Is x = – 3 a solution of x² + 6x + 9 = 0?
OR
What will be the nature of roots of quadratic equation 2x² + 4x -7 = 0?
Solution:
Yes OR Real and unequal

Question 8.
In the given figure, ABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC.

Solution:
10cm

Question 9.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, PA and PB are tangents to the circle. Find the measure of ∠AQB.

OR
In the given figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, find ∠PRQ.

Solution:
70° OR 120°

Question 10.
ΔABC is isosceles in which ∠C = 90°. If AC = 6 cm, then find AB².
Solution:
72 cm²

Question 11.
To divide line segment AB in the ratio m : n, a ray AX is drawn so that ∠B AX is an acute angle and then points are marked on ray AX at equal distance. Find the minimum number of these points.
Solution:
m + n

Question 12.
If a, p are the zeroes of the polynomial 2y² + 1y + 5, write the value of a + p 4- a,p.
Solution:
-1

Question 13.
Form a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are (-3) and 2 respectively.
Solution:
x² + 3x + 2

Question 14.
For which values of k will the pair of equations kx + 3y = k – 3 and 12x + ky = k have no solution?
Solution:
k = – 6

Question 15.
Find the number of spherical lead shots each 4.2 cm in diameter can be obtained from a rectangular solid lead with dimensions 66 cm, 42 cm and 21 cm.
Solution:
1500

Question 16.
Find the probability of
(a) an impossible event.
(b) a sure event.
OR
Find the probability that a number selected at random from the number 1, 2, 3, …, 35 is a multiple of 7.
Solution:
(a) 0
(b) 1
OR
\(\frac{1}{7}\)

Section-ll

Case Study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any four sub-parts of each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

Case Study Based-1

Question 17.
Traffic Lights

Traffic Lights (or traffic signals) are lights used to control movement of traffics. They are placed on roads at intersections and crossings. The different colours of light tell drivers what to do. The traffic lights at different road crossings change after every 48 sec, 72 sec and 108 sec respectively.

(a) 108 can be expressed as a product of its primes as ……….
(i) 2³ x 3²
(ii) 2³ x 3³
(iii) 2² x 3²
(iv) 2² x 3³
Solution:
(iv) 2² x 3³

(b) The HCF of 48, 72, 108 is ………..
(i) 18
(ii) 16
(iii) 12
(iv) 10
Solution:
(iii) 12

(c) The LCM of 48, 72, 108 is ……….
(i) 520
(ii) 432
(iii) 396
(iv) 420
Solution:
(ii) 432

(d) If all the traffic lights change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hrs, they will again change simultaneously at
(i) 8 : 27 : 12 hrs
(ii) 8 : 32 : 24 hrs
(iii) 8 : 40 : 08 hrs
(iv) 8 : 24 : 24 hrs
Solution:
(i) 8 : 27 : 12 hrs

(e) The [HCF x LCM] for the numbers 48, 72, 108 is ……..
(i) 2472
(ii) 3680
(iii) 4090
(iv) 5184
Solution:
(iv) 5184

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.
Pollution —A Major Problem
One of the major serious problems that the world is facing today is the environmental pollution. Common types of pollution include light, noise, water and air pollution.

In a school, students thoughts of planting trees in and around the school to reduce noise pollution and air pollution.

Condition I: It was decided that the number of trees that each section of each class will plant be the same as the class in which they are studying, e.g. a section of class I will plant 1 tree a section of class II will plant 2 trees and so on a section of class XII will plant 12 trees. Condition II: It was decided that the number of trees that each section of each class will plant be the double of the class in which they are studying, e.g. a section of class I will plant 2 trees, a section of class II will plant 4 trees and so on a section of class XII will plant 24 trees.

Refer to Condition I

(a) The AP formed by sequence e. number of plants by students is ………
(i) 0, 1, 2, 3, …, 12
(ii) 1, 2, 3, 4, …, 12
(iii) 0, 1, 2, 3, …, 15
(iv) 1,2, 3, 4, …, 15
Solution:
(ii) 1, 2, 3, 4, …, 12

(b) If there are two sections of each class, how many trees will be planted by the students?
(i) 126
(ii) 152
(iii) 156
(iv) 184
Solution:
(iii) 156

(c) If there are three sections of each class, how many trees will be planted by the students?
(i) 234
(ii) 260
(iii) 310
(iv)   326
Solution:
(i) 234

Refer to Condition II

(d) If there are two sections of each class, how many trees will be planted by the students?
(i) 422
(ii) 312
(iii) 360
(iv) 540
Solution:
(ii) 312

(e) If there are three sections of each class, how many trees will be planted by the students?
(i) 468
(ii) 590
(iii) 710
(iv)  620
Solution:
(i) 468

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
Student-Teacher Ratio

Student-teacher ratio expresses the relationship between the number of students enrolled in a school and the number of teachers in that school. It is important for a number of reasons. For example, it can be an indicator of the amount of individual attention any child is likely to receive, keeping in mind that not all class size are going to be the same.

The following distribution gives the state-wise student-teacher ratio in higher secondary schools of India (28 states and 7 UTs only).

Number of students per teacher	Number of States/ UTs	Number of students per teacher	Number of States/ UTs
15-20	3	35-40	3
20-25	8	40-45	0
25-30	9	45-50	0
30-35	10	50-55	2

(a) The mode of the above data is ………
(i) 25.5
(ii) 30.6
(iii) 35.2
(iv) 38.3
Solution:
(ii) 30.6

(b) The mean of the above data is ………….
(i) 29.2
(ii) 30.5
(iii) 38.3
(iv) 40.1
Solution:
(i) 29.2

(c) The modal class is ………..
(i) 20-25
(ii) 40 – 45
(iii) 30 -35
(iv) 50.55
Solution:
(iii) 30 -35

(d) The sum of class marks of 25-30 and 45-50 is
(i) 62
(ii)  70
(iii)  75
(iv) 85
Solution:
(iii)  75

(e) The sum of the upper and lower limits of modal class is
(i) 55
(ii) 65
(iii) 85
(iv) 75
Solution:
(ii) 65

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
Skysails’ is that genre of engineering science that uses extensive utilization of wind energy to move a vessel in the sea water. The ‘Skysails’ technology allows the towing kite to gain a height of anything between 100 metres to 300 metres. The sailing kite is made in such a way that it can be raised to its proper elevation and then brought back with the help of a ‘telescopic mast’ that enables the kite to be raised properly and effectively.

(a) In the given figures, if sin 8 = cos (30 – 30°), where 0 and 30 – 30° are acute angles, then the value of 9 is ……
(i) 30°
(ii) 60°
(iii) 45°
(iv) None of these.
Solution:
(i) 30°

(b) What should be the length of the rope of the kite sail in order to pull the ship at the angle θ (calculated in part (a) and be at a vertical height of 200 m?
(i) 300 m
(ii) 400 m
(iii) 500 m
(iv) 600 m
Solution:
(ii) 400 m

(c) If BC = 15 m, θ = 30°, then AB is ………..
(i) \(2 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~m}\)
(ii) 15 m
(iii) 24 m
(iv)\(5 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~m}\)
Solution:
(iv)\(5 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~m}\)

(d) Suppose AB = BC = 12 m, then 0 = ………
(i) 0°
(ii) 30°
(iii) 45°
(iv) 60°
Solution:
(iii) 45°

(e) Given that BC = 6 m and 0 = 45°. The values of AB and AC are respectively………..
(i) AB = 4 m, AC = \(4 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m}\)
(ii)  AB = 7 m, AC =\(7 \sqrt{5} \mathrm{~m}\)
(iii) AB = 9 m, AC = \(9 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~m}\)
(iv) AB = 6 m, AC =\(6 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m}\)
Solution:
(iv) AB = 6 m, AC =\(6 \sqrt{2} \mathrm{~m}\)

Part-B
Section-III

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.

Question 21.
Is 7 ^x 11 ^x 13 + 11 a composite number? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Yes

Question 22.
Check whether (1,2), (3, 4), (1, 4), (2, 8) are the vertices of a square.
OR
Determine if the points (1,5), (2, 3) and (-2, -11) are collinear.
Solution:
No OR No

Question 23.
Find all zeroes of the polynomial 2x³ + x² – 6x – 3, if two of its zeroes are \(-\sqrt{3} \text { and } \sqrt{3}\)
Solution:
\(-\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{3},-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 24.
Draw a line-segment PQ = 8.4 cm by using ruler and compass only. Find a point R on PQ such that \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Solution:
Point ‘R’ is 3.6 cm away from ‘P’.

Question 25.
If a cos θ – b sin θ = c, prove that a sin θ + b cos θ = \(\pm \sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}-c^{2}}\)
OR
If sin θ+ sin² θ=1, then prove that cos² θ + cos⁴ θ = 1.

Question 26.
Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Section-IV

Question 27.
Point P divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, -8) such that \(\frac{\mathrm{AP}}{\mathrm{AB}}=\frac{1}{3}\). If P lies on the line 2x -y + k O, find the value of k.
Solution:
-8

Question 28.
In the given figure. if LM || CB and LN || CD, prove that \(\frac{\mathrm{AM} {\mathrm{AB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AN}}{\mathrm{AD}}\)

OR
In the given figure, DE || AC and DF || AE. Prove that \(\frac{\mathrm{BF}}{\mathrm{FE}}=\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)

Question 29.
In the given figure, DE JI AC and DF  AE. Prove that \(\frac{\mathrm{BF}}{\mathrm{FE}}=\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)

Solution:
7.868 cm²

Question 30.
The area of an equilateral triangle is \(49 \sqrt{3} \mathrm{~cm}^{2}\). Taking each angular point as centre, a circle is described with radius equal to half the length of the side of the triangle as shown in figure. Find the area of the triangle not included in the circles.

In the given figure, prove that AD = BE if ∠A = ∠B and DE || AB.

Question 31.
The weight of tea in 70 packets are as follows:

Weight (in kg)	200-201	201-202	202-203	203-204	204-205	205-206
No. of packets	12	26	20	4	2	6

Determine the modal weight.
Solution:
201.7 kg

Question 32.
Check whether the pair of equations 5x – y = 1 and are consistent. If so, solve them graphically.
Solution:
Consistent, x = 2, y = 3

Question 33.
Find the mean and median for the following data:

Class	0-10	10-20	20-30	30-10	40-50	Total
Frequency	8	16	36	34	6	100

Solution:
Mean = 26.4; Median = 27.2

Section-V

Question 34.
Two hoardings on cleanliness are kept on two poles of equal heights standing opposite to each other on either side of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angle of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the pole and the distance of the point from the poles.
OR
A tree breaks down due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground making an angle of 30° with it. The distance from the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 metres. Find the height of the tree before it was broken.
Solution:
20√3 m; 20 m and 60 m OR 13.86 m

Question 35.
A well of diameter 3 m and 14 m deep is dug. The earth, taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 4 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.
Solution:
\(\frac{9}{8} \mathrm{~m}\)

Question 36.
A part of monthly expenditure of a family is constant and the remaining varies with the price of wheat. When the price of wheat is ₹ 800 per quintals, the total monthly expenditure is ₹ 5400 and when it is ₹ 1000 per quintal, the total monthly expenditure ₹ 6000. Find the total monthly expenditure of the family when the cost of wheat is ₹ 950 per quintal. Assuming the consumption of wheat to be the same.
Solution:
₹ 5850

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course A Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 1 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न ( अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)

विद्यार्थी-जीवन को मानव-जीवन की रीढ़ की हड्डी कहें तो कोई अतिशयोक्ति नहीं होगी। विद्यार्थी काल में बालक में जो संस्कार पड़ जाते हैं, जीवनभर वही संस्कार अमिट रहते हैं। इसीलिए यही काल आधारशिला कहा गया है। यदि यह नींव दृढ़ बन जाती है तो जीवन सुदृढ़ और सुखी बन जाता है। यदि इस काल में बालक कष्ट सहन कर लेता है, तो उसका स्वास्थ्य सुंदर बनता है। यदि मन लगाकर अध्ययन कर लेता है तो उसे ज्ञान मिलता है, उसका मानसिक विकास होता है। जिस वृक्ष को प्रारंभ से सुंदर सिंचन और खाद मिल जाती है, वह पुष्पित एवं पल्लवित होकर संसार को सौरभ देने लगता है। इसी प्रकार विद्यार्थी काल में जो बालक श्रम, अनुशासन एवं समय नियमन के साँचे में ढल जाता है, वह आदर्श विद्यार्थी बनकर सभ्य नागरिक बन जाता है। सभ्य नागरिक के लिए जिन-जिन गुणों की आवश्यकता है, उन गुणों के लिए विद्यार्थी काल ही तो सुंदर पाठशाला है। यहाँ पर अपने साथियों के बीच रहकर वे सभी गुण आ जाने आवश्यक हैं, जिनकी विद्यार्थी को अपने जीवन में आवश्यकता होती है।

(i) ‘संसार को सौरभ’ देने का अर्थ है
(क) संसार में सुगंध फैलाना
(ख) संसार में बेहतर बनना
(ग) संसार में पेड़ लगाना
(घ) संसार को सुगंधित द्रव्य देना
उत्तर-
(क) संसार में सुगंध फैलाना

(ii) गद्यांश में आदर्श विद्यार्थी के किन गुणों की चर्चा की गई है?
(क) नियमावली का पालन
(ख) ज्ञान-प्राप्ति हेतु ध्यान की आवश्यकता
(ग) नियमन
(घ) व्यायाम
उत्तर-
(ग) नियमन

(iii) गद्यांश के आधार पर कहा जा सकता है कि
(क) विद्यार्थी-जीवन में व्यक्ति अनेक गुणों को धारण कर लेता है।
(ख) विद्यार्थी जीवन के लिए सुंदर पाठशाला की आवश्यकता होती है।
(ग) कष्ट सहन करने से सेहत बनती है।
(घ) वृक्षों को सींचना पर्यावरण के लिए आश्वयक है।
उत्तर-
(क) विद्यार्थी-जीवन में व्यक्ति अनेक गुणों को धारण कर लेता है।

(iv) गद्यांश में ‘वृक्ष’ किसे कहा गया है?
(क) पेड़ को
(ख) विद्यार्थी को
(ग) जीवन को
(घ) समय को
उत्तर-
(ख) विद्यार्थी को

(v) मानव जीवन की रीढ़ की हड्डी विद्यार्थी-जीवन को क्यों माना जाता है?
(क) पूरा जीवन विद्यार्थी-जीवन पर चलता है।
(ख) जो संस्कार विद्यार्थी-जीवन में पड़ जाते हैं, वे संस्कार स्थायी हो जाते हैं।
(ग) विद्यार्थी-जीवन सुखी जीवन होता है।
(घ) विद्यार्थी जीवन में ज्ञान मिलता है।
उत्तर-
(ख) जो संस्कार विद्यार्थी-जीवन में पड़ जाते हैं, वे संस्कार स्थायी हो जाते हैं।

अथवा

विद्याभ्यासी पुरुष को साथियों का अभाव कभी नहीं रहता। उसकी कोठरी में सदा ऐसे लोगों का वास रहता है, जो अमर हैं। वे उसके प्रति सहानुभूति प्रकट करने और उसे समझाने के लिए सदा प्रस्तुत रहते हैं। कवि, दार्शनिक और विद्वान, जिन्होंने प्रकृति के रहस्यों का उद्घाटन किया है और बड़े-बड़े महात्मा, जिन्होंने आत्मा के गूढ़ रहस्यों की

थाह लगा ली है, सदा उसकी बातें सुनने और उसकी शंकाओं का समाधान करने के लिए उद्यत रहते हैं। बिना किसी उद्देश्य के सरसरी तौर पर पुस्तकों के पन्ने उलटते जाना अध्ययन नहीं है। लिखी हुई बातों को विचारपूर्वक पूर्णरूप से हृदय से ग्रहण करने का नाम अध्ययन है। प्रत्येक स्त्री-पुरुष को अपने पढ़ने का उद्देश्य स्थित कर लेना चाहिए। इसके लिए सबसे मुख्य बात यह है कि पढ़ना नियमपूर्वक हो अर्थात इसके लिए नित्य का समय उपयुक्त होता है।

(i) ‘विद्वान’ शब्द का विलोम है
(क) विदुषी
(ख) मूर्ख
(ग) मंदबुद्धि
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) विदुषी

(ii) कौन-सा शब्द ‘प्र’ उपसर्ग लगाकर नहीं बना है?
(क) प्रयुक्त
(ख) प्रसिद्ध
(ग) प्रश्न
(घ) प्रगति
उत्तर
(ग) प्रश्न

(iii) विद्याभ्यासी पुरुष के पास किसका वास रहता है?
(क) संबंधियों का
(ख) पुस्तकों का
(ग) गुरुजनों का
(घ) जो अमर होते हैं
उत्तर
(घ) जो अमर होते हैं

(iv) विद्या का अभ्यास करने वाले व्यक्तियों को साथियों की कमी महसूस नहीं होती है क्योंकि
(क) उन्हें साथी की आवश्यकता नहीं होती है
(ख) उन्हें मित्र बनाना अच्छा नहीं लगता है
(ग) पुस्तकें उनकी साथी होती है
(घ) उनके अनेक साथी होते हैं
उत्तर
(ग) पुस्तकें उनकी साथी होती है

(v) अध्ययन क्या है?
(क) बिना कारण के पुस्तकों के पन्ने पलटना
(ख) नियमपूर्वक पढ़ना
(ग) लिखी हुई बातों को विचारपूर्वक हृदय से ग्रहण करना
(घ) कुछ भी पढ़ लेना
उत्तर
(ग) लिखी हुई बातों को विचारपूर्वक हृदय से ग्रहण करना

अपठित पद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
प्लास्टिक सर्जरी के कुछ जमा थे विद्वान,
और चला रहे थे अपनी जबान।
पहला बोला
कि मैंने एक लँगड़ी को टाँग लगाई थी,
इस वर्ष ओलंपिक दौड़ में वही पहली आई थी,
दूसरा बोला कि
परसों ही मैंने एक लूले को लगाया है नया हाथ
और कल ही बॉक्सिंग में बॉक्सर को उसने दी मात। तीसरा बोला कि
तब से बहुत हूँ परेशान
जब से मैंने एक भेड़िए के होठों पर चिपकाई है आदमी की मुस्कान
वह हाथ जोड़े घर-घर में जा रहा है
और अगले चुनाव के लिए अपना वोट पटा रहा है।

(i) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में किस पर व्यंग्य किया गया है?
(क) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में खिलाड़ियों पर व्यंग्य किया गया है।
(ख) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में सर्जरी के विशेषज्ञों पर व्यंग्य किया गया है।
(ग) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में राजनेताओं पर व्यंग्य किया गया है।
(घ) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में देश की व्यवस्था पर व्यंग्य किया गया है।
उत्तर
(ग) कविता की अंतिम पंक्तियों में राजनेताओं पर व्यंग्य किया गया है।

(ii) तीसरे सर्जन की परेशानी का कारण कौन है?
(क) तीसरे सर्जन की परेशानी का कारण अभिनेता है।
(ख) तीसरे सर्जन की परेशानी का कारण नेता है।
(ग) तीसरे सर्जन की परेशानी का कारण भेड़िया है।
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।
उत्तर
(ग) तीसरे सर्जन की परेशानी का कारण भेड़िया है।

(iii) पहले सर्जन ने क्या कारनामा कर दिखाया था?
(क) एक लूले का हाथ लगाया, जिसने बॉक्सिंग में बॉक्सर को हराया।
(ख) भेड़िए के होठों पर आदमी की मुस्कान चिपकाई।
(ग) एक लँगड़ी को टाँग लगाई जो ओलंपिक दौड़ में प्रथम आई।
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।
उत्तर
(ग) एक लँगड़ी को टाँग लगाई जो ओलंपिक दौड़ में प्रथम आई।

(iv) कवि ने किस प्रकार के आदमी को भेड़िया कहा है?
(क) कवि ने शिक्षाविद को भेड़िया कहा है।
(ख) कवि ने धर्म नेता को भेड़िया कहा है।
(ग) कवि ने राजनेता को भेड़िया कहा है।
(घ) कवि ने दोहरे आचरण वाले व्यक्ति को भेड़िया कहा है।
उत्तर
(ग) कवि ने राजनेता को भेड़िया कहा है।

(v) घर-घर में शब्द है
(क) रूढ़
(ख) यौगिक
(ग) युग्म
(घ) सार्थक
उत्तर
(ग) युग्म

अथवा

देश हमें देता है सब कुछ, हम भी तो कुछ देना सीखें सूरज हमें रोशनी देता हवा नया जीवन देती है। भूख मिटाने को हम सबको, धरती पर होती खेती है। औरों का भी हित हो जिसमें, हम ऐसा कुछ करना सीखें पथिकों को जलती दुपहर में पेड़ सदा देते हैं छाया खुशबू भरे फूल देते हैं, हमको नव फूलों की माला, त्यागी तरुओं के जीवन से हम भी तो कुछ देना सीखें। जो अनपढ़ है उन्हें पढ़ाएँ, जो चुप हैं उनको वाणी दें। हम मेहनत के दीप जलाकर, नया उजाला करना सीखें।

(i) कवि हमसे क्या अपेक्षा रखता है?
(क) कवि हमसे त्याग की अपेक्षा रखता है।
(ख) कभी हमसे परहित की अपेक्षा रखता है।
(ग) कभी हमसे परिश्रम की अपेक्षा रखता है।
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।
उत्तर
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।

(ii) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें क्या देता है?
(क) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें आश्चर्य देता है।
(ख) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें धन-धान्य देता है।
(ग) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें रोज़गार के अवसर देता है।
(घ) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें सब कुछ देता है।
उत्तर
(घ) कवि के अनुसार देश हमें सब कुछ देता है।

(iii) हम किससे देना सीख सकते हैं?
(क) हम देश और धरती से देना सीख सकते हैं।
(ख) हम सूरज और हवा से देना सीख सकते हैं।
(ग) हम वृक्षों और फूलों से देना सीख सकते हैं।
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।
उत्तर
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।

(iv) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन किसके लिए किया है?
(क) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन सूरज के लिए किया है।
(ख) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन धरती के लिए किया है।
(ग) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन वृक्षों के लिए किया है।
(घ) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन फूलों के लिए किया है।
उत्तर
(ग) कवि ने त्यागी का संबोधन वृक्षों के लिए किया है।

(v) कवि हमें क्या सीखने की प्रेरणा देता है?
(क) कवि हमें सबको कुछ देने की प्रेरणा देता है।
(ख) कवि हमें दूसरों के हित जीने की प्रेरणा देता है।
(ग) कभी हमें मेहनत करने की प्रेरणा देता है।
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।
उत्तर-
(घ) ये सभी विकल्प सही हैं।

व्यावहारिक व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) मजदूर मेहनत करता है, किंतु उसके लाभ से वंचित रहता है। किस प्रकार का वाक्य है? ।
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य

(ii) मिश्र वाक्य का चयन कीजिए
(क) सूरज पूर्व से निकलता है
(ख) हम भोजन कर रहे हैं
(ग) वह कौन-सा व्यक्ति है, जिसने महात्मा गांधी का नाम न सुना हो
(घ) वह बाज़ार गया औरा फल लाया।
उत्तर
(ग) वह कौन-सा व्यक्ति है, जिसने महात्मा गांधी का नाम न सुना हो

(iii) रेखांकित उपवाक्यों में से कौन-सा विशेषण उपवाक्य है?
(क) मैं कहता हूँ कि तुम भोपाल जाओ।
(ख) लखनऊ उत्तर प्रदेश की राजधानी है जो कि एक ऐतिहासिक नगर है
(ग) मैं चाहता हूँ कि आप यहीं रहें।
(घ) जब मैं स्टेशन पहुँचा तभी ट्रेन आई।
उत्तर
(ख) लखनऊ उत्तर प्रदेश की राजधानी है जो कि एक ऐतिहासिक नगर है

(iv) संयुक्त वाक्य का चयन कीजिए।
(क) परिश्रमी व्यक्ति ही सफलता प्राप्त करता है।
(ख) क्या मेरे बिना वह पढ़ नहीं सकता है?
(ग) जो परिश्रम करता है, वही आगे बढ़ता है।
(घ) मैं बजाता हूँ और वह गाता है।
उत्तर
(घ) मैं बजाता हूँ और वह गाता है।

(v) जब तक वह घर पहुंचा तब तक उसके पिता जा चुके थे।
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) पिता जी के द्वारा कार चलाई गई। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाच्य
(ख) कर्मवाच्य
(ग) भाववाच्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) कर्मवाच्य

(ii) भाववाच्य है
(क) मजदूरों ने ईंट नहीं उठाई।
(ख) मजदूरों से ईंट उठाई नहीं जाती।
(ग) मैं पढ़ नहीं सकती।
(घ) वह बेचारी रो भी नहीं सकती।
उत्तर
(ख) मजदूरों से ईंट उठाई नहीं जाती।

(iii) आज उसे जमानत मिल गई। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाच्य
(ख) कर्मवाच्य
(ग) भाववाच्य
(घ) कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) कर्तृवाच्य

(iv) कर्मवाच्य है
(क) मित्र विपत्ति में मदद करते हैं।
(ख) मित्रों के द्वारा विपत्ति में मदद की जाती है।
(ग) बूढी माँ से चला नहीं जाता।
(घ) फैक्टरी बंद कर दी।
उत्तर
(ख) मित्रों के द्वारा विपत्ति में मदद की जाती है।

(v) निशा द्वारा अच्छी कविता लिखी गई। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाक्य
(ख) कर्मवाक्य
(ग) भाववाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) कर्मवाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) ‘गीता पुस्तक पढ़ती है।’ रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्म कारक
(ख) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक
(ग) भाववाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्म कारक
(घ) समूहवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
उत्तर
(ख) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक

(ii) ‘आज हमारी परीक्षा होनी है।’ में ‘आज’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होनी है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(ख) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होनी है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(ग) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होनी है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर
(क) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होनी है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।

(iii) ‘आज तुमने थोड़ा-सा ही दूध क्यों पीया?’ रेखांकित पद का पद-परिचय क्या है?
(क) निश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(ख) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(ग) संख्यावाचक विशेषण, स्त्रीलिंग, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(घ) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं।
उत्तर
(ख) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण

(iv) ‘वे बहुत ईमानदार है।’ में ‘वे’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) निजवाचक सर्वनाम, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग/स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक।
(ख) निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग/स्त्रीलिंग, कर्म कारक
(ग) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग/स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक
(घ) अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग/स्त्रीलिंग, करण कारक
उत्तर
(ग) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग/स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक

(v) ‘रामू बाज़ार जाओ।’ में रेखांकित का पद-परिचय क्या है?
(क) सकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन
(ख) अकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन,
(ग) सकर्मक क्रिया, भूत काल, स्त्रीलिंग, बहुवचन
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) अकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन,

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(i) उस काल मारे क्रोध के, तन काँपने उसका लगा। मानो हवा के ज़ोर से, सोता हुआ सागर जगा। इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा रस है?
(क) वीर रस
(ख) रौद्र रस
(ग) अद्भुत रस
(घ) करुण रस
उत्तर
(क) वीर रस

(ii) प्रिय पति वह मेरा प्राण प्यारा कहाँ है? दुख-जलनिधि-डूबी सहारा कहाँ है? इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा स्थायी ङ्के भाव है?
(क) विस्मय
(ख) रति
(ग) शोक
(घ) क्रोध
उत्तर
(ग) शोक

(iii) शृंगार रस का स्थायी भाव है?
(क) उत्साह
(ख) शोक
(ग) रति
(घ) भय
उत्तर
(ग) रति

(iv) क्रोध किस रस का स्थायी भाव है
(क) वीभत्स
(ख) भयानक
(ग) रौद्र
(घ) वीर रस
उत्तर
(ग) रौद्र

(v) करुण रस का उदाहरण है
(क) कहत, नटत, रीझत, खीझत, मिलत, खिलत, लजियात।
भरे भौन में करत हैं नैनन ही सौं बात।।

(ख) देखि सुदामा की दीन दसा करुना करि के करुनानिधि रोये।
पानी परात को हाथ छुयो नहिं, नैननि के जल सों पग धोये।।

(ग) श्रीकृष्ण के सुन वचन अर्जुन क्रोध से जलने लगे।
सब शोक अपना भूलकर करतल-युगल मलने लगे।।

(घ) नाक चढे सी-सी करै, जितै छबीली छैल।
फिरि फिरि भूलि वही गहै, प्यौ कंकरीली गैल।।

उत्तर
(ख) देखि सुदामा की दीन दसा करुना करि के करुनानिधि रोये।
पानी परात को हाथ छुयो नहिं, नैननि के जल सों पग धोये।।

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
फिर अकसर माँ की स्मृति में डूब जाते देखा है। उनकी माँ की चिट्ठियाँ अकसर उनके पास आती थीं। अपने अभिन्न मित्र डॉ. रघुवंश को वह उन चिट्ठियाँ को दिखाते थे। पिता और भाइयों के लिए बहुत लगाव मन में नहीं था। पिता व्यवसायी थे। एक भाई वहीं पादरी हो गया है। एक भाई काम करता है, उसका परिवार है। बहन सख्त और ज़िद्दी थी। बहुत देर से उसने शादी की। फ़ादर को एकाध बार उसकी शादी की चिंता व्यक्त करते उन दिनों देखा था। भारत में बस जाने के बाद दो या तीन बार अपने परिवार से मिलने भारत से बेल्जियम गए थे।

(i) कौन माँ की स्मृतियों में डूब जाते थे
(क) लेखक
(ख) फ़ादर बुल्के
(ग) दोनों
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) फ़ादर बुल्के

(ii) फ़ादर के पिता क्या थे?
(क) वकील
(ख) पादरी
(ग) व्यवसायी
(घ) जज
उत्तर
(ग) व्यवसायी

(iii) फ़ादर को किसकी चिंता थी?
(क) पिता की
(ख) भाई की
(ग) बहन की
(घ) माँ की
उत्तर
(ग) बहन की

(iv) फादर का परिवार कहाँ रहता था?
(क) भारत में
(ख) बेल्जियम में
(ग) लंदन में
(घ) जर्मनी में
उत्तर
(ख) बेल्जियम में

(v) फ़ादर के अभिन्न मित्र कौन थे?
(क) लेखक
(ख) उनके भाई
(ग) रघुवंश
(घ) माँ
उत्तर
(ग) रघुवंश

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 2 = 2)

(i) लेखक बालगोबिन भगत के किस गुण पर मुग्ध थे?
(क) सरलता
(ख) सहनशीलता
(ग) मधुर संगीत-गायन
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) मधुर संगीत-गायन

(ii) हालदार साहब को कितने दिनों में कंपनी के काम से कस्बे से गुज़रना पड़ता था?
(क) चौदहवें दिन
(ख) पंद्रहवें दिन
(ग) हर ग्यारह दिन बाद
(घ) कुछ कह नहीं सकते
उत्तर
(ख) पंद्रहवें दिन

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
ऊधौ, तुम हौ अति बड़भागी। अपरस रहत सनेह तगा तैं, नाहिन मन अनुरागी। पुरइनि पात रहत जल भीतर, ता रस देह न दागी। ज्यौं जल माहँ तेल की गागरि, बूंद न ताकौं लागी। प्रीति-नदी मैं पाउँ न बोरयौ, दृष्टि न रूप परागी। ‘सूरदास’ अबला हम भोरी, गुर चाँटी ज्यौं पागी।

(i) कमल के पत्ते की कौन-सी विशेषता कविता में बताई गई है?
(क) कमल का पत्ता सुंदर होता है।
(ख) कमल का पत्ता पानी में डूबा रहता है, लेकिन उस पर कोई दाग भी नहीं लगता है।
(ग) पहला और दूसरा उत्तर सही है।
(घ) दिए गए विकल्पों के सभी उत्तर गलत हैं।
उत्तर
(ख) कमल का पत्ता पानी में डूबा रहता है, लेकिन उस पर कोई दाग भी नहीं लगता है।

(ii) उद्धव के प्रेम विहीन रहने की तुलना किससे या किस-किससे की गई है?
(क) कमल के पत्ते और तेल की मटकी से की गई है।
(ख) केवल कमल के पत्ते से की गई है।
(ग) केवल तेल की मटकी से की गई है।
(घ) गुड़ की चींटी से की गई है।
उत्तर
(क) कमल के पत्ते और तेल की मटकी से की गई है।

(iii) गोपियों ने किसको अति बड़भागी कहा है?
(क) श्रीकृष्ण को
(ख) उद्धव को
(ग) जल से भरी मटकी को
(घ) गोपियों ने स्वयं को
उत्तर
(ख) उद्धव को

(iv) भोली भाली गोपियों और चींटियों में क्या समानता है?
(क) जिस तरह से चीटियाँ गुड़ से चिपटकर मुक्त नहीं होती हैं, उसी तरह से श्रीकृष्ण के प्रेम में गोपियाँ भी उनसे अलग नहीं हो सकती हैं।
(ख) जिस तरह से चीटियों को गुड़ पसंद है, वैसे ही गोपियों को मिठाइयाँ प्रिय हैं।
(ग) दोनों उत्तर सही है
(घ) कोई भी उत्तर सही नहीं है।
उत्तर
(क) जिस तरह से चीटियाँ गुड़ से चिपटकर मुक्त नहीं होती हैं, उसी तरह से श्रीकृष्ण के प्रेम में गोपियाँ भी उनसे अलग नहीं हो सकती हैं।

(v) ‘प्रीति-नदी मैं पाउँ न बोरयौ’ का अर्थ क्या है?
(क) प्रीति नदी यमुना नदी को कहा गया है।
(ख) प्रेम रूपी नदी में कभी पैर नहीं डुबोया अर्थात जिसने कभी प्रेम नहीं किया।
(ग) नदी में नहाने की बात हो रही है।
(घ) ऊपर दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर
(ख) प्रेम रूपी नदी में कभी पैर नहीं डुबोया अर्थात जिसने कभी प्रेम नहीं किया।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(i) परशुराम का स्वभाव कैसा है?
(क) उदार
(ख) शीतल
(ग) क्रोधी
(घ) चंचल
उत्तर
(ग) क्रोधी

(ii) ‘शाब्दिक-भ्रम’ किसे कहा गया है?
(क) दिन-रात को
(ख) वस्त्र और आभूषण को
(ग) सुख-दुख को
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) वस्त्र और आभूषण को

खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 4 = 8)
(क) सेनानी न होते हुए भी चश्मेवाले को लोग कैप्टन क्यों कहते थे?
(ख) बालगोबिन भगत ने अपने बेटे की मृत्यु पर अपनी भावनाएँ कैसे व्यक्त की?
(ग) फ़ादर की उपस्थिति ‘देवदार की छाया’ के समान क्यों लगती थी?
(घ) नवाब साहब खीरा खाने के अपने ढंग के माध्यम से क्या दिखाना चाहते थे?
उत्तर
(क) चश्मेवाला एक देशभक्त नागरिक था। उसके हृदय में देश के वीर जवानों के प्रति सम्मान था। इसलिए लोग उसे कैप्टन कहते थे। अर्थात कैप्टन एक देशप्रेमी था, नेताजी जैसे देशभक्त के लिए उसके कम में सम्मान की भावना थी।

(ख) बालगोबिन भगत ने अपने बेटे की मृत्यु पर उसे आँगन में चटाई पर लिटाकर एक सफ़ेद कपड़े से ढक दिया। उसके ऊपर फूल एवं तुलसीदल डाल दिए तथा कबीर के पद गाने लगे। उन्होंने अपनी पुत्रवधू को भी रोने की बजाए प्रसन्न होने के लिए कहा और समझाया कि आज तो आत्मा व परमात्मा का मिलन हुआ है, यह समय रोने का नहीं, उत्सव मनाने का है।

(ग) फ़ादर बुल्के मानवीय गुणों से परिपूर्ण थे। उनके हृदय में सबके लिए कल्याण की कामना थी। वे सभी को आशीर्वाद देते थे, सबकी झोली खुशियों से भर देते थे। जिस प्रकार देवदार का विशाल वृक्ष अपनी शीतलता से दूसरों के दुख हर लेता है, उसी प्रकार फादर अपने व्यवहार से सबका दिल जीत लेते थे।

(घ) नवाब साहब खीरे से सुगंध का रसास्वादन करके तृप्त होने के अपने विचित्र ढंग के माध्यम से अपनी रईसी और नवाबी का प्रदर्शन करना चाहते थे। वे लेखक को यह भी बताना चाह रहे थे कि नवाब जैसे रईस लोग खीरा जैसी साधारण-सी खाद्य वस्तु का आनंद इसी तरह लेते हैं। इसमें उनकी दिखावा करने की प्रवृत्ति दिख रही थी।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) बादलों से गर्जना का आह्वान कर कवि क्या कहना चाहता है? ‘उत्साह’ कविता के आधार पर बताइए।
(ख) ‘कन्यादान’ कविता में वस्त्र और आभूषणों को शाब्दिक-भ्रम क्यों कहा गया है?
(ग) ‘मरजादा न लही’ के माध्यम से कौन-सी मर्यादा न रहने की बात की जा रही है?
उत्तर
(क) कवि बादलों से गर्जना का आह्वान कर धरती और मानव की प्यास बुझाकर उन्हें तृप्त करने तथा अपनी गर्जना में छिपी क्रांति से एक परिवर्तन लाने की बात कहते हैं।

(ख) ‘कन्यादान’ कविता में वस्त्र और आभूषणों को शाब्दिक-भ्रम इसलिए कहा गया है, क्योंकि नववधू, इनके आकर्षण में फँसकर मुग्ध हो जाती है। इसी की आड़ में ससुराल वाले उसका शोषण करते हैं।

(ग) गोपियों ने अपने प्रेम को कभी किसी के सम्मुख प्रकट नहीं किया था। वे शांत भाव से श्रीकृष्ण के लौटने की प्रतीक्षा कर रही थीं। कोई भी उनके दुख को समझ नहीं पा रहा था। वे चुप्पी लगाए अपनी मर्यादा में लिपटी हुई इस वियोग को सहन कर रही थीं कि वे श्रीकृष्ण से प्रेम करती हैं। परंतु उद्धव के योग संदेश ने उनको उनकी
मर्यादा छोड़कर बोलने पर मजबूर कर दिया अर्थात जो बात सिर्फ वे ही जानती थीं, आज सबको पता चल जाएगा।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि शिशु का नाम भोलानाथ कैसे पड़ा?
(ख) प्रकृति के उस अनंत और विराट स्वरूप को देखकर ‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’ पाठ की लेखिका को कैसी अनुभूति होती है?
(ग) अखबार वाले सरकारी तंत्र की इच्छा के अनुकूल भी लिखते हैं और ऐसे कार्यों को छापने से बचते भी हैं जो उनको नहीं करना चाहिए? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
(क) शिशु का नाम तारकेश्वर नाथ था। तारकेश्वर के पिता शिवजी के भक्त थे। उसके पिता पूजा के बाद हमेशा उसके माथे पर भभूत और तिलक लगा देते थे, लंबी जटाएँ तो पहले से ही थीं। पिता जी उसे प्यार से भोलानाथ कहते थे। फिर सभी उसे तारकेश्वर नाथ न कहकर भोलानाथ कहकर पुकारने लगे। पिता के द्वारा तारकेश्वर नाथ को दी गई वेशभूषा, रूपरेखा, तथा माथे पर तिलक को देखकर उसका नाम भोलानाथ ही पड़ गया था।

(ख) हिमालय कहीं गहरे हरे रंग का मोटा कालीन ओढे, तो कहीं हलका पीलापन लिए, तो कहीं पलस्तर उखड़ी दीवार की तरह पथरीला लग रहा था। चारों ओर सुंदर नज़ारे मन को मोहित कर रहे थे। ऐसा लगता था कि किसी ने जादू की छड़ी घुमा दी हो। प्रकृति का कण-कण बादलों की एक मोटी चादर को लपेटे हुए था। आँखों और आत्मा को सुख देने वाले हर क्षण परिवर्तित हिमालय के नज़ारे लेखिका को अभिभूत कर रहे थे।

(ग) अखबार वाले सरकारी तंत्र की प्रशंसा में तो खूब रस लेकर छोटी-सी भी बात को छापते हैं, किंतु जिस कार्य से सरकार की पोल खुलती हो, उससे या तो बचते हैं या उसमें शब्दों की हेर-फेर कर अनर्थ को अर्थवान बना प्रस्तुत करते हैं। इसी प्रकार जिंदा नाक लगाने के शर्मनाक दिन कोई अख़बार इस घटना को यथार्थ छापकर या कोई लेख लिख अपनी साहसिक और ईमानदार छवि प्रस्तुत नहीं कर सका। इस तरह अख़बार की दुनिया का सरकार से अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से घनिष्ठ संबंध बना रहता है।

(ख) बालगोबिन भगत ने अपने बेटे की मृत्यु पर उसे आँगन में चटाई पर लिटाकर एक सफ़ेद कपड़े से ढक दिया। उसके ऊपर फूल एवं तुलसीदल डाल दिए तथा कबीर के पद गाने लगे। उन्होंने अपनी पुत्रवधू को भी रोने की बजाए प्रसन्न होने के लिए कहा और समझाया कि आज तो आत्मा व परमात्मा का मिलन हुआ है, यह समय रोने का नहीं, उत्सव मनाने का है।

(ग) फ़ादर बुल्के मानवीय गुणों से परिपूर्ण थे। उनके हृदय में सबके लिए कल्याण की कामना थी। वे सभी को आशीर्वाद देते थे, सबकी झोली खुशियों से भर देते थे। जिस प्रकार देवदार का विशाल वृक्ष अपनी शीतलता से दूसरों के दुख हर लेता है, उसी प्रकार फादर अपने व्यवहार से सबका दिल जीत लेते थे।

(घ) नवाब साहब खीरे से सुगंध का रसास्वादन करके तृप्त होने के अपने विचित्र ढंग के माध्यम से अपनी रईसी और नवाबी का प्रदर्शन करना चाहते थे। वे लेखक को यह भी बताना चाह रहे थे कि नवाब जैसे रईस लोग खीरा जैसी साधारण-सी खाद्य वस्तु का आनंद इसी तरह लेते हैं। इसमें उनकी दिखावा करने की प्रवृत्ति दिख रही थी।

लेखन (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
(क) वन और पर्यावरण का संबंध संकेत-बिंदु-

• वन प्रदूषण-निवारण में सहायक
• वनों की उपयोगिता
• वन-संरक्षण की आवश्यकता
• वन संरक्षण के उपाय।

(ख) कोरोना- एक वैश्विक महामारी
संकेत-बिंदु-

• क्या है महामारी
• आधुनिक स्वास्थ्य सुविधाओं के उपरांत भी कोई उपचार नहीं
• बचाव और सुझाव।

(ग) अभ्यास का महत्व
संकेत-बिंदु-

• अभ्यास का महत्व
• ऐतिहासिक लोगों के उदाहरण
• प्रसिद्ध कहावत
• निष्कर्ष।

उत्तर
(क) वन और पर्यावरण का संबंध वनों से भूमि का कटाव रोका जा सकता है। वनों से रेगिस्तान का फैलाव रुकता है, सूखा कम पड़ता है। इससे ध्वनि-प्रदूषण की भयंकर समस्या से भी काफी हद तक नियंत्रण पाया जा सकता है। वन ही नदियों, झरनों और अन्य प्राकृतिक जल-स्रोतों के भंडार हैं।

वनों से हमें लकड़ी, फल, फूल, खाद्य पदार्थ, गोंद तथा अन्य सामान प्राप्त होते हैं। आज भारत में दुर्भाग्य से केवल 23% वन बचे हैं। जैसे-जैसे उद्योगों को संख्या बढ़ रही है, शहरीकरण हो रहा है, वाहनों की संख्या बढ़ती जा रही है, वैसे-वैसे वनों की आवश्यकता और बढ़ती जा रही है। वन-संरक्षण एक कठिन एवं महत्वपूर्ण काम है।

इसमें हर व्यक्ति को अपनी ज़िम्मेदारी समझनी पड़ेगी और अपना योगदान देना होगा। अपने घर-मोहल्ले, नगर में अत्यधिक संख्या में वृक्षारोपण को बढ़ाकर इसको एक आंदोलन के रूप में आगे बढ़ाना होगा। तभी हम अपने पर्यावरण को स्वच्छ रख पाएँगे।

(ख) कोरोना- एक वैश्विक महामारी आज पूरे संसार में कोरोना वायरस का आतंक फैल चूका है। आज पूरे संसार में यह एक महामारी के रूप में आ चुका है। कोरोना वायरस कई तरह के विषाणुओं यानी वायरस का एक समूह है, यह अनेक तरह के प्राणियों में रोग उत्पन्न करने की क्षमता रखता है।

यह एक व्यक्ति से पचास लोगों तक रोग फैलाने की क्षमता रखता है। इस वायरस का अभी तक कोई इलाज नहीं निकल पाया है। विश्व भर के सभी वैज्ञानिक तेज गति से इसका वैक्सीन बनाने की प्रक्रिया में लगे हैं। आने वाले समय में संभावना है कि एक से डेढ़ वर्ष के अंदर इस वायरस का वैक्सीन आ जाए।

इस वायरस से बचने के लिए हमें अपना ध्यान खुद रखना होगा। बचाव के उपाय सामाजिक दूरी बनाए रखना, पर्याप्त सुरक्षा मानक अपनाना, साबुन से नियमित रूप से हाथ धोना, वायरस संक्रमित लोगों से दूर रहना आदि हैं। बहुत भीड़ वाली जगह में नहीं जाना, अपने घरों में रहना कुछ अन्य उपाय हैं। सरकार द्वारा बनाए नियमों का पालन करना होगा। बार-बार अपने हाथ धोने होंगे, अपने हाथ नाक, मुँह में नहीं लगाने होंगे।

(ग) अभ्यास का महत्त्व
यदि निरंतर अभ्यास किया जाए, तो असाध्य को भी साधा जा सकता है। ईश्वर ने सभी मनुष्यों को बुद्धि दी है। उस बुद्धि का इस्तेमाल तथा अभ्यास करके मनुष्य कुछ भी सीख सकता है। अर्जुन तथा एकलव्य ने निरंतर अभ्यास करके धनुर्विद्या में निपुणता प्राप्त की। उसी प्रकार वरदराज ने, जो कि एक मंदबुद्धि बालक था, निरंतर अभ्यास द्वारा विद्या प्राप्त की और ग्रंथों की रचना की। उन्हीं पर एक प्रसिद्ध कहावन बनीकरत-करत अभ्यास के, जड़मति होत सुजान।

रसरि आवत जात तें, सिल पर परत निसान।। यानी जिस प्रकार रस्सी की रगड़ से कठोर पत्थर पर भी निशान बन जाते हैं, उसी प्रकार निरंतर अभ्यास से मूर्ख व्यक्ति भी विद्वान बन सकता है। यदि विद्यार्थी प्रत्येक विषय का निरंतर अभ्यास करें, तो उन्हें कोई भी विषय कठिन नहीं लगेगा और वे सरलता से उस विषय में कुशलता प्राप्त कर सकेंगे।

प्रश्न 15.
ग्रीष्मावकाश में विद्यालय में नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण शिविर आयोजित करने का अनुरोध करते हुए विद्यालय की प्रधानाचार्या को एक पत्र लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
अथवा
वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम आने पर मित्र को 80-100 शब्दों में बधाई पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर
परीक्षा भवन
चन्छ०ज० शहर
दिनांक : 25 अप्रैल, 20xx
प्रधानाचार्या महोदया
ट०ठ०ड० स्कूल
नई दिल्ली।
विषय : विद्यालय में नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण शिविर के आयोजन हेतु। मान्यवर मैं आपके विद्यालय में कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र हूँ। जून में विद्यालय में ग्रीष्मावकाश होगा। इस अवकाश में हम एक नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण शिविर का आयोजन करना चाहते हैं। विद्यालय में ग्रीष्मावकाश में ‘समर कैंप’ तो लग ही रहे हैं, परंतु मेरा आपसे अनुरोध है कि एक नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण शिविर का भी आयोजन किया जाए। ताकि योग्य विद्यार्थी अपनी कला को निखार सकें। नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण के विद्यार्थी भविष्य में एक अच्छा मंच संचालक व कलाकार बन सकते हैं। सी०बी०एस०ई० ने भी नाटक को भाषा की मुख्य गतिविधि में सम्मिलित किया है। अतः आपसे हम सबका अनुरोध है कि आप इस नाट्य-प्रशिक्षण शिविर का आयोजन कराने की अनुमति दे दें।
धन्यवाद।
प्रार्थी क०ख०ग०

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन
च०छ०ज० शहर
दिनांक : 11 मार्च, 20xx
प्रिय मित्र अनिल
नमस्कार।
कल ही तुम्हारी माता जी ने मुझे फोन पर बताया कि तुम वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम आए हो। मित्र, सबसे पहले मेरी हार्दिक बधाई स्वीकार करो। इस वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता के लिए तुमने कितनी मेहनत व अभ्यास किया होगा, तभी तो तुमने प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया। मैं तुम्हें बचपन से ही जानता हूँ कि तुम कितने मेहनती हो। एक बार अगर तुम ठान लेते हो, तो हमेशा विजयी होते हो। तुम्हारा निरंतर अभ्यास, अथक परिश्रम आज रंग ले आया। मुझे पूर्ण विश्वास है कि तुम ऐसे ही हमेशा सफलता प्राप्त करते रहोगे। तुम्हारे माता-पिता भी तुम पर गर्व महसूस कर रहे होंगे। पत्रोत्तर की प्रतीक्षा में।
तुम्हारा मित्र
क०ख०ग०

प्रश्न 16.
पर्यावरण विभाग की ओर से जल-संरक्षण का आग्रह करते हुए लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
अथवा
‘स्वच्छ भारत अभियान’ पर लगभग 25-50 शब्दों का एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 17.
दीपावली हेतु नगर निगम की और से शुभकामना संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
अथवा
चाचा एवं चाची जी की और से अमन को जन्मदिवस हेतु शुभकामना संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

Part-A
Multiple Choice Questions (40 Marks)

Reading (20 Marks)
Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (10 Marks)
1. “Why does humanity need Superman?”, wrote Lois Lane, the reporter from the Superman series. It’s a very relevant question in our context too. Why do we need superheroes? We are all enchanted by the action sequences in superhero movies, and also by how the superhero can always save the day – and with good reasons.

2. If you’re trying to guess what it is, you can forget about powers like super-strength, laser vision, or – our personal favourite – the ability to consume any type of matter in the universe. The underlying reason we’re so enamoured of them is quite possibly the best superhero power – the way they can inspire and motivate us. From the smallest boy and girl wonders, to the oldest Captains – each superhero has had their own lesson to impart unto all of us.

3. Whether it’s Batman saving Gotham city, Superman saving humanity, or our very own Krissh saving his fellow countrymen – we need superheroes because they give us the hope and strength we need to fight the injustice we encounter today. It’s like Batman once said, “Sometimes the truth isn’t good enough. Sometimes people deserve more. Sometimes people deserve to have their faith rewarded.”

4. Yes, it’s true that we need faith today, when we know a lot tends to go wrong, whether it is with regard to terrorism, or growing crime – people need the hope and strength they get from superheroes. That’s why we need superheroes, because of how they give us a sense of right, which helps us fight the injustice happening around us. It was best summarised by Superman when he said that “There is a superhero in all of us, we just need the courage to put on the cape,” and by Batman in the Dark Knight, when he said that “You either die a hero or live long enough to see yourself become the villain.”

5. So, every time we choose to see a superhero movie, it gives us a nudge to fight the unjust with our own ideas or capabilities. Every child and adult that watches superhero movies will be motivated to rise above the injustice happening in the real world. It’s not just about the power, but also the principle.

6. You and I can also be a superhero just by helping our neighbours, and by standing against what is wrong. Whether the situation is political or apolitical, injustice can be fought with thoughts of righteousness and courage.

7. From the day we are bom, we are told that power corrupts, and absolute power corrupts absolutely, but superheroes fan our subconscious desire for greatness. They also teach us that the greatest power is the integrity that keeps us from going down the wrong path. None of us will ever leap a tall building in a single bound, change the course of a mighty river, or bend steel with our bare hands but we can always return that lost wallet with its contents intact, tell the truth when it matters, stand our ground when it’s easier to walk away and unto others as we would want them to do unto us.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 = 10)
(i) Despite our age and status in life, few enigmatic qualities endear us to superheroes. Select the correct options from below:
1. Give our subconscious a desire for greatness
2. Have a lesson to bestow
3. Inspire and motivate us
4. Hive us hope to fight the bad
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(ii) Identify the sentence where the word “bestow” has been used incorrectly.
(a) He was ever ready to take blame on himself and bestow praise on others.
(b) During the ceremony, the Prime Minister will bestow medals of honor to the brave soldiers who rescued their comrades.
(c) The king will bestow a title and land to the man who saved the princess.
(d) If you want to avoid a misunderstanding, I bestow you to consider your words before speaking.
Answer:
(d) If you want to avoid a misunderstanding, I bestow you to consider your words before speaking.

(iii) “There is a superhero in all of us, we just need the courage to put on the cape.” By this, Superman is implying that:
(a) the cape is heavy and not everyone can bear it
(b) we all have special powers
(c) the ability to fight the unjust with our own ideas or capabilities is present in all of us
(d) society needs superheroes
Answer:
(c) the ability to fight the unjust with our own ideas or capabilities is present in all of us

(iv) According to the writer, how can a common man become a superhero?
1. Bend steel, change the course of rivers
2. Stand up against injustice, return that wallet intact
3. Help around the neighbourhood
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer:
(b) 2 and 3

(v) A superpower common to all superheroes that endears them to us is:
(a) the ability to strategise.
(b) the ability to remain calm in the face of danger.
(c) the capability to motivate and inspire humans.
(d) the capability to lend a helping hand to humans.
Answer:
(c) the capability to motivate and inspire humans.

(vi) Choose the option that suits best as the title for the passage.
(a) Humans are superheroes
(b) Humanity needs Superheroes
(c) Superheroes are vital to humans’ lives
(d) Humans should help each other
Answer:
(b) Humanity needs Superheroes

(vii) What are the two things we need to fight injustice today?
(a) Superpower and superhero
(b) Truth and faith
(c) Hope and strength
(d) Hope and confidence
Answer:
(c) Hope and strength

(viii) Select the option that makes the correct use of “righteousness”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space.
(a) Both sides in the dispute adopted a tone of moral ……………….
(b) The newspaper reports are a ……………………. of gossip.
(c) She was confused about obligation and ……………………
(d) Cultural contexts bring ………………… in international relations.
Answer:
(a) Both sides in the dispute adopted a tone of moral ……………….

(ix) The author attempts to …………….. the readers to fight the unjust.
(a) motivate
(b) nudge
(c) rebuke
(d) put
Answer:
(b) nudge

(x) Pick the character which is not being used by the author.
(a) Batman
(b) Superman
(c) Spiderman
(d) Krissh
Answer:
(c) Spiderman

(xi) What is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Fight the injustice
(b) Superheroes are necessary
(c) Help your neighbours
(d) Save humanity
Answer:
(a) Fight the injustice

(xii) What are the two meanings of “encounter” as used in the passage?
1. Experience something unpleasant
2. To experience something unexpected
3. To affect something
4. To cover with a thin layer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2and 3
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (10 Marks)
A Survey Report
A total of 246 bird species were recorded during the Winter Bird Count 2019, a slight increase from last year’s count of 241. A team of over loo birds in 15 teams set out across different parts of the territory and the National Capital Region and logged a number of important and rare sightings in the region.

Of the 246 species recorded this year, over 100 were winter migrants. This year’s species sighting tally was less than the 252 recorded in 2017. The birding teams covered areas like the riverine belt of the Yamuna, including Okhla sanctuary and Wazirabad, wetlands of Gautam Buddha Nagar, including Surajpur and Dhanauri, the wetlands around Gurgoan, among them Sultanpur and Basai, Najafgarh drain up to Dhasna barrage, the Aravali belt towards Mangar Bani and the neighbouring districts of Sonipat and Jhajjar.

Kanwar B Singh, coordinator of the count, described the overall diversity recorded as good with some important sightings. Singh said the similar species count of the past few years signified that most wetlands were faring fairly well. “This annual event gives us a good idea of the nature of the regional birdlife, helps collect essential data on bird diversity in the region and boosts support for the environment and nature conservation, while popularising bird-watching as a healthy pastime,” said Singh.

The white-crowned penduline-tit – a tiny wintering bird – was spotted by Pradyumna Vidwansa in Chandu village near Gurgaon after a gap of several years. Arvind Yadav, whose team sighted a Eurasian skylark at Mandothi in Jhajjar, Haryana, informed that this was a rare sighting in Haryana and NCR. “Both the Eurasian skylark and the white crowned penduline-tit have been recorded for only the third time in this region,” he said.

The birders said a few hundred greater flamingo are currently at the Najafgarh jheel.
However, this number is fewer than the arrivals in the last few years. Among the rare or uncommon waders reported by birders were the dunlin, jack snipe and Eurasian curlew. The enumerators also revealed the raptor count was higher this year when compared with the recording of the last few years.

“Various teams reported resident and wintering raptors, including crested serpent eagle, booted eagle, imperial eagle, steppe eagle, tawny eagle, greater and Indian spotted eagles, long-legged and common buzzards, marsh Harrier, Eurasian sparrow hawk, osprey, common kestrel and red-necked laggar and peregrine falcons,” said Singh. “In addition, a black eagle, which is a magnificent forest eagle that is rarely seen around Delhi, was once again reported last Sunday by the team led by Tapas Misra and Tanweer Alam.”

The count in the forested areas of the Aravallis including Mangar Bani, returned species like the white-bellied drongo, sirkeer malkoha and cinerous tit. Meanwhile, the birding team noted the presence of Brook’s leaf warbler, Siberian stonechat, common kestrel and Isabelline shrike in NCR’s woodlands and grasslands.
(Source: Times of India)

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 = 10)
(i) How many bird species were recorded as winter migrants this year?
(a) 246
(6)241
(c) 100
(d) over 500
Answer:
(c) 100

(ii) How many species of birds were recorded during the winter bird count in 2018?
(a) 246
(b) 241
(c) 412
(d) 252
Answer:
(b) 241

(iii) Which of the following areas was/were covered in survey by the birding teams?
(a) Wetlands of Gautam Buddha Nagar
(b) Surajpur
(c) Wetlands around Gurgaon
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(iv) Which of the following subgroups of birds have been reported in the news articles?
(a) Waders but not raptors
(b) Both waders and raptors
(c) Neither waders nor raptors
(d) Raptors but not waders
Answer:
(b) Both waders and raptors

(v) According to Kanwar B Singh, what was the situation of most of the wetlands?
(a) Excellent
(b) Bad
(c) Good
(d) Very good
Answer:
(c) Good

(vi) Conducting events such as bird counting are crucial as these help in:
(a) reporting exclusively on the number of waders in different parts of Delhi and NCR
(b) reporting exclusively on the number of raptors in different parts of Delhi and NCR
(c) collecting essential data on bird diversity and to conserve nature
(d) identifying the place where most number of bird species are spotted
Answer:
(c) collecting essential data on bird diversity and to conserve nature

(vii) For the last few years, the number of flamingoes is:
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) the same
(d) getting bigger
Answer:
(b) decreasing

(viii) Read the statements given below:
1. Spotted and counted birds at different spots in Delhi-NCR
2. Spotted rare birds in rural areas also
3. Did a phase wise count of the birds over a period of two winter months
4. Also spotted migrant birds
5. Were focusing only on wetlands and riverine belt
Which of the combination of statements hold true for the teams engaged with the winter bird count?
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1,2 and 4

(ix) Which among the following birds were reported as rare waders?
(a) Eurasian curlew
(b) Dunlin
(c) Jack snipe
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(x) Based on your understand of the passage, choose the option that lists the birds of prey.
1. Common kestrel, peregrine falcons, Eurasian sparrow hawk
2. Flamingo, parrot, pigeon, nightingale
3. Serpent eagle, long-legged buzzards, osprey
4. Woodpecker, heron, tailorbird, peafowl, black drongo
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Answer:
(d) 1 and 3

(xi) Which of the statements related to the number and variety of species of birds being spotted is true?
(a) The number of species being sighted by the birders has increased gradually over the past three years and there have been rare sightings too.
(b) The number of species being sighted by the birders has decreased gradually over the past three years and there have not been any rare sightings.
(c) The number of species being sighted by the birders has increased gradually over the past three years and there have not been any rare sightings.
(d) There hasn’t been any specific trend in terms of number of species being sighted by the birders over the past three years but there have been rare sightings in the latest winter bird count.
Answer:
(d) There hasn’t been any specific trend in terms of number of species being sighted by the birders over the past three years but there have been rare sightings in the latest winter bird count.

(xii) Which of these birds are rare in NCR’?
(a) White-crowned penduline-tit
(b) Eurasian skylark
(c) Eagle
(d) Falcon
Answer:
(b) Eurasian skylark

Literature (10 Marks)
Question 3.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)
A. Tenth May dawned bright and clear. For the past few days I had been pleasantly besieged by dignitaries and world leaders who were coming to pay their respects before the inauguration. The inauguration would be the largest gathering ever of international leaders on South African soil. The ceremonies took place in the lovely sandstone amphitheatre formed by the Union Buildings in Pretoria. For decades this had been the seat of white supremacy, and now it was the site of rainbow gathering of different colours and nations for the installation of South Africa’s first democratic, non-racial government,

(i) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract.
1. On 10th May, Nelson Mandela sworn in as the first black Head of State, South Africa.
2. Before 10th May, the seat of President was occupied by the white.
3. A few international leaders came for the inauguration ceremony on 10th May.
4. ‘Bright and clear day’ refers to 10th May.
5. Anti-racist came to power without any hard struggle.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 4 and 5
Answer:
(c) 3 and 5

(ii) Who among the following is the narrator of this extract?
(a) The white president of South Africa
(b) The black president of South Africa
(c) The president of United States of America
(d) A common man of South Africa
Answer:
(b) The black president of South Africa

(iii) Which word does ‘besieged’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Surrounded
(b) Crowd
(c) Requested
(d) Swarm
Answer:
(c) Requested

(iv) Pick the option that correctly classifies the facts (F) and opinions/s (O) of the students.

(a) F – 1, 2 and O – 3, 4
(b) F – 2, 3 and O – 3, 4
(c) F – 1, 3 and O – 2, 4
(d) F – 3, 4 and O – 1,2
Answer:
(c) F – 1, 3 and O – 2, 4

(v) The ceremony took place in a building made of:
(a) marble
(b) sandstone
(c) bricks
(d) wood
Answer:
(b) sandstone

B. “Ga, ga, ga,” he cried begging her to bring him some food. “Gaw-col-ah,” she screamed back derisively. But he kept calling plaintively, and after a minute or so he uttered a joyful scream. His mother had picked up a piece of the fish and was flying across to him with it. He leaned out eagerly, tapping the rock with his feet, trying to get nearer to her as she flew across. But when she was just opposite to him, she halted, her wings motionless, the piece of fish in her beak almost within reach of his beak.

(i) The young seagull cried begging his mother to bring him:
(a) some good news
(b) some support
(c) some leaves
(d) some food
Answer:
(d) some food

(ii) His mother had picked up:
(a) a twig
(b) a piece of nut
(c) a piece of fish
(d) a piece of straw
Answer:
(c) a piece of fish

(iii) What made the young seagull scream in joy?

(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(b) Option (2)

(iv) Why did the seagull’s mother halt?
(a) She wanted the seagull to dive for the food
(b) She was in pain
(c) She saw a hunter
(d) She wanted the seagull to move back
Answer:
(a) She wanted the seagull to dive for the food

(v) The extract uses the phrase, ‘besieged by dignitaries’. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘dignitaries’ ?

(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(c) Option (3)

Question 4.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5× 1 = 5)
A. Now the name of the little black kitten was Ink
and the little grey mouse, she called him Blink,
And the little yellow dog was sharp as Mustard,
But the dragon was a coward, and she called him Custard.

Custard the dragon had big sharp teeth,
And spikes on top of him and scales underneath,
Mouth like a fireplace, chimney for a nose,
And realio, trulio, daggers on his toes.
(i) Belinda considered every pet animal to be brave except:
(a) kitten
(b) mouse
(c) dog
(d) dragon
Answer:
(d) dragon

(ii) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
(a) abcb; bcbc
(b) abed; abed
(c) abbe; abbe
(d) aab ;ccdd
Answer:
(d) aab ;ccdd

(iii) Which part of dragon was compared to a fire place?
(a) Eyes
(b) Mouth
(c) Nose
(d) Ears
Answer:
(b) Mouth

(iv) The word that DOES NOT indicate the bravery of the dragon is
(a) courage
(b) fearlessness
(c) weakling
(d) boldness
Answer:
(c) weakling

(v) The dragon had scales which were bony plates to protect his:
(a) mouth
(b) felt
(c) nose
(d) skin
Answer:
(d) skin

B. Did you finish your homework, Amanda?
Did you tidy your room, Amanda?
I thought I told you to clean your shoes, Amanda!

(I am an orphan, roaming the street.
I pattern soft dust with my hushed, bare feet.
The silence is golden, the freedom is sweet.)
(i) Here, Amanada’s mother is inquiring Amanda whether she has:
(a) bathed or not
(b) had lunch or not
(c) trimmed her nails or not
(d) done her homework or not
Answer:
(d) done her homework or not

(ii) The second stanza is given in brackets to show that:
(a) the speaker is very sad
(b) the speaker does want to face her mother
(c) the speaker is different than the other stanza
(d) the speaker wants to live secretly
Answer:
(c) the speaker is different than the other stanza

(iii) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
(a) aaa; bbb
(b) abc; abc
(c) abb; cdd
(cl) aab; cdd
Answer:
(a) aaa; bbb

(iv) At this point of time, Amanda imagines herself to be:
(a) a mermaid
(b) a princess
(c) an orphan
(d) a queen
Answer:
(c) an orphan

(v) Amanda wants to play in:
(a) a clean park
(b) a clean field
(c) a garden
(d) dust with her bare feet
Answer:
(d) dust with her bare feet

Grammar (10 Marks)
Question 5.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the note about India  – a great nation. (3 × 1 = 3)
Freedom (i) ………………. in India. Unity in diversity is the hallmark of this country. India (ii) …………… a country in her long history. She is a giver, not a taker. She (iii) …………….. the concept of zero to the world and several other things. Undoubtedly the list is endless and
unparalleled.
(i) (a) was worshipped
(b) is worshipped
(c) has worshipped
(d) will worship
Answer:
(b) is worshipped

(ii) (a) never invaded
(b) have never invaded
(c) has never invaded
(d) will never invade
Answer:
(c) has never invaded

(iii) (a) will give
(b) was given
(C) given
(d) gave
Answer:
(d) gave

Question 6.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete Praveen’s narration. (3 x 1 =3)

I found Ashok sad. ‘When I (i) ……………… standing with scooty, he (ii) …………… he was planning to learn scooty. I was surprised and made enquiry how he could learn driving that way. Immediately he silenced my by saying that (iii) …………….. the first step of learning. He
further added that in fact, driving needs planning and practice.
(i) (a) said to him about why
(b) asked him why he was
(c) explained why he was
(d) told him about why
Answer:
(b) asked him why he was

(ii) (a) questioned that
(b) refused that
(e) suggested that
(d) replied that
Answer:
(d) replied that

(iii) (a) this was
(b) this is
(c) it has been
(d) this may be
Answer:
(a) this was

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct options for any four of the six sentences given below. (4 × 1=4)
(i) My father is very busy these days. But he ……………….. find some time for you.
(a) might
(b) has to
(c) must
(d) will
Answer:
(c) must

(ii) My friends as well as I …………….. students of Laxmi Bai College.
(a) have
(b) is
(c) was
(d) were
Answer:
(d) were

(iii) ……………….. the husband and wife are elected to the Assembly.
(a) Every
(b) Both
(c) All
(d) Each
Answer:
(b) Both

(iv) I am very badly in need of a job. I ………………… if you grant me the favour.
(a) shall obliged
(b) shall be obliging
(c) shall be highly oblige
(d) shall be highly obliged
Answer:
(d) shall be highly obliged

(v) On coming back to the city I shall inform you so that you ……………. resume delivering the
paper regularly.
(a) will
(b) may
(c) can
(d) should
Answer:
(b) may

(vi) He was badly beaten by the ruffian. He lay unconscious for ……………… hour and ………………… half.
(a) a, an
(b) the, a
(c) an, a
(d) much, a
Answer:
(c) an, a

Part-B – Subjective Questions (40 Marks)

Writing (10 Marks)
Question 8.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A.You are Sujal/Sujata of Pragya Public School, Nagal, Punjab who had arranged a trip for fifty students of Nanital in summer vacations for ten days with ‘Mount Travels and Tourism’. The arrangements done by the travel agency were far below standard. The accommodation and food facilities were inferior in quality. Write a letter of complaint to the director of the agency to stop duping tourists with false promises as it tarnishes the image of locals. (100-120 words)
Answer:
Pragya Public School
Nagal, Punjab
23rd November, 20x x
The Director
Mount Travels and Tourism
Nagal, Punjab
Sub: Inferior quality of food and accommodation
Sir
I am constrained to express my displeasure and resentment at inferior arrangements made during our tour to Nanital in summer vacations. Our tour was for ten days and arrangement made by your agency was below standard. When we came back home, most of the students fell ill and now they are unable to attend classes. During our negotiation for tour, following promises were made:
(a) Stay in good hotels (b) Food at a good restaurant
As the above promises were not fulfilled, we stayed in a lodge and were forced to eat local food. Consequently most of the students fell ill.
Certainly we are cheated by your agency. You are requested that you should not dupe local people because it tarnishes our image.

Yours sincerely
Sujal

B. India is a highly populated country. People lack in maintaining proper sanitation and hygiene as a result they suffer from various diseases. India has a serious sanitation challenge; around 60 per cent of the world’s open defecation takes place in India. Poor sanitation causes health hazards including diarrhoea, particularly in children under 5 years of age, malnutrition and deficiencies in physical development and cognitive ability. You are Nitish/Nikita, head boy/girl of Anand Public School, Jaipur. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily, highlighting the problem and suggesting practical ways to ensure public sanitation and the right to dignity and privacy. (100¬120 words)

Answer:
Anand Public School
Jaipur
5th October, 20xx
The Editor
Rajasthan Patrika
Jaipur
Sub: Need for public sanitation .
Sir
Through the column of your esteemed daily I want to highlight the serious problem of sanitation. Everybody knows that India is a highly populated country. The people have no proper sanitation and hygiene facilities. Around 60 per cent of the world’s open defecation takes place in India. As a result, people suffer from various diseases. Diarrhoea, among various health hazards, is very common among the children of below five years of age. Poor sanitation also causes deficiencies in physical development and cognitive ability among people.
The government and the concerned authorities must take steps in this regard. They should put the public sanitation facilities at important places of villages, towns and cities. Besides, people should be made aware of diseases caused by open defecation. Sanitation should become our right to ensure dignity and privacy.

Yours faithfully
Nitish Head Boy

Question 9.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. A comparative study took place to find the number of working men and women in India. Write an analytical paragraph in 100-120 words and compare where relevant.

Answer:
The bar chart indicates a comparative study between the number of working men and women in India since 2010 to 2020.
Initially, in the year 2010, the number of working women was low at 6000 which was comparatively less than the number of working men. However, in 2015, sharp rise can be seen in the number of working women and men.
Surprisingly, the year 2020 shows a significant change in the data and shows equal number of working men and women in the country.
Therefore, it is clear that there is no discrimination between the number of working men and women in India.

B. See the line graph given below. Write an analytical paragraph in 100-120 words and compare where relevant. This informs you about dropouts over forty years from college.

Answer:
The given bar chart shows men and women dropped out over forty years from college. There could be various reasons to that. Between 1957 and 1997, the change was significant for male category. 20% of men dropped out from college while women who dropped out where at 40% in the year 1957.

Between 1967 and 1977, things almost turned opposite. 30% of men dropped out in 1967 while 30% of women dropped out in 1977 which was less than 1967. Almost 50% of men dropped out from college in 1987 while the dropping rate for women declined at 30% in the last part, the dropout rate of men and women parallel against each other.

Literature (30 Marks) 
Question 10.
Answer any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 2 = 8)
A. (any two) (2×2 = 4)
(i) Why does Anne feel that writing in a diary is really a strange experience?
Answer:
It must be remembered that Anne Frank was just a thirteen-year-old girl. She was in the hiding and cut off from the larger world. She was hesitant that no one would be interested in the musings of a young girl. She had never written anything before. So, it was naturally a strange experience for her.

(ii) What is the general rule of this ‘world of possessions’? Why is money ‘external’?
Answer:
Getting and losing is a natural cycle. Many more boys before him bought and lost their balls. This process will go on forever. However, no amount of money can buy back the same ball that has been lost forever. Money is external and has its own limitation. Wealth can’t compensate such emotional losses such as the loss of one’s childhood days.

(iii) What was the next problem after Valli had enough money?
Answer:
After she had saved enough money, Valli had her next problem. It was how to slip out of the house without her mother’s knowledge. She solved this problem easily. Every day after lunch her mother would nap from about one to four or so. She could easily venture out on her mission.

B. (any two) (2×2 = 4)
(i) What impression did the narrator (the lawyer) form of Bill when he met him for the first time?
Answer:
The narrator found the delivery man at the station as the only ‘agreeable sight’ in Ne Mullion. The man called himself Bill and he was a hack driver. He was about forty. He looked red-faced and cheerful. He looked thick in the middle. His working clothes were dirty and worn out. His manners were pleasant and friendly. The narrator was happy to meet such a man.

(ii) Why and where did Richard Ebright send the tagged butterflies?
Answer:
At the end of the book, The Travels of Monarch X, readers were invited to help study monarch butterflies’ migration. They were asked to tag butterflies for research by Dr Urquhart. Soon, Richard Ebright was attaching light adhesive tags to the wings of monarch butterflies. He used to send them to Dr Urquhart for his research work.

(iii) Was Bishamber a suitable bridegroom for Bholi? Give your opinion.
Answer:
No, Bishamber was not at all a suitable match for Bholi. No doubt, he was rich. He had a big shop, a house of his own and thousands of rupees in the bank. But he was mean, greedy and a worthless man. When he came to know of the pock-marks on Bholi’s face, he demanded a dowry of 5000 rupees to marry her. Even the turban of Ramlal at his feet couldn’t melt his heart. Bholi did the right thing to reject him.

Question 11.
Answer any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 3 = 12)
A. (any two) (2 × 3 = 6)
(i) Why would you not agree with Lencho calling them ‘a bunch of crooks’?
Answer:
Lencho was not at all justified in calling them ‘a bunch of crooks’ because they helped
him by collecting money.

(ii) Who invites the comment – “he is dressed like a pader”? Why?
Answer:
Any person who wears a half-pant which reaches just below the knees, invites the comment that he is dressed like a pader. The reason is simple. He resembles a baker who is wearing such a funny dress.

(iii) What do you think was the speaker’s attitude towards Amanda?
Answer:
The speaker is concerned about Amanda and wants to instil good habits and behaviour in her. The speaker wants her to give up bad habits and be organised in life. The speaker constantly keeps instructing her with do’s and don’ts and doesn’t want Amanda to look gloomy.

B. (any two) (2 ×3 = 6)
(i) Hari Singh is both a thief and a human being. Explain.
Answer:
No doubt Hari is a thief as well as a good human being. Situations compel a person to become either beast or remain as a human being. Even goodness and nobility of a person changes anyone’s heart and mind.

(ii) Bholi’s heart was overflowing with a ‘new hope and a new life’. What does the phrase ‘the new hope and the new life’ mean?
Answer:
It means, ‘To serve her parents in old age and tp teach the students in the same school where she had learnt so much’.

(iii) How did Mr Loisel meet the demand of a suitable costume for his wife for going to the ball?
Answer:
Matilda refused to go to the ball without having a suitable costume for the occasion. Her husband asked her to wear the dress that she wore while going to the theatre. When Matilda reacted strongly, he asked how much a suitable costume would cost. She replied that it would cost 400 francs. Mr Loisel turned pale. He had saved 400 francs to buy a gun for him to shoot larks. But he bowed down and agreed to give 400 francs to have a pretty dress.

Question 12.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Simple moment proves to be very significant and saves rest of the day of the poet from being wasted. Explain on the basis of the poem ‘Dust of Snow’.
Answer:
In this poem, Robert Frost praises and describes different positions of nature. Here he touches different aspects of natural sights. There are many things in nature that are not considered auspicious like – crow and hemlock. Crow is not considered a good bird. Similarly, hemlock tree is a poisonous tree and that is why it is the symbol of sadness.

When the crow shakes off the dust of snow from the hemlock tree, it falls on the poet. Thus the poet’s mood changes due to this incident. Robert Frost, in this poem, represents the crow and hemlock tree as inauspicious. But when the crow shakes off the dust of snow from the hemlock tree, it falls on the poet. It changes his dejected mood and saves the day from being spoilt.

B. Why was the whole class ‘quaking in its boots’? Why were teachers the most unpredictable creatures on earth?
Answer:
It was the day of destiny for students. The reason was quite simple. In the forthcoming meeting the teachers were going to decide who would move up in the next class. They were also to decide who would be kept back in the same class. The entire class was ‘quaking in its boots’. Half the class was making bets. Two silly boys, C.N. and Jacques had staked their entire holiday savings on their bets.

One would encourage the other. Anne felt that there were so many dummies or worthless students in the class. She felt that a quarter of the class should be kept back. Anne also felt that teachers were the most unpredictable creatures on earth. They work according to their whims. Naturally, the girls and boys were worried. They waited for the verdict with their fingers crossed.

Question 13.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Mrs Pumphrey thought that her dog’s recovery was a triumph of surgery. Elaborate.
Answer:
Mrs Pumphrey was worried on noticing Tricki’s listlessness, bouts of vomiting and lack of interest in food. She could not bear to see him in pain. She called on Dr Herriot who advised hospitalisation for Tricki for a fortnight. The doctor knew that the chief cause of Tricki’s ailment was overfeeding.

He was confident that by restricting the dog’s diet he would be able to make him well again. Keeping a vigilant eye on him, the doctor served him plenty of water but no food for the first two days. Tricki regained perfect health within a span of few days. According to Mrs. Pumphrey, such quick and complete cure is usually possible only after surgery, so she thought that Tricki’s recovery was a triumph of surgery.

B. People should always try to live within their means. Aspiration have no limits but one should never forget the ground realities. Elaborate on the basis of the chapter, “The Necklace”.
Answer:
Matilda was a pretty young woman. But she was a day-dreamer. Although she was bom in a poor family, yet she dreamt to have costly dresses and jewellery. She wanted to be honoured and respected like the rich. One day her husband showed her an invitation from a minister.

She emotionally forced him to buy a new and costly dress for the ball. After this, she borrowed a diamond necklace from her friend, Forestier. She enjoyed the party heartily. She danced with enthusiasm. But she lost the necklace and in this way their problems started. To replace the necklace her husband had to borrow a substantial amount on a very high rate of interest. To repay that amount, they lived in a rented house. She did all the household work by herself. Mr Loisel worked extra to earn small wages.

Thus, it is correctly said that we should always live within one’s means. Our aspirations have no limits. But we should never forget the ground realities. If Matilda had knowledge of this fact, her life would not have changed into realities.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions and marking scheme Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Express 5005 as a product of its prime factors.
Solution :
5005 = 5 × 7 × 11 ×13

Question 2.
Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 6x² – 3 – 7x
Solution :
Here, p (x) = 6x² – 3 – 7x = 6x² – 7x – 3
= 6x² – 9x + 2x – 3 = 3x (2x – 3) + 1  (2x – 3) +1 (2x- 1)
(2x – 3) (3x + 1)
=\(6\left(x-\frac{3}{2}\right)\left[x-\left(-\frac{1}{3}\right)\right]\)
∴ Zeroes of p (x) are \(\frac{3}{2} \text { and }-\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 3.
H.C.F and L.C.M of two numbers is 9 and 459 respectively. If one of the two numbers is 27. Find the other number. If  \(\frac{241}{4000}=\frac{241}{2^{m} 5^{n}}\) find the values of m and n, where m and n are non negative integers. Hence write its decimal expansion without actual division.
Solution :

Question 4.
Find whether the pair of equations
6x – 3y + 10 = 0
and 2x-y + 9 = 0 are consistent or inconsistent.
Solution :
.

Question 5.
Two numbers are in the ratio 21 : 17. If their HCF is 5, find the numbers. 1
Solution :
Let numbers be 21x and 17 x So, common factors of 21 x and 17 x = x
Also, HCF = 5
⇒ x = 5
∴ Numbers are 21 x 5 and 17 x 5 i.e.: 105 and 85.

Question 6.
In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the area of sector formed by the arc.      OR
A horse is tied to a peg at one comer of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of a 5 m long rope. Find the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze.
Solution :

OR
Length of the rope = Radius, r = 5 m
Angle of sector = 90°
Area of the field that can graze
\(=\frac{\pi r^{2} \theta}{360^{\circ}}=\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{5 \times 5 \times 90^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}\)
= 19.64 sq. m

Question 7.
If one diagonal of a trapezium divides the other diagonal in the ratio 1 : 2. Prove that one of the parallel sides is double the other.
OR
In ΔABC, D and E are points on sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC and AD : DB = 3:1. If EA = 6.6 cm then find AC.
Solution :

Question 8.
Two friends Mohan and Sohan drive a car. The shaded portion of the given figure represents an area swept by the wiper of the car. If OA = 7 cm and AB = 21 cm then Mohan said that area swept by the wiper is 192.5 cm². Is he right? Explain.
Solution :
Let r = 7 cm be the radius of the sector OAD and R = 7 + 21=28cm be the radius of sector OBC.
The area swept by the wiper

= Area of the shaded portion = Area of the sector OBC – Area of the sector OAD
\(=\pi \mathrm{R}^{2} \frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}}-\pi r^{2} \frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}}\)

Question 9.
The ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow on is the angle of elevation of the sun?
Solution :
Let
AB = height of the tower,
BC = length of the shadow and
∠ACB = θ = Angle of elevation of the sun

Question 10.
A metallic sphere of radius 4.2 cm is melted and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius 6 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
Solution :

Let the height of the cylinder = h
Radius of the cylinder (R) = 6 cm
∴ Volume of the cylinder = πR² h = n x (6)² x h
Since, Volume of the cylinder = Volume of the sphere

Question 11.
Find the mode for the frequency distribution table

Class	0-10	10-20	20-30	30-40	40-50	Total
Frequency	8	16	36	34	6	100

Solution :
The highest frequency is 36, which belongs to class 20 – 30.
So, it will be a modal class.

Question 12.
Draw a circle and two lines parallel to a given line such that one is a tangent and the other a secant to the circle.
Solution :
We have the required figure.
Here, l is the given line and a circle with centre O is drawn.

The line PT is drawn which is parallel to l and tangent to the circle.
Also, AB is drawn parallel to line l and is a secant to the circle.

Question 13.
For what value of p, the pair of linear equations
px = 2y
2x – y + 5 = 0 has unique solution?
OR
For what value of k, does the given equation (k + 1 )x² – 2(k – 1 )x + 1 = 0 have real and equal roots?
Solution :
We have:
px = 2y ⇒ px – 2y = 0
2x—y + 5=0 ⇒  2x-y = -5

OR
(k + 1 )x² – 2(k – 1) x + 1 = 0 ⇒ a = k + 1, b = -2(k – 1), c = 1
For equal roots, b² – 4ac = 0 ⇒ [-2(k – 1)]² – 4 x (k + 1) x 1=0
⇒ 4(k – 1)² – 4{k + 1) = 0 ⇒ 4{k² + 1 – 2k) -4k-4 = 0
⇒ 4k² + 4 – 8k – 4k – 4 = 0 ⇒ 4k²-12k = 0 ⇒ 4k(k – 3) = 0
Either  4k = 0 ⇒ k = 0 or k- 3 = 0 = k = 3
Hence k= 0 or k = 3.

Question 14.
Two dice are thrown at the same time and the product of numbers appearing on them is noted. Find the probability that the product is a prime number.
OR
Two dice are thrown at the same time. Find the probability of getting different numbers on the dice.
Solution :
Now for the product of the numbers on the dice is a prime number can be in these possible ways—(1, 2), (2, 1), (1, 3), (3, 1), (5, 1), (1, 5)
So, number of possible ways = 6
∴ Required probability \(=\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)
OR
Since the two dice are thrown simultaneously.
Total number of outcomes = 6 x 6 = 36
Number of outcomes for getting same numbers on both dice = 6
⇒ P (same numbers) = \(\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)
Now, P (different numbers) + P (same numbers) = 1
⇒ P (different numbers) = 1 – P (same numbers)
\(=1-\frac{1}{6}=\frac{5}{6}\)

Question 15.
A ladder long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of with the wall find the height of the wall
Solution :

Question 16.
It is given that a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday is 0.992. What is the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday?
Solution :
We have P(E) + P(not E) = 1 ⇒ P(E) + 0.992 = 1
∴ P(E) = 1 – 0.992 = 0.008.

Section-II

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

Case Study Based-1

Question 17.
For going to city B from city A, there is a route via city C such that AC ⊥ CB, AC = 2x km and CB = 2(x + 7) km. It is proposed to construct a 26 km highway which is directly connect the two cities A and B. In solving such problem authority of the cities have some questions in his mind. Give answer to his following questions:

(i) Which theorem will you use to solve this problem?
(a) Pythagoras theorem
(b) Basic proportionality theorem
(c) Factor theorem
(d) Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic

(ii) What is the distance of AC?
(a) 15 km
(b) 18 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 20 km

(iii) What is the distance of BC?
(a) 12 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 24 km

(iv) Find how much distance will be saved in reaching city B from city A after the construction of the highway.
(a) 6 km
(b) 8 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 12 km

(v) If ∠A is supposed to be 30°, then ∠B = ?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Solution :
(i) (a): Pythagoras theorem

(ii) (c): 10 km
AC² + BC² = AB² ⇒ (2x)² + 2²[x + 7]² = (26)²
⇒ 4x² + 4(x² + 14x + 49) = 676
⇒  x² + 1x – 60 = 0
⇒  (x + 12)(x – 5) = 0
x = -12 or 5(x = -12 neglected as distance cannot be negative).
AC = 2x = 2 x 5 = 10 km.

(iii) (d): 24 km
x = 5
BC = 2(x + 7)
= 2(5 + 7) = 24 km

(iv) (b): 8 km
AC + CB = 10+ 24 = 34 km  AB = 26 km
Difference = 34 km – 26 km = 8 km

(v) (c): 60°
AC ⊥ BC ⇒∠C = 90°
∴ ∠A + ∠B = 90°
⇒ 30° + ∠B = 90°
∠B = 90° – 30° = 60°

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.

In a classroom, 4 friends have decided to seat at the points A, B, C and D as shown in fig. Champa and Chameli walk into the class and after observing for a few minutes Champa asks Chameli some questions which are as follows:

(i) What is the coordinates of A and B?
(a) A(3, 4), B(6, 7)
(b) A(4,3), B(7,6)
(c) A(-3, -4), B(-6, -7)
(d) A( 3, -4), B(-6, -7)

(ii) What is the coordinate of C and D?
(a) C (4, 9), D(l, 6)
(b) C (9,4),D(6,1)
(c) C (-9, -4), D(-6, -1)
(d) C(9, -4). D(6, -1)

(iii) What is the distance between AB?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) \(2 \sqrt{3}\)
(d) \(3 \sqrt{2}\)

(iv) What is the distance between AC?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10

(v) What is the distance between BD?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Solution :
(i) (a): A(3, 4), B(6, 7)
(ii) (b): C(9, 4), D(6, 1)

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
Due to sudden floods, some welfare associations jointly requested the government to get 100 tents fixed immediately and ordered to contribute 50% of the cost. If the lower part of each tent is of the form of a cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4 m, and a conical upper part of same diameter and height 2.8 m. The canvas to be used costs ? 100 per sq. m. Find the amount that the associations will have to pay.

(i) Find the formula to find the volume of the cylinder.
(a) \(\pi r^{2} h\)
(b) \(\pi r^{3} h \)
(c) \(\pi r^{2} h^{2} \)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\)

(ii) What is the formula for the lateral surface of the conical portion of the tent?
(a) \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\)
(b) \(\pi r^{2} h\)
(c) \(πrl\)
(d) \(2πrh\)

(iii) What is the volume of the tent?
(a) 85.66 cu.m
(b) 100 cu.m
(c) 225.66 cu.m
(d) 125.66 cu.m

(iv) What is the curved surface area of the tent?
(a) 75.9 sq.m
(b) 85.6 sq.m
(c) 65.9 sq.m
(d) 95.9 sq.m

(v) What is the cost of canvas to be used to cover 100 such tents from all around?
(a) ₹  580,000
(b) ₹ 379,500
(c) ₹ 448,000
(d) ₹ 279,500
Solution :
(i) (a) : \(\pi r^{2} h\)
(ii) (c): πrl
(iii) (d): 125.66 cu.m
Volume of the tent = Volume of cylindrical portion of the tent + volume of conical portion of the tent.

(iv)
(a) Curved surface area of the tent
= Lateral surface area of conical portion + curve surface area of the cylindrical portion of the tent.

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
Due to heavy storm and rainfall, electric wire broke down on a chauraha and it disturbed the traffic. One piece of the wire is shown in the figure which followed some mathematical shape. Answer the following questions below:

(i) Find the coordinates where does the graph cut the x-axis.
(a) (-5, 0), (-2, 0), (2, 0)
(b) (-5, 0), (-2, 0), (0, 2)
(c) (-2, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0)
(d)  (-5, 0), (0, 2), (2, 0)

(ii) Find number of zeroes of the graph y =f(x)
(a)  0
(b)  2
(c) 1
(d) 3

(iii) Find the zeroes of the graph y =f(x)
(a) -5, 0,    2
(b)  -5, -2, 2
(c) -2, 0, 2
(d) -5,   -2, 0

(iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial?
(a)  x³ +  5x² – 4x – 20
(b) x³ +    5x² + 4x – 20
(c)  x³ +   5x² + 4x + 20
(d) x³ –     5x² + 4x + 20

(v) What is the value of the polynomial if x = -5?
(a) -125
(b) 125
(c) 0
(d)  1
Solution :
(i) (a) : (-5, 0), (-2, 0), (2, 0)

(ii) (d) : 3
Since the graph v =f(x) crosses the x-axis at three different points. So, numbers of zeroes is 3.

(iii) (b): -5, -2, 2
Here graphy -fix) intersects the x-axis in (-5, 0), (-2, 0) and (2, 0). So, zeroes of f (x) are x-coordinate of these points.
∴ Zeroes of y(x) are -5, -2 and 2.

(iv) (a): x³ + 5x² – 4x – 20
∵  Zeroes of f(x) are -5, -2 and 2.
So, factors of f(x) are (x + 5)(x + 2) and (x – 2)
∴ Expression of the polynomial
= (x + 5)(x + 2)(x – 2)
= x³ + 5x² – 4x – 20.

(v) (c): 0
Put  x = -5 in /(x) = x³ + 5x² – 4x – 20
⇒ A-5) = (-5)³ + 5(-5)² – 4( 5) -20
= -125+ 125 + 20-20 = 0

Part-B
Section-III

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.

Question 21.
Find the fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices are A(-2, 3), B(6, 7), and C(8, 3).
OR
If the distances of P(x,y) from the points A(3, 6) and B(-3,4) are equal, prove that 3x + y = 5.
Solution :

Question 22.
In the given figure, AB || DE and BD || EF. Prove that DC² = CF x AC.
Solution :

Question 23.
Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Solution :
Since ABCD is a ||gm
∴ AB = CD and AD = BC
∵  Tangents from an external point to a circle are equal,
∴ AP = AS
BP = BQ RC = QC DR = DS
⇒ (AP + PB) + (RC + DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + QC)
⇒ AB + CD = AD + BC
⇒  2 AB = 2 AD ⇒  AB = AD
i.e., ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 24.
Draw a line segment of length 7.6 cm and divide it in the ratio 5 : 8. Measure the two parts.
Solution :
Steps:
(i) Draw AB = 7.6 cm.
(ii) Draw ray AX making any suitable angle with AB.
(iii) Draw ray BY parallel to ray AX by making alternate angles BAX and ABY equal.
(iv) Since 5 + 8=13, from AX cut thirteen equal segments AA₁ A₁A₂, A₂A₃, …, a₁₂a₁₃.
(v) Also,from BY cut 13 equal segments (of the same size as taken in step (iv) BB₁, B₁B₂, B₂B₃,…, B₁₂B₁₃.

(vi) Join A₅ with B₈.
Line joining A₅ and B₈ cuts line segment AB at point P
∴ P is the required point such that AP : PB = 5 : 8.
On measuring we find: AP = 2.9 cm and BP = 4.7 cm

Question 25.
Find the value of other t-ratios if \(\tan \theta=\frac{2 m n}{m^{2}-n^{2}}\)
OR
If \(\cot \theta=\frac{7}{8}\) , then what is the value of \(\frac{(1+\cos \theta)(1-\cos \theta)}{(1-\sin \theta)(1+\sin \theta)}\)
Solution :

Question 26.
Find the sum of the first 51 terms of an AP whose second term is 2 and fourth term is 8. 2
Solution :
Given, a₂= 2 = a + d
and a₄ = 8 = a + 2d
From (i) and (ii),
2 d – 6 ⇒ d = 3
and a = – 1

Section – IV 

Question 27.
Prove that \(2 \sqrt{3}-7\) is an irrational.
Solution :

Question 28.
If two tangents inclined at an angle 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 5 cm, then find the length of each tangent.

Solution :

Question 29.
A number consists of two digits, where the number is divided by the sum of its digits, the quotient is 7. If 27 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places, find the number.
Solution :

Solving for x and y, we get x = 3 and y = 6
Number = 63.

Question 30.
A school has five houses, A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from house B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student is selected at random to be the class monitor. Find the probability that the selected student is not from A, B and C.
OR
A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is:
(i) a jack or a king
(ii) a non-ace
(in) a red card
Solution :
T(E) = 23
F(E) = not from A, B, C i.e. = 23 – (4 + 8 + 5)
F(E)= 23 – 17 = 6
\(P(F)=\frac{6}{23}\)
OR

Question 31.
A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 m and conical above it. If its base radius is 52.5 m and slant height of the conical portion is 53 m, find the area of the canvas needed to make the tent.                                                                          Solution :
For cylindrical part:
We have, radius (r) = 52.5 m
Curved Surface area = 2πrh

For the conical part:
Slant height (l) = 53 m
Radius (r) = 52.5 m
Curved surface area = nπl
Area of the canvas = 2nπh + πrl = πr (2h + l)

Question 32.
Prove that: tan² A – tan² B =\(\frac{\sin ^{2} A-\sin ^{2} B}{\cos ^{2} A \cdot \cos ^{2} B}\)
Solution :

Question 33.
Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182.
OR
The two numbers differ by 2 and their product is 360. Find the numbers.
Solution :
Here, sum of the numbers is 27.
Let one of the numbers be x.
∴ Other number = 21 -x According to the condition,
Product of the numbers = 182 ⇒
⇒  x (27 – x) = 182
⇒ 27x – x² = 182
⇒ -x² + 27x – 182 = 0
⇒ x² – 27x+ 182 = 0
⇒ x² – 13x – 14x + 182 = 0 ∵ – 27 = (- 13) + (- 14) and (- 13) x (- 14)= 182
⇒ x(x- 13)- 14 (x- 13)= 0
Either x – 13 = 0 ⇒ x = 13
or x – 14 = 0 ⇒ x = 14
when first number is 13, then other number = 27-13 = 14
and when first number is 14 then other number is 27 – 14 = 13.
Thus, the required numbers are 13 and 14.
OR
Let the two numbers be x and x + 2 According to the questions,
x(x + 2) = 360
⇒ x² + 2x = 360 ⇒ x² + 2x – 360 = 0
Splitting the middle term, we get
x² + 20x -18x – 360 = 0 ⇒ x(x + 20) – 18(x + 20) = 0
⇒(x + 20)(x — 18) = 0 ⇒ x = -20 or x = 18
When x = -20, x + 2 = -20 + 2 = -18
When x = 18,x + 2 = 18 + 2 = 20
Hence, the required numbers are -20, -18 or 18, 20.

Section-V

Question 34.
A tree breaks due to a storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground making an angle 30° with it. The distance between the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 Find the height of the tree.
OR
A moving boat is observed from the top of a 150 m high cliff moving away from the cliff. The angle of depression of the boat changes from 60° to 45° in 2 minutes. Find the speed of the boat in m/min.
Solution :

Let the original height of the tree = OP.
It is broken at A and its top is touching the ground at B.
Now, in right Δ AOB, we have

Question 35.
If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P. is 49 and that of first 17 terms is 289, find the sum of n
Solution :
Let the first term = a and the common difference = d.
Using  \(S_{n}=\frac{n}{2}[2 a+(n-1) d]\)

Question 36.
The mean of the following frequency distribution is 57.6. and the number of observations is 50. Find the missing frequencies f₁ and f₂.

Class	0-20	20-40	40-60	60-80	80-100	100-120
Frequency	7	f1	12	f2	8	5

Solution :

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options given below.
(a) They emphasised the concept of government by the consent of the people.
(b) They criticized the glorification of science.
(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.
(d) They did not stood for the freedom of markets.
Answer:
(a) They emphasised the concept of government by the consent of the people.

Question 2.
What did Germania symbolise?
(a) French nation
(b) German nation
(c) British nation
(d) Greek nation
Answer:
(b) German nation

Question 3.
What does Satyagraha mean?
(a) Fight against injustice
(b) Complete independence
(c) Following the path of truth and non-violence
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Following the path of truth and non-violence

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
India is the …………. largest producer of sugar in the world.
Or
Tourism in ………… has grown over the last three decades.
Answer:
second
Or
India

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the ports of India from the following options:
(a) Kandla – Rajasthan
(b) Marmagao – Kerala
(c) Paradwip – Odisha
(d) Tuticorin – West Bengal
Answer:
(c) Paradwip – Odisha

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Tea and coffee: Laterite soils, Maize and pulses: Arid soils, …………….. : Black soils
(a) Rubber and coconut
(b) Barley and spices
(c) Cotton and jowar
(d) Wheat and cinchona
Answer:
(c) Cotton and jowar

Question 7.
Identify the crop with the help of the following features.

• A tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop.
• Grows well in hot and humid climate.
• India is the second largest producer after Brazil.

Answer:
Sugarcane

Question 8.
The first jute mill was set up near Calcutta (now Kolkata) at Rishra in
(a) 1955
(b) 1947
(c) 1855
(d) 1856
Answer:
(c) 1855

Question 9.
The …………… is a national party.
(a) Aam Aadmi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Samajwadi Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer:
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party

Question 10.
Which community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
Or
Why is power sharing good?
Answer:
The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium.
Or
Power sharing reduces the possibility of conflict between different social groups.

Question 11.
Why do parties sometimes launch movements?
Or
Which form of government is considered the best?
Answer:
Parties sometimes launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.
Or
Democracy is the most popular form of government in the contemporary set up.

Question 12.
Read the given data and find out which country is at the top regarding GNI and HDI rank in
the world.

Source: Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, New York
(a) Nepal
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. She gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets provident fund as per the rule laid down by the government. She also gets medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to office on Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter starting all the terms and conditions of work.
Like Kanta, people who work in the organised sector-
(a) do not worry about medical benefits and pensions
(b) do not get security of employment
(c) do not get overtime
(d) are not sure about their paid leaves, medical benefits, etc.

Or

Many people work in the unorganised sector. Which of the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) It provides medical benefits.
(b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) It is one where the terms of employment are regular.
(d) Jobs are low paid and some kind of work is seasonal in nature.
Answer:
(a) do not worry about medical benefits and pensions

Or

(d) Jobs are low paid and some kind of work is seasonal in nature.

Question 14.
Who supervises the functioning of formal source of loans?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Central Bank of India
(d) Moneylenders
Answer:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 15.
Read the following statements in context of the ‘foreign trade’ and choose the correct
option.
(a) Foreign trade implies exchange of goods and services across the countries.
(b) It helps to expand the size of market for producers.
(c) Producers and consumers can get commodities produced in any part of the world.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): MNCs have been attracted towards the Indian market.
Reason (R): The Government of India has allowed flexibility in labour laws.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Section-B

Question 17.
Who had designed the ‘swaraj flag’ by 1921? Explain the main features of this ‘swaraj flag’.
Answer:
By 1921, Mahatma Gandhi had designed the ‘swaraj flag’.
During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims. In 1921, the Gandhiji’s designed swaraj flag was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a shining wheel at the centre, that representating the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the ‘swaraj flag’, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

Question 18.
Describe the events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to
other parts of Europe.
Or
Why in the years after 1848, the autocrats of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815? Explain.
Answer:

• When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle-classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
• Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.
• With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.

Or

• Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could not restore the old order. Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles or revolution and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.
• Hence, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
• Thus, serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominations and in Russia. The Habsburg rules ganted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Question 19.
Classify industries according to their main role.
Answer:
According to their main role, industries are of two types:

1. Basic or Key:
   Industries which supply their raw materials to manufacture other goods. Example: Iron and steel, copper smelting, aluminium smelting.
2. Consumers:
   Industries produce goods for direct use by consumers. Example: Sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, etc.

Question 20.
What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s? Where was this tension more acute, and why?
Or
What were the majoritarian measures taken in Sri Lanka to establish Sinhala supremacy?
Answer:

• The minority French-speaking community in Belgium was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later.
• This led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.

This tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. It was so, because, the Dutch-speaking people constituted majority in the country, but minority in the capital, i.e. Brussels.

Or

When Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948, the leaders of the Sinhala community tried to dominate over the government by virtue of their majority. In order to establish their supremacy they took some ‘majoritarian measures’ which are given below:

• In 1956, an Act was passed which declared Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
• Preferences were given to Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs.
• A new Constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and promote Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually strained the relationship between the two communities.

Question 21.
Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is useful? Explain how?
Answer:
Yes, the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is very useful because of the following reasons:
(i) On account of the information it provides we come to know how and where the people of ,a country are employed.

(ii) It helps in ascertaining as to which sector of economic activity contributes more or less to the country’s GDP and per capita income.

(iii) If the tertiary sector is developing much faster than the primary sector, it implies that agriculture is depleting, and the government must take measures to rectify this. The knowledge that the agricultural profession is becoming unpopular or regressive can only come if we know which sector it belongs to. Hence, it is necessary to classify economic activities into these three basic sectors for smooth economic administration and development.

Question 22.
In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries.What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw materials, food stuffs and finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. But with the emergence of multinational corporations (MNCs), things have been changed.

These MNCs are spreading their production and interacting with local producers in various countries across the globe. Foreign trade integrates markets. It creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.

Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 x 1 = 4)

The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of lapatrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.

A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
When did the French Revolution take place? (1)
(a) In 1889
(b) In 1789
(c) In 1788
(d) In 1751
Answer:
(b) In 1789

Question 23.2.
Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options:
(a) To establish republic
(b) To provide equal rights for all
(c) To create a sense for collective responsibility
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.3.
What does the idea of la patrie mean?
(a) The fatherland
(b) The motherland
(c) The citizen
(d) The Constitution
Answer:
(a) The fatherland

Question 23.4.
Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries?
(a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen
(b) The tricolour French flag
(c) Hymns composed
(d) Regional dialects were encouraged
Answer:
(d) Regional dialects were encouraged

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 x 1 = 4)

Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.

Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Resource planning is a complex process which involves : (i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources, (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans, (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
…………… of is not …………… essential for a developed region.
(a) Availability; resources
(b) Valuation; resources
(c) Utilisation; resources
(d) Valuation; planning
Answer:
(b) Valuation; resources

Question 24.2.
There are some regions of India where availability of resources is sufficient, but in some regions, these are acute shortage of important resources. Identify which of the following belongs to:

Regions	Features
a. Jharkhand	1. Endowed of solar energy
b. Rajasthan	2. Abundance of water resources
c. Ladakh	3. Coal deposits
d. Arunachal Pradesh	4. Deficient in water resources

Choose the correct option:
(a) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
(b) a – 4, b – 2, c – 3, d -1
(c) a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2
(d) a – 2, b – 3, c – 1, d – 4
Answer:
(c) a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2

Question 24.3.
The state of Rajasthan lacks in
(a) Water resources
(b) Soil resources
(c) Biotic resources
(d) Potential resources
Answer:
(a) Water resources

Question 24.4.
Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning?
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country
(b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 x 1 = 4)

The Constitution of India originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the State governments. Later a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these difference tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
The Indian Constitution provides
(a) Two-tier system of government
(b) Three-tier system of government
(c) Four-tier system of government
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Three-tier system of government

Question 25.2.
What is the first-tier of government in India called?
(a) District Government
(b) Provincial Government
(c) Central Government Municipalities are set up in
(d) Community Government
Answer:
(c) Central Government Municipalities are set up in

Question 25.3.
Municipalities are set up in ……………….
(a) houses
(b) towns
(c) villages
(d) metropolitan cities
Answer:
(b) towns

Question 25.4.
Which government legislates on residuary subjects?
(a) State Government
(b) Local Government
(c) Community Government
(d) Union Government
Answer:
(d) Union Government

Question 26.
26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 x 1 = 4)

The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate answer. 

Question 26.1.
How is GDP calculated?
(a) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(b) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.
(c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(d) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years provides the total production of the sector for that year.
Answer:
(c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production in the three sectors.

Question 26.2.
What do final goods and services mean?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Those goods and services that finally reach the consumers
(c) Those goods and services that are out of reach of consumers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Those goods and services that finally reach the consumers

Question 26.3.
In how many sectors does the sum of production give GDP of a country?
(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer:
(d) Three

Question 26.4.
Who is responsible for collecting data for the GDP in India?
(a) Central Government ministry
(b) State Government ministry
(c) Mayor
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Central Government ministry

Section-D

Question 27.
What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity among
the French people?
Or
Choose some examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in Europe.
Answer:
The first clear cut expression of nationalism came in France with the French Revolution. To make the Revolution a success it was very important to instill a sense of unity in every citizen. To achieve it, various measures and practices were followed:

• A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard.
• The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
• The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the nation of a united community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution.
• New hymns were composed, oaths were taken and martyrs were commemorated, all in the name of the nation.
• A centralised administrative system practising uniform laws for all citizens within its territory was set up.
• Internal custom duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
• Regional languages were discouraged and French was adopted as the common language of the nation.

Or

(i) Culture played a vital role in creating the idea of the nation, viz, art and poetry, stories and music helped to express and arouse nationalist feelings. Romantic artists and poets made deliberate efforts to create a sense of shared collective heritage, a common cultural past as the basis of a nation.

(ii) The German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder stated that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of nation was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.

The French painter Delacroix depicted an incident through his painting in which about 20,0 Greeks were assumed to have been killed by Turks. By dramatising the incident and focusing on the suffering of women and children Delacroix wanted to appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks.

Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

(iii) Language played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. Regional languages had always been an obstacle in the unification of a country. To overcome it, a common national language was adopted. The Polish language was forced out of schools and the Russian language was made obligatory everywhere.

(iv) In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place but it was crushed. After the failure of this rebellion, members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish became a common language in church gatherings and all religious instruction. As a result, several priests and bishops were put in jail by the Russian authorities as punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance.

(v) Conservatives were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848.

Question 28.
What do you know about agriculture? Give its significance.
Or
Describe the types of farming practised in India.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture is a primary activity which produces most of the food that we consume. Two- thirds of India’s population is engaged in agricultural activities.

(ii) Agriculture has been in practice in India for thousands of years and continuous use of land without well-matched techno-institutional reforms have slowed the pace of agricultural development. Most of the farmers in large parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility of soil. Also rapid growth in population put pressure on the agricultural production as more than 60 percent of India’s population depends on agriculture.

(iii) Agriculture in India produces raw materials for various industries, e.g., paper industry, textile industry, etc.

(iv) Agriculture contributes a lot to the national economy, employment and output. It provides employment and livelihood to about 63% of population. All other sectors of Indian economy heavily depend on agriculture for their growth.

Or

Two-thirds of India’s population is engaged in agricultural or farming activities. Different types of farming are in practice here:
(i) Primitive Subsistence Farming:
It is still practised in a few parts of India on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks. It depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. It is also known as ‘Slash and Bum’ agriculture.

In this type of farming, farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family and when the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. It helps in allowing nature to reload the fertility of the soil through natural processes. Land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modem inputs.

(ii) Intensive Subsistence Farming:
It is practised in areas where population pressure on land is high. High amount of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for higher production. It is practised in West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh. Farm size is small and uneconomical due to the division of land. The farmers take maximum output from the limited land.

(iii) Commercial Farming:
In such farming there is a use of higher doses of modem inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.

(iv), Plantation Farming: It is a type of commercial farming where single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. The production is mainly for market and all the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. It requires well-developed network of transport and communication to connect the plantation areas, processing industries and markets together. In India, tea, coffee, mbber, sugarcane, bananas, etc. are important plantation crops. This type of farming is practised in Assam and North Bengal (tea), and Karnataka (coffee).

Question 29.
How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government?
Answer:
(i) Accountable Government:
Democracy refers to an accountable government because it is the government of the people, by the people and for the people. The representatives elected by the people are responsible to them. If the people are not happy with the government they can change the leaders in coming elections.

(ii) Responsive Government:
A citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures can find this out. He has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This type of transparency is not available in non-democratic government.

(iii) Legitimate Government:
There is one aspect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean but a democratic government is people’s own government. So people wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They favour democracy as a government.

Question 30.
Give a comparative study of the ways in which the Belgian and Sri Lankan governments dealt with the problem of cultural diversities.
Or
What lessons do we leam from the principles of majoritarianism and accommodation followed in Sri Lanka and Belgium respectively?
Answer:
Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few km off the southern coast of Tamil Nadu. It has about two crore people, about the same as in Haryana. Sri Lanka has a diverse population. Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

It has a population of a little over one crore, about half of the population of Haryana. The ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex. The Belgian leaders, in order to solve the problem of cultural diversities, adopted a compromising path. They amended their Constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together peacefully within the same country.

It was declared that no single community can make decisions unilaterally. Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities enjoy equal representation. These measures helped to avoid civic strife between the two communities and a possible division of the country on linguistic lines. Sri Lanka presents a different story.

The leaders of the majority community namely the Sinhala adopted a series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. An Act was passed in 1956 which recognised Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The government followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs.

These measures gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. Their relations with the Sinhala community got strained over time which finally resulted in civil war.

Or

Lessons learnt from Belgium:
In Belgium, the leaders realised that unity of the country could be maintained by respecting the feelings and interests of the different communities living in the country. So they worked on the principle of accommodation whereby mutually acceptable arrangement of sharing power were evolved. A possible division of the country on linguistic lines was also avoided.

Lessons from Sri Lanka:
In a country if a majority community learns to face its dominance over others and refuses to share power it can undermine the unity of the country.

Question 31.
“Different people can have different developmental goals.” Support the statement with examples.
Or
What does sustainability of development mean? How can sustainable development be achieved?
Answer:
The statement ‘different people have different goals of development’ is as because:

• People come from different background.
• Different people have different dreams of aspirations.
• People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situations.
• People may change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to previous goal. For example, a person willing to go for higher education but will change his goal and go for employment because weak economic situation of the family.
• People seek things that are most important for them i.e. things that can fulfill their aspiration or desires.
• Examples:
  • Development for a farmer might be proper irrigation facilities.
  • For an urban youth, it may be employment.
  • For a landless labourer, it may be land.
  • For a girl, it might be mean of gender equality or more freedom.

Or

Sustainability of development means that development which is not only for the present time but is also for the future generations. Sustainability is the capacity to use the resources judiciously and maintain the ecological balance.

Sustainable development can be achieved through:
(i) Every generation wants to get the maximum benefits from the available resources but such a thing would be quite disastrous because the available resources shall be exhausted within a short time and the coming generations will be deprived of such resources.

(ii) Environmental degradation can be observed in different ways. Deforestation, falling levels of groundwater, soil erosion, water pollution, burning of fossil fuels, the hole in the ozone layer and combustion from automobiles causing extreme air pollution especially in urban areas are some of the examples of environmental degradation.

Sustainable development can be achieved by judicious use of both renewable and non-renewable resources and without disturbing the balance of environment keeping in mind the requirement for present and future generations.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Salal Dam
(b) Bokaro Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
(d) West Bengal – the largest producer of rice
(e) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer:

 

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course A Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 4 for Practice

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न ( अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
संघर्ष के मार्ग में अकेले ही चलना पड़ता है। कोई बाहरी शक्ति आपकी सहायता नहीं करती है। परिश्रम, दृढ़ इच्छा शक्ति व लगन आदि मानवीय गुण व्यक्ति को संघर्ष करने और जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त करने का मार्ग प्रशस्त करते हैं। दो महत्वपूर्ण तथ्य स्मरणीय हैं- प्रत्येक समस्या अपने साथ संघर्ष लेकर आती है।

प्रत्येक संघर्ष के गर्भ में विजय निहित रहती है। एक अध्यापक ने अध्ययन छोड़ने वाले अपने छात्रों को यह संदेश दिया था- तुम्हें जीवन में सफल होने वे लिए समस्याओं से संघर्ष करने का अभ्यास करना होगा। हम कोई भी कार्य करें, सर्वोच्च शिखर पर पहुँचने का संकल्प लेकर चलें।

सफलता हमें कभी निराश नहीं करेगी। समस्त ग्रंथों और महापुरुषों के अनुभवों का निष्कर्ष यह है कि संघर्ष से डरना अथवा उससे विमुख होना अहितकर है, मानव धर्म के प्रतिकूल है और अपने विकास को अनावश्यक रूप से बाधित करना है। आप जागिए, उठिए दृढ़-संकल्प और उत्साह एवं साहस के साथ संघर्ष रूपी विजय रथ पर चढ़िए और अपने जीवन के विकास की बाधाओं रूपी शत्रुओं पर विजय प्राप्त कीजिए।

(i) मनुष्य को संघर्ष करने और जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त करने का मार्ग प्रशस्त करते हैं
(क) निर्भीकता, साहस, परिश्रम
(ख) परिश्रम, लगन, आत्मविश्वास
(ग) साहस, दृढ़ इच्छाशक्ति, परिश्रम
(घ) परिश्रम, दृढ़ इच्छाशक्ति व लगन
उत्तर
(घ) परिश्रम, दृढ़ इच्छाशक्ति व लगन

(ii) प्रत्येक समस्या अपने साथ लेकर आती है
(क) संघर्ष
(ख) कठिनाइयाँ
(ग) चुनौतियाँ
(घ) सुखद परिणाम
उत्तर
(क) संघर्ष

(iii) समस्त ग्रंथों और अनुभवों का निष्कर्ष है
(क) संघर्ष से डरना या विमुख होना अहितकर है।
(ख) मानव-धर्म के प्रतिकूल है।
(ग) अपने विकास को बाधित करना है।
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

(iv) ‘मानवीय’ शब्द में मूल शब्द और प्रत्यय है
(क) मानवी + य
(ख) मानव + ईय
(ग) मानव + नीय
(घ) मानव + इय
उत्तर
(ख) मानव + ईय

(v) संघर्ष रूपी विजय रथ पर चढ़ने के लिए आवश्यक है
(क) दृढ़ संकल्प, निडरता और धैर्य
(ख) दृढ़ संकल्प, उत्साह एवं साहस
(ग) दृढ़ संकल्प, आत्मविश्वास और साहस
(घ) दृढ़ संकल्प, उत्तम चरित्र एवं साहस
उत्तर
(ख) दृढ़ संकल्प, उत्साह एवं साहस

अथवा

मानव-जाति को अन्य जीवधारियों से अलग करके महत्व प्रदान करने वाला जो एकमात्र गुरु है, वह है उसकी विचार-शक्ति। मनुष्य के पास बुद्धि है, विवेक है, तर्कशक्ति है अर्थात उसके पास विचारों की अमूल्य पूँजी है। अपने सविचारों की नींव पर ही आज मानव ने अपनी श्रेष्ठता की स्थापना की है और मानव-सभ्यता का विशाल महल खड़ा किया है।

यही कारण है कि विचारशील मनुष्य के पास जब सविचारों का अभाव रहता है तो उसका वह शून्य मानस कुविचारों से ग्रस्त होकर एक प्रकार से शैतान के वशीभूत हो जाता है। मानवीय बुद्धि जब सद्भावों से प्रेरित होकर कल्याणकारी योजनाओं में प्रवृत्त रहती है तो उसकी सदाशयता का कोई अंत नहीं होता, किंतु जब वहाँ कुविचार अपना घर बना लेते हैं तो उसकी पाशविक प्रवृत्तियाँ उस पर हावी हो उठती हैं।

हिंसा और पापाचार का दानवी साम्राज्य इस बात का द्योतक है कि मानव की विचार-शक्ति, जो उसे पशु बनने से रोकती है, उसका साथ देती है।

(i) मानव-जाति को महत्व देने में किसका योगदान है?
(क) शारीरिक शक्ति का
(ख) परिश्रम और उत्साह का
(ग) विवेक और विचारों का
(घ) मानव-सभ्यता का
उत्तर
(ग) विवेक और विचारों का

(ii) विचारों की पूँजी में शामिल नहीं है-
(क) उत्साह
(ख) विवेक
(ग) तर्क
(घ) बुद्धि
उत्तर
(क) उत्साह

(iii) मानव में पाशविक प्रवृत्तियाँ क्यों जागृत होती हैं?
(क) हिंसा-बुद्धि के कारण
(ख) असत्य बोलने के कारण
(ग) कुविचारों के कारण
(घ) स्वार्थ के कारण
उत्तर
(क) हिंसा-बुद्धि के कारण

(iv) ‘मनुष्य के पास बुद्धि है, विवेक है, तर्कशक्ति है।’ रचना की दृष्टि से उपर्युक्त वाक्य है
(क) सरल
(ख) संयुक्त
(ग) मिश्र
(घ) आज्ञावाचक
उत्तर
(क) सरल

(v) गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक हो सकता है
(क) मनुष्य का गुरु
(ख) विवेक-शक्ति
(ग) दानवी शक्ति
(घ) पाशविक प्रवृत्ति
उत्तर
(ख) विवेक-शक्ति

अपठित पद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न  2.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)

दो टूक कलेजे के करता पछताता,
पथ पर आता।
पेट पीठ दोनों मिलकर हैं एक,
चल रहा लकुटिया टेक,
मुट्ठी भर दाने को, भूख मिटाने को
मुँह फटी पुरानी झोली का फैलाता
दो टूक कलेजे के करता पछताता पथ पर आता।

साथ दो बच्चे भी हैं सदा हाथ फैलाए,
बाएँ से वे मलते हुए पेट को चलते,
और दाहिना दया-दृष्टि पाने की ओर बढ़ाए।
भूख से सूख ओठ जब जाते
दाता-भाग्य विधाता से क्या पाते?
घुट आँसूओं के पीकर रह जाते।
चाट रहे जूठी पत्तल कभी सड़क पर खड़े हुए,
और झपट लेने को उनसे कुत्ते भी हैं अड़े हुए!

(i) कविता में किस पर व्यंग्य किया गया है
(क) आर्थिक न्याय पर
(ख) राजनीतिक सत्य पर
(ग) सामाजिक विषमता पर
(घ) मध्यवर्गीय जीवन पर
उत्तर
(ग) सामाजिक विषमता पर

(ii) भिखारी की इच्छा है
(क) सोना पाने की
(ख) पैसा पाने की
(ग) अनाज पाने के लिए
(घ) कपड़ा पाने की
उत्तर
(ग) अनाज पाने के लिए

(iii) बच्चे भिखारी के साथ क्यों हैं?
(क) घूमने के लिए
(ख) भीख माँगने के लिए
(ग) रास्ता ढूँढ़ने के लिए
(घ) पिता के साथ के लिए
उत्तर
(ख) भीख माँगने के लिए

(iv) भिखारी के बच्चों से कुत्ते क्यों होड़ करते हैं?
(क) जूठी पत्तल छीनने के लिए
(ख) चिढ़ाने के लिए
(ग) लड़ने के लिए
(घ) भागने के लिए
उत्तर
(क) जूठी पत्तल छीनने के लिए

(v) इस काव्यांश का शीर्षक होगा
(क) विषमता
(ख) बेबसी
(ग) गरीबी
(घ) भिक्षुक
उत्तर
(ख) बेबसी

अथवा

माटी तुझे प्रणाम।
मेरे पुण्य देश की माटी तू कितनी अभिराम।
तुझे लगा माथे से सारे कष्ट हो गए दूर
क्षण भर में ही भूल गया मैं शत्रु मंत्रणा क्रूर
सुख-स्फूर्ति का इस काया में हुआ पुनःसंचार
लगता जैसे आज युगों के बाद मिला विश्राम।
माटी तुझे प्रणाम।
तुझसे बिछुड़ मिला प्राणों को कभी न पल-भर चैन
तेरे दर्शन हेतु रात-दिन तरस रहे थे नैन

धन्य हुआ तेरे चरणों में आकर यह अस्तित्व
हुई साधना सफल, भगत को प्राप्त हो गए राम।
माटी तुझे प्रणाम।
अमर मृत्तीके लगती तू पारस से बढ़कर आज
कारा-जड़-जीवन सचेत फिर, तुझको छूकर आज
मरणशील हम, किंतु अमर तू है, अमर्त्य यह धाम
हम मर-मरकर अमर करेंगे तेरा उज्ज्व ल नाम।

(i) इस कविता को कवि किस मनोदशा में लिख रहा है?
(क) मातृभूमि से दूर विदेशी भूमि से
(ख) मातृभूमि से दूर विदेशी शत्रुओं के चुंगल में रहकर
(ग) बहुत दिनों बाद विदेशी शत्रुओं के चुंगल से मुक्त होकर
(घ) विदेश यात्रा से अनेक वर्षों बाद लौटकर
उत्तर
(ग) बहुत दिनों बाद विदेशी शत्रुओं के चुंगल से मुक्त होकर

(ii) ‘अभिराम’ का तात्पर्य है
(क) उपजाऊ
(ख) सुंदर
(ग) कष्ट उठा-उठाकर
(घ) बलिदान दे-देकर
उत्तर
(ख) सुंदर

(iii) ‘हम मर-मरकर अमर करेंगे तेरा उज्ज्वल नाम’ में मर-मर का क्या तात्पर्य है?
(क) दुर्बल निर्मल होकर
(ख) परास्त होकर
(ग) कष्ट उठा-उठाकर
(घ) बलिदान दे-देकर
उत्तर
(घ) बलिदान दे-देकर

(iv) कवि ने मिट्टी को पारस के समान क्यों कहा है?
(क) वह बहुत उपजाऊ है
(ख) वह हरी-भरी है
(ग) वह माँ की गोद-सी ममता देने वाली है
(घ) वह फसलों के रूप में सोना उगाती है
उत्तर
(घ) वह फसलों के रूप में सोना उगाती है

(v) कवि माटी के प्रति किस भावना से परिपूर्ण है?
(क) भक्ति भावना से
(ख) कृतज्ञता से
(ग) जन्मजात प्रेम से
(घ) धन्यवाद भाव से
उत्तर
(ख) कृतज्ञता से

व्यावहारिक व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) हमारे निकलते ही वर्षा होने लगी वाक्य है
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) सरल वाक्य

(ii) मुझे विश्वास है कि आप आवश्य आएँगे। रेखांकित उपवाक्य है
(क) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ख) सर्वनाम उपवाक्य
(ग) क्रिया उपवाक्य
(घ) विशेषण उपवाक्य
उत्तर
(क) संज्ञा उपवाक्य

(iii) संयुक्त वाक्य है
(क) वहाँ जाकर जल्दी आ जाना।
(ख) वहाँ जाना और जल्दी आ जाना।
(ग) जब जाओगे तब जल्दी आना।
(घ) जाकर जल्दी आओ।
उत्तर
(ख) वहाँ जाना और जल्दी आ जाना।

(iv) मिश्र वाक्य है
(क) यहाँ आएँ और सुनें।
(ख) यहाँ आकर सुनो।
(ग) जब यहाँ आना तब सुनना।
(घ) आओ और सुनो।
उत्तर
(घ) आओ और सुनो।

(v) ‘मैंने एक फूल देखा, जो खिल रहा था।’ वाक्य में प्रधान उपवाक्य है
(क) जो खिल रहा था
(ख) मैंने एक फूल देखा
(ग) फूल जो खिल रहा था।
(घ) एक फूल देखा
उत्तर
(ख) मैंने एक फूल देखा

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।( 1 x 4 = 4)
(i) इनमें भाववाच्य है
(क) दूधवाले ने दूध दिया।
(ख) चोर पकड़ा गया।
(ग) दादी जी से बोला नहीं जाता।
(घ) फोर्स द्वारा घुसपैठिए पकड़े गए।
उत्तर
(ग) दादी जी से बोला नहीं जाता।

(ii) कर्तृवाक्य है
(क) चिड़िया से उड़ा जाएगा।
(ख) मुझसे यों चुपचाप नहीं बैठा जाता।
(ग) हर्ष इस समय गीत गा रहा है।
(घ) आओ साथ मिलकर खेला जाए।
उत्तर
(ग) हर्ष इस समय गीत गा रहा है।

(iii) आज हमें गणित पढ़ाया गया।वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाक्य
(ख) कर्मवाक्य
(ग) भाववाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) कर्मवाक्य

(iv) कर्मवाच्य है
(क) मैं कहानी पढ़ता हूँ।
(ख) माली द्वारा फूल तोड़े गए।
(ग) माली फूल तोड़ेगा।
(घ) उससे सोया नहीं जाता।
उत्तर
(ख) माली द्वारा फूल तोड़े गए।

(v) मैंने घोड़ा खरीदा। वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाक्य
(ख) कर्मवाक्य
(ग) भाववाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) कर्तृवाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 =4 )

(i) योगिता मंदिर में गाना गाती है। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
(ग) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक
(घ) भाववाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
उत्तर
(क) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक

(ii) ‘आज तुमने थोड़ा-सा ही दूध क्यों पीया?’ इस वाक्य में थोड़ा-सा’ का पद-परिचय होगा
(क) निश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(ख) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, स्त्रीलिंग, बहुवचन, दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(ग) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, ‘दूध’ विशेष्य का विशेषण

(iii) ‘वह कहीं चला गया है।’ वाक्य में ‘कहीं’ का पद-परिचय क्या है?
(क) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘चला गया है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(ख) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘चला गया है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(ग) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण ‘चला गया है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘चला गया है’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।

(iv) मल्लिका पत्र लिखवाती है। ‘लिखवाती है’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) अकर्मक क्रिया, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, वर्तमान काल
(ख) सकर्मक क्रिया, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, भूतकाल
(ग) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, वर्तमान काल
(घ) एककर्मक क्रिया, संयुक्त क्रिया, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल
उत्तर
(ग) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, वर्तमान काल

(v) प्रांजल दो किलो आम लाया।’ यहाँ ‘दो किलो’ का पद-परिचय है
(क) संख्यावाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, आम विशेष्य
(ख) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, आम विशेष्य
(ग) गुणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, आम विशेष्य
(घ) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, बहुवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, आम विशेष्य
उत्तर
(ख) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, आम विशेष्य

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)

(i) बिकल सब रोवहिं रानी, रूपु सिलु बलु तेजु बखानी, करही विलाप अनेक प्रकारा, परिहीं भूमि ताल बारहिं बारा। इन पंक्तियों में कौन सा रस है?
(क) वीर रस
(ख) रौद्र रस
(ग) अद्भुत रस
(घ) करुण रस
उत्तर
(घ) करुण रस

(ii) उस काल मारे क्रोध के, तन काँपने उसका लगा। मानो हवा के ज़ोर से, सोता हुआ सागर जगा।। इन पंक्तियों में किस रस का स्थायी भाव है?
(क) हास
(ख) उत्साह
(ग) शोक
(घ) रौद्र
उत्तर
(घ) रौद्र

(iii) चींटी चढ़ी पहाड़ पे मरने के वास्ते, नीचे खड़े कपिल देव कैच लेने के वास्ते। इन पंक्तियों में कौन-सा रस है?
(क) करुण
(ख) हास्य
(ग) वीर
(घ) वात्सल्य
उत्तर
(ख) हास्य

(iv) शोक किस रस का स्थायी भाव है?
(क) वीभत्स
(ख) करुण
(ग) हास्य
(घ) वीर
उत्तर
(ख) करुण

(v) शृंगार रस का उदाहरण है
(क) जथा पंख बिनु खग अति दीना। मनि बिनु फन करिबर कर हीना।।
अस मम जीवन बंधु बिन तोही। जौ जड दैव जियावह मोही।।

(ख) कहत नटत रीझत खिझत, मिलत खिलत लजियात,
भरे भौन में करत है, नैननु ही सौ बात

(ग) कनक भूधराकार सरीरा, समर भयंकर अतिबल बीरा।

(घ) मैया मोरी दाऊ बहुत खिजायो।
मोसों कहत मोल की लीन्हो तू जसुमति कब जायो।
उत्तर
(ख) कहत नटत रीझत खिझत, मिलत खिलत लजियात,
भरे भौन में करत है, नैननु ही सौ बात

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
इन सबके ऊपर, मैं तो मुग्ध था उनके मधुर गान पर – जो सदा सर्वदा ही सुनने को मिलते। कबीर के सीधे-सादे पद, जो उनके कंठ से निकलकर सजीव हो उठते। आषाढ़ की रिमझिम है। समूचा गाँव खेतों में उतर पड़ा है। कहीं हल चल रहे हैं; कहीं रोपनी हो रही है। धान के पानी-भरे खेतों में बच्चे उछल रहे हैं। औरतें कलेवा लेकर मेड़ पर बैठी हैं। आसमान बादल से घिरा; धूप का नाम नहीं। ठंडी पुरवाई चल रही।

ऐसे ही समय आपके कानों में एक स्वर-तरंग झंकार-सी कर उठी। यह क्या है – यह कौन है। यह पूछना न पड़ेगा। बालगोबिन भगत समूचा शरीर कीचड़ में लिथड़े, अपने खेत में रोपनी कर रहे हैं। उनकी अंगुली एक-एक धान के पौधे को पंक्तिबद्ध, खेत में बिठा रही हैं।

उनका कंठ एक-एक शब्द को संगीत के जीने पर चढ़ाकर कुछ को ऊपर, स्वर्ग की ओर भेज रहा है और कुछ को इस पृथ्वी की मिट्टी पर खड़े लोगों के कानों की ओर! बच्चे खेलते हुए झूम उठते हैं; मेड़ पर खड़ी औरतों के होंठ काँप उठते हैं, वे गुनगुनाते लगती हैं; हलवाहों के पैर ताल से उठने लगते हैं, रोपनी करनेवालों की अंगुलियाँ एक अजीब क्रम से चलने लगती हैं! बालगोबिन भगत का यह संगीत है या जादू!

(i) लेखक भगत के किस गुण पर मुग्ध था?
(क) मधुर गान पर
(ख) उनके भोलेपन पर
(ग) सरल हृदय पर
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) मधुर गान पर

(ii) खेतों में बच्चे क्या कर रहे थे?
(क) बच्चे उछल रहे थे ।
(ख) गा और नाच रहे थे
(ग) खेत में धान रोप रहे थे
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) बच्चे उछल रहे थे ।

(iii) बालगोबिन भगत के गीतों का लोगों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(क) बच्चे खेलते हुए झूम उठते हैं
(ख) मेड़ पर खड़ी औरतों के होंठ काँप उठते हैं
(ग) हलवाहों के पैर ताल से उठने लगते हैं
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

(iv) आषाढ़ में खेतों में क्या चल रहा था?
(क) आसमान में बादल घिर आए
(ख) धूप नहीं दिख रही
(ग) दोनों सही
(घ) दोनों गलत
उत्तर
(ग) दोनों सही

(v) हिंदी के किस महीने के नाम का उल्लेख उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में किया गया है?
(क) सावन
(ख) जेठ
(ग) आषाढ़
(घ) फागुन
उत्तर
(क) सावन

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 2 = 2 )

(i) लेखक सेकंड क्लास डिब्बे में क्यों बैठा?
(क) वह एकांत में कहानी लिखना चाहता था।
(ख) वह सेकंड क्लास का आनंद लेना चाहता था
(ग) वह नवाबी अंदाज़ दिखाना चाहता था।
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) वह एकांत में कहानी लिखना चाहता था।

(ii) बालगोबिन भगत किसके पद गाया करते थे?
(क) रहीम के
(ख) सूरदास के
(ग) कबीर के
(घ) तुलसीदास के
उत्तर
(ग) कबीर के

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
कितना प्रामाणिक था उसका दुख ।
लड़की को दान में देते वक्त
जैसे वही उसकी अंतिम पूँजी हो ।
लड़की अभी सयानी नहीं थी।
अभी इतनी भोली सरल थी

कि उसे सुख का आभास तो होता था
लेकिन दुख बाँचना नहीं आता था
पाठिका थी वह धुंधले प्रकाश की
कुछ तुकों और कुछ लयबद्ध पंक्तियों की

(i) काव्यांश में किसके दुख को प्रामाणिक बताया गया है?
(क) बेटी के
(ख) माँ के
(ग) दोनों सही
(घ) दोनों गलत
उत्तर
(क) बेटी के

(ii) माँ को अपनी बेटी अंतिम पूँजी क्यों लग रही थी?
(क) वह उसको छोड़कर जा रही थी
(ख) उसकी सुख-दुख की साथी थी
(ग) उपर्युक्त दोनों कथन सत्य
(घ) माँ-बेटी का रिश्ता अटूट था ।
उत्तर
(ग) उपर्युक्त दोनों कथन सत्य

(iii) लड़की को अभी दुनियादारी की समझ नहीं है।’ यह भाव किस पंक्ति में व्यक्त होता है?
(क) वही उसकी अंतिम पूँजी थी
(ख) लड़की अभी सयानी नहीं थी
(ग) इतनी भोती सरल थी।
(घ) दुख बाँचना नहीं आता था
उत्तर
(ख) लड़की अभी सयानी नहीं थी

(iv) उपर्युक्त काव्यांश में किस रस की अनुभूति होती है?
(क) करुण रस
(ख) शांत रस
(ग) अद्भुत रस
(घ) वीर रस
उत्तर
(ख) शांत रस

(v) ‘पाठिका थी वह धुंधले प्रकाश की’ का भाव है
(क) वह बहुत सीधी थी।
(ख) उसे जीवन का कोई अनुभव नहीं था
(ग) उसका कभी दुख से सामना नहीं हुआ था
(घ) सभी कथन सही
उत्तर
(घ) सभी कथन सही

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।। (1 × 2 = 2)
(i) भ्रमरगीत में किसके माध्यम से उद्धव पर व्यंग्य किया गया है?
(क) पक्षियों के माध्यम से
(ख) भ्रमर अर्थात भँवरा के माध्यम से
(ग) बादलों के माध्यम से
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) भ्रमर अर्थात भँवरा के माध्यम से

(ii) कविता में निराला जी किसके माध्यम से उत्साह लाना चाहते हैं?
(क) नदी के माध्यम से
(ख) हवा के माध्यम से
(ग) बादल के माध्यम से
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) बादल के माध्यम से

खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 4 = 8)
(क) बालगोबिन भगत की दिनचर्या लोगों के अचरज का कारण क्यों थी?
(ख) ‘नम आँखों को गिनना स्याही फैलाना है’ आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ग) ‘लखनवी अंदाज़’ पाठ में निहित व्यंग्य को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(घ) पान वाले का रेखाचित्र प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 3 = 6)
(क) गोपियों ने उद्धव से योग की शिक्षा कैसे लोगों को देने की बात कही?
(ख) ‘कन्यादान’ कविता में माँ ने बेटी को क्या-क्या सीख दी?
(ग) परशुराम के क्रोध का क्या कारण था?

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए। (3 x 2 = 6)
(क) ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ में माता-पिता का बच्चों के प्रति जो वात्सल्य व्यक्त हुआ है, उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
(ख) झिलमिलाते सितारों की रोशनी में नहाया गंतोक लेखिका को किस प्रकार सम्मोहित कर रहा था?
(ग) ‘नई दिल्ली में सब था… सिर्फ नाक नहीं थी।’ इस कथन के माध्यम से लेखक क्या कहना चाहता है?

लेखन (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80 से 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
(क) कंप्यूटर- आज की आवश्यकता
संकेत-बिंदु-

• कंप्यूटर एक विचित्र उपकरण
• बढ़ता उपयोग
• इंटरनेट और कंप्यूटर
• प्रयोग की सावधानियाँ।

(ख) विज्ञापनों का प्रभाव
संकेत-बिंदु-

• विज्ञापन का अर्थ
• विज्ञापनों का बोलबाला
• विज्ञापन के लाभ
• हानियाँ
• विज्ञापनों का

हमारी जेब पर प्रभाव।

(ग) आतंकवाद- एक विश्वव्यापी समस्या
संकेत-बिंदु-

• आतंकवाद का अर्थ
• वैश्विक समस्या
• आतंकवाद का उद्देश्य
• रूप
• उदाहरण
• निष्कर्ष।

प्रश्न 15.
अपने क्षेत्र में पेड़-पौधों की अनियंत्रित कटाई को रोकने के लिए जिलाधिकारी को लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में एक पत्र लिखिए। (5 x 1=5)
अथवा
वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम आने पर मित्र को 80-100 शब्दों में बधाई पत्र लिखिए।

प्रश्न 16.
सम्राट पेन की बिक्री बढ़ाने के लिए प्रचार हेतु लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
अथवा
आपके मोहल्ले में एक नया पब्लिक स्कूल खुला है। उसके लिए 20-25 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।

प्रश्न 17.
कोरोना वैश्विक महामारी से बचाव हेतु मित्र को संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
अथवा
मुख्यमंत्री की ओर से गणतंत्र दिवस पर शुभकामना संदेश 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए।

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922? 1
(a) Because violence occurred in Kheda and Gandhiji did not like it.
(b) Because violence occurred in Chauri Chaura and many other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.
(c) Because people did not support the movement.
(d) Because violence occurred in Champaran and some other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.
Answer:
(b) Because violence occurred in Champaran and some other places, and Gandhiji was firm believer of ahimsa.

Question 2.
Lala Lajpat Rai was assaulted by the British police during a peaceful demonstration against the which one of the following?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Indian Commission
(c) Rowlatt Act
(d) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(a) Simon Commission

Question 3.
Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were bearing
which of the following flags?
(a) Black
(b) Red
(c) Gold
(d) Black, red and gold
Answer:
(d) Black, red and gold

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks
……………. is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.
Or
The deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port is …………………..
Answer:
India
Or
Vishakhapatnam

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops from the following options:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute
(b) Fibre crop – Rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton
(d) Non-food crop – Silk
Answer:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Biotic and Abiotic resources: on the basis of origin, Renewable and non-renewable resources:on the basis of exhaustibility, …………………… : on basis of the status of development
(a) National and International resources
(b) Potential and Developed resources
(c) Individual and Community owned resources
(d) Human resources
Answer:
(b) Potential and Developed resources

Question 7.
Identify the industry with the help of the following features.

• Manufactures aircrafts, utensils and wires
• Light and a good conductor of heat
• Second most important metallurgical industry in India

Answer:
Aluminium Smelting

Question 8.
Aluminium Smelting
The oldest artificial sea port of India is
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Kandla
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 9.
Modem democracies maintain check and balance system. Identity the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislative, executive, judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
Answer:
(b) Legislative, executive, judiciary

Question 10.
If federalism works only in big country then why did Belgium adopt it?
Or
What is decentralisation?
Answer:
Belgium decided to divide its power between the national government and the constituent states.
Or
When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local government, it is called decentralisation.

Question 11.
State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Or
Which is a major caste group of Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Step taken by Belgium:
The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government.
Or
Sinhala and Tamil is a major caste group of Sri Lanka.

Question 12.
12. Read the given table and find out in comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate.

Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 Vol. 2, Government of india: National Sample Survey
Organisaiion (Report No. 575)
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Both Haryana and Bihar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crosses the boundaries of these countries were raw material, foodstuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw material and foodstuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This w’as before large companies connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Foreign trade creates an opportunity’ for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

MNCs are a major force in connecting the countries of the world because-
(a) they can form and utilize the connections between national economics.
(b) they help in the integration of market and in flow of information.
(c) they may also outsource their production processes, often to lesser developed nations to reduce their costs.
(d) All of the above (d)
Answer:
(d) All of the above (d)

Or

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets i.e., markets of their own countries. How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries? Choose the correct option.
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(b) Producers can sell their produce not only in market located within the country but also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
(c) Impact of the goods produced in another country is also one of the way is expanding the choice of goods.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
How is Public sector different for Private sector? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) In the public sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services, whereas in private sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies.
(b) In the public sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies, whereas in the private sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
(c) In the public sector government owns minimum assets and provides limited sendees, whereas in the private sector assets and delivery of services is the responsibility of private companies only.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) In the public sector government owns most of the assets and provides all the services, whereas in private sector ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hand of private individual or companies.

Question 15.
Suggest the way to create employment in rural areas from the options given below:
(a) Launching projects like irrigation facilities
(b) Building dams and developing infrastructural projects
(c) By opening services like cooperatives or banks
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Demand deposits offer an interesting facility of cheque.
Reason (R): Modern forms of money includes gold and silver coins.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Section-B

Question 17.
Give a brief description of Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha Movements which he organised in various places after arriving in India from South Africa.
Answer:
After arriving in India, Mahatma Gandhi organised several Satyagraha movements in various places:

• Champaran:
  In 1917, he travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the exploitative plantation system.
• Kheda:
  In 1917, he organised a Satyagraha Movement in support of the Kheda peasants in Gujarat. These peasants were very much worried due to crop failure and a plague epidemic. Since they could not pay the revenue, they demanded relaxation in revenue collection.
• Ahmedabad:
  In 1918, he went to Ahmedabad to organise Satyagraha movement among the workers of cotton mills.

Question 18.
Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could not restore the old order. How?
Or
“The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle.” Analyse the reasons.
Answer:

• Monarchs now began to realise that the cycles of revolution and repression would only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist revolutionaries.
• Therefore, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
• Thus, the systems of serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in the Habsburg dominions and in Russia.
• The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.

Or
The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle because:

• The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in the Nagpur region.
• As the industrialists came closer to the Congress, workers stayed aloof.
• The Congress felt that by including workers’ demands as part of its programme of struggle it would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces.

Question 19.
“Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of the country.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

• The pace of development of country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of transport are pre-requisite for national development.
• Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport system.
• The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of our economy with the help of dense and efficient network of transport in the country.
• It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Question 20.
Describe any three features of ‘federal government’.
Or
Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’.
Answer:
Feature of Federal Government:

• Sharing of powers two or more levels of government
• Each government has its own jurisdiction
• Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of government.
• Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
• The fundamental provisions of the Constitution can be changed with the consent of both, (vz) It has dual objectives to safeguard and promote unity of the country.
  (Any three)

Or
Features of Unitary Government:

• Only one level of Government or the sub-units are subordinate to Central Government.
• The Central Government can pass an order to provincial or the local government
• State government has power of its own for which it is not answerable to the Central government.
• Both these governments are separately answerable to the people.
  (Any three)

Question 21.
“Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.”
Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
The tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors because, these activities do not produce goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.

At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others over telephone or send letters or borrow money from banks to help production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some of the examples of tertiary activities.

Question 22.
“Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.” Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
As the methods of farming changed and agriculture sector began to prosper, it produced much more food than before. Many people could now take up other activities. There were increasing number of craftpersons and traders. Buying and selling activities increased many times. Beside, there were also transporters, administrators, army, etc. However, at this stage, most of the goods produced were natural products from the primary sector and most people were also employmed in this sector.

But overtime and especially because new methods of manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. In past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary to tertiary sector.

Therefore, we can say that primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans. felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access to.

The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore toRs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the role of ‘Justice Party’ in boycotting of council elections?
(a) Justice Party felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power.
(b) Justice Party of Madras was not boycotted the council elections.
(c) The Party wanted power that usually only Brahmans had access to.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 23.2.
Identify how was the effects of ‘Non-Cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic from the following options:
(a) Foreign goods were boycotted.
(b) Liquor shops were picketed.
(c) Foreign cloths were burnt in huge bonfires
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.3.
Which among the following is/are the effect of Boycott movement on foreign textile trade? Select the appropriate option.
(a) The import of foreign cloth halved.
(b) Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(c) Indian textile mills and handloom went up.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.4.
Identify the form of demonstration by which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office from the given options:
(a) Satyagraha
(h) Block Movement
(c) Picket
(d) Guerrilla Movement
Answer:
(c) Picket

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Different persons can have different developmental goals and what may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other. Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek, things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live.

Money, or material things one can busy with it, it one factor on which our live depends. But the quality of our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored.

However, it will be wrong to conclude that what cannot be measured is not important. Consider another example. If you get a job in a far off place, before accepting it you would try to consider many factors, apart from income, such as facilities for your family, working atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
Economic development applies to the ……………… development of a country where the people earn ……………… income and can satisfy all their needs.
(a) social; higher
(b) social; lower
(c) all round; higher
(d) political; average
Answer:
(c) all round; higher

Question 24.2.
Different people have different goals or aspirations. Identify which development goals/ aspirations the following people belong to:

Category of person	Development goals/Aspirations
a. Landless rural labourers	1. More days of work and better wages
b. Prosperous farmers from Punjab	2. Availability of other sources of irrigation
c. Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops	3. Assured a higher support prices for their crops
d. A rural woman from a land owning family	4. Education of her child in English medium school by more earning from the land by giving it on rent

Choose the correct option.
(a) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(b) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(c) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
Answer:
(a) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

Question 24.3.
Besides seeking more income what do people want?
(a) Security
(b) Freedom
(c) Equal treatment
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 24.4.
Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education
(b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job
(d) Facilities for going abroad
Answer:
(b) Blood donation

Question 25.
Read the extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds of political parties: parties that are present in only one of the federal units and parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in India as well. There are some countrywide parties, which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large, all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level. Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission.

While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised party.

A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
The most visible pillar of democracy is
(a) Adult Franchise
(b) Seats reservation
(c) Elections
(d) Political Parties
Answer:
(c) Elections

Question 25.2.
What do you know about Federal System?
(a) It is a system of government under which the power is divided between a central authority and its various constituent units.
(b) The various constituent units and the central authority run their administrative independently.
(c) These units and central authority do not interfere in the affairs of one another unnecessarily.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 25.3.
The Party that secure at least …………………..percent the total votes in the Lok Sabha elections or Assemly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(b) Six

Question 25.4.
Who issues a Model Code of Conduct for political parties?
(a) The Judiciary
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Press
(d) The Election Commission
Answer:
(d) The Election Commission

Question 26.
Read the extract given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Globalisation and greater competition among producers-both local and foreign producers- has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
It creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. What does it refer to?
(a) Technology
(b) Investments
(c) Globalisation
(d) Trade Barriers
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 26.2.
How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
(a) Greater choice before the consumers and improved quality
(b) Lower prices for several products
(c) People enjoying higher standards of living than was possible earlier
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.3.
The negative impact of globalisation-
(a) Availability of variety of products led to higher standard of living.
(b) Rising competition has led to shutting down of many units.
(c) It has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs.
(d) It increases foreign direct investment.
Answer:
(b) Rising competition has led to shutting down of many units.

Question 26.4.
Factors that helped in the process of globalisation are-
(a) Information and technology
(b) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Creating barriers and other restrictions
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Section-D

Question 27.
How did ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism? Explain.
Or
How did Greek war of independence moblilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe? Explain.
Answer:
Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.

Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Yet, equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands.

Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights.
In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state- imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes.

Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes, who argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital. In 1834, a customs union or zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states.

The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two. The creation of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interests to national unification. A wave of economic nationalism strengthened the wider nationalist sentiments growing at the time.
Or
Answer:
Greek war of independence mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe through:

• Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century.
• The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
• Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
• Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.
• The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.
• Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Question 28.
State any five features of plantation farming.
OR
Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of rice.
Answer:

• It is a type of commercial farming.
• It is single crop farming practised on a large area.
• Crops are mainly grown for the market.
• It is both labour intensive and capital intensive.
• It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
• All the products are used as raw material in respective industries.
• Examples of plantation crops are tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane and banana.

Or

• Rice is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature above 25°C.
• It requires high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.
• In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
• It is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India coastal areas and the deltaic regions where fertile alluvial soil is available.
• Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall in Punjab and Haryana.

Question 29.
Describe the role of political parties in modem democracy.
Answer:
In a modem democracy political parties performed the following major functions:
(i) In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties. Parties select their candidates in different ways. In India top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.

(ii) Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them. In a democracy, a large number of similar opinions have to be grouped together to provide a direction in which policies can be formulated by the governments. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the ruling party.

(iii) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally laws are debated and passed in the legislature. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.

(iv) Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

(v) Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power by voicing different views and criticising government for its failure or wrong policies.

(vi) Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues. Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people. Often opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.

(vii) Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments.

Question 30.
“Democracy plays an important role to accommodate social diversity.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
(i) No society can fully or permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

(ii) Democracy continues to be democracy as long as all citizens have a chance to be part of majority at any point of time. If someone is debarred from being part of majority on the basis of birth then democracy is said to be concentrated in the hands of a few people.

(iii) It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply a rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that government can function to represent the opinion of common people.

(iv) The rule of majority should not be ruled by majority on the basis of religion or race or linguistic group, etc. Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of very election, different persons and groups may form a majority.
Thus, through the above points, can say that the democracy plays an important role to accommodate social diversity.

Question 31.
“Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.” Support the statement with examples.
Oo
“Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
Banks play an important role in developing the economy of India:

• They keep money of the people in its safe custody.
• They give interest on the deposited money to the people.
• They mediate between those who have surplus money and those who are in need of money.
• They provide loan to large number of people at low interest rate.
• They promote agricultural and industrial sector by providing loans.
• They also provide funds to different organisations.

Or
In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers buy these inputs and when they sell the crop. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucialy dependent on the income from farming.

If the failure of the crop made loan repayment impossible, then farmers had to sell part of the land to repay the loan. Credit, instead of helping those farmers to improve their earnings, left them worse off and they came into the debt trap. In this case, credit pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

In one situation credit helps to increase earnings and, therefore, the person/farmer is better off than before. In another situation, because of the crop failture, credit pushes the person into debt trap. To repay the loan farmers have to sell a portion of their land. They are now clearly much worse off than before. Whether credit would be useful or not, therefore, depends on the risks in the situation and whether there is some support in case of loss.

Thus, through the above situation or example, we can easily say that credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place where the movement of Indigo planters was started.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(b) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Pune Software Technology Park
(d) Kochi Sea Port
(e) Indore Cotton Textile Industry

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section-A – question no. 1 to 20 – all questions and parts there of are of one mark each.
These questions contain multiple choice questions (MCQs), very short answer questions and assertion – reason type questions. Answers to these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section-B – question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section-C – question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words. :
(v) Section—D – question no. – 34 to 36 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A

1. If an element X is placed in group 14, what will be the formula and the nature of bonding of  its chloride?

2. Where should an object be placed from a converging lens of focal length 15 cm, so as to obtain the image of same size and real.

3. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used in white washing.
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.
OR
What happens chemically, when quicklime is added to water filled in a bucket?

4. Three acidic solutions A, B and C have pH = 0, 3 and 5 respectively:
(i) Which solution has the highest concentration of H⁺ ions?
(ii) Which solution has the lowest concentration of H⁺ ions?

5. Generally, when metals are treated with mineral acids, hydrogen gas is liberated, but when metals (except Mn and Mg) are treated with HNO₃, hydrogen is not liberated, why?

6. The volume of glomerular filtrate produced is 18 L but the volume of urine excreted is just 1 – 2 L. Give a suitable reason for this statement.

7. Ozone is deadly poisonous, still it performs an essential function. How?
OR
Write the appropriate names of trophic level ‘Z’ and ‘X’ in the figure given below.

8. Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling point. Why?

9. Give an example of a flower which contains both stamens and carpels.
OR
What are sexually transmitted diseases? Name a STDs which damages the immune system of human body.

10. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror, if the magnification produced by the mirror is +4?    OR
The outer surface of a hollow sphere of aluminium of radius 50 cm is to be used as a mirror. What will be the focal length of this mirror? What type of spherical mirror will it provide?
Answer:
OR 25

11. Let the resistance of an electrical component remain constant, while the potential difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current through it?
OR
If the charge on an electron is 1.602 x 10^-19 C, find the approximate number of electrons in 1C.
Answer:
OR 6.25 × 10¹⁸

12. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving horizontally from the back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of the magnetic field?

13. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of secondary consumer trophic level of food chain, if the energy available to producer level is 10000 Joules.

Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
For question numbers 14,15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
(i) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(ii) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(iii) A is true, but R is false.
(iv) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
100 J

14. A. The extent of refraction is different for different medium.
R. Different medium have different refractive index.
Answer:
(i)

15.
R. It is a combination reaction because CO combines with H₂ to form CH₃OH i.e., two substances combine to form a single compound.
Answer:
(i)

16. A. The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/she inherits from the father.
R. A child who inherits ‘X’ chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y’ chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
OR
A. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. R. It is due to double fertilisation.
Answer:
(i) OR (iii)

Answer Q. No 17 – 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four sub¬parts in these questions.

17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v) (4 x 1 = 4)
The splitting of a beam of white light into its seven constituent colours, when it passes through a glass prism, is called the dispersion of light.

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted and splits into its seven constituent colours, viz. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red. This splitting of the light ray occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour. Hence, each colour while passing through the prism bends at different angles with respect to the incident beam. This gives rise to the formation of the coloured spectrum.

(i) What is the cause of dispersion of light by prism?
I. Different colours move with different speed in the prism.
II. Emergent ray bent to different extent towards the base of prism.
III. Different colours move with same speed in the prism but cover different distance.
IV. Emergent ray bent to different extent away from the base of prism.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(b) I and II

(ii) Which colour of white light suffers least deviation when a beam of white light is passed through the prism?
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Violet
(d) Green
Answer:
(b) Red

(iii) Which of the following colours viz., A, B, C and D has more speed in the prism?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(d) D

(iv) How will you use two identical prisms P₁ and P₂ so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light?

Answer:
(c)

(v) Among the seven colours visible due to splitting of white light through prism which colour has shortest wavelength?
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Violet
(d) Yellow
Answer:
(c) Violet

18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18 (i) to 18 (v) (4 x 1 = 4)

More than a million Americans die of cardiac diseases each year. One of the major causes is high cholesterol levels in the blood. The National Cholesterol Education Program suggests that total blood cholesterol level should be:

Blood Cholesterol Level Chart
	Desirable	Borderline (high)	High Risk
Total Cholesterol	<200	200-240	>240
Triglycerides	< 150	150-500	>500
Low Density Cholesterol	< 130	130-160	>160
High Density Cholesterol	>50	50-35	<35

Given below are blood report of two persons

	Total Cholesterol	Triglycerides	Low density cholesterol
Patient A	356	180	150
Patient B	180	100	90

(i) Which of the organ can be affected in patient A?
(a) Heart
(b) Kidney
(c) Lungs
(d) Brain
Answer:
(a) Heart

(ii) What information is left out for the blank column?
(a) Total cholesterol
(b) Triglycerides
(c) Low density cholesterol
(d) High density cholesterol
Answer:
(d) High density cholesterol

(iii) A person with high risk category have to be suggested a suitable diet? Which of the following are correct guidelines for the patient
(a) High sugar and starch
(b) Low salt and fats
(c) High proteins
(d) Low sugar and proteins
Answer:
(b) Low salt and fats

(iv) Apart from following a prescribed diet, some other changes should be brought in the lifestyle to avoid aggravation of symptoms in a patient who is already suffering from high blood cholesterol-
A. Yoga and exercise
B. Quitting smoking and alcohol
C. Walking and doing small chores on your own
D. Enjoying loud music
Which of the following is the correct option
(a) A ,C
(b) B,C,D
(c) A,B,C
(d) A, D
Answer:
(c) A,B,C

(v) Which of the following is correct for patient B?
(a) High total cholesterol but triglycerides in normal range
(b) Total cholesterol in normal range but triglycerides are high
(c) Total cholesterol in normal range but low density cholesterol are high
(d) Total cholesterol, triglycerides and low density cholesterol are in normal range
Answer:
(d) Total cholesterol, triglycerides and low density cholesterol are in normal range

19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v) (4 x 1 = 4)

Most of the characters or traits of an organism are controlled by the genes. Genes are actually segments of DNA guiding the formation of proteins by the cellular organelles. These proteins may be enzymes, hormones, antibodies, and structural components of different types of tissues. In other words, DNA/ genes are responsible for structure and functions of a living body. Genotype of an individual controls its phenotype.

(i) Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes
I. Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
II. A gene does not code for proteins
III. In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome
IV. Each chromosome has only one gene
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(b) I and III

(ii) A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing white flowers. In the progeny, all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short. This suggests that the genetic makeup of tall plant can be depicted as
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Answer:
(c) TtWW

(iii) Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce Fj progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F₁ plants are selfed, the F₂ progeny will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following.
I. Round, yellow
II. Round, green
Wrinkled, yellow IV. Wrinkled, green
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Answer:
(b) I and IV

(iv) A section of DNA providing information for one protein is called—
(a) Nucleus
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Trait
(d) Gene
Answer:
(d) Gene

(v) Which one of the following is present in the nucleus?
(a) Gene
(b) DNA
(c) Chromosomes
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v) (4 x 1 = 4)
Answer the question numbers 3(a) to 3(d) on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts.

Atomic size refers to radius of atom. The atomic size may be visualised as the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an atom.

(i) How does atomic size vary along period 2 from left to right and why?
(a) Atomic size increases as atomic number increases
(b) Atomic size increases as number of protons increases
(c) Atomic size decreases as electrons added to same shell and with increase in number of protons, nuclei attracts electrons more
(d) Atomic size decreases as proton has higher positive charge than negative charge on electron and thus protons pulls electrons towards nucleus.
Answer:
(c) Atomic size decreases as electrons added to same shell and with increase in number of protons, nuclei attracts electrons more

(ii) How does atomic size vary in group 1 and group 17 and why?
(a) Atomic size increases because electrons added to the penultimate shell
(b) Atomic size increases because electrons added to next higher energy shell
(c) Atomic size decreases because electrons added to penultimate shell
(d) Atomic size decreases because electrons added to same shell
Answer:
(b) Atomic size increases because electrons added to next higher energy shell

(iii) Which group elements have largest size in periodic table?
(a) Group 1
(b) Group 2
(c) Group 17
(d) Group 18
Answer:
(d) Group 18

(iv) Which element of group 17 is most reactive?
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I
Answer:
(a) F

(v) Which of the following has higher distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an atom?
(a) Li
(b) C
(c) Be
(d) I
Answer:
(a) Li

Section-B

21. The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10Ω. If the resistivity of the material of the wire is 50 x 10^-8 Ωm, find the length of the wire.
Answer:
62.8cm

22. Foetus derives its nutrition from the mother.
(i) Identify the tissue used for above purpose. Explain its structure.
(ii) Explain how wastes generated by developing embryo are removed.
OR
Why do we need to adopt contraceptive measures?

23. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is
(i) pushed into the coil
(ii) held stationary inside the coil?

24. Give reason for the following:
(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii) Kerosene does not decolourise bromine water while cooking oils do.

25. An alpha particle (positively charged) enters a magnetic field at right angle to it as shown in figure. Explain with the help of relevant rule, the direction of force acting on the alpha particle.

OR
Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (i) and (ii).

26. In a test tube A and B shown below, yeast was kept in sugar solution. What products of respiration would you expect in tubes A and B?

Section-C

27. Draw a circuit diagram of an electric circuit containing a cell, a key, an ammeter, a resistor of 4D. in series with a combination of two resistors (80 each) in parallel and a voltmeter across parallel combination. Each of them dissipates maximum energy and can withstand a maximum power of 16W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.
Answer:
1 A

28. Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors shown in the diagram.

Answer:
0.4A

29. In the electrolysis of water,
(i) Name the gas collected at anode and cathode
(ii) Why is the volume of gas collected at one electrode double than the other?
(iii) What would happen if dil H₂S0₄ is not added to water?

30. A student records the observation to study the rate of respiration in three different people. Study the data collected and answer the questions given below:

Activity	Person 1 (breathing in one minute)	Person 2 (breathing in one minute)	Person 3 (breathing in one minute)
(i) Walking	20 times	24 times	26 times
(ii) Running	35 times	37 times	34 times
(iii) Climbing 20 stairs by running	40 times	30 times	45 times

(i) Which variable is kept constant?
(ii) Which reading is anomalous?
(iii) Suggest one improvement in this experiment.

31. The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in three shells having 1, 3, 5 and 7 electrons in outermost shell respectively. State the period in which these elements can be placed in the modem periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms A and D and the molecular formula of compound formed when A and D will combine.

32. (i) Construct a terrestrial food chain comprising four trophic levels.
(ii) What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
(iii) Calculate the amount of energy available to the organisms at the fourth trophic level if the energy available to the organisms at the second trophic level is 2000 J.
Answer:
(iii) 2 J

33. “pH has a great importance in our daily life” explain by giving three examples.
OR
A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with a proper quantity of water. Identify the compound and write its chemical formula. Write the chemical equation for its preparation. Mention any one use of the compound.

Section – D

34. You are given balls and stick model of six carbon atoms and fourteen hydrogen atoms and sufficient number of sticks. In how many ways one can join the models of six carbon atoms and fourteen hydrogen atoms to form different molecules of C₆H
OR
(i) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(ii) What is meant by a functional group in an organic compound? Name the functional group present in
(a) CH₃CH₂OH
(b) CH₃COOH
(iii) What is the difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a homologous series of organic compounds?

35. A student wants to project the image of candle flame on the wall of school laboratory by using a lens:
(i) which type of lens should be used and why?
(ii) at which distance in term of focal length F of the lens should be placed the candle flame so as to get
(a) a magnified and
(b) a diminished image respectively on the wall?
OR
(i) Complete the following ray diagrams:

(ii) A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards or away from the normal? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light in this situation.

36. (i) To study the respiration of germinating seeds:

(a) Name two chemicals that are kept in the test tube to absorb carbon dioxide gas released in the conical flask.
(b) Explain why the level of water in the bent tube rises in the set up A
(c) State the observation in set up B:

(ii) What do the following transport:
(a) Xylem
(b) Pulmonary artery
(c) Pulmonary vein
(d) Vena cava