RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2

RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2

These Solutions are part of RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2

Other Exercises

Question 1.
In a ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC.
(i) If AD = 6 cm, DB = 9 cm and AE = 8 cm, find AC. (C.B.S.E. 1995)
(ii) If \(\frac { AD }{ DB }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) and AC = 15 cm, find AE. (C.B.S.E. 1994)
(iii) If \(\frac { AD }{ DB }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) and AC = 18 cm, find AE. (C.B.S.E. 1994C)
(iv) If AD = 4, AE = 8, DB = x – 4, and EC = 3x – 19, find x. (C.B.S.E. 1992C)
(v) If AD = 8 cm, AB = 12 cm and AE = 12 cm, find CE. (C.B.S.E. 1992C)
(vi) If AD = 4 cm, DB = 4.5 cm and AE = 8 cm, find AC. (C.B.S.E. 1992C)
(vii) If AD = 1 cm, AB = 6 cm and AC = 9 cm, findAE. (C.B.S.E. 1992C)
(viii) If \(\frac { AD }{ DB }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) and EC = 2.5 cm, find AE.
(ix) If AD = x, DB = x – 2, AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, find the value of x. (C.B.S.E. 1993C)
(x) If AD = 8x – 7, DB = 5x – 3, AE = 4x – 3 and EC = (3x – 1), find the value of x.
(xi) If AD = 4x – 3, AE = 8x – 7, BD = 3x – 1 and CE = 5x – 3, find the value of x. (C.B.S.E. 2002)
(xii) If AD = 2.5 cm, BD = 3.0 cm and AE = 3.75 cm, find the length of AC. (C.B.S.E. 2006C)
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 2
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Question 2.
In a ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively. For each of the following cases show that DE || BC:
(i) AB = 12 cm, AD = 8 cm, AE = 12 cm and AC = 18 cm. (C.B.S.E. 1991)
(ii) AB = 5.6 cm, AD = 1.4 cm, AC = 7.2 cm and AE = 1.8 cm. (C.B.S.E. 1990)
(ii) AB = 10.8 cm, BD = 4.5 cm, AC = 4.8 cm and AE = 2.8 cm.
(iv) AD = 5.7 cm, BD = 9.5 cm, AE = 3.3 cm and EC = 5.5 cm.
Solution:
In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively
(i) AB = 12 cm, AD = 8 cm, AE = 12 cm and AC = 18 cm
DB = AB – AD = 12 – 8 = 4 cm and EC = AC – AE = 18 – 12 = 6 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 16
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 17

Question 3.
In a ∆ABC, P and Q are points on sides AB and AC respectively, such that PQ || BC. If AP = 2.4 cm, AQ = 2 cm, QC = 3 cm and BC = 6 cm, find AB and PQ.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
P and Q are points on AB and AC respectively such that PQ || BC
AP = 2.4 cm, AQ = 2 cm, QC = 3 cm and BC = 6 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 18
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 19

Question 4.
In a ∆ABC, D and E are points on AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC. If AD = 2.4 cm, AE = 3.2 cm, DE = 2 cm and BC = 5 cm, find BD and CE. (C.B.S.E. 2001C)
Solution:
In the ∆ABC, DE || BC
AD = 2.4 cm, AE = 3.2 cm, DE = 2 cm and BC = 5 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 20
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 21

Question 5.
In the figure, state if PQ || EF.
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 22
Solution:
In ∆DEF
PQ intersects DE and DF at P and Q respectively
Such that DP = 3.9 cm, PE = 3 cm DQ = 3.6 cm, QF = 2.4 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 23

Question 6.
M and N are points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a ∆PQR. For each of the following cases, state whether MN || QR.
(i) PM = 4 cm, QM = 4.5 cm, PN = 4 cm, NR = 4.5 cm
(ii) PQ = 1.28 cm, PR = 2.56 cm, PM = 0.16 cm, PN = 0.32 cm
Solution:
(i) In the ∆PQR
M and N are points on PQ and PR respectively
PM = 4 cm, QM = 4.5 cm, PN = 4 cm, RN = 4.5 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 24
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 25
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 26

Question 7.
In three line segments OA, OB, and OC, points L, M, N respectively are so chosen that LM || AB and MN || BC but neither of L, M, N nor of A, B, C are collinear. Show that LN || AC.
Solution:
Given : On OA, OB and OC, points are L, M, and N respectively
Such that LM || AB, MN || BC
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 27

Question 8.
If D and E are points on sides AB and AC respectively of a ∆ABC such that DE || BC and BD = CE. Prove that ∆ABC is isosceles. (C.B.S.E. 2007)
Solution:
Given : In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC such that BD = CD
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.2 28

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RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.1

RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.1

These Solutions are part of RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 7 Triangles Ex 7.1

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks using the correct word given in brackets :
(i) All circles are …………… (congruent, similar).
(ii) All squares are ………… (similar, congruent).
(iii) All …………….. triangles are similar (isosceles, equilaterals) :
(iv) Two triangles are similar, if their corres-ponding angles are ……… (proportional, equal)
(v) Two triangles are similar, if their corres-ponding sides are ……………. (proportional, equal)
(vi) Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, if (a) their corresponding angles are …………. and (b) their corres-ponding sides are …………….. (equal, proportional).
Solution:
(i) All circles are similar.
(ii) All squares are similar.
(iii) All equilaterals triangles are similar.
(iv) Two triangles are similar, if their corresponding angles are equal.
(v) Two triangles are similar, if their corresponding sides are proportional.
(vi) Two polygons of the same number of sides are similar, if (a) their corresponding angles are equal and (b) their corresponding sides are proportional.

Question 2.
Write the truth value (T/F) of each of the following statements :
(i) Any two similar figures are congruent.
(ii) Any two congruent figures are similar.
(iii) Two polygons are similar, if their corresponding sides are proportional.
(iv) Two polygons are similar if their corresponding angles are proportional.
(v) Two triangles are similar if their corresponding sides are proportional.
(vi) Two triangles are similar if their corresponding angles are proportional.
Solution:
(i) False : In some cases, the similar polygons can be congruent.
(ii) True.
(iii) False : Its corresponding angles must be equal also.
(iv) False : Angle are equal not proportional.
(v) True.
(vi) False : Sides should be proportional and corresponding angles should be equal.

 

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RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS

RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS

These Solutions are part of RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS

Other Exercises

Question 1.
If the circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then diameter of the circle is
(a) π/2
(b) 2π
(c) 2
(d) 4
Solution:
Let r be the radius of the circle, then Circumference = 2πr
and area = πr²
But 2πr= πr²
∴ 2r = r²
⇒ r = 2
Diameter = 2r = 2 x 2 = 4 (d)

Question 2.
If the difference between the circum-ference and radius of a circle is 37 cm., then using π =  \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\)  the circumference (in cm) of the circle is
(a) 154
(b) 44
(c) 14
(d) 7 [CBSE 2013]
Solution:
Difference between circumference and radius of a circle = 37 cm
∴  2πr-r = 37
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 1

Question 3.
A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56 cm. If it is bent in the form of a square, then its area will be
(a) 3520 cm²
(b) 6400 cm²
(c) 7744 cm²
(d) 8800 cm²
Solution:
Radius of a circular wire (r) = 56 cm
Circumference = 2πr = 2 x \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) x 56 cm = 352 cm
Now perimeter of square = 352 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 2

Question 4.
 If a wire is bent into the shape of a square, then the area of the square is 81 cm². When wire is bent into a semicircular shape, then the area of the semi-circle will be
(a) 22 cm²
(b) 44 cm²
(c) 77 cm²
(d) 154 cm²
Solution:
Area of a square wire = 81 cm²
∴ Side of square = \(\sqrt { Area } \)  = \(\sqrt { 81 } \)  cm = 9 cm ard per in eret of square =4a = 4 x 9 = 36cm
Perimeter of semicircular wire whose bent = 36 cm
Let r be the radius, then
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 3

Question 5.
A circular park has a path of uniform width around it. The difference between the outer and inner circumferences of the circular path is 132 m. Its width is
(a) 20 m
(b) 21 m
(c) 22 m
(d) 24 m
Solution:
Let R and r be the radii of the outer and inner circles of the park, then 2πR – 2πr = 132
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 4

Question 6.
The radius of a wheel is 0.25 m. The number of revolutions it will make to travel a distance of 11 km will be
(a) 2800
(b) 4000
(c) 5500
(d) 7000
Solution:
Radius of the wheel (r) = 0.25 m = 25 cm
Circumference of the wheel
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 5

Question 7.
The ratio of the outer and inner perimeters of a circular path is 23 : 22. If the path is 5 metres wide, the diameter of the inner circle is
(a) 55 m
(b) 110 m
(c) 220 m
(d) 230 m
Solution:
Ratio in the outer and inner perimeter of a circular path = 23 : 22
Width of path = 5 m
Let R and r be the radii of outer and inner path then R- r = 5 m ….(i)
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 6
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 7

Question 8.
The circumference of a circle is 100 cm. The side of a square inscribed in the circle is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 8
Solution:
Circumference of a circle (c) = 100 cm
Diagonal of square which is inscribed in the circle
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 9

Question 9.
The area of the incircle of an equilateral triangle of side 42 cm is :
(a) 22 73 cm²
(b) 231 cm²
(c) 462 cm²
(d) 924 cm²
Solution:
Side of an equilateral triangle (a) = 42 cm
Radius of inscribed circle = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) x altitude
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 10

Question 10.
The area of incircle of an equilateral triangle is 154 cm2. The perimeter of the triangle is
(a) 71.5 cm
(b) 71.7 cm
(c) 72.3 cm
(d) 72.7 cm
Solution:
Area of incircle of an equilateral triangle = 154 cm²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 11

Question 11.
The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r. is
(a) r²
(b) 2 r²
(c) r³
(d) 2r³
Solution:
The largest triangle inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r, can be ΔABC as shown in the figure, whose base = AB = 2r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 12

Question 12.
The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm and the circumference of its incircle is 88 cm. The area of the triangle is
(a) 70 cm²
(b) 140 cm²
(c) 210 cm²
(d) 420 cm²
Solution:
The perimeter of a triangle = 30 cm
and circumference of its incircle = 88 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 13

Question 13.
The area of a circle is 220 cm², the area of a square inscribed in it is
(a) 49 cm²
(b) 70 cm²
(c) 140 cm²
(d) 150 cm²
Solution:
Area of a circle = 220 cm²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 14

Question 14.
If the circumference of a circle increases from 4π to 8π, then its area is
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) tripled
(d) quadrupled
Solution:
In first case circumference of a circle = 4π
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 15

Question 15.
If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by
(a) 10% 
(b) 19%
(c) 20%
(d) 36%
Solution:
Let in first case radius of a circle = r
Then area = πr²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 16
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 17

Question 16.
If the area of a square is same as the area of a circle, then the ratio of their perimeter, in terms of 7t, is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 18
Solution:
Let side of square = a
Perimeter = 4 a
Then area = a²
∴ Area of circle = a²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 19

Question 17.
The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r is
(a) 2r
(b) r²
(c) r
(d) \(\sqrt { r } \)
Solution:
Radius of semicircule = r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 20

Question 18.
The ratio of the areas of a circle and an equilateral triangle whose diameter and a side are respectively equal, is
(a) π : \(\sqrt { 2 } \)
(b) π : \(\sqrt { 3 } \)
(c) \(\sqrt { 3 } \) :π
(d) \(\sqrt { 2 } \) : π
Solution:
Let side of equilateral triangle = a
Then area = \(\frac { \sqrt { 3 } }{ 4 }\) a²
Diameter of circle = a
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 21

Question 19.
If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii r1 and r2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius r, then r + r
(a) >r²
(b) = r²
(c) < r²
(d) None of these
Solution:
Sum of area of two circles with radii r1  and r2
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 22

Question 20.
If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm, then its diameter is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 16 cm
Solution:
Perimeter of a semicircle = 36 cm
Let d be its diameter, then
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 23

Question 21.
The perimeter of the sector OAB shown in the fiugre, is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 24
Solution:
Radius of sector of 60° = 7 cm
∴ Perimeter = arc AB + 2 r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 25

Question 22.
 If the perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 6.5 cm is 29 cm, then its area is
(a) 58 cm²
(b) 52 cm²
(c) 25 cm²
(d) 56 cm²
Solution:
Radius of a sector = 6.5 cm
and perimeter = 29 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 26

Question 23.
If the area of a sector of a circle bounded by an arc of length 5K cm is equal to 20K cm², then its radius is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 16 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 10 cm
Solution:
Let r be the radius, then
Length of the arc of sector of θ angle = 5π
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 27

Question 24.
The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 10 cm is
(a) 40π cm²
(b) 30π cm²
(c) 100π cm²
(d) 25π cm²
Solution:
Side of square = 10 cm
∴ Diameter of the inscribed circle = 10 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 28

Question 25.
If the difference between the circumference
(a) 154 cm²
(b) 160 cm²
(c) 200 cm²
(d) 150 cm²
Solution:
Let r be the radius of a circle then circum-ference = 2πr
∴  2πr-r = 37
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 29

Question 26.
The area of a circular path of uniform width h surrounding a circular region of radius r is
(a) π (2r + h) r
(b) π (2r + h) h
(c) π (h + r)r
(d) π (h + r) A
Solution:
Let r be the radius of inner circle h is the width of circular path
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 30

Question 27.
 If AB is a chord of length 5\(\sqrt { 3 } \)  cm of a circle with centre O and radius 5 cm, then area of sector OAB is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 31
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 32
Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) = 5 cm
AB is a chord = 5\(\sqrt { 3 } \)
Draw OM ⊥ AB which bisects the chord AB at M
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 33

Question 28.
The area of a circle whose area and circumference are numerically equal, is
(a) 2π sq. units
(b) 4π sq. units
(c) 6π sq. units
(d) 8π sq. units
Solution:
Let radius of the circle = r
∴ Area = πr²
and circumference = 2πr
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 34

Question 29.
If diameter of a circle is increased by 40%, then its area increases by
(a) 96%
(b) 40%
(c) 80%
(d) 48%
Solution:
Let the diameter of a circle in first case = 2r
Then radius = r
Area = πr²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 35

Question 30.
In the figure, the shaded area is
(a) 50 (π – 2) cm²
(b) 25 (π – 2) cm²
(c) 25 (π + 2) cm²
(d) 5 (π – 2) cm²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 36
Solution:
In the figure, ∠AOB = 90°
and radius of the circle = 10 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 37

Question 31.
In the figure, the area of the segment PAQ is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 38
Solution:
a is the radius of the circle arc PAQ subtends angle 90° at the centre
∴ Area of segment PAQ
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 39

Question 32.
In the figure, the area of segment ACB is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 40
Solution:
r is the radius of the circle and arc ACB subtends angle of 120° at the centre
Area of segment ACB = r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 41

Question 33.
If the area of a sector of a circle bounded by an arc of length 5π cm is equal to 20rc cm², then the radius of the circle is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 16 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 10 cm
Solution:
Length of arc = 5π cm
area of sector = 20π cm²
Let the angle at the centre be θ
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 42

Question 34.
In the figure, the ratio of the areas of two sectors S1 and S2 is
(a) 5 : 2
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 4 : 5
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 43
Solution:
Let r be the radius of the circle
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 44
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 45

Question 35.
If the area of a sector of a circle is \(\frac { 5 }{ 18 }\) of the area of the circle, then the sector angle is equal to
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 100°
(d) 120°
Solution:
Area of sector of a circle = \(\frac { 5 }{ 18 }\) x area of circle
Let θ be its angle at the centre and r be radius
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 46

Question 36.
If the area of a sector of a circle is \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 }\) of the area of the circle, then the sector angel is equal to
(a) 110°
(b) 130°
(c) 100°
(d) 126°
Solution:
Area of sector of a circle = \(\frac { 7 }{ 20 }\) of the area of the circle
Let r be the radius and θ be its angle at the centre
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 47

Question 37.
In the figure, if ABC is an equilateral triangle, then shaded area is equal to?
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 48
Solution:
ΔABC is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle with centre O and radius r
BO and CO are joined
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 49

Question 38.
 In the figure, the ara of the shaded region is
(a) 3π cm²
(b) 6π cm²
(c) 9π cm²
(d) 7π cm²
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 50
Solution:
In the figure, ∠B = ∠C = 90°, ∠D = 60?
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 51
∴ ∠A= 360° – (90° + 90° + 60°) = 360° – 240° = 120°
Radius of the sector = 3 cm
∴Area of shaded portion
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 52

Question 39.
If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
(a) 13 : 22
(b) 14 : 11
(c) 22 : 13
(d) 11 :14
Solution:
Let side of square = a units
∴ Area = a² sq. units
and perimeter = 4a units
Now perimeter of circle = 4a units
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 53
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 54

Question 40.
The radius of a circle is 20 cm. It is divided into four parts of equal area by drawing three concentric circles inside it. Then, the radius of the largest of three concentric circles drawn is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 55
Solution:
Radius of circle (R) = 20 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 56
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 57

Question 41.
The area of a sector whose perimeter is four times its radius r units, is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 58
Solution:
Radius of sector = r
Perimeter = 4r
and length of arc = 4r – 2r = 2r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 59

Question 42.
If a chord of a circle of radius 28 cm makes an angle of 90° at the centre, then the area of the major segment is
(a) 392 cm²
(b) 1456 cm²
(c) 1848 cm²
(d) 2240 cm²
Solution:
A chord AB makes an angle of 90° at the centre
Radius of the circle = 28 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 60
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 61

Question 43.
If the area of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle is 48π square units, then perimeter of the trianlge is
(a) 17\(\sqrt { 3 } \) units
(b) 36 units
(c) 72 units
(d) 48\(\sqrt { 3 } \)  units
Solution:
Area of a circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle = 48π sq. units
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 62

Question 44.
The hour hand of a clock is 6 cm long. The area swept by it between 11.20 am and 11.55 am is
(a) 2.75 cm²
(b) 5.5 cm²
(c) 11 cm²
(d) 10 cm²
Solution:
Length of hour hand of a clock (r) = 6 cm
Time 11.20 am to 11.55 am = 35 minutes
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 63
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 64

Question 45.
ABCD is a square of side 4 cm. If ? is a point in the interior of the square such that ΔCED is equilateral, then area of ΔACEis
(a) 2 (\(\sqrt { 3 } \) – 1) cm²
(b) 4 (\(\sqrt { 3 } \) -1) cm²
(c) 6(\(\sqrt { 3 } \)-1)cm²
(d) 8(\(\sqrt { 3 } \)-1)cm²
Solution:
Side of square ABCD = 4 cm
and side of equilateral ΔCED = 4 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 65
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 66

Question 46.
If the area of a circle is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles of diameters 10 cm and 24 cm, then diameter of the larger circle (in cm) is
(a) 34
(b) 26

(c) 17
(d) 14

Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 67

Question 47.
If π is taken as 22/7, the-distance (in metres) covered by a wheel of diameter 35 cm, in one revolution, is (a) 2.2
(b) 1.1
(b) 9.625
(d) 96.25   [CBSE 2013]
Solution:
Diameter of a wheel = 35 cm = \(\frac { 35 }{ 100 }\) m
Circumference of the wheel = πd
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 68

Question 48.
ABCD is a rectangle whose three vertices are B (4, 0), C (4, 3) and D (0, 3). The length of one of its diagonals is
(a) 5
(b) 4

(c) 3
(d) 25 [CBSE 2014]
Solution:
Three vertices of a rectangle ABCD are B (4,0), C (4, 3) and D (0, 3) length of one of its diagonals
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 69

Question 49.
Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 70
Solution:
Take a point C on the circumference of the semi-circle and join it by the end points of diameter A and B.
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 71

Question 50.
If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii r1 and r2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius r, then
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 72
Solution:
According to the given condition,
Area of circle = Area of first circle + Area of second circle.
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 73

Question 51.
If the sum of the circumference of two circles with radii r, and r2 is equal to the circumference of a circle of radius r, then
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 74
Solution:
According to the given condition, Circumference of circle = Circumference of first circle + Circumference of second circle
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 75

Question 52.
 If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal, then
(a) Area of the circle = Area of the square
(b) Area of the circle < Area of the square
(c) Area of the circle > Area of the square

(d) Nothing definite can be said
Solution:
According to the given condition, Circumference of a circle = Perimeter of square 2 πr = 4 a
[where, r and a are radius of circle and side of square respectively]
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 76

Question 53.
 If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
(a) 22 : 7
(b) 14 : 11
(c) 7 : 22
(d) 11 : 14
Solution:
Let radius of circle be r and side of a square be a
According to the given condition,
Perimeter of a circle = Perimeter of a square
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS 77

Hope given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles MCQS are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

Local Governments Class 11 Important Extra Questions Political Science Chapter 8

Here we are providing Class 11 Political Science Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Local Governments. Political Science Class 11 Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Important Extra Questions Local Governments

Local Governments Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Local Government?
Answer:
Local Government refers to the Government institutions at the local level which is very close to the people. Local Governments is about Government that involves the day to day life and problems of the people. The local government discusses and decides the local issues and problems with more and more involvement of the people of the area. Local governments include people friendly administration. It also involves the decentralization of powers and resources.

Question 2.
What is Grass-root democracy?
Answer:
Grass root democracy means strengthening the democratic process at the local level.

Grass root democracy ensures the meaningful participation of the people and also promote the accountability of the administration. For this strong and vibrant local governmental institutions are made.

Question 3.
What is the utility of the Local Governments?
Answer:
As Local governments involve the participation of the local people, therefore it ensures the solving the local problems with the involvement of the local people themselves. It is the mechanism of decentralization and efficient administration. -It gives the opportunity to the people to discuss and decide their own affairs. In this way it strong than democracy.

Question 4.
Who introduced the Gram Panchayat system in India?
Answer:
In 1882 Lord Rippon, who was the Viceroy of India at that time took the initiative in creating local governments in India. At that time they were called the Local boards. Lord Rippon is called the pioneer of Local governments in India. He wanted more and more involvement of the local people in solving the local problems. He was also in favor of the decentralization of the administration.

Question 5.
How Local governments strengthen democracy?
Answer:
In a democracy, the issues and problems should be given to the hands of the local people and their representatives because they are more familiar with their affairs and problems. They can have better control over the decision-makers and local administrators. We can say that strengthening local government means strengthening bf local democracy.

Question 6.
Discuss Mahatma Gandhi’s concept of Local government.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was a very strong supporter of grass-root democracy for which he advocated the organization of local governments in rural and urban areas. He wanted to achieve economic and political decentralization through there; local governments. It is because of the wish of Mahatma Gandhiji that the concept of local government was introduced in the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy.

Question 7.
Write the Government structure in rural areas per Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Recommendation.
Answer:
Governments of India appointed a committee under the Presidentship of Balwant Rai Mehta to go into the issue of organization and powers of the local governments in rural areas. This gave its recommendation in 1957 and suggested following a three-tier structure in rural areas.

  1. Village Panchayats at the village level.
  2. Block Samiti at Block level.
  3. Zila Parishad at the district level

Question 8.
What attention was given to local governments in the constitution?
Answer:

  1. Local governments did not get due attention in the Constitution
  2. The issue of local governments was left for the State governments
  3. The issue of Local governments was added in the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy which is non-justiciable and primarily advisory in nature.
  4. Location was considered a threat to national integration.

Question 9.
Give four lessons for their poor functioning.
Answer:
In post-independent India, in many states, local governments were organized in rural and urban areas but they did not get the desired results became of the following reasons:

  1. Factional politics in the village
  2. Caste ridden society of the village
  3. Financial problems
  4. Bureaucratic apathy
  5. Violence

Question 10.
What was the position of women and scheduled castes in local governments?
Answer:

  1. Women were inadequately represented
  2. Women were discouraged in raising any local issue particularly related to the women.
  3. There were social taboos which became a hindrance in the participation of woman.
  4. Scheduled castes were also poorly represented as there was upper caste domination in rural society.

Question 11.
Write four main provisions of the 73rd amendment of the constitution.
Answer:

  1. Local governments were given a constitutional base.
  2. Elections to the local governments were made direct.
  3. The tenure of these elected bodies was fixed.
  4. 33% seats were reserved for women and 33% seats were reserved for the scheduled castes.

Question 12.
What is Block Samiti and what is its function?
Answer:
There is a three-tier structure in rural areas. At the village level, there is Gram Panchayats. At block, the level is the Block Samiti and at the district level, Zila Parishad works. Therefore Block Samiti stands between Village Panchayat and Zila Parishad.

The main concern and responsibility of the Block Samiti is the development of rural area block level and fulfill the agriculture needs of the people. It acts as a link between Zila Parishads and village Panchayats. It controls and supervises the village Panchayats in Block.

Question 13.
Write the function of Panchayats.
Answer:

  1. To discuss the issues and problems of the village
  2. To maintain law and order and co-operation in the village.
  3. To fulfill the agriculture-based needs of the village
  4. To co-ordinate with the government through the Block Samitis and Zila Parishad for the development of the village.
  5. To get and utilize the aids from the government
  6. To decide the disputes of the village.

Question 14.
How the reservations of women in local government have improved the status of women.
Answer:
The rural society is male-dominated which is why so far there is no adequate representation of women in local government. To ensure adequate representation of the women 33% reservation is made which has certainly helped in increasing the participation of women in politics and democratic institutions. Now there is a change in socio, economic status of women.

Question 15.
What are the powers of Local government?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments (73rd and 74th) assigned as many as 29 subjects to the local governments. All these subjects are related to functions linked to local welfare and developmental needs of the people. But still lot of work is to be done to make their local governments truly representative functional and powerful.

Local Governments Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the meaning of Local Government.
Answer:
The local government refers to the institutionalized structures for governance at the local level both in rural as well as urban areas. Local governments are the mechanism of decentralized administration with the joint co-operation and co-ordination between the government’s machinery (Bu-reaucracy) and the people themselves. The concept of local government is based on the thesis that the local issues and problems of the people should be solved by the local people themselves because they know their problems better. The role of the Government should be only of facilitator and advisor.

As a part of democratic decentralization, the government should allow the local governments to raise and utilize their resources. The concept of local government aims at strengthening the people and democracy.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the Local government?
Answer:
Local governments can play a significant role in strengthening Grass-root democracy and so the state and national democracy. Local Governments promote responsibility and accountability. These institutions provide opportunities for active participation and involvement of the local people in the decision-making process. Local government is significant in the promotion of efficiency and decentralization of administration. This institution helps in solving the local people by their cooperation. Local people get the oppor¬tunity to control the administration. ‘ ‘

Question 3.
Trace the development of local governments in India.
Answer:
The concept and existence of Local governments are not new to India. There has been the existence of Local governments in different names in ancient India. They enjoyed good position and powers. In the course of time, ) these village bodies took the shape of Panchayats (an assembly of five persons) and there five persons solved the issues at the local level. Their role and position kept on changing at different points in time. However, in medieval periods the status and significance of the Local governments eroded due to changes in socio-economic and political scenarios.

During the British period, the significance of the Local government got the attention of Lord Rippon (Then Viceroy of India) who tried to strengthen them. During the independence movement, many leaders including Mahatma Gandhi demanded the strengthing of Local government. After Independence, we have the existence of Local governments but it is the subject of the state.

Question 4.
Discuss the constitutional position of the Local government.
Answer:
The issue of local governments was also discussed in the Constituent Assembly but the idea of decentralization of powers did not get adequate favor because of turmoil due to the partition of India. Most of the leaders wanted a strong center. Too much localism was considered a threat to national integration. At the same time, many leaders wanted decentralized administration and the participation and involvement of the people involving the local issues. Therefore the subject of local government is added in the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy in part in the Constitution.

Question 5.
Discuss the working of local government in the post-independence period.
Answer:
As said earlier that local government becomes the state subject but this did not get the proper attention of the local government, so could not produce results due to the following reasons :

  1. Bureaucratic apathy
  2. Poor financial position
  3. Dy-functional for long times
  4. Poor representation of women and scheduled caste
  5. The dominance of upper castes
  6. Inadequate powers
  7. The dominance of anti-social elements
  8. Political interference
  9. No recognition of local initiatives
  10. Dependence of Local government on State and Centre.

Question 6.
What was Balwant Rai Mehta Committee? Report?
Answer:
After the implementation of the Indian Constitution, the Indian government appointed a committee under the Chairmanship of Balwant Rai Mehta to study the issue of Local government in the light of the issue of Local government given in the IVth Part of the Constitution in the chapter of Directive Principles of State Policy and recommended the mode of structure and function of these local governments in a rural area. Balwant Rai Mehta committee studied and discussed the issue in detail and gave its recommen¬dation which included three-tier structure in a rural area as under.

  1. Village Panchayat at the village level
  2. Block Samiti at the block level
  3. Zila Parishad at the district level

Question 7.
Discuss the background of the 73rd and 64th constitutional amendments.
Answer:
As the Local governments were not doing well in most of the states^ except Gujarat and Rajasthan, the issue of strengthening the focal Government by restructuring them had always invited the attention of the political leadership states as well as the center. Many times this issue was raised at different levels.

When Narshima’s Congress Government came to power in 1991, he took the issue of strengthening and restructuring the Local government seriously.

In fact, he meant business. He brought two constitutional amendments which were passed in 1992 and came into force in 1993. All the states were directed to change their laws of Local government as per the provisions of the 73rd and 74th amendments.

Question 8.
Write main features of 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments.
Answer:
It was an exhaustive amendment and brought about far-reaching changes in the existing structure and status of the local governments. The main provisions are as under:

  1. The Local Governments were given constitutional status.
  2. Elections for these local governments were made direct.
  3. The tenure of these local government was fixed for five years.
  4. 33% reservation was made in total seats for. woman and 33% seats reserved for .the Scheduled castes.
  5. Provision of state Election Commissioner was made.
  6. Provision of the setting of state finance commission was made.

Question 9.
Discuss the utility of reservation of seats for women and scheduled castes and OBC in Local Government.
Answer:
Before the 73rd amendment and 74th amendment, women and weaker sections did not get adequate representation in proportion to thick numerical strength in the Local government because of the socio-economic structure’ at the grass-root level.

It is because of the provision of 33% reservation for women and 33% reservation for Scheduled castes in the 73rd and 74th amendment, these people have started to get the due representation in the local government. As a result of this representation, the^ have got empowered and are actively participating in the decision-making process. It has promoted their political recruitment and also has enhanced their social and economic status.

Question 10.
Discuss the composition of the state finance commission.
Answer:
As per the 73rd constitutional amendment, the state government is also required to appoint a state finance commission once in five years. This commission would examine the financial position of the local government in the state. It would also review the distribution of revenue between the state and local government on one hand and between rural and urban local government on the other hand. State Finance will monitor the financial health of the local government and will ensure the proper allocation and utilization of funds. It will also use the misuse of funds at the political and bureaucratic levels.

Question 11.
Discuss the main provisions of the 74th amendment.
Answer:
Local bodies at the urban level are organized to meet the needs of the urban areas. Since the needs of urban areas are different, their composition and functions are a bit different. 28% people in India like in urban area as per census 200%. The urban local Government is organized on the basis of population. The census of India defines an urban area as having.

  1. a minimum population of 5000
  2. 75% of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural occupations
  3. a density of population of a learned 400 persons per sq km.

74th amendment is a repetition of the 73rd amendment in matters of the election, tenure, reservation, transfer of subject, state Election Commissioner, and Finance Commissioner. Functions of the Local Governments have been listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.

Question 12.
Discuss the implementation of the 73rd and 74th Amendments of the constitution.
Answer:
Local Government has been given constitutional status therefore as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments it has become mandatory for all states to changes their laws about local Government accordingly. Today there are nearly 500 Zila Parishad, about 6000- Block Samitis, and about 2.50,000 gram panchayats in rural areas in India. There are about 100 city corporations, 1400 town municipalities, and over 2000 Nagar Panchayats in urban India. More than 32 lakh members are elected to these local bodies for five years out of this 32 lakh, 10 lakh members are women 73rd and 74th amendments have brought uniformity in urban and rural local Governments.

Question 13.
State the improvement in the status of women as a result of reservation in seats in Local government.
Answer:
The provision of reservation for women at the Panchayat and Nagar Palika has ensured the presence of a significant number Of women in local bodies. As this provision of the reservation is also applicable for the position of Sarpanch and Presidents a large number of women elected representatives have been able to occupy these positions. This could become possible only because of the provision of reservation. There are at least 200 women Presidents in Zila Parishad another 2000 women are the Presidents of Block Samitis and more than8000 women are occupying the position of Sarpanch in Gram Panchayat.

Similarly, we have 30 women Mayors in corporations over 500 women our President of Town municipalities, and nearly 650 Nagar Panchayats are headed by women. This shows the sharp rise in the status of women as a result of reservation by the 73rd and 74th Amendments.

Question 14.
State the improvement in the status of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes as a result of reservation by the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
Answer:
Before the 73rd and 74th amendment, certain seats were reserved for Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes in Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Assemblies. There was no reservation for Scs. and Sts. in Local Government. In spite of adult Franchise, the Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes remained underrepresented due to socio-economic structure. Liberal economic and social policies also did not ensure adequate representation of scheduled castes and tribes in social government. But now due to the provision of reservation of 33% seats reserved for Scheduled caste, the situation is changed appreciably and the people of Scheduled castes and

Scheduled tribes have been able to occupy the positions in local bodies. As the Indian population has 16.2 percent Scheduled castes and 8.2 percent Scheduled tribes, about 6.6 lakh elected members in the urban and local bodies • to belong to their two communities. This shows the rise of the status of the people of their two communities as a result of the 73rd and 74th Amendments.

Question 15.
Assess the performance of local government after the 73rd and 74th amendments.
Answer:
Local Governments are subjected not only to structure changes but wide powers are also given to them through 73rd and 74th subjects over the local resources. Now many important subjects have been brought up in the presence of local governments. Now there is real decentralization of powers and responsibility which is the result of democracy.

Now the structure of the local Government includes all the elected persons. Scheduled castes, back¬ward castes, women, bureaucratic officers, and politicians with combined opinions and co-operation of all the decisions are taken. With the addition of new subjects, the area of activities of local bodies is increased. Therefore we can say that the laws about the local governments are an important step in the direction of democratization and decentralization. We should make these provisions more and more real and practical.

Local Governments Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the main provisions of the 73rd and 74th amendments and also assess their significance.
Answer:
73rd and 74th amendments regarding the local government were passed in 1992 by the Narsimha Government and they came into force in 1993. The main provisions of these amendments are as under

  1. Direct election to the local government at different levels.
  2. It also provided a three-tier structure at the rural level
  3. It also provided fixed and uniform tenure for local governments
  4. It provided 33% reservation of seats for women and 33% reservation of seats for Scheduled castes.
  5. Constitutional status for local bodies
  6. Constitution for state Election commissioner
  7. Composition for state Finance commissioner
  8. Transfer of subjects to local bodies means giving more powers

Impact of these amendments

  1. Due to constitutional status, all the states were made to make their laws of local governments as per the provision of the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
  2. Now elections are held at regular intervals in all the states and their tenure is fixed uniformly.
  3. Women have got adequate representation
  4. Scheduled caste also have got adequate representation
  5. The status of women and scheduled castes is improved
  6. The local bodies have become more function
  7. Grass root democracy is strengthened.
  8. They have become the instrument of decentralization.

Paths to Modernization Class 11 Important Extra Questions History Chapter 11

Here we are providing Class 11 History Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Paths to Modernization. Class 11 History Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 History Chapter 11 Important Extra Questions Paths to Modernization

Paths to Modernization Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why was China a source of Culture and ideals to Japan?
Answer:
It was because of China’s being a large nation and Japan, a small island country, and proximity of both nations brought in perpetual intercourse of cultures.

Question 2.
Why did the Chinese react slowly?
Answer:
They found difficulties in redefining their traditions to cope with the modem world, in rebuilding its national strength, and in winning freedom from British and Japanese rule.

Question 3.
What did the Chinese leaders feel by the end of the 1970s?
Answer:
They felt the ideological system was retarding economic growth and development.

Question 4.
When did a more democratic political system begin in Japan?
Answer:
It was just after the US occupation which enabled Japan to emerge as a major economic power by the decade of 1970.

Question 5.
Who is considered the greatest historian of early China?
Answer:
It was Sima Qian (145-90 BCE).

Question 6.
Why did the Meiji Government in Japan appoint a bureau in 1869?
Answer:
It was appointed for the collection of records and to write a victors version of the Meiji Restoration.

Question 7.
Mention the range of written material found in Japan?
Answer:
It is in the form of official histories, scholarly writings, literature, and religious books.

Question 8.
Write the names of historians famous in China and Japan.
Answer:
These were-

  1. Kume Kunitake,
  2. Marco Polo,
  3. Mateo Ricci (Jesuit Priest) and
  4. Luis Frois. These were written in Chinese.

Question 9.
What is a physical contest between China and Japan?
Answer:
China is a vast continental country while Japan is a string of islands. China is having stable landforms while Japan is a country vulnerable to earthquakes. China has three river systems while Japan has no such drainage system. China has several nationalities i.e. Uighur, Hui, Manchu, and Tibetan but Japan has a single majority of Japanese.

Question 10.
What kind of regional diversity in Chinese food is seen?
Answer:
Chinese food is in variety. Generally, there are four types / of dishes:-

  1. Cantonese Cuisine,
  2. Staple food like wheat,
  3. Fiery Cuisine and
  4. Rice and wheat.

Question 11.
Write the names of four large islands forming Japan?
Answer:

  1. Honshu,
  2. Kyushu,
  3. Shikoku and
  4. Hokkaido

Question 12.
Who had held the position of Shogun in Japan and when?
Answer:
The members of the Tokugawa family held the position of Shogun (regent) from 1603 to 1867 in Japan.

Question 13.
Who was Samurai?
Answer:
It was the warrior class who served the Shoguns and Daimyo (the ruler of a domain).

Question 14.
Which measure had proved good to check frequent Chaos within Japan?
Answer:
Earlier, the farmers had to participate in defense sendees hence, arms were supplied to them by the administration. However, those arms and weapons were used in internal conflicts. The peasantry ’ was disarmed and it proved non-repetition of those internal clashes ‘ and conflicts.

Question 15.
What was the achievement of Japan by the mid-seventeenth century?
Answer:
Japan had grown in the three most populated and vast cities viz. Edo (Presently Tokyo), Osaka, and Kyoto.

Question 16.
How can you state that Japan achieved economic growth during the regime of Shoguns?
Answer:
It is because

  1. Silk Industry was developed in Nishijin,
  2. Use of money increased,
  3. The stock market in rice created,
  4. Theatres and movies established,
  5. Books were published.

Question 17.
What does the Tale of Genji reveal?
Answer:
It reveals that Japanese culture was more ancient or older than that of Chinese. It was a fictionalized diary written by Murasaki Shikibu.

Question 18.
What is assumed about the origin of Japan?
Answer:
It was assumed that Japan was created by God and its emperor was a descendant of the Sun goddess.

Question 19.
Why would the USA have seen Japan as a major market?
Answer:
It was because Japan falls on the route to China.

Question 20.
Describe the commotion created in Japan when China, was defeated by the British?
Answer:
The news of China’s subordination by the British generated, a wave of fear among the Japanese. They sent some people to Europe to study Imperialism and its strategies.

  1. They were ready to adopt
  2. Modern military force was developed.
  3. The legal system for political groups, public gatherings, and scrutiny of all affairs.
  4. Japanese students were sent abroad to develop their technical know-how in the institutions there.
  5. Subsidies and tax benefits are given to shipbuilding companies.

Question 27.
Why did the Meiji Government face opposition?
Answer:
It was because the military and bureaucracy were kept outside the Constitution. Hence, these organs of government began to give stiff opposition.

Question 28.
What acts did exhibit the modernization of the Japanese economy?
Answer:

  1. Agriculture tax was imposed for capital-formation.
  2. Railway line laid between Tokyo and Yokohama.
  3. Textile machinery was imported from Europe and foreign technicians were appointed in order to impart education in technology.
  4. Japanese students were sent abroad to develop their technical know-how in the institutions there.
  5. Subsidies and tax benefits are given to shipbuilding companies.

Question 29.
What measures did the government of Japan adopt for the reduction Of population pressure?
Answer:

  1. Allowed migration to Hokkaido (an island), Hawaii, and Brazil.
  2. Launched war-campaigns to establish colonies in other countries.

Question 30.
Mention the pace of population increase in Japanese cities during 1925-1935?
Answer:
It was 21 percent of the total population in 1925 but within a span of a single decade, if increased to 32 percent (22.5 million) in 1935.

Question 31.
Write the series of increases in the number of factories in Japan between 1909 to 1940.
Answer:
A number of factories employing more than one hundred workers-was 1,000 in 1909 spurt up to 2,000 by 1920, 4,000 by 1930, and 5,50,000 by 1940.

Question 32.
Mention the main characteristics of the Meiji Constitution?
Answer:

  1. It was based on a restricted franchise.
  2. Parliament (Diet) was not given wider powers/

Question 33.
Who was Tanaka Shozo and why is he so popular in Japan’s politics?
Answer:

  1. He participated in the Popular Rights Movement in 1880.
  2. He was elected member of the first Diet (Parliament).
  3. He forced the in charge of The Ashio Mine to use – pollution-control devices in order to protect the Watarase river from pollution.

Question 34.
What were the major background factors responsible for the strengthening of the military and expansion of Japan’s colonial empire?
Answer:
These were-

  1. the Army and Navy were given independent control,
  2. Services as generals and admirals in the past were made a condition to become a minister,
  3. Higher Taxes imposed to compensate for the expenditure on defense.

Question 35.
Who was Fukuzawa Yukichi?
Answer:
He was a leading Meiji intellectual who advocated westernization for Japan. He was from Samurai (warrior) family. He had established Keio University and served as a translator for the first Japanese embassy to the U.S.A. He promoted western learning.

Question 36.
Who was opposite to the complete westernization of Japan in line with the USA and Western European countries?
Answer:
Those learned people were-Miyake set Suri and Ueki Emon, a leader of the Popular Rights Movement. They were demanding a constitutional Government. Their statements were-” To devote oneself to one’s country is to devote oneself to the world.” “Japan should be based not on the military but on democracy. ”

Question 37.
What were the effects observed in Japanese society with the adoption of modernization?
Answer:
These effects were-

  1. Joint family system dissolved and nuclear family system preferred,
  2. Demand for housing, consumer goods, domestic appliances, etc. increased and industries concerned had prospered,
  3. New forms of travel (trams line) developed, Departmental stores opened and public parks were opened,
  4. Radio Station opened, movies began to be made and traditional norms gradually disappeared.

Question 38.
How had Nishitani Keiji defined the term “Modem”?
Answer:
This term was defined as the unity of three streams of Western thought-

  1. the Renaissance,
  2. The Protestant Reformation and
  3. The rise of natural sciences.

Question 39.
Why did Nishitani Keiji state Japan’s moral energy helpful to escape colonization?
Answer:
Japan’s moral energy was nothing else but her strong faith in indigenous norms of society. She studied western culture, strategies, policies, and manners of living but adopted only useful in the situations of Japan. He further says that a fine blend of science and religion will help her in establishing a greater East Asia.

Question 40.
What was discussed in Japan in a symposium on “Overcoming Modernity” in 1943?
Answer:
The measures decided were pertaining to modernize with tools taken from Western Countries but apply them consciously and cautiously on Japanese land viz. affirming with the real situations in Japan.

Question 41.
What was the essence of the new constitution formed in Japan after her defeat in the hands of the USA?
Answer:
It was-

  1. No war clause was introduced in state policy,
  2. Agriculture will be made a priority area for reclamation and investment,
  3. Trade unions will be re-established,
  4. The monopoly of Zaibasth or industrial Houses holding control on economy shall be checked,
  5. The election shall be held in 1946 with men as well as women voters.

Question 42.
What will you say to a post-war miracle in Japan?
Answer:
It was Japan’s age-long experience of struggles, a historic tradition, and intellectual pursuits.

Question 43.
Which are the premier or cardinal points of China’s modern history?
Answer:
These are-

  1. Region of sovereignty after long strife,
  2. Get-rid of humiliation caused by foreign rule,
  3. Measure to bring about equality and development.

Question 44.
Who has ascribed fame for the modernization of China?
Answer:
Those learned people were-

  1. Kan Youwei and Liang Qichao.
  2. Sun-Yat-Sen and
  3. Mao-Zedong. Kan Youwei used traditional ideas in new and different ways. Sun-Yat-Sen establishes the first republic and whose middle-way of Japan and the western traditions and practices. Mao-Zedong fought for the removal of inquiries and foreign rule. He was the great leader of C.C.P.

Question 45.
How could England gather the courage to force the opium trade in China?
Answer:
England had pre-planned in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries when missionaries were sent to China. They collected information on the weaknesses of China and reported them in their country. On the basis of it, England could gather the courage to challenge China in the opium war which had run continuously for three years i.e. 1839-1842.

Question 46.
What style of the opium trade was adopted by the British?
Answer:
Opium was collected by East India Company and issued a letter of credit to her agent against the payment, they had received ‘ in China and the silver was used to buy tea, silk, and porcelain for export in Britain. It was a triangular trade between Britain, India, and China.

Question 47.
What did Kang Youwei and Liang Qichao realize in respect of the developments in China?
Answer:
In order to protect China from colonization, they felt the need for a modem administrative system, a new army, and educated. system and setting-up of local assemblies to establish constitutional government.

Question 48.
What were the three essential factors of Confucianism?
Answer:
Those were-

  1. good conduct,
  2. practical wisdom and
  3. proper social relationship.

Question 49.
What was the outcome of sending students of Japan, Britain, and France to study?
Answer:
The Chinese could understand the implication of justice, rights, and revolution and they used them to reverse traditional relationships.

Question 50.
Why did the examination system in China meet to abolition?
Answer:
The only literary skill was required to attend these exams for Civil Services resulting in a rapid increase of unemployment problem c for the educated youth. Hence, this system was abolished.

Question 51.
What was the program implemented by Sun-Yat- Sen, the founder of modem China?
Answer:
It was called San-min-Chui or Three principles. These were

  1. To overthrow foreign dynasty (Manchu)
  2. To establish democratic government or democracy and
  3. To bring socialism to regulate capital and equalize landholdings.

Question 52.
What were the avowed aims of revolutionaries when China was made a colony by the British?
Answer:

  1. To drive out the foreigners from China,
  2. To remove inequalities and
  3. to reduce poverty.

Question 53.
What were the reforms necessary as per the revolutionaries in China?
Answer:
According to revolutionaries, the reforms needed were-

  1. Use of Simple language in writing,
  2. Abolition of the practice of foot-binding and subordination of women,
  3. Equality in marriage,
  4. Economic development to end poverty.

Question 54.
What for a military campaign was launched by Chiang- Kai-Shek?
Answer:
He was the leader of NPP or Guomindang. after Sun-Yat- Sen. He wanted to control the warlords and powerful regional leaders and to eliminate the communists.

Question 55.
What were the views of Chiang-Kai-Shek for women’s welfare?
Answer:
According to Chiang-Kai-Shek, women should cultivate in themselves, the four virtues i.e. Chastity, appearance, speech, and work, and recognize their role as confined to the household. A dress code was also suggested by him.

Question 56.
Who were the supporters of Guomindang (NPP)?
Answer:
These were slum dwellers (Xiao-Shimin), traders, and shopkeepers in cities.

Question 57.
Which were the factors bringing in social and political change?
Answer:
These factors were-

  1. The spread of schools and colleges,
  2. Journalism preferred by the mass,
  3. The activities of Mahatma Gandhi and Kernel Ataturk (the modernist leader of Turkey) as a stimulus to follow for the independence of China.

Question 58.
Why did Buck Clayton extend his favor to the Chinese in their fight for discrimination against white Americans?
Answer:
Actually, Buck Clayton was black-American, and once some white Americans assaulted him in Shanghai. That event melted his heart for black-Chinese and being resourceful, he had assisted those people in the removal of likewise discrimination.

Question 59.
Write the causes of failures faced by the Guomindang?
Answer:
These were-

  1. Overlooked mass problems,
  2. An imposed military order,
  3. Neither capital was regulated under socialism nor land holdings distributed equally.

Question 60.
Why did Comintern or the Third International Organisation constituted by Lenin and Trotsky meet to dissolution?
Answer:
It was made a tool for soviet interests otherwise, it could support Communist Party in China.

Question 61.
What were the thoughts of Mao Zedong?
Answer:
He was a great and veteran leader of C.C.P. and his thoughts were-

  1. Party should make its rural base,
  2. Independent government and Army to be organized,
  3. Women associations to be formed in order to forbid arranged marriages, abolish marriage contracts, and process of divorce to be made easier than existing.

Question 62.
What was new democracy and when was it established in Japan?
Answer:
New Democracy was Communism but women dictatorship of the proletariat. It was an alliance of all social classes. Core areas of the economy were put under government control and private enterprise and private ownership of land were gradually ended.

Question 63.
What were Communes?
Answer:
Communes were formed in rural areas where a group of people began forming inland collectively owned by them. There were 26,000 communes in 1958 covering 98% of the farm population.

Question 64.
Why did Mao launch the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution in 1965?
Answer:
Among some Chinese, there were critics of the.CCP and its leader Mao-Zedong. They did not like the commune system, steel production in the backward furnaces, and the organization which was constituted by him. In order to satisfy through dialogue or face to face debate, Mao launched the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution.

Question 65.
What were the Four Modernisations of the Communist Party of China?
Answer:
Under the leadership of Deng Xiaoping, the Communist Party of China introduced a socialist market economy. Four modernizations were the four thrust areas i.e. Science, industry, agriculture, and defense. The aim was to promote these areas for modernization.

Question 66.
What had happened on the seventieth anniversary of the May Fourth movement?
Answer:
The Chinese populace was raising demands continuously for several years in the past but left without explanation thereon by the Party. When the people demonstrated at Tiananmen Square in Beijing, they were mercilessly beaten.

Question 67.
What was the political status of Taiwan?
Answer:
It was transferred to the sovereignty of Japan after the 1894-95 war with China but subsequently, the Cairo Declaration of 1943 and the Potsdam Proclamation of 1949 gave it back under the sovereignty of China.

Question 68.
Who had founded the Republics of China in Taiwan?
Answer:
It was Chiang Kai-Shek the leader of N.P.P. or the Guomindang. It was in the year 1942 when Taiwan was under China’s Sovereignty.

Question 69.
What was done by GMD Under Chiang Kai-Shek in Taiwan than the republic of China?
Answer:

  1. It repressed mercilessly, the demonstrations in, Feb. 1947.
  2. It prohibited freedom to press and political opposition as also declined authorities of people in higher positions were thrown to demotion, humiliation. Carried out land-reforms that had modernized the economy.
  3. Helped in creating an environment in which the gap between rich and poor sharply receded. It was only good the Party had done.

Question 70.
What has been done in Taiwan after the death of Chiang Kai-shek in 1975?
Answer:

  1. It is climbing on democratic steps.
  2. Martial law was lifted in 1987.
  3. Opposition parties are legally permitted.
  4. The election has been conducted beyond any reservations or restrictions or discrimination with the local people.

Question 71.
Do you think Taiwan will get merged with China?
Answer:
It is the demarcation of a strait between China and Taiwan. Taiwan is a semi-autonomous state under China. There is an improvement in relations, trade and investment have been improved and travel has also become easier i.e. free from acute inquiries by authorities.

Paths to Modernization Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What were the questions in debate ringing in the minds of the populace in China?
Answer:
These were-

  1. Whether Party’s strong political control, economic liberalization, and integration into the global market have not generated the virus of inequalities between social groups, between regions, and between men and women resulting in mass tension.
  2. Whether heavy emphasis on market and open sanction would not crush the recognition of Chinese culture and manners as well?
  3. Whether copying others is not suicidal China should better peep into Confucianism containing and concerned with good conduct, practical and proper social relationship.

Question 2.
Do you think modernization can be brought in personality, in ways of thinking, in appearance, in behavioral pattern, etc. merely by direct copying siblings, great men, etc? Discuss.
Answer:
When we see, the children taught by a single teacher, appear with different portfolios in their youth, any society maker should not think that his speech/action and temperament is equally accepted by all the populace amid which he is heard, behaved, and faced. Modernization in western countries should be first studied from electronic and print media and observed with its common reflection on the masses and the thorough cycle of study not less than a decade and situations at one’s home, village, town, and a country worth reminiscence or worth recollection. An introspection and review comparative are then made before framing generalization and riding at the stair of conclusion.

“Copying is fatal and suicidal” one should keep in mind or be ready to repent after three or four decades, as it is an inevitable after-effects/strokes.

Question 3.
Why d,o you think Japan is progressing?
Answer:
Each progress stands on degrees to the existing systems. It depends on the adoption of that change, to what extent observation is made, experiments/trials are done and its generalization X-rayed. Japan is an export country brimmed with actual intellectual property, not pseudo stifling minds, hence, tangible progress of Japan is owed to that intangible property, she had. We can highlight some tangible attitudes of Japan as under-

  1. Japan cooked the bread of her modernization program on the heat of Imperial powers galloping and gobbling the sovereignty of countries like China and India, both her neighbors. It was the challenge where she had to make her way to keep its sovereignty intact.
  2. It proceeded on sending students abroad, promoting an atmosphere of reading-habits, setting-up up libraries, licensing associations, symposiums, seminars, summits frequently, and allowing the press to come for public awareness.
  3. Japanese ancient literature, remains, scriptures, etc. were made subject to the curriculum for schools and colleges.
  4. Give special emphasis on industrialization with Research and Development infrastructure made available. Science and technology began to be taught by experts from abroad. Thus, Japan had arranged the men, machines, and means with skilled enterprise, hence, she is duly progressing.

Question 4.
Analyze the path chosen by China for her modernization?
Answer:
Existing situations and circumstances-

  1. China was under British rule,
  2. Japan also had defeated China,
  3. Qing dynasty had weakened the control.

Result-Political and Social order failed to keep the masses at ease and with comforts. Situations had taken a toll of several thousand lives in the course of internal (civil) unrest and invasion by foreign powers. Epidemics had further aggravated the pains of the public.

Owing to these circumstances, China could see the light of progress later than Japan.

Inherent Causes-

  1. Only literary meaning, not an implication of the doctrines or principles were taken care of.
  2. CCP and N.P.P. irrespective of almost equal aims generated internal unrest for several years.
  3. The general public took the negative example of colonized countries. They could understand slavery only when the British used Indian soldiers in the opium war with China.
  4. China could see reformers like Sun-Yat-Sen, politicians, and revolutionaries like Mao-Zedong (CPP) and Deng Xiaoping only in the nineteenth century.

Question 5.
Do you think old traditions and habits were the main deterrents to the modernization of China? Discuss.
Answer:
Old Traditions and Habits-

  1. Confucianism was concerned with good conduct, practical wisdom, and proper social relationship.
  2. Customs which were painful to the woman.
  3. A Socialist man was taken to a person who has five loves: fatherland, people, labor, science, and public property.

Confucianism, no doubt a great stimulus but not understood in its implied meaning. It was taken as a synonym to cowardice, loathsome and a device to intrigue Eg. Two parties conflict with each other. Hence, the above were the traditions that could not modernize China.

Question 6.
Give a brief account of C.C.P?
Answer:

  1. It was founded in 1921.
  2. Initially, ft followed the organization Comintern propounded by Lenin and Trotsky.
  3. Mao-Zedong was the leader of CCP who studied levels of exploitation practiced on the masses in Xunwn and some other places. His base of program was rural.
  4. He organized a strong peasant’s council (Soviet) united through confiscation and redistribution of land.
  5. Under his leadership, CCP faced NPP boldly and on strong ground. Finally, it was won.
  6. CCP fought against foreign rule, carried out land reforms, and took stem action to end warlordism.

Question 7.
Who were the leaders of the Guomindang or N.P.P. and C.C.P. What they did?
Answer:
CCP’s founder was Mau-Zedong and other leaders were Liu- Shao-chi and Deng Xiaoping. It was founded in 1921.
NPP’s founder was Sun-Yat-Sen who had to establish the first republic of China. Its other leader was Chiang Kai-Shek.

Activities-C.C.P.-It organized a strong peasant’s council (Soviet) between 1928 to 1934. It stressed the need for an independent government and army. It needed the women’s problems and in order to empower them, he made their associations. It also took causes of child labor and other issues. Under C.C.P, All-China Democratic Women’s Federation and All-China students Federation became popular. This party students Federation became popular. This party won the NPP and Chiang-Kai-Shek had to slide at Taiwan, a territory semi-autonomous under China’s sovereignty. Its leader was Mao Zedong.

N. P. P.-It was based on the principle of Confucious followed by Sun-Yat-Sen the republican. Chiang-Kai-Shek was another leader. It identified four needs i.e. clothing, food, housing, and transportation. It was against landlords, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. It made Confucianism rational and secular and thought better, the military rule for the country. Schools and Universities were opened in China/women’s rights were advocated and the working-class in factories increased in number.

Question 8.
Contrast the encounter of the Japanese and the Aztecs with the Europeans.
Answer:
Encounter by Japan-

  1. (i) Propagated information on European Imperialism and Colonies formed under that approach.
  2. A number of articles written, magazines published, and public awareness was created.
  3. Students were sent to Britain, Germany, and France to study politics, ethics, social affairs in those countries.
  4. Employed foreign experts for teaching science and technologies in schools and colleges.
  5. Took technical know-how on installation and operations in factories in Japan.
  6. Slogans like Fukoku Kyohei (rich country, strong army) were sounded among the masses.
  7. Created a sense of nationhood among citizens.
  8. European system understood consisting of emperor, bureaucracy, and military.

Encounter by Aztecs-

  1. They (the Tax clans) fought bravely but massacred by Cortes and his soldiers as Totonacs, an organization, an enemy to the Aztec dynasty but under her rule that time was befriended by Spaniards.
  2. Montezuma was god-fearing King of the Aztec dynasty as he took Cortes reincarnation of an exiled god and thought, he had reappeared to take revenge.
  3. The King allowed Cortes to enter the capital and gave him grand reception so that he would return without bloodshed but he remained there in months, interfered with the administration, and one day detained him. It ashamed the King and he committed suicide.

Question 9.
Would you agree with Nishitani’s definition of “Modem”?
Answer:
The term “Modern” as defined by Nishitani, a philosopher was composed of crystal of the Renaissance, the Protestant Reformation, and the rise of natural sciences all western thought.

In my opinion, that scholar was all true. It was actually, an exercise to integrate science and religion. These two things are as essential and inevitable as the relation of the body (a crystal made of matters i.e. solid, liquid, and gas) and the soul (emotions, instincts, temperament, and discretion). Science is boon and curses simultaneously depending on its application and, that is possible only when the individual is abreast with biology, botany, environment, the ethics, interrelation of human beings with the environment, etc. On one side, science provides the populace with comforts and ease, while on the other, it spreads devastation; if applied in the manufacture of hydrogen, nuclear bombs. The consequence of the renaissance, the protestant reformations, and the contribution of science to them were, therefore, worth noticing and comparing with the circumstances that existed in Japan.

Question 10.
Does the following painting give you a clear sense of the significance of the opium war?
Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 11 Paths to Modernization 1
The Opium Trade

The demand for Chinese goods such as tea, silk, and porcelain created a serious balance-of-trade problem. Western goods did not find a market in China, so payment had to be in silver. The East India Company found a new option – opium, which grew in India. They sold the opium in China and gave the silver that they earned to company agents in Canton in return for letters of credit. The company used the silver to buy tea, silk, and porcelain to sell in Britain. This was the ‘triangular trade’ between Britain, India, and China.
Answer:
Visible things in the paintings

  1. A huge fleet of ships on the sea.
  2. Some ships are immersed and some others almost drown in the sea.
  3. There appears an explosion perhaps that of cannons exploded. Its reflection can be seen on the surface of the sea-water. Smoke shows arson and loot.
  4. There are ripples up and down on the surface of sea-water. It shows an acute commotion as generally takes place when war is fought.
  5. Lastly, we see soldiers on Plymouth or small boats rowed from all directions.

Conclusion-On the basis of the above five visions/pictures that are seen on this painting, depicting a war being fought from the sea.

Question 11.
How does a sense of discrimination unite people?
Answer:
1. As the development and destruction run simultaneously, equality and discrimination are like two aspects of the same coin. For instance, Buck Clayton in this theme has been told a black American but a wealthy man. By chance, he had to meet insults and humiliations in the hands of White Americans in Shanghai. The apology was, however, asked by them in his matter but he since that day, became a friend to all Chinese and protested against that discrimination viz. he was united with the entire community of black-people.

2. Discrimination is that pleasing thing that receives a wider response from the person who is discriminated against. On such occasions, boundaries of territories, differences due to Social and Economic status are forgotten and the man discriminated against intakes the issue in-depth and joins himself with the community, so discriminated.

Question 12.
Why did the Guomindang fail in China?
Answer:

  1. Its base was confined to the urban population and never raised the issues pertaining to the common masses.
  2. Its political vision was very limited as Chian-Kai-Shek wanted his rule in China. His visit to Taiwan and the Constitution of the Republic of China there is all apparent.
  3. It favored military campaigns against foreigners as also against CPP who was also dedicated to win freedom for China and modernize her. It reveals the narrow-mindedness of Guomindong under Chiang-kai- Shek.
  4. It sought military rule for China which was never possible in the prime of democracy.
  5. It never took positively, the women’s cause. It instead, made some stiff rules for women and favored their confinement within four walls of the house.

Question 13.
Why did the examination system in China appear as a barrier to the development of Science and Technology?
Answer:
The examination system till 1850 in China had the following characteristics-

  1. It was arranged for the selection of top-class officials and bureaucrats.
  2. The examination was held twice every three years.
  3. There were different levels.
  4. It could be passed only by 1-2 percent of the total examinees.
  5. There were 27,000 official positions but the degree holders were about 5,26,869 civil and 2,12,330 military provincial degree holders. It caused gross unemployment.
  6. It demanded only literary skills that had no use in science and technology. Owing to the above characteristics, this system was abolished in 1905.

Question 14.
Give a brief account of Fukuzawa Yukichi?
Answer:
He was one of the highest intelligent members of the Meiji family. He is born in a poor Samurai family. He acquired higher education in Dutch, western sciences, and English in Nagasaki and Osaka. He was a translator for the first Japanese embassy to the USA. He had composed a hook on The Encouragement to Learning (Gakumon no Susume) not in classical but in the spoken style that became extremely popular. He established a school promoted today as the Keio University. He was a member of the society Meirokusha, engaged in the promotion of Western learning. He had advocated not just modem factories and institutes but the cultural essence of the west, the spirit of colonization. His doctrine was-Heaven did not create men above men nor set men below men.

Paths to Modernization Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the theme “Paths to modernization” taking two countries i.e. China and Japan, striving for modernization. Mention „ the political thoughts, society and law and orders, and essence of modernization adopted by Japan a smaller country than China.
Answer:

Pathfinders social reformers and revolutionaries in japan. Two Countries i.e. Japan and China.Social reformers Murasaki Shikibu (an author of Tale of Genji), Commodore Matthew Perry (the messenger from the USA), Fukuzawa Yukichi, Miyake Setsurei, Ueki Emori, and Nishitani Keiji.
Social reformers in china Kang Yonwai, Liang Qichao, Sun- Yat-Sen, (the first President of a republic), Chiang- Kai-Shek, Mao- Zedong, Deng Xiaoping, and Liu Shao-chi.

Views of Japanese reformers and revolutionists
(a) Murasaki Shikibu-She had written a fictionalized diary of
the Heian Court. She wrote in Japanese. She had raised the issue of women’s rights and the ways for their empowerment.

(b) Commodore Matthew Perry-He was an ambassador sent from the USA in order to persuade the Japanese for making bilateral trade ties. He guided the emperor of Kyoto and he became able to overthrow the Shogun dynasty from power. Edo was renamed Tokyo and made the capital.

(c) Fukuzawa Yukichi-He wrote a book The Encourgenent Of Learning which proved very useful in the propagation of westernization in Japan. He thought the USA and Western European Countries at the highest point of civilization. He had suggested Japanese shed their Asian characteristics and become part of the west.

(d) Miyake Setsurei-He stated that each nation must develop its special talents in the interests of world civilization. He added that to devote oneself to one’s country is to devote oneself to the world.

(e) Ueki Emori-He was the leader of the Popular Rights Movement. He demanded constitutional government, favored the natural rights of man as per the French Revolution. He told that democracy is a must for wealth development in all fields and liberal education will able to generate intellectuals. He emphatically declared-“Freedom is more precious than order.”

(f) Nishitani Kaiji-He was a philosopher and defined the term modern as the unity of three streams of western thought viz. Renaissance, the Protestant Reformation, and the rise of natural sciences. He put his feet in the shoes of a German Philosopher when saying that Japan’s moral energy had helped it to escape colonization and it was its duty to establish a new world order, a greater East Asia but it will possible only when science and religion are duly intertwined.

Views of Chinese reformers and revolutionaries
(a) Kang Youwei-He tried to use traditional ideas in new and different ways to meet the challenges posed by the west.

(b) Lian Qichao-He also realized the need to strengthen the system and initiated policies to build a modem administrative system, a new army, an educational system, and the setting-up of local assemblies to establish constitutional government.

(c) Sun-Yat-Sen-He was the first Republican leader and regarded as the founder of modem China. He had acquired education from a missionary school hence, democracy and Christianity were in essence known to him. His three principles were-Nationalism, Democracy, and Socialism interpreted as overthrowing the Manchu (looked as foreign dynasty) and other imperialists, establishing democratic government and regulating capital, and equalizing landholdings. Fie identified four needs i.e. clothing, food, housing, and transportation.

Under his leadership, reforms such as the use of simple language in writing, the abolition of the practice of foot-binding and the subordination of women, equality in marriage, and economic developments to end poverty, were made.

(d) Chian-Kai-Shek-He was the leader of N.P.P. or the Guomindang. He favored military rule for China and put a check on Warlords, the pressure groups, and the elimination of the communists. He was favoring secular and rational Confucianism but thrusting military power in its womb. NPP does possible attempt to unite the country but failed due to the narrow-mindedness of its leader, social base being confined to urban people, and passion to establish a military rule. N.P.P. aroused tensions in China as it took CPP as its rival while so far their objectives were concerned, those were identical. Finally, Chiang-Kai-Shiek had. to leave China and settle in Taiwan, the semi-autonomous state under China, and established the Republic of China there.

Percussions of the efforts made by revolutionaries and social reformers:
(a) Japan-

  1. Studies of ancient Japanese literature proliferated and people could know that their culture is older than China.
  2. Schools and Colleges were opened and scholars were sent abroad to study politics especially, imperialism and its consequences or its after-effect.
  3. Emperor system adopted. The Government had thus, three components i.e. the emperor, the bureaucracy, and the Army.
  4. Two phonetic alphabets (Hiragana and Katakana) were developed.
  5. Military being made an integral part of the govt., it posed hurdles for some years in the spread of democracy.
  6. A textile industry developed, cities’ population – increased and Railway lines were laid.
  7. Fear of falling into the trap of Imperial power gave birth to aggressive nationalism.
  8. Westernization put its step in Japan as leading Meiji intellectual Fukuzawa Yukichi said-“Japan must expel Asia”.
  9. The joint family system dissolved and nuclear families gathered momentum.
  10. A turn of thinking for the populace as to how to combat the West while being modern came in offing. Refer to Nishitani Keiji’s statement.

(b) China-
1. Modernisation began with the arrival of Jesuit missionaries who entered China and opened Schools there.

2. Missionaries took notice of China’s territories and administrative processes which encouraged Britishers to push the opium trade into China. It resulted in three opium wars between 1839-42. These were fought between China and England (Britain). China defeated and made a colony by Britain.

3. Two countries i..e India and China, both British colonies were befooled by Britain in opium trade resulting in Britain’s coffer grew fat win hard currency.

4. Missionaries injected the virus of rabbles into the veins of the Chinese as they acclaimed the British when Poland was partitioned.

5. Gradually, the. the populace could understand the reality of the British when schools and colleges were opened and a number of students were sent to Britain, Germany, America, France, and Russia in order to understand the lands and people with their diversities in physical forms, as also temperature and temperament (of people).

6. Examination System for civil and military officials was withdrawn as classical learning was found unsuitable to administrative and regularity authorities.

7. Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic came into existence in 1911. Sun-Yat-Sen was its founder.

8. Post-war peace conference could not provide China with liberty for which anti-war was promised by Britishers. Hence, revolution and movements came in offing and shortly swung on and against Britishers.

9. N.P.P and CPP formed, stood as a rival, NPP caused several encounters with CPP. Finally, CPP won
and NPP sheltered to Taiwan, a quasi-autonomous territory under China. Thus, Chiang-Kie-Shek formed the Republic of China there.

10. The Peoples’ Republic of China government was formed in 1949 and called New Democracy in which critical areas handled by the Government, Private ownership of land, and private enterprises were ended-up.

11. Mao-Zedong got acclamation for his expertise and enterprise to the Communist Party of China as its founder leader.

12. Traditional views and values recently, are reviving since last a decade and modernization reconciled with specific recognition to China’s traditional moral values being given.

13. CCP under the Leadership of Deng Xiaoping declared. its goal as the four modernizations i.e. Science, industry, agriculture, and defense will be the thrust or priority areas.

14. Without Democracy, the other modernizations would do no good, was the thought echoing in the minds of the populace and it had been accepted as the Fifth Modernisation. Demands were, crushed but the administration was challenged again on the seventieth anniversary of the May Fourth Movement.

Conclusion-An X-ray on this entire theme makes it ex -facie that a drive to modernization was rationally and the scientific way [Thorough observation, experiment (trial application), generalization and conclusion] adopted by Japan while China, on the other side, a larger and continental country with mushrooming population could understand the real meaning of the term “modem” in 1978 i.e. 35 years later than Japan. Japan rose like a rocket but dashed with USA body, lost Nagasaki and Hiroshima parts, shortly repaired in her ‘workshop during the post-war period and with precautions and invincible speed; ag^in took-off at the stratosphere.

It’s all phenomenon of the genesis of thoughts and thinkers, their experiments with the masses, coordinating and annihilating, selection of potentials and means at the national level and get it done by masses with success, always invincible when scientific way conclusion on the project arrives as we could learn this fact by virtue of this theme.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 Important Questions Accountancy Chapter 3

Here we are providing Class 12 Accountancy Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner. Accountancy Class 12 Important Questions and Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Important Extra Questions Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is meant by Issued Capital ? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Issued capital means such capital as the company issues from time to time for subscription-section 2(50) of the companies Act 2013.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘ Employees Stock Option Plan? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
FSOP means an option granted by the company to its employees & employee directors to subscribe the share at a price that lower than the market price i.e., fair value. It is an option granted by the company but it is not an obligation on the employee to subscribe it.

Question 3.
A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. C and D were admitted as new partners.
A sacrificed ith of his share in favour of C and B sacrificed 50% of his share in favour of D. Calculate the 4 new profit sharing ratio of A, B, C and D.(CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Old ratio = 3:2
A’s Sacrifice (in favour of C) = 1/4 x 3/5 = 3/20
B’s Sacrifice (in favour of D) = 1/2 x 2/5 = 2/10
A’s New Share = 3/5 – 3/20 = 9/20
B’s New Share = 2/5 – 2/10 = 2/10

Question 4.
Ankit, Unnati and Aryan are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. They decided to share future profits in the ratio of 2:3:5 with effect from 1st April, 2018. They had the following balance in their balance sheet, passing necessary Journal Entry:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 1
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 2

Question 5.
A and B are partners in a firm. They admit C as a partner with l/5th share in the profits of the firm. C brings ₹ 4,00,000 as his share of capital. Calculate the value of C’s share of Goodwill on the basis of his capital, given that the combined capital of A and B after all adjustments is ₹ 10,00,000. (CBSE Sample Paper 2019-20)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 3

Question 6.
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2.On 1st April, 2019 they decided to admit C their new ratio is decided to be equal. Pass the necessary journal entry to distribute Investment Fluctuation Reserve of ₹ 60,000 at the time of C’s admission, when Investment appear in the books at ₹ 2,10,000 and its market value is ₹1,90,000.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 4

Question 7.
A and B are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C into partnership with 1/5th share which he acquires equally from A and B. Accountant has calculated new profit sharing ratio as 5:3:2. Is accountant correct:
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 5
New Profit Sharing ratio of A: B: C ¡s 5:3: 2
Yes, new profit sharing ratio is 5:3:2

Question 8.
A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. They decided to change their profit sharing ratio to 2:2:1 w.e.f. 1st April, 2019. On that date, there was a balance of ₹ 3,00,000 in General Reserve and a debit balance of ₹ 4,80,000 in the Profit and Loss Account.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above on account of change in the profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 6

Question 9.
At the time of admission of a partner, who decides the share of profit of the new partner out of the firm’s profit? (CBSE Compartment 2019)
Answer:
It is decided mutually among the old partners and the new partner.

Question 10.
Hari and Krishan were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. They admitted Shyam as a partner for 1/5th share in the profit. For this purpose the Goodwill of the firm was to be value on the basis of three years’s purchase of last five years average profits. The profits for the last five years were:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 7
Calculate Goodwill of the firm after adjusting the following:
The profit of 2014-15 was calculated after charging ₹ 10,000 for abnormal loss of goods by fire.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 8

Question 11.
Amit and Beena were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 1. Chaman was admitted as a new partner for 1/6th share in the profits. Chaman acquired 2/5th of his share from Amit. How much share did Chaman acquired from Beena? (CBSE 2018-19)
Answer:
Chaman acquired 1/6 – (1/6 x 2/5) = 3/30 from Beena.

Question 12.
Ritesh and Hitesh are childhood friends. Ritesh is a consultant whereas Hitesh is an architect. They contributed equal amount and purchased a building for ₹2 crore. After 10 years they sold it for ₹3 crore and shared the profit equally. Are they doing the business in partnership.
Answer:
No.

Question 13.
Pawan and Jayshree are partners. Bindu is admitted for l/4th share. State the ratio in which Pawan and Jayshree will sacrifice their share in favour of Bindu? (CBSE Sample Paper 2014)
Answer:
Old ratio i.e. 1 : 1

Question 14.
X and Y are partners. Y wants to admit his son K into business. Can K become the partner of the firm?
Answer:
Yes, if X agrees to it otherwise not.

Question 15.
Name any one factor responsible which affect the value of goodwill.
Answer:
Location of a business.

Question 16.
Vishal & Co. is involved in developing computer software which is a high value added product and Tiny & Co. is involved in manufacturing sugar which is a low value item. If capital employed of both the firms is same, value of goodwill of which firm will be higher?
Answer:
Vishal & Co.

Question 17.
State a reason for the preparation of ‘Revaluation Account’ at time of admission of a partner.
Answer:
To record the effect of revaluation of assets and liabilities.

Question 18.
In which ratio is the profit or loss due to revaluation of assets and liabilities transferred to capital accounts?
Answer:
Old Ratio of existing partners.

Question 19.
Change in Profit Sharing Ratio amounts to dissolution of partnership or partnership firm?
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership.

Question 20.
State one occasion on which a firm can be reconstituted. (CBSE 2012, Delhi)
Answer:
Change of profit sharing ratio among the existing partners.

Question 21.
What is the formula of calculating sacrificing ratio? (CBSE 2011, Outside Delhi)
Answer:
Sacrificing Ratio = Old Ratio-New Ratio.

Question 22.
By which name the profit sharing ratio in which all partners, including the new partner, will share fixture profits?
Answer:
New profit sharing ratio.

Question 23.
If the new partner acquires his share in profits from all the old partners in their old profit sharing ratio, by which ratio will the old partners sacrifice their profit sharing ratio?
Answer:
Old profit sharing ratio.

Question 24.
Name the accounting standard, issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, which deals with treatment good will.
Answer:
AS 26.

Question 25.
When the new partner brings amount of premium for goodwill, by which ratio is this amount credited to old partners’ Capital Accounts?
Answer:
Sacrificing ratio.

Question 26.
What is the formula for calculating inferred goodwill?
Answer:
Net worth of business on the basis of new partner’s capital minus net worth of business in new firm.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Atul and Neera were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admitted Mitali as a new partner. Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 2,00,000. Mitali brings her share of goodwill premium of ₹ 20,000 in cash, which is entirely credited to Atul’s Capital Accoum. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 9

Question 2.
The capital of the firm of Anuj and Benu is ₹ 10,00,000 and the market rate of interest is 15%. Annual salary to the partners is ₹ 60,000 each. The profit for the last three years were ₹ 3,00,000,13,60,000 and ₹ 4,20,000. Goodwill of the firm is to be valued on the basis of two years purchase of last three years average super profits. Calculate the goodwill of the firm.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 10

Question 3.
Radhika, Bani and Chitra were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3 :1. With effect from 1 st April, 2018 they decided to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. On that date their Balance Sheet showed a debit balance of ₹ 24,000 in Profit and Loss Account and a balance of ₹ 1,44,000 in General Reserve. It was also agreed that:
(a) The goodwill of the firm be valued at ₹ 1,80,000.
(b) The Land (having book value of ₹ 3,00,000) will be valued at ₹ 4,80,000.
Pass the necessary journal entries for the above changes.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 11
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 12

Question 4.
A firm earned average profit of ₹3,00,000 during the last few years. The normal rate of return of the industry is 15%. The assets of the business were ₹ 17,00,000 and its liabilities were ₹2,00,000. Calculate the goodwill of the firm by capitalisation of average profits. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Actual profits = ₹3,00,000
Net Tangible Assets = Assets – Liabilities
= ₹ 17,00,000 -₹ 2, oo, ooo
= ₹ 15,00,000
Capitalised value of the firm = (Average Profits x 100)/Normal rate of return
= (₹3,00,000 x 100)/15
= ₹20,00,000
Goodwill = Capitalised value of the firm – Net Tangible Assets
= ₹20,00,000-₹15,00,000
= ₹5,00,000

Question 5.
P, Q and R were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 2. On 31st March, 2018, their balance sheet showed a credit balance of ₹9,000 in the profit and loss account and a Workmen Compensation Fund of ₹64,000. From 1st April, 2018 they decided to share profits in the ratio of 2:2: 1. For this purpose it was agreed that:
(a) Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹4,00,000.
(b) A claim on account of workmen compensation of ₹30,000 was admitted.
Pass necessary journal entries on reconstitution of the firm. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 20
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 21

Question 6.
L, M and N were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. On 1st April, 2018 they admitted S as a new partner in the firm for 1/5th share in the profits. On. S’ admission the goodwill of the firm was valued at 3 years purchase of last five years average profits. The profits during the last five years were:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 22
Calculate the value of the goodwill of the firm. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill on S’s admission.
Answer:
Average profits = ₹ 1 ,80,000
Goodwill = Average profits x Number of years purchase
= 1,80,000 x 3
= ₹ 5,40,000
S’s share of Goodwill = 5,40,000/5
= 1,08,000
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 23

Question 7.
A man, Bobby and Chandani were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 1. From 1st April, 2018 they decided to share profits equally. The revaluation of assets and re-assessment of liabilities resulted in a loss of ₹5,000. The goodwill of the firm on its reconstitution was valued at ₹ 1,20,000. The firm had a balance of ₹ 20,000 in General Reserve. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Showing your workings clearly pass necessary journal entries on the reconstition of the firm.
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 24

Question 8.
A firm earned average profit of₹ 3,00,000 during the last few years. The normal rate of return of the industry is 15%. The assets of the business were ₹ 17,00,000 and its liabilities were ₹ 2,00,000. Calculate the goodwill of the firm by capitalisation of average profits. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Actual profits = ₹3,00,000
Net Tangible Assets = Assets – Liabilities
= ₹ 17,00,000 – ₹2,00,000
= ₹ 15,00,000
Capitalised value of the firm = (Average Profits x 100)/ Normal rate of return
= (₹3,00,000 x 100)/15
= ₹20,00,000
Goodwill = Capitalised value of the firm – Net Tangible Assets = ₹20,00,000 – ₹ 15,00,000
= ₹5,00,000

Question 9.
L, M andN were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. On 1st April, 2018 they admitted S as a new partner in the firm for 1/5th share in the profits. On. S’ admission the goodwill of the firm was valued at 3 years purchase of last five years average profits. The profits during the last five years were :
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 25
Calculate the value of the goodwill of the firm. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill on S’s admission. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Average profits = ₹ 1,80,000
Goodwill = Average profits x Number of years purchase
= 1,80,000 x 3
= ₹ 5,40, 000
S’s share of Goodwill = 5,40,000/5 = ₹ 1,08,000
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 26

Question 10.
A man, Bobby and Chandani were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 1. From 1 st April, 2018 they decided to share profits equally. The revaluation of assets and re-assessment of liabilities resulted in a loss of ₹5,000. The goodwill of the firm on its reconstitution was valued at ₹1,20,000. The firm had a balance of ₹20,000 in General Reserve.
Showing your workings clearly pass necessary journal entries on the reconstitution of the firm. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 27
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 28

Question 11.
A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. D was admitted into the firm with 1/4th share in profit, which he got 3/16th from A and 1/16th from B. The total capital of the firm as agreed upon was ₹ 1,20,000 and D brought in cash equivalent to 1/4th of this amount as his capital. The capital of other partners also had to be adjusted in the ratio of their respective share in profits by bringing in or paying cash. The capitals of A, B and C after all adjustments related to revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities were ₹ 40,000; ₹ 35,000 and ₹ 30,000 respectively.
Calculate the new capitals of A, B and C and record the necessary journal entries for the above transactions.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 29
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 30
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 31

Question 12.
P, Q and R were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. S was admitted as a new partner for 1/4th share in the profits. The total capital of the new firm as agreed between P, Q, R and S was ₹ 2,00,000 and S brought in cash equivalent to 1/4th of this amount as his capital. The capitals of P, Q and R were also to be adjusted in their profit sharing ratio by bringing in or paying off cash as the case may be. The capitals of P, Q and R after doing adjustments related to revolution of assets and reassessment of liabilities were ₹ 40,000; ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 60,000 respectively.
Calculate the new capital of P, Q and R pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 32

Question 13.
Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata were partners in a firm. They admitted Kavita as a new partner for 1/5th share in the profits. Kavita acquired her share equally from Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata. The total capital of the new firm was agreed at ₹ 4,00,000. Kavita brought cash equal to 1/5th of the total capital as her capital and the capital of Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata were to be adjusted according to the new profit sharing ratio. For this necessary cash was to be brought by or paid to Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata as the case may be. After doing necessary adjustments related to revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities the balances in the capital accounts of Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata were Anita ₹ 80,000; Geeta ₹ 85,000; Sunita ₹ 75,000 and Lata ₹ 80,000.
Calculate the new capitals of Anita, Geeta, Sunita and Lata and pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 33

Question 14.
A business earned average profits of ₹ 6,00,000 during the last few years. The normal rate of profits in the similar type of business is 10%. The total value of assets and liabilities of the business were ₹ 22,00,000 and ₹ 5,60,000 respectively. Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm by super profit method if the good will is
valued at 2 1/2 years’ purchase of super profits. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 34

Question 15.
Geeta, Sunita and Anita were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. On 1.1.2015 they admitted Yogita as a new partner for 1/10 th share in the profits. On Yogita’s admission, the Profit and Loss Account of the firm was showing a debit balance of ₹ 20,000 which was credited by the accountant of the firm to the capital accounts of Geeta, Sunita and Anita in their profit sharing ratio. Did the accountant give correct treatment₹ Give reason in support of your answer. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2015)
Answer:
No, the accountant didn’t give correct treatment as capital account of the partners are to be debited.

Question 16.
On 1-4-2010 Sahil and Charu entered into partnership for sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admitted Tanu as a new partner on 1-4-2012 for 1/5 th share which she acquired equally from Sahil and Charu. Sahil,
Charu and Tanu earned profits at a higher rate than normal rate of return for the year ended 31-3-2013. Therefore, they decided to expand their business. To meet the requirements of additional capital they admitted Puneet as a new partner on 1-4-2013 for 1/7 th share in profits which he acquired from Sahil and Charu in 7 : 3 ratio.
Calculate:
(i) New profit sharing ratio of Sahil, Cham and Tanu for the year 2012-13.
(ii) New profit sharing ratio of Sahil, Cham, Tanu and Puneet on Puneet’s admission. (CBSE Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 35
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 36
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 37

Question 17.
A and B were partners in a firm. They admitted C as anewpartnerfor20% share in theprofits. Afterall adjustments regarding general reserve, goodwill, gain or loss on revaluation, the balances in capital accounts of A and B were ₹ 3,85,000 and ₹ 4,15,000 respectively. C brought proportionate capital so as to give him 20% share in the profits. Calculate the amount of capital to be brought by C. (CBSE Sample paper 2016)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 38

Question 18.
Tvisha and Divya were partners in a firm carrying on a tiffin service in Hyderabad. Divya noticed that a lot of food is left at the end of the day. To avoid wastage, she suggested that the same may be distributed among the needy. Tvisha wanted it to be mixed with the food to be served the next day.
Tvisha then gave a proposal that if her share in the profit is increased, she will not mind free distribution of left over food. Divya happily agreed. So, they decided to change their profit sharing ratio to 3 : 2 with immediate effect. On the date of change in the profit-sharing ratio, the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 50,000. Pass the necessary adjustment entry for the treatment of goodwill. (Compt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 39

Question 19.
A, B and C are the partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. C retired and his capital balance after adjustments regarding Reserves, Accumulated profits/losses and gain/loss on revaluation was 2,50,000. C was paid 3,00,000 in full settlement. Afterwards D was admitted for 1/4xshare. Calculate the amount of goodwill premium brought by D. (CBSE Sample Paper 2016-17)
Answer:
Goodwill share of C = 3,00,000 – 2,50,000 = 50,000 Firm’s Goodwill = 50,000 x 10/2 = 2,50,000 D’s share in Goodwill = 2,50,000 x 1/4 = 62,500

Question 20.
A firm’s profits for the last three years are ₹ 5,00,000, ₹ 4,00,000 and ₹ 6,00,000. Calculate value of firm’s goodwill on the basis of four years purchase of the average profits for the last three years.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 40

Question 21.
A firm’s profits for the last five years were ₹ 20,000, ₹ 30,000, ₹ 40,000, ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 60,000. Calculate the value of firm’s goodwill on the basis of three years’ purchase of weighted average profits after using weight of 1,2,3,4 and 5 respectively
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 41

Question 22.
Based on the data given in the above question, calculate goodwill by capitalisation of super profits method. Will the amount of goodwill be different if it is computed by capitalisation of average profits₹ Confirm your answer by numerical verification.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 42

Question 23.
Giri and Shanta are partners in a firm sharing profits equally. They admit Ram into partnership who, in addition to capital, brings ₹ 20,000 as goodwill for 1/5 th share of profits in the firm. What shall be journal entries if
(a) no goodwill appears in the books of the firm.
(b) goodwill appears in the books of the firm at ₹ 40,000₹
Answer:
(a) No goodwill appears In the hooks of the tirm.
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 43
(b) Goodwill appears in the books of the firm at 40,000.
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 44

Question 24.
Ashoo and Rahul are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. Gaurav was admitted for 1/5 share and was asked to contribute proportionate capital and ₹ 4,000 for premium (goodwill). The capitals of Ashoo and Rahul, after all adjustments relating to revaluation, goodwill etc., worked out to be ₹ 45,000 and ₹ 35,000 respectively.
Calculate new profit sharing ratio, capital to be brought in by Gaurav and record necessary journal entries for the same.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 45

Question 25.
X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. They admitted Z for 1/10 share which he acquired equally for X and Y. Calculate new profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 46

Question 26.
P and Q are partners sharing profits in 2 :1 ratio. They admitted R into partnership giving him 1/5 share which he acquired from P and Q in the ratio of 1 : 2. Calculate new profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
Old ratio of old partners of P and Q = 2 : 1
R acquire 1/5 from old partners (P and Q) in the ratio 1 : 2
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 47

Question 27.
Compute the value of goodwill on the basis of four years’ purchase of the average profits based on the last five years. The profits for the last five years were as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 108
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 109

Question 28.
Rajan and Rajani are partners in a firm. Their capitals were Rajan ₹ 3,00,000; Rajani ₹ 2,00,000. During the year 2014 the firm earned a profit of₹ 1,50,000. Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm assuming that the normal rate of return is 20%.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 49
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 50

Question 29.
Amar and Samar were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in 3 : 1 ratio. They admitted Kanwar for 1/4 share of profits. Kanwar could not bring his share of goodwill/premium in cash. The goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 80,000 on Kanwar’s admission. Record necessary journal entries for goodwill on Kanwar’s admission.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 51

Question 30.
Amar and Akbar are equal partners in a firm. They admitted Anthony as a new partner and the new profit sharing ratio is 4 : 3 : 2. Anthony could not bring his share of goodwill ₹ 45,000 in cash. It is decided to do adjustment for goodwill without opening goodwill account. Pass the necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill.
Answer:
Old ratio of old partners: Amar and Akbar =1:1
New ratio of all partners: Amar, Akbar and Anthony = 4:3:2
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 52
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 53

Question 31.(a)
Rckha, Sunita and Teena are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Samiksha joins the firm. Rekha surrenders l/4th of her share; Sunita surrenders 1/3rd of her share and Teena 1/5th of her share in favour of Samiksha. Find the new Profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 54

Question 31. (b)
Kabir and Fand are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 3. Kabir surrenders 2/10th from his share and Farid surrenders 1/10th from his share in favour of Jyoti, a new partner. Calculate new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio. (CBSE Sample Paper 2015)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 55

Question 32.
New Profit Sharing ratio = 5:2:3 .Sacrificing ratio = 2:1 .On April 1, 2018, a firm had assets of₹ 1,00,000 excluding stock of ₹ 20,000. The current liabilities were ₹ 10,000 and the balance constituted Partners’ Capital Accounts. If the normal rate of return is 8%, the Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000 at four years purchase of super profit, find the actual profits of the firm.
Answer:
Total Assets ₹ 1,20,000
Capital Employed Total Assets — Current Liabilities
= 1,20,000 – 10,000 =₹ 1,10,000
Normal Profits 8% of 1,10,000 ₹ 8,800
Goodwill = Super Profits x No. of Years Purchase
Super Profits = Actual Average Profits — Normal Profits
Given Goodwill = ₹ 60,000
60,000 4 (Average Actual Profits – Normal Profits)
15000 = Average Actual Profits — 8,800
Average Actual Profits = 15,000 + 8,800 = ₹ 23,800

Question 33.
X, Y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in 2 : 2 : 1 ratio. On April 1, 2013, they admitted A as a partner for 1/5th share in profits. On that date, the firm has general reserve of ₹ 35,000, Workmen Compensation Fund of ₹ 20,000, Investments Fluctuation Fund of ₹ 15,000 and accumulated losses of ₹ 10,000. The partners decided to transfer reserves and accumulated losses in their Current Accounts. Pass necessary adjustment entry.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 57

Question 34.
John, Brown and Smith are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in 3 : 2 : 1 ratio. On April 1, 2013, they changed their profit sharing ratio as 4 : 3 : 2. On that date, the firm has general reserve of ₹ 50,000 and accumulated profits of ₹ 40,000. The partners decided to show reserves and accumulated profits in the existing manner. Pass necessary adjustment entry and show your working.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 58

Question 35.
Benu and Sunil are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 :2. On April 1,2013, Ina was admitted for 1/4 share who paid ₹ 2,00,000 as capital and ₹ 1,00,000 for premium in cash. At the time of admission, general reserve amounting to ₹ 1,20,000 and profit and loss account amounting to ₹ 60,000 appeared on the asset side of the balance sheet.Record necessary journal entries to record the above transactions.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 59

Question 36.
A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 1. On 1st Jan. 2014 they admitted C as a new partner for 1/4 share in the profits of the firm. C brings ₹ 20,000 as for his 1/4 share in the profits of the firm. The capitals of A and B after all adjustments in respect of goodwill, revaluation of assets and liabilities, etc. has been worked out at ₹ 50,000 for A and ₹ 12,000 for B. It is agreed that partner’s capitals will be according to new profit sharing ratio. Calculate the new capitals of A and B and pass the necessary journal entries assuming that A and B brought in or withdrew the necessary cash as the case may be for making their capitals in proportion to their profits sharing ratio.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 60
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 61
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 62

Question 37.
Bhavya and Sakshi are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 31 st March, 2018 their Balance Sheet was as under:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 63
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 64
The partners have decided to change their profit sharing ratio to 1: 1 with immediate effect. For the purpose,
they decided that:

  • Investments to be valued at 20.000
  • Goodwill of the firm valued at 24,000
  • General Reserve not to be distributed between the partners.

You are required to pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm. Show workings.
(CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 65

Question 38.
A and B are partners in a firm having 2 : 1 profit sharing ratio. OnApril 1, 2013, they agreed to share profits and losses equally. On this date, they decided to revalue assets as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 66
Partners also decided to record net effect of the revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities without affecting their book value by passing a single adjustment entry. Pass the adjustment entry.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 67

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Sanjana and Alok were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 2. On 31st March, 2018 their Balance Sheet was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 68
On 1st April, 2018, they admitted Nidhi as a new partner for l/4th share in the profits on the following terms:
(a) Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹4,00,000 and Nidhi brought the necessary amount in cash for her share of goodwill premium, half of which was withdrawn by the old partners.
(b) Stock was to be increased by 20% and furniture was to be reduced to 90%.
(c) Investments were to be valued at ₹3,00,000. Alok took over investments at this value.
Nidhi brought ₹3,00,000 as her capital and the capitals of Sanjana and Alok were adjusted in the new profit sharing ratio.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners Capital Accounts and the Balance Sheet of the reconstituted firm on Nidhi’s admission. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 69
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 70

Question 2.
A and B were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2018, was as follows :
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 71
C was admitted as a new partner and brought ₹ 64,000 as capital and ₹ 15,000 for his share of goodwill premium. The new profit sharing ratio was 5:3:2.
On C’s admission the following was agreed upon :
(i) Stock was to be depreciated by 5%.
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts was to be made at ₹ 2,000.
(iii) Furniture was to be depreciated by 10%.
(iv) Building was valued at ₹ 1,60,000.
(v) Capitals of A and B were to be adjusted on the basis of C’s capital by bringing or paying of cash as the case may be.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners’ Capital Accounts and the Balance Sheet of reconstituted firm. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 72
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 73
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 74

Question 3.
Gautam and Yashica are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in 3:1 respectively. The balance sheet of the firm as on 31st March 2018 was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 75
Asma is admitted as a partner for 3/8th share in the profits with a capital of ₹2,10,000 and ₹50,000 for her share of goodwill. It was decided that:

  • New profit sharing ratio will be 3:2:3
  • Machinery will depreciated by 10% and Furniture by ₹5,000.
  • Stock was re-valued at ₹ 2,10,000.
  • Provision for doubtful debts is to be created at 10% of debtors.
  • The capitals of all the partners were to be in the new profit sharing ratio on basis of capital of new partner any adjustment to be done through current accounts.

Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners Capital Account and the Balance Sheet of the new firm. (CBSE Sample Paper 2019-20)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 76
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 77

Question 4.
On 31st March, 2019 the Balance Sheet of Madan and Mohan who share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 78
They decided to admit Gopal on 1st April, 2019 for l/5th share which Gopal acquired wholly from Mohan on the following terms:

  • Gopal shall bring ₹ 10,000 as his share of premium for Goodwill.
  • A debtor whose dues of₹ 3,000 were written off as bad debt paid ₹ 2,000 in full settlement.
  • A claim of₹ 5,000 on account of workmen’s compensation was to be provided for.
  • Patents were undervalued by ₹ 2,000. Stock in the books was valued 10% more than its market value.
  • Gopal was to bring in capital equal to 20% of the combined capitals of Madan and Mohan after all adjustments.

Prepare Revaluation Account, Capital Accounts ®f the Partners and the Balance Sheet of the new firm. (CBSE Compt. 2019)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 79
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 80

Question 5.
Karan and Varan were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 1:2. Their fixed capitals were ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000 respectively. On 1st April, 2016 Kishore was admitted as a new partner for 14th share in the profits. Kishore brought ₹ 2,00,000 for his capital which was to be kept fixed like the capitals of Karan and Varan. Kishore acquired his share of profit from Varan.
Calculate goodwill of the firm on Kishore’s admission and the new profit sharing ratio of Karan, Varan and Kishore. Also, pass necessary Journal Entry for the treatment of Goodwill on Kishore’s admission considering that Kishore did not bring his share of goodwill premium in Cash. [CBSE Delhi 2017]
Answer:
(a) Calculation of Hidden Goodwill:
Kishore’s share = 1/4 Kishore’s Capital = ₹2,00,000
(a) Total capital of the new firm = ₹2,00,000 x 4 = ₹8,00,000
(b) Existing total capital of Karan, Varan and Kishore = ₹2,00,000 + ₹ 3,00,000 + ₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 7,00,000
(c) Goodwill of the firm = ₹8,00,000 – ₹7,00,000 = ₹ 1,00,000 Thus, Kishore’s share of goodwill = 1/4 x ₹ 1,00,000 = ₹25,000

(b) Calculation of New Profit Sharing ratio:
Karan’s new share = 1/3 i.e. 4/12, Varun’s new share = 2/3 – 1/4 = 5/12 Kishore’s share = 1/4 x 3/3 = 2/12 New Ratio = 4:5:3

(c)
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 81

Question 6.
Chander and Damini were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. On 31st March, 2017 their Balance Sheet was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 82
On 1.4.2017, they admitted Elina as a new partner for l/3rd share in the profits on the following conditions :

(i) Elina will bring ₹3,00,000 as her capital and ₹ 50,000 as her share of goodwill premium, half of which will be withdrawn by Chander and Damini.
(ii) Debtors to the extent of ₹5,000 were unrecorded.
(iii) Furniture will be reduced by 10% and 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts will be created on bills receivables and debtors.
(iv) Value of land and building will be appreciated by 20%.
(v) There being a claim against the firm for damages, a liability to the extent of ₹8,000 will be created for the same. Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts. (CBSE 2018-19)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 83
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 84

Question 7.
P & K were partners in a firm. On March 31, 2017 their Balance Sheet was as follows: Balance Sheet as at March 31, 2017.
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 85
On April 1,2017, they decided to admit C as a new partner for 1/4th share in profits on the following terms:

(i) C’s Loan will be converted into his capital.
(ii) C will bring his share of goodwill premium by cheque. Goodwill of the firm will be calculated on the basis of Average Profits of previous three years. Profits for the year ended March 31, 2015 and March 31, 2016 were ₹ 55,000 and ₹ 1,00,000 respectively.
(iii) 10% depreciation will be charged on Plant & Machinery and Land & Building will be appreciated by 5%.
(iv) Capitals of P & K will be adjusted on the basis C’s capital. Adjustments be done through bank and in case required overdraft facility be availed.
Pass necessary Journal entries on C’s admission. (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 86
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 87

Question 8.
Ashish and Dutta were partners in a firm sharing profits in 3 : 2 ratio. On Jan. 01,2014 they admitted Vimal for 1/5 share in the profits. The Balance Sheet of Ashish and Dutta as on Dec. 31, 2013 was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 88
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 89
It was agreed that:
(i) The value of Land and Building be increased by ₹ 15,000.
(ii) The value of plant be increased by ₹ 10,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm be valued at ₹ 20,000.
(iv) Vimal to bring in capital to the extent of l/5th of the total capital of the new firm. Record the necessary journal entries and prepare Balance Sheet after Vimal’s admission.
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 90
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 91
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 92
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 93

Question 9.
Divya, Yasmin and Fatima are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in 11 : 7 : 2 respectively. The balance sheet of the firm as on 31st March 2018 was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 94
On 1.4.2018, Aditya is admitted as a partner for one-fifth share in the profits with a capital of ₹4,50,000 and necessary amount for his share of goodwill on the following terms:
(i) Furniture of ₹2,40,000 were to be taken over Divya, Yasmin and Fatima equally.
(ii) A creditor of ₹ 7,000 not recorded in books to be taken into account.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is to be valued at 2.5 years purchase of average profits of last two years. The profit of the last three years were:
2015-16 ₹6,00,000; 2016-17 ₹2,00,000; 2017-18 ₹6,00,000
(iv) At time of Aditya’s admission Yasmin also brought in 50,000 as fresh capital
(v) Plant and Machinery is re-valued to ₹ 2,00,000 and expenses outstanding were brought down to ₹ 9,000. Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners Capital Account and the balance sheet of the reconstituted firm. (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 95
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 96
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 97
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 98

Question 10.
P and Q were partners in a firm sharing profits in 3 : 2 ratio. R was admitted as a new partner for 1/4x share in the profits on April 1, 2015. The Balance Sheet of the firm on March 31, 2015 was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 99
The terms of agreement on R’s admission were as follows:
(a) R brought in cash 60,000 for his capital and 30,000 for his share of goodwill.
(b) Building was valued at 1,00,000 and Machinery at 36,000.
(c) The capital accounts of P and Q were to be adjusted in the new profit-sharing ratio. Necessary cash was to be brought in or paid off to them as the case may be.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Account and the Balance Sheet of P, Q and R. (CBSE Sample Paper 2016)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 100
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 101

Question 11.
Mohan and Mahesh were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 1st April, 2012 they admitted Nusrat as a partner in the firm. The Balance Sheet of Mohan and Mahesh on that date was as under:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 102
It was agreed that:
(i) The value of Building and Stock be appreciated to ₹ 3,80,000 and ₹ 1.60,000 respectively.
(ii) The liabilities of workmen’s compensation fund was determined at ₹ 2,30,000.
(iii) Nusrat brought in her share of goodwill ₹ 1,00,000 in cash.
(iv) Nusrat was to bring further cash as would make her capital equal to 20% of the combined capital of Mohan and Mahesh after above revaluation and adjustments are carried out.
(v) The future profit sharing ratio will be Mohan 2/5th. Mahesh 2 ‘5th. Nusrat 1/5th.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and Balance Sheet of the new firm. Also show clearly the calculation of Capital brought by Nusrat. (CBSE Delhi 2014, Set I, II)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 103
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 104
Working Notes: Capital Adjustment
Nusrat’s Capital (Mohan’s capital + Mahesh’s capital) 20/100
= ( ₹ 3,92,000 + ₹ 2,08,000) x ₹ 20/100
= ₹ 6,00,000 x 20/100 = ₹ 1,20.000

Question 12.
S, T, U and V were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 4: 3 : 2 : 1. On 1.04.2016 their Balance Sheet was as follows:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 105
From the above date partners decided to share the future profits in 3 : 1 : 2 : 4 ratio. For this purpose the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 90,000. The partners also agreed for the following:
(i) The claim for workmen compensation has been estimated at ₹ 70,000.
(ii) To adjust the capitals of the partners according to new profit sharing ratio by opening partners current accounts.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partners’ Capital Accounts and the Balance Sheet of the reconstituted firm. [Delhi 2017]
(CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 106
Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm Admission of a Partner 107

Federalism Class 11 Important Extra Questions Political Science Chapter 7

Here we are providing Class 11 Political Science Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Federalism. Political Science Class 11 Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Important Extra Questions Federalism

Federalism Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is federalism?
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which powers are distributed between the centre and states according to constitutional schemes. It ‘ is based on the territorial distribution of powers. This system of-Governance is considered essential in the plural societal states ie; where people of diverse. culture, religion, language and direct reside for their fuller development.

Question 2.
Name some countries with the Federal system of Government.
Answer:
There is a number of countries with the Federal system. Here we are naming four states.

  1. India
  2. U.S.A. (United States of America)
  3. Canada
  4. Switzerland and Australia

Question 3.
Write five essential features of a federal government.
Answer:

  1. Written constitution
  2. Supremacy of constitution
  3. Bicameral Legislature
  4. Independent and impartial Judiciary
  5. Double Government.

Question 4.
What is the utility of a federal Government?
Answer:

  1. It is based on the decentralisation
  2. It is more democratic and natural
  3. It gives an opportunity for better representatives and the development of regional and local areas.
  4. It checks the authoritarian tendency of Central Government

Question 5.
What are the demerits of the Federal Government?
Answer:
Followings are the main demerits of the federal government:

  1. It generates parochialism
  2. It breeds competition among the states.
  3. It generates secessionist trends.
  4. It is harmful for national integration
  5. It delays the decisions
  6. It is a costly system of government

Question 6.
Write four federal features of the Indian constitution.
Answer:

  1. Written and rigid Constitution:
  2. The supremacy of the Constitution
  3. Division of powers between centre and states.
  4. Bicameral Legislature in the centre.
  5. Independent Judiciary.

Question 7.
Why the Federal system of Government is necessary for India?
Answer:
India is a country of a plural society. There are people of several castes religions, regions, language, dialects and geography. For the fuller development of the people of these different complexions, the federal system is necessary which will generate unity in diversity. Therefore the federal system is necessary for India.

Question 8.
What is the nature of Indian federation?
Answer:
Although India has structural features of federalism there is no word federation in the Constitution. Article 1st the Indian Constitution says, “India, that is Bharat shall be the union of states” These words indicate the nature of Indian federal system. The word ‘union of states’ means that the centre will not be the creation of states. On the contrary, the states will be created by the centre.

Question 9.
How the powers are divided between the centre and states?
Answer:
The powers are divided between the centre and states on the basis of the following three lists.

  1. Central list with 97 subjects
  2. State list with 66 subjects
  3. Concurrent list with 47 subjects
  4. Residual powers rest with the centre.

Question 10.
Write four unitary features of Indian constitution.
Answer:

  1. Single constitution and single citizenship
  2. Unequal distribution of powers between centre and states. This distribution is twisted toward the centre.
  3. Emergency powers of the President. Art 352
  4. President rule in states under Art 356
  5. Governor is the appointment by President and his role as an agent of the centre.

Question 11.
What is the demand for provisional autonomy?
Answer:
Since in the Constitution of India the division of powers between the centre and states is tilted towards the centre, the states are dependent on the centre in administrative, legislative and financial matters. In their years there is a strong demand to review this existing position of distribution of powers from the different states and want more and more freedom of action. This is called as provisional autonomy.

Question 12.
What is co-operation federalism?
Answer:
Noted political scientist K. C. Where says that Indian federal system is a co-operative federal system in which there is a lot of co-operation between the centre and states for their mutual benefits.

Question 13.
What is the role of Governor in the State?
Answer:
Governor is given double responsibility in the states. First, he is the nominal executive head of the state. Secondly, he is made an agent of the centre who will see that national interest remain safe in that state. He sees all the laws and policies of the central government are implemented in the state and all her central property is safe.

Question 14.
Explain special provisions for some states.
Answer:
Some of the states are given special considerations, therefore special provisions are made for them in the contribution. It is done due to peculiar circumstances of few states and historical necessity in the case of Jammu and Kashmir.

Most of the special provisions pertaining to the North-Eastern States like Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram etc. Under Art 371 Art 370 provides the special status of Jammu & Kashmir. Accordingly, Jammu & Kashmir has its own Constitution and its concurrence is required before any law is implemented there.

Question 15.
What is bargaining federal system?
Answer:
Different people say differently about the nature of the Indian federal system. Some say it completely Unitary system, others say it federal system with strong unitary features. K.C. Where calls it as a co-operative system based as cooperation. But Morris Jones calls it a Bargaining system which works on the basis of bargaining positions of centre and states which is competitive in nature.

Federalism Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define federalism. Why it is needed in a plural society?
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which powers are divided between the centre and the states. In a true federation, the states surrender their certain powers and create a centre to administer on the issues which are of national and international importance. On local issues the states Government administrate. Such a system of Governance becomes necessary in a plural society because a number of states are formed on the basis of administration convince.’The regional aspirations and centres of the people of such formed states are realised in federal aspirations of the people remain unfulfilled and unrealised. Therefore for a fuller development of linguistic and cultural aspirations, the federal system is necessary.

Question 2.
Compare the federal system of India with a federal system of the United States of America.
Answer:
India and the United States of America both are the federal systems of Government but both have a different system. The USA is said to be a true federal system while different people say differently about the nature of the Indian federal system. Followings are the difference between India and USA

  1. In America centre is the creation of states while in India states are the creation of the centre.
  2. In the Constitution of India, the USA is described as a federation. In the Indian Constitution, India is described as Union of States.
  3. In the USA more powers are given to states. In India, the centre is given more powers.
  4. In USA residual powers are with states. In India, residual powers are given to the centre.

Question 3.
Explain the unity in diversity in India.
Answer:
It is rightly said about India that India is not a country, it is a continent. There are more than 20 major languages and several hundred minor ones. It has several major regions of different geography and Culture. In climate changes after every twenty kilometres. In spite of all such diversities, we share many common values, history and ethos. We all fought for national independence jointly in which Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christians participated. We do not share common part only we cherish common hopes and aspirations. This has led to national leaders to visualise India as a country where there is unity in diversity. India in its last 60 years of journey of the post-independent period has stood the test of this slogan ie, unity in diversity.

Question 4.
Write the main features of a federal system.
Answer:
Federalism, as a principle of Government, has evolved differently in different situations yet there are some basic features which are generally considered essential for a federal system. These areas under.

  1. Written Constitution & double Constitution
  2. Rigid Consitution
  3. The institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics.
  4. Two sets of identities and loyalties of the people to their region as well as their nation.
  5. Distribution of powers between two sets of Government one at centra! level and other at the state level.
  6. Bicameral legislative
  7. Independent Judiciary
  8. Double Citizenship
  9. Supremacy of Constitution
  10. Residual powers with the states

Question 5.
Write federal features of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Indian society is a plural society so there is a plural polity in India. Followings are the main dominant features in the Indian Constitution on the basis of which we can term the Indian Constitution as a federal system:

  1. Written Constitution
  2. Rigid Constitution
  3. Supremacy of Constitution
  4. Divisions of Powers between centre and states.
  5. Double sets of polity
  6. Double set of loyalties of the people. One for their regions and others for the nation
  7. Bicameral Legislature
  8. Independent judiciary to settle the dispute between the centre and states.

Question 6.
Write the main unitary features of Indian constitution.
Answer:
Structurally Indian Constitution appears to be federal but there are some features in Indian Constitution which make it unitary. These are as under:

  1. There is no word federation in the Indian constitution. Rather it is the union of states.
  2. Unequal distribution of powers between the centre and states.
  3. Unequal representation of the states in the upper House.
  4. Emergency powers of the President
  5. Integrated judiciary
  6. President Rule in the states
  7. Important appointment by the President
  8. Governor as the agent of centre in States.
  9. Single Constitution
  10. Single Citizenship
  11. The dominance of centre on Election Commission, Planing commission and NDC
  12. The increasing role of All India Government Service

Question 7.
Write Legislative relations between the centre and states.
Answer:
Subjects are divided between the centre and states for this purpose three lists are formed which areas:

  1. Central list 96 subjects (Parliament Legislates on their subjects)
  2. State list 66 subjects (State legislative legislates these subjects
  3. Concert List 47 subjects (on these issues central Parliament, as well as the state legislature, can legislate on their issue but in case of conflict central view will prevail)
  4. Residual powers rest with the centre.
  5. In Emergency Parliament can Legislate on any subject of state list
  6. In President Rule, Parliament will make law for a state w. which President Rule is in force.
  7. To fulfil international commitment Parliament can make law on a state subject.
  8. Governor can refer to President any bill which is passed by the State Assembly.

Question 8.
What is President Rule?
Answer:
Under Art 356 of the Indian Constitution Governor can recommend President Rule in the state in the following circumstances:

  1. If the law and order is broke down in the state
  2. There is political instability in the state
  3. No party has secured a majority for the formation of a Government and there is political hoarding
  4. If the constitutional machinery has failed and the government is not being run according to the provisions of the Constitution.

It is the discretionary power of the Governor to see that such a situation has arisen or not as to warrant the imposition of President Rule.

Question 9.
Explain the executive relations between the centre and states.
Answer:

  1. Art 257 of the Constitution says that the executive power of every state shall be so exercised as not to implode or prejudice the exercise of the executive powers of the union and the executive powers of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to- the government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
  2. States will make their policies as per in tune with the policies of the central government.
  3. During an emergency, the President may give any direction to the states as seems necessary. During an emergency, the administration of the states comes in the hands of President Rule because it becomes unitary in Emergency.
  4. Governor is the agent of the centre and he can recommend imposition of President Rule in the state in the given circumstances.
  5. All India Service (IAS and IPS other) control the states development and law and order.

Question 10.
Write the discretionary powers of the Governor.
Answer:
Governors are appointed by the President of India. He is given two roles in the states. No.l. He acts as nominal head of the states and No. 2. He acts as an agent of the centre. For this he is given discretionary powers which are as under:

  1. To refer a bill to the President which is passed by the state legislature.
  2. When no party gets the majority it is the discretion of Governor whom to call to form the Government.
  3. To judge the existence of political instability.
  4. Recommendation of the composition of President rule in the state

Question 11.
Enumerable main demands for provisional autonomy.
Answer:
In the last forty years, several demands have been raised in different states in the name of provisional autonomy. Main demands are as under:

  1. Division of powers in favour of states and not in favour of the centre which exists today.
  2. Independent source of revenue for the states and control of states on the source and resources.
  3. More and more powers are being demanded by the states, particularly in developmental and administrative fields.
  4. More rights are being demanded by the states for their cultural and linguistic development.
  5. More autonomy in financial and commercial matters.

Question 12.
Do you support the creation of new states?
Answer:
The demand for the creation of new states is becoming more and more vocal. In fact, there are several factors which are responsible for such frequent and strong demands. Misuse of constitutional measures and provisions and tension between the centre and states are responsible for such demand. Recently three new states Uttaranchal from Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand from Bihar and Chattishgarh from M.P. have already been formed. Ther is the demand of Harit Pradesh, Gorkhaland and Telangana and other such numbers of states. At this stage, it is very difficult to check and control such demands. In the name of administrative convenience, we can justify the creation of new small states but ultimately it may force threat to national integration.

Question 13.
Discuss the controversy regarding the role of Governors in the state.
Answer:
Today the post of Governor is the most controversial post in India because of the dubious role played by most of the Governors in the last thirty years. The p9St of Governor is not elected These days Governors are appointed by violating the will established conventions. Sarkaria Commission has also suggested that appointments of Governors should be strictly non-partisan. Rejected politicians have occupied the post of Governor and they have worked in a partisan manner and thus have attracted criticism and controversy.

Names like Ram Lai Chauhan, J.D. Tapas, Rizvi and Buta Singh can be quoted who become the target of criticism due to their partisan role. The use of Art 356 dealing with the imposition of the President role in the states has created maximum controversy. Use of discretionary powers by the Governor has also been questionable. Some Governor behaved differently in similar conditions. It is also seen that the Governments enjoying a majority in the house have been dismissed on the recommendation of the Governor. It is due to all these factors the post of Governor has been in controversies.

Question 14.
Discuss the working of the federal system in India under the era of coalition Government.
Answer:
Gone are the days when there used to be the dominance of a single party, particularly the Congress party. Now the number of political parties has gone up very sharply in the wake of politics of populism. Regional parties have assumed power not only in the states but also in the centre.

All those developments have given a new direction to the Indian federal system. All there political parties like DMK AIDMK, Akali Dal and Left parties who have been demanding more and more powers for the states and reviewing the existing structure are at the helm of affairs at centre. The Janata Dal, National Front, United Front, NDA and UPA Government are alliances of the regional parties and one or more national parties. This is a situation of the cooperative federal system.

Question 15.
Mention special provisions in the Constitution for some states.
Answer:
The most extraordinary feature of Indian federal arrangement created in India is that many states have been given special status on this reason or that reason. The constitution has some special provisions for some states due to their peculiar social and cultural and historical circumstances. Most of such special provisions pertain to the North Eastern States like Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram (Art 371) Jammu and Kashmir are also given special states under Art 370 due to historical compulsions. Jammu and Kashmir have their own Constitution and enjoys a lot of autonomy and control in most of the areas.

Federalism Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explaining the measuring bf federalism, discuss the features and nature of Indian federalism.
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government where powers are divided between the centre and states. It involves the territorial distribution of powers.

It is very much needed for a divine plural society. Since India is also a plural society, the Indian constitution-makers also introduced dominant features of a federal Government like the written constitution, division of powers between the centre and states, bicameral legislature and independent judiciary. At /the same time many threats were emerging for national integration. Therefore they introduced the provision for national integration and a strong centre.

They adopted the concept of the union of states which crates federal structure with the strong unitary feature. The concept of the union of states was adopted from Canada. The most important unitary, the feature is:

  1. Unequal distribution of powers between the centre and states.
  2. Residual powers are with the centre
  3. Provision of Emergency powers for the President (Art 352)
  4. Provision of President rule in the states Art 356
  5. Integrated judiciary
  6. Integrated bureaucracy and dominance of All India Services in the states.
  7. Appointment of Governor by the President
  8. Governor’s role as the agent of the centre.
  9. Amendment powers are with the centre.
  10. The dominance of centre over NDC, planing commission UPSC and Finance Commission and Election Commission;

Therefore India is a federal system with strong unitary feature^ on the basis of its working during the last 60 years. K.C. Where has termed as the co-operative federal system and Morris Jones has termed it a Bargaining system.

Judiciary Class 11 Important Extra Questions Political Science Chapter 6

Here we are providing Class 11 Political Science Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Judiciary. Political Science Class 11 Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Important Extra Questions Judiciary

Judiciary Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Judiciary?
Answer:
Judiciary is the important organ of the Government which is concerned with settling the disputes and dispensation of Justice at different levels for justice. Earlier all the judicial powers used to be vested in the king under the Monarchy system but now in democratic setup Judiciary is structural as a separate organ of the Government.

Question 2.
Why we need Judiciary?
Answer:
In any group or society, disputes are bound to occur due to different individual and group interests of the people which need to be settled up to the satisfaction of all the concerned by an independent competent and impartial body. To serve these needs, a separate organ of the Government is structural as the judiciary in modern democracies. Judiciary, besides settling the disputes, performs a number of other functions for the society.

Question 3.
Write three main functions of the Judiciary
Answer:

  1. Settling the disputes among the people
  2. It protects the Rule of Law and to ensure the supremacy of Law
  3. Safeguarding the rights of the people and the constitution.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
Basically, independence of judiciary means that judiciary is allowed to work independently, impartially without undue interference of executive and legislature. Independence of Judiciary also means that the judges should be appointed on merit with definite qualifications and experience and they should enjoy long tenure. They should not be removed in an arbitrary manner. The judges should be paid good salaries and facilities. The decisions should be respected.

Question 5.
How the judges are appointed in India?
Answer:
The judges are appointed for Supreme court and“High Court by the President of India with the consultation of the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of concerned High Court (in a case of High Court Judges) The constitution of India has provided, qualification and experience for the appointment of judges.

Question 6.
How the judges can be removed?
Answer:
It is provided in the Constitution that the judges can be removed from the office by impeachment in which the charges are levelled in one house of the Parliament and are listened and examined in next house. If the charges are proved correct, the judges stand impeached.

Question 7.
What do you mean by the integrated judiciary?
Answer:
We in India have integrated judiciary which means that at the apex is the Supreme Court and at the bottom is the lower court (District Court). It is a Pyramid (ladder) like structure. The Supreme Court has administrative and supervisory control on lower courts and it listens to the appeal against the decisions of the lower courts.

Question 8.
Discuss the composition of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court of India consists of 26 judges including Chief Justice, who are appointed by the President of India. To become a judge in the Supreme Court one should have experience of Judge for 5 years in the High Court or 10 years of an advocate in the Supreme Court. He should be a distinguished jurist in the eye of President.

Question 9.
What is original jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
In original jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India following cases are taken up.

  1. Disputes between Centre and State Governments.
  2. Disputes between the two states.
  3. Disputes related to Fundamental Rights
  4. Disputes in which issue of interpretation of the constitution is involved.

Question 10.
What is the jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:
Almost every state has its High Court. It stands in the middle of the judicial system. High Courts have the following jurisdiction:

  1. Original Jurisdiction
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction
  3. Supervisory Jurisdiction
  4. Administrative Jurisdiction
  5. Court of record

Question 11.
What is District Court?
Answer:
District Court is at the lowest level of Indian judicial system. Its judges are appointed by the Governor with the consultation of Chief Justice of High Courts. Its functions are as under:

  1. Deals with the cases arising in the District
  2. Considers appeals on decisions given by lower courts
  3. Decides cases involving serious criminal offences.
  4. District Cases have administrative control on subordinate courts.

Question 12.
What is the role of Indian Judiciary?
Answer:

  1. It settles disputes
  2. It interprets the Constitution and acts its guardian
  3. It protects the Fundamental Rights of the people.
  4. It protects the federal system.
  5. It helps in the development of the constitution

Question 13.
What do you understand by Judicial activism?
Answer:
The term Judicial activism refers to the working of Judiciary beyond its given area. It is said that when executive and legislature fail, the judiciary start. It is called Judicial activism. In our constitution procedure established by law is allowed under which the judiciary can examine whether a particular law is according to the provisions of the Constitution or not. But our judiciary is going beyond its limit and is commenting on every policy and political matter which is referred to as Judicial activism.

Question 14.
What is the Power of Judicial Activism?
Answer:
The power of Judicial Review is the power of judiciary under which it can examine the constitutional validity of an order issued by the executive and legislation passed by the legislature. If the court finds it contrary to the provisions of the Constitution it can declare them as unconstitutional. On the basis of this power judicial is playing a very effective role in checking the executive and legislature but in the process, it is going beyond its jurisdiction Hence it is called as Judicial activism.

Question 15.
What is PIL Public Interest Litigation?
Answer:
PIL Public’ Interest Litigation means taking up the case of such weaker and poor people to the court who are unable to take up their case themselves due to some reasons.

Judicial activism has a manifold impact on the Indian Political System. It has democratised the Judicial systems. It has forced accountability and terror.

Judiciary Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Mention essential conditions for the independence of the judiciary.
Answer:
Following are some main essential conditions for the independence of the judiciary.

  1. The judiciary should be the product of constitutional law.
  2. Judiciary should be free from undue interference of Executive and Legislature.
  3. High qualifications and experiences should be set for the appointment of judges.
  4. The judge’s pay and allowance and other service conditions should be attractive so that man of high integrity enters in this profession.
  5. The tenure of the service of the judges should be long and for the security of service, they should not be dependent on the where is and fancies of the executive and Legislature.
  6. The decisions of the Judiciary should be respected and accepted.

Question 2.
How the constitution of India has ensured independent of the judiciary?
Answer:
Constitution of India has ensured the independence of the judiciary by the following provisions:

  1. The legislature is not involved in the appointment of Judges
  2. The judges have fixed and long tenure and the process of removal of judges by impeachment is long and difficult.
  3. Judiciary is not financially dependent on the executive or legislature.
  4. Judiciary has the power to penalise those who commit contempt of Court.
  5. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of judges.
  6. Decisions of the judiciary are immense from personal criticism.

Question 3.
How Indian Judiciary is integrated Judiciary?
Answer:
Integrated Judiciary is one which is structurally and functionally. related at different levels. India judiciary is also integrated because it is also a ladder-like structure. At its apex in the Supreme Court of India.

In the middle (State Level) are the High Courts and the Lower Level (District Level) and the District and other local courts. The Supreme Court of India which is at the apex of the Judicial system exercises, administrative, supervisory control in the Lower Courts. It has also appellate jurisdictions on lower courts. It has also appellate jurisdiction on lower courts. Its decisions are binding on all courts. It can transfer judges from one court to another. It can transfer a case from one court to another court. It can more any case from any court to itself.

Question 4.
Write the composition of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court of India consists of 26 judges including one Chief Justice. To became the Judge one should have following qualifications

  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have worked as a judge in any High Court for five years.
  3. He should have worked as an advocate in the Supreme court for 10 years.
  4. He should be a distinguished judge in the eye of the President.

All the judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India with the consultation of Chief Justice of India.

The Judges of the Supreme Court get retirement at the age of 65 years.

Question 5.
Explain the Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Supreme Court of India has the following Jurisdiction:

1. Original Jurisdiction Under this jurisdiction the Supreme Court listens to the case related to
a. Dispute between centre and state
b. Dispute between two states
c. Fundamental Rights
4. Interpretation of the constitution

2. Appellate Jurisdiction: Under this jurisdiction Supreme Court listen to the appeal against the decisions of the High Courts in all the civil, criminal and constitutional matters.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction: Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can give its opinion to the President on any issue on which he seeks its opinion.

Question 6.
Write the functions of High Courts.
Answer:
Almost every state has its own High Court. Its main functions are as under:

  1. It can hear the appeals against the decisions of the lower courts
  2. It can issue writs for restoring Fundamental Rights
  3. It can deal with cases which fall within the jurisdiction of the State.
  4. It has supervisory and administrative jurisdiction over the lower courts under which it exercises, superintendence and control over courts below it.
  5. It decides the service conditions of the employees of the lower courts.

Question 7.
What is impeachment?
Answer:
Impeachment is a method of removal of the judges by the Parliament on the charges like corruption, misuse of power and violation of the Constitution.

The impeachment motion of the removal of the judge with the charges is introduced in either house. If that motion is passed by 2/3 majority of the present and voting of the members, then it is sent to another house when it is heard. The judge can explain his/her position in that house. If the charges levelled in the previous house are proved in the second house by 2/3 majority of the present and voting and majority of the house. The judge stands impeached and he has to vacate the office. So far only one case of the removal of a judge of Supreme Court came up for consideration before the Parliament which could not get the support of the majority of the total strength of the House.

Question 8.
What is Judicial Review? How does it work in India?
Answer:
Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to test the constitutional validity which means it tests whether a law or executive is in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. If the imposed legislation or order of the executive is not according to the provisions of the constitution, it can declare them as unconstitutional.

In India judicial review is borrowed from the USA but with a difference. In the USA the power of Judicial review works on the principle of Due process of Law, while in India the power of Judicial review works on the Principle of Procedure established by Law. On the process of Due process of Law Supreme Court of USA can comment on Justness and Unjustness of the policy matters while as per the procedure established by Law Indian Judiciary is not supposed to comment on policy matters.

Question 9.
What is the role of the Supreme Court in India?
Answer:
Oft the basis of the power of Judicial review the Supreme Court is playing a very effective role in a different way on which we can enumerate as following

  1. It is the final authority of the interpretation of the constitution.
  2. It checks the arbitrariness of executives and legislature.
  3. It protects the Fundamental Rights of the people.
  4. It strengthens democracy.
  5. It protects the Indian Federal System
  6. It checks the bureaucracy
  7. It acts as guardian of the constitution
  8. It helps in the evolution of the Constitution.

Question 10.
Explain the Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Besides the original and appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court of India possesses Advisory Jurisdiction also. Under this jurisdiction, the President of India can seek opinion on any matter which involves the interpretation of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court of India is not bound to give its advice nor the President of India is bound to accept the advice of the Supreme Court which he has sought. The utility of this jurisdiction is twofold. Number one it gives the opportunity to government to seek the legal opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter of greater importance and consequences. Secondly in the light of the advice of Supreme Court government can make necessary changes.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Judicial Activism?
Answer:
The term Judicial activism is much talked about in legal, political and academic circle in India. On the basis of Judicial activism, the courts have given revolutionary decisions is different areas which have demoralised the legislature and executive who are particularly vocal infusing the concept of Judicial activism. However, it is found to be more people-friendly.

Judicial activism means working of Judiciary beyond its limit, which is permitted under the principle of procedure established by law which says

Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court listens to the case related to
a. Dispute between the centre and state
b. The dispute between two states
c. Fundamental Rights
d. Interpretation of the constitution

2. Appellate Jurisdiction: Under this jurisdiction Supreme Court listen to the appeal against the decisions of the High Courts in all the civil, criminal and constitutional matters.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction: Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can give its opinion to the President on any issue on which he seeks its opinion.

Question 12.
What are PIL(Public Interest Litigation) cases?
Answer:
PIL (Public Interest Litigation) is the chief instrument through which the Judicial activism has flourished in India.

PIL are those, cases which have been filed not by the aggrieved persons or parties but by the other, spirited persons and organisations on their behalf in Larger Public interests. Supreme Court of India took up the cases about rights of Prisoners which opened the gates for others.

Many Voluntary organisations have sought judicial intervention for the protection of existing rights and interest of the poor people and for improving the conditions of the poor people, protection of the environment and may other issues in the interest of public and \yeaker sections of the society. Justice P.N. Bhagwati had played a pioneering role in. the field of PIL (Public Interest Litigation case).

Question 13.
What is the importance and impact of PIL Public Interest Litigation Court?
Answer:
PIL is a revolutionary development in Indian Judiciary and is the consequence of Judicial activism and is an indicator of the changes which are taking place in social and economic set up in India.

Through the PIL, the courts have expanded the idea of rights, clean air, pure drinking water, decent living and dignified living are accepted as the essential rights of every man in the society. It was therefore felt by the courts that the individuals are part of the society must have the right to seeks Justice when such rights are involved. Through PIL Judiciary has become more liberal and human.

Judicial activism has a manifold impact on Indian Political System. People have largely found it and accepted as people-friendly. It has also made the executive more conscious and accountable to the people. Transparency in official working is the impact of Judicial activism; In fact, through Judicial activism, Judiciary has put the executives on their toes.

Question 14.
Mention some negative impact of Judicial activism.
Answer:
No doubt that Judicial activism in India is people friendly but it is certainly a violation of the principle procedure established by law because judicial activism is based on the process of law which does not prevail in India.

There is the negative side of Judicial activism which are as under:

  1. It is the violation of principle separation of power
  2. It is an attack on the autonomy of executive and legislative.
  3. An ultimate representative of the people of the interest of the people is legislative which are elected by the people.
  4. It will lead to high handedness of Judiciary.
  5. It will lead to conflict between the legislature and judiciary and will be a hindrance in the working of the Government.

Question 15.
Explain the conflict between the Judiciary and Parliament over the issue of amendment of Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Since the very implementation of the Constitution, there has been conflicting between the Parliament and Judiciary over the amendment of Fun-damental Rights. Some of the causes of this conflict are used under.

  1. Shankari Prasad Case 1951
  2. Golak Nath case 1967
  3. Keshwanand Bharti Case 1973
  4. Minerva Mill Case 1980

Now it is the latest position that Parliament can amend every part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but cannot amend the basic structure of the constitution.

Judiciary Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the composition and role of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Judiciary in India occupies the place of dignity and prestige. We have an independent, impartial and powerful judiciary. It is an integrated one. At its apex is Supreme Court which has administrative and Supervisory control on the lower courts.

The Supreme Court consists of 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India by the principle of seniority. Other Judges are appointed by the President with the consultation of Chief Justice of India. The Judges of the Supreme Court enjoy long tenure. They get retirement at the age of 65 years. They can be removed from the officers by way of impeachment by Parliament. Supreme Court of India has a power of Judicial review and exercises the jurisdiction in the following areas:

  1. Original Jurisdiction
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction
  3. Advisory Jurisdiction
  4. Miss.

Supreme Court of India has assumed more and m^fe powers and role in Indian Political System. It is working beyond its/jurisdiction and has the renowned name of Judicial activism. L.N. Bhagwati has filter done revolutionary step by accepting the principle ofPIL (Public Interest Litigations) which means by filing the case by an others-the aggrieved person who an unable to move to the courts themselves. Judiciary has played’ important role in

  1. Checking the arbitrations of executive/ln India
  2. It is defending the democracy in India
  3. It is protecting the Fundamental Rights of the people.
  4. It is working as guardian of the Constitution

The Industrial Revolution Class 11 Important Extra Questions History Chapter 10

Here we are providing Class 11 History Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Displacing Indigenous Peoples. Class 11 History Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 History Chapter 10 Important Extra Questions Displacing Indigenous Peoples

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Who had displaced the native peoples in North America and Australia?
Answer:
Those were Europeans i.e. people from France, Portugal, England, Germany, Holland, etc. migrated there.

Question 2.
What were the reasons behind the large-scale migration of people from England, France, Germany, Sweden, Poland, and Italy?
Answer:
Migrants from France and England were younger sons not inherited property there and people from other countries migrated to North America because their small landholdings were merged forcibly or bought in less payment by the manors to their estates in the wave of the Industrial revolution. People from Poland like Prairie grasslands purposeful as that of the Steppes in their homes.

Question 3.
Can we get historical data about the native people of North America and Australia at present?
Answer:
Yes, there are presently established galleries of native art and museums which show the aborigine’s way of living.

Question 4.
When did France, Holland, and England begin to extend their trading activities and colony establishment in America, Africa, and Asia?
Answer:
It was the period after the seventeenth century.

Question 5.
What is called European Imperialism?
Answer:
To occupy and maintain under indirect control on the kinds outside one’s own country was imperialism. Actually, it was an instrument of sovereignty interfering with the Administrative machinery of the host country thereby getting and training them on slavery at physical, mental, and emotional levels Eg. “Sirji” in modem tone symbolizes the British period in India.

Question 6.
Mention the uses of the term “settler”?
Answer:
Dutch were the sellers in South Africa, the British in Ireland, New Zealand, and Australia, and the Europeans in America.

Question 7.
What was the official language in North America?
Answer:
It was English but both French and English in Canada.

Question 8.
What is meant by the term “Native” at present and it was still the early twentieth century?
Answer:
Till the early twentieth century, it was meant by the people of colonies established by Europeans. Presently, it is understood as a person born in the place he/she is living life long.

Question 9.
What were the basic occupations of native people in North America?
Answer:
It was hunting, fishing, and agriculture.

Question 10.
Will you say native people in America sloth and snort?
Answer:
Actually, as the historians state, they were complacent people. They had made a good cohesion or liaison with the natives and were happy with their existing simple means. However, we justify the above comment if we consider the dictum-“Satisfaction’s the end of life”. Once satisfied is never rectified.

Question 11.
What do you mean by aborigine?
Answer:
It is a Latin word meaning-from the beginning. It was used for the native people of Australia.

Question 12.
What is the term used for native peoples of North and South Americas and the Caribbean?
Answer:
It is American-Indian, Amerind, or Amerindian.

Question 13.
What was an important feature of the natives of North America?
Answer:
Friendship and relations were formed on a formal basis and things were never sold but given as gift.

Question 14.
Who were First Nations Peoples?
Answer:
It is a technical name given to natives of North America in the Canadian constitution. They were so scheduled in the constitution of that country.

Question 15.
Who were native Americans?
Answer:
It is a commonly used word now for indigenous people of Americans but earlier, it was confined only to the names of North America.

Question 16.
Who were Red Indians?
Answer:
The people living on the island of Guanhani in the Bahamas or Bajamar as the name was given by Colofnbus to it in Spanish because of being it an island surrounded by shallow seas. Red Indians i.e. brown complexion people.

Question 17.
Why were the native people in North America not interested in writing records of their time?
Answer:
They relied on the basic doctrine that every skill, expertise, and general behavioral pattern transfers from one generation to another hence, why should they think of writing them.

Question 18.
Which skills were the natives of North America known to?
Answer:
Craftmanship, textiles weaving, measuring land, understand climate, and know in-depth, the characteristics, composition, and effect of different landscapes.

Question 19.
When did the Hopis propagate that hard time had come?
Answer:
In a stone tablet, it was written that Hopis (i.e. a tribe in California) took Spaniards as brothers but appearing with turtle movement. They extended their hands hoping for the handshake but those brothers (Spaniards) had arrested them. This treacherous event, they called hard-time.

Question 20.
What were the things attracted the European traders in North America?
Answer:
The civilized behavior of native people and potentials for development of trade in furs and fish.

Question 21.
According to the Europeans, who were the civilized people?
Answer:
Europeans were materialistic and consumerism bend of mind, hence/literacy, organized religion and urbanization were the three parameters of civilized individual and people.

Question 22.
Which will you say civilized: an individual or tribe extending hard to strangers treating as brothers to give a handshake or the strangers who shackle that hand in iron?
Answer:
Definitely, the former who extends hand hoping for the handshake i.e native people of North America.

Question 23.
What cardinal difference in nature of a European and the native people have been marked by Washington Irving, a writer?
Answer:
Non-whites (native people) keep aloof from the Europeans whose language they could not understand or another who is proved, a betrayer. However, Europeans kept them aloof in all matters.

Question 24.
What would an Indian (natives) say on Britishers when he was in his society?
Answer:
He would laugh and joke at European and says that he had supposed European (white) impressed with profound respect for his grandeur and dignity.

Question 25.
Why did the natives feel Europeans were giving sometimes, more things in exchange while less at other times?
Answer:
They were simple and complacent people. They had nothing to. bear with market functions, upheavals, and effects of demand and supply on the market for the things.

Question 26.
Why did Jefferson, the third President of the USA take native people as uncivilized?
Answer:
He wanted to see a country populated by Europeans with small farms but the native people were satisfied with the subsistence agriculture and mere gave thought to area expansion in agriculture and gave thought to area-expansion in agriculture.

Question 27.
Which were the countries in the USA in 1783?
Answer:
These were-

  1. Wisconsin,
  2. Michigan,
  3. New York,
  4. Illinois,
  5. Ohio,
  6. Indiana,
  7. North Carolina,
  8. South Carolina,
  9. Virginia,
  10. Kentucky,
  11. Mississippi,
  12. Alabama,
  13. Maine,
  14. Georgia and
  15. New Jersey including Delaware and Mary land.

Question 28.
How did the landscapes of America receive changes?
Answer:
A number of people migrated to America from the countries like Germany, Sweden, and Italy as also that of Poland, and people from Britain and France also occupied land in North America in an unauthorized and unfair way. It had changed the landscape into a number of colonies by those immigrants.

Question 29.
What was the problem with the Canadian Government unsolved for a long time?
Answer:
Autonomous political status was demanded by the French settlers in Canada and raised their dissatisfaction through movements and processions. In 1867, Canada was made a confederation of autonomous states and only then the problem could be solved.

Question 30.
What heinous crime had the Europeans committed upon the native people of North America?
Answer:
They snatched lands from native people by hooks and by crooks and displaced them to lands deserted and unknown till then called “Reservations”.

Question 31.
What does the reply from a native leader Chief Seattle to a letter of USA President in 1854 exhibit?
Answer:
He shows great respect for the land as a mother for which the formation of parties like buyer and seller only would derogate the honor.

Question 32.
What was the mandatory condition in that replication?
Answer:
Europeans can be given a piece of land as a gift but they and their forthcoming generations will deal with the land as serene as divine.

Question 33.
Why did the anthropologist in 1840 argue that as primitive people are not found in North America, the same way; native here would be forgotten shortly?
Answer:
It was because the anthropologists found no records, reminiscence Literary-works in course of the surveys they made. These people were not interested at all in keeping contemporary events in records.

Question 34.
Why did a visitor Frenchman state that Primitive man will disappear with the primitive animal?
Answer:
The primitive animal was bison abundantly found in the dense forests of North America. The nationals of Britain immigrated there and turned the Prairie grasslands into agricultural farms. They killed bison and exported its meat to countries in Europe. This species was finally got extinct and therefore, doubt about the extinction of primitive men in the hands of Europeans was raised.

Question 35.
Why did Andrew Carnegie, an immigrant from Scotland state that the old natives creep on a snail’s pace, the repeal thunders on the speed of an express?
Answer:
Perhaps so stated because the people in North America were the simplest people, contented with the primitive manners of survival, treated the earth as a mother goddess, and maintained them in peaceful co-existence with nature. They did not want the expansion of their lands.

Question 36.
What type of revolution vis-a-vis the Industrial Revolution of England took place in North America?
Answer:
It came in the form of infrastructural development i.e. construction of Railways, railway equipment, manufacture of agricultural tools so that field of farming could be expanded for exploitation on a commercial basis.

Question 37.
When had the USA’s continental expansion completed?
Answer:
It was in 1892 with a division of the complete area between the Pacific and Atlantic oceans.

Question 38.
Why did Karl Marx say American frontiers as the last positive capitalist utopia?
Answer:
He took it as a balanced form of living manner between human beings and that of the environment. It was vulnerable to capitalism, so excess modesty and sincerity of the native people; hence, he had stated it Positr capitalist taking capitalism as an ailment or malaise and the polite and humble behavior of native people as positive to that malaise.

Question 39.
What was the USA? Whether it was favoring Monarchy?
Answer:
The United States of America was a confederacy of states. No, 1 it was against the monarchy.

Question 40.
What was the discrimination made in the constitution of America?
Answer:
Only white men were given the right to vote for a representative, to Congress, and for President and right to. property but non-whites or the people who migrated from South And Southeast Asia were denied those rights.

Question 41.
What has been pointed out by Daniel Paul, a Canadian native in 2000?
Answer:
Daniel Paul has referred to Thomas Paire who had; remembered that it was the American war of Independence and the French Revolution which inspired Indians to run long freedom of s struggle and similar was the starting point of the American natives. Actually, he wants to say that do well even for those who pelt on one’s interests i.e. truth and non-violence in India, and gift land and goods to shrewd Europeans.

Question 42.
Who had highlighted the pains suffered by native Americans deported to virgin lands i.e. Reservations?
Answer:
It was a survey made and get published by Lewis Meriam, a social scientist in 1928. It was “The Problem of Indian Administration”.

Question 43.
Which law had ensured American natives in reservations the right to buy land and take loans?
Answer:
It was the Indians Reorganisation Act, 1934.

Question 44.
Why was prepared the Declaration of Indian Rights?
Answer:
It was a document drafted by American natives who had stated that they can accept citizenship of the USA on condition that their reservations would not be taken away and their traditions would not anyway be interfered with.

Question 45.
Did the Government sanction the declaration of natives in Canada?
Answer:
No, the government of Canada refused to accept their demands and it resulted in sharp demonstrations and debates by native people. The Constitution Act, 1982 had finally accepted the existing aboriginal and treaty rights of the natives.

Question 46.
Who were aborigines?
Answer:
Those were a number of different societies that began to arrive in Australia over 40,000 years ago.

Question 47.
Why are past centuries called the Dream time?
Answer:
It is because there is not a clear contrast between past and present when we study Australia on available historical and archaeological facts.

Question 48.
How is known a large group of Australian natives in the North of it?
Answer:
It is called the Torres Strait Islanders. These do not fall within the periphery of the term aborigine because they accept their different race and migrated from elsewhere.

Question 49.
What had the natives (Daruks) done when Britishers inflicted pains upon them?
Answer:
They left their house and Herth, the land and chattels behind, and ran to dense forests.

Question 50.
When did states in Australia unite and what was the name given to its capital?
Answer:
It was in 1911. The capital name was Woolwheatgold called finally, Canberra i.e. meeting place.

Question 51.
What was established in Australia?
Answer:
Vast sheep farms and mining stations.

Question 52.
Who had composed a lecture on The Great Australian Silence?
Answer:
He was WEH Stanner who condemned historians for not making any records of aborigines.

Question 53.
From which decade, the historical inquiries and record-keeping have been started in Australia on aborigines?
Answer:
Since 1970. It comprised distinct cultures of communities, legends, and tales, textile and painting skills, painting expertise of the aborigines.

Question 54.
How can you state that research work on cultures of aborigines started at a critical time?
Answer:
It was because if the native culture had remained any more ignored, by this time; much of such cultures would have been forgotten.

Question 55.
What is multiculturalism?
Answer:
It is an official policy in Australia being conducted for ensuring equal respect to native cultures and cultures of immigrants from Europe and Asia.

Question 56.
Who had written poems on the loss created by keeping the white people and the natives apart?
Answer:
It was Judith Wright who condemned the Europeans for the expulsion of native people of Australia to the reservations i.e. deserted and virgin places.

Question 57.
Which two facts have been revealed from the movements launched by some groups of people in Australia?
Answer:

  1. The natives had strong historic bonds with the land,
  2. Injustice had been done to children in an attempt to keep white and non-white people away from each other.

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Important Extra Questions  Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why would have the chief counted the river-water as the blood of his ancestors?
Answer:
Adaptation with the environment when tends to harness inner conscience, the vicissitudes of nature and man are missed up. They are merged within one, the same way as at the moment of concluded research, a scientist bursts into ecstasy. He forgets even the outer senses. Such someway happens much or less is the long cohesion with the land or a particular landscape. Ancestors are in their memory even at the home appliances, the buildings, cow-sheds, each field in which they worked, etc. As reminiscence increases heart-beats owing to much blood required for regression or reopen the store-kit; hence, the larger flow of blood immediately, locks the ten apertures of the body, eg. eye, nose, ear, etc. in order to prepare the ground for inner musings.

It exemplarily exhibits how much, the people in past America had burning love’ and affection for the earth. The same land of North America through its inhabitants is now playing the game on its other side. Eg. Europeans looted Americans by their emotional exploitation in transactions of goods and lands and now it is America, a shrewd oppressor in the world playing with business ties including loaning strategy.

Question 2.
What are the important points, you consider in the history of North America and Australia?
Answer:
These points are as under-

  1. Europeans were equally dominated on both continents.
  2. Europeans cheated the native people of North America and Australia and grabbed their lands and drove them to reservations.
  3. Native peoples in both lands were simple, god fearing, lovers of nature, self-restrained and sociable.

Question 3.
Discuss the changes in landscapes of North America during the nineteenth century?
Answer:
The whole land of America was turned into estates and meadows. Being a variety of landforms here found people of European countries i.e. Germany, Sweden, Italy, etc., all suitable to their needs.

The people migrating to America were younger sons of the landlords there, who had no right to ancestral property, some others were those small farmers whose lands were merged with the big landlords under enclosure or consolidation of land and the citizens of Poland found grassland of Prairie similar to their characteristics of ‘ the Steppes grasslands. They cleared the forest land and started growing rice and cotton as commercial crops meant for export to Europe and fenced their farms with barbed wires.

Question 4.
What efforts did the natives of the northern states of the USA make to abolish slavery? Discuss.
Answer:
There were no plantations in the Northern States of America hence, evils of slavery were at their climax. The native people there. condemned slavery as an inhuman practice. It caused strong protest between the states favoring and condemning slavery during 1861-65. Finally, slavery was abolished but discrimination between whites and non-whites could be ended, by the extreme efforts of the African- Americans in the twentieth century.

Question 5.
What was the case of the Cherokee tribe in North America?
Answer:
This tribe was living in Georgia, a state in the USA. This tribe had made special efforts to learn English as also the American way of life but even so, the people of this tribe were not allowed the rights of citizens. In 1832, the landmark Judgment US chief justice, John Marshall sanctioned sovereignty of this tribe in its territory but US President, Andrew Jackson ordered the US Army to evict Cherokees from their land and drive them to the great American Desert. The people so driven out from their lands were succumbed, to several troubles.

Question 6.
What were the pleas of the European people justifying their usurp of natives’ land there?
Answer:
These usurpers raised the pleas that the tribes were lazy and did not exploit the maximum potentials of the land. They argued taking over land from the people not exploited it properly, is not an offense but a right step towards development. According to them, the native people had not used their craft skills to produce goods for the market, they did not take interest in learning English or dressing properly. Thus, the grassland of the Prairies was cleared for farmland and wild bison killed off. A Frenchman once visited there had truly stated-Primitive man will disappear with the primitive animal.”

Question 7.
Discuss the different images that Europeans and native Americans had of each other and the different ways in which they saw the natives.
Answer:
(A) Europeans’ perspective to native Americans

  1. They took native Americans an uncivilized and barbarous as also not amenable,
  2. According to them, the native people were unorganized and foolish.
  3. Europeans took them lazy, anti-development, and unwilling to won the nature hence, they took certain steps for reclamation and expansion in agriculture.
  4. Europeans wanted to exterminate and displace them.

(B) Native Americans perspective to the Europeans

  1. Native people surprised Europeans as they had cleared the forests, get the fields dugs and turn into large states with buildings and other structures constructed thereupon.
  2. They wanted to share their land with Europeans but they were insisting on selling the same.
  3. They thought that Europeans were committing wrong in dividing the land into smaller pieces under ownership.
  4. They took Europeans as friends. They introduced them to invisible tracks of forests and provided them things in the gift.

Different views on nature-

  1. Native people took nature as their mother, made certain rules maintaining the balance in the environment but Europeans relentlessly cut the trees, destroyed the natural beauty of the landscape, constructed a number of structures and super-structures, developed farms and plantations.
  2. The natives grew crops not for sale and profit but only to survive while everything was commodity worth value hence, selling and profiteering was Europeans’exclusive aim.
  3. Native people were extreme lovers of nature while Europeans took it only resource inert and lifeless. According to them, every resource is to be exploited for earning more and more profit from the products obtained by the application of labor and skill.

Question 8.
Comment on these two sets of population data-

USA: 1820

Spanish America, 1800

Natives 0.6 million 7.5 million
Whites 9.0 million 3.3 million
Mixed Europeans 0.1 million 5.3 million
Blacks 1.9 million 0.8 million
Total 11.6 million 16.9 million

Answer:
The above population’s data reveal the that-Sharp decline of 6.9 million (7.5-0.6) population of natives took place in a period of two decades i.e. from 1800 to 1820. However, when we observe the data pertaining to population change in whites, there had been a whopping increase from 3.3 million to 9.0 million during the period in question. It was an increase of 5.7 million in the whites population within a Spain of two decades.

Cause-

  1. The natives were first cheated in transactions of fur and meat, then forced or induced to sign treaties as of selling their lands. They were driven to alien and virgin lands inaccessible to man. These places they called reservations.
  2. They were enslaved and badly treated while working.

So far as Blacks or non-whites population trend is concerned, we see it increased from 0.8 million of 1800 to 1.9 million i.e. an increase of 1.1 million in two decades under question. The population of mixed Europeans was decreased from 5.3 million in 1800 to 0.1 million in 1820.

Question 9.
Comment on the following statement by the American historian, Howard Spodek: “For the indigenous (people) the effects of the American Revolutions were exactly opposite to those of the settlers-expansion became contraction, democracy became tyranny, prosperity became poverty, and liberty became confinement.”
Answer:
1. Expansion became contraction-It denotes and points out the event of Europeans’ (Germany, Sweden, Italy, and Poland nationals) arrival in North America and the estates they developed there but the movement of natives to reservations i.e. uninhabitable and inaccessible places, virgin lands.

Thus, they could get contractions through the hands of the people not of their motherland by the reason of their extra-faith on humanism and nature in its unmanipulated colors. Initially, all of them were troubled (convicts, a merger of land under enclosure policy of Government and expelled persons) hence, so trained were their minds in wrench and twist, whim-whams, betraying, defrauding, etc. devices.

2. Democracy became tyranny-In the state of democracy, it cannot be stated that natives were enjoying all political and other fundamental rights under democracy. They suffered ab-initio the cruel order of Thomas Jefferson, the third President of the USA, and likewise other inhuman treatment. Even after the state became democratic, the discrimination between native tribes and Europeans seated coiled for aggravating the situation more bitter. Teaching institutions, religious places, public meetings alike places always neglected the native people. In view of no change in the condition of natives under democracy to some extent, can be said a tyranny under the arcade of democracy.

3. Prosperity became poverty-As the essence of this theme “Displacing Indigenous people” exhibits, prior to the arrival of Europeans, there was poverty shrouded land however, not so in the perspective of natives themselves because of their self-contented nature. They were simple people with limited needs for survival. The dense forests, the rivers, and the seas were their friends-like which they could not imagine were inert and natural resources made for relentless exploitations as the Europeans did. The so-called prosperity in a material sense came as poverty because for their no-fault, they were deported to lonely and virgin inhabitation places which the Europeans named as reservations.

4. Liberty became Confinement-It was confinement like to natives because a number of announcements were made, several laws passed all for detriment to their causes. For instance, the government announcement of 1969 exhibited refusal or denial of aborigine rights. Thus, liberty also became confinement to the native people.

Question 10.
In 1911, it was announced that New Delhi and Canberra would be built as the capital cities of British India and of the Commonwealth of Australia. Compare and contrast the political situations of the native people in these countries at that time.
Answer:
Political Situations in India in the year of 1911-Morley Minto reforms or Indian Councils Act, 1861 received a protest from the moderate and radicals both in India. It was against democracy for India. Thus, the post-Morley-Minto Reform period (1909), witnessed several developments that resulted in a remarkable Hindu Muslim unity and friendship between the Moderates and the Radicals.

Muslim League had earlier appreciated these reforms but the British attitude towards Turkey in the Balkan war of 1912-1913 aroused discontentment among the Indian Muslims. Hence, Lucknow Pact, 1916 was signed between Congress and Muslim Leagues. As the Britishers had abled to create a cleft between Congress and Muslim League, they were all right in thinking that they would make Delhi the capital of British India. They had shifted their capital from Calcutta (Kolkata at present) to Delhi on 15th December 1911, with King George-V laid the foundation stone of New Delhi.

Political situations in Australia in the year 1911

  1. 90 percent of the total population of native people succumbed to exposure to germs while working in the forests.
  2. Daruk people of Sydney thought that cutting trees is a dangerous business hence, they ran from their lands towards the dense forest in order to save themselves from committing that sinful deed.
  3. They had to fight strong protest against Europeans.
  4. When the native people left the work undone, the Britishers allowed Chinese migrants to come and provide cheap labor.
  5. There were vast sheep farms and mining stations established in the year of 1911.

Question 11.
Discuss the thoughts of Judith Wright, an Australian writer on the basis of the poem given in this theme.
Answer:
Lady Judith was a champion of the rights of the Australians and aborigines. She exhibits regret on writing a history of Australia so late i.e. from the decade of 1970. Owing to this, the modern people could not know earlier the distinct cultures, unique ways of understanding nature and climate, the skills in textile, painting, and learning as also the stories and legends of the native people in Australia.

Question 12.
How were Indians suffered under British rule? Discuss.
Answer:
They texted arbitrarily in commodities including products manufactured in Indigenous factories/industries. They never treated Indians as equal to them and discriminated in schooling, traveling and denied them political, social, cultural, and religious rights.

Question 13.
What was the treatment of Europeans with natives in America and Australia?
Answer:
They cheated them in the trade of fur and meat as also cereals. They forged the documents of sale and paid the cost of land less than as negotiated. They were driven to the great American deserts and reservations. They took them as sloth and dull. These people were displaced from their own lands and enslaved.

Question 14.
What difference do you see in the Industrial Revolution of England and its impulses in America? Discuss.
Answer:
As the land and its utilization or exploitation, determine the material development i.e. prosperity and riches, the big Famers took the advantage of Enclosure or Consolidation policy made by so-called Parliaments where their own representatives were the members. They either bought land for negligible cost or practiced atrocities on small farmers so as they leave their claim on the land and flee to lands elsewhere. Thus, large estates and manorial estates were formed by the wealthy people and installed there, industries and manufacturing units.

Unlike England, the revolution entered with the USA and Canada as a result of displacement of native people to the reservation, expansion of farming land, clearance of forests, emphasis on the manufacture of railway equipment and Agriculture tools. The former for construction of railway lines covering the entire area extended by the eviction of native people and clearance of forests relentlessly and the latter for growing crops of rice and cotton to export in Europe and earn wealth.

Question 15.
Write a brief note on assimilation and percussion of two opposite natives of society/communities.
Answer:
Actually, religion in a scientific way is an instinctive and intuitive power of discretion inserted into the individual in order to prepare a blue-print of the course of life taking in bits with understanding the causes and their effects. Realization is religion. It takes birth in the womb of circumstances and always decided amid questions of existence and that of determination.

When two opposite natures are eventually assimilated under circumstances as we see in the case of immigrants in the USA and Australia they collide with each other. They were mostly people evicted, displaced, denied inheritance rights and among them were convicts deported from England so that they begin a new life in the direct shelter of nature. However, once malaised mind, owing to pains being too physical existence, it was usual, if they exploited the land from natives for production of cereals and animal herding, as we see large sheep farms in Australia.

Their necessity was touched with material possession however, the native people were the true habitant to nature and their long-standing had made rhythmic relations with the chimes of native bells in the form of gargling rivers, the circulation of wind including natural resources. As hunger of existence looks never, the fair or unfair mean, they inflicted pain on man-power and natural resources.

Conclusion-It can be started in brief that collision and encounter is the only percussion of such assimilation of two just opposite to each other communities at the same place.

Displacing Indigenous Peoples Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
This theme in its entirety introduces us to the native people with their instincts, respect to life, the network of circumstances, their determination vis-a-vis troubled mind people (All Europeans) passionate to obtain land and become lord, the resultant collision and percussions apparent in the form of America, a superpower at present”-Are you agree to this statement. Discuss with reference to the melodrama of the location (land) and its results
Answer:
I agree to the above statement on the following grounds-
1. Introduction with the native people-We observe in both continents i.e. North America and Australia, the native people were simple people and animists. They were so absorbed in nature that selling land in their view was an offense to the motherland. For an in¬stance, we can refer to the reply given to the offer of the treaty from the President of the USA in 1854 which was actually an agreement to sell off the land to the Government of America.

The native chief writes that land covers the freshness of the air, coolness of the water, shade of trees, etc. and it can neither be sold nor bought by any person. He tells the sap pouring from trees holds a quality of real man (Natives). However, he accepts the offer subject to congenial reservation given and treat the land so sold as sacred as they understand the water’s murmur as the voices of their fore-fathers. They would have published books and educate their children to honor this LAPD.

Wordsworth writes about the nature of these people as un¬touched by the corruptions of civilization. He describes their condition in a poem as-“They were living amid wilds where fancy hath small liberty to grace.”

Karl Marx, the great German philosopher describes the reservations provided by the Europeans to native people as the last positive capitalist utopia the limitless nature and space to which the limitless thirst for prompt adapts itself.

2. Introduction with Europeans-We come to know that Europeans had entered North America for trade in furs and fish. It was their trade that brought them nearer to the native people whom they cheated in exchange for things with them and obtained land and goods mostly in the gift. Then they displaced them to reservations. Lee Brown says the stone tablets exhibit how Hopi (a native tribe) was arrested by the Spaniards.

About 300 years after the Americas, the Euro¬peans started coming to Australia with the discovery made by Captain Cook. They had to fight wars with the aborigines there. However, they won and made them slaves. Here were the people mostly convicts deported from England. They shortly evicted the native people.

Hence, we see the collision of cultures and the resultant loss to native people. The natives took them greedy and deceitful and the Europeans criticized them as sloth, dull and uncivilized. The third President of the USA, Thomas Jefferson had stated-“This unfortunate race which we have been taking so many pains to civilize have justified extermination.”

The network of Circumstances :
(a) Native people-

  1. They were nature lovers, self-restraint, untouched by corruption, and complacent people. Rousseau of France said-“Such people were to be admired as they were untouched by corruption.”
  2. That was satisfied with their means and did not want the destruction of the beauty by cutting trees, cleaning the forest, build structures and super-structures thereupon.
  3. They were bestowed by nature with rivers like Mississippi, Ohio, etc., mountains like Appalachian, the great lakes, natural reservoirs but till then know to them as living with animation as the mankind/human beings.

(b) The Europeans-
1. These all were beaten-sold or in other words, victims of corruption in Europe. Some were younger sons to land-owners denied of inheritance, a few other convicts, sufferers of sectism in Christianity (i.e. Protestant and Catholics), victims of the Enclosure Policy and some were traders. They were known to the fact the selfish ends here others from their material possessions i.e. land, business, occupation and even of their lives.

2. It is stated that avarice and selfishness i.e. a malaise to the mental body that acts upon others like that of contagious nature. It spreads even through breathing and touch. The Europeans acted as the pathogens or carrier of the disease and communicated its bacteria to native people causing their displacement, oppression, suppression, extortion, in the hands of those pathogens. They were extorted and displaced from their own countries i.e. England, France, Spain, Holland, Germany, and on their part, they came to NorthAmerica and Australia in order to practice corruption and enjoy material possession.

3. They would not write their history because of their faith in the flow of usual learning from one generation to another. There were more than 300 languages yet no records until the early part of the twentieth century they maintained or preserved anyway.

4. Countries like Canada and the USA came into existence at the end of the eighteenth century as confederacies in North America and states in Australia united in 1911 with Canberra, as its capital. These governments also did not extend any favor to the native people. Slavery was banned but its actual abolition could possible only when the UNO was formed in 1945.

The phenomenon of Land-At this juncture, when we are going to set at rest the topic, it is noticeable that the land of the Americas (i.e. North and South-both continents) where Europeans stepped with the malaise of inflicting pains, atrocities on the native people, has now appeared as super-power of the world. Actually, it is triple-experiments of malicious which once communicated thereby Europeans as a pathogen.

It is so because seeds were sown in the land of Europe where scrape of inheritance was confined, enclosure policy made displacement, people kept in confinement and atrocities practiced on them to the extent that they compelled to leave behind their home and hearth, the and other properties and seek another place for living.

Did they bit them? native people and bacteria of that malaise inserted into their head and’’ heart. It developed there in a little more than self half and thus, fully, trained Americas with her citizens has become expert in adopting Sortne a century ultra-modem technique of trade and commerce and thus* has acquired the status of super-power in the world. If we could see’/ her treatment with Vietnam, Japan, Iraq, and Iran, etc. Countries including India and Pakistan it would easy to conclude her face that of the most expert Europeans of 30,000 years ago who looted her existence end the people there. Actually, it is turning of wheel systematically brought- by the phenomenon of land.

Conclusion-History is made by land and people. The land as a mute observer but the more sensitive as per William Wordsworth survives man and tries him by placing in a variety of circumstances, situations, his manner of adaptation, behavior, urge, emotions, passions, etc. and then the results, good or bad as perceived by mankind through History, take place in an interlude of decades, centuries and even that of an era.

Legislature Class 11 Important Extra Questions Political Science Chapter 5

Here we are providing Class 11 Political Science Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Legislature. Political Science Class 11 Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Important Extra Questions Legislature

Legislature Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Legislature?
Answer:
The legislature is one of the three organs of the Government of the modern state. Although its main function is to make a law it performs a number of other functions like representational and deliberate functions. The legislature has financial and administrative control over the executive.

Question 2.
How do you role the importance of the Legislature?
Answer:
The work, role, and importance of the legislature are on increase. It is the platform of high kind of discussions, debate, deliberations, discussions co-operation and opposition. All the decisions and policy matters are dis¬cussed and debated here. All these activities of the legislature serve vital purposes. -Indeed a genuine democracy is inconceivable without represen¬tative efficient and responsible legislature. The legislature also helps people in holding the representatives accountable. Therefore we can say legislature has high importance in a representative democracy.

Question 3.
What constitutes the Indian parliament?
Answer:
Followings are known as three organs of Indian Parliament:

  1. Indian President
  2. Lok Sabha (House of people)
  3. Rajya Sabha (Council of states)

Question 4.
What is a bicameral legislature?
Answer:
There are two types of legislatures. Where there is only one house, they are known as the unicameral legislature, and where there are two houses they are known as a bicameral legislature. India has a bicameral legislature in the center and in five states.

Question 5.
Give four arguments in favor of the bicameral legislature.
Answer:

  1. It gives the opportunity to re-discuss in detail a bill that is passed in haste in the lower house.
  2. It helps in making a public opinion.
  3. It is an essential federal system of government.
  4. A bicameral legislature is necessary to give representation to the minorities.

Question 6.
Give four arguments against the bicameral legislature.
Answer:
1. Bicameral legislatures are unnecessary
2. They cause avoidable delays.
3. They cause unnecessary expenditure and computation
4. They are unrepresentative in nature

Question 7.
Name the states which have bicameral legislation.
Answer:
Following five states of India have bicameral legislation

  1. Jammu & Kashmir.
  2. Bihar
  3. Karnataka
  4. Maharashtra
  5. Uttar Pradesh

Question 8.
Write the composition of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. It has a total strength of 543 members. However, it has a maximum of 550 members which is fixed on the basis of population. The members are elected directly by the people. The minimum age to became a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years. Eligible voter of a minimum of 18 years cast their votes in this election.

Question 9.
What are the functions of the speaker of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is known as the speaker of Lok Sabha who is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from themselves. Speaker conducts the proceeding of the house and maintains discipline and decorum in the house.

Question 10.
How the Rajya Sabha is compared?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. It is known as the council of states because it represents the interest of the states.-Its maximum capacity is 250 members, out of it238 an elected by the members of state assemblies, and 12 members are nominated by the President of India from the people who have earned the name in different fields like science, literature, art, social service, cinema, and sports.

Question 11.
In which areas Rajya Sabha is weak in comparison to Lok sabha.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is weaker in comparison to Lok Sabha in the following areas:-

  1. Legislative field (It can delay a bill only for 6 months)
  2. Financial field (It can delay money bill only for 14 days)
  3. Executive field (It can bring a no-confidence motion against the executive)

Question 12.
Who presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Vice President of India is the Capacity of ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha who presides over, the meetings of Rajya Sabha and conducts the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 13.
What is Bill and when it becomes Law?
Answer:
The proposal to make a law is called a bill. When it is passed by both the Houses of Parliament and get the assent of the Indian President it became law.

Question 14.
Who amends the Indian constitution?
Answer:
Parliament has the power to amend the constitution by following the definite procedure given in Art 368. State Assemblies have limited power in the amendment of the Constitution.

Question 15.
Write two special power of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

  1. It can declare a subject of National importance by 2/3 majority resolution.
  2. It can declare a service as AH India service by 2/3 majority resolution.

Legislature Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the main function of the Legislature in the modern state?
Answer:
Legislatures of modem state perform the following functions whatever may be the forms of government:

  1. Discussion, debate, and deliberations on public issues.
  2. Legislative function:- Enactment of law is the primary function of legislation.
  3. Financial functions:- Legislatures control the expenditure. The executive cannot spend even a single penny without the approval of the Legislature.
  4. Executive functions:- Executive is controlled by the legislature by different methods.
  5. Constitutional amendment functions
  6. Judicial functions.
  7. Electoral functions
  8. Emergency powers.
  9. Miscellaneous functions

Question 2.
Discuss the compositions of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are two houses of the Indian Parliament. Lok Sabha is the Lower house and Rajya Sabha is the upper house. Lok Sabha has a maximum capacity of 550 members which are elected by the people by direct elections. A person of a minimum of 25 years of age can be a member of the Lok Sabha. Every person 18 years of age is eligible to cast his vote in this election.

Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved Every member enjoys the tenure of 6 years. Its one-third of members are retired after every second year and new members are elected by the respective state assembly by a single transferable vote system.

Its total strength is 250 members out of where 238 members are elected and the rest 12 members are nominated by the President of India. To become a member of the Rajya Sabha one should be a member of a minimum of 30 years of age. Vice President of India acts as ex-officio Chairman Parliament of Rajya Sabha and conducts its meetings.

Question 3.
What are the main functions of the Lok Sabha speaker?
Answer:
The speaker of Lok Sabha performs the following functions:

  1. To preside over the meetings of Lok Sabha.
  2. To maintain discipline and decorum in the house
  3. To allow the introductions of the bill in the house.
  4. To decide the nature of the bill
  5. To interpret the rules of the house
  6. To constitute different committees.
  7. To safeguard the privilege of the member of the parliament and house itself.
  8. To refer the bills to different committees.
  9. To conduct the business of the house and decide the term of the speakers.
  10. To exercise the casting vote in case of a tie on a bill.

Question 4.
How the parliament exercises control over the executive?
Answer:
The Parliament exercises administrative and financial control as the executive in the following ways:

  1. It discusses, debate and make a public opinion on different policy matters of the executive.
  2. It molds the decisions of the government.
  3. It controls the arbitrariness of the government.
  4. Executive can not make any expedition without the approval of the Parliament
  5. The executive has to give the report of expenditure before the Parliament.

Question 5.
Write main functions of Parliament.
Answer:
Parliament performs the following functions:-

  1. It discusses the issues of public importance
  2. It makes laws.
  3. It discusses, approves, and passes the budget.
  4. It exercises control on the executive.
  5. Parliament members take part in the election of President and Vice-President.
  6. Parliament makes amendments in the Constitution.
  7. Parliament brings and listens and passes the improvement against the President, Vice-Present, and judges of Supreme court and High Courts.
  8. Parliament approves the decision of declaration of emergency.

Question 6.
Tell the areas in which Rajya Sabha has equal powers.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in the following areas:

  1. In discussion and debate on the issues of public interest and to help in making a public opinion.
  2. In the area of a constitutional amendment, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal power. No amendment bill will become Act until and unless it is passed by both houses separately. Amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
  3. In judicial matters also Lok sabha and Rajya sabha have equal powers as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President, Vice President, and judges of the Supreme court and High court.
  4.  Rajya Sabha has also emergency powers which it shares with Lok Sabha.

Question 7.
Write the various steps in the Lawmaking process.
Answer:
Followings are various stages in the law-making process:

  1. Preparation of the bills
  2. Introduction of the bill in either House (First reading)
  3. Second Reading
  4. Committee stage
  5. Report stage
  6. Introduction of the bill in the second house.
  7. President’s assent.

Question 8.
Name the states which have a bicameral legislature and how bicameral legislature can be introduced.
Answer:
The following five states have bicameral legislature:

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Bihar
  3. Jammu & Kashmir
  4. Maharashtra.
  5. Karnataka

The Upper house in a state can be withdrawn or introduced at the request of the concerned state by constitutional amendment

Question 9.
Differentiate between
1. Government bilk and Private member bill
2. Ordinary bill and a money bill
3. Private bill and ordinary bill
Answer:

  1. Government billAll the bills; which are introduced by the ministers are called Government bill while bills which are introduced by ordinal members are called private member bill.
  2. Ordinary bills and money billAll the bills which are dealing with income and expenditure are called money bills and all other rum-money bills are called ordinary bills.
  3. Private bill and an ordinary bill:-The bill that is related to a particular area, person a group is a private bill, and a bill that is related to the common general public is known as the General bill.

Question 10.
What is the importance of the committee system in the Indian parliamentary system?
Answer:
A significant feature of the legislative process is the appointment of different committees for a different purpose. These committees play a vital role not merely in law-making but also in day to day business of the house. Since the business of the Parliament is limited, it remains to enable to go into every detail of the bill.

Due to increasing demands also Parliament gets limited time for a bill. It is because of this committees are appointed to deal with different kinds of bills and examine these in detail and in all aspects like administrative, political, financial, and technical. These committees are very powerful and can ask for any detail from the concerned department. They can investigate corruption cases also. At present, there are much more than twenty department-related committees.

Besides the standing committees, there is also some Joint parliament committee (appointed for a specific function). They are appointed to discuss particular bills or for the purpose of investigating financial irregularities. Members of joint committees are selected from both houses.

The Committee system has definitely reduced the burden of Parliament and has helped a great deal in studying and examining the bills minutely, thus helped in making good laws.

Question 11.
How the business of the house is conducted?
Answer:
Parliament is a very auspicious forum for discussing, debating, and policy-making. Therefore it is very necessary that such discussions and debates must be meaningful and in an orderly manner so that functions of the Parliament are carried out in a smooth and dignified manner.

The Constitution has itself made certain provisions to ensure smoothness. conduct of business. Every house is presided by presiding offers who are the final authority in matters of regulating the business, of the house. There are many ways are which the presiding officer controls the behavior of the members and maintains the discipline of the house.’

The business of the house is carried out according to the well-established traditions, rules, and regulations of the house. The business of the house is conducted according to the well-established procedure. As said the presiding officer plays a decisive role in conducting the house in a given manner and maintains discipline and decorum of the house. He has weaponry in his arms for this purpose. He gives the rules on every issue as per his interpretation of a bill related to the business of the house.

Question 12.
What is defection? What are the provisions of the Anti-Defection law?
Answer:
Defection is a major disease of the Indian party system which has caused other ills in the Indian system.

The tendency and practice of the political leaders to change their political party on the tidal of which they have been elected to a house in search of better political and material fortunes are called Defection. For a lap time efforts were going on to check this menace. It is only in 1985, Rajiv Gandhi government passed the 52nd amendment in the constitution to have a check on the tendency of defections. This Amendment is known as the Anit- Defection law which provides the following features.

  1. A person elected on a ticket of a particular party will lose his or her membership if he/she joins another party after the election.
  2. If a person is elected as independent or nominated may have free membership may lose his/her seat if he/she joins any political party.
  3. It is also provided that in case of merger and split which will require ’necessary majority, the membership will not be affected.
  4. Speaker or other presiding officers of the house will have final decisions on the issue of deciding the merger or split.

This law has been further modified in the 91st Constitutional amendment.

Question 13.
What impressions you get on seeing the telecast of the proceeding of parliament.
Answer:
On watching the proceedings of the parliament of TV we feel that it is truly a rainbow of colorful dresses symbolizing the different regions of the country. Members of different regions speak different languages and wear different dresses. It appears that the whole of India is sitting here debating and deciding on different issues in a definite manner.

The speaker (presiding officer) is seen on his toes in conducting and controlling the behavior of the members to maintain discipline and decorum of the house. Members raise their questions as per their turn and put pressure on the minister concerned in particular and on the government in general. Another sad part is that there is a constraint increase in the unruly scenes in the house. Members often behave in an unruly manner. Sometimes violence also occurs. Allegations and counter-allegations seem to be the order of the house. It sends the wrong message to the people. There is a need to change this part of ‘ Parliamentary working. Ultimately this house represents the virtues of the people, occupies the highest position of power and responsibility.

Question 14.
Should Rajya Sabha be scrapped?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house of Parliament. It is known as the permanent house as it is not subjected to dissolution. It is known as the council of the state as it is the representative of the interests of the Sates. Due to the weakness of the Rajya Sabha in the number of areas like legislative financial and executive, it is considered that Rajya Sabha is a useless and unnecessary house, therefore it should be scrapped. B.ut this demand or proposition does not carry any weight because of the following reasons.

  1. India has a federal system and every federal system of Government needs an upper house in Parliament (Legislature).
  2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in a number of houses.
  3. Rajya Sabha has some special powers in many areas.
  4. It is the house of elders and experienced persons.

Question 15.
Write the legislative powers of the Indian President.
Answer:
President is the essential organ of the Indian Parliament and has power over the legislative process. Some of their powers are as under:

  1. He Summons prorogues and dissolves the Parliament.
  2. A bill passed by the Parliament becomes law only when it is signed by the President.
  3. President can send any message to the Parliament.
  4. He nominates two members of the Anglo Indian Community to Lok Sabha (if they do not get an adequate representation in the election) and 12 members to Rajya Sabha.
  5. He can issue an ordinance if Parliament is not a session.
  6. He can ask for the joint session and headdress the joint sessions of the Parliament.

Legislature Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the powers and decline of the Indian Parliament.
Answer:
We haVe supremacy of the Constitution. Indian Parliament is the product of the constitution. It is the most powerful institution. Due to the Parliamentary system of Government, the power and prestige of the Parliament are further increased. Parliament is the representative of the people. It performs deliberative functions and makes a public opinion by enlightening discussion and debate. Parliament is called the soul of the people.

Parliament exercises control on the executive by a number of methods which are as under

  1. Deliberations and discussion on the policies of the Government
  2. Approval on the refusal of Laws.
  3. Financial control on the executive
  4. No-confidence motion against the Government

The executive is responsible to Parliament for every omission and commission. They are accountable to the people through the Parliament. The government cannot make any expenditure without the approval of Parliament. Parliament can remove even the President, Vice President, and judges from their offices by means of impeachment. The executive is the order of declaration of Emergency cannot last long without the approval of the Indian Parliament within a specific period.

Over the years the powers and prestige of Parliament are on the decline. The sitings of the Parliament are reduced. The atmosphere of the Parliament is polluted by ugly sums. Allegations and counter-allegations are exchanged. Due to the criminalization of politics, people of criminal backgrounds have entered Parliament. The commercialization of politics has also polluted the atmosphere of Parliament.

Due to frequent disturbances, a lot of valuable time of parliament is wasted for which people have to pay. The seriousness of the business of the house also is on the decline. There is no doubt that houses of the parliament have been plagued by the absence of a quorum, a boycott of sessions by members of opposition which deprive the house to control the executive through discussion.

Nationalism Class 11 Important Extra Questions Political Science Chapter 7

Here we are providing Class 11 Political Science Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Nationalism. Political Science Class 11 Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Important Extra Questions Nationalism

Nationalism Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by Ration?
Answer:
The nation is a territory or a state which is organised on the basis of nationality. A nationality is a group of people of common history, traditional culture, language, dialects, future aspirations and geography. In the nation, people are more patriotic and nationalists. They are emotionally and psychologically linked together with the national glory, national honour and national cause. The nation is not just a group of people. It is more cohesive organisation and is different from all other human groupings.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism?
Answer:
Nationalism is a feeling for the commitment and sacrifice among the people. It is the feeling which attaches the people for the national honour, national glory, national cause, national interests. The feeling of nationalism subordinates the individual and regional interests to the national interests. Nationalism is a creed which is generated in the number of circumstances. Nationalism has a deep impact on the structure of the world. Decolonisation is the result of nationalism developed in Asian and African states which led to the emergence of newly independent nations in Asia and Africa.

Question 3.
Write the impact of Nationalism in the world.
Answer:
Nationalism is the result of a number of negative and positive factors in different parts of the world which have mainly following impacts.

  1. The emergence of the nation-state.
  2. The disintegration of empires.
  3. Development of democracy.
  4. Social and religions integration of society.

Question 4.
Write some factors of rising of nationalism.
Answer:
There are a number of circumstances/factors which give rise to the feeling of nationalism

  1. Common culture.
  2. Emotional attachment for territory.
  3. Common future aspiration.
  4. Common history.
  5. The threat to national integration.
  6. The glorification of the national flag, national symbols and national songs and past glory and achievements.

Question 5.
What are the main elements of the Nation?
Answer:
Followings are some important elements or we can say the assumption of Nation which is not only a piece of land or group of people, it is something more than that.

  1. The common belief of the people living on that land.
  2. All the people share a common history to which they glorify.
  3. Territory to which people are emotionally and spiritually attached.
  4. A common culture which includes their traditions, faith, festivals, dress pattern and habitations.
  5. Group of people.

Question 6.
Mention some factors responsible for the rise of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
India has been the victim of British colonialism which ultimately came to end in 1947. India fought a national war for independence and national movements, which was the result of Indian nationalism which was evoked through following main factors

  1. Impact of socio, religious and educational reforms.
  2. Impact of a British education.
  3. Impact of science and technological development.
  4. Impact of the press and other means of communication.
  5. Dedicated and enlighted leadership.
  6. Excess of the British government.
  7. Injustice and exploitation of Indians.

Question 7.
What do you understand by national self-determination?
Answer:
The theory national self-determination was given by former President of USA, W. Wilson after the end of First World War and in the wake of the emergence of new states as a result of the disintegration of Europe. This theory says that every nationality should have the right of law. administration and government of their choice which reflect their interests, ethos, culture and future aspirations for their fuller development. It says that every social group should have the right to govern themselves and determine their future development.

Question 8.
Write the utility of right of National self-determination.
Answer:
Right of self-determination means every nationality or social group should have the right to determine the law and government and mode of governance of their choice. It has the following merits

  1. It will ensure the fuller development of the social group.
  2. It is more democratic.
  3. It is more natural.
  4. It will promote social integration.
  5. It will strengthen national unity.

Question 9.
What are the negative features of National self-determination theory?
Answer:
Whereas the right of national self-determination has many positive features, it has some negative features also. Some of the negative features are as under:-

  1. It leads to parochialism.
  2. There is no end to this of right.
  3. It leads to mutual hatred and social disharmony.
  4. It leads to national disintegration.
  5. It is harmful for federation.

Question 10.
Write the impact of the theory of National self-Determination.
Answer:
This theory of National self-determination was propounded by former President of USA during the First World War. In the post First World War period this theory had a profound impact in raising the number of nation-states in different parts of the world. The Right to National Self-determination has also evoked national liberation movements in Asia and Africa against colonial domination. Many countries achieved independence and emerged as nation-states on the map of the world. Socio-cultural and political unity among different nationality was the consequence of this theory’ of National Self-determination.

Question 11.
Discuss the demand for nation among nations as a consequence of the right of self-determination.
Answer:
In most of the states of the world, society is plural i.e. diverse i.e. people of different nationalities. It is also a fact that today every state in the world faces the dilemma of dealing with the movements who are raising the demand of either an autonomous state or separate nation-state on the basis of their right of self-determination. It is also being realised that a solution does not lie in accepting all such demands. After all, there has to be the same check on this right.

Question 12.
What do you mean by pluralism?
Answer:
Pluralism means living together of social groups of a different culture, religion, dialect, language and geographies as a nation. Pluralism stands for a diverse society. Today all the nation-states have diverse society i.e. plural society living together with regional aspirations and national objectives.

Question 13.
How the feeling of nationalism and pluralism are reconciled in today’s modern nation-states?
Answer:
Today most of the nation-states have a plural society which has different cultures and communities which survive and flourish within the boundary of Nation-states. It is in pursuit of this goal of reconciliation most of the democratic states have started to take the measures for recognizing and protecting the identity of cultural minority communities living within the territory of a nation-state. This reconciliation had become necessary for the state as a nation and also for the minorities living in the territory of that state.

Question 14.
What provisions Indian Constitution has for the protection of identity and rights of the minorities?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has an elaborate set of provisions for the protection of religious, linguistic and cultural minorities. Indian Constitution has provided for a secular state which is given in Art 25 of the Constitution that every person will be free in a matter of religion and state will neither protect any religion nor it will become a hindrance of any religion. The state will not have its religion. Art. 29 and Art. 30 provides for the protection of minorities by giving them the right to maintain their cultural identities and to run educational institutions for the promotion of their culture and identity.

Question 15.
What rights should be given to the minority social and cultural groups?
Answer:
Most of the social and cultural groups have been given Constitutional rights which includes the protection of language and religion of minority groups. Minority communities have also the right to representation as a group in legislative bodies and other state institutions. They are also given equal treatment and protection of the law for the cultural identity of such group.

Nationalism Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by Nationalism? Explain the history of the development of Nationalism in different countries.
Answer:
Nationalism is a very powerful force or feeling which unite the people of the nation to the glorious history, dignity, interests and objectives of the Nation-state. It is a feeling which subordinates the individual and regional feelings and interests to the national feelings and national interests. It is generated among the people of our nationality.

Nationalism has been the result of many factors and developments in the field of science technology, press, education and other means of communication. Nationalism has passed through many phases in the 19th century. It was developed in Europe which lead to the unification of Italy and Germany and the number of small kingdoms into larger nation-states. A large number of new states were also founded in Latin America. In 20th Century number of national movements were started as a result of nationalism which resulted in a number of newly independent states.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning and attributes of Nation.
Answer:
Nations are the states which are organised on the basis of nationality i.e. social groups of common identity. We can define the nations as the states constituted by a group of people who share common descent, language, religion or ethnicity. There may be some exception because there are many states who do not have a common language. In such Nations, there is a number of nationalities which live in the same territory. Canada is such an example which has English speaking persons as well as French-speaking people. India also has a large number of social and cultural groups which have a common political identity and living in the territory of India.

Question 3.
Explain some important elements of Nations.
Answer:
The nation is a community which is held together by the collective beliefs, aspirations and imaginations of its members. It is based on certain assumptions which unite the people as a whole with which they identify themselves. The main assumptions are as under

  1. Common beliefs:- Nation is a group of people who share common beliefs, collective identity and vision for the future to have an independent political existence.
  2. History:- The people of a nation share common history i.e. the past record of happiness and sufferings, wars and peace and victory and defeat.
  3. Territory:- Nation is a group of people who occupy a piece of land with which people have an emotional and spiritual attachment.
  4. Future aspirations.
  5. Common culture.

Question 4.
What were the main factors which were responsible for the rise of Indian Nationalism?
Answer:
Rise of Indian nationalism led to the war of independence and starting of a national movement for the independence which ultimately got success in 1947. Following were the main factors responsible for Indian Nationalism:-

  1. Injustice and unequal treatment and exploitations of Indians.
  2. Development of science, technology and means of communication.
  3. The spread of education and development of Press.
  4. Role of social and religious reforms movements.
  5. Rise of the middle class.
  6. Impact of international events.
  7. Impact of English literature.
  8. Role of nationalist leaders.

Question 5.
Discuss India as a Nation.
Answer:
About India, it is said that India is not a country, it is a continent. It means it is a nation of the nations. All these ethics about the nature of Indian states are attributed because India is a plural society in which people of different caste, colour, race, regions, religions, faith and beliefs reside within the territory of India. All these nationalities have their political and cultural identity and all have contributed during the struggle for national independence. They are well-recognised identity. They have full support for the national song, national festivals, national celebrations and national Constitution, which has given all the rights and protection to all the minorities. All the part and parcel of national ethos and objectives. India has unity in diversity. Therefore we can say that India as a political unity is a unique nation. From Kashmir to Kanyakumari, people are linked together with the feeling of Indianness.

Question 6.
Mention the contribution of social reformers in the rise of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
Although there are a number of factors which have contributed to the rise of Indian nationalism the contribution of these following social reformers is unique:-

  • Raja Ram Mohan Rai:- He was a social reformer of liberal thinking. He wanted to build Indian society on the edifice of British culture. He started Brahma Samaj.
  • Swami Dayanand:- Swami Dayanand started Arya Samaj. He wanted to build Indian on the edifice of Indian culture.
  • Swami Vivekanand:- He wanted to build the character of Indians particularly of youth.

Question 7.
Discuss how the territory acts as an important attribute of Nation and nationalism?
Answer:
The territory is one of the most important and effective attributes of the nation. It acts as a deep source of patriotism and nationalism. Sharing a common past and living together on particular territory over a long period of times creates a sense of common identity and collectivity. They start to imagine themselves as one. Territory i.e. the land which they occupy and live upon has a special significance for them. It is not just a piece of land. They attach emotional and spiritual significance to that part of the land. They call it Maa or motherland for which they guard and become ready to sacrifice anything for it. For example, Jewish people, in spite of being dispersed for a long time in different parts of the world, still claim that their original homeland is in Palestine. Indian have special significance for its rivers like Ganga, Saraswati etc, mountains and regions of the Indian subcontinent.

Question 8.
How nationalism poses a threat to democracy?
Answer:
Nationalism is a positive and desirable rather natural feeling with attaching the people with the national objective and nation’s glorious past. But nationalism is negative and harmful when it assumes extreme form i.e. chauvinism. Most societies are culturally diverse where people have different languages and religions living together in the same territory. To impose religious or linguistic identity in the name of nationalism will certainly be the violation of the principle of equal treatment and liberty for all and it will also be the negation of democracy. Therefore the democracies need to emphasize and expect loyalty to a set of values incorporated in the Consitution rather than adherence to a particular religion, race and language.

Question 9.
What is the theory of National Self-determination?
Answer:
The theory of self-determination means the right to social and cultural groups to govern themselves and determine their future development. It is also right of the political community to be governed by the law which reflects their social-economic, political and cultural interests and aspirations. This theory was propounded by the former President; of USA, W. Wilson at the end of First World War.

As a result of this theory, a number of nation-states emerged in Europe after the disintegration of big empires and reorganisation of the boundaries of the states. The nation of one culture, one state began to gain acceptability at the time. The Treaty of Versailles established a number of small newly independent states. In making the claim of the right of self-determination, the nation seeks recognition and acceptance by the international community of its status as a distinct political entity.

Question 10.
Discuss the impact of self-determination theory on the colonialism.
Answer:
As after the end of First World War and as a result of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919, Europe saw the reorganisation of states and emergence of new nation-states. Similarly, after the end of Second World War in 1945, the process of Decolonialism started with the reorganisation of the world and creation of new world order under UN supervision who had accepted the theory of self-determination. Asa result of the breakdown of empiricism and colonialism large number of independent new states emerged oh the map of the world in Asia and Africa and Latin American countries. National movements had started as the impact of the theory of self-determinations.

Question 11.
Discuss the limitation of the theory of self-determination.
Answer:
Most of the national movements were inspired by the theory of self-determination which gave the right to choose law and administration of their choice in which they found the reflection of their culture, ethos, aspirations and interests. Such national movements brought the end of colonialism and helped in the creation of a large number of new nation-states.

Most of the national movements were inspired by the goal of bringing justice rights and prosperity to the nation. But it became virtually impossible to ensure that each cultural group could achieve political independence and statehood Thus paradoxical situation developed when those countries refused to accept the demand of minorities, who themselves had received their own statehood on the right of self¬determination. In fact, this right cannot be absolute. It has to be accepted in relativity.

Question 12.
What rights are given to minorities in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Indian society is a plural society with people of different colour, region, language, geographies and religion are living together as a political community. To ensure the development of the minorities, Constitution makers had given certain Fundamental Rights to the people of minorities. All the people have the right to have a choice of religion, culture, language and region. Right of choice in the matter of religion is given in Chapter III of the Indian Constitution.

Similarly in Art 23 Right of Equality is given by Right of Expression. Every minority has the right to build and maintain their educational institutions and to get the aid of government on the basis of their consent of the state.

Question 13.
Discuss the factors responsible for the rise of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
There is a large number of factors which have contributed to the rise of Indian nationalism which ultimately brought the end of colonialism and India’s independence as a sovereign state. Some of the factors are as under:-

  1. Excess of British administration.
  2. Role of social reformers like Swami Dayanand, Swami Vivekanand and Raja Ram Mohan Rai.
  3. The spread of Education.
  4. Respect of British Literature.
  5. Development of Press.
  6. Development of science and technology and means of communication.
  7. Impact of world events.
  8. Glorification of histoiy.

Question 14.
Discuss Indian has unity in diversity.
Answer:
It is rightly said about India that India has unity in diversity. Indian society is a plural society which means it has diverse society having people of different caste, colour, regions, climate, traditions, culture and geographies but are linked together with the feeling of oneness which is generated with a common history and common future aspirations. This kind of feeling has helped immensely in generating nationalism which led to the organising national movement against British colonialism and ultimately got independence. Still, India is plural, secular and democratic, people and are linked together with the feeling of oneness on account of nationalism and patriotism. Therefore it is right that India has unity in diversity.

Question 15.
Discuss the negative impact of the right of self-determination.
Answer:
Whereas the right of self-determination has a number of positive features but it has created a number of problems also for the political communities in the matter of state organisation on the basis of the right of self-determination of different nationalities living together on a particular territory. It is also true that people had to suffer a lot for reordering boundaries in the way that culturally distinct communities could form separate nation-states.

It is not possible to ensure that the newly created states have only one ethenic community or the people of one nationality. In every nation-state, there is a number of sub-nationalities who in the course of time start to nurse their grievances and start to demand a separate state on the basis of the right of self-determination. Therefore this right of self-determination poses danger for national integration.

Question 16.
Discuss the merit of Right of Self-determination.
Answer:
The theory of the right of self-determination is given by the former President of USA, W. Wilson, thus this theory became very popular and accepted in most of the parts of the world. This has a number of positive features. Some of these positive features are as under:-

  1. This is more democratic.
  2. This is more natural.
  3. Thisismorehumonistic.
  4. This promotes national integration.
  5. This checks the centralisation of powers.
  6. This promotes social and cultural integration.
  7. This promotes the development of the political community.

Nationalism Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Nationalism? Discuss various factors of rising of nationalism in India. How it has affected the world structure?
Answer:
Nationalism is generally considered as the love and dedication for one’s nation which is organised on the basis of common nationality i.e. common history, common culture, common future aspirations and common geography. Nationalism is in fact a feeling which attaches a person to the national, cause, national interests and nationalism objectives. This is the feeling which makes the national interests more important than the personal and regional interest.

Nationalism leads to patriotism which makes men emotional about the nation. It leads to a number of agitations and movements against the nation’s exploitation and political subjugation.

Nationalism has been resulting in the number of factors which has inspired to start movements in different parts of the world to change the structure of the world. India has been one such country who witnessed the rise of nationalism and national movement as its impact.

Following are some important factors of rising of Indian Nationalism:-

  1. The exploitation of Indians in the hands of British administration.
  2. The spread of education and means of communication.
  3. Role of social and religious reformers.
  4. Impact of world events.
  5. Dedicated and visionary leadership.
  6. Role of the middle and intellectual class.

As a result of nationalism number of the national movement for national independence started in Asia, Africa and Latin American countries which changed the map of the world as the number of new nation-states appeared on the map of the world.