Online Education Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers

Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 1
This grammar section explains Online Education English Grammar in a clear and simple way. There are example sentences to show how the language is used.

Online Education Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers PDF

  • Words that tells us more about the doing words are called How Words.
  • They show how an action is done.
    These how words are called Adverbs. Adverbs end in-ly. For example: slow – slowly, loud – loudly, brave – bravely, sweet – sweetly, sad – sadly
  • We can often convert a describing word into a how word by adding -ly.
  • An adverb is generally placed after the verb it is describing. For example: Arun ran swiftly.
  • An adverb can also be placed away from the verb. For example: Arun ran to the door swiftly.

Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Grade 3 with Answers CBSE PDF

A. Underline the adverbs that describe the verbs in the following sentences.

1. My grandpa snored loudly. Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 2
2. My sheepdog sat lazily in the pool. so Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 3

3. Nitin placed a card slowly on the house of cards.
4. Naveen stamped his feet angrily. Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 4
5. Neerja waited patiently for the computer to load.Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 5

B. Fill in the blanks with suitable adverbs from the word bank.

1. The lion roared ___________
2. I am tired. Let’s walk ___________
3. I woke up because the phone rang ___________
4. She does not complain about the food. Angrily She eats ___________
5. The children are reading ___________
6. He finished his homework ___________

C. Change the adjectives into adverbs. Then write a sentence about each picture using the adverb.

1. strong – strongly
Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 6
The boy kicked the ball strongly.

2. happy – ___________
Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 7
______________________

3. beautiful – ___________
Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 8
______________________

4. loud – ___________

Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 8
______________________

5. soft – ___________
Adverbs Worksheet Exercises for Class 3 CBSE with Answers 10
______________________

Online Education for RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS

Online Education for RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS

These Solutions are part of RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Mark the correct alternative in each of the following:
The diameter of a sphere is 6 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 2mm. The length of the wire is
(a) 12 m
(b) 18 m
(c) 36 m
(d) 66 m
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 1

Question 2.
A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and then recast into small cones, each of radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. The number of such cones is
(a) 63
(b) 126
(c) 21
(d) 130
Solution:
Radius of sphere (R) = 10.5 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 2

Question 3.
A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical above. If the surface areas of the two parts are equal, then the ratio of its radius and the height of its conical part is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : \(\sqrt { 3 } \)
(c) 1 : 1
(d) \(\sqrt { 3 } \)  = 1

Solution:
Surface area of hemispherical part = surface area of conical part
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 3

Question 4.
A solid sphere of radius r is melted and cast into the shape of a solid cone of height r, the radius of the base of the cone is
(a) 2r
(b) 3r
(c) r
(d) 4r
Solution:
Radius of solid sphere = r
Volume = \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\) πr³
Now height of the cone so formed = r and
let radius = r1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 4

Question 5.
The material of a cone is converted into the shape of a cylinder of equal radius. If height of the cylinder is 5 cm, then height of the cone is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm

(c) 18 cm
(d) 24 cm
Solution:
Let height of cone = h
and let r be its radius
∴ Volume =  \((\frac { 1 }{ 3 } )\) πr²h
Now radius of cylinder so formed = r
and height = 5 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 5

Question 6.
A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 4 m and conical above it. If its diameter is 105 m and its slant height is 40 m, the total area of the canvas required in m2 is
(a) 1760
(b) 2640
(c) 3960
(d) 7920
Solution:
Diameter of tent = 105 m
Height of the cylindrical part (h1) = 4 m
Slant height of conical part (l) = 40 m
and radius (r) =  \((\frac { 105 }{ 2 } )\) m
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 6
surface area of the tent = curved surface area of conical part + curved surface area of cylindrical part =
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 7

Question 7.
The number of solid spheres, each of diameter 6 cm that could be moulded to form a solid metal cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm, is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 8

Question 8.
A sphere of radius 6 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The radius of the vessel is 8 cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then the surface of the water rises by
(a) 4.5 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 2 cm
Solution:
Radius of sphere (r) = 6 cm
Volume = \((\frac { 1 }{ 3 } )\) πr³ = \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\) π (6)³ cm³
= \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\)  x216π = 4x 72π cm³ = 28871 cm³
Radius of vessel (r²) = 8 cm
Let height of water level = h
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 9

Question 9.
If the radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 40 cm are of lengths 35 cm and 14 cm, then the volume of the bucket in cubic centimeters, is .
(a) 60060
(b) 80080
(c) 70040
(d) 80160
Solution:
Height of the bucket (h) = 40 cm
Upper radius (r1)  = 35 cm
and lower radius (r2) = 14 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 10

Question 10.
If a cone is cut into two parts by a horizontal plane passing through the mid¬point of its axis, the ratio of the volumes of the upper part and the cone is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 6
(d) 1 : 8
Solution:
In the figure, C and D are the mid-points and CD || AB which divide the cone into two parts
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 11
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 12

Question 11.
The height of a cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane parallel to the base. If its volume be \((\frac { 1 }{ 27 } )\) of the volume of the given cone, then the height above the base at which the section has been made, is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 25 cm
Solution:
Height of given cone (h1) = 30 cm
Let r1 be its radius
Then volume of the larger cone = \((\frac { 1 }{ 3 } )\) πr1²h1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 13

Question 12.
A solid consists of a circular cylinder with an exact fitting right circular cone placed at the top. The height of the cone is h. If the total volume of the solid is 3 times the volume of the cone, then the height of the circular cylinder is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 14
Solution:
Height of cone = h
Volume of solid = 3 x volume of cone
Let h be the height of the cylinder and r be its radius, then
Volume of cylinder = πr²h1
and volume of cone = \((\frac { 1 }{ 3 } )\) πr²h1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 15

Question 13.
A reservoir is in the shape of a frustum of a right circular cone. It is 8 m across at the top and 4 m across at the bottom. If it is 6 m deep, then its capacity is
(a) 176 m3
(b) 196 m3
(c) 200 m3
(d) 110 m3
Solution:
A reservoir is a frustum in shape which Upper diameter = 8 m
and lower diameter = 4 m
∴ Upper radius = \((\frac { 8 }{ 2 } )\) = 4 m
and lower radius = \((\frac { 4 }{ 2 } )\) = 2 m
Height (h) = 6m
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 16

Question 14.
Water flows at the rate of 10 metre per minute from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long will it take to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the base is 40 cm and depth 24 cm ?
(a) 48 minutes 15 sec
(b) 51 minutes 12 sec
(c) 52 minutes 1 sec
(d) 55 minutes
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 17

Question 15.
A cylindrical vessel 32 cm high and 18 cm as the radius of the base, is filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, the radius of its base is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 24 cm

(c) 36 cm
(d) 48 cm
Solution:
Radius of a cylindrical vessel (r1) = 18 cm
and height (h1 ) = 32 cm
∴ Volume of sand filled in it = πr1²h1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 18

Question 16.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is
(a) 607t cm2
(b) 6871 cm2
(c) 12071 cm2  
(d) 136TI cmc
Solution:
Diameter of base of a right circular cone = 16 cm
Radius (r) = \((\frac { 16 }{ 2 } )\) = 8 cm
and height (h) = 15 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 19

Question 17.
A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so formed is
(a) 12π cm3
(b) 15π cm3
(c) 16π cm3
(d) 20π cm3
Solution:
A cone is formed be rotating the right angled triangle above the side 3 cm
Height of cone (h) = 3 cm
and radius (r) = 4 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 20

Question 18.
The curved surface area of a cylinder is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3 The ratio of its diameter to its height is
(a) 3 : 7
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 6 : 7
(d) 7 : 6
Solution:
Curved surface area of a cylinder = 264 m2
and its volume = 924 m3
Let r be its radius and h be its height, then 2πrh = 264
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 21

Question 19.
A cylinder with base radius of 8 cm and height of 2 cm is melted to form a cone of height 6 cm. The radius of the cone is
(a) 4 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 8 cm
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 22

Question 20.
The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 9 : 16
(d) 16 : 9
Solution:
Ratio in volumes of two spheres = 64 : 27
= (4)³ : (3)³
∵ Volume is in cubic units
∴ Length will be units while areas are in square units
∴ Areas will be in the ratio = (4)² : (3)² = 16:9       (d)

Question 21.
If three metallic spheres of radii 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are melted to form a single sphere, the diameter of the sphere is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 36 cm
Solution:
Let radii of 3 metallic spheres are
r1= 6 cm
r2 = 8 cm
r= 10 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 23
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 24

Question 22.
The surface area of a sphere is same as the curved surface area of a right circular cylinder whose height and diameter are 12 cm each. The radius of the sphere is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 12 cm
Solution:
Diameter of cylinder = 12 cm
∴ Radius (r1) = \((\frac { 12 }{ 2 } )\) = 6 cm
and height (h) = 12 cm
∴  Surface area = 2πrh = 2π x 6 x 12 cm²
= 144π cm²
Now surface area of sphere = 1447c cm²
Let r2 be its radius, then

Question 23.
The volume of the greatest sphere that can be cut off from a cylindrical log of wood of base radius 1 cm and height 5 cm is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 25
Solution:
Radius of cylindrical log (r) = 1 cm
and height (h) = 5 cm
The radius of the greatest sphere cut off from the cylindrical log will be = radius of the log = 1 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 26

Question 24.
A cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cm contains water. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm is lowered into the water until it is completely immersed. The water level in the vessel will rise by
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 27
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 28

Question 25.
12 spheres of the same size are made from melting a solid cylinder of 16 cm diameter and 2 cm height. The diameter of each sphere is
(a) \(\sqrt { 3 } \) cm
(b) 2 cm

(c) 3 cm
(d) 4 cm

Solution:
Diameter of solid cylinder = 16 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 29

Question 26.
A solid metallic spherical ball of diameter 6 cm is melted and recast into a cone with diameter of the base as 12 cm. The height of the cone is
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 6 cm
Solution:
Diameter of a metallic sphere = 6 cm
∴  Radius = \((\frac { 6 }{ 2 } )\) = 3 cm
∴  Volume = \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\) πr1³ = \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\) π (3)³ cm³ = 36π cm³
∴  Volume of cone = 36π cm³
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 30

Question 27.
A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8 cm respectively is melted into a cone of base diameter 8 cm. The height of the cone is
(a) 12 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 18 cm
Solution:
Internal diameter of a hollow sphere = 4 cm
and external diameter = 8 cm
∴ Internal radius (r) = \((\frac { 4 }{ 2 } )\) = 2 cm
and external radius (R) = \((\frac { 8 }{ 2 } )\) = 4 cm
∴  Volume of metal used = \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 } )\) π (R³ – r³)
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 31

Question 28.
A solid piece of iron of dimensions 49 x 33 x 24 cm is moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is (a) 21 cm
(b) 28 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) None of these
Solution:
Dimension of a solid piece = 49 x 33 x 24 cm
Volume = 49 x 33 x 24 cm³ = 38808 cm³
Volume of a sphere = 38808 cm³
Let r be its radius, their
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 32

Question 29.
The ratio of lateral surface area to the total surface area of a cylinder with base diameter 1.6 m and height 20 cm is
(a) 1 : 7
(b) 1 : 5
(c) 7 : 1
(d) 5 : 1
Solution:
Ratio in lateral surface area and total surface area
Base diameter = 1.6 m = 160 cm
Height (h) = 20 cm
∴ Radius = 80 cm
Now, lateral surface = 2 πrh = 2 π x 80 x 20 = 3200 π
and 2 πrh x 2 πr2 = 3200 π + 2 π (80)²
= 3200 π + 2 π x 6400
= (3200 + 12800) π = 16000 π
Ratio = 3200 π : 6000 π = 1.5 (b)

Question 30.
A solid consists of a circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone. The height of the cone is h. If the total height of the solid is 3 times the volume of the cone, then the height of the cylinder is
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 33
Solution:
Let r be the radius of the solid = height of the conical part = h
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 34

Question 31.
The maximum volume of a cone that can be carved out of a solid hemisphere of radius r is 
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 35
Solution:
Radius of cone = r
and height = r
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 36

Question 32.
The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 5. If their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3, then the ratio of their curved surface areas is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) S : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 5
Solution:
Ratio in radii of two cylinders = 3 : 5
and in their heights = 2 : 3
Let r1 = 3x, r2 = 5x
h1= 2y, h2 = 3y
∴ Curved surface area of first cylinder = 2πr1h1
= 2π x 3x x 2y = 12πxy
and curved surface area of second cylinder
= 2πr2h2 = 2π x 5x x 3y = 30πxy
∴ Ratio = 12πxy : 30πxy = 2 : 5 (a)

Question 33.
A right circular cylinder of radius r and height It (h = 2r) just enclose a spehre of diameter
(a) h
(b) r
(c) 2r
(d) 2h
Solution:
Radius of right cylinder = r
Height = h or 2r(∵ h = 2r)
Diameter of sphere encloses by the cylinder = 2r (c)

Question 34.
The radii of the circular ends of a frustum are 6 cm and 14 cm. If its slant height is 10 cm, then its vertical height is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 8 cm

(c) 4 cm
(d) 7 cm
Solution:
Radii of circular ends of frustum an 6 cm and then
∴ r1 = 14, r2 = 6
and slant height (l) = 10 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 37

Question 35.
The height and radius of the cone of which the frustum is a part are h1, and r1 respectively. If h2 and r2 are the heights and radius of the smaller base of the frustum respectively and h2 : h1 = 1 : 2, then r2 : r1 is equal to
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
Solution:
Height of cone = h1
and radius = r1
Height of frustum = h2
and radius = r2
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 38

Question 36.
The diameters of the ends of a frustum of a cone are 32 cm and 20 cm. If its slant height is 10 cm, then its lateral surface area is
(a) 321π cm²
(b) 300π1 cm²
(c) 260π cm²
(d) 250π cm²
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 39

Question 37.
A solid frustum is of height 8 cm. If the radii of its lower and upper ends are 3 cm and 9 cm respectively, then its slant height is
(a) 15 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 17 cm
Solution:
In the frustum,
Upper radius (r1) = 9 cm
and lower radius (r2) = 3 cm
and height (h) = 8 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 40

Question 38.
The radii of the ends of a bucket 16 cm high are 20 cm and 8 cm. The curved surface area of bucket is
(a) 1760 cm²
(b) 2240 cm²
(c) 880 cm²
(d) 3120 cm²
Solution:
Height of bucket (h) = 16 cm
Upper radius (r1) = 20 cm
and lower radius (r2) = 8 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 41

Question 39.
The diameters of the top and the bottom portions of a bucket are 42 cm and 28 cm respectively. If the height of the bucket is 24 cm, then the cost of painting its outer surface at the rate of 50 paise/ cm² is
(a) Rs. 1582.50
(b) Rs. 1724.50

(c) Rs. 1683
(d) Rs. 1642
Solution:
Diameter of upper and lower portions of a bucket are 42 cm and 28 cm
and height (h) = 24 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 42
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 43

Question 40.
 If four times the sum of the areas of two circular faces of a cylinder of height 8 cm is equal to twice the curve surface area, then diameter of the cylinder is
(a) 4 cm 
(b) 8 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 6 cm
Solution:
Let r be the radius of the cylinder
Height of = 8 cm
Sum of areas of two circular faces = 2πr²
Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2πr x 8
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 44

Question 41.
If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height the same, then the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of orginal cylinder is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1 (CBSE 2012)
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 45

Question 42.
A metalic solid cone is melted to form a solid cylinder of equal radius. If the height of the cylinder is 6 cm, then the height of the cone was
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 24 cm   [CBSE 2014]
Solution:
Let r be the radius in each case = r
Height of cylinder = 6 cm
Volume of cylinder = Volume of cone
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 46

Question 43.
A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm x 22 cm, is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height 40 cm. The radius of the cylinder (in cm) is
(a) 3.5
(b) 7
(c) 80/7
(d) 5
Solution:
Length of rectangular sheet(l) = 40 cm
and width (b) = 22 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 47

Question 44.
The number of solid spheres, each of diameter 6 cm that can be made by melting a solid metal cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm is
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6 [CBSE 2014]
Solution:
Diameter of solid sphere = 6 cm
∴ Radius = \((\frac { 6 }{ 2 } )\) = 3 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 48

Question 45.
Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 9 : 16
(d) 16 : 9
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 49
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 50

Question 46.
A right circular cylinder of radius r and height h (h > 2r) just encloses a sphere of diameter
(a) r
(b) 2r
(c) h
(d) 2h
Solution:
Because the sphere enclose in the cylinder, therefore the diameter of sphere is equal to diameter of cylinder which is 2r. (b)

Question 47.
In a right circular cone, the cross-section made by a plane parallel to the base is a
(a) circle
(b) frustum of a cone
(c) sphere
(d) hemisphere
Solution:
We know that, if a cone is cut by a plane parallel to the base of the cone, then the portion between the plane and base is called the frustum of the cone. (b)

Question 48.
If two solid-hemispheres of same base radius r are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is
(a) 4πr²
(b) 6πr²
(c) 3πr²
(d) 8πr²
Solution:
Because curved surface area of a hemisphere is 2πr² and here, we join two solid hemispheres along their bases of radius r, from which we get a solid sphere.
Hence, the curved surface area of new solid = 2πr² + 2 πr² = 4πr². (a)

Question 49.
The diameters of two circular ends of the bucket are 44 cm and 24 cm. The height of the bucket is 35 cm. The capacity of the bucket is
(a) 32.7 litres
(b) 33.7 litres
(c) 34.7 litres
(d) 31.7 litres
Solution:
Given, diameter of one end of the bucket, 2R = 44 ⇒ R = 22 cm    [∵ diameter, r = 2 x radius]
and diameter of the other end,
2r = 24 ⇒ r = 12 cm   [∵ diameter, r = 2 x radius]
Height of the bucket, h = 35 cm
Since, the shape of bucket is look like as frustum of a cone.
∴ Capacity of the bucket = Volume of the frustum of the cone
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 51

Question 50.
A spherical ball of radius r is melted to make 8 new identical balls each of radius r,. Then r:rl =
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes MCQS 52

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Online Education for RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3

Online Education for RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3

These Solutions are part of Online Education RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3

Other Exercises

Question 1.
AB is a chord of a circle with centre O and radius 4 cm. AB is of length 4 cm and divides the circle into two segments. Find the area of the minor segment.
Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) = 4 cm
Length of the chord AB = 4 cm
∴  In ΔOAB
OA = OB = AB    (each = 4 cm)
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 1
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 2

Question 2.
A chord PQ of length 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre of a circle. Find the area of the minor segment cut off by the chord PQ.
Solution:
Length of chord PQ = 12 cm
Angle at the centre (θ) = 120°
∵  Draw OD ⊥ DQ
which bisects PQ at D and also bisects ∠POQ
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 3
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 4
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 5

Question 3.
A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre. Find the areas of the minor and major segments of the circle.
Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) = 14 cm
Angle at the centre (θ) = 90°
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 6
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 7

Question 4.
A ehord 10 cm long is drawn in a circle whose radius is 5\(\sqrt { 2 } \)
cm. Find area of both the segments. (Take π = 3.14).

Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) = 5\(\sqrt { 2 } \)  cm
And length of chord AB = 10 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 8
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 9
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 10

Question 5.
A chord AB of a circle, of radius 14 cm makes an angle of 60° at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the minor segment of the circle. (Use π = 22/7)
Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) – 14 cm
Angle at the centre subtended in the fnui
AB = 60°
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 11
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 12

Question 6.
Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, when the angle of the corresponding sector is 60°. [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Given that, radius of circle (r) = 14 cm
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 13
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 14

Question 7.
A chord of a circle of radius 20 cm subtends an angle of 90° at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding major segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14) [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Let AB be the chord of a circle of radius 10 cm,
with O as the centre of the circle.
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 15
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 16
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 17

Question 8.
The radius of a circle with centre O is 5 cm (see figure). Two radii OA and OB are drawn at right angles to each other. Find the areas of the segments made by the chord AB (Take π = 3.14).
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 18
Solution:
Radius of the circle (r) = 5 cm
∵   OA and OB are at right angle
∴ ∠AOB = 90°
∵  Chord AB makes two segments which are minor segment and major segment Now area of minor segment
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 19

Question 9.
AB is the diameter of a circle, centre O. C is a point on the circumference such that ∠COB = 0. The area of the minor segment cut off by AC is equal to twice the area of the sector BOC. Prove that
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 20
Solution:
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 21
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 22
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 23

Question 10.
A chord of a circle subtends an angle of 0 at the centre of the circle. The area of the minor segment cut off by the chord is one eighth of the area of the circle. Prove that
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 24
Solution:
Let chord AB subtends angle 0 at the centre
of a circle with radius r
Now area of the circle = nr1
and area of the minor segment ACB
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 25
RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 26

Hope given RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles Ex 13.3 are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew

Online Education for The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew

Here we are providing Online Education The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew, Extra Questions for Class 8 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-english/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English honeydew Chapter 5 The Summit Within to revise the Questions and Answers in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Online Education for The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew

The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Summit Within Extra Questions Answers Question 1.
Who was Major HPS Ahluwalia?
Answer:
Major HPS Ahluwalia was a member of the first successful Indian expedition to the Mount Everest in 1965.

The Summit Within Class 8 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why did author say that “instead of being jubilant” there was a tinge of sadness?
Answer:
He said that “instead of being jubilant” there was a tinge of sadness, because he had already done the ‘ultimate’ in climbing and there would be nothing higher to climb as all roads hereafter would lead down.

Summit Within Extra Questions Question 3.
How was the experience of author when he climbed mountains?
Answer:
By climbing the summit of Everest, the author was overwhelmed by a deep sense of joy and thankfulness. It was a joy which lasts a lifetime. The experience changed him completely.

Extra Questions Of The Summit Within Question 4.
Explain why the Author summit to the Everest?
Answer:
According the author the Summit, presents great difficulties. Man takes delight in ever coming obstacles. The obstacles in climbing a mountain are physical. A climb to mountain means endurance, persistence and willpower, so it is very exciting to climb the mountains.

The Summit Within Question Answer Question 5.
Why did the author feel change within himself?
Answer:
He experienced change within himself which is called mystical because of the beauty, aloofness, might, ruggedness, and the difficulties encountered on the way.

The Summit Within Extra Questions Question 6.
Why did they leave the picture of God at Everest?
Answer:
He left on the Everest a picture of Guru Nanak. Rawat left a picture of goddess Durga, Phu Dorji left a relic of the Buddha, Edmund Hillary had buried a cross under a cairn (a heap of rocks & stones) in the snow. These are not symbols of conquest but of reverence.

The Summit Within Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Write the physical and spiritual aspects of summit Mountain?
Answer:
Whether the mountain you climb is physical or emotional and spiritual, the climb will certainly change people. It teaches us much about the world & about ourselves.

Class 8 English The Summit Within Extra Questions Question 8.
Why did author says that “internal summit are, perhaps, higher than Everest”?
Answer:
He said “Internal summits are perhaps, higher than Everest”. Because his experience as an Everester has provided him the inspiration to face life’s ordeals resolutely. Climbing mountains gives worthwhile experience.

Question 9.
“The man who has been to the mountains is never the same again”. Why?
Answer:
“The man who has been to the mountains is never the same again” because it is not easier to climb summit. Although it is physical exhaustion but obstacles in climbing a mountain are physical. Because the experience is worthwhile.

Question 10.
Why did the author climb mountains?
Answer:
The author has been attracted by Mountains from his childhood. He felt miserable and lost when he was away from mountain in the plains. It’s beauty and majesty pose a great challenge and they were means of communion with God. So he climbed mountains.

Question 11.
Why does the author become sad on reaching the top of the mountain?
Answer:
On reaching the top of the mountain, the author became sad because his goal had been attained & now a certain vacuum had overcome in the absence of an aim. Also, the highest had been reached & the author realizes that from here on the journey would only lead downwards.

Question 12.
What does Ahluwalia have to say about the relationship between mountain climbing and life?
Answer:
According to HPS Ahluwalia, there is a very close connection between these two journeys. His experience as an Everest climber gave him the inspiration to face life’s ordeals with great confidence.

Question 13.
How does the author view himself in the light of his surroundings, as he reaches the summit?
Answer:
The author becomes more and more conscious of his smallness as he sees the universe from the mountain peak.

Question 14.
Standing On Everest, the writer was
(i) overjoyed
(ii) very sad
(iii) jubilant and sad.
Choose the right item.
Answer:
(iii) jubiliant and sad.

Question 15.
The emotion that gripped him was one of
(i) victory over hurdles.
(ii) humility and a sense of smallness.
(iii) greatness and self importance.
(iv) joy of discovery.
Choose the right item.
Answer:
(ii) humility and a sense of smallness.

Question 16.
“The summit of the mind” refers to
(i) great intellectual achievements.
(ii) the process of maturing mentally and spiritually.
(iii) overcoming personal ambition for common welfare.
(iv) living in the world of thought and imagination.
(v) the triumph of mind over worldly pleasures for a noble cause.
(vi) a fuller knowledge of oneself.
Mark the items(s) not relevant.
Answer:
(i), (iii), (iv) and (v) are not relevant.

The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
‘The internal summit is, perhaps, higher than Everest’. What qualities do a human being should possess?
Answer:
Man forces both internal and external constraints and challengers. The dilemmas and insecurities leave one weak. Intolerable pain and conflicts needed to be conquered as various mountaineers physically. The qualities needed are endurance, vision, persistence and willpower. Hurdles break one’s confidence but that should be overcome-with enriching experiences.

Question 2.
‘Mountains are nature at its best’ why? Major Ahluwalia talks about in the lesson.
Answer:
Mountains are nature’s blessing because they are abode of flora and fauna. They are mystic, serene, calm and quiet. One could experience closeness to God’s abode, heavenly father’s home from where it is considered that heavenly brink is showered upon all living creatures.

The Summit Within Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Passage 1
Of all the emotions which surged through me as I stood on the summit of Everest, looking over miles of pan-orama below us, the dominant one I think was humility. The physical in me seemed to say, ‘Thank God, it’s all over!” However, instead of being jubilant, there was a tinge of sadness. Was it because I had already done the ‘ultimate’ in climbing and there would be nothing higher to climb and all roads hereafter would lead down? By climbing the summit of Everest you are overwhelmed by a deep sense of joy and thankfulness. It is a joy which lasts a lifetime. The experience changes you completely. The man who has been to the mountains is never the same again.

Question 1.
What emotion took over Major Ahluwalia when he reached the summit?
Answer:
Major Ahluwalia successfully climbed the Everest, the emotion that took over was ‘humility’.

Question 2.
Why was Major not that happy after conquering the highest mountain?
Ans.
Major took a panoramic view but he was not as jubilant as he should have been. He felt that there would be nothing higher to climb than the highest peak.

Question 3.
Why was he thankful?
Answer:
Major admired the vastness of the earth. He was very much thankful for attaining success in climbing the Mount Everest.

Question 4.
Why can the man be never the same again?
Answer:
After climbing the highest mountain, one would feel the smallness in the vast universe.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of the word ‘Panorama’.
Answer:
Complete view.

Passage 2

All these thoughts led me to question myself as to why people climb mountains. It is not easy to answer the question. The simplest answer would be, as others have said, “Because it is there.” It presents great difficulties. Man takes delight in overcoming obstacles. The obstacles, in climbing a mountain are physical. A climb to a summit means endurance, persistence and will power. The demonstration of these physical qualities is no doubt exhilarating, as it was for me also. I have a more personal answer to the question. From my childhood I Save been attracted by mountains. I had been miserable, lost, when away from mountains, in the plains. Mountain are nature at its best. Their beauty and majesty pose a great challenge, and like many, I believe that mountains are a means of communion with God.

Question 1.
Why do people climb mountains?
Answer:
Mountains always pose challenge to a man. It stands for firmness and put obstacles in the path.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of ‘A climb to a summit’?
Answer:
Endurance, persistence and will power.

Question 3.
What quality is ‘exhilarating1 for him?
Answer:
The demonstration of these physical qualities is exhilarating for him.

Question 4.
What was his childhood belief about mountain?
Answer:
Mountains are a means of communion with God.

Question 5.
Find the suitable word with the same meaning as ‘state or feeling of close relationship’.
Answer:
Communion.

Passage 3

Consider a typical climb, towards the summit on the last heights. You are sharing a rope with another climber. You firm in. He cuts the steps in the hard ice. Then he belays and you inch your way up. The climb is grim. You strain every nerve as you take every step. Famous climbers have left records of the help given by others. They have also recorded how they needed just that help. Else they might have given up.

Breathing is difficult. You curse yourself for having let yourself in for this. You wonder why you ever undertook the ascent. There are moments when you feel like going back. It would be sheer relief to go down, instead of up. But almost at once you snap out of that mood. There is something in you that does not let you give up the mystical: spiritual ascent: climb firm in: make yourself firm belays: fixes a rope.

The Summit Within 79 struggle. And you go on. Your companion keeps up with you. Just another fifty feet. Or a hundred, maybe. You ask yourself: Is there no end? You look at your companion and he looks at you. You draw inspiration from each other. And then, without first being aware of it, you are at the summit.

Question 1.
Explain ‘the climb is grim’.
Answer:
Towards the summit one cuts the step in the hard ice and make one for other. Strenuous efforts make a climber successful.

Question 2.
How are the records of famous climbers helpful?
Answer:
The records of famous climbers help in facing the difficulties.

Question 3.
It also boosts the morale of the climbers. Do you think Major also wanted to ‘give up’?
Answer:
Major revealed that climbers curse themselves for putting their lives in danger. Because they feel exhausted and breathless.

Question 4.
How does the mood give a boost?
Answer:
Sometimes the depressing thoughts took over a climber but the companions draw inspiration from each other.

Question 5.
Change the word ‘grim’ an adjective into a noun.
Answer:
Grim – grimace.

 

Online Education NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Online Education NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

These Solutions are part of Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules. LearnInsta.com provides you the Free PDF download of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 3 – Atoms and Molecules solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines. All Chapter 3 – Atoms and Molecules Exercise Questions with Solutions to help you to revise complete Syllabus and Score More marks.

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NCERT IN TEXT PROBLEMS

IN TEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6.0 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon dioxide, 0.9 g of water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The chemical reaction leading to products is :
sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid ———–> sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.
Mass of reactants = (5.3 + 6.0) = 1.3 g
Mass of products = (8.2 + 2.2 + 0.9) = 11.3 g.
The reactants and products have same mass. This means that there was no loss of mass during the reaction. Therefore, the data is in agreement with law of conservation of mass.

Question 2.
Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react with 3 g of hydrogen gas ?
Answer:
According to available data,
Mass of oxygen combining with 1 g of hydrogen = 8 g.
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 1
Question 3:
Which postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory is the basis of law of conservation of mass ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The law of conservation mass is based on the following postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory.
“Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed during a physical change or a chemical reaction.”

Question 4.
Which postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions ?
Answer:
The law of definite proportions is based on the following postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory.
“All atoms of a particular element are identical in every respect. This means that they have same mass, same size and also same chemical properties.”

Question 5.
Define atomic mass unit.
Answer:
Atomic mass unit may be defined as :
The mass of one-twelfth (1/12) of the mass of one atom of carbon taken as 12 u. It is represented as 1 u (unified mass).

Question 6.
Why is not possible to see an atom with naked eye ?
Answer:
It is not possible to see an atom with naked eye because of its extremely small size. For example, the radius of an atom of hydrogen is of the order of 10-10 m. Actually an atom is regarded as a microscopic particle. These microscopic particles cannot be seen with naked eye.

Question 7.
Write down the formulae of :
(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium sulphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 2
Question 8.
Write the names of the compounds represented by the following formulae :
(i) Al2(SO4)3
(ii) CaCl2
(Hi) K2SO4
(iv) KNO3
(v) CaCO3.
Answer:
(i) Aluminium sulphate
(ii) Calcium chloride
(iii) Potassium sulphate
(iv) Potassium nitrate
(v) Calcium carbonate

Question 9.
What is meant by the term chemical formula ?
Answer:
Molecule represents a group of two or more atoms (same or different) chemically bonded to each other and held tightly by strong attractive forces. Molecules are represented in terms of symbols of constituting atoms and it is known as chemical formula.

Question 10.
How many atoms are present in
(i) H2S molecule
(ii) PO43- ion ?
Answer:
(i) Three
(ii) Five.

Question 11.
Calculate the molecular masses of :
(i) H2
(ii) O2
(iii) Cl2
(iv) CO2
(v) CH4
(vi) C2H6
(vii) C2H4
(viii) NH3
(ix) CH3OH.
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen (H2)
Molecular mass of H2 = 2 x Atomic mass of H = (2 x 1 u) = 2 u.
(ii) Oxygen (O2)
Molecular mass of O2 = 2 x Atomic mass of O = (2 x 16 u) = 32 u.
(iii) Chlorine (CI2)
Molecular mass of Cl2 = 2 x Atomic mass of Cl = (2 x 35’5 u) = 71 u.
(iv) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Molecular mass of CO2 = (1 x Atomic mass of C) + (2 x Atomic mass of O)
= (1 x 12 u) + (2 x 16 u) = 12 u + 32 u = 44 u.
(v) Methane (CH4)
Molecular mass of CH4 = ( 1 x Atomic mass of C) + (4 x Atomic mass of H)
= ( 1 x 12 u) + (4 x 1 u) = 16 u.
(vi) Ethane (C2H6)
Molecular mass of C2H6 = (2 x Atomic mass of C) + (6 x Atomic mass of H)
= (2 x 12 u) + (6 x 1 u) = 30 u.
(vii) Ethylene (C2H4)
Molecular mass of C2H4 =(2 x Atomic mass of C) + (4 x Atomic mass of H)
= (2 x 12 u) + (4 x 1 u) = 28 u.
(viii) Ammonia (NH3)
Molecular mass of NH3 = (1 x Atomic mass ofN) + (3 x Atomic mass of H)
= (1 x 14 u) + ( 3 x 1 u) = 17 u.
(ix) Methyl alcohol (CH3OH)
Molecular mass of CH3OH = (1 x Atomic mass of C) + (4 x Atomic mass of H)
+ (1 x Atomic mass of O)
= (1 x 12 u) + (4 x 1 u) + (1 x 16 u) = 32 u.

Question 12.
Calculate the formula unit mass of :
(i) ZnO
(ii) Na2O
(iii) K2CO3.
Given : Atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u and O = 16 u.
Answer:
(i) Formula unit mass of ZnO (Zinc oxide)
= (1 x Atomic mass of Zn) +(1 x Atomic mass of O)
= (1 x 65 u) + (1 x 16 u) = 81 u.
(ii) Formula unit mass of Na2O (Sodium oxide)
= (2 x Atomic mass of Na) + (1 x Atomic mass of O)
= (2 x 23 u) + (1 x 16 u) = 62 u.
(iii) Formula unit mass of K2CO3 (Potassium carbonate).
= (2 x Atomic mass of K) + (1 x Atomic mass of C) + (3 x Atomic mass of O)
= (2 x 39 u) + (1 x 12 u) + (3 x 16 u) = 138 u

Question 13.
Calculate the number of moles of the following :
(i) 52 g of He
(ii) 12.044 x 1023 atoms of He.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 3
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 4

Question 14.
Calculate the number of particles in each of the following :
(i) 46 g of sodium atoms
(ii) 8 g of oxygen (O2)
(iii) 0.1 mole of carbon atoms.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 5

Question 15.
If one mole of carbon weighs 12 grams, what is the mass (in gram) of one atom of carbon ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 6

Question 16.
Which has more number of atoms ?
(a) 100 grams of sodium
(b) 100 grams of iron
(Given : atomic mass of Na = 23 u ; Fe = 56 u)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 7

NCERT END EXERCISE

Question 1.
0.24 g of sample of a compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron
and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 8

Question 2.
When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.0 g of oxygen, 11.0 g of carbon dioxide is formed. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 50.0 g of oxygen ? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer ? (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Carbon and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide according to the equation Carbon (C) + Oxygen (O2) > Carbon dioxide (CO2)
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 9
In the first case :
3.0 g of carbon are burnt in 8.0 g of oxygen to form 11.0 g of CO2 In the second case :
3.0 g of carbon must also combine with 8.0 g of oxygen only. This means that (50 – 8) = 42 g of oxygen will remain unreacted.
The mass of CO2 in this case must be also 11 g.
The answer is based on Law of constant proportions.
In the second case, only 8.0 g of oxygen react although 50.0 g are available. This shows that the mass of carbon dioxide (11.0 g) formed depends upon the mass of carbon (3.0 g) or the substance present in smaller amount. In general, the substance (element or compound) present in smaller amount in a reaction limits the participation of the other reactants. It is quite often called limiting reactant. Carbon is the limiting reactant in this case. It limits the participation of oxygen and also the formation of carbon dioxide.

Question 3.
What are polyatomic ions ? Give examples. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Polyatomic ions are the group of atoms which carry either positive charge (cations) or negative charge (anions). For example,

  1. Carbonate ion (CO3)2-
  2. Nitrate ion (NO3)
  3. Ammonium ion (NH4)+
  4. Phosphate ion (PO4)3-.

Question 4.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 10

Question 5.
Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds :
(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.
Answer:
The names of elements present can be given only if the chemical formula of the compound is known. For example,
(a) Quick lime : It is the commercial name of the compound. Its chemical name is calcium oxide and the
chemical formula is CaO.
Elements present : calcium (Ca) : oxygen (O).
(b) Hydrogen bromide : The chemical formula of the compound is HBr
Elements present : hydrogen (H) ; bromine (Br).
(c) Baking powder : It is the commercial name of the compound. Its chemical name is sodium hydrogen carbonate and the chemical formula is NaHCO3
Elements present : sodium (Na), hydrogen (H), carbon (C), oxygen (O).
(d) Potassium sulphate : The chemical formula of the compound is K2SO4
Elements present : potassium (K), sulphur (S), oxygen (O).

Question 6.
Calculate the molar mass of the following substances :
(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Nitric acid, HNO3
(e) Hydrochloric acid, HCl.
Answer:
(a) Ethyne, C2H2
Molar mass of C2H2 = (2 x Atomic mass of C) + (2 x Atomic mass of H)
= (2 x 12 u) + (2 x 1 u) = 26 u.
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
Molar mass of S8 = 8 x Atomic mass of S = (8 x 32 u) = 256 u
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4
Molar mass of P4 =4 x Atomic mass of P = (4 x 31 u) = 124 u
(d) Nitric acid, HNO3
Molar mass of HNO3 = (1 x Atomic mass of H) + (1 x Atomic mass of N) + ( 3 x Atomic mass of O)
= (1 x 1 u) + (1 x 14 u) + (3 x 16 u) = 63 u.
(e) Hydrochloric acid, HCl.
Molar mass of HCl = (1 x Atomic mass of H) + (1 x Atomic mass of Cl)
= (1 x 1 u) + (1 x 35.5 u) = 36.5 u.

Question 7.
What is the mass of :
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms ?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27) ?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3) ?
Answer:
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms
Mass of 1 mole of nitrogen (N) atoms = 14 u
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms
Mass of 1 mole of aluminium (Al) atoms = 27 u
Mass of 4 moles of aluminium (Al) atoms = 4 x 27 = 108 u
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)
Molar mass of Na2SO3 = 2 x Atomic mass of Na + Atomic mass of S + 3 x Atomic mass of O
= 2 x 23 + 32 + 3 x 16 = 126 u
1 mole of sodium sulphite has mass = 126 u
10 moles of sodium sulphite have mass = 10 x 126 = 1260 u.

Question 8.
Convert into moles
(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 11

Question 9.
What is the mass of :
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms ?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules ?
Answer:
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms
Mass of 1 mole of oxygen (O) atoms = 16 u
Mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen (O) atoms = 0.2 x 16 = 3.2 u
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules
Mass of 1 mole of water (H2O) molecules = 2 x 1 + 16 = 18 u
Mass of 0.5 mole of water (H2O) molecules = 0.5 x 18 = 9 u.

Question 10.
Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (Sg) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 12

Question 11.
Calculate the number of aluminium ions in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide (Al2O3). (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 13

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Out of atoms and molecules, which can exist independently ?
Answer:
Molecules can exist independently. However, the atoms of noble gases (He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe) can also exist independently.

Question 2.
What does the symbol ‘u’ represent ?
Answer:
The symbol V represents unified mass.

Question 3.
Write the chemical symbols and Latin names of
(i) gold
(ii) mercury ?
Answer:
(i) Au (Aurum)
(ii) Hg (Hydrargyrum).

Question 4.
Are the mass of a molecule of a substance and its molar mass same ?
Answer:
No, they are different.

Question 5.
How are mass, molar mass and number of moles of a substance related to each other ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 14

Question 6.
Avogardo’s number represents how many particles ?
Answer:
Avogadro’s number (Ng) represents 6.022 x 1023 particles.

Question 7.
Give an example of
(i) a divalent anion
(ii) a trivalent cation
(iii) a monovalent anion.
Answer:
(i) (SO4)2-
(ii) Al3+
(iii) Cl

Question 8.
Calculate the molar mass of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH).
Answer:
Molar mass of C2H5OH= (2 x gram atomic mass of C) + (6 x gram atomic mass of H)
+ (1 x Atomic mass of O)
= (2 x 12 g) + (6 x 1 g) + (1 x 16 g) = 46 g.

Question 9.
If one mole of oxygen atoms weigh 16 grams, calculate the mass of one atom of oxygen (in grams).
(CBSE 2014)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 15

Question 10.
What is the valency of calcium in CaCO3 ?
Answer:
The valency of Ca in CaCO3 is 2+ (i.e. Ca2+).

Question 11.
What happens to an element ‘A’ if its atom gains two electrons ?
Answer:
It changes to a divalent anion (A2-).

Question 12.
Why is a cation so named ?
Answer:
When electric current is passed through the solution of a salt like sodium chloride (NaCl), the positive ion (Na+) migrates towards cathode (negative electrode). It is therefore, called cation. Please remember that
• Positive ion migrating towards cathode on passing electric current is known as cation.
• Negative ion migrating towards anode on passing electric current is known as anion.

Question 13.
An element Z forms an oxide with formula Z2O3. What is its valency ?
Answer:
The valency of the element Z in Z2O3 is 3+.

Question 14.
The valency of an element A is 4. Write the formula of its oxide.
Answer:
The formula of the oxide is A2O4 or AO2.

Question 15.
An element X has valency 3 while the element Y has valency 2. Write the formula of the compound between X and Y.
Answer:
The formula of the compound between X and Y is X2Y3.

Question 16.
Formula of the carbonate of a metal M is M2CO3. Write the fomula of its chloride.
Answer:
The valency of the metal (M) in M2CO3 is (1+) i.e. metal exists as M+ ion. Therefore, the formula of metal chloride is MCl.

Question 17.
What do you understand from the statement “relative atomic mass of sulphur is 32”. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
This means that an atom of sulphur is 32 times heavier as compared to 1/12 of the mass of 1 atom of C — 12(1 u).

Question 18.
Calculate the formula unit mass of CaCl2.
Answer:
Formula unit mass of CaCl2 (Calcium chloride)
= (1 x Atomic mass of Ca) + (2 x Atomic mass of Cl)
= (1 x 40 u) + (2 x 35.5 u) = 111 u.

Question 19.
Which of the following represents the correct chemical formula ?
(a) NaSO4
(b) CaPO4
(c) ZnS
(d) AlSO4.
Answer:
The formula (c) represents the correct formula. Both the ions are divalent i.e. Zn2+ and S2-. The name of the compound is zinc sulphide.

Question 20.
Sample A contains one gram molecules of oxygen molecules and sample B contains one mole of oxygen molecules. What is the ratio of the number of molecules in both the sample ?
Answer:
One gram molecules and one gram mole contain the same number of molecules (6.022 x 1023). Therefore, the ratio is 1 : 1.

Question 21.
Gram molecular mass of ammonia (NH3) is 17 g. Is it correct to regard it as formula unit mass also ?
Answer:
No, it is not correct. Ammonia exists in molecular form and is not an ionic compound made up of cation and anion. Therefore, it cannot have formula unit mass. It has only molecular mass.

Question 22.
Give one example each of polyatomic element and polyatomic ion.
Answer:
Polyatomic element (P4) ; Polyatomic ion (SO42-).

Question 23.
Name the element which is used as a reference for the atomic masses of the elements.
Answer:
1/12 of the mass of carbon atom taken as 12 u is used as a reference for the atomic masses of the elements.

Question 24.
Four samples of water [H2O] are collected from different sources. Each sample on analysis was found to contain same percentage of oxygen. Which law of chemical combination is demonstrated by the above observation ?
(CBSE 2014)
Answer:
The law of constant combination is demonstrated by this observation.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 25.
List the elements present in
(i) quick lime
(ii) sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Answer:
(i) The chemical name of quick lime is calcium oxide. Its chemical formula is CaO. Elements present are Ca and O.
(ii) The chemical formula of sodium hydrogen carbonate is NaHCO3. The elements present are Na, H, C and O.

Question 26.
Cenvert into moles :
(i) 20 g of water
(ii) 20 g of carbon dioxide
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 16

Question 27.
(a) How many moles are present in 11.5 g of sodium ?
(b) The mass of an atom of element (X) is 2.0 x 10-23 g. Calculate its atomic mass.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 17

Question 28.
(a) How many particles are represented by 0.25 mole of an element ?
(b) Out of 4 g of methane (CH4) and llg of CO2, which has more molecules ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 18

Question 29.
What is the number of molecules present in 1.5 mole of ammonia (NH3) ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 19

Question 30.
Write the chemical symbols of two elements
(a) Which are formed from the first letter of the elements name.
(b) Whose name has been taken from the names of the elements in Latin.
Answer:
(a) Boron (B), carbon (C)
(b) Argentum (Ag), Kalium (K).

Question 31.
(a) Four samples of carbon dioxide (CO2) were prepared by using different methods. Each sample on analysis was found to contain 27.27% carbon by mass. Name the law which is in agreement with this observation.
(b) Explain why the number of atoms in one mole of hydrogen gas is double the number of atoms in one mole of helium gas.
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide consists of elements carbon and oxygen. Since the percentage of carbon in each sample is fixed, that of oxygen must be also fixed. This is according to law of constant proportions.
(b) Hydrogen gas is diatomic in nature (H2) while helium gas is monoatomic (He). As a result, the number of atoms in one mole of hydrogen. (2 x NA) are expected to be double as compared to number of atoms in one mole of helium (NA).

Question 32.
1022 atoms of an element ‘X’ are found to have a mass of 930 mg. Calculate the molar mass of the element ‘X’?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 20

Question 33.
(a) If the valency of carbon is 4 and that of sulphur is 2, write the formula of the compound formed between carbon and sulphur atoms. Also name the compound.
(b) What is wrong with the statement T mole of hydrogen ?
Answer:
(a) The formula of compound can be written by exchanging the valencies (cross-over). Therefore, the expected formula is C2S4 or CS2. The compound is called carbon disulphide.
(b) The statement is not correct. We must always write whether hydrogen is in atomic form or molecular form. The correct statement is :

Question 34.
T mole of hydrogen atoms or one mole of hydrogen molecules.
Identify the cations and anions in the following compounds :
(a) CH3COONa
(b) NH3
(c) NH4Cl
(d) SrCl2.
Answer:
(a) CH3COO, Na+
(b) It is a molecular compound
(c) NH4+ ,Cl (d) Sr2+, 2Cl

Question 35.
Classify the following based on atomicity
(a) O3
(b) P4
(c) S8. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Atomicity is the number of atoms present in one molecule of an element. Based upon this, the atomicity of different molecules may be expressed as :
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 8.

Question 36.
Give the formulae of the compounds that will be formed from the following sets of elements.
(a) Calcium and fluorine
(b) Magnesium and oxygen
(c) Sodium and sulphur
(d) Carbon and chlorine
(e) Carbon and sulphur
(f) Nitrogen and hydrogen.
Answer:
(a) CaF2
(b) MgO
(c) Na2S
(d) CCl4
(e) CS2
(f) NH3.

Question 37.
Which of the following symbols of elements are incorrect. Write correct symbols
(a) Iron (Ir)
(b) Gold (Au)
(c) Manganese (M)
(d) Potassium (Po)
(e) Zinc (ZN)
(f) Calcium (Ca).
Answer:
(a) Iron (Fe)
(c) Manganese (Mn)
(d) Potassium (K)
(e) Zinc (Zn).

Question 38.
Verify by calculation that :
4 moles of CO2 and 6 moles of H2O do not have same mass in grams.
Answer:
Molar mass of CO2 = 12 + 2 x 16 = 44 g
1 mole of CO2 has mass = 44 g
4 moles of CO2
have mass = 44 x 4 = 176 g
Molar mass of H2O = 2 x 1 + 16 =18 g
1 mole of H2O has mass = 18 g
6 moles of H2O have mass = 6 x 18 = 108 g.
This shows that these have different masses in grams.

Question 39.
A sample of vitamin C contains 2.48 x 1025 oxygen atoms. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in the sample ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 21

Question 40.
Calculate the total number of ions in 0.585 g of sodium chloride.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 22

Question 41.
A flask contains 4.4 g of CO2 gas. Calculate
(a) How many moles of CO2 gas does it contain ?
(b) How many molecules of CO2 gas are present in the sample.
(c) How many atoms of oxygen are present in the given sample.
(Atomic mass of C = 12 u. O = 16 u)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 23

Question 42.
Determine the molecular mass of :
(i) NH4OH
(ii) K2CO3
(iii) CH3COOH Given atomic masses :
H = 1.0 u ; O = 16.0 u ; C = 12.0 ; K = 39.0 u ; N = 14.0 u
Answer:
(i) Molecular mass of NH4OH
= Atomic mass of N + 5 x (Atomic mass of H) + Atomic mass of O
= 14 + 5 x 1 + 16 = 14 + 5 + 16 = 35 u
(ii) Molecular mass of K2CO3
= 2 x (Atomic mass of K) + Atomic mass of C + 3 x (Atomic mass of O)
= 2 x 39 + 12 + 3 x 16 = 138 u
(iii) Molecular mass of CH3COOH
= 2 x (Atomic mass of C) + 4 x (Atomic mass of H) + 2 x (Atomic mass of O)
= 2 x 12 + 4 x 1+2 x 16 = 60 u

Question 43.
(a) What is Avogadro Constant ?
(b) Calculate the number of particles present in 56 g of N2 molecule.
Answer:
(a) Avogadro’s number is the number of particles (atoms, ions, molecules etc.) present in one mole of any substance. It is denoted either as NA or as NQ. The number is also called Avogadro’s constant because its value is fixed (6.022 x 1023) irrespective of the nature of the particles.
(b) Molar mass of N2 = 14 x 2 = 28 g
28 g of N2 have molecules or particles = NA = 6.022 x 1023
56 g of N2 have molecules or particles = NA = 6.022 x 1023 x 2 = 1.204 x 1024

Question 44.
(a) An element ‘X’ exhibits variable valencies 3 and 5. Write the formulae of the chlorides of the element.
(b) What is the ratio by mass of the elements present in the chemical formula of magnesium oxide.
Answer:
(a) The formulae of the chlorides of the element ‘X’ = XCl5 and XCl3.
(b) The chemical formula of magnesium oxide is MgO. The elements are present in the ratio of 24 : 16 or 3 : 2.

Question 45.
Give the example of trivalent cation and monovalent anion. Write the formula of the compound formed by their combination. .
Answer:
Trivalent cation : Al3+ ; Monovalent anion : Cl
Formula of the compound : AlCl3.

Question 46.
(a) State the law of conservation of mass
(b) What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate if the law of conservation of mass is true ?
Answer:
(a) The total mass of the products in a physical change or a chemical reaction is equal to the total mass of the reactants that have combined. The law may also be stated in another form. The mass can neither he created nor destroyed in a physical change or a chemical reaction.
(b) The chemical reaction leading to products is :
Mass of reactants = x g + 5.85 g Mass of products = 14.35 g + 8.5 g According to law of conservation of mass
Mass of reactants = Mass of products . (x + 5.85) g = (14.35 + 8.5) g
x = (22.85 – 5.85) g = 17.0 g

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 47.
(a) The mass of one molecule of a substance is 4.65 x 10-23 g. What is its molecular mass ? What could this substance be ?
(b) Which have more molecules? 10 g of sulphur dioxide (SO2) or 10 g of oxygen (O2) ?
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 24
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 25

Question 48.
Which has more atoms ?
(a) 10 g of nitrogen (N2)
(b) 10 g of ammonia (NH3)
Answer:
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 26

Question 49.
(a) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram an activity for the verification of law of conservation of mass.
(b) Find the number of atoms present in 100 g of sodium and 100 g of iron. (Given that Na = 23 u ; Fe = 56 u ;
Answer:
(a) The total mass of the products in a physical change or a chemical reaction is equal to the total mass of the reactants that have combined. The law may also be stated in another form. The mass can neither he created nor destroyed in a physical change or a chemical reaction.
In other words, the mass remains unchanged or conserved in a chemical reaction. The law is also known as the Law of Indestructibility of Matter.
Explanation : Let us try to analyse as to what happens in a chemical reaction. To understand the same, let us consider a chemical reaction between barium chloride and sodium sulphate. When the solutions of these reactants prepared separately in water are mixed, the following chemical reaction takes place :
Barium chloride + Sodium sulphate———– > Barium sulphate + Sodium chloride (white precipitate)
If we look at this reaction, we find that the exchange of constituents has taken place between the reactants, i.e. chloride part of barium chloride has been exchanged by sulphate part of sodium sulphate. As such, no loss or gain in mass is expected. In other words, the mass remains conserved or does not change.
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 27
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 28

Question 50.
(a) Give one point of difference between an atom and an ion.
(b) Give one example each of a polyatomic cation and a polyatomic anion.
(c) Identify the correct chemical name of FeSO4 from the given names Ferrous sulphate, Ferrous sulphide, Ferrous sulphite.
(d) Write the chemical formula for the chloride of magnesium.
Answer:
(a) An atom is always neutral in the sense that it does not carry any charge. An ion carries either positive charge (cation) or negative charge (anion).
(b) Ammonium (NH4)+ ion is a polyatomic cation while sulphate (SO4)2- ion is a polyatomic anion.
(c) Correct chemical name of FeSO4 is ferrous sulphite.
(d) Chemical formula for the chloride of magnesium is MgCl2.

Question 51.
(a) What do the following observations stand for ?
(i) 2O
(ii) 3O2
(b) Which amongst the following has more number of atoms and how much ?
(i) 11.5 g of sodium
(ii) 15.0 g of calcium
Answer:
(a) (i) 2O represent two atoms of oxygen (or the gram atoms of oxygen
(ii) 3O2 represent three molecules of oxygen or three gram moles of oxygen.
NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 29

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

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A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Class 6 English A Pact with the Sun

Online Education for A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Class 6 English A Pact with the Sun

Here we are providing Online Education A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Class 6 English A Pact with the Sun, Extra Questions for Class 6 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-english/

Online Education for A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Class 6 English A Pact with the Sun

A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions Class 6 Question 1.
Describe about appearance of Vijay Singh.
Answer:
Vijay Singh was a famous wrestler. He was unbeatable. He had big §houlders and strong arms. He was so tall that he looked like a giant.

A Strange Wrestling Match Short Question Answers Class 6 Question 2.
What was the weakness of Vijay Singh?
Answer:
Vijay Singh was a powerful wrestler. Vijay Singh’s one weakness was his habit of boasting. He wished to fight with a ghost and teach him a lesson.

A Strange Wrestling Match Question Answers Class 6 Question 3.
How did Vijay Singh’s initial reaction when he was told to go to the haunted deserts?
Answer:
Vijay Singh was frightened when he was asked to go to the Haunted Desert. His heart missed a beat or two at the thought of fighting with a ghost.

A Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 4.
How the eccentric woman did help Vijay Singh?
Answer:
An old woman helped Vijay Singh against the ghost. She gave him a packet containing a piece of salt and an egg. These two things helped him be fool the ghost.

The Strange Wrestling Match Question Answer Class 6 Question 5.
What did the Vijay Singh say to insult and demoralise the ghost?
Answer:
Vijay Singh said ghost ‘stupid ghost a worthless a rascal of a ghost.’

Extra Questions Of A Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 6.
How was the wrestling match between the two was unusual?
Answer:
The wrestling match was strange because it was a fight between a man and ghost. The wrestler Vijay ‘ Singh had one weakness. He was boastful of his strength. It was in fact a trial of wit and wisdom. Finally Vijay Singh won the match and returned home with lots of gold.

A Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 7.
How did Vijay Singh overcome the ghost with his wit and wisdom?
Answer:
Vijay Singh made good use of the old woman’s gift—an egg and a lump of salt. He challenged the ghost to squeeze a piece of rock. The ghost failed to do that. Vijay Singh took out the egg from his pocket and squeezed it easily. The ghost was speechless and he accepted defeat. Vijay Singh then threw another challenge. He gave another piece of rock to the ghost to crush. The ghost failed to crush the rock. Vijay Singh took out the piece of salt from his pocket and meshed it easily. The ghost felt demoralized and again accepted his defeat. He hid behind the wall and placed bolsters in his bed. When the ghost tried to kill him, he took his enemy for dead. But Vijay Singh faced the ghost who panicked. He fled from the cave leaving behind all his wealth for Vijay Singh.

A Strange Wrestling Match Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

A Strange Wrestling Match Question Answer Class 6 Question 1.
‘We be sensible when we choose to speak’. Give your answer in support of the text.
Answer:
Vijay was a powerful man but unrealistic and boastful nature had proved to be threat to his life. The ghost would have killed him, he was saved by his clever acts. Towards the end, he realised his mistake and decided to speak after giving many thoughts to his words. Great men and thinkers always advise to speak wisely.

Question Answer Of A Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 2.
Vijay Singh cleverly handled the ghost. What values can be learnt by his acts from the story?
Answer:
Vijay Singh was boastful. This habit landed him in trouble. However, he used his intellect to defeat the ghost. He recognised the ghost in the first meeting and challenged him twice. He did not trust the ghost and therefore did not sleep at night. Thus saved his life and scared the ghost to hell, who left his invaluable treasure for him and no traveller was ever bothered by any ghost in the haunted desert. So, one can learn being sensible, instinctive and the will to scare the wrong people out of our lives.

Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 3.
What was Vijay Singh’s weakness? Which awkward situation did it push him into?
Answer:
Vijay Singh was fond of boasting. It pushed him into trouble and he had to set out to find a ghost in the haunted desert.

The Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 4.
Was the old women gifts to Vijay Singh eccentric? Why?
Answer:
The old woman thrust a small packet into Vijay Singh’s hands it contained a lump of salt and an egg. It was not eccentric because the contents of the packet proved very useful for the wrestler in the desert.

Solution Of A Strange Wrestling Match Class 6 Question 5.
Why did Vijay Singh ask the ghost disguished as Natwar to come closer?
Answer:
Vijay Singh asked the ghost in the guise of Natwar to come closer. Like all good wrestler, he wanted to size up his enemy ghost.

Question 6.
What made the ghost speechless? Why?
Answer:
Vijay Singh challenged the ghost to fight. This made him speechless because everybody is afraid of the ghost. But Vijay Singh was calling him stupid and worthless. His courage and boldness made the ghost speechless.

Question 7.
Why did Vijay Singh say “Appearances can be deceptive”?
Answer:
The ghost first tried to demoralise Vijay Singh. He said that Vijay Singh was no match to him. At this Vijay Singh also tried to frighten the ghost. He agreed to demonstrate his strength.

Question 8.
How did Vijay Singh use the eggs? How did he use the lump of salt?
Answer:
Vijay Singh used the egg to create the illusion of the stone being crushed. He used the lump of salt to break it like a stone. Thus he surprised the ghost.

Question 9.
Why did Vijay Singh conclude that the ghost would not be worthy opponent to him? Was he fair in his judgement?
Answer:
The ghost could not see that Vijay Singh crushed only an egg and a lump of salt. Vijay Singh easily befooled him. So Vijay Singh concluded that the ghost was not a match to him. Vijay Singh was not fair in his judgement because the ghost was stupid though but not weak.

Question 10.
Why did Vijay Singh ask the ghost to accompany him to town next day?
Answer:
Vijay Singh asked the ghost to accompany him to town next day because he wanted his people to show that he had defeated the ghost and show him as a trophy.

Question 11.
What made the ghost believe Vijay Singh was dead?
Answer:
The ghost didn’t hear a sound of groan when he struck bolster seven times on Vijay Singh and thus it made him believe that Vijay Singh is dead.

Question 12.
Vijay Singh complained of insects in the cave. What was he referring to, and why?
Answer:
Vijay Singh complained of insects in the cave. He was in fact, referring to the ghost. He compared the ghost to a hateful weakling like an insect.

Question 13.
Was it really a ghost who Vijay Singh befooled? Who do you think it was?
Answer:
It was not a ghost. A ghost never looted the property of others, became its useless for them. It was a robber who looted the people in the guise of ghost.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study-based questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – A
(12 Marks)

Question 1.
If two tangents, inclined to each other at an angle of 60°, are drown to a circle of radius 3 cm, then find the length of each tangent.
OR
In the figure, AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii. Prove that AB = CD.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 5
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 6
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 7
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 8
Hence, the length of each tangent is 3\(\sqrt{3}\)cm.

OR

Given: AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii.

To prove: AB = CD

Construction: Extend BA and DC, so that they meet at point P.

Proof: We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circLe are equal in Length.

So, for smaller circle,
PA = PC ……………………………………… (i)
And, for bigger circle,
PB = PD ……………………………………… (ii)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 9

Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get
PB – PA = PD – PC
⇒ AB = CD

Hence, proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 2.
A 1.6m tall girl stands at a distance of 3.2m from a lamp post and casts a shadow of 4.8m on the ground. find the height of the lam past. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the girl and BM be its shadow. Similarly, let PQ be the lamp post and QM be its shadow. Also, Let θ be the angle of elevation of the Sun.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 11
Hence, height of the lamp post is 2.67m.

Question 3.
From a solid cube of side 7 cm, a conical cavity of diameter 6 cm and height 7 cm is hollowed out. Find the volume of the remaining solid. (2)
Answer:
Volume of remaining solid = Volume of cube – Volume of the cone
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 4.
Mr. Biswal, a class teacher of class X, prepared a table on the number of days his students missed the school during the term-1 of session 2021-22. Following data was recorded.

Number of absent days Number of students
0-5 2
5-10 6
10-15 9
15-20 7
20-25 4

Convert this frequency distribution to a more than type cumulative frequency distribution table.
Answer:

Class Cumulative Frequency
More than 0 2 + 6 + 9 + 7 + 4 = 28
More than 5 6 + 9 + 7 + 4 = 26
More than 10 9 + 7 + 4 = 20
More than 15 7 + 4 = 11
More than 20 4

Question 5.
A portion of 60 m long tree is broken by tornado and the top struck up the ground making an angle of 30° with the ground level. Find the height of broken part of the tree. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the tree and C be the point on it, from where it is broken, so that the top A of the tree touches the ground at point A’.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 13

∴ AB = 60 m, ∠CA’B = 30°
Let BC = x
Then, AC = AB – BC = 60-x
∴ A’C = AC = 60 – x
Now, in ΔA’BC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 14
Hence, the height of broken part of the tree is 40 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 6.
If the mean of the following data is 2.6, then find the missing frequency p.

x1 1 2 3 4 5
f1 4 5 p 1 2

OR
Find the mode of the following frequency distribution:

Class Interval Frequency
25-30 25
30-35 34
35-40 50
40-45 42
45-50 38
50-55 14

Answer:

xi fi Σfixi
1 4 4
2 5 10
3 P 3P
4 1 4
5 2 10
Σfi = 12 + p Σfixi = 28 + 3p

We know, Mean = \(\frac{f_{i} x_{i}}{f_{i}}\)
⇒ \(2.6=\frac{28+3 p}{12+p}\)
⇒ 2.6(12 + p) = 28 + 3p
⇒ 3p – 2.6p = 31.2 – 28
⇒ 0.4p = 3.2
⇒ p = 8
Hence, the value of p is 8.
OR
Here, maximum frequency = 50
And, class with maximum frequency is 35 – 40.
∴ Modal class = 35 – 40

We know,
Mode = l + \(\left(\frac{f_{1}-f_{0}}{2 f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}}\right)\) x h
Here, l = 35, f1 = 50, f0 = 34, f2 = 42, h = 5.
∴ Mode = 35 + \(\left(\frac{50-34}{100-34-42}\right) \times 5\)
= 35 + \(\frac{16}{24}\) x 5
= 35 + 3.33
= 38.33
Hence,the mode of given frequency distribution is 38.33.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – B
(12 Marks)

Question 7.
Solve for x:
1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + …. + x = 287 (3)
Answer:
We have, 1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + ….. + x = 287
Here, the series 1,4, 7,10, ….. x forms an A.P.
with a = 1, d = 4 – 1 = 3 and l = x.
Let there be n terms in this A.P.
We know, sum of n term of an A.P. is given as
Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 287 = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2 x 1 + (n – 1) x 3]
⇒ 574 = n(3n – 1)
⇒ 3n2 – n – 574 = 0
⇒ 3n2 – (42 – 41) n – 574 = 0
⇒ 3n2 – 42n + 41n – 572 = 0
⇒ 3n(n – 14) + 41(n – 14) = 0
⇒ (3n + 4) (n – 14) = 0
⇒ n = \(\frac{-4}{3}\), 14
Since, number of terms cannot be in fraction or negative
∴ n = 14
∴ a14 = x
⇒ a + 13d = x
⇒ 1 + 13 x 3 = x
⇒ x= 40
Hence, the value of x is 40.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 8.
Draw a circle of any radius and unknown centre. Take a point P outside the circle and construct a pair of tangents from this point to the circle. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 15
Steps of construction:

  1. Draw a circle of any radius and unknown centre.
  2. Draw two non-parallel chords AB and XY on the circle, drawn in step (1).
  3. Draw perpendicular bisectors of AB and XY. Let these two perpendicular bisectors intersect each other at point O. Thus, 0 is the centre of the circle.
  4. Take a point P outside the circle and join OP.
  5. Draw perpendicular bisector of OP to get its mid-point M.
  6. Taking M as centre and MO = MP as radius, draw a circle which intersects the circle, drawn in step (1), at points C and D.
  7. Join PC and PD.

Thus, PC and PD are the required tangents to the circle with centre O.

Concept Applied
Perpendicular bisector of a chard of a circle passes through its centre. So, perpendicular bisectors of chords AB and XY intersect each other at centre of the circle.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 9.
Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation (p + 1) x2 – 6(p + 1) x + 3(p + 9) = 0, p ≠ -1, has equal roots. Hence, find the roots of the equation. (3)
Answer:
Given equation is:
(p + 1) x2 – 6(p + 1)x + 3(p + 9) = 0 …………………………………… (i)
Since, the equation has equal roots
∴ Discriminant = 0
⇒ b2 – 4ac = 0
Here, a = (p + 1), b = -6(p + 1), c = 3(p + 9)
[-6(p + 1)]2 – 4 x (p + 1) x [3(p + 9)] = 0
∴ (p + 1) [36(p + 1) – 12(p + 9)] = 0
⇒ 36p + 36 – 12p – 108 = 0
[∵ p ≠ -1 (Given)]
⇒ 24p – 72 = 0
⇒ P = \(\frac{72}{24}\)
= 3
Putting p = 3 in equation (i), we get
4x2 – 24x + 36 = 0
⇒ x2 – 6x + 9 = 0
⇒ (x – 3)2 = 0
⇒ x = 3, 3
Hence, the value of p is 3 and the roots of the equation so formed are 3 and 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 10.
A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree, standing on opposite bank of the river, is 60°. When he moves 40 m away from the bank, he finds angle of elevation to be 30°. Find the width of the river and the height of the tree.
OR
The shadow of a pole is three times as long as the shadow of the pole when the Sun rays meet the ground at an angle of 60°. Find the angle between the Sun rays and the ground at the time of longer shadow. (3)
Answer:
Let AB be the tree, PB be the river and P’ be the final position of the person.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 16

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 17
Putting PB = 20 in (i), we get
AB = 20\(\sqrt{3}\)
Hence, width of the river is 20 m and height ofthetreeis 20\(\sqrt{3}\)m.
OR
Let AB be the pole, BC be its shadow when angLe of elevation of the Sun is 60° and BD be its longer shadow.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 18
So, according to the question
BD = 3BC ……………………………….. (i)
Let the angle between Sun rags and the ground at the time of longer shadow be O.

Now, in ΔABC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 19
Hence, the required angle is 30°.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(16 Marks)

Question 11.
Find mean and median of the following frequency distribution: (4)

Class Interval Frequency
0-20 13
20-40 10
40-60 15
60-80 8
80-100 11

Hence, find the mode.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 20
Calculation of Mean:
We know,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 21
Calculation of Median:
Here, \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}=28.5\)

Cumutativefrequencyjustgreaterthan 28.5 is 38, which beLongs to cLass 40 – 60.

∴ Median class 40 – 60

We know,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 22

Calculation of mode:
We know,
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
= 3 x 47.33 – 2 x 47.9
= 141.99-95.8
= 46.19
∴ Mean = 47.9, Median = 47.33, Mode = 46.19

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 12.
A peacock is sitting on the top of a pillar which is 9 m high. From a point 27 m away from the bottom of the pillar, a snake is coming to its hole at the base of the pillar. Seeing the snake, the peacock pounces on it. If their speeds are equal, at what distance from the hole is the snake caught?
OR
Vanya’s mother is 28 years older than her. Seven years ago, the product of their ages, in years, was 245. Find the present age of Vanya. (4)
Answer:
Let peacock be sitting on the top P of the pillar PQ. Also, T be a point on the ground level from where snake is approaching towards the pillar. Lastly, let M be the point on the ground where the peacock caught the snake.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 23
So, PQ = 9 m, QT = 27 m

Since, speed of both peacock and the snake is same, so both will cover equal distances in equaL intervals of time.
∴ Let PM = MT = x m
So, QM = (27 -x) m
So, in ΔPQM using Pythagoras theorem, we have
(PM)2 = (PQ)2 + (QM)2
⇒ x2 = 92 +(27 -x)2
⇒ x2 = 81 + 729 – 54x + x2
⇒ 54x = 810
⇒ \(\frac{810}{54}\) = 15
So, snake will caught at a distance of (27 – 15)m i.e. 12 m from the hole
OR
Let the present age of Vanya be x years.
Then, present age of Vanya’s mother = (x + 28) years
So, according to the question,
(x-7) [(x+28)-7)] = 245
⇒ (x – 7) (x + 21) = 245
⇒ x2+ 14x- 147 = 245
⇒ x2 + 14x – 392 =0
⇒ x2 + 28x – 14x – 392 = 0
⇒ x(x + 28) – 14(x + 28) = 0
⇒ (x – 14) (x + 28) = 0
⇒ x = 14, – 28
Since, age cannot be negative,
x = 14
Hence, the present age of Vanya is 14 years.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 13.
Case Study-1
The benefit of the vegetable garden, of any size, in houses, is that it can help us to stay healthy as vitamin content will be highest when we pick, vegetables right from our garden and eat them. Also, it reduces the risk of consumption of harmful chemicals which is sprayed and even injected in the vegetables to make them look fresh and healthy.

A portion of the backyard of a house has a triangular-shaped garden, on which vegetables are grown in a circular shape.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 1
If the triangular garden ABC is right-angled at B and the sides AB, BC and AC of the garden touches the circular region with centre O at points P, Q and R. respectively with AB = 8 m and BC = 6 m, then answer the following questions.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 2
(A) If the length side AP of the garden is 5 m, find the lengths of side BQ and CR. (2)
(B) Find the radius of the circular region which is inscribed in the triangular garden. (2)
Answer:
(A) Given: AP = 5 m
Also, AB = 8 m, BC = 6 m
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ AP = AR = 5m,
BP = BQ,
CQ = CR
Now, BQ = BP = AB – AP
= 8 – 5
= 3
and, CR = CQ = BC – BQ
= 6 – 3
= 3 m
∴ BQ = CR = 3 m

(B) Let radius of the circle be r m.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 24
∴ OP = OQ = OR = r m
We have, AB = 8 m, BC = 6 m
Also, AC = 10 m [Applying Pythogoras theorem in ΔABC]

Now,
ar(ΔABC) = ar(ΔAOB) + ar(ΔBOC) + ar(ΔAOC)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) x BC x AB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x AB x OP + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x BC x OQ+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) x AC x OR
⇒\(\frac{1}{2}\) x 6 x 8 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 8 x r + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 6 x r + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 10 xr
⇒ 24 = 4r+ 3r+ Sr
⇒ 24 = 12r
⇒ r = 2m
Hence, radius of the cirde is 2 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 14.
Case Study-2
A bird bath is a small shallow pond, or fountain, created like a basin in which birds may drink, bathe and cool themselves.

One day, Aniket, a student of class IV, saw some birds drinking water from potholes. He feels sad for them and asked his elder brother, Anshumann, who is in class X, to make a bird-bath. His brother bought some material from their store and prepare a bird bath in the shape of a cylinder with a hemispherical depression at one end as shown in the figure.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 3

If the height of cylinderical part of bird-bath of 1.4 m and diameter of base is 70 cm, then answer the following questions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 4

(A) Find the total surface area of the bird-bath. (2)
(B) Find the ratio of the volumes of cylindrical part and the hemispherical parts of the bird bath. (2)
Answer:
We have,
Radius of hemisphere = Radius of cylinder = \(\frac{70}{2}\) = 35 cm
and, Height of cylinder = 1.4 m
= 140 cm
∴ TSA of bird bath = CSA of cylindrical part + Area of base of cylinder + CSA of hemispherical part
= 2πrh + πr2 + 2πr2
= πr(2h + r + 2r)
= πr(2h + 3r)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 35(2 x 140 + 3 x 35)
= 22 x 5(280 + 105)
= 110 x 385
= 42350 cm2

Volume of cylindrical part = πr2h
Volume of hemispherical part = \(\frac{2}{3}\) ≠ r3
∴ Required ratio = \(\frac{\neq r^{2} h}{\frac{2}{3} \neq r^{3}}=\frac{3 h}{2 r}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 140}{2 \times 35}=\frac{6}{1}\)
Hence, the ratio of volumes of cylindrical and hemispherical parts is 6:1.

The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

Online Education for The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Address Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers

The Address MCQ Chapter 2 Class 11 Question 1.
After reading “The Address”, how would you describe Mrs. Dorling?
(a) Materialistic
(b) Selfish
(c) Opportunist
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


The Address Class 11 MCQ Chapter 2 Question 2.
In total, how many times did the author visit the given address?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Never

Answer

Answer: (a) Twice


The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 3.
The author had come to visit Mrs. Dorling _______ the war.
(a) during
(b) before
(c) after
(d) Not mentioned in the story

Answer

Answer: (c) after


The Address MCQ Questions Chapter 2 Class 11 Question 4.
At the end, what does the author decide?
(a) To forget the address
(b) To visit next year again
(c) To remember the address forever
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) To forget the address


MCQ Of The Address Class 11 Chapter 2 Question 5.
Why did the author leave Mrs. Dorling in a hurry?
(a) Because she was getting late for the train
(b) Because she no longer wanted to stay there
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Class 11 The Address MCQ Chapter 2 Question 6.
According to the author, when do we notice the things in the house?
(a) When they are out of our sight
(b) When they are used
(c) When they are shown
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) When they are out of our sight


MCQs Of The Address Chapter 2 Class 11 Question 7.
In what condition did the author find the living room?
(a) Haphazard
(b) Well arranged
(c) Empty
(d) Old fashioned

Answer

Answer: (a) Haphazard


The Address MCQ Class 11 Chapter 2 Question 8.
“I was in a room I knew and did not know.” What does author mean by this?
(a) She saw familiar things but in unfamiliar surroundings
(b) She saw unfamiliar things but in familiar surroundings
(c) She did not recognize the things she saw
(d) She did not want to remember anything

Answer

Answer: (a) She saw familiar things but in unfamiliar surroundings


MCQ On The Address Chapter 2 Class 11 Question 9.
Unlike Mrs. Dorling, her daughter was __________ towards the author.
(a) rude
(b) mature
(c) hospitable
(d) mean

Answer

Answer: (c) hospitable


The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Question 10.
Why had the author come to visit Mrs. Dorling?
(a) Because Mrs. Dorling had belongings of author’s mother
(b) Because Mrs. Dorling called her
(c) Because she missed Mrs. Dorling
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Because Mrs. Dorling had belongings of author’s mother


The Address Class 11 MCQs Chapter 2 Question 11.
How does the author describe Mrs. Dorling when she saw her the first time during the war?
(a) A woman with a broad back
(b) A woman with a round back
(c) A woman with a straight back
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) A woman with a broad back


Address Class 11 MCQ Chapter 2 Question 12.
Mrs. Dorling took the possessions of the things on the pretence of __________.
(a) using them
(b) selling them
(c) keeping them safe
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) keeping them safe


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 English The Address MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Online Education for Speech Writing Format CBSE Class 11 Examples, Samples, Topics

Speech Writing Class 11

Though speech is essentially an essay, it is significantly different. Whereas an essay or an article is read by people at a distance in time and place, a speech is delivered ‘live’ to an audience. This fact determines, to a great extent, the language and style of the composition.

A speech consists of the words spoken by a person to a gathering. The speaker could be a leader, a learned man, a man in a position of power and authority or an ordinary person, a student. The ‘address’, the language and style are determined by the occasion and the audience.

This grammar section explains Online Education English Grammar in a clear and simple way. There are example sentences to show how the language is used. NCERT Solutions for Class 11 English will help you to write better answers in your Class 11 exams. Because the Solutions are solved by subject matter experts. https://ncertmcq.com/speech-writing-format-cbse-class-11/

Online Education for Speech Writing Format CBSE Class 11 Examples, Samples, Topics

Speech Writing Class 11

♦ Format:

(a) Address the gathering, e.g., Respected Principal, teachers, students, Good Morning.
(b) Speech in three or four paragraphs.
(c) A speech ends with Thank you. The speaker thanks the listeners for their patient hearing. Content:

♦ Content:

According to the occasion, you may include quotations. Organise the speech into introduction, main points and conclusion.

Language and style should be a mingling of the serious and conversational modes.

Speech Topics For Class 11 Question 1.
You are Mukesh/Mukta of Saket. You have been reading the news items on Nithari killings. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be given in the morning assembly, stressing the need of keeping a close vigil on the anti-social elements of the locality and taking care of young children of the area so that they don’t fall prey to bad characters.
Answer:

Crimes Against Children
by Mukta (XIA)

Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends. Good Morning. I am Mukta of Class XI. Today I would like to share my views with you on crimes against children. It is a horrifying reality with which we have to contend.

Some recent tragic events have opened our eyes to the magnitude of crimes against children. Mostly, children are kidnapped for ransom if they are from rich families, or for begging and stealing if they are from ordinary families. Cases of child abuse are growing in alarming proportions.

The most disgusting and horrifying of these cases was the one discovered at Noida, where the owner- servant team carried out dastardly crimes against children behind closed doors. Investigations are unveiling horrible acts.

In such a scenario, it is imperative that parents take good care of their children. Children should be trained not to.trust strangers.

The security of a neighbourhood depends on the alertness of the citizens. We have a tremendous responsibility towards our youngsters.

I hope my words will make you think about the matter.
Thank you

Format Of Speech Writing For Class 11 Question 2.
Children usually come to school without taking breakfast in the morning and eat junk food from the school canteen. This habit affects adversely the performance of students in academics and sports. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be given in your school assembly about ‘How Health is Affected by Lifestyle’.
Answer:

How Health is Affected by Lifestyle

Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends,

Good morning, I am Mamta of XI A, and I wish to speak to you on a very important matter. I wish to speak to you on how our health is affected by our lifestyle.

Yesterday, a class VI student fainted in the assembly. The reason was that she had not taken her breakfast of porridge, fruit and milk. She wanted noodles only with coffee!

Friends, the breakfast her mother had prepared was nutritious, it would have given her energy for the whole day. If we fill our stomach, meal after meal, with junk food, how shall we grow tall and strong? How will we get the energy for mental work?

Like food, rest is an important part of our lifestyle. My friend Roshan was unable to answer his English paper in the unit test; he was feeling sleepy. He had studied till 3 a.m. because he thought English could be studied in a few hours. Had he been regular in work and study, he would have done well, for he is very intelligent.

My last word is for my obese friends who form almost 30% of our student body. Exercise, exercise and regular exercise is the answer to your problems.

I sincerely hope you will improve your lifestyle to be healthier and stronger.

Thank You.

♦ Analysis:

  1. Notice that the speech opens with an address to the listeners. They are addressed in order of importance. Do not forget to address the student audience.
  2. Notice the conclusion. The speech ends with thanking the audience.
  3. Notice that the language and style are more conversational than that of an article.
  4. The structure of the content of a speech is very similar to that of an article/essay, i.e., having an introduction, main body and conclusion.

Speech Format Class 11 Question 3.
A recent survey by the Ministry of Health shows that the growing tendency of obesity among children today is caused by addiction to junk food and lack of physical exercise, and it adversely affects their learning power. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be delivered in the morning assembly of the school highlighting the importance of good health and motivating the children to eat healthy, balanced diet.
Answer:

Side Effects of Junk Food

Respected Principal, Vice Principal, teachers, and dear friends. Good morning.

I am grateful to the Principal, Dr N. Ravi, for giving me this opportunity to speak on a matter that is close to the heart of all teenagers.

As I stand here, I can see about eight to ten overweight students in each class line. Surely, they are embarrassed and have become the butt of jokes. To look fit and trim is vital for a good personality.

Friends, I want you to look at your daily routine and see what you are doing to get this bulky figure. Are you excessively fond of cold drinks, pizzas and hamburgers? Do you love to sit before TV and munch wafers and packaged chips of all brands ? Is your favorite snack during the long break everyday a spicy oily ‘samosa’ or ‘bread pakora’?

Later in the evening do you just sit indoors and work on your computer, complete your homework or watch TV ?

If the answer to these questions is ‘Yes’, you know why you have this ungainly figure. In order to be slim and athletic, you need to eat right, exercise briskly in fresh air and live a disciplined life. The food that your mother prepares is what you should consume rather than junk food.

Thank you

Format Of Speech Writing Class 11 Question 4.
With the visual media technology overtaking the print-media, you have observed a decline in the people’s interest in reading books. You are disturbed by this excessive dependence of the young on television and computer games as the source of entertainment. Write a speech in 150-200 words for your school magazine on the “Pleasures of Reading” or “The Company of Books. ”
Answer:

The Pleasures of Reading
by ABC

Reading affords pleasure like no other activity. It is deeply fulfilling and satisfying. While reading, the reader is in direct communication with the writer, however distant he may be in time or space. The reader is fully focussed and enjoys the content as well as the beauty and power of language. Reading offers an infinite variety according to one’s taste. Knowledge, imagination and the reader’s own appreciation of the written word are some of the rewards of reading. If one is adventurous, one can venture into unknown cultures through books. For example, a reading of Tolstoy or Chekhov gives us an insight into the life of the Russians as a reading of Dickens gives us of the British, particularly of London dwellers.

Reading makes us more sensitive to human greatness as well as human suffering. A reading of Premchand’s short stories acquaints us with the strengths and weaknesses of human character. The classics of literature are eternal in their appeal.

Unfortunately, today most of us visit the celluloid version of Sharat Chandra’s ‘Devdas’ three four times, and the original printed one not even once.

Speech Writing Format Class 11 Question 5.
The world that we are living in is under a great threat of extinction. Large scale pollution, deforestation and industrialization are suffocating the environment. You, as a concerned citizen, want to share the causes and effects of global warming. You would also like to give a few suggestions on how to contribute to the making of a better world. As Vivek/Vineeta Arora, Head Boy/Girl of the school, prepare a speech on this issue for the morning assembly under the heading “The Hazards of Global Warming”. (150-200 words)
Answer:

The Hazards of Global Warming

Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends,

This morning, I wish to draw your attention to the catastrophe that is slowly and surely coming towards us. I am talking about the hazards of global warming.

Some of my friends may not be aware of ‘global warming’. This term means the rise of the temperature of the atmosphere surrounding our planet. This is happening because of over industrialisation, large-scale pollution and deforestation. Hot emissions from industry and release of chemicals in the air are making the atmosphere of the earth warmer.

What are the hazards of global warming? Already, the polar ice caps have started melting. This can bring disaster to the world. Huge glaciers in the Himalayas and other mountains are shrinking. This will cause a rise in the sea level and will eventually lead to the flooding of coastal areas. Global warming will also bring about changes in the world climate. There will be excess rains, floods, unbearable heat and cold. These changes will surely bring disaster to the flora and fauna of our planet.

What can we do about this problem? The countries need to exercise discipline ajpout putting up industries. Effective measures to control pollution are needed.

Friends, I have tried to acquaint you with the problem the whole world is facing.

Thank you.

Speech Writing Class 11 Format Question 6.
You are the Class Representative, Class XI of Gandhi Memorial School, Pushp Vihar. You have been asked to prepare a speech on the need to imbibe principles of truthfulness, gentleness and cooperation to counter the growing violence in today’s world. Write this speech in 150-200 words.
Answer:

Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends,

Today, I wish to speak to you on the very familiar subject of values like truthfulness, gentleness and cooperation. If we wish to counter the growing violence around us, these values are the only recourse open to us. (Develop these points).

Truthfulness – the basis of social stability – will rid society of deceit and fraud – example of Gandhiji! who could defeat the mighty British with the weapon of truth.

Gentleness – tolerance of the other colour, religion and caste, patience and compassion advocated by Buddha and Mahavir.

Cooperation – inevitable in the era of globalization.

Thank you

Speech Class 11 Question 7.
You are Rajini/Rajat Gaur. After seeing some obese children in your school, you are worried about
the craze for junk food and electronic gadgets in students. Write a speech to be read out in the morning assembly highlighting the need to have good eating habits and the benefits of outdoor activities. (Word limit: 150-200 words)
Answer:

Respected principal, teachers and dear friends. Today I am standing before you to express my views on the topic “obesity among school children”. Obesity has become a cause of concern for one and all. With the entry of companies like McDonalds, Kentucky chicken, wimpeys, Pizza Huts, etc. the concept of fast food has spread like a wild fire. More and more school children have taken to chocolates and soft drinks without worrying for colories. The result is obesity increasing by leaps and bounds among school children.

‘Junk food’ appeals to our taste buds but our digestive system repels it. Oil and extra fat harm our liver. We put on flesh and increase our weight. Fresh home cooked meals are hygenic, better and full of vitamins. Minerals can be easily digested. Our food should consist of coarse cereals, green and leafy vegetables, fruits, and pulses, etc. To keep ourselves agile, energetic and robust, we must do physical exercises, play games like football, badminton, kabbaddi, volleyball, etc.

By eating healthy food, doing regular physical activities not only our body will be healthy and toned our minds would remain active. I hope you all will give some consideration to my suggestion and try to instil it in your daily routine.

Thank you all for giving me a patient hearing.

Speech Writing Examples For Class 11 Question 8.
Yoga is beneficial. Speak about the benefits of yoga in the morning assembly. (Word limit: 150-200)
Answer:

Respected Principal, teachers and friends, a very good morning to one and all. Today I am standing before you to express my views on the benefits of practising yoga.

Many of us perform yoga but do we know what this entails and why is it performed? Basically yoga is a means to attain balance in our body, i.e., gaining strength, increasing flexibility and attaining spirituality. Postures and asanas are an indispensable part of yoga. These are performed keeping in mind all the body parts, combining breathing practices, and include guided mediation, Yoga is a union between body and mind. In other words, we can say it is a balance between mind and helps us keep ourselves fit and fine.

Yoga has the potential to cure many diseases like respiratory problem, abdominal problem and diseases related to the nervous system. Yoga helps in releasing toxins, reduces stress and increases concentration. In short, yoga helps us keep disease-free, happy, wealthy, wise and toned up. Yoga is a never-ending process. The deeper you delve into it the more fruitfull will be the results.

I would like to end my speech on this note.

Online Education for Water in the Atmosphere Class 11 Important Extra Questions Geography Chapter 11

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Online Education Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere

Water in the Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the greatest source of atmospheric moisture?
Answer:
The surface of the ocean is the greatest source of atmospheric moisture.

Question 2.
What is meant by humidity?
Answer:
The state of the atmosphere with respect to its content of moisture or water vapour is called humidity.

Question 3.
What is meant by sensible temperature?
Answer:
It is the cold or heat felt by the human body, depending not only on actual temperature but also on relative humidity and wind.

Question 4.
Name three states in which water exists.
Answer:
Water exists in three states or forms:

  1. Solid (ice),
  2. Liquid (water),
  3. Gas (water vapour).

Question 5.
What is the measure of absolute humidity?
Answer:
Absolute humidity is measured in grams per cubic metre (g/m3).

Question 6.
What is the dew point?
Answer:
It is the temperature at which air, on cooling, becomes saturated with water vapour, and below which condensation begins and dew forms.

Question 7.
Why dew and frost form on grass quite readily?
Answer:
Because grass is a good radiator and, therefore, cools quickly.

Question 8.
Identify various forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Various forms of precipitation include rainfall, snowfall, hail, sleet and drizzle.

Question 9.
Name three types of precipitation.
Answer:
The three types of precipitation are convectional, orographic and cyclonic precipitation.

Question 10.
How does precipitation take place?
Answer:
Precipitation takes place as a result of the continued condensation and growth of the moisture particles until they become too large to remain suspended in the air.

Question 11.
What is the source of atmospheric moisture?
Answer:
The oceanic surface is the main source of atmospheric moisture.

Question 12.
Which factors control evaporation?
Answer:
There are three main factors which control evaporation:

  1. aridity,
  2. temperature,
  3. movement of air.

Question 13.
Name the various types of clouds.
Answer:
Cirrus clouds, stratus clouds, stratocumulus and cumulus clouds.

Question 14.
What are the different types of fog?
Answer:
Fogs are of three types: radiating, advection and frontal fog.

Question 15.
What is condensation?
Answer:
Cooling of saturated air is called condensation.

Question 16.
What are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:
Rainfall is of three types: convectional, orographic and cyclonic rainfall.

Question 17.
What is sublimation?
Answer:
The process of conversion of ice into liquid or vapour is known as sublimation.

Question 18.
Name the temperature at which a given sample of air becomes saturated.
Answer:
Dew point.

Question 19.
What do you mean by saturated air?
Answer:
The air that contains moisture to full capacity.

Question 20.
What is relative humidity?
Answer:
The ratio of the amount of water vapour actually presents in the air at a particular temperature to the amount of water vapour required to saturate the same air at the same temperature.

Question 21.
What is sleet?
Answer:
The falling of frozen raindrops and frozen melted snow on the earth’s surface is known as sleet.

Question 22.
Name the various types of humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity, specific humidity and relative humidity.

Water in the Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe various processes involved in the change of state (form) of water.
Answer:
Water exists in three forms, solid (ice), liquid (water) and gas-(vapour). All three states are interchangeable. The change of solid to ‘ liquid is called melting; from liquid to solid is freezing; from liquid to gas is evaporation and from gas to liquid is condensation. But sometimes ice directly converts into vapour or vice-versa. This is called sublimation.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-1

Question 2.
Describe various sources of atmospheric moisture on the earth.
Answer:
The surface of the ocean is the greatest source of atmospheric moisture. Besides, smaller water bodies, vegetation and damp surfaces also contribute significant amounts of moisture.

Question 3.
What is relative humidity and how is it measured?
Answer:
The amount of water vapour in the air compared with the amount that would be present if the air was saturated at that temperature. It is expressed in percentage determined by dividing the absolute humidity by water holding capacity of air. If the air is saturated, its relative humidity is 100%; if only half saturated, the relative humidity. is 50%. Since the capacity of air for absorbing and retaining moisture varies with temperature, the relative humidity of air mass can be altered by merely lowering its temperature without changing the actual amount of moisture present in it.

Question 4.
Discuss the reasons which impede the formation of dew or frost.
Answer:
On cool nights in early winter, when Radiation from the ground is relatively rapid, the air in contact with the ground may be chilled to the dew point and moisture condenses on the leaves and grass in the form of dew. If the dew point is below the freezing point, the condensation takes place in the form of ice crystals or frost. The formation of dew or frost is impeded by

  1. Dry air,
  2. Wind mixes the air and prevents its lower portion from reaching the dew point, and
  3. Clouds which slow down terrestrial radiation.

Question 5.
What are the middle clouds?
Answer:
The clouds which form at height of2000-7000 km. above the ground are called middle clouds. Altostratus and altocumulus are examples.

Altostratus – It is a uniform sheet of cloud, grey or bluish in colour and usually has a fibrous structure.

Altocumulus – These are flattened globular masses of clouds arranged in lines or waves. They have large globules with shadows.

Question 6.
Why does the amount of water vapour decrease rapidly with altitude?
Answer:
Water vapour in the atmosphere is the result of the evaporation of water from the earth’s surface, a continual process dependent on air. Since the air becomes thinner with the altitude, so also does the water vapour.

Question 7.
What is condensation and how does it take place?
Answer:
Condensation is the process of water vapour changing to a liquid state. If the air is cooled below its dew point, some of the air’s water vapour becomes liquid. Thus, any amount of cooling of saturated air starts the process of condensation. Condensation may start with the addition of any further water vapour to the saturated air, or with the reduction of its temperature.

Question 8.
What is precipitation? What are the conditions to determine the form of precipitation?
Answer:
Precipitation is a process of condensation of water vapour in ‘ the atmosphere which falls to the earth in the form of rain, snow, hail or sleet. These are the various forms of precipitation.
Conditions for precipitation.

  1. There should be evaporation so that the relative humidity is „ high in the air.
  2. There should be adiabatic cooling of the moist air.
  3. There should be dust particles in the air.

Question 9.
What are the effects of humidity?
Answer:
The main effects of humidity are:

  1. The skin of the human body starts to crack due to low relative humidity.
  2. It causes joint pain in the human body.
  3. The high relative humidity is harmful to the human body.
  4. The joints of furniture get loosened.

Question 10.
Why does the amount of water vapour decrease rapidly with altitude?
Answer:
The amount of water in the atmosphere is variable from place to place and from time to time. It decreases rapidly with altitude. The temperature decreases as the altitude increases.

Question 11.
How is rainfall caused?
Answer:
The moist air is cooled, saturated and condensation takes place. Water vapour condenses on a large number of dust particles to form clouds.

The cloud droplets merge to form raindrops. When these raindrops become so heavy that air cannot hold them, these fall on the earth in the form of rainfall. The release of moisture in the form of drops of water is called rainfall.

Question 12.
Describe the conditions for the formation of dew.
Answer:
Following are the favourable conditions for the formation of dew:

  1. Clear sky
  2. Calmness, i.e., the wind should not blow
  3. High relative humidity
  4. Rich vegetation cover
  5. Long nights

Water in the Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
1. Relative humidity and Absolute humidity.
2. Evaporation and Condensation.
3. Dew and Frost.
Answer:
1. Relative humidity and Absolute humidity:
Relative humidity:
The amount of water vapour in the air compared with the amount that would be present if the air was saturated at that temperature. It is expressed in percentage determined by dividing the absolute humidity by water holding capacity of air. If the air is saturated, its relative humidity is 100%; if only half saturated, the relative humidity. is 50%. Since the capacity of air for absorbing and retaining moisture varies with temperature, the relative humidity of air mass can be altered by merely lowering its temperature without changing the actual amount of moisture present in it.

Absolute humidity:
It is the actual amount of water vapour present per unit volume of air and it is measured in grams per cubic meter.

2. Evaporation and Condensation
Evaporation is the process by which a solid or liquid is converted to a gaseous state or vapour. It occurs whenever energy is transported to an evaporated surface and temperature rises. The molecules become more mobile and overcome the forces binding them to the water surface and break away resulting in evaporation.

Condensation:
Condensation is the process of water vapour changing to a liquid state. If the air is cooled below its dew point, some of the air’s water vapour becomes liquid. Thus, any amount of cooling of saturated air starts the process of condensation. Condensation may start with the addition of any further water vapour to the saturated air, or with the reduction of its temperature.

3. Dew and Frost:
Dew: When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects, such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. Clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, cold and long nights are the ideal conditions for the formation of dew.

Frost: Frost forms on cold surfaces at a dew point which is at or below the freezing point when an excess of moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of droplets of water.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Convectional precipitation
(b) Cyclonic precipitation
(c) Orographic precipitation
Answer:
(a) Convectional precipitation:
It occurs when moist air over the heated ground becomes warmer than the surrounding air and is forced to rise, expand, cool and yield some of its moisture.

Convectional rain is common in low latitudes and usually comes in the form of short heavy showers, often during the hottest part of the day. Thunder and lightning generally accompany the showers. If the convection currents are especially strong and turbulent, hail is formed.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-2

(b) Cyclonic precipitation:
It occurs in low-pressure areas, where cyclonic winds coming from various directions converge and force the large volumes of light air to rise and cause rain.

Cyclonic precipitation is generally associated with the passage of depression in middle or high latitudes, as the warm moist air mass of the depression rises and over-rides colder, heavier air.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-3

(c) Orographic precipitation:
It is caused due to relief. It occurs when the moist wind is forced to rise over a mountain or any other height. Precipitation occurs due to cooling of moisture-laden air as it rises over a high relief barrier. It happens, particularly on the windward slopes! On the other side of the barrier or on the leeward side of the slopes, there develops rain shadow area with no or very little rainfall because as the moisture-laden wind descends down the slope, after precipitating on the windward side, it becomes warmer and drier. Such a situation occurs along the western coasts of Qudra, North America and South America. The moist air from the Arabian Sea is forced by Sahyadri hills of the Western Ghats to rise up resulting in expansion, cooling and rainfall.

Amount of precipitation depends on slope, the height of the hills, temperature and moisture content of the air mass. On the other side of the mountain, the descending wind is devoid of moisture and, hence, does not give rain. The eastern slope of Sahyadri mountains in India falls in the rain shadow area.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-4

Question 3.
Describe the factors controlling the rate of evaporation and evapotranspiration.
Answer:
vaporation is the process by which liquid water or ice changes into water vapour. It occurs whenever energy is transported to an evaporated surface and temperature rises. The molecules become more mobile and overcome the forces binding them to the water surface and break away resulting in evaporation.

Evapotranspiration, on the other hand, is the amount of moisture transferred to the atmosphere by evaporation of liquid and solid water plus transpiration from living tissues principally from the plants.

Factors like the temperature of the air, source of moisture, vegetation cover, latitude, permeability and water retention effect evaporation and evapotranspiration.

Evaporation depends upon air temperature. Greater the temperature, higher is the rate of evaporation and so on. Therefore, the highest rate of evaporation occurs in deserts in conditions Of great heat and lack of surface cone.

The surface of oceans is the greatest source of atmospheric moisture.

Vegetation is an important factor, particularly in evapotranspiration. Because, under transpiration, the loss of water takes place from the green plants resulting in a stream of water with dissolved mineral salts surfing up through the plants.

Question 4.
Describe the various forms of precipitation and the major precipitation regimes of the world.
Answer:
Precipitation results from the continued condensation and growth of the moisture particles until they become too large to remain suspended in the air.

If condensation takes place at a temperature above 0°C, the resulting precipitation is in the form of rain.

If the process through a layer of colder air on the way down, it may freeze and fall as sleet.

In a strong turbulent current of a thunderstorm, water drops may be carried upward into freezing temperatures and eventually fall as hail. In fact, violent air currents may keep hailstones shuttling up and down until they grow to enormous sizes.

When the more. moisture crystallises into ice particles from vapour at a temperature below freezing point, it called snow. If snowflakes grow without interference, they form beautiful symmetrical, six-sided Crystals.

Ice-storms result when rain, already near the freezing point, falls on colder ground and vegetation and freezes upon contact.

Major precipitation regimes:
(a) Convectional precipitation:
It occurs when moist air over the heated ground becomes warmer than the surrounding air and is forced to rise, expand, cool and yield some of its moisture.

Convectional rain is common in low latitudes and usually comes in the form of short heavy showers, often during the hottest part of the day. Thunder and lightning generally accompany the showers. If the convection currents are especially strong and turbulent, hail is formed.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-2

(b) Cyclonic precipitation:
It occurs in low-pressure areas, where cyclonic winds coming from various directions converge and force the large volumes of light air to rise and cause rain.

Cyclonic precipitation is generally associated with the passage of depression in middle or high latitudes, as the warm moist air mass of the depression rises and over-rides colder, heavier air.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-3

(c) Orographic precipitation:
It is caused due to relief. It occurs when the moist wind is forced to rise over a mountain or any other height. Precipitation occurs due to cooling of moisture-laden air as it rises over a high relief barrier. It happens, particularly on the windward slopes! On the other side of the barrier or on the leeward side of the slopes, there develops rain shadow area with no or very little rainfall because as the moisture-laden wind descends down the slope, after precipitating on the windward side, it becomes warmer and drier. Such a situation occurs along the western coasts of Qudra, North America and South America. The moist air from the Arabian Sea is forced by Sahyadri hills of the Western Ghats to rise up resulting in expansion, cooling and rainfall.

Amount of precipitation depends on slope, the height of the hills, temperature and moisture content of the air mass. On the other side of the mountain, the descending wind is devoid of moisture and, hence, does not give rain. The eastern slope of Sahyadri mountains in India falls in the rain shadow area.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere im-4

Question 5.
Why dew is not formed on cloudy, windy nights and in shady places?
Answer:
Dew is formed when objects radiate heat thoroughly so that the moist air coming into contact with them may be sufficiently cooled down and the water vapour condenses into water droplets. The clouds act as a blanket for the earth’s surface. They check the radiation of heat so it does not radiate heat thoroughly. Hence, dew is not formed on cloudy nights and in shady places.

Similarly, dew is not formed on windy nights, because the winds blow fast and the moist air does not come long enough into contact with cold objects to get cooled. Hence, condensation does not take place and no dew can be formed.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 कृषिकाः कर्मवीराः with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 कृषिकाः कर्मवीराः with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 कृषिकाः कर्मवीराः with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided कृषिकाः कर्मवीराः Class 6 Sanskrit MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

शुद्ध कथनानां समक्षम् ‘आम्’ अशुद्धकथनानां समक्षम् च ‘न’ इति लिखत- (शुद्ध कथन के सामने ‘आम्’ अशुदध कथन के सामने ‘न’ लिखिए।)
Write ‘yes’ to write and write ‘no’ to wrong sentences.

Online Education Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 MCQ
(i) कृषक: नित्यम् कर्मठः न भवति। – ……………….
(ii) जीर्णम् गृहम् वृष्टिं वारयितुम अक्षमम्। – ………………..
(iii) कृषकः क्षुधा तृषाकुलंः न भवति। – ………………
(iv) कृषकस्य परिश्रमणेन धरा शस्यपूर्णा भवति। – ………………..
(v) कृषकस्य जीवनम् सुखमयम् अस्ति। – ……………..
(vi) शीते कृषकस्य शरीरं सस्वेदं अस्ति। – ……………..

Answer

Answer:
(i) न
(ii) आम्
(iii) न
(iv) आम्
(v) न
(vi) ना


तालिकापूर्ति कुरुत। (तालिकापूर्ति कीजिए)
Complete the table.

Ncert Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 MCQ
Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10 MCQ

Answer

Answer:
(क) हलाभ्याम्, हलैः
(ख) कुदालाभ्याम्, कुदालैः
(ग) क्षेत्रे, क्षेत्राणि
(घ) शरीरे, शरीराणि
(ङ) कर्मठः, कर्मठाः
(च) सः, ते।


बहुवचने परिवर्त्य वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत- (निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को बहुवचन में बदलकर लिखिए)
Rewrite the sentences after changing into plural.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 10
(क) मेघौ जलम् वर्षतः। – …………….
(ख) कृषकः क्षेत्रम् कर्षति। – ……………..
(ग) शरीरे वस्त्रं न अस्ति। – ………………
(घ) सुखं दूरे तिष्ठति। – ………………
(ङ) अहम् कृषकम् पश्यामि। – ………………..

Answer

Answer:
(क) मेघाः जलम् वर्षन्ति।
(ख) कृषकाः क्षेत्रम् कर्षन्ति।
(ग) शरीरे वस्त्राणि न सन्तिा,
(घ) सुखानि दूरे तिष्ठन्ति।
(ङ) वयम् कृषकम् पश्यामः।


अधोदत्तान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत- (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए)
Answer the following questions.

MCQ For Class 6 Sanskrit
(क) केषां श्रमेण क्षेत्राणि सस्यपूर्णानि भवन्ति? ………………
(ख) कृषिकस्य गृहं कदा वृष्टिं वारयितुम् न क्षमम्? ………………
(ग) कृषिकस्य पादयोः को न स्त:? ………………
(घ) कृषिकस्य किं शीते कंपमयं भवति? …………….
(ङ) कृषिकाणां किं न नश्यति? ……………

Answer

Answer:
(क) कृषिकाणां श्रमेण क्षेत्राणि सस्यपूर्णानि भवन्ति।
(ख) कृषिकस्य गृहं वर्षासु वृष्टिं वारयितुम् न क्षमम्।
(ग). कृषिकस्य पादयोः उपानही न स्तः।
(घ) कृषिकस्य शरीरं शीते कंपमयं भवति।
(ङ) कृषिकाणां कर्मवीरत्वं न नश्यति।


उचितं विकल्पम् चित्वा वाक्यपूर्ति कुरुत- (उचित विकल्प चुनकर वाक्य पूरे कीजिए)
Pick out the correct option and complete the sentences.

Class 6 Sanskrit MCQ Questions
1. (i) कृषकाः ………………. क्षेत्राणि कर्षति। (हलः, हलेन, हलम्)
(ii) ……………….. जीवनम् कष्टपूर्णम्। (कृषकम्, कृषकस्य, कृषक:)
(iii) कृषकाः ………………. अन्नम् उत्पादयति। (सर्वे, सर्वभ्यः, सर्वेभ्यः)
(iv) ………… ग्रीष्मे तपति। (सूर्यम्, सूर्यः, सूर्य)
(v) कृषकाणां ………… धरा सरसा भवति। (श्रमम्, श्रमेन, श्रमेण)

Answer

Answer:
(i) हलेन
(ii) कृषकस्य
(iii) सर्वेभ्यः
(iv) सूर्यः
(v) श्रमेण।


Sanskrit MCQ Questions Class 6
2. (i) ग्रीष्मे शरीरं ……………… (सस्वेदम्, कंपमयम्, कष्टम्)
(i) …………. दूरे हि तिष्ठति। (सुखम्, दुःखम्, गृहम्)
(iii) तौ कुदालेन क्षेत्राणि …………… (कर्षति, कर्षतः, कर्षन्ति)
(iv) ………… विपुलं जलं वर्षन्ति। (मेघः, मेघौ, मेघाः)
(v) ……………. कर्मवीरत्वं न नश्यति। (कृषकानाम्, कृषकम्, कृषकाणाम्)

Answer

Answer:
(i) सस्वेदम्
(ii) सुखम्
(iii) कर्षतः
(iv) मेघाः
(v) कृषकाणाम्।


3. (i) तथापि ……….. + ………… । (तथा + पि; तथा + अपि; तथ + आपि)
(ii) शाकमन्नम् = ……….. + ………….. । (शाक + मन्नम्, शा + कमन्नम्, शाकम् + अन्नम्)
(iii) तृषाकुलौ ………. + …………. । (तृषा + कुलौ, तृषा + अकुलौ, तृषा + आकुलौ)
(iv) शीतकालेऽपि = ………… + ………….. । (शीतकाले + ऽपि, शीतकाले + अपि, शीतका+ लेऽपि)
(v) कण्टकावृता = ………….. + ……………. । (कण्टका + वृता; कण्टका+ आवृता; कण्टक + आवृता)

Answer

Answer:
(i) तथा + अपि (आ + अ+ आ)
(ii) शाकम् + अन्नम् (म् + अ = म)
(iii) तृषा + आकुलौ (आ + आ + आ)
(iv) शीतकाले + अपि (अ → 5)
(v) कण्टक + आवृता (अ+ आ = आ)।


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