Distribution of Oceans and Continents Class 11 Important Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents

Distribution of Oceans and Continents Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Pangaea?
Answer:
All landmasses of the world have been formed from one super¬continent called Pangaea.

Question 2.
Who first propounded the theory of continental drift?
Answer:
Alfred Wegner propounded the theory of continental drift in 1912.

Question 3.
Which plate is composed of mainly oceanic crust?
Answer:
The Pacific plate is composed of mainly oceanic crust.

Question 4.
How did the Himalayas rise?
Answer:
The collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian plate took place north of the Indian plate giving rise to the Himalayas.

Question 5.
What is the evidence in support of continental drift theory?
Answer:

  1. Geological matching
  2. Palaeoclimatic unity, and
  3. Palaeornagnetism.

Question 6.
Name the continents into which the supercontinent, Pangaea, got split.
Answer:
They are Laurasia and Gondwanaland.

Question 7.
How many years ago Pangaea, the supercontinent has evolved?
Answer:
Pangaea, the supercontinent, had evolved some 280, million years ago.

Question 8.
What are hot spots?
Answer:
The centers of volcanic activity are called hot spots.

Question 9.
Name the three kinds of boundaries based on their Relative motion.
Answer:

  1. Zones or margins of divergence or spreading,
  2. Margins of convergence, and
  3. Fracture zones or transform faults.

Question 10.
How many plates the lithosphere is divided into?
Answer:
Seven plates.

Question 11.
The collision between which two plates gave rise to the Himalayas?
Answer:
The collision between Indian and Eurasian plates gave rise to the Himalayas.

Question 12.
Name two fossils that tell us that continents were once united.
Answer:
The fossils of the plant Glossopteris and animals Mesosaurus and Lystosaurus, suggests that these continents were once joined.

Question 13.
What is Palaeornagnetism?
Answer:
It is the fossil magnetism evident today in igneous rocks such as magnetite, hematite, pyrrhotite, etc.

Question 14.
What is the Pacific plate?
Answer:
The latest plate in terms of its formation or origin.

Question 15.
What do you understand by the spreading of crust from the ridge and the widening of the ocean basin?
Answer:
It is the seafloor spreading.

Question 16.
Name the northern and southern parts of Pangaea.
Answer:
Laurasia and Gondwanaland.

Question 17.
Name the sea separating Laurasia and Gondwanaland.
Answer:
The Tethys sea.

Question 18.
In which parts Pangaea was split?
Answer:
Pangaea was split into northern continent Laurasia and Southern continent, Gondwanaland.

Question 19.
Name the original supercontinent. When was it formed?
Answer:
Pangaea. It was formed about 280 million years ago.

Question 20.
State three causes of plate movements.
Answer:

  1. Thermal convection,
  2. Hot spots of volcanic activity,
  3. Movement of currents.

Question 21.
What is meant by sea-floor spreading?
Answer:
The crust spreads away from the ridge and the ocean basin widens. This phenomenon is known as sea-floor spreading.

Question 22.
Name the process in which one plate overrides the other and the overriding plate slips down into the mantle and is submerged.
Answer:
Subduction.

Question 23.
What is thermal convection?
Answer:
It acts as a driving force for the movement of plates.

Question 24.
Name the four different types of plate interactions.
Answer:
Spreading, collision, subduction, and transform.

Question 25.
How was drifting of continents caused?
Answer:
It was caused by two forces :

  1. pole fleeing force, and
  2. tidal force.

Distribution of Oceans and Continents Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How do lithosphere plates behave along the transform fault?
Answer:
The lithospheric plates slide over each other, neither creating nor destructing any landmass. Instead, the. friction arising from the f* movement of the plates usually causes severe earthquakes and earth tremors.

Question 2.
Why do geographers focus their attention on plate boundaries?
Answer:
Geographers focus their attention on plate boundaries because each plate is a tectonic plate. It is rigid and moves as a single unit. Nearly all major tectonic activity occurs along the plate boundaries.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘supercontinent’ refer to?
Answer:
The term ’supercontinent’ refers to a single common geological landmass called Pangaea. It has been proposed that all landmasses of the world had formed from this ‘supercontinent’. Pangaea had evolved some 280 million years ago, at the end of the Carboniferous period and by mid-Jurassic age, 150 million years ago. Pangaea land split into Laurasia, the northern continent, and Gondwanaland, the southern continent. About 65 million years ago, i.e. at the end of the cretaceous, bound mainland were further broken up to give rise to several other continents such as South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica.

Question 4.
Discuss the causes of plate movement.
Answer:
Sub-crustal convection currents invoke the mechanism of thermal convection that acts as a driving force for the movement of plates. Hot currents rise, then cool as they reach the surface. At the same time, cool currents sink down. This convectional movement moves the crustal plates. .. Owing to current movements, the rigid plates of the lithosphere, which ‘float’ on more mobile asthenosphere, are in constant motion.

Question 5.
What is a geological time-scale?
Answer:
The chronology of the geological history’ of the earth is revealed by its rocks. Geological time scale indicates the hierarchy of time periods during which different rocks of the earth have formed.

Question 6.
What is subduction?
Answer:
The process in which the overridden plate slips down into the mantle and is submerged is known as subduction. Besides volcanism and shallow to deep-focus earthquakes, boundaries also formed deep trenches and folded mountains.

Question 7.
What is polar wandering?
Answer:
There has been a periodic change in the position of the magnetic pole. These changes are recorded in rocks by way of permanent magnetism. Unraveling of the signatures of such changes in the geologically old rocks by scientific methods provides the changing position of poles in geological time scale. It is known as ‘polar wandering’. It demonstrates that the continents have frequently moved and changed their direction of motion from time to time.

Question 8.
Account for the formation of the Himalayas according to the theory of plate tectonics in three points.
Answer:

  1. South-east Indian ocean ridge collided between the Indian plate and European plate. The Indian plate gave rise to the Himalayas.
  2. The suture between the Indian and Eurasian plates in the Himalayan region has been along the Indus and Brahmaputra.
  3. The mid-Indian ocean ridge has been spreading faster.

Question 9.
What is ‘Zolrt of Convergence’?
Answer:
Zone of Convergence is the boundary along which the edge of ‘ one plate overrides the other. It produces deep trenches and folds mountains. Volcanoes and deep-focus earthquakes mark it.

Question 10.
Describe the driving force for the movement of plates.
Answer:
The sub-crustal convection currents invoke the mechanism of thermal convection that acts as a driving force for the movement of plates. As these currents reach the surface, the hot current rises, then cools. Sometimes, cooler currents sink down. This type of convectional movement causes the movement of crustal plates.

Question 11.
Name the major plates of the earth. Which plate is composed of the oceanic plate?
Answer:
Pacific plate, Eurasian plate, Indo-Australian plate, African plate, North American plate, South American plate, and Antarctica plate are the major plates of the earth.

The zone of divergence is the boundary along which the plate is composed of mainly oceanic crust. It is known as the Pacific plate.

Question 12.
What is palaeoclimatic unity?
Answer:
The uniformity in the nature of the sediment in the biological past indicates that these continents were together in the geological past and experienced similar climatic conditions. It is the native of glacial deposits of the separated continents indicating that these continents were together in the geological past and experienced similar climatic conditions.

Distribution of Oceans and Continents Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘jig-saw-fit’? Describe the similarities found on the east and west coasts of the Atlantic ocean. What do they suggest?
Answer:
The ‘jig-saw-fit’ means the landmasses on the east and west coast of the Atlantic ocean can be fitted together. There are many similarities found on the two coasts :

  1. The Gulf of Guinea can be fitted into Cape San-Rogue of Brazil, the shoulder of Africa can be fitted into Gulf of Mexico, Western Europe and Eastern coast of North America along with Greenland can be fitted together.
  2. Gold deposits of Ghana lands are found on the east and in Brazil on the west.
  3. The glacial deposits are found in all landmasses of Gondwana land.

These similarities suggest that these continents were together in the geological past.

Question 2.
Discuss the Continental Drift Theory.
Answer:
Continental Drift Theory was proposed by Alfred Wegner in 1912. He postulated that all landmasses of the world have been formed from one super-continent called Pangaea.

The supercontinent, Pangaea, had evolved some 280 million years ago, at the end of the Carboniferous period and by the mid-Jurrasic age, 150 million years ago. Pangaea had split into a northern continent, Laurasia, and a southern continent Gondwanaland. About 65 million years ago, i.e., at the end of the Cretaceous, Gondwanaland further broke up to give rise to several other continents, such as South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica. Thus, the present distribution of the continental masses and the oceans are the n .uit of fragmentation of one or more pre-existing masses. These landmasses have drifted apart the intervening hollows having been occupied by the oceans.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents im-1
There are several pieces of evidence that suggest the existence of Pangaea. This evidence is available in the form of geological watching, palaeoclimatic units, and paleomagnetism.

Question 3.
Describe sea-floor spreading in brief.
Answer:
The present distribution of continents has taken place in the last 65 million years. The drift of continents still continues. The ridges down the middle of ocean floors have been emitting lava continuously. Those mid-oceanic ridges are cracks on the floor of the ocean where molten rocks push up to form a new crust. The crust spreads among the ridge and the ocean basin widens. This phenomenon is known as sea-floor spreading. The Atlantic ocean is getting smaller and the Red Sea is the part of a crack in the crust that will widen to produce new ocean millions of years ahead in the future. In the past, the widening of the South Atlantic ocean has separated Africa and South America.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents im-2

Question 4.
Explain the plate tectonic theory and its mechanism.
Answer:
Plate tectonic theory proves that the earth’s crust consists of several plates that carry continents and the ocean floors and float on the asthenosphere, moving very slowly, the movement probably resulting from currents in the asthenosphere. As shown in fig., the lithosphere is broken into seven major plates. They include :

  1. Pacific plate
  2. Eurasian plate
  3. Indo-Australian plate
  4. African plate
  5. North American plate
  6. South American plate
  7. Antarctic plate

The latest among these is the Pacific plate which is composed of oceanic crust almost entirely. The other plates have both continental and ocean crust. No plate consists of only continental crust. Plates range in thickness from about 70 km. beneath oceans to 150 km. under continents. Each tectonic plate is rigid and moves on a single unit. Nearly all major tectonic activities occur along the plate boundaries.

Based on the relative motion of plates, three kinds of plate boundaries have been recognized. They are :
1. Zones of divergence: These are boundaries along which plates separate and in the process of separation molten materials upwell. This is commonly observed along linear ocean edge where the new lithosphere is created in the form of new ocean floors. Active volcanism and shallow focus earthquakes make such boundaries,

2. Zones of convergence: There are the boundaries along which, the edge of one plate overrides the other. The overridden plate slips down into the mantle and is absorbed. This process is known as subduction.

3. Fracture zones or Transform faults: The plates slide past each other effect creating or destructing the boundaries. However, shallow focus earthquakes may result due to this friction.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents im-3

Question 5.
Describe the main features of the Indian plate.
Answer:
Indian ocean floor presents striking topography consisting of a number of elevated ridges and plateaus. Two of the ocean ridges, namely, the Mascarene Plateau, Chagos-Maldweep-Lakshadweep island ridge are said to be the volcanic tracts of two hot spots. The Northward extension of Ninety-east Ridge indeed in the trench which consumed the seafloor to the north of the Indian continental mass. The Chagos- Lakshadweep ridge linked the ancient Carlsberg ridge with the Southeast Indian ridge during the Eocene period (50 million years ago).

Consequent to the Carlsberg-Southeast Indian ocean ridge, the collision between the Indian plate and the Eurasian plate took place north of the Indian plate giving rise to the Himalayas. The suture between Indian and Eurasian plates in the Himalayan region has been along the Indus and Brahmputra rivers.

Interior of the Earth Class 11 Important Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth

Interior of the Earth Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are Body waves?
Answer:
The earthquake waves which travel through the solid body of the earth are called Body waves.

Question 2.
Name two types of Body waves.
Answer:
‘P’ (primary) and ‘S’ (secondary) waves.

Question 3.
Where does the asthenosphere lie?
Answer:
Asthenosphere lies in the upper mantle, or below the earth’s crust.

Question 4.
What is Gutenberg discontinuity?
Answer:
A plane of the discontinuous surface between the core and the mantle is known as Gutenberg discontinuity.

Question 5.
What is the effect on ‘P’ waves at the mantle-core boundary?
Answer:
The ‘P’ waves make an abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle- core boundary.

Question 6.
What does ‘M’ discontinuity stand for?
Answer:
It stands for Mohorovicic discontinuity.

Question 7.
Which region in the earth’s interior is referred to as the low-velocity zone?
Answer:
Asthenosphere in the upper part of the mantle is referred to as the low-velocity zone.

Question 8.
Which layer in the interior of the earth consists of ‘shadow zone’?
Answer:
Shadow zone lies within the earth’s core.

Question 9.
What is Love wave?
Answer:
It is an earthquake wave that travels along the surface of the ‘ earth with a motion entirely horizontal.

Question 10.
Name the three layers of the earth.
Answer:
They are core (barysphere), mantle (mesosphere) and crust (lithosphere).

Question 11.
What is a seismograph?
Answer:
It is a sensitive instrument that records the intensity of vibrations of earthquake waves and helps in earthquake prediction.

Question 12.
Name two types of surface waves.
Answer:

  1. Rayleigh waves
  2. Love waves

Question 13.
What is the temperature of the core?
Answer:
The temperature of the core is about 2000°C.

Question 14.
What are the various sources of heat in the earth?
Answer:

  1. Radioactivity
  2. The heat of aggradation
  3. The temperature of materials of which the earth is made

Question 15.
What is the depth of the earth’s crust?
Answer:
0-100 km. from the surface of the earth.

Question 16.
What is the radius of the earth’s core?
Answer:
3470 km. approximately.

Question 17.
What do you mean by Sial and Sima?
Answer:
It is the uppermost layer of the earth. It consists of silica and magnesium. Its average depth is 2800 km. It has a density of 4.75.

Question 18.
Define the term Nife.
Answer:
The core of the earth is called Nife. It consists of Nickel and ferrous. It has an average depth of 3500 km. and a density of 13 g/cm3.

Question 19.
What is a caldera?
Answer:
Caldera complexes are the most explosive of earth’s volcanoes.

Question 20.
Name the basic parts of a volcano.
Answer:
Crater, caldera, vent, fumaroles are the basic parts of a volcano.

Question 21.
Name the various intrusive forms.
Answer:
Batholiths, Lacoliths, Lapoliths, Phacoliths, Sills and Dykes.

Question 22.
Define ‘Pacific ring’.
Answer:
It is the region around the Pacific ocean. There are active volcanoes all around the Pacific OceAnswer:

Question 23.
What is lithosphere?
Answer:
The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle together are called the lithosphere.

Question 24.
Name the different types of earthquakes.
Answer:
Tectonic/Volcanic, Collapse, Explosion and Reservoir induced earthquake.

Question 25.
How explosion earthquakes occurs?
Answer:
Explosion earthquakes occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. .

Question 26.
Name the direct sources which provide information about the earth’s interior.
Answer:
Volcanic eruptions, Deep Ocean Drilling Project and mining.

Interior of the Earth Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How do the rocks of the earth’s mantle behave when subjected to the earthquake waves?
Answer:
The earth’s mantle behaves as an elastic solid when subjected to the earthquake waves. It changes the shape of the landscape when stresses are applied, but returns exactly to its original shape when these stresses are removed.

Question 2.
What is asthenosphere?
Answer:
The asthenosphere is the zone of hot rocks, believed to be in a plastic condition, underlying the solid lithosphere or the earth’s crust. It is sometimes termed as the soft layer of mantle or the low-velocity zone because the earthquake waves travel in it at reduced velocities.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Body waves and surface waves.
Answer:
The earthquake waves which travel longitudinally through the solid body of the earth are called Body waves. They move-faster. Those waves which move transversally along the surface are known as Surface waves. They move slowly and cause more disaster.

Question 4.
Define surface waves along with their sub-types.
Answer:
Hie earthquake waves which move along the free upper crust of the earth are called surface waves. Surface waves are of two types, viz, Rayleigh waves and Love waves. Rayleigh waves can be visualised as water waves travelling across the surface of a still pond after a pebble has been tossed into the water. But the motion in the Love waves is entirely horizontal, at right, angles to the direction of the wave motion. The Rayleigh and Love waves travel more or less the same length, but with different speeds.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-1

Question 5.
Describe Mohorovicic Discontinuity.
Answer:
The surface of a sudden increase in wave velocity, which separates the crust above from the mantle below is Mohorovic or ‘Moho’ or ‘M’ discontinuity. It is named after the Yugoslavian seismologist Mohorovicic, who first detected it in 1909.

Question 6.
How is the crust distinguished from the mantle?
Answer:
The crust is distinguished from the mantle by the presence of an abrupt change in the velocity of seismic waves. This corresponds to the abrupt change in the rigidity of the rock from crust to mantle. This change in rigidity is due to the change in the mineral composition or in the physical state of rocks.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the earth’s core.
Answer:
‘Core’ means the innermost part. Earth’s core is the innermost or central part of the earth’s interior. It has a radius of approximately 3470 km (2160 miles). On the basis of the behaviour of the seismic waves, it has been proved that the earth’s outer core is in a liquid state. Earth’s magnetic field is generated here. Between the outer core and the mantle that envelops it is the Gutenberg discontinuity.

Question 8.
Describe the earth’s crust.
Answer:
Earth’s crust is the topmost layer of the earth’s interior. It is also called the lithosphere. It has an average density of 3.0 g/cm. Its thickness varies from about 7 km. beneath the oceans to 70 km. under some parts of the continents. It is separated from the mantle below by Mohorovicic Discontinuity.

Question 9.
Discuss the properties of the upper mantle.
Answer:
Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is subdivided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle. The upper mantle extends from the crust to a depth of about 650 km. including the asthenosphere, which occupies the upper 300 to 400 km. The upper boundary of the upper mantle is forward by Mohorovicic Discontinuity, which separates it from the overlying crust.

Question 10.
How do the rocks of the earth’s mantle behave when subjected to the earthquake waves?
Answer:
The P’ waves move faster and make an abrupt drop in velocity of the mantle-core boundary, whereas ‘S’ waves move slowly and terminate at the mantle-core boundary. Through earth’s mantle (nearly ’ 2900 km) the speed of the earthquake waves is so high that only a very rigid and dense rock will satisfy the observed condition; the rocks behave as an elastic solid so that the mantle changes its shape when shear stresses are applied and returns exactly to its former shape when stresses are removed.

Question 11.
What is the main evidence in favour of the layered structure of the earth?
Answer:
The scientists accept that the earth has a layered structure. The earth has three layers or shells :

  1. crust
  2. mantle
  3. core.

These layers are distinguished on the basis of their physical and chemical properties, i.e.,

  1. thickness,
  2. density,
  3. temperature,
  4. metallic contents and
  5. rocks.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the term ‘Barysphere’?
Answer:
The Barysphere is the central core of the earth. It has a depth of 4980 km to 6400 km. It has a density of 17 g/cm3. It consists of heavy minerals and it is also called ‘core’. The core of the earth is metallic in > nature.

Question 13.
Describe the three types of earthquake waves.
Answer:
These waves are :

  1. ‘P’waves or longitudinal waves-These are also known as primary waves. These travel in the direction of their movement. They can travel through solids as well as liquid and gaseous matter.
  2. ‘S’ waves or transverse waves – These are also known
    as secondary waves. These travel at a right angle to the direction of their oscillation. They can travel in solid ‘? medium only.
  3. ‘L’ waves – These are known as surface waves. These waves do hot go deep into the earth.

Question 14.
What do you understand by the structure of the earth?
Answer:
The earth is made up of many layers of different materials. The density and temperature of each layer vary according to the depth. The study of the layered composition of the earth is known as the structure of the earth.

Interior of the Earth Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write short notes on :
1. Shadow zone
2. The earth’s crust
Answer:
1. Shadow zone – It lies beneath the surface of the earth, i.e., in its interior. The seismic waves bend as they travel through the core and, therefore, ‘P’ waves are not directly received in a zone known as the shadow zone. Also, ‘S’ waves are not received there because they do not travel through the liquid outer core. Only surface waves are received in the shadow zone.

2. The earth’s crust – This is also known as the lithosphere. The crust is the outermost shell 1 of the earth. It consists of the surface granite SIAL and the intermediate basic SIMA layers. It is separated from the under layer MANTLE by the Mohorovicic Discontinuity. There are two kinds of crust – continental and oceanic. Continental crust has an average density of 3 g/cnt3, the average thickness of 35 to 40 km. (22 to 25 miles) with large areas older than 1500 million years. Continental crust is a complicated structure and has a variable composition. Oceanic crust is thinner than continental crust. Its average density is 2.7 g/cm3 and average thickness of only 6 km. (3.7 miles), with the simple layered structure of the uniform composition.

Question 2.
Discuss how do seismic waves suggest layering of the earth’s interior.
Answer:
Seismic waves are the earthquake waves. The movement of seismic waves tells us a great deal about the earth’s internal structure. The shock waves arising from earthquakes pass through the interior of the earth in different ways and provide evidence about the inaccessible interior region of the earth. Seismic waves are of two types -: body waves and surface waves. Body waves travel through the solid body of the earth, whereas surface waves move along the free upper crust of the earth. Surface waves, in turn, are of two types, viz, Rayleigh waves and Love waves.

Body waves also have two sub-types, viz, ‘P’ waves and ‘S’ waves. ‘P’ (primary waves) pass through all the medium solid, liquid and gaseous, whereas ‘S’ or secondary waves do not pass through liquids.

Based on the above observation related to seismic waves, the interior has been divided into three layers – core, mantle and crust.

The core is the innermost or central layer, the crust is the outermost layer, whereas mantle lies in the middle. Since ‘S’ waves cannot pass through the central part of the earth or core, it suggests that this part is made up of a medium which is not solid. This proves that the earth’s outer core is in a liquid state in contrast to the surrounding mantle which is solid.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-2

The ‘P’ waves make an abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle-core _ boundary, whereas ‘S’ waves terminate here. Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is sub-divided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

The crust is distinguished from the mantle by the presence of an abrupt change in velocity of seismic waves. The change in rigidity, in turn, is due to change in the universal composition or in the physical state of the rocks.

Question 3.
Describe the earth’s mantle.
Answer:
The mantle is that part of the earth’s interior which lies between the core and the crust. It consists of solid ultrabasic rocks. The mantle is about 2900 km thick with a density of about (3.0 to 3.4) g/cm3. The lower surface of the mantle forces Gutenberg Discontinuity, the uppermost layer forces the Asthenosphere.

The ‘P’ or primary earthquake waves make an abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle-core boundary, whereas ‘S’ or secondary waves terminate at this boundary. . It is because of the presence of a plane of the discontinuous surface between the core and the mantle known as Gutenberg Discontinuity.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-3

Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is sub-divided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle. The upper mantle extends from the crust to a depth of about 650 km. and includes 300 to 400 km wide Asthenosphere, the uppermost part of the mantle. Rocks in Asthenosphere behave as an elastic solid. This region is referred to as the low-velocity zone.

Question 4. How do the waves of different types tell us about the changes in the nature of different layers of the earth’s interior?
Answer:
Seismic waves are the earthquake waves. The movement of seismic waves tells us a great deal about the earth’s internal structure. The shock waves arising from earthquakes pass through the interior of the earth in different ways and provide evidence about the inaccessible interior region of the earth. Seismic waves are of two types -: body waves and surface waves. Body waves travel through the solid body of the earth, whereas surface waves move along the free upper crust of the earth. Surface waves, in turn, are of two types, viz, Rayleigh waves and Love waves.

Body waves also have two sub-types, viz, ‘P’ waves and ‘S’ waves. ‘P’ (primary waves) pass through all the medium – solid, liquid and gaseous, whereas ‘S’ or secondary waves do not pass through liquids.

Based on the above observation related to seismic waves, the interior has been divided into three layers – core, mantle and crust.

The core is the innermost or central layer, the crust is the outermost layer, whereas mantle lies in the middle. Since ‘S’ waves cannot pass through the central part of the earth or core, it suggests that this part is made up of a medium which is not solid. This proves that the earth’s outer core is in a liquid state in contrast to the surrounding mantle which is solid.

Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-2

The ‘P’ waves make the abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle-core boundary, whereas ‘S’ waves terminate here. Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is sub-divided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

The crust is distinguished from the mantle by the presence of an abrupt change in velocity of seismic waves. The change in rigidity, in turn, is due to change in the universal composition or in the physical state of the rocks.

The mantle is that part of the earth’s interior which lies between the core and the crust. It consists of solid ultrabasic rocks. The mantle is about 2900 km thick with a density of about (3.0 to 3.4) g/cm3. The lower surface of the mantle forces Gutenberg Discontinuity, the uppermost layer forces the Asthenosphere.

The ‘P’ or primary earthquake waves make an abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle-core boundary, whereas ‘S’ or secondary waves terminate at this boundary. . It is because of the presence of a plane of the discontinuous surface between the core and the mantle known as Gutenberg Discontinuity.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-3

Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is sub-divided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle. The upper mantle extends from the crust to a depth of about 650 km. and includes 300 to 400 km wide Asthenosphere, the uppermost part of the mantle. Rocks in Asthenosphere behave as elastic solid. Th,is region is referred to as the low-velocity zone.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-4

Question 5.
Distinguish between :
1. Body Waves and Surface Waves
2. The crust of the earth and Core of the earth
3. Gutenberg Discontinuity and Mohorovicic Discontinuity
Answer:
1. Body waves and Surface Waves :
Seismic waves are the earthquake waves. The movement of seismic waves tells us a great deal about the earth’s internal structure. The shock waves arising from earthquakes pass through the interior of the earth in different ways and provide evidence about the inaccessible interior region of the earth. Seismic waves are of two types -: body waves and surface waves. Body waves travel through the solid body of the earth, whereas surface waves move along the free upper crust of the earth. Surface waves, in turn, are of two types, viz, Rayleigh waves and Love waves.

Body waves also have two sub-types, viz, ‘P’ waves and ‘S’ waves. ‘P’ (primary waves) pass through all the medium – solid, liquid and gaseous, whereas ‘S’ or secondary waves do not pass through liquids.

Based on the above observation related to seismic waves, the interior has been divided into three layers – core, mantle and crust.

The core is the innermost or central layer, the crust is the outermost layer, whereas mantle lies in the middle. Since ‘S’ waves cannot pass through the central part of the earth or core, it suggests that this part is made up of a medium which is not solid. This proves that the earth’s outer core is in a liquid state in contrast to the surrounding mantle which is solid.

Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth im-2

The ‘P’ waves make an abrupt drop in velocity at the mantle-core boundary, whereas ‘S’ waves terminate here. Based on the behaviour of seismic waves, the mantle is sub-divided into two major parts – the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

The crust is distinguished from the mantle by the presence of an abrupt change in velocity of seismic waves. The change in rigidity, in turn, is due to change in the universal composition or in the physical state of the rocks.

2. Crust of the earth and Core of the earth:

The crust of the Earth The core of the Earth
l. This is the outermost layer of the earth. 1. This is the innermost layer of

of the earth.

2. The average density is 2.73g/cm3. 2. The average density is I7.2g/cm3.
3. It covers about 0.5% part of the earth. 3. It covers about 83% part of the

the earth.

4. It is made up of silica and

aluminium.

4. It is made up of nickel and ferrous.

3. Gutenberg Discontinuity and Mohorovicic Discontinuity:

Gutenberg Discontinuity Mohorovicic Discontinuity
1. It is the boundary between the mantle and the core. 1. It is the boundary between the crust arid the mantle.
2. It was observed by Beno Gutenberg in 1926. 2. It was observed by a Yugoslavian seismologist Mohorovicic in 1909.
3. The ‘P’ waves make an abrupt drop in the velocity at the mantle-core boundary, while S-waves disappear here. 3. The surface of a sudden increase in wave velocity, which separates crust above from the mantle below is Mohorovicic discontinuity.
4. This making a place at the dis-continuous surface between the core and mantle is known as Gutenberg discontinuity.

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Class 11 Important Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Type

Question 1.
What is Nebula?
Answer:
The nebula is the name given to the slowly rotating cloud of gas, which later condensed and solidified to give birth to different planets.

Question 2.
Name our galaxy.
Answer:
Milky way.

Question 3.
Who first proposed the Nebular hypothesis?
Answer:
The German philosopher, Immanuel Kant, proposed the Nebular hypothesis in 1755.

Question 4.
How is it known that the moon was born along with the earth?
Answer:
Radiometric dating of the rocks from the moon shows that it was born along with the earth.

Question 5.
Name all the nine planets in their order from the sun.
Answer:
They are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto.

Question 6.
Name the largest and the smallest planet of our solar system.
Answer:
Jupiter is the largest and Mercury is the smallest planet of our solar system.

Question 7.
Name two scholars who had identical views on the origin of planets.
Answer:
Immanuel Kant, a German scholar and Laplace, a French mathematician, expressed identical views on Nebular hypothesis.

Question 8.
Name two English scientists who put forward the Collision hypothesis of the origin of planets.
Answer:
They were Sir James Jeans and Sir Harold Jeffreys.

Question 9.
Name the planet with a maximum number of satellites in our solar system.
Answer:
Saturn has the maximum number of satellites (20) in our solar system.

Question 10.
Which planets in our solar system have no satellite at all?
Answer:
Mercury and Venus have no satellites so far.

Question 11.
What are the various stages the sun has passed through during its formation?
Answer:
They are Nebula → Supernova → Protostar → Infant Sun → Sun.

Question 12.
Which other planet is known to have just one satellite-like our earth?
Answer:
Pluto.

Question 13.
What is a meteorite?
Answer:
A meteorite is a piece of rock or metal from outer space that hits the earth’s surface.

Question 14.
A piece of rock or metal from outer space falling on the earth?
Answer:
Meteorite.

Question 15.
The only planet with conditions favourable for the sustenance of life?
Answer:
The earth.

Question 16.
The second-largest planet of our solar system?
Answer:
Saturn.

Question 17.
What is a protostar?
Answer:
The infant son was the protostar.

Question 18.
Name two great ice areas of the present age.
Answer:
Antarctica and Greenland.

Question 19.
When did drifting start in Pangea?
Answer:
In the upper carboniferous age about 300 million years ago.

Question 20.
When was the earth formed?
Answer:
The earth came into existence about 4600 million years ago.

Question 21.
How does earth’s surface appear from the space?
Answer:
It appears blue from the space.

Question 22.
Why does earth appear as a round ball that shines bright and blue when viewed from space?
Answer:
Because a large part of the earth’s surface is covered with water, which is blue in colour.

Question 23.
Why is the study of the origin of earth essential?
Answer:
The study of the origin of the earth is essential because we are living on earth.

Question 24.
Why do planets differ in size, constituent matter and temperature?
Answer:
They differ in size, matter and temperature because of their varying distances from the sun.

Question 25.
What are planetesimals?
Answer:
Giant tongues of matter broke into small chunks or planetesimals, which went flying as cold bodies into orbits around the sun.

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is a protostar?
Answer:
Protostar means original star. It is believed that the gaseous cloud exploded to form a supernova. The explosion caused shock waves that caused the denser portion of the cloud to collapse under their own ‘ gravity. The dense core grew larger and hotter and its gravity attracted more material. In this process, the hot core developed into a protostar. ‘ Finally, it became the infant sun.

Question 2.
Explain Heterogenous Accretion Hypothesis.
Answer:
According to Heterogeneous Accretion Hypothesis, the composition of the material from which the earth accreted changed r with time giving rise to the layered structure of the earth. According to this model, the earth formed ‘ inside out’ with an, oxidised and volatile-rich nucleus and a more metal-rich and depolarised outer rings.

Question 3.
Differentiate between supernova and protostar.
Answer:

Supernova Protostar
It formed when the nebula of hot gaseous cloud exploded. The denser part of the super¬nova collapsed under its own gravity and became larger and hotter. It came to be known as protostar and finally infant sun.

Question 4.
What do you mean by plate tectonics?
Answer:
Plate tectonics is a theory. According to it, the crust and mantle (lithosphere) are divided into plates and blocks. Different tectonic movements take place along their edges. These plates drift due to convection currents. Continents also drift along with these plates, known as tectonic plates.

Question 5.
The moon was born along with the earth. How?
Answer:
Regarding the birth of the moon, there are many hypotheses. Radiometric dating of the rocks from the moon shows that it was born along with the earth. It either came out of the sun in a gaseous form but being too small was attracted by the earth, or it flew out of the earth due to a huge meteorite falling on the earth.

Question 6.
Why are inner planets heavier than the outer ones?
Answer:
Initially, the nebula was revolving in the form of a flat disc. Due to high temperature, the heavy materials of the flat disc condensed in the inner part of the disc. These include iron and aluminium. Thus, inner planets Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars were formed.

Question 7.
What is Collision hypothesis?
Answer:
This hypothesis was proposed by Sir James Jeans and Sir Harold Jeffreys, a mathematician in England. According to this hypothesis, gaseous material was pulled away from the pre-existing sun by the gravitational force of a passing star.

Question 8.
Name the three layers of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

  1. The Earth’s crust (lithosphere)
  2. The intermediate layer (mantle)
  3. The inner core (metallic core)

Question 9.
Why does the inner core of the earth behave like a solid?
Answer:
The inner core of the earth should have been molten owing to high temperature in such a great depth, but it is not molten; it behaves like a solid because of the great pressure of the outer shells.

Question 10.
What do you understand by a light-year?
Answer:
A light-year is a measure of distance and not of time. Light travels at a speed of 300,000 km/second. The distance that the light travels in one year is taken to be one light year. This is equal to 9.461 xlO12 km. The mean distance between the sun and the earth is Y‘ 149,598,000 km. In terms of light-years, it is 8,3 31 minutes.

Question 11.
How was the solid crust formed?
Answer:
The solid crust was formed by the cooling and condensation of the gaseous material on the surface of the earth.

Question 12.
What do you understand by the birth of the solar system?
Answer:
The entire solar system forms a very small part of the galaxy that consists of many stars. Our galaxy is called the Milky Way. The gaseous cloud exploded to form a supernova. The explosion caused shock waves that caused the denser portion to collapse under its own gravity. In the process, the hot core developed into a protostar. Finally, the protostar became the infant sun.

Question 13.
What are the outer and inner planets?
Answer:
The four planets Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called inner planets. They lie between the sun and the belt of asteroids.

The five planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto are called outer planets. These are also known as Jovian or Gas Giant planets.

Question 14.
Write a note on Heterogenous Accretion Hypothesis.
Answer:
This hypothesis explains the layered structure of the earth. According to this theory, the earth is formed by the accretion of different ‘ types of materials. The materials changed with time. The earth formed from inside out due to the change of materials. It had an oxidised and hot, nucleus and more metal-rich rings.

The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write short notes on :
1. Collision Hypothesis
2. Homogeneous Accretion Hypothesis
3. Origin of the Moon
Answer:
1. Collision Hypothesis – Sir James Jeans and Sir Harold Jeffreys gave this hypothesis. According to this hypothesis, gaseous material was pulled away from the pre-existing sun by the gravitational force of a passing star. By collision and gravitational attraction, the larger planetesimals swept up the smaller pieces and thus were formed the planets.

2. Homogenous Accretion Hypothesis – This hypothesis maintains that the earth accreted from an intermate mixture of silicate particles and metal particles. The material was assumed to have been formed in the solar nebula by a complex series of chemical and physical processes, which had occurred prior to the accretion of planets. According to a hypothesis, accretion of the earth occurred over a sufficiently long period (10—10s years) so that its gravitational potential energy was efficiently radiated away and it formed in an initially ‘cool’ and unmelted condition.

3. Origin of the moon – Radiometric dating of the rocks from the moon shows that it was born along with the earth. Apparently, there are two possibilities. It either came out of the sun in a gaseous form but being too small was attracted by the earth, or it flew out of the earth due to a huge meteorite falling on the earth. The area where the meteorite fell, a huge hollow was created, which is now filled up by an ocean and the landmass plunged to outer space to create the moon.

Question 2.
Discuss the various hypotheses for the evolution of the planets.
Answer:
There are two hypotheses :

  1. Nebula hypothesis
  2. Collision hypothesis

1. Nebula hypothesis – In 1755, German philosopher Immanuel Kant, hypothesised that slowly rotating cloud of gas, called Nebula, in some unspecified manner, condensed into a number of discrete and globular bodies. The great French mathematician Laplace also proposed, more or less, the same theory in 1796.

According to Kant and Laplace, the original mass of gas-cooled and began to contract. The rotational speed increased as a consequence of the law of conservation of angular momentum. Then, successive rings of gaseous material were spun off from the central mass by centrifugal force. In the final stage, the rings condensed into planets.

2. Collision hypothesis – Sir James Jeans and Sir Harold Jeffreys gave this hypothesis. According to this hypothesis, gaseous material was pulled away from the pre-existing sun by the gravitational force of a passing star. By collision and gravitational attraction, the larger planetesimals swept up the smaller pieces and thus were formed the planets.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth im-1

Question 3.
Describe the evolution of the Solar system,
Answer:
The entire solar system consists of the sun, the nine planets and their various satellites. The sun is a large brilliant star in the centre of the solar system. It is thought to be about 5 billion years old. The pressure and temperature at the centre of the Nebula (cloud of gas) that produced the solar system became so great that it triggered a nuclear reaction. Some of the hydrogen in the cloud fused into helium, releasing a great amount of energy.

The gaseous cloud exploded to form a supernova. The explosion caused shock waves that pushed the denser portion of the cloud to collapse under its own gravity. The dense core grew larger and hotter as its gravity attracted more material. In the process, the hot core developed into a protostar, that finally became the sun.
Class 11 Geography Important Questions Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth im-2

Question 4.
Describe the origin of life and die cause for its origin,
Answer:
Modern scientists refer to the origin of life as a kind of chemical reaction, which first generated complex organic molecules and then assembled them. This assemblage was such that they could duplicate themselves converting inanimate matter into living substance. The record of life that existed on this planet in different periods is found in rocks in the form of fossils. The microscopic structures closely related to the present form of blue algae have been found in geological formations that are much older than some 3000 million years. It can be assumed that simpler forms precede these. Scientists consider that life began to evolve sometime 3800 million years ago.

The last phase in the evolution of the earth relates to the origin and evolution of life. The initial or even the early atmosphere of the earth was not conducive for the development of life.

Question 5.
Describe in short the evolution of atmosphere and hydrosphere (oceans).
Answer:
There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage is the loss of the primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. The third stage in the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis.

The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, has been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. All the terrestrial planets are supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of solar winds. During the differentiation and cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of free oxygen.

The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere. As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature further decreased causing more condensation and more rains, The rainwater falling on the surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Solutions

Online Education for Letter Writing Class 11 Format, Examples, Samples, Topics

Letter Writing Class 11

This grammar section explains Online Education English Grammar in a clear and simple way. There are example sentences to show how the language is used. Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 11 English to get good marks in CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/letter-writing-class-11/

Online Education for Letter Writing Class 11 Format, Examples, Samples, Topics

Letter Writing Class 11

This question requires the student to write letters of the following kinds based on the given input.
(a) business or official letters for making enquiries, registering complaints, asking for and giving information, placing orders and sending replies
(b) letters to the editor (giving suggestions, opinions on an issue of public interest)
(c) application for,a job with a biodata or resume.
(d) letter to the school or college authorities regarding admissions, school issues, requirements/ suitability of courses, etc.
The student is required to write official letters and letters to the editor. The essential requirements of a good letter are:
(a) suitable format
(b) well-organised content, and
(c) appropriate language

Letter Writing Format Class 11

Formal Letters
Formal letters have a variety of purposes. Formal letters are written:

  • to ask for/give information
  • to apply for a job
  • to make inquiries
  • to register complaints about inadequate goods or services
  • to place orders/send appropriate replies
  • to apologise for behaviour
  • ‘to solicit new customers for your business
  • to redress grievances
  • to persuade others
  • to make an appeal for help
  • to send a recommendation

However, all of these letters have a common goal – to get a response from someone you may or may not know personally.

Formal Letter Format Class 11
Class 11 Letter Writing
Letter Class 11

Letter Writing For Class 11

(c) Application for a job (with biodata)

Job Applications may be written with or without a biodata. This is a formal official letter and has a formal format, language and style. The main body of the letter should contain the following information.

  • personal information, e.g., age
  • educational/professional qualifications
  • experience letter/suitability for the job.

The letter with a biodata will have biodata as an enclosure. Information should be given under-the heading Biodata.
Format same as for the official letter from the sender’s address

Yours faithfully
Signature
(Name in capital letters)
Encl: Biodata

Biodata

Full name: (Given in the question)
Father’s Name: (imaginary)
Date of Birth: According to job needs, imaginary
Address: (Given/imaginary)
Qualifications: According to job requirements, imaginary
Education: Academic
Professional Experience: According to the job, degree, institution, year

  1. Post, organisation, year
  2. From junior to a senior position or vice versa

Testimonials (2 or 3 Testimonials)

1. Name
Designation ………………………..
Official Address ……………………
………………………………………..
References (2 References)
Name
Designation ……………………..
Official Address ………………..
Signature …………………………

Content: It is important to organise the content of the letter for clarity and effective communication. The letter should ideally be written in three paragraphs.

The first paragraph is usually a restatement of the subject. It states the purpose of writing the letter and should be of one or two sentences only, e.g.,

1. I would like to draw your attention to the lack of civic amenities in our area.
2. Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I would like to draw the attention of the authorities concerned too.
3. This is in response to your advertisement in The Times of India (date) for the post of ………………
The second paragraph makes up the main body of the letter. The problem/subject is stated in detail.
The third paragraph is in the nature of a concluding paragraph. Suggestions, the writer’s expectations from, or request to the addressee may be given.
The letter concludes with best wishes/thanks/request for an early response/regards, etc.

Language: The language in business and official letters is simple and direct. The subject is dealt with in a straightforward manner.

There is greater flexibility in the language and style of a letter to the editor. It is governed by the subject and content of the letter.

Online Education Important Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers Chapter Wise

In Online Education for CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Chapter Wise Important Questions with Answers Pdf Download 2020-21: Here we are providing CBSE Important Extra Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter Wise Pdf download State Board in Hindi and English Medium. Students can get Class 11 Chemistry NCERT Solutions, Chemistry Class 11 Important Extra Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

Online Education Class 11th Chemistry Important Extra Questions with Answers Chapter Wise Pdf

  1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 Important Questions
  2. Structure of Atom Chemistry Class 11 Chapter Wise Questions
  3. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Important Questions
  4. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Important Questions
  5. States of Matter Chemistry Class 11 Important Questions
  6. Thermodynamics Class 11 Chemistry Important Questions
  7. Equilibrium Important Questions for Class 11 Chemistry
  8. Redox Reactions Chemistry Questions and Answers for Class 11
  9. Hydrogen Class 11 Important Questions
  10. The s-Block Elements Class 11 Important Questions
  11. The p-Block Elements Class 11 Important Questions
  12. Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 Important Questions
  13. Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Questions
  14. Environmental Chemistry 11th Chemistry Important Questions

We hope the given CBSE Important Questions of Chemistry Class 11 Chapter Wise Pdf download in Hindi and English Medium will help you. If you have any queries regarding NCERT Class 11 Chemistry Extra Important Questions and Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Important Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter Wise with Solutions

Important Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter Wise with Solution Pdf Download 2020-21: Here we are providing CBSE Important Extra Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter Wise with Solutions Answers Pdf download in Hindi and English Medium. Students can get Class 11 Physics NCERT Solutions, Physics Class 11 Important Extra Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

Class 11th Physics Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter Wise Pdf

  1. Physical World Important Questions of Physics Class 11
  2. Units and Measurements 11th Physics Important Questions
  3. Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 Important Questions
  4. Motion in a Plane Class 11 Important Questions
  5. Laws of Motion Class 11 Important Questions
  6. Work, Energy and Power Class 11 Important Questions
  7. System of Particles and Rotational Motion Class 11 Important Questions
  8. Gravitation Class 11 Physics Important Questions
  9. Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 Important Questions
  10. Mechanical Properties of Fluids Class 11 Important Questions
  11. Thermal Properties of Matter Class 11 Important Questions
  12. Thermodynamics Class 11 Important Questions
  13. Kinetic Theory Important Questions for Class 11 Physics
  14. Oscillations Physics Important Questions Class 11
  15. Waves Physics Class 11 Important Questions

We hope the given CBSE Important Questions of Physics Class 11 Chapter Wise Pdf download in Hindi and English Medium will help you. If you have any queries regarding NCERT Class 11 Physics Extra Important Questions and Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Online Education Important Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter Wise with Answers

Online Education Important Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download 2020-21: Here we are providing CBSE Important Extra Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter Wise State Board Pdf download in Hindi and English Medium. Students can get Class 11 Biology NCERT Solutions, Biology Class 11 Important Extra Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

Online Education for CBSE Class 11th Biology Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter Wise Pdf

  1. The Living World Biology Class 11 Important Questions
  2. Biological Classification Class 11 Biology Important Questions
  3. Plant Kingdom Class 11 Biology Chapter Wise Questions
  4. Animal Kingdom Question Bank Biology Class XI
  5. Morphology of Flowering Plants Biology Important Questions
  6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants Class 11 Important Questions
  7. Structural Organisation in Animals Important Questions
  8. Cell: The Unit of Life Class 11 Important Questions
  9. Biomolecules 11th Std Biology Important Questions
  10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 Important Questions
  11. Transport in Plants Class 11 Important Questions
  12. Mineral Nutrition Class 11 NCERT Biology Important Questions
  13. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Class 11 Important Questions
  14. Respiration in Plants Biology Important Questions for Class 11
  15. Plant Growth and Development Class 11 Important Questions
  16. Digestion and Absorption Biology Questions and Answers for Class 11
  17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 Important Questions
  18. Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 Important Questions
  19. Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 Important Questions
  20. Locomotion and Movement Class 11 Important Questions
  21. Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Important Questions
  22. Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Questions

We hope the given CBSE Important Questions of Biology Class 11 Chapter Wise Pdf download in Hindi and English Medium will help you. If you have any queries regarding NCERT Class 11 Biology Extra Important Questions and Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Name a plant, which accumulate silicon.
Solution:
Oryza sativa and Triticum aestivum are the plants that accumulates silicon. These plants absorbs silicon actively and accumulate them in their biomass.

Question 2.
Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this association gain from each other?
Solution:
Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic (symbiotic) association between fungus and roots of plants. The roots provide shelter and food to the fungus and the fungus helps plants in absorption of minerals, water uptake and protection against fungus.

Question 3.
Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment.
Solution:
Prokaryotes like Rhizobium and Anabaena are capable of nitrogen fixation as they contain enzyme nitrogenase but eukaryotes lack this enzyme.

Question 4.
A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Solution:
Azotobacter provides nitrogen fixing bacteria which converts free nitrogen into nitrate and nitrites. It increases soil fertility.

Question 5.
What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Solution:
Leghaemoglobin present in the root nodules of leguminous plants is responsible for creating anaerobic conditions and hence acts as an oxygen scavenger, protecting enzyme nitrogenase to come in contact with oxygen and help in the proper functioning of enzyme, i. e., conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia (NHj).

Question 6.
Yellowish edges appear in leaves deficient in.
Solution:
Yellowish edges or chlorosis appears in the leaves due to the deficiency of nitrogen. Its deficiency also causes delaying of flowering, interference in protein synthesis and dormancy of lateral buds.

Question 7.
Name the macronutrient which is a component of all organic compounds but it not obtained from soil.
Solution:
Carbon is an essential macronutrient, which is a component of all organic compounds but is not obtained by soil. Plant take it from atmosphere in the form of C02. Its concentration in atmosphere is about 0.03%. Plants use C02 for photosynthesis (as a source of carbon) to synthesises glucose.

Question 8.
Name one non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote.
Solution:
Azotobacter is a non-symbotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote. It flourishs in the rice fields.

Question 9.
Complete the equation for reductive amination …….. .
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 1
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 2

Question 10
Excess of Mn in soil leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
Solution:
When higher amounts of Mn2+ is absorbed by plants. The toxicity expressed in the form of brown sports surrounded by chlorotic vein.
It is due to the following reasons
(i) Reduction in uptake of Fe3+ and Mn2+.
(ii) Inhibition of binding of Mn2+ to specific enzymes.
(iii) Inhibition of Ca2+ translocation in shoot apex.
Thus, excess of Mn2+ causes deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.
Solution:
Sulphur is a macronutrient that is important for normal plant growth and development. It is also an integral part of some amino acids, proteins and helps in deciding the secondary structure of proteins as it forms disulphide bonds.

It is absorbed by the plants as SO42- ion. It is present in vitamins (biotin, thiamine), proteins, coenzyme-A, amino acid (cystein and methionine) etc. It is also an essential component of plants like (onion, garlic) and mustard.

Its deficiency causes chlorosis in young leaves, extensive root growth, formation of hard and woody stem. It also causes the reduction in juice content of citrus fruit and tea yellow disease of tea.

Question 2.
How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of great significance in nitrogen cycle?
Solution:
In biological nitrogen fixation, the atmospheric N2 gets reduced to NH3 by the help of enzyme nitrogenase reductase present in some prokaryotes. NH3 is then oxidised in to N02 and NO3 by some other bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter) following are the various steps involved in nitrogen fixation.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 3
Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus are involved in the process of denitrification. They convert nitrate (NO3) and nitrite (NO2) into free nitrogen (N2), that is released into the atmosphere.

Question 3.
Carefully observe the following figure
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 4
(a) Name the technique shown in the figure and the scientist who demonstrated this technique for the first time.
(b) Name atleast three plants for which this technique can be employed for their commercial production.
(c) What is the significance of aerating tube and feeding funnel in this setup?
Solution:
(a) Hydroponics,’Julius Von Sachs (1860)
(b) (i) Solanum lycopersicum (tomato)
(ii) Hibiscus asculentus (ladiesfinger)
(iii) Solanum melongena (brinjal)
(c) Aerating tube provides oxygen for the normal growth and development of the roots growing in the liquid solution. Feeding funnel is used to add water and nutrients in the hydroponic system when required.

Question 4.
Name of most crucial enzyme found in root nodules for N2-fixation? Does it require a special pink coloured pigment for its functioning? Elaborate.
Solution:
The most crucial enzyme found in the root nodules for N2-fixation is nitrogenase. It is a Mo – Fe protein that catalyses the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia. Pink colour 8.
pigment present is root nodules of leguminous plants is called leghaemoglobin creates * anaerobic conditions for the functioning of nitrogenase enzyme.

Question 5.
Carnivorous plants exhibit nutritional adaption. Citing an example explain this fact.
Solution:
Carnivorous plants fulfill their nutritional requirements by feeding on small animals, like insects or protozoans, e.g. Nepenthes, Venus fly trap, Utricularia etc. Carnivorous plants grow in soil deficient in nitrogen.

In pitcher plant leaves are modified into pitcher which stores the juice to lure an insect. When the insect come to suck this juice, chemicals present in nectar dissolve the skin of the prey and the plant obtains nutrients (mainly nitrogen) from its skin.

Question 6.
A farmer adds/supplied Na, Ca, Mg and Fe regularly to his field and yet he observes that the plants show deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Give a valid reason and suggest a way to help the farmer improve the growth of plants.
Solution:
Plant can tolerate a specific amount of micronutrients. A lesser amount of micro- nutrient can cause deficiency symptoms and higher amount can cause toxicity.

The concentration of mineral ion which reduces the dry weight of the tissues by 10% is called toxic concentration. This concentration is different for different micronutrients as well as for different plants e.g., Mn2+ is toxic beyond 600 mgg -1; (for soyabean) and (for sunflower) and beyond 5300 μgg-1.

It has also been observed that the toxicity of one micronutrient causes the deficiency of other nutrients.
To overcome such problems, farmers should use these nutrients in prescribed concentration so that the excess uptake of one element do not reduce the uptake of the element.

Question 7.
We find that Rhizobium forms nodules on the roots of leguminous plants. Also Frankia another microbe forms nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of non-leguminous plant Alnus.
(a) Can we artificially induce the property of nitrogen-fixation in a plant, leguminous or non leguminous?
(b) What kind of relationship is observed between mycorrhiza and pine trees?
(c) Is it necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide mineral nutrition? Explain with the help of one example.
Solution:
(a) Artificial induction in leguminous and non- leguminous plants have been tried by scientists. It’s success rate is very low because expression of gene is highly specific phenomenon. When it desired gene is introduced that may not work because conditions for its expressions are very specific.
(b) Symbiotic mutualistic relationship (mutualism) is observed between the pine roots and mycorrhiza as both are benefitted mutually.
(c) Yes it is necessary for a microbe to be in close association with plant to provide mineral nutrition, to develop a physical relationship for example Rhizobium gets into the root and involve root tissues, then only helps in nitrogen-fixation.

Question 8.
With the help of examples describe the classification of essential elements based on the function they perform.
Solution:
Based on the diverse functions of essential elements, these are categorised into following categories given below:
(i) Constituent of biomolecules: These are the essential component of biomolecules. Hence, known as structural elements of cells, e.g., carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.
(ii) Energy related Chemical compound: Some elements also function in providing energy to the cell e.g. phosphorus is a component of ATP which function as energy currency -of all the living system in which magne¬sium is a component of chlorophyll, which is involved in the conversion of light en¬ergy to chemical energy.
(iii) Enzyme showing catalytic effects: Many of the essential elements are required in the form of cofactors by enzymes. They function as the activator or inhibitor of enzymes, e.g., Mg2+ acts as an activator of several enzymes in both photosynthesis e.g., Ribulose bisphosphate(RuBP), Car boxylase , Phosphoenol pymvate carboxy¬lase and respiration (e.g., hexokinase and phosphofructokinase). While Zn2+ acts as an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase while Mo of nitrogenase during the course of nitrogen fixation.

Question 9.
Trace the events starting from the coming in contact of Rhizobium to a leguminous root till nodule formation. Add a note on importance of leghaemoglobin.
Solution:
Formation of Root Nodule The coordinated activities of the Rhizobiam bacteria regume depends on the chemical interaction between these symbiotic partners.
In the following diagram the principle stages in the nodule formation are summarised.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 5
Leghaemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger, that protects nitrogen enzyme from 02 and also creates anaerobic conditions for the reduction of N2 to NH3 by Rhizobium bacteria.

Question 10.
Give the biochemical events occurring in the root nodule of a pulse plant. What is the end product? What is its fate?
Solution:
Formation of root nodule in pulse plant is the result of infection of roots by Rhizobium. The following figure shows the process of nodule formation.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 6
(b) Successful infection of the root hair causes it to curl
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 7
(c) Infected thread carries the bacteria to enter the cortex. Bacteria cause cortical and pericycle cells to divide, lead to nodule formation
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 8
(d) Mature nodule with vascular tissues continuous with those of the roots.
The chemical reaction is as follows
N2 + 8e+ 8H++ 16 ATP ->2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + P1i
The reaction takes place in the presence of enzyme nitrogenase that acts in anaerobic conditions, which is created by leghaemoglobin.
Fate of Ammonia
There are two ways by which ammonia is further used.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition 9
This reaction and transfer of NH2 group take place for amino acid to other amino acid catalysed by enzyme transaminase.

Question 11.
Hydroponics have been shown to be a successful technique for growing of plants. Yet most of the crops are still grown on land. Why?
Solution:
Hydroponics is a soil less culture and successful technique for plants, still many crops are grown on land because
(i) The major concern is its cost. The setting and handling of hydroponics requires much more investment than that of the soil based production.
(ii) Sanitization is extremely important, because especially with indoor hydroponic environments. Water borne disease can spread quickly through some methods of hydroponic production.
(iii) It is relatively a new technique and not used by the traditional farmers due to lack of knowledge.
(iv) Plants are less adaptable to the surrounding atmosphere. However weather and narrow oxygenation may minimise the production and quality of plant yield.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Between a prokaryote and a eukaryote, which cell has a shorter cell division time?
Solution:
Prokaryotic cell has simple cell structure and cellular organisation. It’s nucleus does not contain nuclear membrane. Prokaryotic cell thus has shorter cell cycle than the eukaryotic cell.

Question 2.
Name a stain commonly used to colour chromosomes.
Solution:
The chromosomes are the thickest and the shortest at metaphase. Acetocarmine and Giemsa stain can be used to stain the chromosomes. They are stained for karyo-typing for further study of chromosomes.

Question 3.
Which tissue of animals and plants exhibits meiosis?
Solution:
Meiosis is also called as reduction division, it is a special kind of cell division which occurs in germ cells or sex cells of male and female reproductive organs of plants and animals. They produce male (($) and female (C^) gametes that take part in sexual reproduction.

Question 4.
Which part of the human body should one use to demonstrate stages in mitosis?
Solution:
All the cells in the human body except germinal cells in the male and female reproductive organs are somatic cells. The somatic cells divide by mitotic cell division for growth and regeneration and can be used to demonstrate mitosis.

Question 5.
The diagram shows a bivalent at prophase-I of meiosis. Which of the four chromatids can cross over?
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.1
Solution:
In prophase-I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes lie parallel to each other in leptotene stage. Each chromosome has four chromatids and are bivalent. The non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes cross over in pachytene stage of prophase-I.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.2

Question 6.
If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone?
Solution:
To give 1024 cells the parental cell undergoes 10 divisions of mitotic cycle.

Question 7.
An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?
Solution:
The pollen mother cell (2n) undergoes meiotic cell divisions, each such cell produces four daughter cells with haploid (n) number of chromosomes. Three hundred pollen mother cells would have to be there to produce 1200 pollen grains, because one pollen mother cell will produce four pollen grains.

Question 8.
At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Solution:
The stage of cell cycle where DNA synthesis or replication takes place is Synthetic phase or S- phase of interphase.

Question 9.
It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Cell cycle is under genetic control and is a sequential event. Every cell prepares itself before it starts dividing. This preparation takes place in interphase stage of the cell cycle.
Solution:
If a cell takes 24 hours to divide, it spends 18-20 hours time in interphase stage to prepare itself to undergo cell division.

Question 10
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit… phase to enter in inactive stage called…. of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks
Solution:
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit G, phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (GQ) of cell cycle.
Muscle cells when reach a level of maturity, no longer divide and just perform their function all through it life.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
State the role of centrioles other than spindle formation.
Solution:
The animal cell are present in few membrane less cell organelles. Centrosome is one of them. Two cylindrical structures called centrioles are the part of centrosome.
In the centrosome the two centrioles lie perpendicular to each other. Each has organisation lie a cart wheel. These form the basal body of cilia and flagella of plant/animal cells besides forming spindle fibre in animal cell division. It also helps in the formation of microtubules and sperm tail.

Question 2.
Label the diagram and also determine the stage at which this structure is visible.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.3
Solution:
The transition stage between prophase and metaphase stage of mitotic cell division is shown in the diagram.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.4

Question 3.
A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitotic division. What will be the chromosome number (n) during metaphase? What would be the DNA content (C) during anaphase?
Solution:
Mitosis helps in the growth of organism and its development. It also plays a vital role in a sexually reproducing organisms. The mitotic cell division occurs in somatic cells of an organism.

The chromosome number in the daughter cells remains same as that of the parent (dividing) cell, so even at metaphase or anaphase, the chromosome number does not change.

The DNA content gets doubled at the synthetic phase of interphase and gets divided at anaphase but the chromosome number remains same

Question 4.
While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16 chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes. What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number. Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes orvice-versa?
Solution:
A condition as such, may arise in case of a mosaic, which denotes presence of two or more populations of cells in one individual with varying genotypes.
It can result from variou: mechanisms including non-disjunction, anaphase lagging and end replication. It may also result from a mutation during development, which is propagated to only a subset of the adult cells. In this case, cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes.

Question 5.
The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle. Name the phase against each of the events.
(a) Disintegration of nuclear membrane ………
(b) Appearance of nucleolus ………
(c) Division of centromere ……..
(d) Replication of DNA ……….
Solution:
(a) Prophase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) S-phase

Question 6.
Mitosis results in producing two cells which are similar to each other. What would be the consequence if each of the following irregularities occur during mitosis?
(a) Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate
(b) Duplication of DNA does not occur
(c) Centromeres do not divide
(d) Cytokinesis does not occur
Solution:
(a) The spindle fibres would not be able to reach chromosomes if nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate and they would not move towards opposite poles of the cell.
In certain protozoans, such as Amoeba, the ‘ spindle is formed within the nucleus and this is called intra nuclear mitosis or premitosis.
(b) The cell might not be able to surpass S-phase of cell-cycles. If DNA duplication does not occur as no chromosome formation will take place, and cell will not be able to enter M-(mitotic phase) in case it enters mitosis, the cycle will cease.
(c) If the centromeres do not divide as it may result in trisomy, one of the daughter cell will receive a complete pair of chromosomes and other cell would not get any of them.
(d) Multinucleate condition called coenocyte, syncytium is produced. If cytokinesis does not occur as in Rhizopus and Vaucheria, etc

Question 7.
Both unicellular and multicellular organisms undergo mitosis. What are the difference, if any, observed in the process between the two?
Solution:
The type of cell divisions in unicellular organisms is known as amitosis in which somatic cell is directly divided into the parts. Occurs curs. In multicellular organisms.
In both unicellular and multicellular organisms. The difference between mitosis include:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.5

Question 8.
Comment on the statement-meiosis enables the conservation of specific chromosome number of each species even through the process per se results in reduction of chromosome number.
Solution:
Meiosis is the mechansim of conservation of specific chromosome number of each species across generations in organisms reproducing sexually. The process results in reduction of chromosome number by half, which is gradually conserved by union of male gamete 9n) and female gamete (n) in next generation. Meiosis also increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next.

Question 9.
Name a cell that is found arrested in diplotene stage for months and years. Comment.
Solution:

  1. In mammalian occytes, meiotic arrest at diplotene stage usually occurs.
  2. In females, meiosis starts in the embryo and proceeds as for as diplotene, when the chromosomes become diffused and the cells are referred to as being in the dictyate stage. This arest is under hormonal control.
  3. In many amphibian oocyles, birds and insects with a long period of immaturity, the oocyte may be arrested in the dictyate stage for many years and spend a prolonged period in diplotene.
  4. This stage is characterised by formation of lampbrush chromosomes where intense RNA synthesis occurs and most of the genes in the DNA loops are actively transcribed and expressed.

Question 10.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Solution:
Difference between cytokinesis in plant cell and animal cell is as follows.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.6

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Comment on the statement- Telophase is reverse of prophase.
Solution:
The following contrasting differences reveals that telophase is reverse of prophase, in cell division.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.7

Question 2.
An organisms has two pair of chromosomes (i.e., chromosome number = 4), Diagrammatically represent the chromosomal arrangement during different phases of meiosis-II.
Solution:
Meiosis is reduction division in which chromosome number reduces tc half in daughter cells. The number reduces as half set of chromosomes move to 2 daughter cells in meiosis-I. Thus two cells with half set of chromosomes again re-enter meiosis-II which is similar to mitotic cell division.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 1.8

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Smaller, lipid soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain transporters which are chemically…….. .
Solution:
The movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by transporters which are chemically proteins. These proteins form porins, which are huge pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria. These porins allow passage of small molecules through the membrane.

Question 2.
In a passive transport across a membrane. When two protein molecules move in opposite direction and independent of each other, it is called as………… .
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.1

Solution:
Antiport which facilitates transport of molecules in both the directions across the membrane and their movement is independent of each other.

Question 3.
Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion, in which water diffuses across the cell membrane. The rate and direction of osmosis depends upon both………. .
Solution:
The rate and direction of osmosis is dependent upon the pressure and concentration gradient.

Question 4.
A flowering plant is planted in a earthen pot and irrigated. Urea is added to make the plant grow faster, but after sometime the plant dies. This may be due to ………… .
Solution:
The solution outside the plant is an hypertonic solution, and the plant cells are hypotonic in nature, so there is a gradual movement of water from plant cell to outside urea solution leading to plasmolysis of root cells and plant dies gradually due to exosmosis.

Question 5.
Absorption of water from soil by dry seeds increases the, thus helping seedlings to come out of soil.

Solution:
Imbibition of water by seed materials as starch and protein, pushes the seedlings out of the soil causing the seed to swell and increase of imbibition pressure inside the seed, contributes for germination of seeds.

Question 6.
Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two hours. The most important physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of water is………. .
Solution:
Transpiration pull is the physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of water in tall trees the water molecules transpire from stomata, which pulls water molecules upward to the leaf from the continuous chain of water molecules carried by xylem

Question 7.
The plant cell cytoplasm is surrounded by both cell wall and cell membrane. The specificity of transport of substances are mostly across the cell membrane, because……… .
Solution:
Transpiration pull is the physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of water in tall trees the water molecules transpire from stomata, which pulls water molecules upward to the leaf from the continuous chain of water molecules carried by xylem

Question 8.
The C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing C02 but lose only…. as much water C3 plants for the same amount of C02 fixed.
Solution:
C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing carbon in the form of glucose, but lose only half as much water as a C3 plant for the same amount of C2 fixed.

Question 9.
Movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional. Explain
Cell cycle is under genetic control and is a sequential event. Every cell prepares itself before it starts dividing. This preparation takes place in interphase stage of the cell cycle.
Solution:
Xylem is involved in the one way transport of water and minerals from soil to root ’ —> stem —> leaves. Several forces like imbibition, root pressure and finally transpiration pull. Act in this mechanism, It is a undirectional process as there is continuous loss of water at me body surface of plants.

The main function of Phloem is to transport food from source to sink where source is the part of plant responsible for food synthesis and sink are the organs requiring food for their growth and development.

These source and sink parts of a plants may vary in different phases of growth, thus the food needs to travel in both upwards and downward direction. So, phloem shows bidirectional movement of substances.

Question 10
Define water potential and solute potential.
Solution:
Water potential is a measure of free energy associated with water per unit volume (JM -3).
The water potential of pure (φw) at atmosp-heric Pressure is zero.
Additional of solutes reduce water potential (to a negative value). This reduces the of water concentration. Solutions thus have a lower water potential than pure water, the magnitude of this lowering due to dissolution of solute is called
solute potential of φs.

Question 11
An onion peel was taken and
(a) placed in salt solution for five minutes.
(b) after that it was placed in distilled water. When seen under the microscope what would be observed in (a) and (b) ?
Solution:
(a) When placed in salt solution an onion peel shrinks as water from cytoplasm of cell moves out of the cell to wards hypertonic solution.
(b) When again placed back in distilld water, cell regains it’s shape and absorbs water and become turgid.

Question 12
How does most of the water moves within the root?
Solution:
Water mostly flows in the roots via the apoplast pathway as the cortical cells are loosly packed and hence offer no resistance to water movement, through mass flow. This mass flow of water occurs due to adhesive and cohesive properties of water.
Like, symplast pathway is also involved in the movement of water molecules within the root (like, via endodermis to xylem).

Question 13
Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
Solution:
Loss of water in the form of water vapours from the surface of leaves of plant is called transpiration.
Transpiration a necessary evil because the plant continuously lose water in the vapour form from its body surfaces, Which creates a transpiration pull to absorb more and more water from soil through roots.
If water is not available to plants in soil, even then loss through transpiration does not ceasle, so plants sometimes sbfrws wilting.

Question 14
Describe briefly the three physical properties of water which helps in ascent of water in xylem.
Solution:
The following are physical properties of water that helps in ascent up to xylem.
Cohesive properties — Provider mutual attraction between molecules
Adhesive properties — Causes attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (of tracheids)
Surface tension — Water molecules get attracted to each other more in liquid phase than in gas phase.

Question 15
Identify a type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires special membrane proteins, but does not require energy.
Solution:
Facilitated diffusion’s is a highly selective passive process. Facilitated diffusion cause net transport of molecules from a low to high concentration. In facilitated diffusion special proteins help in movement of substances across the membrane without expenditure of ATP energy.

Question 16
Correct the statements.
(a) Cells shrink in hypotonic solutions and swell in hypertonic solutions.
(b) Imbibition is special type of diffusion when water is absorbed ‘*y living cells.
(c) Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via the symplast.
Solution:
(a) The cell swellSHORT ANSWER QUESTIONSter is adsorbed by living cells.
(c) Most of the water flow in roots occurs via the apoplast way.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Minerals absorbed by the roots travel up the xylem. How do they reach the parts where they are needed most? Do all the parts of the plant get the same amount of the minerals?
Solution:

  1. The sabsorbed mineral are transported through the transpiration steam up the stem, to all parts of plant.
  2. The growing region of the plant, such as the apical and lateral meristems, young leaves, developing flowers, fruits, seeds and the storage organs are the chief sinks for the mineral elements.
  3. Uploading of the mineral ions occurs via fine vein endings through diffusion and active uptake by the cells.
  4. Xylem are involved in transport of inorganic nutrients where phloem transport only organic materials in plants.
  5. Mineral ions are frequently remobilised from older parts of plant like leaves to the younger regions.
  6. Most readily mobilised elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen, potassium, and some elements like calcium that forms the structural component are not remobilised.

Question 2.
Water is indispensable for life. What properties of water make it useful for all biological process on the earth?
Solution:
Following are the properties of water that make it useful for all biological processes.
(i) Water is the major solvent through which mineral nutrients enter a Plant from the soil solution.
(ii) It is an ideal solvent with neutral pH.
(iii) Water is the major constituent of protoplasm, it constitutes approximately 90% of the protoplasm.
(iv) Water acts as a medium for translocation of nutritive substances. Mineral nutrients are absorbed by the roots. Carbohydrates that are formed during photosynthesis are transported by water from cell to cell, tissue to tissue and organ to organ.
(v) Water is involved in photosynthesis in plants, as it incorporates hydrogen atom into carbohydrate and releases oxygen atoms as O2.
(vi) Water acts as an agent for temperature control. The specific heat of water helps plant in maintaining a relatively stable internal temperature.
(vii) Water is necessary for pollination in some plants in bryophytes and pteridophytes, water are essentially requires for the fertilisation process.

Question 3.
How is it that the intracellular levels of K+ are higher than extracellular levels in animal cells?
Solution:
The excitability of sensory cells, neurons and muscles is dependent on ion channels, signal transducers that provide a regulated path for the movement of inorganic ions such as Na+, K+, Ca2+, and Cl across the plasma membrane in response to various stimuli.
Ion channels are ‘gated’ mplying that they may be open or closed. The Na+, K+, ATPase create a charge imbalance across the plasma membrane by carrying 3Na+ out of the cell for every 2K+ ion carried inside making the inside relatively negative outside.
The membrane is said to be polarised. That is the reason the intracellular levels ofK+ are higher than extracellular levels in animals cells.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.2

Question 4.
In a girdled plant, when water is supplied to the leaves above the girdle, leaves may remain green for sometime then wilt and ultimately die. What does it indicate?
Solution:
When water is supplied in a girdle plant to the leaves above the girdle, leaves may remain green for sometime because leaves can synthesise their own carbohydrate food through photosynthesis, they however, gradually wilt due to non-availability of water.
The system of xylem vessels from root to the leaf vein can supply the needed water during girding there is a possible loss of xylem vessels and the water supply is cut off, resulting in death of the plant.

Question 5.
Various types of transport mechanisms are needed to fulfil the mineral requirements of a plant. Why are they not fulfilled by diffusion alone?
Solution:
Ions, minerals and organic compound are transported in plants in various ways which include.
(i) Food substances ways which include v synthesised in leaves are translocated
downward towards root and stem.
(ii) Food is translocated upwards to the developing leaves, buds and fruits.
(iii) Radial transport of food occurs across the stem from the cells of pith, from cortex etc, towards epidermis.
(iv) Ions and minerals are transported upwards through xylem.
Diffusion is a slow process and allows movement of molecules only for short distances, so it cannot carry out the movements of organic and inorganic substances mentioned above. Therefore, a need arises for special long distance transport systems that permits and moves substances at a much faster rate, i.e., mas of bulk flow system through conducting tissues (translocation).

Question 6.
Will the ascent of sap be possible without the cohesion and adhesion of the water molecules? Explain.
Solution:
Ascent of sap is not possible without the cohesive and adhesive properties of water they play an important role in transport of water due to the following reasons
(i) Cohesion forces hold the water molecule together in the conducting channels, so vaccum is not created.
(ii) Adhesive forces acting between the water molecule and cellulose of cell wall make a thin film of water along the channels so that this film is pulled up by transpiration pull drawing more and more water upwards in the conducting channels from the root.

Question 7.
When a freshly collected Spirogyra filament is kept in a 10% potassium nitrate solution, it is observed that the protoplasm shrinks in size
(a) What is this phenomenon called?
(b) What will happen if the filament is replaced in distilled water?
Solution:
(a) The phenomenon, occurring is Spirogyra filament when placed in 10% potassium nitrate solution (hypertonic solution) is Plasmolysis. It occurs as water from the cell is drawn put to extracellular fluid causing the protoplast to shrink away from cell wall.
(b) The Spirogyra upon reabsorption of water, causes the protoplast to regain its original shape. This phenomenon is known as  deplasmolysis.

Question 8.
What are ‘aquaporins’? How does presence of aquaporins affect osmosis?
Solution:
Aquaporins are integral membrane proteins which form pores or channels in the membrane.
The water flows is more rapid through these pores to inside of the cell, as compared to the process of diffusion.
These are plumbing systems of the cells. They selectively conduct water in and out of the cells, while preventing the passage of ions and other solutes.

Question 9.
ABA (Abscicis Acid) is called a stress hormone.
A.How does this hormone overcome stress conditions?
B. From where does this hormone get released in leave?
Solution:
A. Stress hormone ABA (Abscisic Acid) induces closing of stomata, whenever there is scarcity of water available to the plant. This prevents the loss of water through transpiration by leaves. It also increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.
B. (ABA) is released or transported from the stem apices to leaves.

Question 10.
How is facilitated diffusion different from diffusion?
Solution:
Difference between cytokinesis in plant cell and animal cell is as follows.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.3

Question 11.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.4

(a) Are these types of guard cells found in monocots or dicots?
(b) Which of these shows a higher water content (i) or (ii)?
(c) Which element plays an important role in the opening and closing of stomata?
Solution:
(a) The guard cells that are bean-shaped are
found in dicot plants.
(b) The guards cells in figure (i) are turgid as, they pull the inner wall of the cell outside thus, they have more water in figure (ii) cells are flaccid, this condition results when cells lose water and close stomatal pore.
(c) The K+ ions move from neighbouring cells to guards cells, lowering their water potential and as a result the water moves inside making them turgid and thus opening stomata.

Question 12.
Define uniport, symport and antiport. Do they require energy?
Solution:

  1. For movement of substances the biological membranes have many mechanism.
  2. Some are active and some are passive. Specific membrane proteins are also involved for special types of transport mechanisms. These mechanisms include:
  3. Uniport is a membrane transport system by an integral membrane protein that is involved in facilitated diffusion.
  4. These channels open in response to a stimulus for free flow of specific molecules in a specific direction. These channels transport molecule with a solute gradient without energy expenditure.
  5. Symport involves the movement of two or more different molecules or ions, across the membrane in the same direction, with no expenditure of energy.
  6. Antiport is called exchanger. This integral membrane protein is involved in secondary active transport of two or more different molecules or ions across the membrane in opposite directions, without affecting the transport of other molecules.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.5

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Minerals are present in the soil in sufficient amounts. Do plants need to adjust the type of solutes that reach the xylem? Which molecules help to adjust this? How do plants regulate the type and quantity of solutes that reach xylem?
Solution:

  • Plants do need to adjust the type and quantity of solutes that reach the xylem.
  • The transport of proteins in endodermal celr help in maintaining and adjusting solute movement.
  • The minerals are present in soil as charged particles with a very low concentration compared to that of roots, and thus cannot be completely transported passively across the cell membranes of roots hairs.
  • Minerals are thus transported both by active and passive processes, to the xylem.
  • Upon reaching xylem, they are further transported, upwards to sinks through transpiration stream.
  • At the sink regions mineral ions are unloaded through diffusion and active uptake by receptor cells. The mineral ions moving frequently through xylem include.

(i) Sulphur and Phosphorus in small amounts are carried in organic forms.
(ii) Njtrogen travels in plants as inorganic ions N02 and N03 but much of the nitrogen moves in the form of amino acids and related organic compounds.
(iii) Mineral ions are frequently remobilised particularly from older senescing parts. Older dying leaves export much of their mineral content to younger leaves. Similarly, before leaf fall in deciduous plants, minerals are removed to other parts.
The most readily mobilised elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium. Structural components elements like calcium are not remobilised.

Question 2.
Plants show temporary and permanent wilting. Differentiate between the two. Do any of them indicate the water status of the soil?
Solution:
The loss of turgidity of leaves and other soft aerial parts of a plant causing dropping, folding and rolling of non-woody plants is wilting. It occurs when rate of loss of water is higher than the rate of absorption.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants 1.6

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 11 Transport in Plants, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 11 Transport in Plants, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.