Category: CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

Cycle of change: Biking communities making the bicycle popular again

1. In 1976, six-year-old Anil Uchil started cycling by renting a bicycle at 25 paise an hour. He got his own road bike when he turned 13, and he cycled everywhere: to school, college and even to work in 1993. He still cycles to work. “It’s healthy, environment-friendly and economical. But the real reason I cycle is because it’s sheer fun,” he says.

2. Earlier this year, PM Narendra Modi, in a speech on environmental crisis, said, “Why don’t we make Sunday cycle day? I am saying that only one day a week; don’t use fuel- driven vehicles.” Internationally, a lot has been done to encourage people to use the bicycle as a primary means of transport. UK’s Cycle to Work scheme offers tax-free bicycles to employees. 45% of people in Copenhagen cycle to work/college. In Brussels (Belgium), Geneva (Switzerland), or San Francisco (USA), it is not uncommon to see top rung corporate executives in three-piece suits cycling their way to office.

3. Cycling, though, has been a part of Indian culture for decades. Apart from people across strata in smaller towns and villages, in cities, mill workers, newspaper delivery boys, milk vendors and bread sellers have always used the bicycle. Today, the resurgent popularity of the bicycle isn’t so much as a practical mode of commuting as it is a way towards fitter lifestyles and eco-friendliness.

4. Around the late 2000s, as the middle and affluent classes took to cycling, internet penetration also grew in India. Many made use of social media to create awareness. Numerous groups on Facebook today help cyclists connect to fellow riders. The shared passion for cycling brings together absolute strangers, building friendships and a sense of community.

5. Jose George, an avid cycling enthusiast and the owner of the cycling store, Haybren Adventures, says, “Riding in a group is always more enjoyable. And you end up riding a lot more.” Usually, the ride distances range from 20 to 80 km, and are held mostly on weekends. Apart from the environmental benefits, cycling is also an effective way to break away from a sedentary lifestyle. “It’s a low-impact exercise where you don’t carry your body weight. The machine does. It’s great stress buster too,” George says.

6. But (while there are eager riders, the lack of infrastructure is a deterrent. Dedicated cycling lanes are still a distant dream. And if the traffic and questionable driving skills of many don’t discourage you, the potholes and gaps between concrete segments might. Another sore point is the derisive attitude of motorists and drivers. Banker and cycling enthusiast Ninad Waghule, 28, says, “Most drivers aren’t considerate towards cyclists. However, if you’re on an expensive cycle and wearing a helmet, you get more respect compared to a regular person commuting to work. It’s a pity.”

7. The cycling culture has also given birth to adventure travel companies that organise cycling trips. From short weekend trips to longer and more arduous (but rewarding) journeys, cycling tours are gaining popularity. CEO Prateek Deo Gupta, a cycling enthusiast, says, “Travelling by cycle, as opposed to a car, shows you know more of the local culture”. Nitin Yadav, co-founder of Delhi-based Cycle It, which focuses solely on cycling trips, says the past four to five months have particularly seen a rise in numbers. Launched last year, Cycle It offers trips on the picturesque Manali to Leh route, and Kumaon, Uttarakhand.

8. American science educator Bill Nye famously said, “There’s something wrong with a society that drives a car to work out in a gym.” Thankfully, in spite of potholed roads and our despicable habit of honking cyclists out of the way, things are changing.

(Source: Manali Shah, Hindustan Times, Mumbai, Oct 08, 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) Cycling is becoming popular again due to

1. traffic jams.
2. request of the Prime minister.
3. health benefits.
4. reviving Indian culture.

(b) Riding in groups is more beneficial because it helps to :

1. restrict friendships.
2. inculcate sense of kinship.
3. follow the routine of everyday life.
4. none of the above.

(c) Cycling tours are becoming popular because:

1. they are discussed on facebook.
2. they are more satisfying.
3. one can experience more of regional traditions.
4. all the above.

(d) The deterrents to cycling include:

1. Co-operation of the motorists.
2. stress while cycling.
3. non availability of allocated lanes for cyclists.
4. going to the gym regularly.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) How has cycling been a part of Indian culture?
(f) What is the difference between the attitude of people of Brussels or Geneva and India to cyclists?
(g) How has the spread of internet helped in promoting cycling?
(h) How have the travel companies benefitted from cycling?
(i) There is a difference in attitude of the drivers to the different cyclists. Explain.
(j) Why does the columnist say that the things are changing?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) chief (para 2)
(b) sarcastic (para 6)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

Don’t be snobbish! Teach your folks the latest technology

1. Quite recently, I observed a young guy in the office cafeteria yelling at his mom because she had called him to ask how to send an audio message through Whatsapp. “Mom, you don’t need to try and be all savvy. Just leave it and make a normal call”, he said, after trying to teach her the commands once, and realising that she’s not getting it. I didn’t like what he said and his tone but it did make me realise and feel guilty about the  several times that even I may have lost patience while helping my parents understand the new technologies. If you are, intentionally or unintentionally, fuelling insecurity and lack of confidence in an elderly person about use of new technologies, you are not doing yourself a favour, because you’ll soon reach that stage yourself.

2. It was not long ago that Orkut became Facebook and BBM became Whatsapp. So it’s not long when these two also become obsolete or die down. The same goes for the operating systems of the various phones and gadgets we use. The fact that most of you so easily adapt to a new platform or gadget is because you are constantly, almost 24X7, using these gadgets. But unlike most of you, people who did not have these gadgets in their hands as constant fixtures have to start from the scratch. Hence, they find it tough and intimidating, and often struggle with the basics. It’s like when they were teaching you ABC. Did they shout at you because you couldn’t frame sentences? So, now that the roles stand reversed and you get to be the teacher, you better treat them with the same love and patience that they showed for you.

3. For those of you who have never experienced the joy of seeing an old person discover the magic of internet, it is a wonderful thing when their eyes light up on discovering that they can message their friends or relatives anywhere in the world and get instant response, for free. They may take ages to type out a coherent sentence, but the moment they click ‘send’, their excitement is incomparable. They may make a lot of mistakes and you may get frustrated or embarrassed but it’s all worthwhile in the end. Remember, holding a smart-phone in your hand doesn’t make you smart. Being able to give back to someone who patiently taught you everything you know in life does.

4. Yes, life is hectic and teaching technology to parents or grandparents isn’t a priority but the little effort of spending an hour every week in making your elders proficient in technology goes a long way in making your own life much easier.

5. While for them, being on social media brings up a new universe to explore joyfully, it also opens several new avenues for you to communicate with your ageing parents. Many young people who were too busy to call their mom or dad often have now taken to regularly chatting with them on Whatsapp. Although I would never agree that chatting or talking on the phone is a sufficient replacement for spending actual, physical time with your elders, it’s still better than not being in touch for days together.

6. So, no more making faces, rolling eyes or being all sarcastic about an elder person struggling with the basics of technology. You may know the software more, but they’ve seen the world more. There’s no comparison.

(Source: Sonal Kalra, Hindustan Times, New Delhi, August 22, 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) How does the writer suggest that we would be in the same position as the elderly?

1. We will have impatient children
2. Technology gets updated regularly
3. The next generation will speak rudely to us
4. Both (i) and (ii)

(b) The learning process for the elderly with reference to technology would include:

1. taking time to type a understandable message
2. being anxious at their attempts
3. asking about it repeatedly
4. all the above.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What realization did the columnist have after her observation at the cafeteria?
(d) Why does the younger generation pick up technology fast?
(e) What is fascinating about the internet for elderly?
(f) How should we respond to the queries of the elderly regarding technology?
(g) How can teaching technology to the elders in our family make our life easier?
(h) What is the final message of the writer?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) increasing (para 1)
(b) unique (para 3)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

In a very short period of time the internet has had a profound impact on the way we live. Since the internet was made operational in 1983, it has lowered both the costs of communication and the barriers to creative expression. It has challenged old business models and enabled new ones. It has provided access to information on a scale never before achievable.

It succeeded because we designed it to be flexible and open. These two features have allowed it to accommodate innovation without massive changes to its infrastructure. An open, borderless and standardized platform means that barriers to entry are low, competition is high, interoperability is assured and innovation is rapid.

The beauty of an open platform is that there are no gatekeepers. For centuries, access to and creation of information was controlled by the few. The internet has changed that and is rapidly becoming the platform for everyone, by everyone.

Of course, it still has a way to go. Today there are only about 2.3 billion internet users, representing roughly 30% of the world’s population. Much of the information that they can access online is in English, but this is changing rapidly. The technological progress of the internet has also set social change in motion. As with other enabling inventions before it, from the telegraph to television, some will worry about the effects of broader access to information—the printing press and the rise in literacy that it effected were, after all, long seen as destabilising. Similar concerns about the internet are occasionally raised, but if we take a long view, I’m confident that its benefits far outweigh the discomforts of learning to integrate it into our lives. The internet and the world wide web are what they are because literally millions of people have made it so. It is a grand collaboration.

It would be foolish not to acknowledge that the openness of the internet has had a price. Security is an increasingly important issue and cannot be ignored. If there is an area of vital research and development for the internet, this is one of them. I am increasingly confident, however, that techniques and practices exist to make the internet safer and more secure while retaining its essentially open quality.

After working on the internet and its predecessors for over decades, I’m more optimistic about its promise than I have ever been. We are all free to innovate on the net every day. The internet is tool of the people, built by the people and it must stay that way.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
Every year on Children’s Day, an exhibition of Science projects is held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium. Your school has received an invitation from the Education Minister of Delhi inviting the students of your school to visit it. Write a notice in about 50 words informing the students about the display, advising them to go and enjoy it. You are Sunil/Sunita Sahoo, Head Boy/Head Girl Bright Minds Public School, New Delhi. (4 Marks)
OR
Draft a poster informing the readers about hazards of alcoholism in 50 words.

Question 5.
On the approaching Sports’ Day, you realise that many House Flags, batons, badminton racquets, high jump equipment, and many other required by the participants, are in a bad state because of wear & tear. Place an order for all these things along with their numbers to Akram Sports Goods, A-10, Sector-10 Noida, specifying the terms & conditions to get good bargain at a discounted rate for the school. Write this letter as Navtej/Navita, the Sport’s teacher, Navin Public School, 112 Taj Road, Agra. (6 Marks)
OR
Recently you travelled from Bangalore city to Vasco in Vasco Express. To your dismay, you found that the coach was infested with cockroaches. Write a letter to The General Manager, Southern Railways, complaining about the prevailing unhygienic conditions and asking for remedial action. You are Saroj/Saran, 5/31, Bangalore Cantt., Bangalore.

Question 6.
Recent rains and consequent water-logging have increased the risk of malaria and dengue. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be delivered in the morning assembly advising the students on prevention of and protection against these ailments and the steps that the school has taken to prevent mosquito breeding in and around the school. Imagine you are the Principal of the school. (10 Marks)
OR
More industrial production means availability of more goods, better life style, lower prices, more jobs, etc. However, a higher standard of living can be achieved only at a cost and that is, depletion of raw materials and air and water pollution. Write a debate in 150-200 words either for or against the motion—‘Standard of living can be raised, but only at a great cost.’ You are Aseem/Aashima.

Question 7.
Recently, a Car Free Day was organized in Gurgaon and Delhi to encourage the commuters to avail public transport. This was done as vehicles lead to traffic jams, air pollution, road rage and an unhealthy competition in the middle class to own more and newer cars. What are your views on the issue—Private cars or Public transport? Describe them in an article in 150-200 words. You are Sujit/ Sunaina. (10 Marks)
OR
Write a speech to be delivered in the morning assembly in 150-200 words on ‘Delhi: A City of Crime’.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

Those who prepare green wars,
Wars with gas, wars with fire, victory with no survivors,
Would put on clean clothes and walk about With their brothers in the shade, doing nothing.

(a) What are green wars?
(b) How will the few moments of introspection affect the people?
(c) Explain the irony in “Victory with no survivors”.
(d) Name the poem and the poet.

OR
Rich with sprinkling of fair musk rose blooms;
And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely-tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of Immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.

(a) What is the beautiful scene that one sees in the middle of the forest?
(b) Why does the poet call the dooms to be full of grandeur?
(c) Whom does the word ‘mighty dead’ refer to?
(d) Explain ‘Immortal drink’.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (3 × 4 = 12 Marks)

(a) Why do you think Aunt Jennifer’s hands are fluttering through her wool? Why is she finding the needle so hard to pull?
(b) Why were a large number of villagers seated on the back benches?
(c) How did the Maharaja manage to save his throne?
(d) Why did Evans drape a blanket round his shoulder?
(e) Why did Bama take half hour to an hour to cover the distance to her home that would normally take only ten minutes?
(f) How did the wizard help Roger Skunk?

Question 10.
Why did Gandhiji consider ‘freedom from fear‘ and a realization that in their own country they can fight for justice was more important than legal and monetary justice for the poor peasants of Champaran? Answer in about 120-150 words. (6 marks)
OR
“The absence of essential value of human compassion, dignity of human life and consideration can be clearly visualized in the ‘Memories of Childhood’.” How far has the meaning of this statement been exemplified in the stories of the two women? Are they close to Malala’s fight for right to education?

Question 11.
How did Dr. Sadao, rise above narrow prejudices of race and country for assisting a human being in need? Discuss. (Word limit 120-150) (6 marks)
OR
By looking at Zitkala-Sa and Bama’s life, one can say that it may take a long time for oppression to be resisted but seeds of rebellion are sowed early in life. Additionally, injustice in any form can have a permanent impact on children too. Justify. (Word limit 120-150) (NCERT)

Question 12.
What forced Griffin to become a bandaged caricature of a man? (Word Limit 120-150) (6 Marks)
OR
What kind of life did Silas lead before coming to Raveloe?

Question 13.
Excessive ambition is behind all that happens in the story. Griffin, devoid of all traces of humanity has become blind in his pursuit. Justify in context of the novel ‘The Invisible Man’. (Word limit 120-150) (6 Marks)
OR
Describe Nancy’s character and her outlook to life in Silas Marner.

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
I.
(a) (iii) health benefits
(b) (ii) none of the above
(c) (iv) all of the above
(d) (iii) non availability of allocated lanes for cyclists.

II. (e) Cycling has always been a part of Indian culture especially among the less affluent in smaller towns and villages. In cities it is used by mill workers, milk vendors newspaper delivery boys and bread sellers. Today it is used as a way to fitter and eco-friendly lifestyles.

(f) In Brussels even the top rung corporate executives prefer cycling to their offices. This is not the case in India.

(g) Spread of Internet has given rise to numerous groups on Facebook that help cyclists connect to fellow riders. Thus a shared passion builds a friendship and a sense of community.

(h) Adventure travel companies have taken to organising short weekend cycling trips to longer and more arduous trips.

(i) Most drivers display derisive attitude towards cyclists unless they are in an expensive cycle with a helmet.

(j) Things are slowly changing as despite the odds more and more people are opting for cycling to keep fit. Social media has proved to be a boon in promoting the culture of cycling.

III. (a) primary (b) derisive

Answer 2.
I. (a) (iv) Both (i) and (ii) (b) (iv) all of the above

II. (c) The columnist realised that she herself may have been impatient with her parents while helping them with new technologies and felt guilty for such treatment.

(d) The younger generation is faster in learning new technologies since they are using them 24 × 7.

(e) The internet opens up a new universe which the elderly explore joyfully. They also love the newer and easier ways of communicating that internet offers.

(f) If elders ask us about the use of technology, we should teach it to them patiently and respectfully.

(g) If we teach technology to the elders of our family, we will be able to have regular chatting or talking with them on phone as we have no time to talk with them regularly face to face.

(h) The final message of the writer is that wre should not make any sarcastic comments if our elders ask us to teach them to use technology, instead we should teach them calmly and respectfully.

III. (a) fuelling (b) incomparable

Answer 3.
A. TITLE: Internet—A Game Changer

NOTES :

1. Features Of Internet

(a) Flexible & open
(b) Standardised platform
(c) High Compttn.
(d) Rapid innovation.

2. Global Penetration

(a) Used by 30% of populn.
(b) English-major language.

3. Positive Impact

(a) Agent of social change
(b) Enable new busi. models
(c) Lowered commun. costs
(d) Aids creative innovation

4. Areas of concern

(а) Insecure platform v open
(b) Need to put checks for greater safety.

B. SUMMARY

Internet is an open and flexible platform. It is standardised. The competition is high and is open to rapid innovation. About 30% of the world population is internet user. Though the access is in English but this is also changing. It has positively impacted society as it has triggered great social change. It has also enabled new business models. Besides lowering communication costs it has aided creative innovation. Still it is not without drawbacks. The greatest one being that due to its openness it is too insecure. There is a need to create checks and practices which will lend it greater degree of safety.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.
Navin Public School
112 Taj Road, Agra
30th Sep, 20XX

The Manager
Akram Sports Goods
A-10, Sector 10, Noida

Sub: Order for Sports Goods

Dear Sir,

Our school is going to host its Annual Sports Day on 18 October, 20xx. With regard to this, we would like to place an order for certain sports equipment.

The set specifications of the order are as under :

Since our association with you is a long one, we would like a discount of 25% on the above order. You are requested to arrange for the goods to be delivered by 8 October, 20xx. Kindly note that the damaged goods will be returned for replacement. Payment would be made by cheque at the time of delivery.

Yours sincerely
Navtej
H.O.D., Sports Department

OR

5/31, Bangalore Cantt.
Bangalore
7th September, 20xx
The General Manager
Southern Railways

Sub: Unhygienic Condition in Rail Coaches

Dear Sir/Madam

Last month I took the Vasco Express from Bangalore on a business related matter. After I settled myself and my luggage thinking of getting a good night’s rest, I was dismayed and disgusted to see cockroaches creeping out of the seat. I myself spotted not less than fifteen or twenty. I could not sleep the entire night fearing that they may crawl over me while I was sleep.

Sir, my mind is full of questions. Is it not the customer’s right to have clean and pest-free compartment as they pay for the travel? Railways need to improve the hygienic conditions of the coaches in order to improve their own reputation and the travel experience of their customers.

Yours sincerely
Saroj

Answer 6.
Good morning, respected principal, teachers and students! I take the opportunity in this morning assembly to address you on an important health issues. As you all are aware the recent heavy rains have caused widespread waterlogging and have increased the risk of malaria and dengue. I am sure you know that both these diseases are caused by mosquitoe bites and once contracted can take a toll on your health. Here are a few tips to keep mosquitoes at bay.

• Wear full sleeve clothes.
• Wear trousers instead of shorts and skirts.
• Use mosquito repellant creams and patches.

On our part we have arranged fumigation of all rooms, nooks and corners by professionals. One bottle of mosquito spray has been kept in each class to use as and when required. All drains in and around the school have been cleaned and disinfected.

I hope you will take care of your health and cooperate in creating mosquito-free surroundings.

Thank you.

OR

Esteemed judges I, Aseem stand before you to debate for the motion. Standard of living can be raised but only at a great cost. We are living in an era of consumerism, which dictates our definition of ‘standard of living’. In a nutshell if you have more goods and more and more of the same goods, you are perceived as having a high standard of living. For example, car owners are seen as having a higher standards than those who own scooters. Likewise a person owning three cars is seen with more respect and admiration than the one having just one. But raising of the so-called standard of living entails a great toll on our natural resources. More trees need to be cut to have bigger and better houses and furniture. More animals need to be butchered to satisfy our taste for exotic meats. These are but a few examples. Our consumerist attitude may deplete the earth in the near future. So the need of the hour is to adopt a minimalistic lifestyle thereby saving the earth’s resources.

Thank you.

Answer 7.
Private cars or public Transport? By: Sujit

The Delhi government recently announced Car-free days in a bid to decrease congestion on roads and encourage commuters to use public transport. The number of cars on Delhi roads is on the rise owing to the rising purchasing power of the middle class coupled with the desire to compete with others. Hardly do they realise that how much congestion and pollution is caused due to this trend.

The advantages of using private cars are that they are convenient and comfortable and give the users a great degree of autonomy. The disadvantages of using private card are that they result in traffic jams, air pollution and accidents. Though public transport has some drawbacks, yet we should try to use public transport as much as possible instead of our private cars. DTC buses are unreliable and unsafe especially for women who sometimes suffer eve-teasing while travelling in them. They are overcrowded too. Delhi Metro is a better alternative as it is punctual, safer for women and more secure. There is a need to increase the frequency of DTC buses and metro trains to make public transport more appealing. Autos should run only by the meter and not should not over charge.

OR

Respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends!

Today I am going to express my views on the topic ‘Delhi: A City of Crime’ and hope my views will be appreciated by you.

Delhi has become notorious for its crime rate—robberies in the day time, murders of senior citizens in crowded colonies, kidnappings from main roads and rapes in moving cars. With the police dragging its feet in catching the wrongdoers and the courts’ lackadaisical attitude in passing judgement, criminals are encouraged to continue their nefarious activities. Matters are not helped when highly placed officials and politicians use their influence upon the guilty. The contrast between the wealthy and the underprivileged is growing, and with the open display of wealth of the former, the latter feel crime is the shortest way to achieve the same goals. Movies romanticize the bad and the ugly side of life, adding fuel to the already growing fire. People themselves break laws by not verifying their servants or tenants or by turning a blind eye to wrongdoings.

The city has acquired a bad reputation. Where once only selected areas were considered unsafe, now the whole city is under attack.

The government needs to take strict action against recalcitrant police officers and those who block the course of justice. Judgement in criminal cases must be swift and harsh. People must realise that they also have the responsibility of keeping crime at bay. It is only when everyone works together that we can make Delhi a worthwhile place to live in.

Thank you.

Answer 8.

(a) ‘Green wars’ are all activities which harm nature and environment.
(b) While introspecting, the poet hopes that man will be able to see their mindless activities which are harming nature. They may change their goals and means to achieve their needs thus bringing more peace in their lives.
(c) It is ironical that when wars are won there are no survivors to celebrate the victory.
(d) The poem is ‘Keeping Quiet’. The poet is Pablo Neruda.

OR

(a) One sees the musk rose blooming in the middle of the forest.
(b) The stories of the death of the mighty heroes in the past have been described with great grandeur. Hence the poet speaks about them admiringly.
(c) ‘Mighty dead’ refers to the great and powerful inspiring heroes who are now dead.
(d) The things of beauty are a source of eternal pleasure and relaxation to man. Thus the immortal drink, an elixir, never dries up.

Answer 9.
(a) Aunt Jennifer’s fluttering fingers indicate her terrorised and tortured state of mind. The uncle’s wedding ring has burdened her soul and personality so much that she finds even a needle hard to handle.

(b) It was the last day of French lessons in M. Hamel’s classroom. The German order had forbidden the learning of French from the next day. Only German would be spoken in Alsace. The villagers had come to attend the last French lesson to pay their respect to their teacher who had spent forty years in teaching French.

(c) The Maharaja had refused the British official. In doing so he ran a great risk as his kingdom could be annexed. To make up to the British official he sent 50 rings to the official’s wife who instead of choosing one or two accepted all the 50 rings as a gift. The Maharaja paid a heavy sum but managed to save his throne.

(d) Evans draped on a blanket around his shoulder on the pretext of his cell being cold. In fact, beneath it he changed his clothes that McLeery brought for him.

(e) Ori her way back home Bama was captivated by the many entertaining people and activities of the market. She found the snake charmer, the performing monkey to name a few very engrossing. Hence the ten minute walk stretched to thirty minutes.

(f) The wizard helped Roger Skunk by substituting the awful smell of the skunk with the beautiful fragrance of roses. In doing so the wizard helped Roger Skunk immensely as now he was happily accepted by his friends.

Answer 10.
Gandhiji believed that the 25% refund amount was insignificant for the peasants. What was more vital was that for the first time the farmers had won a court case against the British. The farmers had gained confidence and courage while the British complacency had received a rude jolt. This episode released the farmer from the shackles of fear of the British. Hitherto the farmers had lived in complete subjection to the British but with losing the court case the British had to part with their prestige and also some of their money. Gandhiji saw this as a victory of truth. Also Gandhiji’s dream that Indians should live on their land freely and fearlessly was realized for the first time. He believed that if minds were freed of fear, independence would not be far behind.
OR
Both Zitkala-sa and Bama were victims of discrimination. While the farmer suffered racist discrimination, Bama suffered the caste-based discrimination in the form of untouchability. They suffered great atrocities. The whites in the Carlisle school sought to erase her identity by teaching her western ways and manners. Her long hair was shingled. This was forbidden in her Indian culture; She was made to wear tight dresses which she found immodest. Likewise Bama learnt from her brother that she was Dalit and hence untouchable. Bama and Zitkala-sa both experienced painfully how prejudice and discrimination can deprive human beings of compassion, consideration and humanity. Malala has fought for education for girls in her own country, Afghanistan. She too must have experienced the indignities humans can commit due to lack of education.

Answer 11.
After Sadao decided to help the wounded American soldier, he experienced a conflict between his sense of patriotism and sense of professional duty. He was in a dilemma—if he abandons the American he would be doing a disservice to his profession as a surgeon; if he helped him he would be betraying his country. He resolves this dilemma by choosing humanity over considerations of race. He also has to overcome his personal hatred of Americans whom he had come to loathe during his stay in America. In the end Sadao rises above all these narrow considerations and upholds humanity and his professional duty to serve humanity.
OR
The experiences and life of Bama and Zitkala-sa exemplify that oppression and injustice doesn’t go unnoticed even by children. Zitkala-sa experienced extreme blows to her sense of identity and self-esteem. Similarly a young Bama realized that she was an untouchable. Her anger at the upper caste who subjugated them and yet used them shamelessly is brought out in Bama’s account. In the throes of mental agony it is her brother who advises her to educate herself well so as to break the shackles of untouchability. Zitkala-sa and Bama grew up to be champions of equality. By writing about their experiences of societal discrimination they took to creating an equal, discrimination free society by creating awareness among their readers.

Answer 12.
Griffin was a genius, a student of science. He dreamed of becoming invisible so as to become all powerful. His untiring experiments made him realize this evil dream. Ironically invisibility proved very inconvenient to Griffin: People knocked into him on roads, the food and drink in his digestive tract could be spotted since it was visible. Moreover he could not bear the chill of England. Now he longed to reverse the experiment. To brave the cold he put on warm clothes, bandaged his face, stuck a fake pink nose on his face in order to appear normal. Thus his unnatural ambition reduced him to a caricature of a man physically but also degraded him morally and spiritually.
OR
Before coming to Raveloe, Silas Marner lived in a town called Lantern Yard. He was a weaver and a religious man. He was friendly and popular so that people loved him. He was engaged to Sara. William Dane was his trusted friend. Silas often suffered from epileptic fits. During these fits he lost all consciousness. His friend thought that he was possessed by Satan. During one such fit, William taking advantage of his unconscious state framed him as a thief. Silas was subsequently expelled on the charge of stealing money. He was embittered and lost all faith and trust. In such a mental state he arrived at Raveloe.

Answer 13.
In his pursuit of invisibility Griffin gradually loses all traces of humanity. He became isolated and hated people. His treatment with Marvel highlights his predilection for violence and abuse. He ill treats his father too by stealing his money. His father, commits suicide. Yet Griffin does not feel any remorse. He commits a burglary in Mr. Bunting’s house. He also harasses Mrs Hall many times by his rudeness and carelessness. Later he misuses Dr. Kemp who he sees as his enemy and declares to kill him. Thus Griffin is totally blinded by his pursuit of power and becomes a maniac.
OR
Nancy is a beautiful and charming girl from a rich family of Raveloe. She is caring. Godfrey loves and later marries. She has a strict moral upbringing and regards Godfrey’s flaws of character with disapproval. Yet she can’t help being flattered by Godfrey’s attention. Nancy carries herself gracefully in a lady like manner yet she is aware about her typical rural traits: her coarse hands betray her sophisticated manners. There is no denying her that physical beauty, height and upright posture and above all her moral sense were praiseworthy. After marriage, Nancy is stopped by her moral sense to adopt a child but she makes up to Godfrey for this lack in other ways. When she learns that Eppie is Godfrey’s daughter, she is moved by love and sympathy.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
Observe the pedigree chart and answer the following questions:
(a) Identity whether the trait is sex linked or autosomal.
(b) Give an example of a disease in human beings which shows such a pattern of inheritance.

Question 2.
Identify the reason for the selection of DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus for Polymerase Chain Reaction

Question 3.
Govt, of India has raised the marriageable age of females to 18 yrs and of males 21 yrs. Suggest any two measures adopted by the government for the purpose.

Question 4.
Thymus of a new born child was degenerating right from birth due to genetic disorder. Predict its two impacts on the health of the child.

Question 5.
Give an example of a chromosomal disorder caused due to non-disjunction of autosomes

SECTION-B

Question 7.
A single pea plant in your kitchen garden produces pods with seeds, but the individual papaya plant does not. Explain.

Question 8.
Suggest four important steps to produce a disease resistant plant through conventional plant breeding technology.

Question 9.
Name a genus of baculovirus. Why are they considered good biocontrol agents?

Question 10.
Explain the relationship between CFCs or Ozone in the stratosphere.

OR

Why are sacred groves highly protected?

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Why is breast feeding recommended during the initial period of an infant’s growth? Give reasons.

Question 12.
Give an example of an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Explain its pattern of inheritance with the help of a cross.

Question 13.
Describe the experiment that helped Louis Pasteur to dismiss the theory of spontaneous generation of life

Question 14.
Plant breeding technique has helped sugar industry in North India. Explain how.

Question 15.
Suggest and describe a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest in vitro.

Question 16.
What is GMO? List any five possible advantages of a GMO to a farmer.

Question 17.
During a school trip to ‘Rohtang Pass’, one of your classmate suddenly developed “altitude sickness”. But, she recovered after sometime.
(a) Mention one symptom to diagnose the sickness.
(b) What caused the sickness?
(c) How could she recover by herself after sometime?

Question 18.
How has RNAi technique help to prevent the infestation of roots into tobacco plants by nematode Meloidegyne incognitia?

Question 19.
“In a food chain, a trophic level represents a functional level, not a specie.” Explain. 3

OR

(a) Name any two places where it is essential to install electrostatic precipitators. Why is it required to do so?
(b) Mention one limitation of the electrostatic precipitator

Question 20.
Prior to a sports event, blood and urine sample of sports person are collected for drug tests.3
(a) Why is there a need to conduct such tests?
(b) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
(c) Write the generic names of two plants from which these drugs are obtained.

Question 21.
Describe the experiment that helped to demonstrate the semi conservative mode of DNA replication.

Question 22.
Given below is a list of six micro-organisms. State their usefulness to humans:
(a) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(b) Saccharomycs cerebisiae
(c) Monascus purpureus
(d) Trichoderma polysporum
(e) Penicillium notatum
(f) Propionibacterium sharmanii

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Reproductive and Child Flealthcare (RCH) programme are currently in operation. One of the majof tasks of these programmes is to create awareness amongst people about the wide range of reproduction related aspects. As this is important and essential for building a reproductively healthy society.
(a) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four points in support of your opinion regarding this statement.
(b) List any two ‘indicators’ that indicate a reproductively healthy society.

SECTION-E

Question 24.
(a) Explain the post-pollination events leading to seed production in angiosperms.
(b) List the different types of pollination depending upon the source of pollen grains.

OR

(c) Briefly explain the events of fertilisation and implantation in an adult human female.
(d) Comment on placenta as an endocrine gland.

Question 25.
(a) How are the following formed and involved in DNA packing in a nucleus of a cell? 5

• Histone octomer
• Nucleosome
• Chromatin

(b) Differentiate between Euchromatin and Heterochromatin.

OR

Explain the role of lactose as an inducer in a lac operon

Question 26.
(a) Why should we conserve biodiversity? How can we do it?
(b) Explain the importance of biodiversity hot spots and sacred groves.

OR

(a) Represent diagrammatically three kinds of age-pyramids for human populations.
(b) How does an age pyramid for human population at given point of time help the policy makers in planning for future

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.

(a) Sex-linked.

(b) Haemophilia/Colourblindness.

Answer 2.
Identify the reason for the selection of DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus for Polymerase Chain Reaction.

Answer 3.
Incentives given to couples with small families/media publicity – posters of happy couples with two children (slogan-Hum Do Humare Do)/Motivate to promote smaller families by using contraceptive methods. (Any two)

Answer 4.
Thymus provides micro-environment for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes; its degeneration will weaken the immune system so the child will be prone to frequent infections.

Answer 5.
Down’s Syndrome.
SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Pea: Flowers of pea plants are bisexual, monoecious / self pollinated (to produce pods with viable seeds.

Papaya: Dioecious plant/unisexual plant bearing male and female flowers on separate plants, unable to produce viable seeds as there is no cross pollination/it could be a male plant which is unable to produce fruit and seeds.

Answer 7.
Stop codon: does not code for any amino acid/terminates the synthesis of polypeptide chain. Unambiguous codon: one codon codes for one amino acid only
Degenerate codon: some amino acids are coded by more than one codon
Universal codon: genetic code is same for all organisms (bacteria to humans)

Answer 8.
Steps for producing disease resistant plants:

1. Screening of germplasm (for resistance sources)
2. Hybridization of selected parents !
3. Selection and evaluation of hybrids
4. Testing and release of new varieties

Answer 9.
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
Species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application, no negative impact on non target organisms.

Answer 10.
UV rays act on CFC’s, release Cl atoms, which act on ozone to release O₂, resulting in ozone layer depletion/causing ozone hole.

 OR

Sacred groves are highly protected because of religious and cultural traditions, refuge for large number of rare and threatened plants/ecologically unique and biodiversity rich regions.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.
Colostrum, rich in nutrients, rich in antibodies/rich in IgA/provide passive immunity/provides :immunity to new born/helps to develop resistance in new born/readily available for new born? hygienic/develops a bond between mother and child.

Answer 12.
Sickle cell anaemia/Phenylketonuria/Thalassemia/O Blood group /Non-rolling of tongue / fused or attached ear lobes / inability to taste PTC (phenyl thiocarbamide).

Similar cross can be considered for any other trait mentioned above.

Answer 13.

Two pre sterilised flasks with killed yeast, one sealed, other open to air, differential growth of life in two flasks/life was found only in open flask. The given diagram can be considered in lieu of above explanation.
Life comes from pre-existing life (it came from air entering the flask)/proved the theory of biogenesis.

Answer 14.
Two species (Saccharum barberi and Saccharum officinarum) were crossed to get sugarcane varieties with high yield/thick stem/high sugar content/ability to-grow in North India.

Answer 15.
PCR/Polymerase Chain Reaction.
Separation/ denaturation of two strands of two dsDNA, using two sets of primers / small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides complementary to regions of DNAand (thermostable) DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase, extension of the primers, by enzyme using nucleotides replicates the DNA and if the process of replication is repeated many times, multiple copies of DNA are produced.
The following diagram can be considered in lieu of the explanation.

Answer 16.
1. Plants/bacteria/ fungi/ animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation.
2. Tolerance to abiotic stresses/like cold/drought/salt/heat, reduced reliance on chemical pesticides/pest resistant crops, reduce post harvest losses, increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants, enhanced nutritional value, to create tailor made plant.

Answer 17.
(a) Nausea/fatigue/heart palpitation
(b) Low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, body deprived of O₂.
(c) Increase in RBC, decreases binding capacity of haemoglobin, increased breathing rate, get acclimatised.

Answer 18.
Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific genes introduced into host plant, produced sense antisense RNA in host cells, ds RNA – initiated RNAi, silenced specific mRNA of nematode, parasite could not survive in transgenic host.

Answer 19.
Position of a species in any trophic level is determined by the function performed by that mode of nutrition of species in a particular food chain. A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem (in different food chains) at the given time. If the function of the mode of nutrition of species changes its position shall change in the trophic levels, same species can be at primary consumer level in one food chain and at secondary consumer level in another food chain in the same ecosystem at the given time.

OR

(a) Thermal power plants/smelters/ other particulate matter releasing industries.
To remove particulate matter (Any two)
(b) Very small particulate matter/less than 2.5 micrometres are not removed/velocity of air between plates must be low enough to allow the dust to fall/cannot work without electricity.

Answer 20.
(a) To detect drug abuse/use of banned drugs/use of cannabinoids/anabolic steroids/narcotic analgesic/diuretics/hormones/drugs used to accelerate performance / increase muscle strength/bulk/promote aggressiveness/to ensure fair game.
(b) Cannabinoids/cocaine/coca alkaloid / coke /crack/ hashish /charas/ganj a /hemp plant extract.
(c) Cannabis/Atropa/Erythroxylum/Datura. (Any two)

Answer 21.
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl grew E.coil in ¹⁵NH₄C1 for many generations to get ¹⁵N incorporated into DNA. Then the cells are transferred into ¹⁴NH₄C1. The extracted DNA are centrifuged in CsCl and measured to get their densities, DNA extracted from the culture after one generation (20 minutes), showed intermediate hybrid density, DNA extracted after two generations (40 minutes) showed light DNA and hybrid DNA.

A correctly labelled diagrammatic representation in lieu of the above explanation of experiment to be considered.

Answer 22.
(a) As bio control agents / species specific / narrow spectrum insecticidal application / no negative impacts on plants / mammals / birds / fish / non target insects / Integrated Pest Management.
(b) Used in bread making/brewing industry/ethanol/CO, production
(c) Cholesterol lowering agent/competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholestrol
(d) Produces cyclosporin-A/immuno suppressive agent
(e) Produces antibiotic penicillin
(f) Produces large holes in swiss cheese/products large amount of CO₂ in swiss cheese.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a)

• Provide right information to the young so as to discourage children from believing in myths and
• misconception about sex related aspects.
• Proper information about reproductive organs
• Proper information about adolescence and related changes
• Safe hygienic practices
• STDs/AIDS
• Available birth control options
• Care of pregnant mothers
• Post natal care
• Importance of breast feeding
• Equal opportunities for male and female child
• Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth
• Sex abuse
• Sex related crimes (Any four)

(b) Better awareness about sex related matters/increase in number of assisted deliveries/better post natal care/decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate)/decrease MMR(Matemal Mortality Rate)/increase in number of couples with small families/better detection and cure of STDs/ overall increased medical facilities for sex related problems/total well being in all aspects of reproduction/physical-behavioural-social /physically and functionally normal reproductive organs/normal emotional and behavioural interaction among all sex related aspects. (Any two)

SECTION-E

Answer 24.
(a) Pollen pistil interaction, germination of pollen tube that carries two male gametes, double
fertilization / syngamy and triple fusion, development of endosperm, development of embryo, maturation of ovule into seed.
(b) Autogamy/self pollination/Geitonogamy Xenogamy/cross pollination

OR

(a) Fertilization:

• Sperm comes in contact and enters the secondary oocyte
• Activates / induces secondary oocyte to complete meiosis II leads to formation of ovum/ootid
• The haploid nucleus of sperm and that of ovum fused to form a diploid zygote completing the process of fertilization

Implantation:

• Trophoblast layer of blastocyst attaches to the endometrium (of the uterus)
• The uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst,
• The blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium and the implantation is

Answer 25.
(a)
1. Eight molecules of (positively charged basic proteins called) histones are organised to form histone octamer.
2. Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octamer to give rise to nucleosome
3. Nucleosome constitute the repeating unit of a structure called chromatin

(b)

OR

Lactose/inducer binds with repressor protein, inactivates it, frees operator gene, RNA polymerase freely move over structural genes/RNA polymerase access to the promoter, transcribing to, lac mRNA, which on translation, produce transacetylase, permease, β-galactosidase.
The following diagram to be considered in lieu of above explanation.

Answer 26.
(a)
(1) Narrowly utilitarian-related examples like derive economic benefits from nature food (cereals, pulses, fruits)/firewood/fibre/construction materials/industrial products (tannins, lubricants, dyes, resi’ns, perfumes) / product of medicinal importance/drugs.

• Broadly utilitarian — 20% of total 0₂ from Amazon forests / pollination / aesthetic pleasures.
• Ethical — millions of species (plants, animals, microbes) share this planet/we need to realise that every species has an intrinsic value (even if it may not have any economic value to us)/we have a moral duty to care for their well being and pass on our biological legacy to future generations.

(2)

• In situ conservation / biosphere reserves/ national parks / sanctuaries / sacred groves.
• Ex situ conservation/zoological parks /botanical gardens/wild life safari parks/cryopreservation/seed banks/tissue culture (eggs in vitro).

(b) Hot spots – regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism Sacred groves – tracts of forest containing tree/wildlife were venerated, and given total protection/to protect last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants.

OR

(b) Planning of health/ education/transport/ infrastructure/finance/food/employment can depend on the age-pyramid analysis of a population. (Any two explanations)

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Maths is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Questions 1-4 in section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 5-12 in section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 13-23 in section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Questions 24-29 in section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

SECTION A

Question 1.
Find the principal value of \({ cos }^{ -1 }\left( cos\frac { 7\pi }{ 6 } \right)\)

Question 2.
A and B are square matrices of order 3 each |A| = 2 and |B| = 3, find |3AB|.

Question 3.
If \(\vec { a } =2\hat { i } -\hat { j } +3\hat { k }\) and \(\vec { b } =6\hat { i } +\lambda \hat { j } +9\hat { k }\) and \(\vec { a } ||\vec { b }\), find the value of X.

Question 4.
If f(x) = x + 7 and g (x) = x – 7, find fog (7).

SECTION B

Question 5.
Differentiate cos^-1(e^x) with respect to e^x.

Question 6.
Find the sum of the order and the degree of the differential equation.

Question 7.

Question 8.
How many equivalence relations on the set {1, 2, 3} containing (1, 2) and (2, 1) are there in all?

Question 9.
Find the direction cosines of the normal to the plane 2x + 3y – z = 5 and also find the distance from the origin.

Question 10.
A shopkeeper sells only tables and chairs. He has only ₹ 6000 to invest and has space for atmost 20 items. A table costs him ₹ 400 and a chair ₹ 250. He can sell a table at a profit of ₹ 25 and a chair at a profit of ₹ 40. Supposing that he sell all his stock, formulate the problem as L.F.P.

Question 11.
The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at the rate of 2 cm/sec. Find the rate at which its area increases when side is 10 cm long.

Question 12.
A couple has 2 children. Find the probability that both are boys if it is known that
(i) atleast one of them is a boy
(ii) the older child is a boy.

SECTION C

Question 13.

Question 14.
Evaluate \(\int _{ 0 }^{ 3 }{ \left( { x }^{ 2 }-5 \right) } dx\)

Question 15.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve \(y=\sqrt { 1-{ x }^{ 2 } }\) and the line y = x bounded with positive x-axis.

Question 16.
Determine for what values of x the function f(x) = x³ + \(\frac { 1 }{ { x }^{ 3 } }\), x ≠ 0 is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.
OR
Find the point on the curve y = x³ – 11x + 5 at which the tangent is y = x – 11.

Question 17.
It is given that for the function f(x) = x³ – 6x² + ax + b Rolle’s theorem verified in [1, 3] with c = 2 + \(\frac { 1 }{ \surd 3 }\). Find the value of a and b.

Question 18.
If A + B + C = π then find the value of

OR
Using properties of determinant prove that

Question 19.
Find the Cartesian as well as the vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes \(\vec { r } \cdot \left( 2\hat { i } +6\hat { j } \right) +12=0\) and \(\vec { r } \cdot \left( 3\hat { i } -\hat { j } +4\hat { k } \right) =0\) which are at unit distance from the origin.

Question 20.

Question 21.
For three persons A, B, C the chances of being selected as manager of a firm are in the ratio 4 : 1 : 2 respectively. The respective probabilities for them to introduce new changes in market strategy are 0.3, 0.8 and 0.5 respectively. If the changes does take place find the probability that it was due to appointment of B or C. Write the qualities that makes a person successful manager.

Question 22.
Using graphical method solve the following L.P.P.
Z = 4x + 8y
Subject to constraints
2x + y ≤ 30
x + 2y ≤ 24
x ≥ 3, y ≤ 9, y ≥ 0

Question 23.
Suppose that 80% of the people are right handed. What is the probability that at most 6 of at random samples of 10 people are right-handed?

SECTION D

Question 24.

Question 25.
Does the following trigonometric equation have any solution? If yes, obtain the solutions \({ tan }^{ -1 }\left( \frac { x+1 }{ x-1 } \right) +{ tan }^{ -1 }\left( \frac { x-1 }{ x } \right) =-{ tan }^{ -1 }7\)
OR
Determine whether the operation * define on Q is binary operation or not. a * b = ab + 1. If yes, check the commutative and associative properties. Also check the existence of identity element and the inverse of all elements in Q.

Question 26.

Question 27.
Find the shortest distance between the line x – y + 1 = 0 and the curve y² = x.

Question 28.
Find the distance of the point (-2, 3, -4) from the line \(\frac { x+2 }{ 3 } =\frac { 2y+3 }{ 4 } =\frac { 3z+4 }{ 5 }\) measured parallel to the plane 4x + 12y – 3z + 1 = 0.

Question 29.
If \(A=\left( \begin{matrix} 2 & 3 & 7 \\ 3 & -2 & -1 \\ 1 & 1 & 2 \end{matrix} \right)\) , find A^-1.
Using A^-1 solve the following system of equations
2x + 3y + 7z = 12
3x – 2y – z = 0
x + y + 2z = 4

Solutions

Solution 1.

Solution 2.
|3AB| = 3³ |A| |B| = 27 (2) (3) = 162

Solution 3.

Solution 4.
f(x) = x + 7, g(x) = x – 7
(fog) (x) = f(g(x)) = f(x – 7) = x – 7 + 7 = x
(fog) (7) = 7.

Solution 5.
Let y = cos^-1 (e^x) and t = e^x

Solution 6.

Solution 7.

Solution 8.
Possible equivalence relations are {(1, 2), (2, 1), (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} and {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2),(2, 1), (1, 3), (3, 1), (2, 3), (3, 2)}
There are two possible equivalence relation.

Solution 9.

Solution 10.
Let shopkeeper sales x tables and y chairs.
Objective function is Maximize Profit Z = 25x + 40y
Subject to constraints are
400 x + 250 y ≤ 6000 (investment constraint)
x + y ≤ 20 (space constraint)
x, y ≥ 0 (Non-negative constraint)

Solution 11.

Solution 12.
As per order of birth two children may be (B₁B₂, G₁G₂, B₁G₂, G₁B₂}
Let E is the event both are boys ⇒ (B₁B₂)
E₁ is the event atleast one of them is a boy ⇒ (B₁B₂, B₁G₂, G₁B₂)
E₂ is the event the older child is a boy ⇒ (B₁B₂, B₁G₂)

Solution 13.

Solution 14.

Solution 15.

Solution 16.

Solution 17.

Solution 18.

Solution 19.

Solution 20.

Solution 21.

Solution 22.

Solution 23.

Solution 24.

Solution 25.

Solution 26.

Solution 27.

Solution 28.

Solution 29.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 3

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions :
SECTION : A

Question 1.
If the angle between the pass axis of polarizer and the analyser is 45°, write the ratio of the ‘ intensities of original light and the transmitted light after passing through the analyser.

Question 2.
You are given following three lenses. Which two lenses will you use as an eyepiece and as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope?

Question 3.
Write the following electromagnetic waves in ascending order with respect to their frequencies: X-rays, microwaves, UV rays and radio waves.

Question 4.
What is sky wave propagation?

Question 5.
Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight solenoid. Why?

SECTION : B

Question 6.
The figure shows a plot of three curves a, b, c, showing the variation of photocurrent v/s collector plate potential for three different intensities I₁ I₂ and I₃ having frequencies v₁ v₂ and v₃ respectively incident on a photosensitive surface. Point out the two curve for which the incident radiations have same frequency but different intensities.

Question 7.
What type of wavefront will emerge from a
(i) point source, and
(ii) distant light source?

Question 8.
Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of their nuclear densities?

Question 9.
A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘V’ is connected across a variable resistor ‘R’ Plot a graph showing the variation of terminal potential ‘V’ with resistance R. Predict from the graph the condition under which ‘V’ becomes equal to ‘E’.

Question 10.
(i) Can two equipotential surfaces intersect with each other? Give reasons.
(ii) Two charges -q and +q are located at points A (0,0, -a) and B (0,0, +a) respectively. How much work is done in moving a test charge from point P (7, 0, 0) to Q (-3, 0, 0)?

SECTION : C

Question 11.
A radioactive nucleus ‘A’ undergoes a series of decays according to the following scheme :

The mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively. What are these numbers for A_{4 ?}

Question 12.
An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which one the two has
(i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and
(ii) less momentum? Justify your answer.

Question 13.
By what percentage will the transmission ranges of TV tower be affected when the height of the tower is increased by 21 %?

Question 14.
Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time.

Question 15.
In a single slit diffraction experiment, when tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant source, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain why? State two points of difference between the interference pattern obtained in Young’s double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern due to a single slit.

Question 16.
A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Using Gauss’s law, derive an expression for an electric field at a point outside the shell. Draw a graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the centre of the shell for 0 ≤ r ≤ ∝.

Question 17.
Why are high frequency carrier waves used for transmission?

OR

What is meant by term modulation’? Draw a block diagram of a simple modulator for obtaining an AM signal.

Question 18.
Three identical capacitors C₁, C₂ and C₃ of capacitance 6 μF each are connected to a 12 V battery as shown :

Find
(i) charge on each capacitor
(ii) equivalent capacitance of the network
(iii) energy stored in the network of capacitors

Question 19.
(a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. Which of them will result in the transition of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?

(b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?

Question 20.
(a) Define self inductance. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Derive an expression for self inductance of a long solenoid of length l, cross-sectional area A having N number of turns.

Question 21.
The figure shows experimental set up of a meter bridge. When the two unknown resistances X and Y are inserted, the null point D is obtained 40 cm from the end A. When a resistance of 10Ω is connected in series with X, the null point shifts by 10 cm.Find the position of the null point when the 10Ω resistance is instead connected in series with resistance ‘Y’. Determine the values of the resistances X and Y.

Question 22.
Derive the expression for force per unit length between two long straight parallel current carrying conductors. Hence define one ampere.

OR

Explain the principle and working of a cyclotron with the help of a schematic diagram. Write the expression for cyclotron frequency.

SECTION : D

Questin 23.
Shivani was interested to gift something to her mother on her birthday. But she could not decide what to give her mother.She asked her brother. Her brother advised to gift a microwave oven to the mother. But their father said it is a wastage of money. They convinced him for a microwave and ultimately her father was agreed for microwave.

1. hat qualities Shivani and her brother possess?
2. State how a microwave oven works?

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(i) Draw a circuit diagram to study the input and output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in its common emitter configuration. Draw the typical input and output characteristics.
(ii) Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of n-p-n transistor as a common emitter amplifier.

OR

How is a zener diode fabricated so as to make it a special purpose diode? Draw I-V characteristics of zener diode and explain the significance of breakdown voltage. Explain briefly, with the help of a circuit diagram, how a p-n junction diode works as a half wave rectifier

Question 25.
Trace the rays of light showing the formation of an image due to a point object placed on the axis of a spherical surface separating the two media of refractive indices n₁ and n₂. Establish the relation between the distances of the object, the image and the radius of curvature from the central point of the spherical surface. Hence derive the expression of the lens makers formula.

OR

Draw the labelled ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Derive the expression for the total magnification of a compound microscope. Explain why both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope must have short focal lengths.

Question 26.
(a) Derive an expression for the average power consumed in a series LCR circuit connected to a.c. source in which the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is Φ.
(b) Define the quality factor in an a.c. circuit. Why should the quality factor have high value in receiving circuits? Name the factors on which it depends.

OR

(i) Derive the relationship between the peak and the rms value of current in an a.c. circuit.
(ii) Describe briefly, with the help of labelled diagram, working of a step-up transformer. A step-up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the principle of conservation of energy? Explain.

 Answers :

SECTION : A 

Answer 1.

Answer 2.
For constructing an astronomical telescope, the objective should have the maximum diameter. Of the three lenses given, L₁ has the maximum diameter so, use lens L₁ as an objective. The eyepiece should have the highest power for better magnification. Therefore, we use lens L₃ as an eyepiece.

Answer 3.
The given electromagnetic waves can be arranged in ascending order with respect to their frequencies as :
Radio waves < Microwaves < UV rays < X-rays

Answer 4.
The type of propagation in which radio waves are transmitted towards the sky and are reflected by the ionosphere towards the desired location on earth is called sky wave propagation.

Answer 5.
Magnetic field lines form closed loops around a current – carrying wire. The geometry of a straight solenoid is such that magnetic field lines cannot loop around circular wires without spilling over to the outside of the solenoid. The geometry of a toroid is such that magnetic field lines can loop around electric wires without spilling over to the outside. Hence, magnetic field lines can be entirely confined within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight solenoid.

SECTION : B

Answer 6.

The stopping potential increases with increasing frequency of radiations. Thus curves a and b have the same frequency but different intensities.

Answer 7.
(i) For a point source, wavefront will be spherical,
(ii) For a distant light source, the wavefronts will be plane.

Answer 8.
Nuclear density is independent of mass number. Hence, both the atoms have the same nuclear density.
i.e.,  d₁ : d₂ = 1 : 1

Answer 9.

V becomes equal to E when no current flows through the circuit.

Hence, can say that when resistance increases from R = 0 to R = ∝ then V_T increases from minimum to maximum and current decreases from
maximum to minimum value.

Answer 10.
(i) Two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect with each other because when they will intersect,then at a point the electric field will have two directions, which is not possible.
(ii) Potential at P (7, 0, 0)

SECTION : C

Answer 11.

∴ The mass number of A₄ = 172 and the atomic number of A₄= 69

Answer 12.
(i) The de Broglie wavelength associated with potential V is

Answer 13.

Answer 14.
If there are N electrons and the velocity of the i^th electron at a given time is v_i where, i = (1, 2, 3,…N), then

For all the electrons in the conductor, average value of v. is zero. The average of v_t is v_d or drift velocity. This is the average velocity experienced by an electron in an external electric field. There is no fixed time after which each collision occurs. Therefore, we take the average time after which one collision takes place by an electron.
Let this time, also known as relaxation time, be t. Substituting this in equation (1)

Then, Negative sign shows that electrons drift opposite to the applied field.

Answer 15.
A bright spot is observed when a tiny circular object is placed in the path of light from a distant source in a single slit diffraction experiment because light rays flare into the shadow region of the circular object as they pass the edge of the tiny circular object. The light from all the edges of the tiny circular object are in phase with each other. Thus they form a bright spot at the centre of the shadow of the tiny circular object. The two differences between the interference patterns obtained in Young’s double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern due to a single slit are as follows: The fringes in the interference pattern obtained from diffraction are of varying width, while in case of interference, all are of the same width. The bright fringes in the interference pattern obtained from diffraction have a central maximum followed by fringes of decreasing intensity, whereas in case of interference, all the bright fringes are of equal intensity.

Answer 16.
According to Gauss law,

Where, q is the point charge,
E is electric field due to the point charge,
dA is a small area on the Gaussian surface at any distance,
e₀ is the proportionally constant.
For a spherical shell at distance r from the point charge, the integral § dA is merely the sum of all differential of dA on the sphere.
Therefore,

Therefore, for a thin conducting spherical shell of radius R and charge Q, spread uniformly over its surface, the electric field at any point outside the shell is


The graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the centre of the shell for 0 ≤ r ≤ ∝.

Answer 17.
For transmitting a signal, the antenna should have a size comparable to the wavelength of the signal (atleast λ/4 in dimension), where λ is the wavelength. If the frequency of the signal is small, then its wavelength becomes very large and it is impractical to make those large antennas for the corresponding large wavelengths. For higher frequencies, wavelength is smaller, which is the reason why high frequency carrier waves are used for transmission.

OR

The process of superimposing information containing in a low frequency signal on a high frequency signal is called modulartion

Answer 18.
Existing diagram can be redrawn as follows :

Answer 19.
(a) Energy transitions for A, B, C and D are :


(b)

For maximum wavelength, energy transition should be minimum. A undergoes minimum energy transition.
A = 2 eV
Thus, photon in A will have the maximum wavelength.

Answer 20.
(a) The phenomenon in which emf is induced in a single isolated coil due to change of flux through the coil by means of varying the current through the same coil is called self inductance. S.I. unit of inductance is henry (H).
(b) Magnetic field B inside a solenoid carrying a current i is B = μ₀ n i
Let n be the number of turns per unit length.

Answer 21.
For meter bridge :

Answer 22.

1 ampere is the value of that steady current which when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, parallel conductors of negligible cross-section and placed one metre apart in vacuum, would produce on each of these conductors a force equal to 2 x 10^-7 Newton per metre of length.

OR

Cyclotron is a machine used to accelerate charged particles or ions to high energies. It uses both electrical and magnetic fields in combination to increase the speed of the charged particles. The particles move in two semi-circular containers D₁ and D₂, called Dees. Inside the metal box, the charged particle is shielded from external electric fields. When the particle moves from one dee to another, electric field is acted on the particle. The sign of the electric field is changed alternately, in tune with the circular motion of the particle. Hence, the particle is always accelerated by the electric field. As the energy of the particle increases, the radius of the circular path increases.


The above expression is the expression for cyclotron frequency. The oscillator applies an ac voltage across the dees and this voltage must have a frequency equal to that of cyclotron frequency.

SECTION : D

Answer 23.

1. (a) Caring, love, affection and respect towards her parents.
   (b) General awareness about scientific gadgets and their utilities.
2. In microwave oven the frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of water molecules so that energy from the waves is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of molecules. In this way temperature of any food item containing water increases.

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(i)

Input characteristics :

Output characteristics :

(ii) The input (base-emitter) circuit is forward and the output (collector-emitter) circuit is reversed biased. When no a.c. signal is applied, the potential difference Vcc between the collector and emitter is given by    V_cc = V_ce +I_c R_L
When an a.c. signal is fed to the input circuit, the forward bias increase during  the positive half cycle of the input. This result in increase in I_c and decrease inV_cc. Thus during the positive half cycle of the input, the collector becomes less positive.

During the negative half cycle of the input, the forward bias is decreased resulting in decrease in I_E and hence I_c. Thus V_cc would increase making the collector more positive. Hence in a common-emitter amplifier, the output voltage is 180° out of phase with the input voltage.

• Input signal voltage V_in = I_BR_in
• Output signal voltage V_out = I_CR_L
  
• Voltage gain (A_v) of the amplifier is

OR

Zener diode is fabricated such that both the p-type and the n-type are highly doped. This makes the depletion region thin. When an electric field is applied, a high electric field appears across the thin depletion region. When the electric field becomes very high, it knocks off electrons from the host atoms to create a large number of electrons. This results in a large value of current inside the circuit.

Zener has a sharp breakdown voltage and this property of zener is used for voltage regulation.

An a.c. current has a positive half cycle and a negative half cycle. A p-n junction allows current to pass only in one direction and that is when it is forward biased. When a positive half-cycle occurs, the p-side has a lower potential. Therefore, the diode is now forward biased and therefore, conducts and this positive cycle is available for the load. When a negative half cycle occurs, the «-side has a higher potential than the p-side. Hence, the diode is now reverse biased and thus, does not conduct. As a result, this negative half cycle does not conduct. Therefore, it does not appear at the load and is cut-off. We obtain a waveform, which has only positive half cycles and therefore it is called halfwave rectifier.

Answer 25.
In the given figure, image is I and object is denoted as O. The centre of curvature is X. The rays are incident from a medium of refractive index n₁ to another of refractive index n₂ We consider NM to-be perpendicular to the principal axis.

For a thin lens , BI₁  = DI₁
Adding  (ii) and (iii) , we obtain

Answer 26.
(a) The rate of dissipation of energy in an electrical circuit is called the ‘power’. It is equal to the product of the emf and the current. The power of an alternating-current depends upon the phase difference between the emf and the current. The instantaneous values of the emf and the current in an a.c. circuit are given by

(b) Quality Factor :
It is defined as the ratio of the voltage drop across inductor or capacitor to the applied voltage.

The quality factor has high value in receiving circuits in order to get a sharp gain for the desired channel frequency. The quality factor depends on the following values :

• Inductance
• Resistance
• Capacitance

OR

(a) The instantaneous power dissipated in the resistor is


No, a step-up transformer steps up the voltage while steps down the current. So input and output power remains same, provided there is no loss. Hence, there is no violation of principle of conservation of energy.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.   

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Maths is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Questions 1-4 in section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 5-12 in section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 13-23 in section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Questions 24-29 in section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

SECTION A

Question 1.

Question 2.
Check the continuity of the function

Question 3.
Integrate

Question 4.
Find a vector in the direction of vector \(\vec { a } =2\hat { i } -3\hat { j } +4\hat { k }\) that has magnitude 5 units.

SECTION B

Question 5.
Find the value of x + y + z if

Question 6.
Differentiate log (1 + θ) with respect to sin^-1 θ.

Question 7.
A balloon which always remains spherical has a variable radius. Find the rate at which its volume is increasing with the radius when the radius is 10 cm.

Question 8.
Show that the function f(x) = tan x – x is always increasing in X ∈ R.

Question 9.
Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 4, -2) and it is parallel to the plane -2x + y + 3z = 0.

Question 10.
Event E and F are such that P (not E or not F) = 0.25. State whether E and F are mutually exclusive.

Question 11.
A manufacturing company makes two types of teaching aids A and B of Mathematics for class XII. Each type of A requires 9 labour hours for fabricating and 1 labour hours for finishing. Each type of B requires 12 labour hours for fabricating and 3 labour hours for finishing. For fabricating and finishing the maximum labour hours available per week are 180 and 30 respectively. The company makes a profit of ₹ 80 on each type of A and ₹ 120 on each type of B. Formulate it as L.P.P. to make a maximum profit.

Question 12.
Evaluate

SECTION C

Question 13.
Prove that

Question 14.
Using properties of determinant prove that

OR
Using properties of determinant prove that

Question 15.

Question 16.
Evaluate

Question 17.
Evaluate

OR
Evaluate

as limit of sums

Question 18.
Solve the differential equation

Question 19.

Question 20.

Question 21.
On a multiple choice examination with three possible answers (out of which only one is correct) for each of the five questions, what is the probability that a candidate would get four or more correct answers just by guessing? Is examination necessary for success in the life of student?

Question 22.
There are two bags, bag I and bag II. Bag I contains 4 white and 3 red balls while another bag II contains 3 white and 7 red balls. One ball in drawn at random from one of the bags and it is found to be white. Find the probability that it was drawn from bag I.

Question 23.
Solve the following L.P.P.
Maximize profit Z = 17.5 x + 7y
Subject to constraints are x + 3y ≤ 12 3x + y ≤ 12, x, y ≥ 0

SECTION D

Question 24.
If \(A=\left( \begin{matrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\ 2 & 1 & -3 \\ 1 & 1 & 1 \end{matrix} \right)\) Find A-1 and hence solve the system of equations
x + 2y + z = 4
-x + y + z = 0
x – 3y + z = 2

Question 25.
Let x be non-empty set. P(x) be its power set. Let * be an operation defined on element of P(x) by,
A*B = A ∩ B \(\forall\) A, B ∈ P(x). Then
(i) Prove that * is a binary operation in P(x)
(ii) Is * commutative?
(iii) Is * associative?
(iv) Find the identity element in P(x) w.r.t. *
(v) Find all the invertible elements of P(x)
(vi) If o is another binary operation defined on P(x) as AοB = A ∪ B then verify that o distributes itself over *
OR
Consider f : R₊ → [-5, ∞) given by f(x) = 9x² + 6x – 5. Show that f is invertible. Find the inverse of f.

Question 26.
Using integration find the area bounded by the lines x + 2y = 2, y – x = 1, 2x + y = 7.
OR
Using integration find the area bounded by the curves (x – 1)² + y² = 1 and x² + y² = 1

Question 27.
Find the maximum area of the isosceles triangle inscribed in the ellipse \(\frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { y }^{ 2 } }{ { b }^{ 2 } } =1\) with its vertex at one end of major axis.

Question 28.
Solve the following differential equation:

Question 29.
Find the equation of plane passing through the point (-1, -1, 2) and perpendicular to each of the following planes:
2x + 3y – 3z = 2 and 5x – 4y + z = 6
OR
Find the equation of the plane passing through the points (3, 4, 1) and (0, 1, 0) and parallel to the line \(\frac { x+3 }{ 2 } +\frac { y-3 }{ 7 } +\frac { z-2 }{ 5 }\)

Solutions

Solution 1.

Solution 2.

Solution 3.

Solution 4.

Solution 5.

Solution 6.

Solution 7.

Solution 8.
f(x) = tan x – x
f'(x) = sec²x – 1
\(\forall\) x ∈ R, The range of sec² x is [1, ∞)
So for all x ∈ R, f'(x) ≥ 0
Hence f(x) is always increasing function.

Solution 9.
Equation of plane passing through the point (1, 4, -2) is a(x – 1) + b(y – 4) + c (z + 2) = 0 …… (i)
where a, b, c are direction ratio of plane.
Plane (i) is parallel to the plane -2x + y + 3z = 0, so direction ratio of both planes will be in ratio

Solution 10.
P(not E or not F) = 0.25 or P(E’ ∪ F’) = 0.25
P(E ∩ F)’ = 0.25
P(E ∩ F)’ = 1 – P(E ∩ F)
0.25 = 1 – P (E ∩ F)
P(E ∩ F) = 1 – 0.25 = 0.75 ≠ 0
So E and F are not mutually exclusive.

Solution 11.
Let x teaching aids of type A andy teaching aids of type B are manufactured.
Objective function is maximize profit Z = ₹ (80x + 120y)
Subject to constraints are
9x + 12y ≤ 180 (fabricating constraint)
x + 3y ≤ 30 (finishing constraint)
x, y ≥ 0 (non-negative constraint)

Solution 12.

Solution 13.

Solution 14.

Solution 15.

Solution 16.

Solution 17.

Solution 18.

Solution 19.

Solution 20.

Solution 21.
Total questions = n = 5

Yes. In the life of students examination are necessary. By this, student keep his/her knowledge up-to-date.

Solution 22.
E₁ is the event. Bag I is selected.
E₂ is the event. Bag II is selected.

Solution 23.

Solution 24.

Solution 25.




Solution 26.

Solution 27.

Solution 28.

Solution 29.
Equation of plane passing through the point (-1, -1, 2) is
a (x + 1) + b (y + 1) + c (z – 2) = 0 …(1)
Here a, b, c are direction ratio of this plane.
Plane (1) is perpendicular to the planes
2x + 3y – 3z =2 and
5x – 4y + z = 6 so
2a + 3b – 3c = 0
5a – 4b + c = 0

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Maths is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Questions 1-4 in section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 5-12 in section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 13-23 in section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Questions 24-29 in section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

SECTION A

Question 1.
State the reason why the Relation R = {(a, b) : a ≤ b²} on the set R of real numbers is not reflexive.

Question 2.
If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |2A| = k |A|. then find the value of k.

Question 3.
If \(\vec { a }\) and \(\vec { b }\) are two non-zero vectors such that \(\left| \vec { a } \times \vec { b } \right| =\vec { a } \cdot \vec { b }\), then find the angle between \(\vec { a }\) and \(\vec { b }\).

Question 4.
If * is a binary operation on the set R of real numbers defined by a * b = a + b – 2, then find the identity element for the binary operation *.

SECTION B

Question 5.
Simplify \({ cot }^{ -1 }\frac { 1 }{ \sqrt { { x }^{ 2 }-1 } }\) for x < -1.

Question 6.
If A and B are symmetric matrix then prove that AB – BA is skew symmetric.

Question 7.

Question 8.
If x changes from 4 to 4.01, then find the approximate change in log_e x.

Question 9.
Find \(\int { \left( \frac { 1-x }{ 1+{ x }^{ 2 } } \right) ^{ 2 } } { e }^{ x }dx\)

Question 10.
Obtain the differential equation of the family of circles passing through the points (a, 0) and (-a, 0).

Question 11.

Question 12.

SECTION C

Question 13.
If \(A=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & -2 \\ 2 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), then using A^-1 solve the following system of equations: x – 2y = -1, 2x + y = 2.

Question 14.

Question 15.
If x = a sin pt, y = b cos pt, then show that \(\left( { a }^{ 2 }-{ x }^{ 2 } \right) y\frac { { d }^{ 2 }y }{ d{ x }^{ 2 } } +{ b }^{ 2 }=0\)

Question 16.
Find the equation of the normal to the curve 2y = x², which passes through the point (2, 1).
OR
Separate the interval [0, \(\frac { \pi }{ 2 }\)] into subintervals in which the function f(x) = sin⁴x + cos⁴x is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.

Question 17.
A magazine seller has 500 subscribers and collects annual subscription charges of ₹ 300 per subscriber. She proposes to increase the annual subscription charges and it is believed that for every increase of ₹ 1, one subscriber will discontinue. What increase will bring maximum income to her? Make appropriate assumptions in order to apply derivatives to reach the solution. Write one important role of magazines in our lives.

Question 18.

Question 19.
Find the general solution of the differential equation (1 + tan y) (dx – dy) + 2xdy = 0.
OR

Question 20.

Question 21.
Find the values of‘a’so that the following lines are skew:

Question 22.
A bag contains 4 green and 6 white balls. Two balls are drawn one by one without replacement. If the second ball drawn is white, what is the probability that the first ball drawn is also white?

Question 23.
Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of the number of diamond cards drawn. Also, find the mean and the variance of the distribution.

SECTION D

Question 24.
Let f: [0, ∞) → R be a function defined by fx) = 9x² + 6x – 5. Prove that f is not invertible. Modify, only the codomain of f to make f invertible and then find its inverse.
OR
Let * be a binary operation defined on Q x Q by (a, b) * (c, d) = (ac, b + ad), where Q is the set of rational numbers. Determine, whether * is commutative and associative. Find the identity element for * and the invertible elements of Q x Q.

Question 25.
Using properties of determinants, prove that

prove that atleast one of the following statements is true:
(a) p, q, r are in G.P.
(b) a is a root of the equation px² + 2qx + r = 0.

Question 26.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = √(5 – x²) and y = |x – 1|.

Question 27.
Evaluate the following:
\(\int _{ 0 }^{ \frac { \pi }{ 2 } }{ \frac { xsinx\quad cosx }{ { sin }^{ 4 }x+{ cos }^{ 4 }x } } dx\)
OR
Evaluate \(\int _{ 0 }^{ 4 }{ \left( x+{ e }^{ 2x } \right) } dx\)

Question 28.
Find the equation of the plane through the point (4, -3, 2) and perpendicular to the line of intersection of the planes x – y + 2z – 3 = 0 and 2x – y – 3z = 0. Find the point of intersection of the line \(\vec { r } =\vec { i } +2\vec { j } -\vec { k } +\lambda \left( \vec { j } +3\vec { j } -9\vec { k } \right)\) and the plane obtained above.

Question 29.
In a mid-day meal programme, an NGO wants to provide vitamin rich diet to the students of an MCD school. The dietician of the NGO wishes to mix two types of food in such a way that vitamin contents of the mixture contains atleast 8 units of vitamin A and 10 units of vitamin C. Food 1 contains 2 units per kg of vitamin A and 1 unit per kg of vitamin C. Food 2 contains 1 unit per Kg of vitamin A and 2 units per kg of vitamin C. It costs ₹ 50 per kg to purchase Food 1 and ₹ 70 per kg to purchase Food 2. Formulate the problem as LPP and solve it graphically for the minimum cost of such a mixture?

Solutions

Solution 1.

Solution 2.
k = 2³ = 8

Solution 3.
sin θ = cos θ ⇒ θ = 45°

Solution 4.
e ∈ R is the identity element for * if a * e = e * a = a ∀ a ∈ R ⇒ a + e – 2 = a ⇒ e = 2

Solution 5.

Solution 6.
A, B is symmetric matrix so A’ = A, B’ = B
(AB – BA)’ = (AB)’ – (BA)’ = B’A’ – A’B’ = BA – AB = – (AB – BA)
So AB – BA is skew symmetric matrix.

Solution 7.

Solution 8.

Solution 9.

Solution 10.

Solution 11.

Solution 12.

Solution 13.

Solution 14.

Solution 15.

Solution 16.
Let the normal be at (x₁, y₁) to the curve 2y = x². \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\) = x.
The slope of the normal at

Solution 17.
Increase in subscription charges = ₹ x, Decrease in the number of subscriber = x.
Obviously, x is a whole number.
Income is given by y = (500 – x) (300 + x).
Let us assume for the time being
0 ≤ x < 500, x ∈ R

y is maximum when x = 100, which is a whole number. Therefore, she must increase the subscription charges by ₹ 100 to have maximum income.
Magazines contribute, a great deal, to the development of our knowledge. Through valuable and subtle critical and commentary articles on culture, social civilization, new life style we learn a lot of interesting things. Through reading magazines, our mind and point of view are consolidated and enriched.

Solution 18.

Solution 19.

Solution 20.

Solution 21.
As 2 : 3 : 4 ≠ 5 : 2 : 1, the lines are not parallel
Any point on the first line is (2λ + 1, 3λ + 2, 4λ + a)
Any point on the second line is (5μ + 4, 2μ + 1, μ)
Lines will be skew, if, apart from being non-parallel, they do not intersect. There must not exist a pair of values of λ, μ, which satisfy the three equations simultaneously:
2λ + 1 = 5μ + 4, 3λ + 2 = 2μ + 1, 4λ + a = μ
Solving the first two equations, we get λ = -1, μ = -1
These values will not satisfy the third equation if a ≠ 3

Solution 22.
Let E₁ = First ball drawn is white,
E₂ = First ball drawn is green,
A = Second ball drawn is white
The required probability, by Bayes’ Theorem

Solution 23.

Solution 24.

Solution 25.

Solution 26.

Solution 27.

Solution 28.

Solution 29.
Let x kg of Food 1 be mixed with y kg of Food 2. Then to minimize the cost, C = 50x + 70y subject to the following constraints:
2x + y ≥ 8, x + 2y ≥ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

In the half plane 50x + 70y < 380, there is no point common with the feasible region. Hence, the minimum cost is ₹ 380.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Maths is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Questions 1-4 in section A are very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 5-12 in section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 13-23 in section C are long answer I type questions carrying 4 marks each.
• Questions 24-29 in section D are long answer II type questions carrying 6 marks each.

SECTION A

Question 1.
Find λ when projection of \(\bar { a } =\lambda \hat { i } +\hat { j } +4\hat { k }\) on \(\bar { b } =2\hat { i } +6\hat { j } +3\hat { k }\) is 4 units.

Question 2.
Evaluate \(\int _{ 2 }^{ 3 }{ \frac { 1 }{ 2x } } dx\)

Question 3.
Write the cofactor of the element a₃₁ in \(A=\left( \begin{matrix} 3 & 2 & 6 \\ 5 & 0 & 7 \\ 3 & 8 & 5 \end{matrix} \right)\)

Question 4.
For which values of x, f(x) = \(\left| x-1 \right| +\left| x-2 \right|\) is not differentiable?

SECTION B

Question 5.
For what value of c, Mean Value theorem is applicable for the function f(x) = x + \(\frac { 1 }{ x }\) on [1, 3] ?

Question 6.
Find \(\frac { dy }{ dx }\), if y = \({ tan }^{ -1 }\left( \frac { 1-cosx }{ 1+cosx } \right)\)

Question 7.
For the matrix \(A=\begin{pmatrix} 3 & 1 \\ 7 & 5 \end{pmatrix}\) find the value of x and y so that A² + xI = yA

Question 8.
Using derivative, find the approximate percentage increase in the area of a circle if its radius is increased by 2%.

Question 9.
The random variable x has a probability distribution P(x) of the following form, where k is some number

Find the value of (i) k (ii) P(x ≥ 2)

Question 10.
Find the equation of line passing through the point with position vector \(\hat { i } +\hat { j } +\hat { k }\) and perpendicular to the plane \(\left( 2\hat { i } +\hat { j } +\hat { 3k } \right) \cdot \hat { r } =5\) in both vector form and Cartesian form.

Question 11.
Evaluate \(\int _{ 0 }^{ 1 }{ x{ e }^{ { x }^{ 2 } } } dx\)

Question 12.
Anil wants to invest at most ₹ 12000 in bonds A and B. He wants to invest atleast ₹ 2000 in bond A and atleast ₹ 4000 in bond B. If rate of interest on bond A is 8% per annum and rate of interest on bond B is 9% per annum. Formulate it as L.P.P. to find maximum yearly income.

SECTION C

Question 13.
Two balls are drawn at random from a bag containing 2 white, 3 red, 5 green and 4 black balls one by one without replacement. Find the probability that both the balls are of different colours.

Question 14.
The probabilities of two students A and B coming to the school in time are \(\frac { 3 }{ 7 }\) and \(\frac { 5 }{ 7 }\) respectively. Assuming that the events A coming in time and B coming in time are independent. Find the probability of only one of them coming to the school in time. Write atleast one advantage of coming to the school in time.

Question 15.

Question 16.

Question 17.

Question 18.
Evaluate \(\int { \frac { sin\phi d\phi }{ \sqrt { { sin }^{ 2 }\phi +2cos\phi +3 } } }\)

Question 19.
Evaluate \(\int _{ 0 }^{ \pi }{ \frac { x\quad tanx }{ secx+tanx } } dx\)
OR
Evaluate \(\int _{ 0 }^{ \frac { \pi }{ 2 } }{ log\quad sinx\quad dx }\)

Question 20.

Question 21.
Find the particular solution for the differential equation

Question 22.
If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, prove that the magnitude of their difference is √3.

Question 23.
Solve the following L.P.P. graphically:
Minimize and maximize Z = 3x + 9y
Subject to constraint
x + 3y ≤ 60
x + y ≥ 10
x ≤ y
x, y ≥ 0

SECTION D

Question 24.
Find the distance of the point P(3, 4, 4) from the point where the line joining the points A (3, -4, -5) and B (2, -3, 1) intersect the plane 2x + y + z = 7.
OR
It lines \(\frac { x-1 }{ 1 } =\frac { y+1 }{ 3 } =\frac { z-1 }{ 4 }\) and \(\frac { x-3 }{ 1 } =\frac { y-k }{ 2 } =\frac { z }{ 1 }\) intersect, then find the value of k and hence find the equation of the plane containing these lines.

Question 25.
Let N denote the set of all natural numbers and R be the relation on N x N defined by (a, b) R (c, d) if ad (b + c) = bc (a + d)
Show that R is an equivalence relation.
OR
A binary operation * is defined on the set X = R – {-1} by x * y = x + y + xy ∀ x, y ∈ X. Check whether * is commutative and associative. Find the identity element and also find the inverse of each element of X.

Question 26.
Given the sum of the perimeter of a square and a circle. Show that sum of their areas is least when the side of the square is equal to the diameter of the circle.
OR
Show that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is \(\frac { 2R }{ \surd 3 }\). Also find the maximum volume.

Question 27.
Determine the product \(\left( \begin{matrix} -4 & 4 & 4 \\ -7 & 1 & 3 \\ 5 & -3 & -1 \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\ 1 & -2 & -2 \\ 2 & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right)\) and use it to solve the system of equations
x – y + z = 4
x – 2y – 2z = 9
2x + y + 3z = 1

Question 28.
Find the area of the region {(x, y): x² + y² ≤ 4, x + y ≥ 2} using integration.

Question 29.
Solve the following differential equation

Solutions

Solution 1.

Solution 2.

Solution 3.

Solution 4.
At x = 1 and x = 2, f(x) is not differentiable.

Solution 5.

Solution 6.

Solution 7.

Solution 8.

Solution 9.

Solution 10.

Solution 11.

Solution 12.
Let amount invested in bond A is ₹ x, and amount invested in bond B is ₹ y.
Objective function is maximise income Z = \(\frac { 8x }{ 100 } +\frac { 9y }{ 100 }\)
Subject to constraints are
x + y ≤ 12000 (Investment constraint)
x ≥ 2000
y ≥ 4000

Solution 13.
Bag contains- 2 White balls, 3 Red balls, 5 Green balls, 4 Black balls
Total balls = 14
2 balls are drawn without replacement.
P (both balls are of different colours) = 1 – P(both balls are of same colour)
= 1 – [P(both white) + P (both red) + P (both green) + P (both black)]

Solution 14.
Let E₁ is the event: A coming in time
and E₂ is the event: B coming in time

Solution 15.

Solution 16.
Using elementary row transformation
A = IA

Solution 17.

Solution 18.

Solution 19.

Solution 20.

Solution 21.

Solution 22.

Solution 23.

Solution 24.
Equation of line joining the points A (3, -4, -5) and B (2, -3, 1) is

Solution 25.
R be a relation on N x N defined by
(a, b) R (c, d) if ad (b + c) = bc (a + d)

Solution 26.

Solution 27.

Solution 28.

Solution 29.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 1

• Time Allowed : 3 Hours
  Max. Marks : 70
  General Instructions 

  • All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
  • This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
  • Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
  • You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

  

Questions :
SECTION : A

Question 1.
Define the term self-inductance of a coil. Write its S.I. unit

Question 2.
Which basic mode of communication is used for telephonic communication?

Question 3.
Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loops?

Question 4.
1-V graph for a metallic wire at two different temperatures, T₁ and T₂ is as shown in the figure. Which of the two temperature is lower and why?

Question 5.
Why does bluish colour predominate in a clear sky?

SECTION : B

Question 6.
Use Kirchhoff’s rules to determine the potential difference between the points A and D when no current flows in the arm BE.

Question 7.
When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the excited state to the ground state, how would the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify your answer.

Question 8.
You are given two converging lenses of focal lengths 1.25 cm and 5 cm to design a compound microscope. If it is desired to have a magnification of 30, find out the separation between the objective and the eyepiece.

OR

A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant objects in normal adjustment? If this telescope is used to view a 100 m tall tower 3 km away, what is the height of the image of the tower formed by the objective lens?

Question 9.
Calculate the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom. In which region (infra-red, visible, ultraviolet) of hydrogen spectrum does this wavelength lie?

Question 10.
Write two factors which justify the need of modulation.

SECTION : C

Question 11.
Draw a circuit diagram of a C.E. transistor amplifier. Briefly explain its working and write the expression for
(i) current gain
(ii) voltage gain of the amplifier.

Question 12.
State clearly how an unpolarised light gets linearly polarized when passed through a Polaroid.
(i) Unpolarised light of intensity I₀ is incident on a Polaroid P₁ which is kept near another Polaroid P₂ whose pass axis is parallel to that of P₁. How will the intensities of light, I₁ and I₂, transmitted by the Polaroids P₁ and P₂ respectively, change on rotating P₁ without disturbing P₂?
(ii) Write the relation between the intensities  I₁ and I₂.

Question 13.
Define modulation index. Why is its value kept, in practice, less than one? A carrier wave of frequency 1.5 MHz and amplitude 50 V is modulated by a sinusoidal wave of frequency 10 kHz producing 50% amplitude modulation. Calculate the amplitude of the AM wave and frequencies of the side bands produced.

Question 14.
A uniform magnetic field B is set up along the positive X – axis. A particle of charge ‘q’ mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity v enters the field at the origin in X – Y plane such that it has velocity components both along and perpendicular to the magnetic field B. Trace, giving reason, the trajectory followed by the particle. Find out the expression for the distance moved by the particle along the magnetic field in one rotation.

Question 15.
Find the relation between drift velocity and relaxation time of charge carriers in a conductor. A conductor of length L is connected to a d.c. source of emf ‘E’. If the length of the conductor is tripled by stretching it, keeping ‘E’ constant, explain how its drift velocity would be affected.

Question 16.
(a) Determine the value of phase difference between the current and the voltage in the given series LCR circuit.

(b) Calculate the value of the additional capacitor which may be joined suitably to the capacitor C that would make the power factor of the circuit unity.

Question 17.
Write the expression for the generalized form of Amperes Circuital law. Discuss its significance and describe briefly how the concept of displacement current is explained through charging/ discharging of a capacitor in an electric circuit. 

Question 18.
(a) Describe briefly three experimentally observed features in the phenomenon of photoelectric effect.
(b) Discuss briefly how wave theory of light cannot explain these features.

OR

(a) Write the important properties of photons which are used to establish Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
(b) Use this equation to explain the concept
(i) threshold frequency and
(ii) stopping potential.

Question 19.
Use Huygens principle to show how a plane wavelength propagates from a denser to rarer medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.

Question 20.
Identify the gates P and Q shown in the figure . Write the truth table for the combination of the gates shown.

Name the equivalent gate representing this circuit and write its logic symbol. 

Question 21.
(a) Write three characteristic properties of nuclear force.
(b) Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two important conclusions that can be drawn from the graph.

Question 22.
Calculate the potential difference and the energy stored in the capacitor C₂ in the circuit shown in the figure. Given potential at A is 90 V, C₁ = 20 µF, C₂ = 30 µF and C₃ = 15 µF.

SECTION : D

Question 23.
One morning an old lady tried bare-footed to replace the fuse wire fitted with power supply mains for her house. Suddenly she cried and collapsed on the floor. Her family members cried loudly for help. Her neighbour heard the cries and rushed to the spot wearing rubber soul shoes on. He took a wooden stick and used it to switch off the main supply.
Answer the folio wing questions :

1. What are the voltage and frequency of mains supply in India?
2. These days most of the electrical devices we use require a.c. voltage. Why?
3.  Can a transformer be used to step up d.c. voltage ?
4. Write two qualities displayed by neighbour by his action.

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit. “Gauss’s law in electrostatics is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size is”. Justify this statement with the help of a suitable example.
(b) Use Gauss’s law to prove that electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is zero.

OR

(a) Derive the expression for the energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor. Hence obtain the expression for the energy density of the electric field.
(b) A fully charged parallel plate capacitor is connected across an uncharged identical capacitor. Show that the energy stored in the combination is less than that stored initially in the single capacitor.

Question 25.
Explain, using a labelled diagram, the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer. What is the function of
(i) uniform radial magnetic field,
(ii) soft iron core?
Define the terms :
(i) current sensitivity and
(ii) voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer. Why does increasing the current sensitivity not necessarily increase voltage sensitivity?

OR

Question 26.
(a) Consider two coherent sources S₁ and S₂ producing monochromatic waves to produce interference pattern. Let the displacement of the wave produced by S₁ be given by y₁ = a cos mt and the displacement by S₂ be y₂ = a cos (ωt + Φ). Find out the expression for the amplitude of the resultant displacement at a point and show that the intensity at that point will be I = 4a² cos² Φ/2. Hence establish the conditions for constructive and destructive interference.
(b) What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment when
(i) the width of the source slit is increased,
(ii) the monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light.

OR

(a) A ray ‘PQ’ of light is incident on the face AB of a glass prism ABC (as shown in the figure) and emerges out of the face AC. Trace the path of the ray. Show that ∠i + ∠e = ∠A + ∠δ. Where δ and e denote the angle of deviation and angle of emergence respectively.
Plot a graph showing the variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence. State the condition under which ∠δ is minimum.
(b) A ray of light passing through an equilateral triangular prism from air undergoes minimum deviation when angle of incidence is 3/4th of the angle of prism. Calculate the speed of light in the prism.

 Answers :
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
L = Φ / I . If I = 1 then L = Φ i.e self inductance L of a coil is numerically equal to the amount of magnetic flux (Φ) linked with the coil when unit current flows through the coil. The S.I. unit of self inductance is henry (H) or weber per ampere.

Answer 2.
The basic mode of communication used in telephony is the point-to-point communications mode, which takes place through a link between a single transmitter and receiver.

Answer 3.
Electrostatic field lines originate from positive charge and terminate at negative charge.

Answer 4.
For the given figure the slope of a V – I graph is I/V = 1/R . Here the smaller the slope larger is the resistance . As the resistance of a metal increases with the increase in temperature, so resistance at T₂ is more and T₁ is lower.

Answer :
The light is scattered by air molecules. According to Lord Rayleigh the intensity of scattered light I ∝ 1/λ⁴. As λ_blue < λ_red Therefore blue colour scattered more in sky.

SECTION : B

Answer 6.

According to Kirchhoff’s junction law at B
i₃ = i₁ + i₂
i₃ = i₁
As  i₃ = 0  (given)
Applying second law to loop AFEB, electronic network shown in the figure.

∴   i₃ x 2 + i₃ x 3 + i₂ R₁ = 1+3 + 6
∴   i₃ = i₁ = 2A

From A to D along AFD
∴  V_AD = 2 i₃ – 1 + 3 x i₃
= (4 – 1 + 6)V
= 9V

Answer 7.
In an hydrogen atom, the negatively charged electron revolves in a circular orbit around the heavy positively charged nucleus. The centripetal force required by the electron is produced by the attractive force exerted by the nucleus on it. The energy is radiated, when an electron jumps from higher to lower energy orbit and the energy is absorbed, when jumps from lower to higher energy orbit.

It is called Bohr’s frequency condition.

Answer 8.
Given, f₀ = 5 cm , f_e = 1.25 cm and m = 30
Let S be tube length (distance between the objective and the eyepiece).

Thus, the height of the image would be 31.58 m.

Answer 9.
The formula for wavelength (λ) by Balmer series is :

Answer 10.
Two factors that justify the need for modulation of low frequency signals to high frequency signals are :

• increase in range of communication base band signals suffer from attenuation and so cannot be transmitted over long distances, and
• the antenna height and aperture is inversely proportional to the radiated signal frequency, implying that higher frequencies result in smaller antennas.

SECTION : C

Answer 11.

The purpose of this circuit is to amplify a small a.c input signal, such as an audio or radio signal. A small a.c. voltage is applied to the input through a coupling capacitor. The ratio of the a.c. component of the output to the a.c. component of the input, is known as gain.

Answer 12.
Polaroid filters are made of a special material that is capable of blocking of the two planes of vibration of an electromagnetic wave. In this sense, a Polaroid serves as a device that filter out one-half of the vibrations upon transmission of the light through the filter. When unpolarised light is transmitted through a Polaroid filter, it emerge with one-half the intensity and with vibrations in a single plane; it emerges as polarized light.

Answer 13.
The modulation index p, can be defined as the ratio between the amplitude of the modulating signal and the amplitude of the carrier signal. A modulation index above 1 causes over-modulation, causing the carrier to experience 180° phase reversals. These reversals give rise to additional side and audio signal will be distorted during reception.
Given,
carrier wave frequency = 1.5 MHz, amplitude (V _m) = 50 V
sinusoidal wave frequency = 10 kHz
amplitude modulation = 50%

Thus, amplitude of the AM wave = 250 volt
Now,
f _USB = 1.5 x 1000+ 10 kHz
⇒ 1500 + 10 = 1510 kHz
f _LSB = 1.5 x 1000 -10 = 1490 kHz

Answer 14.
Field at an axial point of a circular coil.

Where N is the number of turns of the circular coil. If M =iA is the magnetic moment of the coil, then

∵ a = 0, For small loop,

Where p is electric dipole  moment.

Answer 15.
The drift velocity of electrons can be formulated as :

Answer 16.

Answer 17.
Generalized form of Ampere Circuital Law :

It signifies that the source of magnetic field is not just due to the conduction of electric current due to flow of charge but also due to the time rate of change of electric field called displacement current.

Displacement current :
During charging and discharging of a capacitor the electric field between the plates will change so there will be a change of electric flux (displacement current) between the plates.

Answer 18.
(a)
(i) The photoelectric effect will not occur when the frequency of the incident light is less than the threshold frequency. Different materials have different threshold frequencies and most elements have threshold frequencies in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(ii) The maximum KE of a stream of photo electrons increases linearly with the frequency of the incident light above the threshold frequency.
(iii) The rate at which photo electrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface is directly proportional to the intensity of incident light when the frequency is constant.

(b) Classical wave theory cannot explain :
(i) The existence of threshold frequency because it predicts that electrons would absorb enough energy to escape and there would not be any threshold frequency.
(ii) The almost immediate emission of photo electrons as, according to this theory, electrons require a period of time before sufficient energy is absorbed by it to escape from the metal; however such a thing does not happen practically; and
(iii) The independence of KE of photo electrons on intensity and dependence on frequency because it cannot explain why maximum KE is dependent on frequency and independent of intensity.

OR

(i) The important property of photons that is useful in establishing Einstein’s photoelectric equation is their ability to hold on to the electrons of an atom by their forces of attraction.
(ii) Einstein’s photoelectric equation states that :

Answer 19.
Medium 1

Answer 20.
Logic gate P is AND gate and logic Q is NOT gate.

The combination is NAND

Answer 21.
(a)
(i) Nuclear forces are short range forces.
(ii) Nuclear forces are primarily attractive and extremely strong.
(iii) Nuclear forces are charge independent

(b) Nuclear forces is of attractive nature when separation between the nuclei is greater than 1 fm and of repulsive nature when separation is less than 1 fm.

Answer 22.

SECTION : D

Answer 23.

1. The voltage and frequency of mains supply in India are 220 V and 50 Hz respectively.
2. Most electrical devices require a.c. voltage because a.c. is available by default through the mains supply and also because d.c., is actually a one-way current, is available only through batteries.
3. No, a transformer cannot be used to set-up d.c. voltage because a transformer works on the magnetic effect of current and d.c. voltage does not produces any magnetic field.
4. The two qualities displayed by neighbour are :
   (a) preventing himself from being the earthing conductor by putting on his shoes and
   (b) switching off the mains connection to prevent the old lady from acting as an earthing conductor

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(a) The electric flux through an area is defined as the electric field multiplied by the area of the surface projected on a plane, perpendicular to the field. Its S.I. unit is volt-metres (Vm) or Newton metres square per coulomb (Nm² C^-1 ). The given statement is justified because while measuring the flux, the surface area is more important than its volume or its size.
(b) To prove that the electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is zero, we place a single positive point charge ‘q’ at the centre of an imaginary spherical surface with radius R. The field lines of this point radiate outside equally in all directions. The magnitude E of the electric field at every point on the surface is given by

OR

(a) When charging parallel plate capacitor, whose plate area is A and distance between the plate is d. When charge on capacitor is q, potential difference increase 0 to V. Hence average

(b) Let the capacitance of the charged capacitor C₁ by and the voltage be ∆V₁

Answer 25.
The basic principle of a moving coil galvanometer is that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque.

When the current I is passed through the coil, the torque experienced is given by
τ = NIAB sinθ
Where
N = no. of turns of the coil,
A =  area of the coil
B = magnetic field and
θ = angle between normal of coil and magnetic field
(i) The uniform radial magnetic field allows the coil to rotate and
(ii) The soft iron core makes the magnetic field linked with the coil to be radial.
The current sensitivity is defien as the deflection produced in the galvanometer, while passing a current of 1 ampere (1amp).
Thus,

The voltage sensitivity is defined as the deflection produced in the galvanometer when a potential difference of IV is applied to the coil.
Thus,

Where, R is the resistance.
Increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity as there is an increase in the resistance as well.

OR

The direction of dB is perpendicular to the plane formed by dl and r. It has an x-component dB_x. When the components perpendicular to the x-axis are summed over, they cancel out and we obtain null result. Thus only the x-component survives.

If the coil has N turns, then each turn will contribute equally to B. Then


Where μ₀ in the permeability of free space. Ampere’s circuital law in electromagnetism is analogous to Gauss’ law in electrostatics.

Answer 26.
(a) Let S be a narrow slit illuminated by a monochromatic source of light, and Sj and S₂ two similar parallel slits very close together and equidistant from S.

Displacement of the wave produced by S₁ is given by
y₁ = a cos ωt and
the displacement of the Wave produced by S₂ is given by
y₂ = a cos (ωt + Φ)
The resultant displacement is given by
y = y₁ + y₂ = a cos(ωt + Φ) + a cos (ωt + Φ)
⇒ y = 2a cos Φ/2 cos (ωt + Φ/2)
The amplitude of the resultant displacement is 2a cos Φ/2. The intensity of light is directly proportional to the square of amplitude of the wave.
The resultant intensity in given by
I = 4a cos² Φ/2

(b)  (i) As the width of the slits is increased, the fringe width decreases. It is because,

(ii) The different colours of white light will produce different interference patterns but the central bright fringes due to all colours are at the same positions. Therefore, the central bright fringe is white in colour. Since the wavelength of the blue light is smallest, the fringe close to the either side of the central white fringe is blue and farthest is red.
OR

(a) Let the incident ray meet refracting face AB of the prism at point P. Ray PQ is the refracted ray inside the prism and δ₁ and r₁, are the angle of the deviation and refraction at interface AB. At interface AC the ray goes out of the prism. Let e be the angle of emergence. The angle of deviation at point Q is δ₂ as shown in figure. Using geometry, we see that at point P,



So angle of deviation produced by a prism depends upon the angle of incidence, refracting angle of prism, and the material of the prism.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 12 questions.
• This paper contains 4 questions of 2 marks each, 4 questions of 3 marks each and 4 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Water water everywhere and not a single drop to drink’. What does the statement indicate about one of the functions of management. (2)
Answer:
The statement indicates the staffing function of management. It aims at recruiting the right person for the right job. Staffing aims at selecting the most suitable candidates among the pool of prospective candidates.

(1) It caters to the human resource requirements of a business by determining the number and types of employees needed to perform various tasks designed in business as per their job profile.

(2) It analyses the existing number of employed personnel to verify whether they are overburdened or under-burdened with work.

(3) It compares within departments to establish excess of workforce for dismissal or deposing or transferring employees elsewhere as overstaffing is undesirable.

Question 2.
Name and define the process that helps in finding possible candidates for a job or a function. (2)
Answer:
Recruitment refers to the process of finding possible candidates for a job or a function. It has been defined as ‘the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organisation.

Question 3.
“A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system.” Why? (2)
Answer:
A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system because it is a costly affair as it involves a lot of expenditure, time and effort. It cannot justify the expenses involved. Managers must ensure that the costs of installing and operating a control system should not exceed the benefits derived from it.

Question 4.
Working Capital facilitates day-to-day operations of the business. Name and explain any two factors. That affect the work capital requirements. (2)
Answer:
Following are the factors affecting capital structure of a company: (Any two)

(1) Nature of Business: The basic nature of a business influences the amount of working capital required. A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital compared to a manufacturing organisation.

(2) Scale of Operations: For organisations which operate on a higher scale of operation, the quantum of inventory and debtors required is generally high. Such organisations, therefore, require large amounts of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

(3) Business Cycle: Different phases of business cycles affect the requirement of working capital by a firm. In case of a boom, the sales as well as production are likely to be larger and, therefore, a larger amount of working capital is required.

(4) Seasonal Factors: Most businesses have some seasonality in their operations. In peak season, because of higher levels of activity, larger amounts of working capital is required.

(5) Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods.

(6) Credit Allowed: Different firms allow different credit terms to their customers. These depend upon the level of competition that a firm faces as well as the credit worthiness of their clientele.

(7) Operating Efficiency: Firms manage their operations with varied degree of efficiency.

(8) Availability of Raw material: Higher the quantity of material to be stored, higher is the amount of working capital required.

(9) Growth Prospects: If the growth potential of a concern is perceived to be higher, it will require a higher amount of working capital.

(10) Level of competition: Higher level of competitiveness may necessitate higher stocks of finished goods to meet urgent orders from customers.

Question 5.
Explain how supervision helps in optimal utilisation of resources (3)
Answer:
Supervision is the process of guiding the efforts of employees and other resources to accomplish the desired objectives. It means overseeing what is being done by subordinates and giving instructions to ensure optimum utilisation of resources and achievement of work targets.

Supervising is continuously required at all levels of management that involves establishing performance schedules and standards, for work to proceed in a particular manner and a consistent level of performance is maintained.

This ensures that relevant resources are allocated and utilised especially by subordinates in the lower levels who are mainly responsible for working and completing the defined tasks and activities.

Question 6.
Leadership is required only for less efficient subordinates”. Do you agree? Give any four reasons to support your answer.
OR
Aditi was a regional sales manger in a publication company. Aditi applied for the vacant post of marketing managers in the company as she was extremely ambitious and dedicated all her energies to obtain the post of marketing manager. However, the top management of the company decided to fill this post by selecting a person from outside. This had an adverse effect on Aditi and her performance declined. When the new marketing manager joined, one of his major problems was how to motivate and inspire Aditi to her former level of performance? Suggest any three non-financial incentives that the new marketing manager may use to motivate Aditi. (3)
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this. The reasons for my disagreement are as follows:
(1) Clear vision: Leadership sets a clear vision and communicates them effectively to all subordinates at all levels of management

(2) Effective planning: Leadership entails generating a structured plan of action every day that will effectively meet pertinent goals on a given day.

(3) Inspiration and motivation: Leadership involves demonstrating daily tasks, coaching, providing immediate feedback, recognising accomplishments, etc., that inspires and motivates subordinates/ colleagues at all levels to restore and revive commitment and enthusiasm in an organisation.

(4) Employee relations: Leadership entails an open and engaging relationship between the leader and their team members and develops a sense of ownership and a close alignment between individuals and team objectives.
OR
The non-financial incentives that the new marketing manager may use to motivate Aditi are:

(1) Career advancement opportunity:
A company must provide employees appropriate skill development programmes, and a sound promotion policy to achieve promotions.

(2) Employee recognition programme:
Recognition means acknowledgment with a show of respect and appreciation. Most people have a need for evaluation of their work and due recognition

(3) Employee empowerment:
Empowerment, means giving more autonomy and powers to subordinates in the completion of their work.

Question 7.
State the development functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India. (3)
Answer:
The development Functions of Securities and Exchange Board of India are:

• Training of intermediaries of the securities market.
• Conducting research and publishing information useful to all market participants.
• Undertaking measures to develop the capital markets by adapting a flexible approach.

Question 8.
“Controlling is an indispensable function of management. Without controlling the best of plans can go awry Do you agree? Explain any two reasons in support of your answer. (3)
Answer:
Yes, I agree that controlling is an indespensable function of management, importance of controlling is: (any two)

(1) Accomplishing organisational goals: The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals and brings to light the deviations, if any, and indicates corrective action.

(2) Judging accuracy of standards: A good control system enables management to verify whether the standards set are accurate and objective.

(3) Making efficient use of resources: By exercising control, a manager seeks to reduce wastage and spoilage of resources. Each activity is performed in accordance with predetermined standards and norms.

(4) Improving employee motivation: A good control system ensures that employees know well in advance what they are expected to do and what are the standards of performance on the basis of which they are appraised.

(5) Ensuring order and discipline: Controlling creates an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organisation.

(6) Facilitating coordination in action:
Controlling provides direction to all activities and efforts for achieving organisational goals.

Question 9.
Xeno Ltd. is a global information technology consulting company with 45,000 employees serving over 600 clients in 23 countries. Its Chief Executive Officer, Mr Neil Suman guided the company through two decades of diversification and growth to emerge as one of the leading Indian companies in the software industry. The company has set standards in ensuring the best training opportunities for its employees. The Project Guidance Program is a 52 day structured training program offered to all recruits of varied backgrounds to be trained on essential behavioural and technical skills that prepares them to work in live customer projects. These recruits are hired from universities and management institutes for technical, professional as well as managerial jobs. It is to help the new employees in settling down quickly into the job by becoming familiar with the people, the surroundings, the job and the business.
(A) Identify the external sources of recruitment used by the company to hire new employees.
(B) Explain the method of training used by the company to train employees selected
by the source of recruitment identified in part (A)
(C) State three ways in which the Project Guidance Program can benefit Xeno Ltd.
OR
Controlling is a systematic process involving series of steps.” Explain (5)
Answer:
(A) Campus Recruitment

(B) Induction Training: It is a type of training given to help the new employee in settling down quickly into the job by becoming familiar with the people, the surroundings, the job and the business.

(C) Ways in which Project Guidance Program can benefit Xeno Ltd.: (Any three)

• Avoiding wastage of efforts and money as training is systematic learning, better than hit and trial methods.
• Enhancing employee productivity both in terms of quantity and quality leading to higher profits.
• Equipping the future manager to take over in an emergency.
• Reducing employees’ turnover as it increases employee morale and reduces absenteeism.
• Helping the organisation in obtaining effective response in a fast changing environment.

OR
The steps involved in the controlling process are as following:

(1) Step 1: Setting performance standards: The first step in the controlling process is setting up performance standards. Standards serve as benchmark towards which an organisation strives to work.

(2) Step 2: Measurement of actual performance: Once performance standards are set, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.

(3) Step 3: Comparing actual performance with standards: This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standards. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.

(4) Step 4: Analysing deviations: Some deviation in performance can be expected in all activities. It is, therefore, important to determine the acceptable range of deviations.

(5) Step 5: Taking corrective action: The final step in controlling process is taking corrective action.No corrective action is required when the deviation are within acceptable limits.

Question 10.
“Determining the overall cost of capital and the financial risk of the enterprise depends upon various factors”. Explain any five such factors. (5)
Answer:
Overall cost of capital and the financial risk of the enterprise depends upon the following factors:

(1) Cost: The cost of all the sources of finance is different The rate of interest on Debt, fixed rate of dividend to be paid on preference share capital and the expectations of the shareholders on the equity share capital are in the form of costs.

(2) Risk: debt capital is more risky and from the point of view of risk it should not be used. .

(3) Floatation cost: From the point of view off loading cost, retained profit is the most appropriate source. Therefore, its use should be made.

(4) Cash flow position: If the cash flow position of the company is good, the payment of interest on debt and the refund of capital can be easily made. Therefore, in order to take advantage of cheap finance, Debt can be given priority.

(5) Level of fixed operating costs: In business there are two types of cost:

• Fixed operating cost, e.g. rent of building, payment of salary, insurance premium, etc.
• Fixed financial costs: e.g. interest on debt, etc.

If the level of fixed operating cost is in excess, it is better to keep the fixed financial cost at the minimum. Therefore, debt capital should not be used. On the contrary, if the level of fixed operating cost is low the use of debt capital is profitable.

(6) Control Consideration: the ultimate control of the company is that of the equity shareholders, greater the number of equity shareholder, the greater will be the control in the hands of more people. This is not a good situation, therefore from this point of view the equity share capital should be avoided. (any five)

Question 11.
The Return on Investment (ROI) of a company ranges between 10-12% for the past three years. To finance its future fixed capital needs, it has the following options for borrowing debt:
Option ‘A’: Rate of interest 9%
Option ‘B’: Rate of interest 13%
Which source of debt, ‘Option A’ or ‘Option B’, is better?
Give reason in support of your answer. Also state the concept being used in taking the decision. (5)
Answer:
Option ‘A’ is better.

• This is because in this option, Return on Investment (10-12%) is higher than the Rate of interest (9%).
• The concept being used in taking the decision is Trading on Equity.
• Trading on equity refers to the use of fixed cost sources of finance such as preference shares, debentures and long term loans in the capital structure so as to increase the return on equity shares.

Question 12.
Aarushi buys a packet of dry cake from a cake shop without asking for the bill The pack does not bear any information other than the name of shop. After reaching home she finds the cake to be stale.
(A) Identify the consumer right that has been violated.
(B) State any four responsibilities that a consumer must keep in mind while purchasing any good.
OR
A shopkeeper sold you some spices, claiming that those were pure. Later, a laboratory test showed that those were adulterated. What precautions you should have taken before buying the products and what remedies are available to you for the wrong act? (5)
Answer:
(A) Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc. It is because of this reason that the legal framework in India requires the manufacturers to provide such information on the package and label of the product.

(B) The responsibilities that a consumer must keep in mind while purchasing any good are: (any four)

• Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance. Thus, look for ISI mark on electrical goods, FPO mark on food products, Hallmark on jewelry etc.
• Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
• Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
• Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal.
• Be honest in your dealings. Choose only from legal goods and services and discourage unscrupulous practices like black-marketing, hoarding etc.
• Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services. This would serve as a proof of the purchase made.

OR
While buying a product or service, a consumer should take the following precautions:
(1) Date of manufacture and date of expiry.
(2) Net weight.
(3) Standardization mark.
(4) Maximum retail price.
(5) Directions for using the product, if any Remedies:

• To remove the defect in goods or deficiency in service.
• To replace the defective product with a new one, free from any defect
• To refund the price paid for the product, or the charges paid for the service.
• To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.
• To pay punitive damages in appropriate circumstances.

In Online Education Important Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter Wise: Here we are providing CBSE Important Extra Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter Wise Pdf download of Fundamentals of Human Geography and India People and Economy in Hindi and English Medium. Students can get Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions, Geography Class 12 Important Extra Questions and Answers designed by subject expert teachers.

Online Education CBSE Class 12 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter Wise Pdf

Important Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter Wise Part A Fundamentals of Human Geography

1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope Important Questions
2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth Important Questions
3. Population Composition Important Questions
4. Human Development Important Questions
5. Primary Activities Important Questions
6. Secondary Activities Important Questions
7. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities Important Questions
8. Transport and Communication Important Questions
9. International Trade Important Questions
10. Human Settlements Important Questions

Important Questions of Geography Class 12 Part B India People and Economy

1. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition Important Questions
2. Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences Important Questions
3. Human Development Important Questions
4. Human Settlements Important Questions
5. Land Resources and Agriculture Important Questions
6. Water Resources Important Questions
7. Mineral and Energy Resources Important Questions
8. Manufacturing Industries Important Questions
9. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context Important Questions
10. Transport and Communication Important Questions
11. International Trade Important Questions
12. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems Important Questions

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Part C Practical Work in Geography

1. Data: Its Source and Compilation Important Questions
2. Data Processing Important Questions
3. Graphical Representation of Data Important Questions
4. Use of Computer in Data Processing and Mapping Important Questions
5. Field Surveys Important Questions
6. Spatial Information Technology Important Questions

We hope the given CBSE Important Questions of Geography Class 12 Chapter Wise Pdf download of Fundamentals of Human Geography and India People and Economy in Hindi and English Medium will help you. If you have any queries regarding NCERT Class 12 Geography Extra Important Questions and Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

FAQ’s on Geography Class 12 Important Questions

Question 1.
How do I study for the 12th Geography Board Exam?

Answer:
Geography is a scoring subject and be thorough with your NCERT at first Try to understand and learn every line in the subject so that it’s easy for you to score in 1 mark questions. Everything in Geography is easy but you shouldn’t mugg up at the same time. After studying, prepare notes so that you can retain the things you have studied for a long time.

Question 2.
How do I Learn Class 12 Geography for Board Exams?

Answer:
Follow a step by step approach to learn the subject and try to understand each chapter. Prepare notes while studying and strictly follow the latest syllabus guidelines. Prepare Mind Maps for retaining the facts and figures. This way you can attempt the exam with confidence and score better grades in your board exams.

Question 3.
Is it important to read Geography Class 12 Important Questions and make notes about it?

Answer:
Yes, it is important to read Class 12 Geography Important Questions and make notes about it to become familiar with the questions appearing in board exams and score better grades in them.

Question 4.
Where do I find the Chapter Wise 12th Class Geography Important Questions and Answers PDF?

Answer:
You can find the Chapter Wise Geography Class 12 Important Questions and Answers PDF for free of cost on Learninsta.com a trusted portal.

Here we are providing Class 12 Accountancy Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts. Accountancy Class 12 Important Questions and Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 2 Important Extra Questions Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts

Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Chhavi and Neha were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Chhavi withdrew a fixed amount at the beginning of each quarter. Interest on drawings is charged @ 6% p.a. At the end of the year, interest ‘ on Chhavi’s drawings amounted to ₹ 900. Pass necessary journal entry for charging interest on drawings.
Answer:

Question 2.
Dev withdrew ₹ 10,000 on 15th day of every month. Interest on drawings was to be charged @ 12% per
annum. Calculate interest on Dev’s drawings. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Interest On Drawings = 1,20,000 x 12/100 x 6 x 12 = 7,200

Question 3.
Amit, a partner in a partnership firm withdrew ₹ 7,000 in the beginning of each quarter. For how many months would interest on drawings be charged₹ (CBSE SP 2019-20)
Answer:
7 1/2 months.

Question 4.
Raj and Seema started a partnership firm on 1st July, 2018. They agreed that Seema was entitled to a commission of 10% of the net profit after charging Raj’s salary of ₹ 2,500 per quarter and Seema’s commission. The net profit before charging Raj’s salary and Seema’s commission for the year ended 31st March, 2019 was ₹ 2,27,500. Calculate Seema’s commission. (CBSE Compt. 2019)
Answer:
Net profit before salary and commission = ₹ 2,27,500
Net Raj’s salary ₹ 2,500 x 3 = ₹ 7,500
Net profit after Raj’s salary but before Seema’s commission = ₹ 2,20,000
Seema’s commission = 10/110 of ₹ 2,20,000
= ₹ 20,000

Question 5.
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 3. Their fixed capitals were : A ₹ 9,00,000 and B ₹ 4,00,000. The partnership deed provided the following: (CBSE Compt. 2019)
(i) Interest on capital @ 10% p.a.
(ii) A’s salary ₹ 50,000 per year and B’s salary ₹ 3,000 per month.
Profit for the year ended 31st March 2019 ₹ 2,78,000 was distributed without providing for interest on capital and partner’s salary.
Showing your working clearly, pass the necessary adjustment entry for the above omissions.
Answer:

Question 6.
Partners of ABC Corporation have agreed that D, a minor, should be admitted as a partner in the firm. What will be liability of D?
Answer:
Limited.

Question 7.
X, Y and Z are partners in a firm. The firm had adopted fixed capital method. Mention the account in which the interest on capital will be recorded:
Answer:
Capital Account.

Question 8.
A partnership deed provides for the payment of interest on capital but there was a loss instead of profits during the year 2010-11. Will the interest on capital be allowed?
Answer:
No.

Question 9.
Where is interest on a partner’s loan debited to Profit and Loss Account or Profit and Loss Appropriation Account?
Answer:
Profit and loss Account.

Question 10.
Is interest on a partner’s loan is payable even in case of loss to the firm?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 11.
Net profit of a firm is ₹ 30,000, partners’ salary is ₹ 12,000 and interest on capital is ₹ 20,000. Mention the amount of partners’ salary and interest on capital which should be debited to Profit and Loss Appropriation Account if both items are treated as appropriation.
Answer:
Partners’ salary ₹ 11,250, Interest on capital ₹ 18,750.
Note: In the ratio of salary and interest on capital i.e. 12,000 : 20,000 = 3:5.

Question 12.
Ram and Shyam are partners sharing profits/losses equally. Ram withdrew ₹ 1,000 p.m. regularly on the first day of every month during the year 2013-14 for personal expenses. If interest on drawings is charged @ 5% p.a. Calculate interest on the drawings of Ram.
Answer:

Question 13.
Verma and Kaul are partners in a firm. The partnership agreement provides that interest on drawings should be charged @ 6% p.a. Verma withdraws X 2,000 per month starting from April 01, 2013 to March 31, 2014. Kaul withdraw ₹ 3,000 per quarter, starting from April 01, 2013. Calculate interest on partner’s drawings.
Answer:

Question 14.
Himanshu withdraws ₹ 2,500 at the end of each month. The partnership deed provides for charging the interest on drawings @ 12% p.a. Calculate interest on Himanshu’s drawings for the year ending 31st December, 2013.
Answer:

Question 15.
Bharam is a partner in a firm. He withdraws ₹ 3,000 at the starting of each month for 12 months. The books . of the firm closes on March 31 every year. Calculate interest on drawings if the rate of interest is 10% p.a.
Answer:
Bharam withdraws ₹ 3,000 at the starting of each month.

Question 16.
Amit and Bhola are partners in a firm. They share profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. As per their partnership agreement, interest on drawings is to be charged @ 10% p.a. Their drawings during 2013 were ₹ 24,000 and ₹ 16,000, respectively. Calculate interest on drawings based on the assumption that the amounts were withdrawn evenly, throughout the year.
Answer:
Amit’s Drawings = ₹ 24,000

Note: In the absence of date of drawings, it is assumed drawings have been made in the middle of each month/period.

Question 17.
A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. B was guaranteed a profit of X 2,00,000. During the year the firm earned a profit of ₹ 84,000. Calculate the net amount of Profit/Loss transferred to the capital accounts of A and C. (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Net Amount of Loss transferred to:

• A’s Capital Account: ₹ 87,000
• C’s Capital Account: ₹ 29,000

Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. Their fixed capitals on 31st March, 2017 were: A ₹ 60,000 and B ₹ 80,000. They agreed to allow interest on capital @ 12% p.a. The profit of the firm for the year ended 31st March, 2018 before allowing interest on capitals was ₹ 12,600.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of A and B. Also show your working notes clearly.
Answer:

Working Notes:
Interest on Capital:
A= 12% of 60,000 = 7,200
B = 12% of 80,000 = 9,600
Total interest = 16,800
Since profits are insufficient interest on capital will be distributed in the ratio of 7,200:9,600 i.e. 3:4
A = 3/7 of 12,600 = 5,400
B = 4/7 of 12,600 = 7,200

Question 2.
Maanika, Bhavi and Komal are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 6:4:1. Komal is guaranteed a minimum profit of ₹ 2,00,000. The firm incurred a loss of ₹22,00,000 for the year ended 31st March, 2018. Pass necessary journal entry regarding deficiency borne by Maanika and Bhavi and prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account. (CBSE SP 2019-20)
Answer:


Working Note:
Loss of the firm = 22,00,000
Komal’s share of loss = 22,00,000 x 1/11 = 2,00,000
Guaranteed minimum profit = 2,00,000

Question 3.
A, B and C were partner in a firm. On 1st April, 2018, their capitals stood at ₹ 4,00,000, ₹ 3,00,000 and ₹2,00,000 respectively. As per the provisions of the partnership deed.
(i) A was entitled to a salary of ₹ 5,000 per month.
(ii) Partner were entitled to interest on capital @ 10% p.a.
The net profit for the year ended 31st March 2019, ₹ 3,00,000 was divided among the partners without providing for the above items.
Showing your working clearly, pass an adjustment entry to rectify the above error.
Answer:

Question 4.
Rani and Suman are in partnership with capitals of ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 60,000, respectively. During the year 2013 – 2014, Rani withdrew ₹ 10,000 and Suman withdrew ₹ 15,000 from their capital profits before charging interest on capital was ₹ 50,000. Ravi and Suman shared profits in the ratio of 3: 2. Calculate the amounts of interest on their capitals @ 12% p.a. for the year ended March 31,2014.
Answer:
Interest on capital is always calculated on opening balance of capital.
Rate of interest = 12% p.a.
Rani’s opening capital = ₹ 80,000

Note:
Date of capital withdrawn is not given in the question, it has been assumed that the same have been done in the mid of the accounting year.

Question 5.
Krishna, Sandeep and Karim are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Their fixed capitals are: Krishan ₹ 1,20,000, Sandeep ₹ 90,000 and Karim ₹ 60,000. For the year 2013-14, interest was credited to them @ 6% p.a. instead of 5% p.a. Record adjustment entry.
Answer:

Question 6.
Leela, Meera and Neha are partners and have omitted interest on capital @ 9% p.a. for three years ended March 31, 2013. Their fixed capitals on which interest was to be allowed throughout were: Leela ₹ 80,000, Meera ₹ 60,000 and Neha ₹ 1,00,000. Their profit sharing ratio during the last three years were:

Answer:

Question 7.
Anubha and Kajal are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Their capital were ₹ 90,000 and ₹ 60,000. The divisible profit during the year were ₹ 45,000. According to partnership deed, both partners are allowed salary @ ₹ 700 per month to Anubha and ₹ 500 per month to Kajal. Interest allowed on capital @ 5% p.a. The drawings at the end of the period were ₹ 8,500 for Anubha and ₹ 6,500 for Kajal. Interest is to be charged @ 5% p.a. on drawings. Prepare partners capital accounts, assuming that the . capital accounts are fluctuating.
Answer:

Note:
(1) It has been assumed that profit given is divisible profit.
(2) It has been assumed drawings have been made in the middle of the year. Normally, in the absence of date, drawings are assumed to have been made in the middle of the year.

Question 8.
Harshad and Dhiman are in partnership since April 01, 2013. No Partnership agreement was made. They contributed ₹ 4,00,000 and 1,00.000 respectively as capital. In addition, Harshad advanced an amount of ₹ 1,00,000 to the firm, on October 01, 2013. Due to long illness, Harshad could not participate in business activities from August 1, to September 30. 2013. The profits for the year ended March 31, 2014 amounted to ₹ 1,80,000.
Dispute has arisen between Harshad and Dhiman.
Harshad Claims:

1. He should be given interest @ 10% per annum on capital and loan
2. Profit should be distributed in proportion of capital

Dhiman Claims:

1. Profits should be distributed equally
2. He should be allowed ₹ 2,000 p.m. as remuneration for the period he managed the business, in the absence of Harshad
3. Interest on capital and loan should be allowed @ 6% p.a.

You are required to settle the dispute between Harshad and Dhiman. Also prepare P&L Appropriation Account.
Answer:
Harshad’s Claims

(i) Harshad’s claim that he should be given interest @ 10% p.a. on capital is not justified. According to the provisions of Partnership Act, 1932, he is not entitled to receive interest on loan @ 10% but only entitled to receive @ 6% p.a.

(ii) His second claim that profits should be distributed in proportion of capital does not fall within the provisions of Partnership Act, 1932. Act provides for equal distribution of profits among partners.

Dhiman’s Claims

(i) His claim to distribute the profits equally is right as per the provisions of Partnership Act, 1932.

(ii) His claim for remuneration for managing the business is not justified because Partnership Act, 1932 does not allow any such remuneration.

(iii) His claim that interest on capital should be allowed @ 6% p.a. is wrong but his claim to provide interest on loan @ 6% p.a. is a right claim as per the provisions of Partnership Act., 1932.

Note: Since interest on loan is charged against the profit, it can be shown on the debit side of profit and loss account or as a deduction from the pro fit on the credit side of Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.

Question 9.
Aakriti and Bindu entered into partnership for making garment on April 01, 2013 without any partnership agreement. They introduced capitals of₹ 5,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000 respectively on October 01,2013. Aakriti Advanced. ₹ 20,000 by way of loan to the firm without any agreement as to interest. Profit and Loss account for the year ended March 2014 showed profit of ₹ 43,000. Partners could not agree upon the question of interest and the basis of division of profit. You are required to divide the profits between them giving reason for your solution.
Answer:

Reason:
(1) In the absence of any partnership deed, the provisions of Partnership Act, 1932 is applied. According to the provisions, no interest on capital, no salary, no commission will be allowed to the partners They will also share the profits equally. The interest on loan also will be provided at 6% p.a.

(2) Since interest on loan is charged against the profit, it can be shown on the debit side of profit and loss account or as a deduction from the profit on the credit side of Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.

Question 10.
Rahul, Rohit and Karan started partnership business on April 1, 2013 with capitals of ₹ 20,00,000, ₹ 18,00,000 and ₹ 16,00,000, respectively. The profit for the year ended March 2014 amounted to 7 1,35,000 and the partner’s drawings had been Rahul 7 50,000, Rohit 7 50,000 and Karan 7 40,000. The profits are distributed among partner’s in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Calculate the interest on capital @ 5% p.a.

Note:
As interest on capital is calculated on the opening capitals, rest of the information apart from opening capitals is irrelavant.

Question 11.
Following is the extract of the Balance Sheet of Neelkant and Mahadev as on March 31,2013:

During the year Mahadev’s drawings were 7 30,000. Profits dining 2013 is 7 10,00,000. Calculate interest on capital @ 5% p.a. for the year ending March 31,2013.
Answer:

Note:
Since the capitals are fixed, profit and drawings must have been transferred to Current Accounts. Therefore, capitals must be fixed in beginning as well as at the end.

Question 12.
Raj and Neeraj are partners in a firm. Their capitals as on April 01, 2013 were 72,50,000 and 71,50,000, respectively. They share profits equally. On July 01, 2013, they decided that their capitals should be 71,00,000 each. The necessary adjustment in the capitals were made by introducing or withdrawing cash by the partners Interest on capital is allowed @ 8% p.a. Compute interest on capital for both the partners for the year ending on March 31,2014.
Answer:
Interest on Ram’s Capital @ 8% p.a.

Question 13.
On March 31, 2013, after the close of books of accounts, the capital accounts of Ram, Shyam and Mohan showed a balance of₹ 24,000 ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 12,000, respectively. It was later discovered that interest on capital @ 5% had been omitted. The profit for the year ended March 31,2013, amounted to ₹ 36,000 and the partner’s drawings had been Ram, ₹ 3,600; Shyam, ₹ 4,500 and Mohan, ₹ 2,700. The profit sharing ratio of Ram, Shyam and Mohan was 3:2:1. Calculate interest on capitals.
Answer:
Note. Interest on Capital is always calculated on Opening Capital.
Opening Capital = Closing Capital + Drawings – Share of Profit

Question 14.
Pinki, Deepti and Kaku are partner’s sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 1. Kaku is given a guarantee that his share of profits in any given year would not be less than ₹ 5,000. Deficiency, if any, would be borne by Pinki and Deepti equally. Profits for the year amounted to ₹ 40,000. Record necessary journal entries in the books of the firm showing the distribution of profit.
Answer:


There is deficiency in Kaku’s Share of₹ 1,000 (5,000 – 4,000). It will be borne by Pinki and Deepti equally.

Question 15.
Abhay, Siddharth and Kusum are partners in a firm, sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Kusum is guaranteed a minimum amount of₹ 10,000 as per share in the profits. Any deficiency arising on that account shall be met by Siddharth. Profits for the years ending March 31, 2013 and 2014 are ₹ 40,000 and 60,000 respectively. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c

Question 16.
Radha, Mary and Fatima are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 :4 : 1 Fatima is given a guarantee that her share of profit, in any year will not be less than ₹ 5,000. The profits for the year ending March 31,2013 amounts to ₹ 35,000. Shortfall if any, in the profits guaranteed to Fatima is to be borne by Radha and Mary in the ratio of 3 : 2. Record necessary journal entry to show distribution of profit among partner.
Answer:

Question 17.
The firm of Harry, Potter and Ali who have been sharing profits in the ratio of 2 :2 :1, have existed for some years Ali wants that he should get equal share in the profits with Harry and Potter and he further wishes that the change in the profit sharing ratio should come into effect retrospectively for the last three years Harry and Potter have agreement on this account.
The profits for the last three years were:

Answer:

Question 18.
On 1.4.2013 Jay and Vijay, entered into partnership for supplying laboratory equipments to government . schools situated in remote and backward areas. They contributed capitals of ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 50,000 respectively and agreed to share the profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 The partnership deed provided that interest on capital shall be allowed at 9% per annum. During the year the firm earned a profit of ₹ 7,800. Showing your calculations clearly, prepare ‘Profit and Loss Appropriation Account’ of Jay and Vijay for the year ened 31-3-2014. (CBSE Delhi 2015)
Answer:

Question 19.
Ram, Mohan and Sohan are partners with capitals of ₹ 5,00,000, ₹ 2,50,000 and 2,00,000 respectively. After providing interest on capital @ 10% p.a. the profits are divisible as follows:
Ram 1/2, Mohan 1/3 and Sohan 1/6. But Ram and Mohan have guaranteed that Sohan’s share in the profit shall not be less than ₹ 25,000, in any year. The net profit for the year ended March 31, 2013 is ₹ 2,00,000, before charging interest on capital.
You are required to show distribution of profit.
Answer:

Question 20.
Kanika and Gautam are partners doing a dry cleaning business in Lucknow, sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1 with capitals ₹ 5,00,000 and ₹4,00,000 respectively, Kanika withdrew the following amounts during the year to pay the hostel expenses of her son.

Gautam withdrew ₹ 15,000 on the first day of April, July, October and January to pay rent for the accommodation of his family. He also paid ₹ 20,000 per month as rent for the office of partnership which was in a nearby shopping complex. Calculate interest on Drawings @ 6% p.a. (CBSE Sample Paper 2015)

Question 21.
Ankur and Bobby were into the business of providing software solutions in India. They were sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 2. They admitted Rohit for a 1/5 share in the firm. Rohit, an alumni of IIT, Chennai would help them to expand their business to various South African countries where he had been working earlier. Rohit is guaranteed a minimum profit of₹ 2,00,000 for the year. Any deficiency in Rohit’s share is to . be borne by Ankur and Bobby in the ratio 4:1. Losses for the year ₹ 10,00,000. Pass the necessary journal entries. (CBSE Sample Paper 2015)
Answer:

Question 22.
Rehman, Suleman and Hanuman were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 respectively. Their fixed capitals were as follows: Rehman ₹ 3,00,000, Suleman ₹ 2,00,000 and Hanuman ₹ 1,00,000. The partnership deed provided for the following for the division of profit:
(i) 10% of trading profit will be transferred to Reserve Account.
(ii) Hanuman was guaranteed a profit of ₹ 50,000. Any loss because of guarantee to Hanuman will be shared by Rehman and Suleman equally.
The trading profit of the firm for the year ended 31. 12. 2012 was ₹ 2,00,000.
Prepare the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account of Rehman, Suleman and Hanuman for the year ended 31. 12. 2012. (CBSE 2013 Compartment OD)
Answer:

Question 23.
The net profit of X, Y and Z for the year ended March 31,2014 was ₹ 60,000 and the same was distributed among them in their agreed ratio of 3 : 1 : 1. It was subsequently discovered that the under mentioned transactions were not recorded in the books:

1. Interest on capital @ 5% p.a.
2. Interest on drawings amounting to X ₹ 700, Y ₹ 500 and Z ₹ 300.
3. Partner’s salary: X ₹ 1,000 p.a., Y ₹ 1,500 p.a.

The capital accounts of partners were fixed as: X ₹ 1,00,000, Y ₹ 80,000 and Z ₹ 60,000. Record the adjustment entry.
Answer:

Question 24.
Mannu and Shristhi are partners in a firm sharing profit in the ratio of 3 :2. Following is the balance sheet of firm as on March 31,2013.

Profit for the year ended March 31, 2013 was ₹ 5,000 which was divided in the agreed ratio, but interest @ 5% p.a. on capital and @ 6% p.a. on drawings was inadvertently ignored. Adjust interest on drawings on an average basis for 6 months. Give the adjustment entry.
Answer:

Question 25.
L, M and N are partners in a firm sharing profits & losses in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5.
On April 1, 2016 their fixed capitals were ₹ 2,00,000, ₹ 3,00,000 and ₹ 4,00,000 respectively. Their partnership deed provided for the following:

1. Interest on capital @ 9% per annum.
2. Interest on Drawings @ 12% per annum.
3. Interest on partners’ loan @ 12% per annum.

On July 1, 2016, L brought ₹ 1,00,000 as additional capital and N withdrew ₹ 1,00,000 from his capital. During the year L, M and N withdrew ₹ 12,000, ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 24,000 respectively for their personal use. On January 1, 2017 the firm obtained a Loan of ₹ 1,50,000 from M. The Net profit of the firm for the year ended March 31, 2017 after charging interest on M’s Loan was ₹ 85,000.
Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account and Partners Capital Account. (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:

Question 26.
The partners of a firm, Alia, Bhanu and Chand distributed the profits for the year ended 31st March, 2017, ₹ 80,000 in the ratio of 3:3:2 without providing for the following adjustments:

• Alia and Chand were entitled to a salary of₹ 1,500 each p.a.
• Bhanu was entitled for a commission of ₹ 4,000
• Bhanu and Chand had guaranteed a minimum profit of ₹ 35,000 p.a. to Alia any deficiency to borne equally by Bhanu and Chand.

Pass the necessary Journal entry for the above adjustments in the books of the firm.
Show workings clearly. (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:

Question 27.
Piya and Bina are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Following was the Balance Sheet of the firm as on 31-3-2016.

The profits ₹ 30,000 for the year ended 31-3-2016 were divided between the partners without allowing interest on capital @ 12% p.a. and salary to Piya @ ₹ 1,000 per month. During the year Piya withdrew ₹8,000 and Bina withdrew ₹4,000.
Showing your working notes clearly, pass the necessary rectifying entry. (Compt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:

Accounting for Partnership: Basic Concepts Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Moli, Bhola and Raj were partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 3 : 4. Their partnership deed provides for the following:

• Interest on Capital @ 5% p.a.
• Interest on Drawing @ 12% p.a.
• Interest on Partner’s Loan @ 6% p.a.
• Moli was allowed an annual salary of ₹4,000.

Bhola was allowed a commission of 10% of net profit as shown by Profit and Loss Account and Raj was guaranteed a profit ₹ 1,50,000 after making all the adjustments as provided in the partnership agreement. Their fixed capital were Moli ₹5,00,000, Bhola ₹8,00,000 and Raj ₹4,00,000. On 1st April 2016 Bhola extended a loan of ₹ 1,00,000 to the firm. The net profit for the year en ded 31st March 2017 before interest on Bhola’s Loan was ₹3,06,000. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account of Moli, Bhola and Raj for the year ended 31 st March 2017 and their Current Account assuming that Bhola withdrew ₹ 5,000 at the end of each month. Moli withdrew ₹ 10,000 at the end of each quarter and Raj withdrew ₹40,000 at the end of each half year.
(CBSE 2018-19)
Answer:

Question 2.
Naveen, Seerat andHina were partners in a firm manufatcturing blankets. They were sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Their capitals on 1st April, 2012 were ₹ 2,00,000; ₹ 3,00,000 and ₹ 6,00,000 respectively. After the floods in Uttaranchal, all partners decided to help the flood victims personally.
For this Naveen withdrew ₹ 10,000 from the firm on 1st September, 2012. Seerat, instead of withdrawing cash from the firm, took blankets amounting to ₹ 12,000 on 1st October, 2012 from the firm and distributed to the flood victims. On the other hand, Hina withdrew ₹ 2,00,000 from her capital on 1st January, 2013 and set up a centre to provide medical facilities in the flood affected area.
The partnership deed provides for charging interest on drawings @ 6% p.a. After the Final Accounts were prepared, it was discovered that interest on drawings had not been charged. Give the necessary adjusting journal entry and show the working notes clearly. (Delhi Compartment 2014, Modified)
Answer: