MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World with Answers

Pastoralists in the Modern World Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Pastoralists in the Modern World Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 5 MCQs On Pastoralists in the Modern World

Choose the correct option:

Class 9 History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
The Maru Raikas herded
(a) camels
(b) goats
(c) sheep
(d) all the three

Answer

Answer: (a) camels


Pastoralists In The Modern World MCQ Question 2.
Banjaras were not found in
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (c) Delhi


Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 MCQ Question 3.
The Massais are located in the
(a) east Africa
(b) west africa
(c) north Africa
(d) South Africa

Answer

Answer: (a) east Africa


Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
The warriors consisted of
(a) elder people
(b) younger people
(c) children
(d) healthy people

Answer

Answer: (b) younger people


The warriors consisted of

MCQ On Pastoralists In The Modern World Question 5.
Why were some forests classified as “protected”?
(a) In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were severely restricted.
(b) The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees that germinated on the forest floor.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


MCQ Of Pastoralists In The Modern World Question 6.
Which of these are the pastoral communities of the mountains?
(a) Gujjars
(b) Gaddis
(c) Bhotiyas and Sherpas
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 9 History Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
Dhangars were an important pastoral community of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) U.P.
(d) Assam

Answer

Answer: (b) Maharashtra


Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 8.
Where were the Banjaras found?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Punjab, Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 Question 9.
According to the ‘Wasteland Rules’
(a) uncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals
(b) these individuals were granted various concessions and encouraged to settle these lands
(c) some of them were made headmen of villages in the newly cleared areas
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Pastoralists In The Modern World Class 9 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 10.
Which of the following statements best explains pastoralist nomads?
(a) The villagers who move from one place to another
(b) The people who do not have a permanent place to live in
(c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd
(d) The people who visit many places for enjoyment

Answer

Answer: (c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd


MCQ On Modern World History Question 11.
What was the result of overgrazing pastures due to restrictions on pastoral movements?
(a) The quality of pastures declined
(b) This created deterioration of animal stock
(c) Underfed cattle died in large numbers during scarcity and famine
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 9th History Chapter 5 Question Answer Question 12.
Which of these are the pastoral communities of Africa?
(a) Bedouins, Berbers
(b) Maasai, Somali
(c) Boran, Turkana
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 9th History Chapter 5 Question 13.
Which of these statements is true?
(a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves
(b) Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves
(c) Serengeti National Park was created over 14,760 km of Maasai grazing land
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Social Science With Answers Pdf Question 14.
How was the authority of both elders and warriors adversely affected by the British efforts to administer the affairs of the Maasai?
(a) The British appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai
(b) These chiefs were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe
(c) The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Social Science Quiz For Class 9 With Answers Question 15.
Which seasonal movements affect the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
(a) Cold and snow
(b) Climatic disturbance
(c) Drought and flood
(d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons

Answer

Answer: (d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons


Question 16.
Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another because of:
(a) Seasonal changes
(b) In search of pastures
(c) To maintain ecological balance
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) In search of pastures


Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another because of:

Question 17.
Raika pastoral community belongs to:
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Pastoralists in the Modern World CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 11 MCQs On Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Biotechnology Principles And Processes MCQ Question 1.
Transgenic plants are develop by:
(a) Introducing of foreign fenes
(b) Clone and genetically modified genes
(c) Genetic engineering
(d) Purified genes

Answer

Answer: (a) Introducing of foreign fenes


MCQ On Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 2.
Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic, engineering are:
(a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Virbio chloerae and tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp and pseudomonas sp.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Escherichiya Coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens


Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic, engineering are:

Biotechnology Principles And Processes Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 3.
Who discovered Restricted endonucleas enzymes?
(a) Smith and Nathane
(b) Baiger
(c) Waxman
(d) Fleming

Answer

Answer: (a) Smith and Nathane


Biotechnology Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
DNA obtained for DNA finger printing:
(a) W.B.C.
(b) Hair root cells
(c) Body fluids
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) W.B.C.


MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 11 Question 5.
Two microbes found tb be very useful in Genetic Engineering are:
(a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholarae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabdities elegans

Answer

Answer: (a) Excherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens


Biotechnology MCQ Class 12 Question 6.
Plasmid is a:
(a) Fungus
(b) Plasmid
(c) Part of Plasma membrane
(d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell

Answer

Answer: (d) Extra chromosomal DNA in bacterial cell


MCQ Of Chapter 11 Biology Class 12 Question 7.
Restriction endonuclease cuts:
(a) One stand of DNA at specific site
(b) Both strands of DNA
(c) Both strands of DNA at any site
(d) Single strand of RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) Both strands of DNA


MCQ On Biotechnology Class 12 Question 8.
Restrictipn endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained from :
(a) Plasmids
(b) AH prokaryotic cells
(c) Bacteriophages
(d) Bacterial cells

Answer

Answer: (d) Bacterial cells


Biotechnology Principles And Processes Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :
(a) High lysin content
(b) Pest resistance
(c) High protien content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (d) High vitamin A content


Biotechnology Principles And Processes MCQ Pdf Question 10.
Triticale, first man made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with:
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl millet
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (d) Barley


MCQ Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 11.
Viral genome incroporatcd into host DNA is called:
(a) Prophase
(b) Protophage
(c) Bacteriophage
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Bacteriophage


MCQs On Biotechnology Principles And Processes Question 12.
DNA element with ability to change its position is called:
(a) Cistron
(b) Transposon
(c) Intron
(d) Ricon

Answer

Answer: (c) Intron


DNA element with ability to change its position is called:

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Biotechnology: Principles and Processes CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction with Answers

Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Human Reproduction Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQs On Human Reproduction

Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Leydigicell found in.
(a) In liver
(b) In testis
(c) In kidney
(d) In intestine

Answer

Answer: (b) In testis


Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 MCQ Question 2.
The release of eggs from the ovary of human female is called:
(a) Plantation
(b) Gestation
(c) Ovulation
(d) Parturition

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovulation


Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Fertilization takes place in human :
(a) In uterus
(b) In vagina
(c) In ovary
(d) In fallopian tubes

Answer

Answer: (d) In fallopian tubes


MCQ On Human Reproduction Class 12 Pdf Question 4.
Ovulation regulate by which hormone:
(a) TSH
(b) ACTH
(c) ADH
(d) FSH and LH

Answer

Answer: (c) ADH


Ovulation regulate by which hormone:

MCQ Of Chapter 3 Biology Class 12 Question 5.
Sertolicells present in:
(a) In liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Ovary
(d) in Pancreatic gland

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis


MCQ Of Human Reproduction Class 12 Question 6.
Gestation period in human female:
(a) 30 Days
(b) 90 Days
(c) 9 Months
(d) 7 Months

Answer

Answer: (c) 9 Months


Class 12 Bio Ch 3 MCQ Question 7.
The cavity of blastula Is:
(a) Blastocoel
(b) Coelome
(c) Archentron
(d) Homocoel

Answer

Answer: (b) Coelome


Chapter 3 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
In mammals male hormones are produced in:
(a) In Liver
(b) In Testis
(c) In Kidney
(d) In Lungs

Answer

Answer: (b) In Testis


Biology Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQs Question 9.
An accessory genital gland of man is:
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Seminal gland
(c) Cowper’s gland
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 10.
Ovaries produce the female gamete called :
(a) Sperm
(b) Oviducts
(c) Ovum
(d) Prostate

Answer

Answer: (c) Ovum


MCQ Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Question 11.
The uterus is single and it is also called :
(a) Fimbrae
(b) Isthmue
(c) Ampulla
(d) Womb

Answer

Answer: (d) Womb


Chapter 3 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 12.
The last part of the oviduct is called :
(a) Isthumus
(b) Ampulla
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Infundibulum

Answer

Answer: (a) Isthumus


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Question 13.
The finger-like projections in the infundibulum are called:
(a) Fimbriae
(b) Ampulla
(c) Isthmus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Fimbriae


MCQ On Human Reproduction Class 12 Question 14.
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Isthmus
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (d) Hymen


Class 12 Human Reproduction MCQ Question 15.
The tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Majora
(c) Mammary duct
(d) Hymen

Answer

Answer: (a) Clitoris


Question 16.
Milk is sucked out from the:
(a) Mammary lobes
(b) Mammary glands
(c) Mammary ducts
(d) Lactiferous duct

Answer

Answer: (d) Lactiferous duct


Question 17.
The male reproductive system in located in the :
(a) In Pelvis region
(b) In Thoracic region
(c) In Back region
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Pelvis region


Question 18.
The cells which synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called endrogens are:
(a) Germ cells
(b) Ledig cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Germ cells


Question 19.
Ovaries are found in the:
(a) In male reproductive system
(b) In Female reproductive system
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In Female reproductive system


Question 20.
The grandular tissue of each breast of each breast in divided into 15-20:
(a) Mammary ducts
(b) Mammary glands
(c) mammary lobes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) mammary lobes


Question 21.
The nature male germ cells produce sperms by :
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Spermatids
(c) Spermination
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Spermatogenesis


Question 22.
Androgens stimulate the process of?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Tail
(d) Spermatogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Spermatogenesis


Question 23.
The machanism of formation of mature female gamete is:
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Acrosome
(c) Semen
(d) Oogenesis

Answer

Answer: (d) Oogenesis


Question 24.
First Menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called:
(a) Ovum
(b) Sperm
(c) Menses
(d) Menarche

Answer

Answer: (d) Menarche


Question 25.
Graafian follice occur:
(a) In humanithyroid
(b) In human female’s ovary
(c) In frog’s ovary
(d) In Rabbits testis

Answer

Answer: (c) In frog’s ovary


Question 26.
Progesterone hormone is formed by :
(a) Corpus calosum
(b) Corpus uterai
(c) Corpus luteum
(d) Corpus albicans

Answer

Answer: (c) Corpus luteum


Progesterone hormone is formed by :

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Human Reproduction CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 15 MCQs On Biodiversity and Conservation

Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 MCQ Questions Question 1.
Lion-tailed Macaque is found in:
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Caucasus
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Western Himalaya

Answer

Answer: (a) Western Ghats


MCQ On Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 Question 2.
Project tiger in India was started in the year:
(a) 1973
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1986

Answer

Answer: (a) 1973


Project tiger in India was started in the year:

MCQ Of Chapter 15 Biology Class 12 Question 3.
Dudhwa National Part is located in:
(a) In Himachal Pradesh
(b) In Uttar Pradesh
(c) In Madhya Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) In Uttar Pradesh


Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
Which type of living organisms given below are listed in Red Data Book”?
(a) Rare species
(b) Rare and endangered species
(c) Endangered species
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Rare and endangered species


Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 MCQs Question 5.
Reserve biosphere of Sundarban is situated in which of the following states :
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (d) West Bengal


Biodiversity MCQs Class 12 Question 6.
Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year:
(a) 1996
(b) 1992
(c) 2002
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (c) 2002


Biodiversity And Conservation MCQ Question 7.
Red Data Book is produced by:
(a) IUCN
(b) WWF
(c) IBWL
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) IUCN


MCQs On Biodiversity And Conservation Class 12 Question 8.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) Birds
(b) Rhinoceros
(c) Tigers
(d) Crocodiles

Answer

Answer: (c) Tigers


Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Important Questions Question 9.
Lions m India are now found in :
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Forests of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Forests of Western Ghats
(d) Fir Forests

Answer

Answer: (d) Fir Forests


Biodiversity And Conservation MCQs Question 10.
Bandipurin Karnataka is the site of project:
(a) Elephant
(b) Hangul
(c) Tiger
(d) Peacock

Answer

Answer: (c) Tiger


MCQ On Biodiversity And Conservation Question 11.
First National park developed in India is:
(a) Gir
(b) Kaziranga
(c) Jim Corbett
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Jim Corbett


Biology Class 12 Chapter 15 Important Questions Question 12.
Nandan Kanha Zoo is know for the:
(a) Nilgiri tiger
(b) Hippopotamus
(c) White Tiger
(d) Whale

Answer

Answer: (c) White Tiger


MCQ Questions On Biodiversity Question 13.
Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river:
(a) Jhelum
(b) Narmada
(c) Tapti
(d) Vyas

Answer

Answer: (b) Narmada


Biodiversity And Conservation Neet MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Identify the correct matched pair:
(a) Montreal Protocol-Global Warming
(b) Kyoto Protocol-Climate change
(c) Project Hungul-Dear
(d) Project Tiger-Lion

Answer

Answer: (b) Kyoto Protocol-Climate change


Identify the correct matched pair:

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Biodiversity and Conservation CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers

Ecosystem Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Ecosystem Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 14 MCQs On Ecosystem

MCQ On Ecosystem Class 12 Chapter 14  Question 1.
Who introduced term Ecosystem?
(a) Leaneous
(b) Reiter
(c) Odum
(d) Aristle

Answer

Answer: (b) Reiter


Ecosystem Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 2.
Soil developed from sedimented rock:
(a) Force Science
(b) Edaphology
(c) Pedogenesis
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pedogenesis


Ecosystem MCQ Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 3.
Best soil for plant growth is:
(a) Grit
(b) Sandy
(c) Soily
(d) Clay

Answer

Answer: (d) Clay


MCQ On Ecosystem Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 4.
Soil particle determine the character of:
(a) Organisation
(b) Biomass
(c) Area capacity
(d) Soil plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Organisation


Ecosystem MCQ With Answers Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 5.
Plant roots soil water is:
(a) Cellular water
(b) Surface water
(c) Humidity water
(d) Gravitational water

Answer

Answer: (d) Gravitational water


MCQ Questions On Ecosystem Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 6.
Exchange of water in submerged plant:
(a) Stomata
(b) Normal surface
(c) Hydathode
(d) Lenticel

Answer

Answer: (b) Normal surface


MCQ On Ecosystem With Answers Pdf Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 7.
Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:
(a) Uticularia
(b) Prapa
(c) Nymphea
(d) Vallisnaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Vallisnaria


Ecosystem MCQs With Answers Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 8.
Water co-deficient contains:
(a) Large thin walled cells
(b) Large-vacuoles
(c) Membrane
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Membrane


MCQ On Ecosystem With Answers Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 9.
Xerophyte Contains:
(a) Deep roots
(b) Sunken stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


MCQ On Ecosystem With Answers Pdf Download Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 10.
Small extremite animals of tropicalregion:
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Bergmen’s law
(c) Dollo’s law
(d) Cope’s law

Answer

Answer: (d) Cope’s law


Ecology MCQs With Answers Pdf Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 11.
Hibernation of some animals:
(a) Regular
(b) Periodic
(c) Suddenly
(d) Temporary

Answer

Answer: (a) Regular


MCQ On Energy Flow In Ecosystem Chapter 14 Class 12 Question 12.
Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by :
(a) Climatic factor
(b) Biotic factor
(c) Soil factor
(d) Topographic factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Biotic factor


Question 13.
Identity the Hetero Organism:
(a) Pistia
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Vallisnaria
(d) Casurina

Answer

Answer: (c) Vallisnaria


Identity the Hetero Organism:

Question 14.
That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is:
(a) Necturus
(b) Camel
(c) Wall Lizzard
(d) Kyton

Answer

Answer: (b) Camel


Question 15.
Root hair absent in:
(a) Hydrophyte
(b) Halophyte
(c) Mesophyte
(d) Heliophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Hydrophyte


Question 16.
A water co-efficient Mesophyte is:
(a) Cappais
(b) Agave
(c) Acacia
(d) Hemeris

Answer

Answer: (b) Agave


Question 17.
Gravitated carried soil is:
(a) Alluvial
(b) Muddy
(c) Glacier
(d) Compound

Answer

Answer: (d) Compound


Question 18.
Kanha National Park is famous for:
(a) For Birds
(b) For Tendua
(c) For Tiger
(d) For Crocodile

Answer

Answer: (b) For Tendua


Question 19.
During food chain the maximum energy is stored in :
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Herbivoures
(d) Camivourse

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers


Question 20.
The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is :
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (b) 10%


Question 21.
Ecological pyramids were first devised by:
(a) Charles Eltom
(b) R. Hesse
(c) R.A. Lindemann
(d) Justus von Liebig

Answer

Answer: (a) Charles Eltom


Question 22.
Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity:
(a) Grassland
(b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangrooves
(d) Rainforests

Answer

Answer: (b) Coral reefs


Question 23.
In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to:
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Producers


Question 24.
Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?
(a) Pyramid of energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Pyramid of dry biomass

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid of energy


Question 25.
Biosphere means:
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere and ionosphered
(c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere

Answer

Answer: (c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere


Question 26.
Best type of pyramid which is always true is:
(a) Pyramid or energy
(b) Pyramid of Biomass
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (a) Pyramid or energy


Question 27.
Decomposers are:
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Autohetrotrophs
(c) Organotrophs
(d) Heterotrophs

Answer

Answer: (d) Heterotrophs


Question 28.
The largest ecosystem is :
(a) Forest ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Pond ecosystem
(d) Grassland ecosystem

Answer

Answer: (b) Marine ecosystem


Question 29.
More than 70 of world freshwater is contain in:
(a) Antarctica
(b) Glaciers and mountains
(c) Greenland
(d) Polar ice

Answer

Answer: (c) Greenland


Question 30.
Which one of the following pair is mismatched?
(a) Prairies-Epiphytes
(b) Tundra-Permafrost
(c) Savannaha-Acacia trees
(d) Coniferous forests-Evergreen trees)

Answer

Answer: (a) Prairies-Epiphytes


Question 31.
Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(a) Mountain
(b) Desert
(c) Forest
(d) Ocean

Answer

Answer: (b) Desert


Question 32.
Primary succession occurs in :
(a) Primary succession occurs
(b) Previously unoccupied area
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Previously unoccupied area


Question 33.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramid?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight

Answer

Answer: (a) Dry weight


Question 34.
What is the main cause of extinction of some species in tropical forests?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Pollution
(d) Soil erosion

Answer

Answer: (a) Deforestation


What is the main cause of extinction of some species in tropical forests?

Question 35.
Ecology deals with:
(a) The arth and plants
(b) The relationship between organisms and their environment
(c) Economical growth of poor people
(d) The life under sea

Answer

Answer: (b) The relationship between organisms and their environment


Question 36.
Shola forests are found in :
(a) Eastern Coast of Orissa
(b) North East Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats (Kerala)
(d) Decian Plateau

Answer

Answer: (c) Western Ghats (Kerala)


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Ecosystem CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler with Answers

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 3 MCQs On Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Choose the correct option:

Nazism And The Rise Of Hitler MCQ Question 1.
Where is the Wall Street Exchange?
(a) America
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: (a) America


Nazism And The Rise Of Hitler Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
Which country was defeated after the First World War?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Russia
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (b) Germany


Class 9 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
The time span of the First World War was
(a) 1911-1914
(b) 1914-1918
(c) 1918-1921
(d) 1920-1925

Answer

Answer: (b) 1914-1918


Class 9 History Chapter 3 MCQ Question 4.
The Nazi Party had become the largest party by the
(a) 1920
(b) 1925
(c) 1926
(d) 1932

Answer

Answer: (d) 1932


Class 9 History Ch 3 MCQ Question 5.
Hitler became the Chancellor or Germany in the year
(a) 1931
(b) 1932
(c) 1933
(d) 1934

Answer

Answer: (c) 1933


Nazism And The Rise Of Hitler Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 6.
The country that dropped atom bomb on Hiroshima in Japan was
(a) France
(b) America
(c) Germany
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (b) America


Class 9 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 7.
Who could enter Jungvolk?
(a) Ten-year-old boys
(b) Twelve-year-old boys
(c) Fourteen-year-old boys
(d) Eighteen-year-old boys

Answer

Answer: (a) Ten-year-old boys


Ch 3 History Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
Who were the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany?
(a) Jews
(b) Poles
(c) Russians
(d) Gypsies

Answer

Answer: (a) Jews


Who were the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany?

History Class 9 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 9.
A bronze cross was given to the woman who produced
(a) two children
(b) four children
(c) six children
(d) eight children

Answer

Answer: (b) four children


Chapter 3 History Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
The game Hitler glorified was
(a) wresting
(b) kabaddi
(c) hockey
(d) boxing

Answer

Answer: (d) boxing


History Chapter 3 Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
What was the response of the Germans to the new Weimar Republic?
(a) They held the new Weimar Republic responsible for Germany’s defeat and the disgrace at Versailles
(b) The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation
(c) It became the target of attacks in the conservative national circles
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 9th History Chapter 3 MCQ Question 12.
Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copra’s
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war

Answer

Answer: (c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory


MCQ Of Chapter 3 History Class 9 Question 13.
The Treaty of Versailles (1920) signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for Germany, because
(a) Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 per cent of its territories
(b) It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania, was forced to paycompensation of 6 billion pounds
(c) The western powers demilitarised Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the 1920s
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


MCQ Of Nazism Class 9 Question 14.
What was Hitler’s historic blunder and why?
(a) Attack on Soviet Union in 1941 was a historic blunder by Hitler
(b) He exposed his western front to British aerial bombing
(c) The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany atStalingrad
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 9 Chapter 3 History MCQ Question 15.
Why did Helmut’s father kill himself in the spring of 1945?
(a) He was depressed by Germany’s defeat in Second World War
(b) He feared that common people would mishandle him and his family
(c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers
(d) He wanted to die because of the crimes he had committed during Nazi rule

Answer

Answer: (c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers


Question 16.
Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the end of World War II?
(a) International Military Tribunal
(b) British Military Tribunal
(c) Allied Military Tribunal
(d) Allied Judicial Court

Answer

Answer: (a) International Military Tribunal


Question 17.
Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive genocide?
(a) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar
(c) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(d) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings

Answer

Answer: (b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar


Question 18.
What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in 1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 19.
War in 1917 led to the strengthening of Allies and the defeat of Germany because of entry of
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) the USA
(d) Spain

Answer

Answer: (c) the USA


Question 20.
What was ‘Dawes Plan’?
(a) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany
(b) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans


Question 21.
What gave Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state?
(a) Extra-constitutional powers were given to the newly organised forces like Gestapo, the SS and SD
(b) People could be detained in Gestapo torture chambers and sent to concentration camps
(c) No legal procedures were there for the arrested people
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 22.
What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(a) Messenger from God
(b) Conquer the world
(c) One people, one empire, and one leader
(d) we are Aryans, the real rulers

Answer

Answer: (c) One people, one empire, and one leader


Question 23.
When and among which countries was the Tripartite Pact signed?
(a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan
(b) 1939, Germany, Austria and USSR
(c) 1940, England, France and USA
(d) 1938, England, Germany and USSR

Answer

Answer: (a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan


Question 24.
Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?
(a) Hitler’s attack on Eastern Europe
(b) Hitler’s policy of genocide of the Jews
(c) Helplessness of England and France
(d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour

Answer

Answer: (d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour


Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?

Question 25.
What was Hitler’s ideology of ‘lebensraum’ or living space?
(a) Multi-storeyed buildings should be built in Germany to increase the living space
(b) The world must be occupied enabling the material resources and power of the German nation.
(c) New territories had to be acquired for settlement
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Nazism and the Rise of Hitler CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

History and Sport The Story of Cricket Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 7 History and Sport The Story of Cricket with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided History and Sport The Story of Cricket Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 7 MCQs On History and Sport The Story of Cricket

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
There were revision of laws by MCC between 1770s and 1780s. They were:
(a) The weight of the ball and the width of the bat were specified
(b) The first leg-before law was published in 1774
(c) The third stump became common, and the first six seam cricket ball was created
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 2.
There was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana (a Whites only club) and the ParsiClub, because :
(a) The Parsis complained that the public park was left unfit for cricket because the polopolies of the Gymkhana Club dug up the surface
(b) The colonial authorities were prejudiced in favour of their own White compatriots
(c) The White cricket elite in India offered no help to the enthusiastic Parsis
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 3.
When was the Marylebone Cricket Club founded?
(a) 1760
(b) 1787
(c) 1788
(d) 1895

Answer

Answer: (b) 1787


When was the Marylebone Cricket Club founded?

Question 4.
The reason that cricket has originated from the villages is/are
(a) Cricket matches had no time limit
(b) Vagueness of the size of the cricket ground
(c) Cricket’s most important tools are all made of pre-industrial materials
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 5.
The poor who played cricket for a living were called
(a) needy
(b) entertainers
(c) professionals
(d) commons

Answer

Answer: (c) professionals


Question 6.
In which of these countries was cricket established as a popular sport?
(a) South Africa, Zimbabwe
(b) Australia, New Zealand
(c) West Indies, Kenya
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Australia, New Zealand


Question 7.
What was the term ‘tournament’ called initially?
(a) Triangular
(b) Quadrangular
(c) Angular
(d) Pentangular

Answer

Answer: (b) Quadrangular


Question 8.
How did the cricket boards become rich?
(a) By organising large number of matches
(b) Through patronage from rich industrialists
(c) By selling television rights to television companies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) By selling television rights to television companies


Question 9.
When was the first World Cup successfully staged?
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1974
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (d) 1975


Question 10.
The first hockey club in India was started in
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Bangalore
(d) Calcutta

Answer

Answer: (d) Calcutta


The first hockey club in India was started in

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 7 History and Sport The Story of Cricket with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding History and Sport The Story of Cricket CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers

The Solid State Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Solid State Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQs On The Solid State

Solid State MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is non-crystalline or amorphous?
(a) Diamond
(b) Graphite
(c) Glass
(d) Common Salt

Answer

Answer: (c) Glass


Solid State Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
NaCl typecrystal (with coordination no. 6 : 6) can be converted into CsCl type crystal (with coordination no. 8 : 8) by applying
(a) high temperature
(b) high pressure
(c) high temperature and high pressure
(d) low temperature and low pressure

Answer

Answer: (b) high pressure


Solid State MCQs Class 12 Question 3.
How many chloride ions are surrounding sodium ion in sodium chloride crystal ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: (c) 6


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
In NaCl structure
(a) all octahedral and tetrahedral sites are occupied
(b) only octahedral sites are occupied
(c) only tetrahedral sites are occupied
(d) neither octahedral nor tetrahedral sites are occupied

Answer

Answer: (b) only octahedral sites are occupied


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQs Question 5.
In Zinc blende structure
(a) zinc ions occupy half of the tetrahedral sites
(b) each Zn2- ion is surrounded by six sulphide ions
(c) each S2- ion is surrounded by six Zn2+ ions
(d) it has fee structure

Answer

Answer: (c) each S2- ion is surrounded by six Zn2+ ions


Solid State MCQ Questions For Class 12 Question 6.
A unit cell of BaCl2 (fluorite structure) is made up of
(a) four Ba2+ ions and four Cl ions
(b) four Ba2- ions and eight Cl ions
(c) eight Ba² ions and four Cl ions
(d) four Ba² ions and six Cl ions

Answer

Answer: (b) four Ba2- ions and eight Cl ions


Class 12 Chemistry MCQ Chapter 1 Question 7.
Alkali halids do not show Frenkel defect because
(a) cations and anions have almost equal size
(b) there is a large difference in size of cations and anions
(c) cations and anions have low coordination number
(d) anions cannot be accommodated in voids

Answer

Answer: (a) cations and anions have almost equal size


MCQ On Solid State Class 12 Question 8.
The coordination number of Y will be in the XY types of crystal:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 6


Solid State Chemistry Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
(a) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
(c) \(\frac{π}{3√2}\)
(d) \(\frac{π}{4√2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{π}{6}\)


Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
Edge length of unit cell of chromium metal is 287 pm with bcc arrangement. The atomic radius is of the order
(a) 287 pm
(b) 574 pm
(c) 124.27 pm
(d) 143.5 pm

Answer

Answer: (c) 124.27 pm


Edge length of unit cell of chromium metal is 287 pm with bcc arrangement. The atomic radius is of the order

MCQ Solid State Class 12 Question 11.
The edge length of fee cell is 508 pm. If radius of cation is 110 pm, the radius of anion is
(a) 110 pm
(b) 220 pm
(c) 285 pm
(d) 144 pm

Answer

Answer: (d) 144 pm


Chapter 1 Chemistry Class 12 MCQ Question 12.
The density of a metal which crystallises in bcc lattice with unit cell edge length 300 pm and molar mass 50 g mol-1 will be
(a) 10 g cm-3
(b) 14.2 g cm-3
(c) 6.15 g cm-3
(d) 9.3 2 g cm-3

Answer

Answer: (c) 6.15 g cm-3


Class 12 Solid State MCQ Question 13.
How many lithium atoms are present in a unit cell with edge length 3.5 Å and density 0.53 g cm-3? (Atomic mass of Li = 6.94):
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 2


MCQ Questions On Solid State With Answers Pdf Question 14.
The distance between Na and CL ions in NaCl with a density 2.165 g cm-3 is
(a) 564 pm
(b) 282 pm
(c) 234 pm
(d) 538 pm

Answer

Answer: (b) 282 pm


MCQ Of Solid State Class 12 Question 15.
An element with atomic mass 100 has a bcc structure and edge length 400 pm. The density of element is
(a) 10.37 g cm-3
(b) 5.19 g cm-3
(c) 7.29 g cm-3
(d) 2.14 g cm-3

Answer

Answer: (b) 5.19 g cm-3


Question 16.
Fe3O4 (magnetite) is an example of
(a) normal spinel structure
(b) inverse spinel structure
(c) fluoride structure
(d) anti fluorite structure

Answer

Answer: (b) inverse spinel structure


Question 17.
Which of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect?
(a) AgBr
(b) AgCl
(c) KBr
(d) ZnS

Answer

Answer: (c) KBr


Question 18.
What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by ZnS?
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) Both Frenkel and Schottky defects
(d) Non-stoichiometric defect

Answer

Answer: (b) Frenkel defect


Question 19.
Silver halides generally show
(a) Schottky defect
(b) Frenkel defect
(c) Both Frenkel and Schottky defects
(d) cation excess defect

Answer

Answer: (c) Both Frenkel and Schottky defects


Question 20.
Which of the following will have metal deficiency defect?
(a) NaCl
(b) FeO
(c) KCl
(d) ZnO

Answer

Answer: (b) FeO


Question 21.
In which pair most efficient packing is present?
(a) hep and bcc
(b) hep and ccp
(c) bcc and ccp
(d) bcc and simple cubic cell

Answer

Answer: (b) hep and ccp


Question 22.
What is the effect of Frenkel defect on the density of ionic solids?
(a) The density of the crystal increases
(b) The density of the crystal decreases
(c) The density of the crystal remains unchanged
(d) There is no relationship between density of a crystal and defect present in it

Answer

Answer: (c) The density of the crystal remains unchanged


Question 23.
In a Schottky defect
(a) an ion moves to interstitial position between the lattice points
(b) electrons are trapped in a lattice site
(c) some lattice sites are vacant
(d) some extra cations are present in interstitial space

Answer

Answer: (c) some lattice sites are vacant


Question 24.
To get n-type of semiconductor, germanium should be doped with
(a) gallium
(b) arsenic
(c) aluminium
(d) boron

Answer

Answer: (b) arsenic


To get n-type of semiconductor, germanium should be doped with

Question 25.
p-type semiconductors are formed When Si or Ge are doped with
(a) group 14 elements
(b) group 15 elements
(c) group 13 elements
(d)group 18 elements

Answer

Answer: (c) group 13 elements


Question 26.
Which of the following conditions favours the existence of a substance in the solid state?
(a) High temperature
(b) Low temperature
(c) High thermal energy
(d) Weak cohesive forces

Answer

Answer: (b) Low temperature


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The Solid State CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers

Solutions Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Solutions Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQs On Solutions

Solutions Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, its molarity will be
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.5
(c) 5
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.25


MCQ On Solutions Class 12 Question 2.
The atmospheric pollution is generally measured in the units of
(a) mass percentage
(b) volume percentage
(c) volume fraction
(d) ppm

Answer

Answer: (d) ppm


Solution MCQ Class 12 Question 3.
A 5% solution of cane-sugar (molecular weight = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of substance A. The molecular weight of X is
(a) 342
(b) 171.2
(c) 68.4
(d) 136.8

Answer

Answer: (c) 68.4


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
234.2 gm of sugar syrup contains 34.2 gm of sugar. What is the molal concentration of the solution.
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 5.5
(d) 55

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.5


MCQ Of Chapter 2 Chemistry Class 12 Question 5.
H2S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195 m. what is the value of KH?
(a) 0.0263 bar
(b) 69.16 bar
(c) 192 bar
(d) 282 bar

Answer

Answer: (d) 282 bar


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQs Question 6.
Atomic mass is equal to
(a) number of electrons of an atom
(b) sum of the numbers of electrons and protons of an atom
(c) sum of the numbers of neutrons and protons of an atom
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sum of the numbers of electrons and protons of an atom


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Question 7.
Henry’s law constant for molality of methane is benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg. The mole fraction of methane is nenzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is
(a) 1.78 × 10-3
(b) 17.43
(c) 0.114
(d) 2.814

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.78 × 10-3


Class 12 Solutions MCQ Question 8.
How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 rnL water at 298 K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm and K = 1.4 × 10-3 mol/L/atm?
(a) 22.4 mg
(b) 22.4 g
(c) 2.24 g
(d) 2.24 mg

Answer

Answer: (d) 2.24 mg


MCQ Solutions Class 12 Question 9.
The law which indicates the relation’-hip between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure rs
(a) Raoult’s law
(b) Henry’s law
(c) Lowering of vapour pressure
(d) Van’t Hoff law

Answer

Answer: (b) Henry’s law


The law which indicates the relation'-hip between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure rs

MCQ Of Solution Chapter Question 10.
Among the following substances the lowest vapour pressure is exerted by
(a) water
(b) alcohol
(c) ether
(d) mercury

Answer

Answer: (d) mercury


MCQ On Solution Chapter Class 12 Question 11.
Vapour pressure of a pure liquid X is 2 atm at 300 K. It is lowered to 1 atm on dissolving 1 gof Y in 20 g of liquid X. If molar mass of X is 200, what is the molar mass of Y?
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200

Answer

Answer: (b) 50


Chapter 2 Chemistry Class 12 MCQ Question 12.
Partial pressure of a solution component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is known as
(a) Henry’s law
(b) Raoult’s law
(c) Distribution law
(d) Ostawald’s dilution law

Answer

Answer: (b) Raoult’s law


Solution Class 12 MCQ Question 13.
3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q are mixed, what will be their total vapour pressure in the solution if their partial vapour pressures are 80 and 60 torr respectively?
(a) 80 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 72 torr
(d) 70 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 72 torr


Solutions Chemistry Class 12 MCQ Question 14.
Which of the following solutions shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Acetone + Aniline
(b) Acetone + Ethanol
(c) Water + Nitric acid
(d) Chloroform + Benzene

Answer

Answer: (b) Acetone + Ethanol


MCQ Questions On Solutions In Chemistry Class 12 Question 15.
The system that forms maximum boilingazetrope is
(a) Acetone-chloroform
(b) ethanol-acetone
(c) n-hexane-n-heptane
(d) carbon disulphide-acetone

Answer

Answer: (a) Acetone-chloroform


Question 16.
A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
(a) hypotonic solution
(b) hypertonic solution
(c) isotonic solution
(d) pure water

Answer

Answer: (b) hypertonic solution


Question 17.
The relative lowering in vapour pressure is proportional to the ratio of number of
(a) solute molecules to solvent molecules
(b) solvent molecules to solute molecules
(c) solute molecules to the total number of molecules in solution
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of molecules in solution

Answer

Answer: (c) solute molecules to the total number of molecules in solution


Question 18.
A solution containing 10.2 g glycerine per litre is isotonic with a 2% solution of glucose. What is the molecular mass of glycerine?
(a) 91.8 g
(b) 1198 g
(c) 83.9 g
(d) 890.3 g

Answer

Answer: (a) 91.8 g


Question 19.
What weight of glycerol should be added to 600 g of water in order to lower its freezing point by 10°C ?
(a) 496 g
(b) 297 g
(c) 310 g
(d) 426 g

Answer

Answer: (b) 297 g


Question 20.
The osmotic pressure of a solution can be increased by
(a) increasing the volume
(b) increasing the number of solute molecules
(c) decreasing the temperature
(d) removing semipermeable membrane

Answer

Answer: (b) increasing the number of solute molecules


Question 21.
Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved in the process is
(a) lowering in vapour pressure of snow
(b) depression in freezing point of snow
(c) melting of ice due to increase in temperature by putting salt
(d) increase in freezing point of snow

Answer

Answer: (b) depression in freezing point of snow


Question 22.
For carrying reverse osmosis for desalination of water the material used for making semipermeable membrane is
(a) potassium nitrate
(b) parchment membrane
(c) cellulose acetate
(d) cell membrane

Answer

Answer: (c) cellulose acetate


For carrying reverse osmosis for desalination of water the material used for making semipermeable membrane is

Question 23.
What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1 M Mg(NO3)2 solution if van’t Hoff factor is 2.74?
(a) 75%
(b) 87%
(c) 100%
(d) 92%

Answer

Answer: (b) 87%


Question 24.
Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) Mole fraction
(b) Parts per million
(c) Mass percentage
(d) Molality

Answer

Answer: (a) Mole fraction


Question 25.
At equilibrium the rate of dissociation of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallisation
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) equal to the rate of crystallisation


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Solutions CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers

Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs On Chemical Kinetics

Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
In chemical equation H2 (g) + I2 (g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2HI (g) the equilibrium constant Kp depends on
(a) total pressure
(b) catalyst used
(c) amount of H2 and I2
(d) temperature

Answer

Answer: (b) catalyst used


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.
If the rate of a reaction is expressed by, rate = A [A]² [B], the order of reaction will be
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) 3


Percent concentration and molarity are the most commonly used solution.

MCQ On Chemical Kinetics Question 3.
In a reaction, 2X → Y, the concentration of X decreases from 0.50 M to 0.38 M in 10 min. What is the rate of reaction in Ms-1 during this interval ?
(a) 2 × 10-4
(b) 4 × 10-2
(c) 2 × 10-2
(d) 1 × 10-2

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 × 10-4


MCQ On Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Question 4.
The decomposition of dimethyl ether is a fractional order reaction. The rate is given by rate =k(PCH3OCH3)3/2. If the pressure is measured in bar and time in minutes, then what are the units of rate and rate constant?
(a) bar min-1, bar2 min-1
(b) bar min-1, bar1/2 min-1
(c) bar1/2 min-1, bar2 min-1
(d) bar min-1, bar1/2 min-1

Answer

Answer: (b) bar min-1, bar1/2 min-1


Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 5.
A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order kinetics. If concentration of R is increased by four times, what will be the increase in the rate of formation of P?
(a) 9 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 16 times
(d) 8 times

Answer

Answer: (c) 16 times


A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order kinetics. If concentration of R is increased by four times, what will be the increase in the rate of formation of P?

MCQ Of Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Question 6.
Which of the following, is an example of a fractional order reaction?
(a) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
(b) NO + O3 → NO2 + O2
(c) 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr
(d) CH3CHO → CH4 + CO

Answer

Answer: (d) CH3CHO → CH4 + CO


Chemical Kinetics MCQ Questions And Answers Question 7.
The unit of rate constant for the reaction
2H2 + 2NO → 2H2O + N2
which has rate = K|H2||NO|², is
(a) mol L-1 s-1
(b) s-1
(c) mol-2 L² s-1
(d)mol L-1

Answer

Answer: (c) mol-2 L² s-1


MCQ On Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Pdf Question 8.
Fora reaction x + y → z, rate ∝ |X|. What is (i) moleculariiy and (ii) order of reaction?
(a) (i)2, (ii) 1
(b) (i)2,(ii) 2
(c) (i) 1, (ii) 1
(d) (i) 1, (ii) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) (i)2, (ii) 1


Chemical Kinetics MCQ Questions Question 9.
For a reaction nx – y → z the rate of reaction becomes twenty seven times when the concentration of X is increased three times. What is the order of the reaction?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 3


MCQ Of Chapter 4 Chemistry Class 12 Question 10.
The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
(a) temperature of the reaction
(b) extent of the reaction
(c) initial concentration of the reactants
(d) the time of completion of reaction

Answer

Answer: (d) the time of completion of reaction


Chemical Kinetics MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 11.
The chemical reaction, 2O3 → 3O2 proceeds as
O3 \(\rightleftharpoons\) O2 + |O| (fast)
|O| + O3 → 2O2 (slow)
The rate law expression will be
(a) Rate = k [O] [O3]
(b) Rate = k [O3]² [O2]-1
(c) Rate = k [O3
(d) Rate = k [O2] [O]

Answer

Answer: (b) Rate = k [O3]² [O2]-1


Class 12 Chemical Kinetics MCQ Question 12.
The unit of rate and rate constant are same fora
(a) zero order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) third order reaction

Answer

Answer: (a) zero order reaction


Chapter 4 Chemistry Class 12 MCQs Question 13.
The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction is indicative of
(a) order of a reaction
(b) molecuiarity of a reaction
(c) fast step of the mechanism of a reaction
(d) half-life of the reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) molecuiarity of a reaction


MCQ Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Question 14.
Fora unimolecular reaction
(a) the order and molecuiarity of the slowest step are equal to one
(b) molecuiarity of the reaction can be zero, one or two
(c) molecuiarity of the reaction can be determined only experimentally
(d) more than one reacting species are involved in one step

Answer

Answer: (a) the order and molecuiarity of the slowest step are equal to one


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Question 15.
The overall rate of a reaction is governed by
(a) the rate of fastest intermediate’step
(b) the sum total of the rates of all intermediate steps
(c) the average of the rates of all the intermediate steps
(d) the rate of slowest intermediate step

Answer

Answer: (d) the rate of slowest intermediate step


Question 16.
The order of reaction is decided by
(a) temperature
(b) mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants
(c) molecularity
(d) pressure

Answer

Answer: (b) mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants


Question 17.
Rate constant in case of first order reaction is
(a) inversely proportional to the concentration units
(b) independent of concentration units
(c) directly proportional to concentration units
(d) inversely proportional to the square of concentration units

Answer

Answer: (b) independent of concentration units


Question 18.
Half life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be completed in 100 min?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 99.9%
(d) 75%

Answer

Answer: (c) 99.9%


Question 19.
In pseudo unimolecular reactions
(a) both the reactants are present in low concentration
(b) both the reactants are present in same concentration
(c) one of the reactant is present in excess
(d) one of the reactant is non-reactive

Answer

Answer: (c) one of the reactant is present in excess


Question 20.
A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. What will be t12?
(a) 77.7 min
(b) 52.5 min
(c) 46.2 min
(d) 22.7 min

Answer

Answer: (a) 77.7 min


Question 21.
A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3s-1. How long time will 5 g of this reactant take to reduce to 3 g?
(a) 444 s
(b) 400 s
(c) 528 s
(d) 669 s

Answer

Answer: (a) 444 s


Question 22.
Radioactive disintegration is an example of
(a) zero order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) third order reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) first order reaction


Question 23.
A plot of log (a – x) against time t is a straight line. This indicates that the reaction is of
(a) zero order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order

Answer

Answer: (b) first order


Question 24.
Rate of which reaction increases with temperature?
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Endothermic reaction
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) both


Rate of which reaction increases with temperature?

Question 25.
The activation energy in a chemical reaction is defined as
(a) the difference in energies of reactants and products
(b) the sum of energies of reactants and products
(c) the difference in energy of intermediate complex with the average energy of reactants and products
(d) the difference in energy of intermediate complex and the average energy of reactants

Answer

Answer: (d) the difference in energy of intermediate complex and the average energy of reactants


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Chemical Kinetics CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQs On General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Metallurgy MCQ Questions Class 12 Question 1.
Concentration of sulphide ore is done by
(a) froth flotation process
(b) electrolysis
(c) roasting
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) froth flotation process


MCQ On Metallurgy Class 12 Question 2.
Malachite is an ore of
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) Sliver

Answer

Answer: (b) copper


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQ Question 3.
Formula of copper pyrite is
(a)Cu2S
(b) CuFeS
(c) CuFeS2
(d) Cu2Fe2S2

Answer

Answer: (c) CuFeS2


MCQ On General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements Question 4.
Ore of aluminium is
(a) bauxite
(b) hematite
(c) dolomite
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) bauxite


MCQ On Metallurgy Class 12 Pdf Question 5.
Removal of the unwanted materials like sand, clays, etc. from the ore is known as ………., …….. or ……….
(a) concentration, dressing, benefaction
(b) separation, refining, gangue
(c) magnetic separation, purification, gangue
(d) washing, refining, amalgamation

Answer

Answer: (a) concentration, dressing, benefaction


Metallurgy Class 12 MCQ Question 6.
For which of the following ores froth floatation method is used for concentration?
(a) Haematite
(b) Zinc blende
(c) Magnetite
(d) Camallite

Answer

Answer: (b) Zinc blended


For which of the following ores froth floatation method is used for concentration?

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQ Question 7.
The powdered ore is agitated with water or washed with running stream of water. The heavy ore particles and lighter impurities are separated. This method of concentration is known as
(a) metallurgy
(b) leaching
(c) froth floatation process
(d) gravity separation

Answer

Answer: (d) gravity separation


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements MCQs Pdf Question 8.
The oil used as frothing agent in froth floatation process is
(a) coconut oil
(b) castor oil
(c) palmitic oil
(d) pine oil

Answer

Answer: (d) pine oil


General Principles And Processes Of Isolation Of Elements Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following metals is not extracted by leaching?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Mercury
(c) Silver
(d) Gold

Answer

Answer: (b) Mercury


Metallurgy Quiz Class 12 Question 10.
Sulphide ore of zinc/copper is concentrated by
(a) floatation process
(b) electromagnetic process
(c) gravity separation
(d) distillation

Answer

Answer: (a) floatation process


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQs Question 11.
Which of the following ores is concentrated by chemical leaching method?
(a) Cinnabar
(b) Argentite
(c) Copper pyrites
(d) Galena

Answer

Answer: (b) Argentite


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 Question 12.
How do we separate two sulphide ores by froth floatation method?
(a) By using excess of pine oil
(b) By adjusting proportion of oil to water or using depressant.
(c) By using some solvent in which one of the sulphides is soluble
(d) By using collectors and froth stabilisers like xanthates

Answer

Answer: (b) By adjusting proportion of oil to water or using depressant.


MCQ Of Metallurgy Class 12 Question 13.
Common impurities present in bauxite are
(a) CuO
(b) ZnO
(c) CaO
(d) SiO2

Answer

Answer: (d) SiO2


Question 14.
An ore of tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by
(a) gravity separation
(b) magnetic separation
(c) froth floatation
(d) leaching

Answer

Answer: (b) magnetic separation


Question 15.
Which of the following ores cannot be concentrated by magnetic separation?
(a) Haematite
(b) Malachite
(c) Magnetite
(d) Siderite

Answer

Answer: (b) Malachite


Question 16.
The significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium is
(a) it helps removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3 etc. from the bauxite ore
(b) it converts the ore into oxide
(c) it reduces melting point of the ore
(d) it eliminates water from bauxite

Answer

Answer: (a) it helps removing the impurities like SiO2, Fe2O3 etc. from the bauxite ore


Question 17.
Which of the following metals is extracted using a silica lined convertor?
(a) Mg
(b) Al
(c) Cu
(d) Zn

Answer

Answer: (c) Cu


Question 18.
Which of the following sulphides when heated strongly in air gives the corresponding metal without undergoing separate reduction of oxide?
(a) Cu2S
(b) FeS
(c) HgS
(d) ZnS

Answer

Answer: (c) HgS


Question 19.
Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal oxide bv aluminium ?
(a) Cr
(b) Mn
(c) Fe
(d) Mg

Answer

Answer: (d) Mg


Question 20.
Heating pyrites to remove sulphur is called
(a) smelting
(b) calcination
(c) liquation
(d) roasting

Answer

Answer: (d) roasting


Question 21.
Impurities of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus can be removed from cast iron by adding
(a) carbon which reduces the impurities
(b) water which dissolves the impurities
(c) limestone which changes impurities into oxides and pass into slag
(d) iron oxide which reacts with impurities by forming slag

Answer

Answer: (c) limestone which changes impurities into oxides and pass into slag


Question 22.
In metallurgical process, aluminium acts as
(a) an oxidising agent
(b) a reducing agent
(c) acidic flux
(d) basic flux

Answer

Answer: (b) a reducing agent


Question 23.
Ellingham diagram represents change of
(a) ΔG with temperature
(b) ΔH with temperature
(c) ΔG with pressure
(d) (ΔG – TΔS) with temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) ΔG with temperature


Question 24.
During the extraction of haematite, limestone is added which acts as
(a) flux
(b) slag
(c) reducing agent
(d) gangue

Answer

Answer: (a) flux


Question 25.
In blast furnace iron oxide is reduced by
(a) silica
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) carbon
(d) lime stone

Answer

Answer: (b) carbon monoxide


Question 26.
From the Ellingham graph between Gibb’s energy and temperature, out of C and CO with is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
(a) Carbon
(b) CO
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Carbon


Question 27.
In a thermite process is used as reducing agent.
(a) Zn
(b) Al
(c) Mn
(d) Fe

Answer

Answer: (b) Al


Question 28.
Blister copper is
(a) impure copper
(b) obtained in self reduction process during bessermerisation
(c) Both are correct
(d) None is correct

Answer

Answer: (c) Both are correct


Blister copper is

Question 29.
Which of the following slags is produced during extraction of iron?
(a) CaSiO3
(b) FeSiO3
(c) MgSiO3
(d) ZnSiO3

Answer

Answer: (a) CaSiO3


Question 30.
Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by hydrogen?
(a) Ferric oxide
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Cupric oxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Aluminium oxide


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Chemistry MCQ: