MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Real Numbers Class 10 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Real Numbers Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Real Numbers Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
For any positive integer a and b, there exist unique integers q and r such that a = 3q + r, where r must satisfy.
(a) 0 ≤ r < 3
(b) 1 < r < 3
(c) 0 < r < 3
(d) 0 < r ≤ 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 ≤ r < 3


Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
The values of x and y is the given figure are
Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 MCQ
(a) x + 10, y = 14
(b) x = 21, y = 84
(c) x = 21, y = 25
(d) x = 10, y = 40

Answer

Answer: (b) x = 21, y = 84


Real Numbers MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
If HCF (a, b) = 12 and a × b = 1800 then LCM (a, b) is
(a) 3600
(b) 900
(c) 150
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (c) 150


If HCF (a, b) = 12 and a × b = 1800 then LCM (a, b) is

Class 10 Real Numbers MCQ Question 4.
If mn = 32, where m and n are positive integers, then the value of (n)mn is
(a) 9765625
(b) 9775625
(c) 9785625
(d) 9865625

Answer

Answer: (a) 9765625


MCQ On Real Numbers Class 10 Question 5.
If (\(\frac{9}{7}\))3 × (\(\frac{49}{81}\))2x-6 = (\(\frac{7}{9}\))9 then value of x is
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d) 6


Class 10 Maths Ch 1 MCQ Question 6.
The decimal expansion of \(\frac{17}{8}\) will terminate after how many places of decimals?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) will not terminate

Answer

Answer: (c) 3


MCQ Of Real Numbers Class 10 Question 7.
The decimal expansion of n is
(a) terminating
(b) non-terminating and non-recurring
(c) non-terminating and recurring
(d) does not exist.

Answer

Answer: (b) non-terminating and non-recurring


Chapter 1 Maths Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
If HCF of 55 and 99 is expressible in the form 55 m – 99, then the value of m:
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 2


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Question 9.
Given that LCM of (91, 26) = 182 then HCF (91, 26) is
(a) 13
(b) 26
(c) 7
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (a) 13


Ch 1 Maths Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
The decimal expansion of number \(\frac{441}{2^2×5^3×7}\) is
(a) A terminating decimal
(b) Non-terminating but repeating
(c) Non-terminate non repeating
(d) terminating after two places of decimal

Answer

Answer: (a) A terminating decimal


Class 10 Maths Ch 1 MCQ Questions Question 11.
If A = 2n + 13, B = n + 7 where n is a natural number then HCF of A and B
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 1


Class 10 Maths Real Numbers MCQ Question 12.
(-1)n + (-1)8n = 0 when n is
(a) any positive integer
(b) any odd natural number
(c) any even numeral number
(d) any negative integer

Answer

Answer: (b) any odd natural number


Ch 1 Maths Class 10 MCQ Questions Question 13.
If the LCM of 12 and 42 is 10 m + 4 then the value of m is
(a) 50
(b) 8
(c) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(d) l

Answer

Answer: (b) 8


Class 10 Math Chapter 1 MCQ Question 14.
The decimal expansion of the rational number \(\frac{6243}{2^2×5^4}\) will terminate after
(a) 4 places of decimal
(b) 3 places of decimal
(c) 2 places of decimal
(d) 1 place of decimal

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 places of decimal


MCQ Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Question 15.
n² – 1 is divisible by 8, if n is
(a) an integer
(b) a natural number
(c) an odd natural number
(d) an even natural number

Answer

Answer: (c) an odd natural number


Question 16.
If n is a natural number, then exactly one of numbers n, n + 2 and n + 1 must be a multiple of
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (b) 3


Question 17.
The rational number between 72 and 73 is
(a) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)


Question 18.
If a and 6 are two positive numbers and H and L are their HCF and LCM respectively. Then
(a) a × b = H × L
(b) a = b × H
(c) a = \(\frac{b×L}{H}\)
(d) H = \(\frac{L}{a×b}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) a × b = H × L


Question 19.
LCM of 2³ × 3² and 2² × 3³ is
(a) 2³
(b) 3³
(c) 2³ × 3³
(d) 2² × 3²

Answer

Answer: (c) 2³ × 3³


Question 20.
The LCM of 2.5, 0.5 and 0.175 is
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 7.5
(d) 0.875

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.875


The LCM of 2.5, 0.5 and 0.175 is

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Real Numbers CBSE Class 10 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Playing with Numbers Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 15 Playing with Numbers for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Playing with Numbers Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Playing With Numbers Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The generalised form of the number 52 is
(a) 10 × 5 + 2
(b) 100 × 5 + 2
(c) 10 × 2 + 5
(d) 10 × 5.

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 × 5 + 2


MCQ On Playing With Numbers For Class 8 Question 2.
The generalised form of the number 33 is
(a) 10 × 3 + 3
(b) 10 × 3
(c) 3 + 3
(d) 3 × 3 + 3.

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 × 3 + 3


Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 MCQ Question 3.
The number 10 × 7 + 5 in usual form is
(a) 57
(b) 75
(c) 55
(d) 77.

Answer

Answer: (b) 75


Playing With Numbers Class 8 MCQ Questions Question 4.
The number 10 × 2 + 7 in usual form is
(a) 72
(b) 22
(c) 77
(d) 21.

Answer

Answer: (d) 21.


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Playing With Numbers Question 5.
The generalised form of the number 123 is
(а) 1 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 3
(b) 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 1
(c) 3 × 100 + 1 × 10 + 2
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (а) 1 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 3


Class 8 Playing With Numbers MCQ Question 6.
The generalised form of the number 234 is
(а) 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 4
(b) 3 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 2
(c) 4 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 3
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (а) 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 4


Playing With Numbers MCQ Class 8 Question 7.
The number 3 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 5 in usual form is
(a) 453
(b) 435
(c) 354
(d) 345.

Answer

Answer: (d) 345.


MCQ Of Playing With Numbers Class 8 Question 8.
The number 5 × 100 + 7 × 10 + 9 in usual form is
(a) 795
(b) 759
(c) 579
(d) 597.

Answer

Answer: (c) 579


Class 8 Maths Playing With Numbers MCQ Question 9.
The number 100 × a + 10 × 6 + c in usual form is
(a) abc
(b) bca
(c) cab
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) abc


MCQs On Playing With Numbers Class 8 Question 10.
The number 100 × b + 10 × c + a in usual form is
(a) bac
(b) bca
(c) cab
(d) cba.

Answer

Answer: (b) bca


Playing With Numbers Class 8 Extra Questions Question 11.
Find the value of A in the following:
Playing With Numbers Class 8 Extra Questions
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (c) 3
Hint:
Playing With Numbers Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers


Playing With Numbers Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 12.
Find the value of A, B in the following:
MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 16
(a) 5, 6
(b) 5, 5
(c) 6, 5
(d) 6, 6.

Answer

Answer: (a) 5, 6
Hint:
MCQ Playing With Numbers Class 8


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Question 13.
Find the value of A, B in the following:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 5
(a) 3, 1
(b) 1, 1
(c) 3, 3
(d) 1, 3.

Answer

Answer: (a) 3, 1
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 6


MCQ Playing With Numbers Class 8 Question 14.
Find the value of A, B in the following:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 7
(a) 6, 9
(b) 6, 6
(c) 9, 6
(d) 9, 9

Answer

Answer: (a) 6, 9
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 8


Playing With Numbers Class 8 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
Find the values of A, B in the following:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 9
(a) 5, 1
(b) 5, 5
(c) 1, 1
(d) 1, 5.

Answer

Answer: (a) 5, 1
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Q 10


Question 16.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2 ?
(a) 19
(b) 27
(c) 99
(d) 50.

Answer

Answer: (d) 50.
Hint:
In 19, 27, 99, one’s digit is not divisible by 2.


Question 17.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2 ?
(a) 179
(b) 235
(c) 500
(d) 673.

Answer

Answer: (c) 500
Hint:
In 500, one’s digit is divisible by 2.


Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2 ?

Question 18.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 2 ?
(a) 200
(b) 40
(c) 66
(d) 83.

Answer

Answer: (d) 83.
Hint:
In 83, one’s digit is not divisible by 2.


Question 19.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 2 ?
(a) 54
(b) 37
(c) 60
(d) 98.

Answer

Answer: (b) 37
Hint:
In 37, one’s digit is not divisible by 2.


Question 20.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 2 ?
(a) 120
(b) 244
(c) 888
(d) 179.

Answer

Answer: (d) 179.
Hint:
In 179, one’s digit is not divisible by 2.


Question 21.
If the number 1 x 8 is divisible by 3, then x is equal to
(a) 0 or 3 or 6 or 9
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7.

Answer

Answer: (a) 0 or 3 or 6 or 9
Hint:
1 + 0 + 8 = 9
1 + 3 + 8 = 12;
9, 12, 15, 18 each is divisible by 3


Question 22.
If the number 9 y 7 is a multiple of 3, then y =
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 2 or 5 or 8.

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 or 5 or 8.
Hint:
9 + 2 + 7 = 18
9 + 5 + 7 = 21;
9 + 8 + 7 = 24.
each of 18, 21 and 24 is divisible by 3.


Question 23.
If the three-digit number 4 3 x is divisible by 9, what is the value of x ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2
Hint:
4 + 3 + 2 = 9 which is divisible by 9.


Question 24.
If the three-digit number x 2 7 is divisible by 9, then the value of x is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 9.

Answer

Answer: (d) 9
Hint:
9 + 2 + 7 = 18 is divisible by 9.


Question 25.
If the three-digit number 6 y 8 is divisible by 9, then the value of y is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4
Hint:
6 + 4 + 8 = 18 is divisible by 9.


Question 26.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 3 ?
(a) 123
(b) 132
(c) 231
(d) 134.

Answer

Answer: (d) 134
Hint:
1 + 3 + 4 = 8 is not divisible by 3.


Question 27.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 3 ?
(a) 234
(b) 243
(c) 324
(d) 457.

Answer

Answer: (d) 457
Hint:
4 + 5 + 7 = 16 is not divisible by 3.


Question 28.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3 ?
(a) 145
(b) 237
(c) 709
(d) 400.

Answer

Answer: (b) 237
Hint:
2 + 3 + 7 = 12 is divisible by 3.


Question 29.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9 ?
(a) 234
(b) 334
(c) 444
(d) 434.

Answer

Answer: (a) 234
Hint:
2 + 3 + 4 = 9 is divisible by 9.


Question 30.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 9 ?
(a) 135
(b) 351
(c) 513
(d) 247.

Answer

Answer: (d) 247
Hint:
2 + 4 + 7 = 13 is not divisible by 9.


Question 31.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5 ?
(a) 125
(b) 127
(c) 731
(d) 339.

Answer

Answer: (a) 125
Hint:
One’s digit of 125 is 5.


Question 32.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5 ?
(a) 120
(b) 233
(c) 348
(d) 447.

Answer

Answer: (a) 120
Hint:
One’s digit of 120 is 0.


Question 33.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 5 ?
(a) 120
(b) 235
(c) 355
(d) 477.

Answer

Answer: (d) 477
Hint:
In 477, one’s digit is neither 0 nor 5.


Question 34.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 10?
(a) 40
(b) 35
(c) 57
(d) 69.

Answer

Answer: (a) 40
Hint:
In 40, one’s digit is 0.


Question 35.
Which of the following numbers is divisible by 10?
(a) 235
(b) 3400
(c) 278
(d) 1277.

Answer

Answer: (b) 3400
Hint:
In 3400, one’s digit is 0.


Question 36.
Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 10?
(a) 120
(b) 340
(c) 760
(d) 1246.

Answer

Answer: (d) 1246
Hint:
In 1246, one’s digit is not 0.


Question 37.
The usual form of 100 × 7 + 10 × 1 + 8 is:
(a) 108
(b) 708
(c) 718
(d) 170

Answer

Answer: (c) 718
Hint:
100 × 7 + 10 × 1 + 8
= 700 + 10 + 8
= 718


Question 38.
Which of the following numbers are not divisible by 5?
(a) 20
(b) 125
(c) 122
(d) 200

Answer

Answer: (c) 122
Hint:
To be completely divisible by 5, the number should have 0 or 5 at it’s one’s digit place.


Question 39.
Which of the following numbers are divisible by 10?
(a) 99
(b) 45
(c) 110
(d) 75

Answer

Answer: (c) 110
Hint:
If any number has 0 at its one’s digit place, then it is divisible by 10.
Hence, 110/10 = 11


Which of the following numbers are divisible by 10?

Question 40.
Which of the following are divisible by 2?
(a) 98
(b) 99
(c) 101
(d) 121

Answer

Answer: (a) 98
Hint:
If one’s digit of any number is even number, then the number is completely divisible by 2.
Hence, 98/2 = 49


Question 41.
If a number is divisible 9, then it is divisible by:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 11

Answer

Answer: (c) 3
Hint:
If 99 is divisible by 9 then it is also divisible by 3.
99/9 = 11 and 99/3 = 33


Question 42.
If the three digit number 24x is divisible by 9, the value of x is:
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) 3
Hint:
If 24x is divisible by 9, then:
2 + 4 + x = 6 + x is also divisible by 9.
It is possible only when, 6 + x = 9, 18, …
Since x is single digit, therefore, 6 + 3 = 9
x = 3


Question 43.
The number 2146587 is divisible by:
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 11
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 3
Hint:
2146587 = 2 + 1 + 4 + 6 + 5 + 8 + 7 = 33
Since, 33 is divisible by 3, hence 2146587 is divisible by 3.


Question 44.
The general form of abc is:
(a) 100a + 10b + c
(b) 100b + 10c + a
(c) 100c + 10a + b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) 100a + 10b + c


Question 45.
The generalised form of 129 is:
(a) 100 + 90 + 2
(b) 100 + 20 + 9
(c) 100 + 2 + 9
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 100 + 20 + 9


Question 46.
The number 15287 is divisible by:
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Playing with Numbers CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need a Parliament with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need a Parliament with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need a Parliament with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Why Do We Need a Parliament Class 8 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

Why Do We Need a Parliament Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Why Do We Need A Parliament Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Parliament enables Indian citizens to participate in
(a) Decision making
(b) Control the government
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Parliament enables Indian citizens to participate in

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 2.
During British rule which Government of India Act allowed some elected representation
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1909
(c) Government of India Act 1916
(d) Government of India Act 1947

Answer

Answer: (b) Government of India Act 1909


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Question 3.
Representatives to the Parliament are chosen by the
(a) People
(b) Rulers
(c) Government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) People


Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Vice-President of India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vice-President of India


Class 8 Civics Ch 3 MCQ Question 5.
How many seats were won by BJP in Lok Sabha Election 2014?
(a) 285
(b) 14
(c) 114
(d) 141

Answer

Answer: (a) 285


Why Do We Need Parliament Class 8 MCQ Question 6.
The highest law-making body of our country consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is known as
(a) High court
(b) Supreme court
(c) Parliament
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Parliament


Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 7.
The combined strength of all political parties in the Parliament with less than 50% of representatives is
(a) ruling party
(b) opposition
(c) coalition
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) opposition


Ch 3 Civics Class 8 MCQ Question 8.
What is the most important function of Lok Sabha?
(а) How to celebrate Diwali this year?
(b) The Prime Minister selects minister to work
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


In Parliament Seats Are Reserved For Class 8 Question 9.
What does PMO refer to?
(a) Prime Master Office
(b) Post Master Office
(c) Primary Municipal Office
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Prime Master Office


MCQ On Why Do We Need A Parliament Class 8 Question 10.
Who looks after sanitary conditions of the country?
(a) Health Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Health Minister


MCQ For Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Question 11.
The upper house of Parliament, representing the states, is termed as
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Parliament House
(d) hone of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha


Chapter 3 Civics Class 8 MCQ Question 12.
Which is an important way to contro l the executive in Parliament?
(a) Assembly
(b) Zero hour
(c) Question hour
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Question hour


Civics Chapter 3 Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
In Parliament seats are reserved for:
(a) SCs
(b) STs
(c) None of them
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


In Parliament seats are reserved for:

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(a) Lok Sabha (i) The upper house of Parliament
(b) Speaker (ii) Bhartiya Janta Party
(c) Rajya Sabha (iii) has seven MPs
(d) Delhi (iv) the lower house of Parliament
(e) B.J.P. (v) Officer of Lok Sabha
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Lok Sabha (iv) the lower house of Parliament
(b) Speaker (v) Officer of Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha (i) The upper house of Parliament
(d) Delhi (iii) has seven MPs
(e) B.J.P. (ii) Bhartiya Janta Party

State whether true or false:

1. The leader of ruling party in Parliament is the Prime Minister of the country.

Answer

Answer: True


2. The Vice-President of India is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Answer

Answer: True


3. The Universal Adult Franchise is for the sake of justice and equity.

Answer

Answer: True


4. BJP won the State Election of Delhi in 2015.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Discrimination is the ideal function.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Mrs. Sheela Dixit was first female Chief Minister of Delhi who was elected for 3rd time.

Answer

Answer: True


7. The Prime Minister selects minister from his Party’s MPs to work.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….. is the most important symbol of Indian democracy.

Answer

Answer: Parliament


2. On 15th August 1947 India became ………………..

Answer

Answer: independent


3. All the representatives together control and guide the ………………..

Answer

Answer: government


4. An MLA is the member of ……………….. Assembly.

Answer

Answer: Legislative


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Why Do We Need a Parliament with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Why Do We Need a Parliament CBSE Class 8 Civics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Physical Features of India Class 9 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Physical Features of India Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Physical Features Of India Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
The northern most range of the Himalayas is known as
(a) Himadri
(b) lesser Himalaya
(c) Shivalik
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) Himadri


Physical Features Of India MCQ Question 2.
The Kangra and Kullu valley are located in
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Himachal Pradesh


Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Majuli is a riverine island located in the river
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Yamuna
(d) Kaveri

Answer

Answer: (b) Brahmaputra


Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Dudhwa National Park is located in the state of
(a) Assam
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh


Geography Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 5.
The soil containing calcareous deposits is locally known as
(a) Bhangar
(b) Khadar
(c) Bhabar
(d) Kankar

Answer

Answer: (d) Kankar


Class 9 Physical Features Of India MCQ Question 6.
The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Doda Betta
(c) Ooty
(d) Mahendragiri

Answer

Answer: (d) Mahendragiri


The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

Geography Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
Jaisalmer is in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan


Ch 2 Geo Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
Barchans are found in
(a) desert regions
(b) plains
(c) plateaus
(d) hilly regions

Answer

Answer: (a) desert regions


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question 9.
The northern part of the western coast is called the
(a) Konkan
(b) Kannad plain
(c) Malabar coast
(d) Coromandel coast

Answer

Answer: (a) Konkan


Class 9 Geo Ch 2 MCQ Question 10.
Lake Chilika lies in the state of
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Telangana
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (c) Odisha


MCQ Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 With Answers Question 11.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Peninsula


Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 MCQ Question 12.
Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvachal
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Purvachal


Ch 2 Geography Class 9 MCQ Question 13.
The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as;
(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar

Answer

Answer: (c) Kannad


Class 9th Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi

Answer

Answer: (c) Mahendragiri


Geo Ch 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 15.
A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is :
(a) Mound
(b) Pass
(c) Strait
(d) Valley

Answer

Answer: (b) Pass


Question 16.
Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ?
(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills
(b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills
(d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills

Answer

Answer: (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills


Question 17.
The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as .
(a) Kangra Valley
(b) Patkai Bum
(c) Passes
(d) Duns

Answer

Answer: (d) Duns


Question 18.
In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Duns

Answer

Answer: (b) The Himachal


Question 19.
What are Lesser Himalayas known as?
(a) Himadri
(b) Himachal
(c) Shivaliks
(d) Purvanchal

Answer

Answer: (b) Himachal


Question 20.
Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Nandadevi

Answer

Answer: (b) Kanchenjunga


Question 21.
The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Purvanchal

Answer

Answer: (a) The Himadri


Question 22.
Which of the following are young-fold mountains?
(a) The Aravalis
(b) The Nilgiris
(c) The Himalayas
(d) The Sahyadri

Answer

Answer: (c) The Himalayas


Question 23.
Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer

Answer: (c) The Peninsular Plateau


Question 24.
Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the Tethys geosyncline?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer

Answer: (a) The Himalayas


Question 25.
Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) Europe
(d) South America

Answer

Answer: (c) Europe


Question 26.
Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer

Answer: (c) The Peninsular Plateau


Question 27.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates?
(a) Change in position and size of continents.
(b) Formation of ocean basins.
(c) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 28.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of the following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Divergent boundary


Question 29.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Folding
(c) Faulting
(d) Glaciation

Answer

Answer: (d) Glaciation


Question 30.
Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms?
(a) Theory of Motion
(b) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(c) Theory of Evolution
(d) Theory of Relativity

Answer

Answer: (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics


Question 31.
Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India?
(a) Difference in rock formations
(b) Weathering
(c) Erosion and deposition
(d) Land use

Answer

Answer: (a) Difference in rock formations


Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India?

Find out some regional names of the Himalayas.

Answer

Answer:
Some regional names of the Himalayas are:

  • Sagarmatha Himal
  • Annapurna Himal
  • Ganesh Himal
  • Langtang Himal
  • Khumbu Himal
  • Dhaulagiri Himal
  • Purvachal
  • Gauri Shankar Himal

Name the famous hill stations of Udagamandalam.

Answer

Answer:

  • Adam’s Fountain
  • Annamalai Ashram Temple
  • Bison Valley
  • Cairn Hill
  • Coonoor
  • Doddabetta Peak

The middle Himalaya is well known for its hill stations. Name some of them.

Answer

Answer:

  • Dalhousie
  • Manali
  • Shimla
  • Nainital
  • Mussoorie
  • Darjeeling

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Physical Features of India CBSE Class 9 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Chapter 7 Fair Play with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fair Play Class 6 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English Chapter 7 Fair Play to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Chapter 7 Fair Play with Answers

Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 1.
Jumman and Algu were
(a) cousins
(b) good friends
(c) enemies
(d) brothers

Answer

(b) good friends


Fair Play MCQ Questions Class 6 Chapter 7 Question 2.
The villagers held them
(a) responsible for the wrong
(b) and imprisoned them
(c) in high esteem
(d) captives

Answer

(c) in high esteem


Class 6 English Chapter 7 MCQ Question 3.
The attitude of Jumman towards the aunt
(a) became undesirable
(b) was good
(c) hurt him
(d) was loving

Answer

(a) became undesirable


MCQ Of Fair Play Class 6 Chapter 7 Question 4.
The word looked after’ means
(a) watched her
(b) looked at her
(c) took care of
(d) did not bother

Answer

(c) took care of


Class 6 English Fair Play MCQ Chapter 7 Question 5.
The aunt decided
(a) to separate
(b) to appeal to the Panchayat
(c) to cook herself
(d) to leave the village

Answer

(b) to appeal to the Panchayat


Class 6 Fair Play MCQ Chapter 7 Question 6.
Jumman believed that Algu
(a) would never go against him
(b) is his enemy
(c) was his friend
(d) will leave him

Answer

(a) would never go against him


MCQ Questions For Class 6 English Chapter 7 Question 7.
Algu’s nomination as head Panch made Jumman
(a) sad
(b) happy
(c) jealous
(d) nasty

Answer

(b) happy


MCQ Of Fair Play Class 6 Chapter 7 Question 8.
Complete the statement : God lives
(a) in heaven
(b) in the hearts of men
(c) In the heart of the Panch
(d) in clean places

Answer

(c) In the heart of the Panch


MCQ On Fair Play Class 6 Chapter 7 Question 9.
The aunt expected the village panchayat
(a) To create misunderstanding
(b) to get her back her property
(c) to do justice
(d) to punish Jumman

Answer

Answer: (c) to do justice


Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Test Chapter 7 Question 10.
The old aunt had great faith in
(a) Jumman
(b) Algu
(c) Panch
(d) herself

Answer

Answer: (c) Panch


Question 11.
Everybody knew that justice was on the side of
(a) Jumman
(b) Sahu
(c) Jummna’s aunt
(d) Algu

Answer

Answer: (d) Algu


Question 12.
Jumman came to Algu soon after
(a) his bullock was dead
(b) he was nominated as a Panch
(c) the panchayat was over
(d) his aunt brought a case against him

Answer

Answer: (c) the panchayat was over


Jumman came to Algu soon after

Question 13.
Jumman had become Algu’s enemy because
(a) Algu had cheated him
(b) Algu had given a verdict against him
(c) his aunt had gone to Algu’s house
(d) Algu was a bad man

Answer

Answer: (b) Algu had given a verdict against him


Question 14.
Jumman realised what it was to be a Panch when
(a) he became a Panch himself
(b) Algu became a Panch
(c) he got verdict against himself
(d) Algu bullock was dead

Answer

Answer: (a) he became a Panch himself


Question 15.
Jumman and Algu were
(a) cousins
(b) good friends
(c) enemies
(d) brothers

Answer

Answer: (b) good friends


Question 16.
The attitude of Jumman towards the aunt
(a) became undesirable
(b) was good
(c) hurt her
(d) was loving

Answer

Answer: (a) became undesirable


Question 17.
The aunt decided
(a) to separate
(b) to appeal to the panchayat
(c) to cook herself
(d) to leave the village

Answer

Answer: (b) to appeal to the panchayat


Question 18.
Jumman believecf that Algu
(a) would never go against him
(b) is his enemy
(c) was his friend
(d) will leave him

Answer

Answer: (a) would never go against him


Question 19.
Word Search
Allowance, Announced, Conscience, consider, Dignity, Embraced, Enmity, Grudged, Nominate, Realized, Responsibility, Seldom, Several, Situation, Swallowed, Sympathized, Transferred, Unexpected.
Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7 1

Answer

Answer:
Fair Play Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7 2


(1)

Jumman had an old aunt who had some property. This she transferred to him on the understanding that she would stay with him and he would look after her. The arrangement worked well for a couple of years. Then the situation changed.

Question 1.
The old lady was
(a) Jumman’s mother
(b) Jummans sister
(c) Jumman’s aunt
(d) none of the above

Answer

(c) Jumman’s aunt


Question 2.
When Jumman’s aunt transferred her property
(a) there was an agreement
(b) there was no agreement
(c) Jumman turned her out
(d) Jumman didn’t bother

Answer

(a) there was an agreement


Question 3.
According to the ‘understanding’ the old lady was
(a) to get some money
(b) to stay with Jumman
(c) to forget about her property
(d) still the owner of property

Answer

(b) to stay with Jumman


Question 4.
The change in situation was that the old lady
(a) was turned out of the house
(b) was beaten
(c) was regularly insulted
(d) wanted her property back

Answer

(c) was regularly insulted


Question 5.
The word ‘understanding’ is
(a) gerund
(b) verb
(c) adjective
(d) noun

Answer

(d) noun


(2)

My wife knows best how to run the house. Be patlent, said Jumman shamelessly. This made his aunt very angry and she decided to take her case to the village panchayal.

Question 1.
Jumman’s remark shows that so far as her wife s behaviour was concerned, he was
(a) satisfied
(b) dissatisfied
(c) angry
(d) upset

Answer

(a) satisfied


Question 2.
The word shamelessly Indicates that Juniman was
(a) foolish
(b) sympathetic
(c) against his wife
(d) unrepentant

Answer

(d) unrepentant


Question 3.
The aunt expected
(a) just what Juniman did
(b) a different response
(c) worse
(d) Jumman’s wife to change

Answer

(b) a different response


Question 4.
The aunt expected the village panchayat
(a) to do her a favour
(b) to get her back her property
(c) to do justice
(d) to punish Jumman

Answer

(c) to do justice


Question 5.
The word run In the passage means
(a) walk fast
(c) manage
(b) consume
(d) finish

Answer

(c) manage


(3)

I know that,’ replied the aunt, but I also know that you will not kill your conscience for the sake of friendship. God lives in the heart of the Panch, and his voice is the voice of God.” And the old lady explained her case,
Question 1.
The aunt was speaking to
(a) Jumman
(b) Algu
(c) Panch
(d) Jumman’s wife

Answer

(b) Aigu


Question 2.
She knew that
(a) Algu and Jumman were friends Jumman
(b) Algu would never speak against
(c) Algu was Jumman’s enemy
(d) Jumman could Influence Aigu

Answer

(a) Aigu and Jumman were friends Jumman


Question 3.
The old aunt had great faith in
(a) Jurnman
(b) Aigu
(c) Panch
(d) herself

Answer

(c) Panch


Question 4.
The old lady had a case against
(a) Algu
(b) Jumman’s wife
(c) the villagers
(d) Jumman

Answer

(d) Jumman


Question 5.
The word conscience’ means
(a) conscious
(b) awareness
(c) an Inner sense
(d) science

Answer

(c) an Inner sense


(4)

Algu decided to refer the case to the parzchayal For a second time in a few months. preparations for holding the panchayat were made. and both the parties started meeting people seeking their support.

Question 1.
Aigu had a case against
(a) Jumman
(b) Jumman’s aunt
(c) Sahu
(d) Jurnman’s wife

Answer

(c) Sahu


Question 2.
The previous panchayat was held to decide the case between
(a) Jumman and his aunt
(b) Jumman and Sahu
(c) Aigu and Jumman
(d) Aigu and the old lady

Answer

(a) Jumman and his aunt


Question 3.
In the phrase both the parties. one party was Algu and his case was that
(a) Sahu had killed his bullock
(b) Sahu had stolen his money
(c) Sahu had bought his bullock but not paid for it
(d) Sahu had stolen his bullock which is now dead

Answer

(c) Sahu had bought his bullock but not paid for it


Question 4.
Both parties began to meet villagers to seek their support. However It seems that Algu must not have met
(a) Jumman’s aunt
(b) common people
(c) the panch
(d) Jumman

Answer

(d) Jumman


Question 5.
The verb form of ‘preparation’ is
(a) prepared
(b) prepare
(c) pare
(d) propose

Answer

(b) prepare


(5)

Sahu saw his chance and proposed the name of Jumman. Algu’s heart sank and he turned pale. But what could he do?

Question 1.
Sahu saw his chance because he was sure that Jumman would give the decision
(a) against him
(b) against Algu
(c) against his aunt
(d) against the bullock

Answer

(b) against Aigu


Question 2.
Algus heart sank because Jumman
(a) was his friend
(b) was Sahus friend
(c) wanted revenge against him
(d) was unjust

Answer

(c) wanted revenge against him


Question 3.
Aigu could not do anything because he had
(a) asked Sahu to nominate the Panch
(b) asked Jumman to be the Panch
(c) faith In Jumman’s justice
(d) great friendship with Jumman

Answer

(a) asked Sahu to nominate the Panch


Question 4.
Everybody knew that Justice was on the side of
(a) Jumman
(b) Sahu
(c) Jummans aunt
(d) Aigu

Answer

(d) Aigu


Question 5.
The noun form of ‘sank is
(a) sin
(b) sinking
(c) sinker
(d) sunk

Answer

(b) sinking


(6)

Soon after. Jumman came to Algu, embraced him and said, ‘Since the last panchayat. I had become your enemy. Today I realised what It meant to be a panch. A panch has no friend for energy. He know only justice. Let no one deviate from the path of Justice and truth for friendship or enmity.”

Question 1.
Jumman came to Algu soon after
(a) his bullock was dead
(b) he was nominated a Panch
(c) the panchayat was over
(d) his aunt brought a case against him

Answer

(c) the panchayat was over


Question 2.
Jumman had become Algu’s enemy because
(a) Aigu had cheated him
(b) Aigu had given a verdict against him
(c) his aunt had gone to Algu’s house
(d) Aigu was a bad man

Answer

(b) Aigu had given a verdict against him


Question 3.
Jumman realised what it was to be a Panch when
(a) he became a Panch himself
(b) Aigu became a Panch
(c) he got verdict against himself
(d) Algu’s bullock was dead

Answer

(a) he became a Panch himself


Jumman realised what it was to be a Panch when

Question 4.
The moral of the passage Is that the most Important thing In life is
(a) friendship
(b) enmity
(c) love
(d) justice

Answer

(d) justice


Question 5.
The word deviate’ Is the opposite of
(a) turn
(b) move
(c) continue
(d) find

Answer

(c) continue


We are providing NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Chapter 7 Fair Play with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 6 English Fair Play MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 5 Organising with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 5 Organising with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 5 Organising with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Organising Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Organising Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Organising Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Organising process includes one of the following:
(a) Grouping of activities
(b) Prescribing disciplinary action
(c) Determining objectives
(d) Prescribing work schedule

Answer

Answer: (a) Grouping of activities


Organizing Includes MCQ Question 2.
One of the following is not an importance of organising:
(a) Role clarity
(b) Performance appraisal
(c) Adaptation to change
(d) Growth and expansion

Answer

Answer: (b) Performance appraisal


Organising MCQ Question 3.
Organisation structure establishes relationships between
(a) organisation and environment.
(b) people, work and resources.
(c) organisation and society.
(d) suppliers and customers.

Answer

Answer: (b) people, work and resources.


Organising MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
One of the following is an advantage of functional structure:
(a) Responsibility for end results
(b) Flexibility
(c) Personalised attention
(d) Easier employee learning

Answer

Answer: (d) Easier employee learning


One of the following is an advantage of functional structure:

MCQ Of Organising Class 12 Question 5.
Divisional structure leads to conflict in
(a) resource allocation.
(b) marketing management.
(c) motivation.
(d) planning process.

Answer

Answer: (a) resource allocation.


Question 6.
In which respect does formal organisation differ from informal organisation?
(a) Production process
(b) Structuring
(c) Financial procedure
(d) Purchasing

Answer

Answer: (b) Structuring


Question 7.
Which one of the following does not follow scalar chain?
(a) Informal organisation
(b) Functional structure
(c) Formal organisation
(d) Divisional structure

Answer

Answer: (a) Informal organisation


Question 8.
Degree of decentralisation indicates
(a) degree of authority delegation.
(b) degree of responsibility.
(c) degree of power delegation.
(d) degree of accountability.

Answer

Answer: (a) degree of authority delegation.


Question 9.
___ involves giving authority and responsibility to subordinates.
(a) Division of work
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Delegation
(d) Centralisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Delegation


Question 10.
___ is the process of grouting similar activities together and creating departments.
(a) Division of work
(b) Departmentalisation
(c) Delegation
(d) Centralisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Departmentalisation


Question 11.
___ is the organisational structure in which activities are grouped on the basis of products.
(a) Divisional structure
(b) Functional structure
(c) Formal
(d) Informal

Answer

Answer: (a) Divisional structure


Question 12.
__ is the organisational structure in which no department is responsible for end results.
(a) Divisional structure
(b) Functional structure
(c) Formal
(d) Informal

Answer

Answer: (b) Functional structure


Question 13.
___ is the duty for job performance.
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) Both(a) and(c)

Answer

Answer: (b) Responsibility


Question 14.
___ is the right to command.
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (a) Authority


Question 15.
___ cannot be delegated.
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Accountability


Question 16.
When decision-making authority is retained organisation is said to be by higher management levels, an
(a) Decentralised
(b) Centralised
(c) Fragmented
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Centralised


Question 17.
Responsibility is derived from
(a) Authority
(b)Formal position
(c) Accountability
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Authority


Question 18.
Which of the following cannot be delegated?
(a) Responsibility and accountability
(b) Authority and responsibility
(c) Accountability and responsibility
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Responsibility and accountability


Question 19.
The accountability flows
(a) In all directions
(b) Downwards
(c) Upwards
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Upwards
Explanation:
a subordinate is accountable to his superior


Question 20.
Authority granted to an employee should be
(a) More than the responsibility entrusted to him
(b) Less than the responsibility entrusted to him
(c) Equal to the responsibility entrusted to him
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Equal to the responsibility entrusted to him


Authority granted to an employee should be

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Delegation is the step of organising process through which departments and sections in an organisation are created.

Answer

Answer: False; departmentalisation is the step.


2. Divisional structure is the aspect of organising that establishes relationships between people, work and resources.

Answer

Answer: False; organisation structure is the aspect of organising.


3. Formal organisational structure is consciously and deliberately designed structure of well-defined jobs.

Answer

Answer: True; formal organisational structure is consciously and deliberately designed structure of well-defined jobs, each bearing a definite authority, responsibility and accountability.


4. Responsibility cannot be delegated at all.

Answer

Answer: False; accountability cannot be delegated at all.


5. Responsibility is the duty for job performance.

Answer

Answer: True; it originates from delegated authority.


6. Accountability originates from delegated authority.

Answer

Answer: False; responsibility originates from delegated authority.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 5 Organising with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Organising CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Ratio and Proportion Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Ratio and Proportion Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 1.
The cost of a pen is ₹ 10. The cost of a penci 1 is ₹ 2. How many times of the cost of a pencil is the cost of a pen?
(a) 5 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 10 times
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 = 5 × 2


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQ Question 2.
The monthly salary of Hari Kishan is ₹ 80000. The monthly salary of Manish is ₹ 40000. How many times of the salary of Manish is the salary of Hari Kishan?
(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 3 times
(d) 8 times.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
80000 = 2 × 40000


Ratio And Proportion MCQ Class 6 Question 3.
There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) 2:5
(d) 3:5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 20 }{ 30 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) = 2 : 3


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Question 4.
There are 25 boys and 25 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of boys to the total number of students is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac{25}{25+25}\) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2


Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 MCQ Question 5.
The height of Apala is 150 cm. The height of Pari is 120 cm. The ratio of the height of Apala to the height of Pari is
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 5:2
(d) 4:1.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 150 }{ 120 }\) = \(\frac { 15 }{ 12 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 4 }\) = 5 : 4


MCQ Of Ratio And Proportion Class 6 Question 6.
The cost of a car is ₹ 3,00,000. The cost of a motorbike is ₹ 50,000. The ratio of the cost of motorbike to the cost of car is
(a) 1:6
(b) 1:5
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:3.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 50,000 }{ 3,00,000 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\) = 1 : 6


Class 6 Ratio And Proportion MCQ Question 7.
The speed of Shubham is 6 km per hour. The speed of Yash is 2 km per hour. The ratio of the speed of Shubham to the speed of Yash is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 1 }\) = 3 : 1


MCQ On Ratio And Proportion For Class 7 Question 8.
The length and breadth of a rectangular park are 50 m and 40 m respectively. Find the ratio of the length to the breadth of the park.
(a) 4:5
(b) 4:1
(c) 5:1
(d) 5:4.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 50 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 4 }\) = 5 : 4


Class 6 Maths Ratio And Proportion MCQ Question 9.
The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is
(a) 2:5
(b) 3:5
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
1 m = 100 cm
\(\frac { 40 }{ 100 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is

MCQ Ratio And Proportion Class 6 Question 10.
In a family, there are 8 males and 4 females. The ratio of the number of females to the number of males is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:8
(d) 2:1.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 4 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2


MCQ Questions On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 11.
Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 2:3?
(a) 4:8
(b) 4:9
(c) 6:9
(d) 6:12.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
2 : 3 = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) = \(\frac{2 \times 3}{3 \times 3}\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 9 }\) = 6 : 9


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQ Questions Question 12.
Which of the following ratios is not equiva-lent to 10:5?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 20:10
(d) 30:15.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 : 5 = \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac{10 \div 5}{5 \div 5}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1
20 ÷ 10 = \(\frac { 20 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac{20 \div 10}{10 \div 10}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1
30 ÷ 15 = \(\frac { 30 }{ 15 }\) = \(\frac{30 \div 15}{15 \div 15}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1


MCQs On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 13.
Find the ratio of number of circles and number of squares inside the following rectangle:MCQs On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6
(a) 3:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
12 : 8 = \(\frac { 12 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac{12 \div 4}{8 \div 4}\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) = 3 : 2


Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Extra Questions Question 14.
There are 20 teachers in a school of 500 students. The ratio of the number of teachers to the number of students is
(a) 1:20
(d) 1:50
(c) 1:25
(d) 25:1.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
20 : 500 = \(\frac { 20 }{ 500 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 }\) = 1 : 25


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQs Question 15.
The ratio of 25 minutes to 1 hour is
(a) 7:5
(b) 5:12
(c) 12:5
(d) 5:7.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
1 hour = 60 minutes
25 : 60 = \(\frac { 25 }{ 60 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 12 }\) = 5 : 12


Ratio And Proportion MCQ Questions Question 16.
Out of 30 students in a class, 20 like cricket and 10 like Hockey. The ratio of the number of students liking Hockey to the total number of students is
(a) 3:1
(b) 1:3
(c) 2:3
(d) 1:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
10 : 30 = \(\frac { 10 }{ 30 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3


Question 17.
The cost of 1 dozen bananas is ₹ 30. The cost of 6 oranges is ₹ 18. The ratio of the cost of a i banana to the cost of an orange is
(a) 3:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 6:5
(d) 5:6.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
30 : 2 × 18 = \(\frac{30}{2 \times 18}=\frac{30}{36}=\frac{5}{6}\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 6 }\) = 5 : 6


Question 18.
The present age of Hari Kishan is 60 years. The present age of Manish is 30 years. The ratio of the age of Manish to the age of Hari Kishan 10 years ago was
(a) 2:5
(b) 5:2
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
30 – 10 : 60 – 10 = 20 : 50
= \(\frac { 20 }{ 50 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


Question 19.
100 students appeared in annual examination. 60 students passed. The ratio of the number of students who failed to the total number of students is
(a) 5:2
(b) 2:5
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
100 – 60 = 40
40 : 100 = \(\frac { 40 }{ 100 }\) = \(\frac{40 \div 20}{100 \div 20}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


Question 20.
₹ 100 are divided between Sangeeta and Manish in the ratio 4:1. Find the amount Sangeeta gets.
(a) ₹ 80
(b) ₹ 20
(c) ₹ 60
(b) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac{4}{4+1}\) × 100 = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) × 100 = 4 × 20 = 80


Question 21.
Which of the following are in proportion?
(a) 2,3,20,30
(b) 3,4,15,18
(c) 1,3,11,22
(d) 2,5,40,80.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
2 : 3 = 20 : 30


Question 22.
Which of the following is true?
(a) 15:40 :: 10:30
(b) 16:48 :: 25:75
(c) 40:60 :: 30:40
(d) 20:100 :: 30:120.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
16 : 48 = \(\frac { 16 }{ 48 }\) = \(\frac{16 \div 16}{48 \div 16}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3
25 : 75 = \(\frac { 25 }{ 75 }\) = \(\frac{25 \div 25}{75 \div 25}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3


Question 23.
Which of the following is false?
(a) 25 g : 30 g :: 40 kg : 48 kg
(b) 81 : 91 :: 24h : 27h
(c) 32 m : 40 m :: 6 minutes : 12 minutes
(d) 25 km : 60 km :: ₹ 10 : ₹ 24.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
32 m : 40 m = \(\frac { 32 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac{32 \div 8}{40 \div 8}\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) = 4 : 5
6 minutes : 12 minutes = \(\frac { 6 }{ 12 }\) = \(\frac{6 \div 6}{12 \div 6}\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2
4 : 5 ≠ 1 : 2


Question 24.
Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) 4 : 7 = 5 : 9
(b) ₹ 5 : ₹ 25 = 12g : 60g
(c) 30 : 80 = 6 : 16
(d) 12 : 36 = 14 : 42.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
4 : 7 = \(\frac { 4 }{ 7 }\)
5 : 9 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
\(\frac { 4 }{ 7 }\) ≠ \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)


Question 25.
A car requires 5 litres of petrol to cover 80 km. How many litres of petrol are required to cover 32 km?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 5 }{ 80 }\) × 32 = 2


Question 26.
The cost of 10 notebooks is ₹ 100. The cost of 1 notebook is
(a) ₹ 10
(b) ₹ 100
(c) ₹ 20
(d) ₹ 5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 100 }{ 10 }\) = 10


Question 27.
The cost of 1 dozen pens is ₹ 24. Find the cost of 30 pens.
(a) ₹ 40
(b) ₹ 45
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 60.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
1 dozen = 12
\(\frac { 24 }{ 12 }\) × 30 = 60


Question 28.
The cost of 3 envelopes is ₹ 15. The cost of 10 envelopes is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 30
(c) ₹ 45
(d) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 15 }{ 3 }\) × 10 = 50


Question 29.
The cost of 5 kg of tomatoes is ₹ 100. The cost of 2 kg of tomatoes is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 40
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 100 }{ 5 }\) × 2 = 40


Question 30.
The weight of 50 books is 10 kg. The weight of 25 books is
(a) 5 kg
(b) 8 kg
(c) 6kg
(d) 4kg.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 10 }{ 50 }\) × 25 = 5


Question 31.
The cost of 20 m of cloth is ₹ 400. The cost of 15 m of cloth is
(a) ₹ 100
(b) ₹ 200
(c) ₹ 300
(d) ₹ 360.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
\(\frac { 400 }{ 20 }\) × 15 = 300


Question 32.
The salary of a month of an employee is ₹ 4000. The annual salary of the employee is
(a) ₹ 48000
(b) ₹ 24000
(c) ₹ 12000
(d) ₹ 8000.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
1 year = 12 months
4000 × 12 = 48000


Question 33.
An aeroplane covers a distance of 5000 km in 5 hours. How much distance will it cover in 2 hours?
(a) 1000 km
(b) 2000km
(c) 3000 km
(b) 4000 km.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 5000 }{ 5 }\) × 2 = 2000


Question 34.
The fare for 5 tickets from Kosi Kalan to Mathura is ₹ 150. The fare for 3 tickets is
(a) ₹ 90
(b) ₹ 60
(c) ₹ 75
(d) ₹ 45.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 150 }{ 5 }\) × 3 = 90


Question 35.
150 kg of oil can be filled in 10 containers. To fill 750 kg of oil, how many containers will be required?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 10 }{ 150 }\) × 750 = 50


150 kg of oil can be filled in 10 containers. To fill 750 kg of oil, how many containers will be required?

Question 36.
The cost of 8 almirahs is ₹ 8000. The cost of 1 almirah is
(a) ₹ 1000
(b) ₹ 2000
(c) ₹ 4000
(d) ₹ 6000.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 8000 }{ 8 }\) = 1000


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Ratio and Proportion CBSE Class 6 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Separation of Substances Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Separation of Substances Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Butter is separated from milk by
(a) sedimentation
(b) filtration
(c) churning
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (c) churning
Explanation:
Butter is separated by churning.


Butter is separated from milk by

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
Filtration is a method to separate the components of a
(a) solution
(b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) pure substance

Answer

Answer: (b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
Explanation:
Components of solution cannot be separated by this method.


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
Threshing is done by
(a) beating
(b) bullocks
(c) machines
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation:
All the three methods can be used for threshing.


MCQ On Separation Of Substances Class 6 Question 4.
Which method is used to separate pebbles and stones from sand?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Sieving
(d) Any of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Sieving
Explanation:
Handpicking will require more time while winnowing is not fit at all.


Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 5.
The components of a solution (say sugar in water) can be separated by
(a) filtration
(b) evaporation
(c) sedimentation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) evaporation
Explanation:
By evaporation, the volatile component is evaporated which is then condensed.


Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Sand from water is separated by
(a) sieving
(b) evaporation
(c) filtration
(d) sedimentation and decantation

Answer

Answer: (d) sedimentation and decantation
Explanation:
It can be done by evaporation and filtration also but sedimentation and decantation are easier ways.


Separation Of Substances Class 6 Worksheets With Answers MCQ Question 7.
The process of conversion of water vapours into liquid is called
(a) condensation
(b) decantation
(c) sedimentation
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (a) condensation
Explanation:
Water vapours changing into liquid is called condensation.


Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 8.
The process of conversion of water into its vapours is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) guttation
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (a) evaporation
Explanation:
The conversion of water into vapours is called evaporation.


Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
A mixture of ammonium chloride and sand is separated by
(a) evaporation
(b) decantation
(c) sublimation
(d) filtration

Answer

Answer: (c) sublimation
Explanation:
Ammonium chloride is separated by sublimation process.


Class 6 Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 10.
The property which forms the basis of sieving
(a) difference in weight
(b) difference in colour
(c) difference in shape
(d) difference in size

Answer

Answer: (d) difference in size
Explanation:
Sieving method is used for separating solid constituents of a mixture which differ in their size.


The property which forms the basis of sieving

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A Column B
(a) Handpicking (i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(b) Threshing (ii) Separating bran from flour
(c) Winnowing (iii) Separating larger size impurities
(d) Sieving (iv) Separating butter from milk
(e) Sedimentation (v) Conversion of water into Us vapours
(f) Evaporation (vi) Separating grains from its stalks
(g) Condensation (vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(h) Churning (viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Handpicking (iii) Separating larger size impurities
(b) Threshing (iv) Separating grains from its stalks
(c) Winnowing (viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air
(d) Sieving (ii) Separating bran from flour
(e) Sedimentation (vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(f) Evaporation (v) Conversion of water into its vapours
(g) Condensation (i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(h) Churning  (iv) Separating butter from milk

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Peanuts are separated from a mixture of wheat and peanut by …………… .

Answer

Answer: handpicking


2. ………………. is used to separate husk from wheat.

Answer

Answer: Winnowing


3. Fine sand can be separated from larger particles by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: sieving


4. Glass is a ………….. .

Answer

Answer: mixture


5. Compounds have ……………….. melting points.

Answer

Answer: fixed


6. Milk has a ……………………….. boiling point.

Answer

Answer: variable


7. Boiling point of pure water is …………………. than that of impure water.

Answer

Answer: less


8. Mixture may be solid, liquid or …………… .

Answer

Answer: gas


9. Butter is a component of …………….. .

Answer

Answer: butter milk


10. Sugarcane juice is a mixture of …………………………, water and many other substances.

Answer

Answer: sugar


11. Separation of components is done to obtain a …………………….. substance.

Answer

Answer: pure


12. Components retain their properties in a ……………… .

Answer

Answer: mixture


State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Butter is separated from butter milk by churning.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Separation of components of a mixture is a useful process.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Ink loses its properties when mixed in water.

Answer

Answer: False


4. ‘Sharbat’ is a mixture of sugar and water.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Rocks are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Milk is a mixture.

Answer

Answer: True


7. Common salt is ai pure substance.

Answer

Answer: True


8. Mixture has properties different from its components.

Answer

Answer: False


9. Tap water and pond water are alike.

Answer

Answer: False


10. Elements are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: True


11. A pure substance has a fixed melting and boiling points.

Answer

Answer: True


12. Condensation method is used for separating substances which on heating change directly into vapour.

Answer

Answer: False


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Separation of Substances CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Light Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Online Education for Light Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Light Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
A smooth shining surface, which rebounds the light back in same or in different direction, is called
(a) a mirror
(b) a lens
(c) reflection of light
(d) point of incidence

Answer

Answer: (a) a mirror


Light MCQ Class 8 Question 2.
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called
(a) reflecting ray
(b) incident ray
(c) refracted ray
(d) normal ray

Answer

Answer: (b) incident ray


Class 8 Science Chapter 16 MCQ Question 3.
Band of seven colours is called
(a) VIBGYOR
(b) spectrum
(c) dispersion
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (b) spectrum


MCQ On Light Class 8 Question 4.
Front balged part of the eyeball is called
(a) cornea
(b) choroid
(c) pupil
(d) retina

Answer

Answer: (a) cornea


Class 8 Light MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding rods and cones in the human eye?
(a) Cones are sensitive to dim light
(b) Cones are sensitive to bright light
(c) Rods are sensitive to bright light
(d) Rods can sense colour

Answer

Answer: (b) Cones are sensitive to bright light


MCQ Of Light Class 8 Question 6.
In case of reflection of light, the angle of incidence (i) and the angle of reflection (r) are related as
(a) i = r
(b) i < r
(c) i > r
(d) no definite relation

Answer

Answer: (a) i = r


Class 8 Science Light MCQ Question 7.
Name the type of mirror used as a backview mirror.
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Any of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Convex mirror


Class 8 Science Ch 16 MCQ Question 8.
Visually impaired people can read and write using
(a) electronic writer
(b) digital pens
(c) braille system
(d) hearing aids

Answer

Answer: (c) braille system


Refraction And Dispersion Of Light Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
The image formed by a camera and a simple microscope are respectively
(a) real and real
(b) real and virtual
(c) virtual and virtual
(d) virtual and real

Answer

Answer: (b) real and virtual


The image formed by a camera and a simple microscope are respectively

Light Chapter Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
What is the angle of incidence of a ray if the reflected ray is at an angle of 90° to the incident ray?
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer

Answer: (b) 45°


MCQ On Light Class 8 Pdf Question 11.
The splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours is called
(a) refraction
(b) dispersion
(c) deviation
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (b) dispersion


MCQs On Light Class 8 Question 12.
The defect due to which a person is not able to see the distant objects clearly:
(a) Myopia
(b) Hypermetropia
(c) Cornea
(d) Cataract

Answer

Answer: (a) Myopia


Class 8 Science Chapter Light MCQ Question 13.
The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by
(a) eye lens
(b) cornea
(c) iris
(d) ciliary muscle

Answer

Answer: (c) iris


MCQs Of Light Class 8 Question 14.
Myopia can be corrected by using a
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) opaque lens
(d) micro lens

Answer

Answer: (a) concave lens


Ch 16 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 15.
Light enters the eye through
(a) eye lens
(b) pupil
(c) cornea
(d) retina

Answer

Answer: (c) cornea


Reflection Of Light Class 8 MCQ Question 16.
If the angle of incidence of light falling on a plane mirror is 30°, what will be the angle of reflection?
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
(c) 30°
(d) 0°

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 degree


Question 17.
When we stand in front of our dressing table, our left hand seems to be right and right seems to be left. This is called
(a) Left-right confusion
(b) Lateral inversion
(c) Up -side down phenomenon
(d) mirage

Answer

Answer: (b) Lateral inversion


Question 18.
Light passing through a prism splits into seven colours. This is called
(a) Dispersion
(b) Dissolution
(c) Division
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Dispersion


Question 19.
Rainbow is a natural phenomenon showing
(a) Reflection
(b) Deflection
(c) Dispersion
(d) Diversion

Answer

Answer: (a) Reflection


Question 20.
In the retina of the eye, the area having no sensory cells is called
(a) iris
(b) Blind spot
(c) cornea
(d) Dark spot

Answer

Answer: (b) Blind spot


Question 21.
If light falls perpendicularly on a plane mirror, what will be the angle in which it will be reflected?
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) 360°

Answer

Answer: (c) 180 degrees


Question 22.
Which of the following is not a luminous object?
(a) sun
(b) candle
(c) moon
(d) Tube light

Answer

Answer: (c) moon


Question 23.
To make a kaleidoscope we require
(a) Three plane mirrors
(b) Four plane mirrors
(c) Three glass sheets
(d) Four glass sheets

Answer

Answer: (a) Three plane mirrors


Question 24.
In our eye _______ cells can sense colour
(a) Rod
(b) Cone
(c) Both rod and cone
(d) Neither rod nor cone

Answer

Answer: (b) Cone


Question 25.
An owl can see clearly at night but not day time because it has
(a) More rods and few cones
(b) Less rod and more cones
(c) More rods and more cone
(d) Less rods and less cones

Answer

Answer: (a) More rods and few cones


An owl can see clearly at night but not day time because it has

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column ‘B’:

Column A Column B
(i) Cornea (a) Transparent front part of eye
(ii) Pupil (b) Layer on which impression of images is formed
(iii) Iris (c) Point on retina where there are no nerve endings
(iv) Retina (d) Sensitive for bright light
(v) Blind spot (e) Is a small opening in the cornea
(vi) Rods (f) Sensitive for dim light
(vii) Cones (g) Controls the size of the pupil
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Cornea (a) Transparent front part of eye
(ii) Pupil (e) Is a small opening in the cornea
(iii) Iris (g) Controls the size of the pupil
(iv) Retina (b) Layer on which impression of images is formed
(v) Blind spot (c) Point on retina where there are no nerve endings
(vi) Rods (f) Sensitive for dim light
(vii) Cones (d) Sensitive for bright light

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:

1. Impression of an image persists for …………. of the second on retina.

Answer

Answer: 1/6 th


2. Angle of reflection is always …………. to the angle of incidence.

Answer

Answer: equal


3. …………. is a small opening in the corner.

Answer

Answer: Pupil


4. Cones are sensitive to …………. light.

Answer

Answer: bright


5. Muscles attached to the eye lens …………. and the lens becomes …………. when distant objects are to be seen.

Answer

Answer: relax, thinner


6. To keep our eyes fit our diet should include vitamin …………. rich eatables.

Answer

Answer: A


7. Impression of an image in eye is formed on ………….

Answer

Answer: retina


8. Braille system has …………. dot patterns.

Answer

Answer: 63


State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Both incident ray and reflected ray lie in the same plane.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Diffused reflection is due to the failure of the laws of reflection.

Answer

Answer: False


3. The image formed by plane mirror is laterally inverted.

Answer

Answer: True


4. The iris is the coloured part of the eye.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Rods are sensitive to bright light.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Changing of the thickness of the eye lens is called accommodation.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Light CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following can be made into crystal?
(a) A bacterium
(b) An Amoeba
(c) A virus
(d) A sperm

Answer

Answer: (c) A virus


The Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
A cell will swell up if
(a) the concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium.
(b) the concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.
(c) the concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium.
(d) concentration of water molecules does not matter.

Answer

Answer: (b) the concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration in the cell.


Class 9 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 3.
Chromosomes are made up of
(a) DNA
(b) Protein
(c) DNA and protein
(d) RNA

Answer

Answer: (c) DNA and protein


The Fundamental Unit Of Life MCQ Question 4.
Which of these options are not a function of ribosomes?
(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules.
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones.
(iv) It helps in manufacture of starch molecules.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (i)

Answer

Answer: (c) (iii) and (iv)


The Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum?
(a) It behaves as a transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm.
(b) It transports materials between various regions in the cytoplasm.
(c) It can be the site of energy generation.
(d) It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell.

Answer

Answer: (c) It can be the site of energy generation.


Ch 5 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 6.
Following are a few definitions of osmosis:
Read carefully and select the correct definition.
(a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
(b) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration.
(c) Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration of solution through a permeable membrane.
(d) Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration of solution through a semi permeable membrane.

Answer

Answer: (a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.


Class 9 Science Ch 5 MCQ Question 7.
Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as
(a) breakdown (lysis) of plasma membrane in hypotonie medium
(b) shrinkageof cytoplasm in hypertonic medium
(c) shrinkage of nucleoplasm
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (b) shrinkageof cytoplasm in hypertonic medium


Class 9 Fundamental Unit Of Life MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

Answer

Answer: (b) Vacuole


Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?

Chapter 5 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
Find out the false sentence.
(a) Nucleus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.
(b) Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA, hence they are able to make their own structural proteins.
(c) Mitochondria is said to be the power house of the cell as ATP is generated in them.
(d) Cytoplasm is called as protoplasm.

Answer

Answer: (a) Nucleus is involved with the formation of lysosomes.


Class 9 Chapter 5 Science MCQ Question 10.
Find out the correct sentence.
(a) Enzymes packed in lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).
(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein respectively.
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum is rélated to the destruction of plasma membrane.
(d) Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus.

Answer

Answer: (a) Enzymes packed in lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).


Class 9 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifring many poisons and drugs in a cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Lysosomes
(c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Vacuoles

Answer

Answer: (c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum


The Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 MCQ Questions Pdf Question 12.
The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by
(a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) plasma membrane
(d) mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum


Class 9 Ch 5 Science MCQ Question 13.
The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes is also known as
(a) nucleus
(b) nucleolus
(c) nucleic acid
(d) nucleoid

Answer

Answer: (d) nucleoid


MCQ Of Fundamental Unit Of Life Question 14.
The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) ribosomes
(c) plastids
(d) golgi apparatus

Answer

Answer: (d) golgi apparatus


Class 9 The Fundamental Unit Of Life MCQ Question 15.
Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?
(a) Storage
(b) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(c) Waste excretion
(d) Locomotion

Answer

Answer: (d) Locomotion


Question 16.
Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed
(a) exocytosis
(b) endocytosis
(c) plasmolysis
(d) exocytosis and endocytosis both

Answer

Answer: (b) endocytosis


Question 17.
Cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Mango tree
(d) Cactus

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacteria


Question 18.
Silver nitrate solution is used to study
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (b) golgi apparatus


Question 19.
Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) mitochondria
(d) lysosomes

Answer

Answer: (c) mitochondria


Question 20.
Kitchen of the cell is
(a) mitochondria
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) chioroplast
(d) golgi apparatus

Answer

Answer: (c) chioroplast


Question 21.
Lipid molecules in the cell are synthesised by
(a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(b) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) golgi apparatus
(d) plastids

Answer

Answer: (a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum


Question 22.
Cell arises from pre-existing cell was stated by
(a) Haeckel
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Schleiden

Answer

Answer: (b) Virchow


Question 23.
Cell theory was given by
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Haeckel

Answer

Answer: (a) Schleiden and Schwann


Question 24.
The only cell organelle seen in prokaryotic cell is
(a) mitochondria
(b) ribosomes
(c) plastids
(d) lysosomes

Answer

Answer: (b) ribosomes


Question 25.
Organelle without a cell membrane is
(a) ribosome
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) chioroplast
(d) nucleus

Answer

Answer: (a) ribosome


Question 26.
1 μm is
(a) 10-6 m
(b) 10-9 m
(c) 10-10 m
(d) 10-3 m

Answer

Answer: (a) 10-6 m


Question 27.
Lysosome arises from
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (b) golgi apparatus


Question 28.
Living cells were discovered by
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Purkinje
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Robert Brown

Answer

Answer: (c) Leeuwenhoek


Living cells were discovered by

Question 29.
Select the odd one out.
(a) The movement of water across a semi permeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances dissolved in it.
(b) Membranes are made of organic molecules like proteins and lipids.
(c) Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
(d) Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.

Answer

Answer: (d) Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants.


Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… is a Latin word for ‘a little room’.

Answer

Answer: Cell


2. Plant cells are stained using the stain called …………….

Answer

Answer: safranin


3. Cells were first discovered by ……………. in 1665.

Answer

Answer: Robert Hooke


4. Leeuwenhoek (1674), with the improved microscope, discovered ………….. the in pond water for the first time.

Answer

Answer: free living cells


5. Virchow stated that ……………. arise from pre-existing cells.

Answer

Answer: all cells


6. The largest cell is …………….

Answer

Answer: ostrich egg


7. The …………. and …………… of cells are related to the specific function they perform.

Answer

Answer: shape; size


8. The process of …………… helps in movement of carbon dioxide or oxygen across the cell membrane.

Answer

Answer: diffusion


9. The movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane is called …………….

Answer

Answer: osmosis


10. The …………… of the cell membrane enables the cell to engulf in food and other material from its external environment by process called endocytosis.

Answer

Answer: flexible nature


11. The chromatin material gets organised in the form of ………….. when the cell is about to divide.

Answer

Answer: chromosome


12. ………….. and …………. help in building the cell membrane by the process of membrane biogenesis.

Answer

Answer: Proteins; lipids


13. The hydrolytic enzymes present in the iysosomes are synthesised in the ………………

Answer

Answer: RER


14. Chromoplasts that contain …………… are called chioroplasts.

Answer

Answer: green coloured pigment


15. The primary function of leucoplasts is to ……………

Answer

Answer: store starch


Match the following columns

Column A Column B
(a) Vacuoles (i) Store proteins
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Shrinkage of cells
(c) Outer membrane of mitochondria (iii) Detoxification of poison and drugs
(d) Elaioplasts (iv) Turgidity of plant cell
(e) Aleuroplast (v) Porous in nature
(f) Hypertonic solution (vi) Scavengers of cell
(g) RER (vii) Storage and modification
(h) SER (viii) Store oils
(i) Golgi apparatus (ix) Protein synthesis
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Vacuoles (iv) Turgidity of plant cell
(b) Lysosomes (vi) Scavengers of cell
(c) Outer membrane of mitochondria (v) Porous in nature
(d) Elaioplasts (viii) Store oils
(e) Aleuroplast (i) Store proteins
(f) Hypertonic solution (ii) Shrinkage of cells
(g) RER (ix) Protein synthesis
(h) SER (iii) Detoxification of poison and drugs
(i) Golgi apparatus (vii) Storage and modification

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The Fundamental Unit of Life CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Neural Control And Coordination MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
(a) Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
(b) Pupil constriction
(c) Acceleration of heart beat
(d) Contraction of hair muscles

Answer

Answer: (b) Pupil constriction


MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Question 2.
During resting state, fluid outside axon contains
(a) low concentration of K+
(b) low concentration of Na+
(c) low concentration of Cl
(d) high concentration of Cl

Answer

Answer: (a) low concentration of K+
Explanation:
During resting state (when neuron is not conducting any impulse), axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+
The fluid outside axon contains low concentration of K+.


Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 MCQ Question 3.
The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Thalamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Medulla oblongata


The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.

MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Class 11 Question 4.
The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of
(a) Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
(b) A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
(c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
(d) Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions

Answer

Answer: (c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation


MCQs On Neural Control And Coordination Question 5.
The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
(a) Generation of end-plate potential
(b) Release of calcium from troponin
(c) Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
(d) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

Answer

Answer: (b) Release of calcium from troponin


Control And Coordination Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 6.
Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?
(a) Thalamus
(b) Reticular formation
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Limbic system

Answer

Answer: (d) Limbic system


Neural Control And Coordination MCQs Question 7.
Vestibular apparatus is made up of three semi circular canals. These canals lies at ____ degree angle to each other.
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (d) 90
Explanation:
Semicircular canals lies at right angle to each other.


MCQ Of Neural Control And Coordination Question 8.
At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Acetylcholine


MCQ Questions On Neural Control And Coordination Question 9.
There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (b) 12


Questions On Neural Control And Coordination Question 10.
When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
(b) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(c) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(d) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

Answer

Answer: (a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions


Neural Control And Coordination MCQ Pdf Question 11.
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(a) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(c) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(d) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

Answer

Answer: (b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations


Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Important Questions Question 12.
The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
(a) Initiate the heart beat
(b) Reduce the heart beat
(c) Accelerate the heart beat
(d) Maintain constant heart beat

Answer

Answer: (b) Reduce the heart beat


Neural Control And Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Question 13.
Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
(a) Abducens nerve
(b) Oculomotor nerve
(c) Olfactory nerve
(d) Trigeminal nerve

Answer

Answer: (d) Trigeminal nerve


MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Pdf Question 14.
Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
(a) Peristalsis
(b) Digestion
(c) Excretion
(d) Memory and learning

Answer

Answer: (d) Memory and learning


Class 11 MCQ Questions Biology Question 15.
Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.
(a) Parasympathetic
(b) Sympathetic
(c) Central nervous
(d) Autonomic

Answer

Answer: (d) Autonomic


Neural Control And Coordination Questions Question 16.
Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
(a) Satellite cells
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer

Answer: (b) Schwann cells


Question 17.
Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?
(a) Piamater
(b) Arachnoid
(c) Duramater
(d) Piamater and Arachnoid

Answer

Answer: (a) Piamater
Explanation:
Brain is covered by cranial meninges.
1) Duramater (outer)
2) Arachnoid (middle)
3) Piamater (inner)- in contact with brain tissues)


Question 18.
The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Meninges

Answer

Answer: (c) Cerebral cortex


Question 19.
Find the odd one.
(a) Schwann cells
(b) Nissl s granules
(c) nephrons
(d) synaptic knob

Answer

Answer: (c) nephrons
Explanation:
Schwann cells, Nissl s granules and synaptic knobs are the parts of neurons.


Question 20.
Select the correct statement from the ones given below
(a) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(b) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(d) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

Answer

Answer: (c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer


Select the correct statement from the ones given below

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Neural Control and Coordination MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.