MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature with Answers

Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Class 11 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 11 Chapter 9 MCQs On Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

Question 1.
The sun is vertically overhead at noon on 21st June at
(a) the equator
(b) 23.5 degree N
(c) 23.5 degree S
(d) 66.5 degree N

Answer

Answer: (b) 23.5 degree N


Question 2.
The days are longest at
(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Nagpur

Answer

Answer: (a) Thiruvananthapuram


Question 3.
This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as ________
(a) Psychrometer
(b) Convection
(c) Evaporation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Convection


Question 4.
Differences in pressure on the earth surface causes:
(a) Winds
(b) Precipitation
(c) Hail
(d) Seasons

Answer

Answer: (a) Winds


Question 5.
______ are lines joining places having an equal temperature.
(a) Isotherms
(b) Evaporation
(c) Convection
(d) Pyrheliometer

Answer

Answer: (a) Isotherms


Question 6.
The heat energy absorbed by a known area in a fixed time is determined with the help of an instrument called
(a) Psychrometer
(b) Pyrheliometer
(c) Thermometric well
(d) Any instrument

Answer

Answer: (b) Pyrheliometer


Question 7.
What is Isotherm?
(a) The line joining the places of equal temperature
(b) The incoming short wave radiation
(c) The line joining the places of equal pressure
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) The line joining the places of equal temperature


Question 8.
The earth radiates energy to the atmosphere in:
(a) Long wavelengths
(b) Radiation
(c) Insolation
(d) Short wavelengths

Answer

Answer: (a) Long wavelengths


Question 9.
Maximum insolation is received over the ____________
(a) Equator
(b) Tropical areas
(c) Sub-tropical areas
(d) Poles

Answer

Answer: (c) Sub-tropical areas


Question 10.
Insolation refers to ________
(a) Wind direction
(b) Solar radiation
(c) Precipitation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Solar radiation


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Drainage System with Answers

Drainage System Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Drainage System with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Drainage System Class 11 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Drainage System MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 11 Chapter 3 MCQs On Drainage System

Question 1.
Name a river of antecedent drainge.
(a) Indus
(b) Godawari
(c) Narmada
(d) Padma

Answer

Answer: (a) Indus


Question 2.
Which is the north-flowing tributary of Ganga?
(a) Kosi
(b) Ghaghra
(c) Son
(d) Chambal

Answer

Answer: (c) Son


Question 3.
A relief which divides two areas drained by the river is known as
(a) Watershed
(b) River basin
(c) Drainage pattern
(d) Water management

Answer

Answer: (a) Watershed


Question 4.
Name the source of the Krishna River.
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Mahableshwar
(d) ZanskarValley

Answer

Answer: (c) Mahableshwar


Question 5.
In the mountainous course, the Himalayan rivers form
(a) Meander
(b) Gorges
(c) Braided channels
(d) Delta

Answer

Answer: (b) Gorges


Question 6.
Which one of the following rivers is known as the Sorrow of Bengal?
(a) Gandak
(b) Kosi
(c) Son
(d) Damodar

Answer

Answer: (d) Damodar


Question 7.
What is the source of the Jhelum River?
(a) Zanskar Valley
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Wular lake

Answer

Answer: (d) Wular lake


Question 8.
Which region has the youngest rivers in India?
(a) the Eastern Ghats
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) the Himalayas
(d) Deccan plateau

Answer

Answer: (c) Himalayas


Question 9.
River Kaveri flows through
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat
(b) Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (d) Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu


Question 10.
Name the main watershed of Peninsular rivers.
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) the Western Ghats
(c) the Eastern Ghats
(d) Himalayan Mountains

Answer

Answer: (b) the Western Ghats


Question 11.
Name the source of River Indus.
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Mansarovar lake
(c) Gangotri
(d) Zanskar Valley

Answer

Answer: (b) Mansarovar lake


Question 12.
Name an important river of Peninsular India forming an estuary at its mouth.
(a) Ganga
(b) Godawari
(c) Narmada
(d) Padma

Answer

Answer: (c) Narmada


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers

Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Minerals and Rocks Class 11 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 11 Chapter 5 MCQs On Minerals and Rocks

Question 1.
Which of the following is not among the eight elements?
(a) Oxygen and Silicon
(b) Aluminium and Iron
(c) Calcium and Sodium
(d) Mica and Granite

Answer

Answer:(d) Mica and Granite


Question 2.
Which of the following is not an example of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Limestone
(d) Schist

Answer

Answer:(c) Limestone


Question 3.
Which mineral group is abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
(a) Mica group
(b) Felspar group
(c) Oxide group
(d) Silicate group

Answer

Answer:(b) Felspar group


Question 4.
Which one of the following is the salient feature of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Changeable
(b) Quite
(c) Crystalline
(d) Foliation

Answer

Answer:(a) Changeable


Question 5.
Which one of the following are the hardest minerals?
(a) Topaz
(b) Diamond
(c) Quartz
(d) Feldspar

Answer

Answer:(b) Diamond


Question 6.
Which of the following is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Iron Ore
(d) Tin

Answer

Answer:(c) Iron Ore


Question 7.
A non-metallic mineral in the following minerals is
(a) silver
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) coal

Answer

Answer:(d) coal


Question 8.
Igneous rocks are
(a) primary rocks
(b) secondary rocks
(c) tertiary rocks
(d) soft rocks

Answer

Answer:(a) primary rocks


Question 9.
Which one of the following is the component of sand and granite?
(a) Amphibole
(b) Quartz
(c) Pyroxene
(d) Mica

Answer

Answer:(b) Quartz


Question 10.
The most abundant rocks found on the earth’s crust are
(a) igneous rocks
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) granite rock

Answer

Answer:(a) igneous rocks


Question 11.
Rocks that were originally either sedimentary, igneous, or metamorphic and have been changed further by heat and pressure are called:
(a) Volcanic
(b) Sedimented
(c) Metamorphic
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer:(c) Metamorphic


Question 12.
Which one of the following is not a sedimentary rock?
(a) Tillite
(b) Borax
(c) Breccia
(d) Marble

Answer

Answer:(d) Marble


Question 13.
Iron is a
(a) ferrous metal
(b) non-ferrous metal
(c) precious metal
(d) non-precious metal

Answer

Answer:(a) ferrous metal


Question 14.
What kind of colour does Pyroxene consist of?
(a) Green
(b) Black
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer:(d) None of the above


Question 15.
The minerals that do not contain metal contend are known as
(a) precious minerals
(b) ferrous minerals
(c) non-metallic minerals
(d) non-ferrous minerals

Answer

Answer:(c) non-metallic minerals


Question 16.
The parent material of soils is derived from
(a) Igneous rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Sedimentary rocks
(d) Biological action

Answer

Answer:(c) Sedimentary rocks


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Power Sharing

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate Option:
The Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are known as……………..
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils
Answer:
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following terms/phrases appropriately describes “Eelam”?
(a) A city or a town
(b) A Nation/State
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Cricket Team

Class 10 Power Sharing MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the different forms of sharing of power from the following options:
(I) Vertical Power sharing- UK
(II) Horizontal Power sharing- India
(III) Federal Division of Power- Sri Lanka
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(b) Horizontal Power sharing- India

Explanation: India follows a system where power to legislate, execute the laws and adjudicate the execution are divided among three different organs of the government- all at the same level. This is called the Horizontal division of Power.

Related Theory
Federat Division of Power is the division of power among governments at different levels. This could be seen in Belgium- where power is divided among Central and Community government at the centre. Sri Lanka does not follow this. Vertical Power sharing can be found in the US and India.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
With respect to the concept of power-sharing, which of the following statements is not correct about Democracy?
(a) People rule themselves through representatives and institutions of self-governance in a democracy.
(b) People are the source of all political power and this power must be shared among them.
(c) Democratic countries believe in giving respect to ethnically diverse groups and views.
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives.
Answer:
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives. Explanation: Citizens exercise their power in elections where they choose their own representatives. Thus they hold the greatest amount of power.

Power Sharing MCQ Class 10 Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………… elects the communist government in Belgium.
(a) People belonging to the respective language communities.
(b) All the citizens of Belgium.
(c) Belgium’s leaders
(d) Ministers of the central government of Belgium
Answer:

MCQ Of Power Sharing Class 10 Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Belgium: Dutch-speaking community, Sri Lanka-……………..
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims
Answer:
(a) Sinhalas

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Ch 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following institutions is not one of the three organs of government that share powers?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential Policies for government jobs.
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
Answer:
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.

Explanation: Other measures made Tamils feel neglected and ignored in their own country.

MCQ On Power Sharing Class 10 Question 9.
Modern democracies maintain a check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government and local bodies.
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different pressure groups.
Answer:
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary

Explanation: Power sharing among legis¬lature, executive and judiciary is an example of horizontal distribution of power because these organs are placed at the same level and are allotted different powers, functions and jurisdictions. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs exercise unlimited power. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

Related Theory
India is a federal country with a three-tier system, namely: central government, state government and local bodies. The constitution originally provided for a two-tier system and the third tier was added later, which administered local bodies. These tiers enjoy seperate jurisdictions and powers.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
By 1980s which part of Sri Lanka were the political organizations demanding to create an independent Tamil Eelam?
(a) Northern parts
(b) Eastern parts
(c) Western parts
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

Civics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Belgium is a small country, located in which of the following continent?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) None the these
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the following is a major ethnic group of Sri Lanka?
(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil
(d) Sinhalia and Christian
Answer:
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil

Explanation: Tamils make up 18% of the ethnicity of Sri Lanka, and the Sinhalese community makes up 74% of the population, forming the largest ethnic composition in Sri Lanka.

Civics Ch 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
There are countries in which the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is called:
(a) Unitary division of power
(b) Federal division of power
(c) Constitutional division of power
(d) Only (c)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘community government’ of Belgium?
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and community government.
Answer:

Power Sharing MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which one of the following statements describes a special problem that Brussels presented?
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(b) The French-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(c) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country and in the capital as welL
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital

Question 16.
Power-sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. This is an example of which reason of the power-sharing?
(a) Prudential
(b) Moral
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Prudential

Explanation: There are two set of reasons of power sharing-prudential and moral. Prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes while moral reasons emphasize the very act of power-sharing as valuable.

Question 17.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in which of the following year?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1948

Question 18.
Which country has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Belgium
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Belgium

Which country has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations?

Explanation: The Belgian Government recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement to settle these ethnic diversities.

Related Theory
Sri Lanka could not solve the problem of their ethnic variation and suffered through a Civil war. Pakistan and Bangladesh however both continue to suffer through problems due to ethnic diversity. Most minority groups are dominated and suppressed in these nations.

Question 19.
What major steps did the Belgian government take to enable everyone to live together within the same country? Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) They amended their constitution four times
(b) They amended their constitution three times
(c) They formed a communist government
(d) Only (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) They amended their constitution four times

Explanation: Between 1970 and 1993, the Belgians amended their constitution four times.

Question 20.
Which of the following was the main reason for the killing of thousands of people in Sri Lanka?
(a) Cold war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(c) Atomic war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil¬speaking population

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 21.
Belgium shares its border with how many countries of Europe?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answer:
(b) Four

Explanation: Belgium shares its border with four countries-France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 22.
Which of the following government in Belgium has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues?
(a) The Communist Government
(b) The Community Government
(c) The Central Government
(d) The Provincial Government
Answer:

Question 23.
A country in which principle of majoritarianism led to civil war:
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Netherlands
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: To secure dominance over the government by virtue of their majority, the government passed various acts favoring Sinhala Speakers. The distrust between the two communities- Sri Lanka Tamils and Sinhala Speaking Majority community turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into Civil war. As a result thousands of people of both communities have been killed.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 24.
Identify the form of power-sharing:
(1) The power-sharing arrangement between different organs of the government at the same level
(2) It is found in India.
Answer:
Horizontal form of power-sharing

Question 25.
Identify the country:
(1) It covers less area than the state of Haryana.
(2) It shares its geographical borders with the Netherlands, France and Germany.
(3) Its population is half that of Haryana.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 26.
Identify the community:
(1) They form a majority in Belgium.
(2) They do not speak French.
(3) They are concentrated in the Flemish Region.
Answer:
The Dutch-speaking community.

Explanation: Belgium’s 59 percent population lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Italy, Germany and Luxembourg.
Answer:
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 28.
Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Wallonia region and speaks Dutch language.
Answer:

Question 29.
In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Tamil as the only official language, disregarding Sinhala.
Answer:
In Srilanka. an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, disregarding Tamil.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 30.
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak Dutch while 20 percent are French-speaking.
Answer:
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch-speaking.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 31.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an offcial language, or regional autonomy and ……….
Answer:
Equality of opportunity in securing education andjobs

Explanation: The Act of 1956 established Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka and increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils which strained the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities over time.

Question 32.
The Belgian government shifted to a federal from a…………….. form of government.
Answer:
Unitary

Explanation: Change of system from Unitary to Federal enabled Belgium to accommodate regional diversities and cultural differences. Federal set up involved providing equal opportunities of sustenance, livelihood and policymaking to both French and Dutch speaking, division of powers of central government etc

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 33.
Rural Local Government is popularly known as …………….
Answer:
Panchayats

Explanation: The lowest level of government- the local government is also called Panchayats. Federal division of power has enabled countries to divide central power into subunits.

Question 34.
Between 1970-1993, the Constitution of Belgium was amended …… times.
Answer:
Four

Question 35.
………….. is the headquarters of the European Union.
Answer:
Brussels

Explanation: Brussels, the capital city of Belgium was chosen as the headquarters for a group of European Nations called the European Union.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 36.
Match the following percentage of the population from column A with the social groups in column B:

Column A (Percentage of Population)

Column B (Social Groups)

(a) 59 Percent (i) French-speakers
(b) 74 Percent (ii) Dutch-speakers
(c) 40 Percent (iii) Tamil-speakers
(d) 18 Percent (iv) Sinhala-speakers

Answer:

Column A (Percentage of Population)

Column B (Social Groups)

(a) 59 Percent (ii) Dutch-speakers
(b) 74 Percent (iv) Sinhala-speakers
(c) 40 Percent (i) French-speakers
(d) 18 Percent (iii) Tamil-speakers

Question 37.
Match the following keywords from column A with their explanation in column B:

Column A (Keywords) Column B(Explanation)
(a) Ethnic (i) A belief that Let majority community rule a country
(b) Civil war (ii) Calculation of gains and tosses
(c) Prudential (iii) Conflict between opposing groups
(d) Majorftarian (iv) Division based on shared culture

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): In a democracy, people are the source of all political power
Reason (R): This is because democracy is the rule of the people, for the people, by the people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 39.
Assertion (A): Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of the executive or laws made by the legislatures.
Reason (R): Judges are superior and more experienced than the executive.
Answer:

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Social conflict often leads to violence and political instability.
Reason (R): It brings disharmony among the social groups and destroys the peace of the region.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Imposing the will of the majority community over others, undermines the unity of the nation.
Reason (R): It divides the majority community itself.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: This is because due to majoritarianism the minority community begins to feel like its needs are neglected. It feels isolated and tends to develop feelings of secessionism.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the given picture and answer the qustion that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers 1
Which of the following statements appropriately describe the picture?
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(b) Concentration of power in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
(c) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(d) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
Answer:
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following question:
Power can be shared among governments at different Levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called the federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Which of the following types of division of powers best describes the power division between the higher and lower levels of government?
(a) Horizontal division
(b) Side by Side division
(c) Triangle division
(d) Vertical Division
Answer:
(d) Vertical Division

Explanation: The division of powers between the government at the central level and at the state level can be seen as a vertical division because these governments are at different levels, forming a hierarchy. Hence the name vertical arrangement.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.

In modern democracies, which of the following options is not a form of power sharing arrangements?
(a) Among different organs of government, such as the Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(b) Among governments at different levels- a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different genders.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The Leaders of the SinhaLa community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJOR.ITALIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
What do you mean by Majoritarian measures and majoritarianism? Explain with emphasis as to what happened in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
The belief that a majority community can dominate multiple minority communities only because it has more number of people and can administer a country according to its own whims and fancies, without considering or respecting the interests of the minority community is called Majoritarianism. Measures to favour the majority are called majoritarian measures.

Majoritarianism was practiced in Sri Lanka when a democractically elected government assumed power in the parliament and to please the majority, passed laws supporting Sinhala speakers neglecting the interest of Sri lankan Tamils Sinhala speakers were preferred in educational and professional institutions above Sri Lankan Tamils. This turned into civil war due to rising conflicts between the two communities.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
“In the city of Beirut there lived a man called Khalil. His parents came from different communities. His father was an Orthodox Christian and mother a Sunni Muslim. This was not so uncommon in this modern, cosmopolitan city. People from various communities that lived in Lebanon came to live in its capital, Beirut. They lived together, intermingled, yet fought a bitter civil war among themselves.
One of Khalil’s uncles was killed in that war.

At the end of this civil war, Lebanon’s leaders came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different communities. As per these rules, the country’s President must belong to the Maronite sect of Catholic Christians. The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni Muslim community. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox Christian sect and that of the Speaker for Shi’a Muslims. Under this pact, the Christians agreed not to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek unification with the neighbouring state of Syria.

When the Christians and Muslims came to this agreement, they were nearly equal in population. Both sides have continued to respect this agreement though now the Muslims are in clear majority. Khalil does not like this system one bit. He is a popular man with political ambition. But under the present system the top position is out of his reach. He does not practise either his father’s or his mother’s religion and does not wish to be known by either. He cannot understand why Lebanon can’t be like any other ‘normal’ democracy.
(A) Why can’t Lebanon be a normal democracy?
Answer:

(B) Give a name to this arrangement in Lebanon.
(a) Democratic arrangement
(b) Unitary Arrangement
(c) Power sharing arrangement
(d) Autocratic arrangement
Answer:
(c) Power sharing arrangement

Explanation: The sharing of highest posts and powers between the two religious sects is catted power sharing arrangement. It is done to accommodate civil war Like situations.

(C) Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?
(a) Caste Divisions
(b) Religious Divisions
(c) Gender Division
(d) Regional Division
Answer:
(b) Religious Divisions

Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?

Explanation: The Orthodox Christian and Sunni Muslim are the two religious communities- ethnicaLLy diverse from one another are found in Lebanon.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.

One basic principle of democracy is that people rule themselves through institutions of self¬governance. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore, it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is not one of the principles of democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) People rule themselves through institutions of self-governance
(c) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.
Answer:
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.

Explanation: Democracy is a political system where the will of the people is supreme. Hence it is considered before each decision is taken.

(B) Which of the following is used as another name to the Federal government in India?
(a) The Union Government
(b) The regional government
(c) The Provincial Government
(d) Community government
Answer:

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……………….. is an institution of self-governance.
(a) Panchayat
(b) Shopping Mall
(c) Restaurant
(d) Automobile Company
Answer:
(a) Panchayat

(D) Choose the correct option from the following for this description:
When power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, we can call it:
(a) Horizontal division of power-sharing
(b) Vertical division of power-sharing
(c) Diagonal Division of Power Sharing
(d) Unitary Division of Power sharing
Answer:
(b) Vertical division of power sharing Explanation: In vertical division of power sharing, central or federal or union government is the top level government meant for the entire country, below it are the state governments meant for states in India while the municipality and panchayat are the government lower than the state governments.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an oftcial language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not true about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
(b) It ended in 2009.
(c) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state were disapproved.
Answer:
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Explanation: It was fought between the two top most communities- Sri Lankan Tamils and Buddhist Sinhali population.

(B) Which of the following statements is/are true about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka?
(a) Singhalese form the majority only at the capital of Sri Lanka.
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils constituted about 82% of the total population of Sri Lanka.
(c) Singhalese and Tamils equally populate Sri Lanka.
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.

(C) Choose the correctly matched pair.
(I) Belgium – Linguistically variant populations
(II) India – Racially variant populations
(III) Sri Lanka – Religiously variant Population
(IV) Lebanon – Linguistically variant populations
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
They wanted a separate state for themselves in Sri Lanka.
(a) Muslims
(b) Sinhalese
(c) Sri Lankan Christians
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Answer:
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Explanation: Tamils felt that they were ignored and neglected in Sri Lanka.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow
Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power-sharing. Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well. There is a second, deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a prudential reason for power sharing?
(a) Power sharing helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups
(b) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
(c) Power sharing helps to strengthen a democratic political system.
(d) Power sharing makes it easier for governments to gather support.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following cart be an example of social division ending in violence?
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War
(b) Belgian Constitutional Amendment
(c) Indian adoption of Federalism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War.
Explanation: Other two were peaceful, methodical processes.

(C) In a democracy, the power is not shared with:
(a) People who live in the democracy
(b) Social Groups which are present in the democracy
(c) Leaders of the governments
(d) Neighbouring countries
Answer:
(d) Neighbouring countries
Explanation: In a sovereign country, no external country can influence it in making any decision.

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Tyranny means
(a) Government by a single or multiple rulers with few powers
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power
(c) Government by a single ruler
(d) Government by multiple rulers
Answer:
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power.
Explanation: Giving absolute powers in the hands of an individual or a group can lead to tyrannical or despotic government.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How and when was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala was recognised as the national language of Sri Lanka in 1956 through an act.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 2.
Which factor is responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils?
Answer:
Majoritarianism of the democratically elected government.

Question 3.
Which types of powers does the Community government of Belgium enjoy? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The government enjoys powers related to matters regarding culture, education and language of the people.

Question 4.
Who formed the majority in terms of population in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala community.

Question 5.
What is a Homogenous Society?
Answer:
It shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. For example- Japan and South Korea.

Question 6.
What does the system of checks and balances ensure in power sharing?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why is power sharing desirable? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing reduces possibilities of social conflicts and the accumulation of powers in the hands of a particular group of people.

Question 8.
How is community government elected in Belgium?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 9.
Recognize the form of power sharing which is represented by the Community Government in Belgium.
Answer:
Power sharing among different social groups like the religious and linguistic groups,

Question 10.
An independent Tamil Eelam was one of the main demands of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. What is meant by ‘Eelam’ here?
Answer:
Here ‘Eelam’ means a separate state exclusively meant for the Tamils.

Question 11.
Why is there a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a democratic country? Give any one reason.
Answer:
It is necessary to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a country to avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group which would lead to social conflicts.

Question 12.
Why is power sharing good for democracies? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing is good for the democracy as it helps to reduce conflicts between the social groups. Since social conflicts often lead to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure stability and political order.

Related Theory
Power sharing is a term used to describe a system of governance in which power is proportionately divided between different organs of government, like judiciary, legislature and executive, and between different levels of government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 13.
How did the feeLing of aLienation develop among Sri Lankan Thmils?
Answer:

Question 14.
Differentiate between community government in Belgium and majoritarian government in Sri Lanka.
Answer:

Belgium

Sri Lanka

(1) They adopted a policy of power-sharing. They adopted a policy of majoritarianism.
(2) They gave equal powers to all communities whether majority or minority They gave preferences to the majority (Sinhala) group alone disregarding the minority (Tamils).
(3) Hence, peace was maintained in Belgium.  Hence, conflicts arose in the two communities of Sri Lanka,

Question 15.
Why was there an acute problem in Brussels during 1950s and 1960s between the two communities ?
Answer:
There was a problem in Brussels in the 1950s and 1960s because the Dutch speaking people constituted majority in the country but were a minority in the capital.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights with Answers

Rights Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Rights Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 5 MCQs On Rights

Rights Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
What is the force behind Legal Rights?
(a) Force of public opinion
(b) Force of morality
(c) Force of law
(d) Force of nature

Answer

Answer: (c) Force of law


Rights MCQ Class 11 Question 2.
A Bill of Rights is enshrined in the
(a) Preamble of the UNO
(b) Constitution of many countries
(c) Human rights of UNESCO
(d) Government documents of few countries

Answer

Answer: (b) Constitution of many countries


Class 11 Rights MCQ Question 3.
Human rights, traditionally are divided into
(a) Political and economic rights
(b) Political and social rights on one hand and cultural rights on the other
(c) Civil and political rights
(d) Civil and political rights on one hand and the right to development on the other

Answer

Answer: (c) Civil and political rights


Class 11 Political Theory Chapter 5 MCQ Question 4.
The provision to abolish untouchability is reflected in the Indian constitution under
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17

Answer

Answer: (d) Article 17


MCQ Of Rights Class 11 Question 5.
Who said, “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be himself at his best ?”
(a) Austin
(b) Wilde
(c) Green
(d) Laski

Answer

Answer: (d) Laski


Right Class 11 MCQ Question 6.
In a state, it is also the duty of the citizens to
(a) Ensure sustainable development
(b) Protect the atmosphere
(c) Pollute air and water
(d) Live in peace

Answer

Answer: (a) Ensure sustainable development


MCQ Of Chapter Rights Class 11 Question 7.
Civil liberties and political rights form the basis of a
(a) Democratic government
(b) Monarchical rule
(c) Totalitarian government
(d) Dictator rule

Answer

Answer: (a) Democratic government


MCQ On Rights Class 11 Question 8.
Right to the franchise is a
(a) Customary rights
(b) Political right
(c) Moral rights
(d) Cultural right

Answer

Answer: (b) Political right


Rights Political Theory Class 11 MCQ Question 9.
The natural right that was not advocated by the political theorists of the 17th and 18th centuries was the right to
(a) Life
(b) Liberty
(c) Information
(d) Property

Answer

Answer: (c) Information


Ch 5 Rights Class 11 MCQ Question 10.
According to the German philosopher Immanuel Kant, human beings unlike other objects are:
(a) Useful
(b) Valuable
(c) Selfish
(d) Independent

Answer

Answer: (b) Valuable


Ch Rights Class 11 MCQ Question 11.
The political right is the right to
(a) Shelter
(b) Sustainable development
(c) Livelihood
(d) Form political parties

Answer

Answer: (d) Form political parties


Rights Class 11 MCQ Political Theory Question 12.
Natural Rights are those which are given to us by:
(a) Constitution
(b) Parliament
(c) God or Nature
(d) King

Answer

Answer: (c) God or Nature


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Political Science Rights MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Political Science with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Sectors of Indian Economy

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is correct about the GDP?
(a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in terms of purchasing power.
(b) It shows the total product of a country in a given year without calculating the national income.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in the tertiary sector in a year.
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.
Answer:
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.

Related Theory
The purchasing power of a country depends upon the value of its currency and the power of its currency to buy commodities.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which organization conducts a survey on employment and unemployment?
(a) NSSO
(b) NREGA
(c) ILO – International Labour Organisation
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer:
(a) NSSO

Explanation: The National Sample Survey Organisation takes a survey every 5 years and data is collated thereafter.

Sector Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Identify which of these is a natural product?
(a) Clothes
(b) A Book
(c) Jute
(d) Apple Juice

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following examples does not fall under the unorganized sector?
(a) A shoemaker mending shoes.
(b) A daily wage laborer working to build a house.
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.
(d) A cook cooking in the house of her boss.
Answer:
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.

Class 10 Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. owns the Reliance Industries.
(a) The government
(b) A private business or a group
(c) A Bank
(d) Jointly by private companies and the govt.
Answer:
(b) A private business or a group

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005) has guaranteed ……………… days of employment in a year in many districts of India.
(a) 365 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 180 days
Answer:
(b) 100 days

Sectors Of The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
…………..is also known as Underemployment.
(a) Disguised Employment
(b) Overemployment
(c) Visible Employment
(d) Extra Employment
Answer:
(a) Disguised Employment

Explanation: Disguised employment is when people having potential to do full time employment are under utilized.

MCQ On Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 8.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct option from those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self- owned small farm lands
(b) Factory workers
(c) Private company owners and employees
(d) Government officials
Answer:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned small farmlands Explanation: Almost all family works on these lands despite their size and this is why the productivity of these workers is less.

Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair from the following:

List I List II
(a) Mailman Tertiary sector
(b) Fisherman Primary sector
(c) Carpenter Primary sector
(d) Banker Tertiary sector

Explanation: Carpenter creates furniture out of wood and hence can be classified in the secondary sector. He produces goods by exploiting a natural resource. Both mailman and banking provide services classifying them as tertiary sector employees. Fisherman exploits natural water resources- the fishes and hence are workers of the primary sector.
Answer:
(c) Carpenter – Primary Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
Which is not a characteristic of an unorganized sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government
(b) Rules and regulations are not followed
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, medical leaves.
Answer:
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular.

MCQ Of Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 11.
MGNREGA 2005 implements the …………… in about 625 districts of India.
(a) Right to Property
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Life
Answer:

MCQ Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 12.
Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy?
(a) Fisherman
(b) Farmer
(c) Woodcutter
(d) Teacher
Answer:
(d) Teacher

Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy?

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Question 13.
In which sector, do workers enjoy job security?
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Private-sector
(c) Organised sector
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(c) Organised sector

Explanation: Organised Sector includes industries, shops, factories and businesses registered with the government. They follow labor laws and other rules and regulations laid down by the government. They also provide job security, health care benefits and other incentives to its employees.

Related Theory
Agricultural Sector, Unorganised sector and Private Sector are all unregistered or not backed by the government and hence offer no job security or promise of a dignified life.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Important MCQ With Answers Question 14.
Which among the following most appropriately describes underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid as per their work
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
(c) Workers are unskilled
(d) Workers are not willing to work
Answer:
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing

Explanation: When workers are employed in larger numbers than they’re required, their effort becomes divided. This means that here people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their true potential, and removing some of them won’t affect production at all. This is underemployment.

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQs Question 15.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops
(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms
(iii) Spinning the yarn
(iv) Weaving of the fabric
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 16.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities that are included in this sector are undertaken by directly using natural resources.
(3) Employed the most number of people in 2000
Answer:
Primary or the Agricultural sector

Question 17.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities which are included in this sector are services offered to professionals
(3) No good is produced
Answer:
Tertiary or the Service Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 18.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on ownership of activities
(2) Private individuals and companies owns most of the assets
(3) Main driving force of this sector is profit.
Answer:

Question 19.
Read the conditions given below and identify in which sector Naresh is working?

Characteristics Facilities
Job Security No
Medical Facility No
Fixed working Hours No

Answer:
Unorganised Sector

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 20.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural products, it is an activity of the ………….

Question 21.
The …………… sector has become most important in terms of share of the total production in developed countries.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: In case of most developed and developing countries, production in all sectors has grown but tertiary sector has grown the most due to reasons like more development and improvement in Lifestyle. It employs a very large number of people in the world.

Question 22.
In the …………………… sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
Answer:
Public

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 23.
………….. is an example of an unorganized sector activity.
Answer:
A daily wage labourer working under a contractor

Related Theory
An Unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Rules and regulations are not followed in this sector. There’s absence of labour rules and job security in this sector.

Question 24.
Fill the blanks in table with correct answer:

Occupations Sectors
Tailor Tertiary
(A)-? Primary
Astronaut (B)-?

Answer:

Question 25.
Workers in the ………… sector do not produce goods.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: Workers in Primary and Secondary Sector produce goods while workers in Tertiary sector provide services.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Match the following sectors in Column A with their status given in Column B:

Column A (Sectors) Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector (i) Service sector
(b) Primary sector (ii) Regular employment
(c) Tertiary sector (iii) Government owns it
(d) Organised sector (iv) Exploits natural resources

Answer:

Column A (Sectors) Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector (iii) Government owns it
(b) Primary sector (iv) Exploits natural resources
(c) Tertiary sector (i) Service sector
(d) Organised sector (ii) Regular employment

Question 27.
Match the following occupations in Column A with their sectors in Column B:

Column A (Occupations) Column B (Sectors)
(a) Bee-keeper (i) Secondary sector
(b) Priest (ii) Unorganised sector
(c) Construction worker (iii) Primary sector
(d) Basket weaver (iv) Tertiary sector

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 2

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 29.
Assertion (A): GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services produced within a country during a particular year.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Explanation: GDP is the total sum of the values of all final goods and services produced by all sectors within a country during a particular year. It indicates how developed and successful an economy is.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Underemployment can also be called disguised unemployment.
Reason (R): Each person is doing some work but no-one is fully employed according to their true potential. This type of unemployment is hidden unlike the common type of unemployment where the job seeker clearly has no job.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Correct Explanation of (A).

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The data for India, for the last thirty years, shows that while goods and services produced in the tertiary sector contribute the most to GDP, the highest employment is offered by the primary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector offers limited growth.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and nutrition.
Reason (R): Private Sector cannot offer development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Private sector is based on profit and thus cannot contribute a lot in growth of the people, only the public sector run by the government can fulfill that responsibility.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after.
Reason (R): Because the sector offers high and regular pay.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): There is also a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganized sector.
Reason (R): Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The workers of the unorganized sector are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are Low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits. They also face social discrimination.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
1/1/hat it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underemployed.
Choose one correct statement from the following:
Underemployment occurs:
(a) when people are not willing to work.
(b) when people are working slowly.
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.
Answer:
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.

Explanation: This kind of condition occurs when people work but their efforts get divided. More than the required amount of workers are involved and hence their productivity is reduced.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
Match the items in Column A to the items in Column B.
table-1
(a) (A)-(ll), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(l)
(b) (A)-(lll), (B)-(IV), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
(c) (A)-(lll), (B)-(l), (C)-(IV), (D)-(li)
(d) (A)-(l), (B)-(IM), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
Answer:

Question 3.
Study the picture given below and identify to what sector does the activity belong to:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 5
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

Explanation: A woman can be seen buying clothes from the other. A service is being provided to the customer using already manufactured goods. Such services are classified under Tertiary Sector.

Related Theory
A sector which provide services and support to Primary and Secondary Sector is called as Tertiary Sector.

Question 4.
Observe the picture given below and answer the question that follows.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 6
Which sector does the worker in given cartoon represent?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Primary

Explanation: The picture is of a farmer. This is a primary sector activity because what she does forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Question 5.
Study this picture. Answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 7
Identify the sector to which the worker in the picture belongs ?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector.

Explanation: Both of these workers provide services while one is a shopkeeper other is a milk seller and sells already manufactured products. They do not produce anything on their own. and hence come under tertiary sector.

Question 6.
Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows:
This source shows a database of Workers employed in different sectors (in millions)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 8
Calculate, the percentage of people in organised sector.
(a) 8.4%
(b) 9.6%
(c) 7.6%
(d) 10%
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
However, you must remember that not ail of the service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector is growing in importance. You shall read more about this in the next section.
(A) Which of the following sectors is developing the most?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

(B) Why is the Service sector growing unequally?
(a) There are not many types of jobs in Service sector
(b) All jobs offer similar growth but people are unable to utilise it.
(c) All types of jobs are not high paying jobs
(d) Service sector is not growing at all.
Answer:
All types of jobs are not high paying jobs Explanation: Hence some jobs offer higher growth and more offers while others which are not as lucrative do not offer much growth.

(C) What other name is the Service sector also known as?
Answer:
The Tertiary Sector

(D) Assertion (A): Service sector has the largest share among all three sectors but considerable less number of employees.
Reason (R): Service sector is underdeveloped.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9.30 a.m. to 5.30 p.m. She gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets provident fund as per the rules laid down by the government. She also gets medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to the office on Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work.
Kamal is Kanta’s neighbour. He is a daily wage labourer in a nearby grocery shop. He goes to the shop at 7:30 in the morning and works till 8:00 p.m. in the evening. He gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He is not paid for the days he does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid holidays.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the sector Kanta works in.
(a) Unorganised Sector
(b) Private Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.

(B) Which of the following statements is true about the facilities Kanta is provided at her workplace?
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.
(b) Extra payment for less services.
(c) She can be seasonally removed from her job.
(d) She is not given any paid leaves.
Answer:

(C) Identify the sector Kamal works in:
(a) Private Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(b) Unorganised Sector

(D) Which of the following statements is different for Kanta and Kamal?
(a) Fixed Hours at work
(b) Physical employment and activities at work
(c) Allowances and paid leaves
(d) They are exactly the same
Answer:
(c) Allowances and paid leaves

Which of the following statements is different for Kanta and Kamal?

Explanation: Kanta receives her allowances because she works in the organised sector but Kamal does not because he works in a shop which belongs to the unorganised sector.

An online point estimate calculator will allow you to determine the best estimation value of the unknown population parameter with many estimation methods.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Where are most of the people employed? Graph 2 presents the percentage share of the three sectors in GDP. Now you can directly see the changing importance of the sectors over the forty years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 9
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Graph 3 shows the share of employment in the three sectors in 1977-78 and 2017-18. The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing:
(A) Which of the following sectors has the highest share in the GDP?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(b) Tertiary Sector

(B) Which of the following statements is correct about the agricultural sector?
(a) The Agricultural Sector shares the largest contribution in the GDP.
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.
(c) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been rising over years.
(d) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been fixed.
Answer:
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.

(C) What kind of workers are employed in the tertiary sector?
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled
(b) Unskilled
(c) Only skilled
(d) Only semi-skilled
Answer:
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled

Explanation: Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. It employs highly skilled and educated workers and also a number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc.

(D) Which is the Second largest sector in terms of GDP share?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(c) Secondary Sector

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For instance, suppose many farmers decide to grow arhar and chickpea (pulse crops). Setting up a dal mill to procure and process these and sell in the cities is one such example. Opening a cold storage could give an opportunity for farmers to store their products like potatoes and onions and sell them when the price is good. In villages near forest areas, we can start honey collection centres where farmers can come and sell wild honey. It is also possible to set up industries that process vegetables and agricultural produce like potato, sweet potato, rice, wheat, tomato, fruits, which can be sold in outside markets. This will provide employment in industries located in semi-rural areas and not necessarily in large urban centres.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the primary sector activity from the following-
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here
Answer:
(b) Growing Chickpeas

(B) Identify the secondary sector activity from the following:
(a) Selling vegetables in outside markets
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill
(c) Growing arhar and peas
(d) Transporting bottled honey to city markets
Answer:
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill

(C) Identify the tertiary sector activity from the following:
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here.
Answer:
(d) Opening a cold storage and charging farmers for storage.

(D) Which sector of activities can be most commonly found in semi-rural areas?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All three are found
Answer:
(a) Primary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources in which category of economic sectors, such activities come?
Answer:
Primary Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
In which sector is seasonal and disguised unemployment most prevalent in India?
Answer:
Primary Sector or the Agricultural Sector

Question 3.
Which communities generally find themselves in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
The poorest and most underprivileged communities find themselves in the unorganised sector.

Question 4.
In which sector is manufacturing included?
Answer:
Secondary Sector or the Industry Sector

Question 5.
ATM is an example of which sector?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector

Question 6.
Name the sector which continued to be the largest employer even in the year 2000.
Answer:
Agricultural or the primary sector

Question 7.
Iqbal along with five other members of his family worked as a farmer and produced 50 tons of wheat. Due to some dispute in the family, two members opted out of family business, but still remaining members of the family are able to produce 50 tons of Wheat. Can you name which kind of unemployment the members of the family were facing?
Answer:
Disguised employment.

Explanation: This is because people are employed in a work where their effort gets divided and not much productivity is achieved. They appear employed but they are not employed to their full capacity.

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to generate employment in urban areas.
Answer:
Following are the ways in which employment can be generated in urban areas:

  1. Improve local and inter-city transportation.
  2. Increase vocational education courses.

Question 9.
Which category of economic sector does the activity of changing natural products into other forms come under?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 10.
How is GDP calculated?
Answer:
GDP in India is calculated by the expenditure method. Only final goods and services are counted to get the finaL value. Therefore, GDP = Value of output – Intermediate consumption.

Question 11.
How is public sector different from the private sector?
Answer:
The public sector is owned, managed and controlled by government whereas the private sector is owned, controlled and managed by individuals or group of individuals.

Question 12.
Why is the tertiary sector becoming an important sector in India? Explain the main reason.
Answer:

Question 13.
Look at the picture given below and identify the sector to which the characters (shown) belong to.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 1
Answer:
The workers shown in the picture are associated with agricultural sector also known as Primary sector.
Explanation: Agriculture and related activities are classified under primary sector activities.

Question 14.
Suggest any one way to increase the income of the marginalised groups in India.
Answer:
Marginal farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and marketing outlets.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 15.
Study the table below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 2
identify the sector that employs largest number of workers?
Answer:
Primary Sector employs the most number of employees including both Organised and Unorganised sectors.

Question 16.
What is GDP?
Answer:
GDP is the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year.

Question 17.
Identify what sector does these products belong to?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 3
Answer:
These products belong to Secondary Sector. Explanation: All of these products are created by processing products of the primary sector.
For example, clothes are made of cotton which is produced by cultivating its crops, food is prepared by cooking fruits and vegetables. Products which are created by processing primary sector products are classified into secondary sector.

Question 18.
Explain the main advantage of organised sector with respect to employment.
Answer:
In the organised sector, terms of employment are regular and people have assured work throughout the year.

Question 19.
Suggest any one way to create employment in semi-rural areas.
Answer:
By setting up of small and agro-based industries, employment can be created in semi-rural areas.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 20.
The table below shows the estimated number of workers in india in the organised and unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the question given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 4
What percentage of tertiary sector workers in india are employed in Unorganised Sector according to the table?
Answer:

Question 21.
In a city, 5000 people work in offices and factories registered with the government, 3000 own offices, clinics in market places with formal license, 7000 people work on street, construction workers and domestic help whereas 9000 people work in small workshops usually not registered with the government. On the basis of the information given above calculate the percentage of people working in the Organised sector and choose the correct option.
(a) 20%
(b) 33%
(c) 50%
(d) 66%
Answer:
(b) 33%

Explanation: Number of People working in the Organised Sector (Companies with formal license of private business with license):
5000 + 3000 = 8000
Number of People working in the Unorganised Sector (Construction Workers, employees in unregistered workshops):
9000 + 7000 = 16000
Sum = 8000 + 16000 = 24000

Percentage of Organised Workers:
= \(\frac{8000}{24000}\) × 100
= 33%

Question 22.
Give one example each of primary and tertiary economic sectors. [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
Activities like agriculture, mining, etc. are examples of the primary sector, whereas activities like banking, tourism, etc. are examples of tertiary sector.

Related Theory
The primary sector is the sector of an economy making direct use of‘natural resources’ or relating to primary industries, whereas the tertiary sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 23.
When was MG N REG A passed?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following organisations lag stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Labour Organisation
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(d) World Trade Organisation

Explanation: The World Trade Organisation was created with an aim to regulate and monitor if appropriate rules were being implemented by the countries.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners – Indian MNC
(b) Ranbaxy-Chinese MNC
(c) Ford Motors-British MNC
(d) Xiaomi-Korean MNC
Answer:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners-Indian MNC
Explanation: Ranbaxy-Indian MNC
Ford Motors-American MNC
Xiaomi-Chinese MNC

Globalisation Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Entry of MNCs in a domestic market may prove harmful for
(a) Large scale producers
(b) Domestic producers
(c) Native Bankers
(d) Exporters of goods
Answer:
(b) Domestic producers

Explanation: The entry of MNC into the domestic market will prove fruitful to native bankers, large scale producers as they will be involved in the manufacturing and exporters as export will improve. The domestic producers alone will be harmed as it might close down their production.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Globalisation MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following has been major source of foreign investment in the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Oil India Limited
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited
(d) Business process outsourcing
Answer:
(d) Business process outsourcing

Explanation: The other choices are all manufacturing units.

Which among Mex, RCH2X, R2CHX , and R3CX is most reactive towards sn2 reaction​.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following types of countries has been more benefited from Globalisation?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Developed countries
Answer:
(c) Developing countries

Explanation: Employment has been generated to the youth in many developing countries, which means better quality of living.

MCQ On Globalisation Class 10 Question 6.
Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) IT
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement
Answer:
(b) Toy making

MCQ Of Globalisation Class 10 Question 7.
Removing barriers on or restrictions set by the government is known as:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Nationalisation
(d) Liberalisation
Answer:
(d) Liberalisation

Globalization Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Ford Motors set up its first plant in India at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Globalisation MCQ Question 9.
…………. has helped most in the spread of production of services.
(a) Manufacturing Industry
(b) Automobile Sector
(c) Call centres
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(d) IT Sector

Globalisation Refers To MCQ Question 10.
“MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. What of the following statements is wrong when that assertion is concerned?
(a) MNCs keep the availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour in mind.
(b) Proximity to markets is another important factor when MNCs are established.
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC.
(d) Favourable government policies are important for establishment of an MNC.
Answer:
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC. Explanation: MNCs are not interested in the local competitors as most of their products are for the export market.

Globalization Refers To MCQ Question 11.
…………… have led to a huge reduction in port handling costs and increased the speed with which exports can reach markets.
(a) Containers
(b) Airports
(c) Vessels with Stands
(d) Ships
Answer:
(a) Containers

Globalization MCQs Class 10 Question 12.
Cheaper imports, inadequate investment in domestic infrastructure might lead to
(a) the slowdown in the agricultural sector
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country
(c) the slowdown in the industrial sector
(d) slowdown in services
Answer:
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country

MCQ Of Globalisation And Indian Economy Question 13.
Which of the following country is NOT in the list of countries whom Ford Motors exporting its cars?
(a) South Africa
(b) Mexico
(c) Brazil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world.

Related Theory
Ford Motors came to India in 1995, invested Rs.1700 crore to set up a plant near Chennai in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, manufacturer of jeeps and trucks in India.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

MCQ Globalisation Class 10 Question 14.
Which of the following company is the largest producer of edible oil in India?
(a) Parakh Foods
(b) Cargill Foods
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Cargill Foods

Explanation: Cargill Foods is a very large American MNC, producing 5 million pouches of edible oil in India daily.

Related Theory
Cargill has bought over Parakh Foods which had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, also it had four oil refineries whose control has now shifted to Cargill.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct about a multinational company?
(a) It set up new factories for production.
(b) It may buy existing local companies to expand its business.
(c) It forms partnerships with local companies.
(d) It does not have new technology and large huge money with it.
Answer:
(d) It does not have new technology and huge money with it.

Globalization And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 16.
Which one of the following companies is NOT a multinational company?
(a) Tata Motors
(b) Reliance India Ltd.
(c) Ranbaxy
(d) Infosys
Answer:
(b) Reliance India Ltd.

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves. For example, Tata Motor (automobiles), Infosys (IT), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (Paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts) are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Question 17.
With what objective was World Trade Organisation set up?
(a) To liberalise international trade
(b) To allow free trade for all
(c) To establish rules regarding international trade
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following statement clearly defines what an MNC is?
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(b) A large company that owns or controls raw material for production.
(c) A large company that deals in automobiles.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

Question 19.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to:
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
(d) none of these
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 20.
Which of the following attributes are NOT determined by an MNC?
(a) Price, Quality, delivery and raw material
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery
(c) Delivery and price only
(d) Raw material and transport cost
Answer:
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery

Question 21.
Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers which include:
(a) Garments
(b) Footwear
(c) Sports
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers which include:

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the following organization on basis of the hints given.
(1) It was established with the aim to liberalise international trade.
(2) 164 countries are its members.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is known as globalisation.
Answer:
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is called liberalisation. Explanation: Liberalisation helps to remove all types of barriers to allow easy and affordable exchange of ideas, culture and even goods between countries.

Related Theory
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries by exchange of trade, ideas, culture, information and even markets.

Question 24.
International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
WTO is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade.

Explanation: World Trade Organisation (WTO) forms uniform rules and regulations to make trade simpler across the world.

Related Theory
International Monetary Fund was created to support economic stabilisation of Second World War economies. Nations were hurt and affected and hence needed funding and support to develop again.

Uniform Distribution Calculator solves two basic tasks.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 25.
………… results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
Answer:
Foreign trade

Explanation: ForeignTrade helps manufacturers to find markets in various countries. It results in tax on imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, should come into the country.

Question 26.
………………… is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 27.
………. refers to some restrictions including the tax on Imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, shouLd come into the country.
Answer:
Trade barrier

Explanation: Indian government put barriers on foreign trad and foreign investment after independence to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Question 28.
………… is the freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods.
Answer:
Liberalisation

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 29.
……….. is an international organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade:
(a) WTO
(b) UNDP
(c) World Bank
(d) MNC
Answer:

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following Indian companies from column A with the products these companies deal in from column B:

Column A (Indian Companies) Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors (i) IT
(b) Infosys (ii) Automobiles
(c) Ranbaxy (iii) Paints
(d) Asian Paints (iv) Medicines

Answer:

Column A (Indian Companies) Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors (ii) Automobiles
(b) Infosys (i) IT
(c) Ranbaxy (iv) Medicines
(d) Asian Paints (iii) Paints

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled these large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs. Another company that has become an MNC is Sundaram Fasteners which deals in nuts and bolts.

Question 31.
Match the following key terms given in column A with their meanings in column B:

Column A (Key Terms) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Globalisation (i) Investment by multinationals
(b) Liberalisation (ii) Controlling foreign trade
(c) Tax barrier (iii) Integration between economies
(d) Foreign investment (iv) Removing trade barriers

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): People also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Reason (R): Governments have done exceptionally well in implementing the rules of WTO.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations have influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Not everyone has benefited from Globalisation equally.
Reason (R): People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities while others have not been able to make the best use of it.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
Reason (R): They have been able to get more customers using the existing technology.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Greater competition has forced the companies to invest in newer technologies and more infrastructure, along with better quality products which has helped these companies to gain a better consumer base with help from the competition.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Foreign companies are demanding more rigidity in labour laws.
Reason (R): Flexible Labour laws give better chances for companies to profit.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Mr. Samson buys a company and then proceeds to buy new machines and furniture for the new company. He buys all his new employees clothes or new uniforms. He buys them new computers and redecorates the entire office.
Which one of the following statements is correct considering the source?
(a) Mr Samson loaned the money to this new office.
(b) Mr Samson spent money on social customs.
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.
(d) Mr Samson traded this money.
Answer:
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi.
The text of the magazine is sent through the Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities.
Which of the following phenomena helps these companies to execute these activities?
(a) Foreign Trade
(b) Domestic Trade
(c) Globalisation
(d) Investment
Answer:

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement about factors of globalisation in India:
(I) Improvement in transportation techno¬logy.
(II) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment.
(III) Favourable rules of World Trade Organisation towards India in comparison to developed countries.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
(a) Only (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
Answer:
(a) Only (I) and (II)

Explanation: WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all. However, in practice, it is seen that developed countries have retained trade barriers unfairly. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced developing countries to remove trade barriers. It is not partial in favour of India because it is an international organisation initiated by developed countries.

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The above evidence indicates that not everyone has benefited from gLobaiisation. People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities. On the other hand, there are many people who have not shared the benefits. Since globalisation is now a reality, the question is how to make globalisation more ‘fair’? Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.
Identify which of the following statements is not true about Globalization.
(a) Globalisation is the process of rapid integration between countries.
(b) It is movement of more and more investments and technology between countries.
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.
(d) It is movement of more and more goods and services between countries.
Answer:
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.

Explanation: Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between the countries. Through Globalisation more and more goods, services, greater foreign investments, technology and movement of people are taking place between countries. Globalisation doesn’t call for restrictions or barriers. It rather brings the countries in closer contact with each other.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Bs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico, Brazil and the United States of America. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Ford Motors is a Company.
(a) Uni-national
(b) Bi-national
(c) Regional
(d) Multi-national
Answer:
(d) Multi-national

Explanation: Its production units are present in various countries and hence it is a MNC.

(B) Which of the following local companies did Ford Motors collaborate with?
(a) Hero motors
(b) Honda and Suzuki
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) Volkswagen
Answer:

(C) Which of the following benefits are availed by the local company on collaborating with Ford Motors?
(a) The demand for cars from local companies in India rises.
(b) Ford Motors supplies new technology to the local company.
(c) Ford Motors takes over the local company.
(d) Ford Motors changes the management of local companies.
Answer:
(b) Ford Motors suppiies new technology to the local companies.

(D) Which of the following statements best describe the benefit to Indian producers in this statement in simple words?
“By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from india.”
(a) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has decreased.
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.
(c) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has remained the same.
(d) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has completely shifted.
Answer:
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, and the Internet has been changing rapidly. Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

As you would be aware, computers have now entered almost every field of activity. You might have also ventured into the amazing world of the internet, where you can obtain and share information on almost anything you want to know. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors have experienced a change due to the Internet?
(a) All the information in the world can be accessed at the click of a finger.
(b) One can fly from one country to another.
(c) One can establish a telephonic contact between a man in India and Alaska.
(d) One can cook by watching a show on TV.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following ways has the IT sector helped in?
(a) In production of goods
(b) In production of services
(c) In export of goods
(d) In export of services
Answer:
(b) In production of services

Explanation: Information and communication technology (or IT in short) has played a major role in spreading out production of services like Banking, teaching, hospitality across countries.

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
…………………. is not a Telecommunication facility?
(a) Telegraph
(b) Mobiles
(c) Emails
(d) A cars
Answer:
(d) A Car

Explanation: It is a transportation facility.

(D) Complete the following:
Boating- Development in transportation facilities; E- Banking
(a) Development in Transport
(b) Development in Trade
(c) Development in Production
(d) Development in IT
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Having assured themselves of these conditions, MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The benefit to the local company of such joint production is two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Statements are given below. Find the correct ones which suit the statement given in the questions.
Investment means spending on:
(I) factories and industrial building
(II) machines
(III) equipments
(IV) gold ornaments for employees
(V) Uniforms
(VI) Vehicles for the company
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)

(B) FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by Globalisation in India comes from the:
(a) World Bank
(b) Multinational companies
(c) foreign governments
(d) Indian residents
Answer:
(b) Multinational companies

(C) How does Joint Production with Zara help a local company called Style Quotient?
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.
(b) Zara gets a new manager.
(c) Style Quotient gets a better transport vehicle.
(d) Employees at Style Quotient get discounts at Zara Store.
Answer:
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.

(D) Which one of the following is a major benefit (to the MNC) of joint production between a local company and a Multinational Company?
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers.
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price of a good.
(c) MNC can expand its office physically.
(d) MNC can promote the local company.
Answer:
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers

Which one of the following is a major benefit (to the MNC) of joint production between a local company and a Multinational Company?

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
35-year old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in the garment export industry of Delhi. She was employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to health insurance, provident fund, overtime at a double rate, when Sushila’s factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she finally got a job 30 km away from where she lives. Even after working in this factory for Several years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier. Sushila leaves her house every morning, seven days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from work means no wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to her home have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Has Globalisation been favourable to Sushila and other workers like her?
(a) Yes, there are new jobs
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.
(c) There is no change in employment opportunities.
(d) Workers are not affected by Globalisation.
Answer:
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Globalisation so far has been more in favour of
(a) Developed countries
(b) Underdeveloped countries
(c) Poor countries
(d) It has had an equal effect.
Answer:
(a) Developed countries

Explanation: They have been able to expand their markets and their consumer bases.

(C) Which one of the following has benefited least because of globalisation in India?
(a) Industrial Sector
(b) Agriculture Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(b) Agriculture Sector

(D) Which of the following statements are not true about Sushila’s employment terms?
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
(b) She has to work longer than usual.
(c) Her wages have doubled.
(d) She had received a promotion
Answer:
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
Explanation: all her existing terms have been cancelled and now she has no extra benefits.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 9.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE 2020,14] Source A – Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic
markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Source C – Impact of globalisation in India Globalisation and greater competition among producers – both local and foreign producers – has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier. Source A – Production across countries
(A) How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:
MNCs act as a major force in connecting various countries of the world.
They interact with Local producers in various counties across the globe to expand their production and markets which results in connection of widely dispersed locations on countries.

(B) How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?
Source C – Impact of globalisation in India
Answer:
Foreign trade helps to integrate various markets with one another through the means of domestic and international producers who sells the same product in domestic and international markets. The markets of all countries garner similar products and are integrated together.

(C) How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
Answer:
Globalisation is beneficial for consumers in the following ways:

  1. High quality goods are available at lower prices.
  2. A wide range of choice is available for the consumers.

Question 10.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions related to them :
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
An consumers in today’s world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services before us. The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the leading manufacturers of the world are within our reach. Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, the import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations has influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the World Trade Organisation. This has demonstrated that people can also play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
(A) How is the impact of globalisation visible on consumers?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:

(B) How does foreign trade integrate markets? Explain.
Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation
Answer:

(C) How do people play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation? Explain.
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State any one example for a trade barrier?
Answer:
Taxes and Import duties

Question 2.
Why did the Indian government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
They removed the trade barriers to help the native industries and boost their trade by letting the foreign competition in the country’s market.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 3.
What attracts the foreign investment?
Answer:

Question 4.
Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach?
Answer:
Foreign Trade integrates different markets and helps the countries to make products from across the world available to their citizens.

Question 5.
Why are MNC setting them Customer Care Centres in India?
Answer:
India has a lot of educated youth who can speak English well and thereby are the perfect candidates to be customer care professionals.

Question 6.
Differentiate between multinational corporations and domestic companies.
Answer:
Multinational corporations operate in two or more countries while domestic companies restrict their operations to a single country.

Related Theory:
Multinational companies move to other countries and expand their business for various reasons. They also give a tough competition to domestic companies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
What is the basic function of foreign trade?
Answer:

Question 8.
The MNC’s of a country sets up a production jointly with the local company of other country. State any one benefit of this joint production to the local company.
Answer:
Benefits of Joint Production:

  1. MNC can provide money for additional investment.
  2. MNC might bring latest technology for production, (any 1 to be mentioned)

Question 9.
Distinguish between investment and foreign investment.
Answer:
When land, assets or buildings are purchased and kept hold of, they are considered as investments, whereas when multinational corporations (MNC’s) invest money or finances in a project of another company in another country, it is considered as foreign investment.

Question 10.
Due to which reason are the latest models of different items available within our reach?
Answer:
The latest models of different items are available within our reach due to ‘globalisation.

Question 11.
Define globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation is defined as the integration between different countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by various muLti-national corporations (MNCs).

Related Theory:
Globalisation has helped a lot in interlinking economies and markets across the world. Now, people are able to sell their produce in the foreign markets also.

Question 12.
Where do MNCs prefer to set up their offices and factories?
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.

Explanation: Every MNC wants to attain maximum profit off their business. One of the easiest way to do is to reduce the cost of production by either updating the infrastructure, to include better tecnnology, or by employing cheap labour, finding cheaper sources of energy to be used.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 13.
How has globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as Multinational Companies (MNCs)?
Answer:
Globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as MNCs:
New opportunities have been provided to the companies/ Helped in collaboration with foreign companies/ Technological and production inputs.

Question 14.
Which is the most common route for investment by MNCs in countries around the world?
Answer:
The easiest way for MNCs is to invest around the world is to buy up local companies and then to expand production by controlling the means.

Question 15.
Define the term Liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalisation refers to the removal or partial or complete loosening of the restrictions set by the government on foreign investment and trade. It also eases up the process of import and export.

Question 16.
Name some Indian companies which are now emerging as Multi National Corporations.
Answer:
Tata motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian paints and Sundaram fasteners are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Explanation: MNCs or Multi National Corporations are companies which are based in various countries and their market and production are both expanded across various countries and continents.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘investment’.
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Explanation: Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

Related Theory:
Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Answer:
In recent years, the central and state governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 19.
What are SEZs?
Answer:
SEZs are Special Economic Zones or Industrial Zones set up to attract foreign investment by government of India.

Related Theory:
SEZs have world class infrastructural facilities and other facilities like tax rebates, flexibility in labour laws to attract investors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Gender, Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Gender, Religion and Caste

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries has a record of high participation of women in the political sphere of the society?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) France
(d) Finland
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
On an average an Indian woman works…………..more than an average man every day.
(a) One hour
(b) Half an hour
(c) Two hours
(d) One and a half hour
Answer:
(a) One hour

Gender Caste And Religion Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
………………… provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work.
(a) Wages act
(b) Equal Remuneration Act
(c) Equal Wages Act
(d) Labour Code

Gender Religion And Caste MCQs Question 4.
Fill in the blank in regards to the information about the Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) of India in 2011?
Ratio 901-925- Himachal Pradesh; Ratio below 850-……………..
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Gender Religion And Caste MCQ Question 5.
Sexual Division of labour signifies which of the following statements?
(1) Gender division emphasises not all people can do all kinds of work.
(2) Gender division means division between communities.
(3) Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
(4) Type of the work decides whether a man will do it or a woman will do it.
(5) Religion decides which work should be done by who.
(a) (1). (3) & (4) (b) (1), (2) & (4)
(c) (1) & (3) (d) (4) & (1)
Answer:
(d) (4) & (1)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

MCQ Of Chapter Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 6.
In local self-government institutions, at least one third of all positions are reserved for„
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Scheduled tribes
Answer:
(b) Women

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers In Hindi Question 7.
Identify the reason why caste alone cannot determine elections in India.
(I) No party can win the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
(II) Political parties appease certain castes and ignore others.
(III) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste, people from different castes live in each constituency.
(IV) Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the lower castes.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (i), (II) & (III) only
Answer:

MCQ On Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 8.
In India, seats are reserved for women in:
(I) Lok Sabha
(II) State legislative assemblies
(III) Cabinet of Chief Minister
(IV) Panchayati Raj bodies
(a) (I), (M) & (IV)
(b) (II), (III) & (IV)
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) & (IV)

Explanation: One-Third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities – are now reserved for women. There are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 9.
Which among the following statements about the Constitution of India is wrong?
(a) It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
(c) It ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.
(d) It ensures everyone’s freedom to profess any religion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Religious minorities
(d) People with disabilities
Answer:
(c) Religious minorities

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 11.
What is the literacy rate of men in India?
(a) 73%
(b) 76%
(c) 75%
(d) 78%
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in India?
(a) 999
(b) 872
(c) 919
(d) 912
Answer:
(c) 919

Question 13.
A ………….. proportion of women attend higher educational institutions than men.
(a) Greater
(b) Smaller
(c) Equal
(d) Almost negligible
Answer:
(b) Smaller

Explanation: Women are not allowed to study in a lot of families, especially when the resources are limited because it is considered that men are supposed to work and provide for the family while women are supposed to do caregiving activities.

Question 14.
The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Negligible
(d) Equal to that of men
Answer:
(b) Small

Question 15.
Castes in India have:
(a) Stayed the same throughout the time
(b) Changed completely in the last 5 years
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.
(d) Increased its influence
Answer:
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 16.
Which of the following instances express the severest form of communal politics?
(a) Violence and Riots
(b) Elections
(c) Inter-caste marriages
(d) Abstinence from religion
Answer:

Question 17.
The total percentage of Backward Classes estimates their population to be around per cent.
(a) 61%
(b) 54%
(c) 42%
(d) 41%
Answer:
(d) 41%

Question 18.
Which of the following principles compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support?
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Communalism
(c) One man- One vote- One woman- no vote
(d) Religion is the base of politics
Answer:
(a) Universal adult franchise

Which of the following principles compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support?

Explanation: Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior and low.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 19.
Identify the following on basis of the hints given:
(1) In 2011, this group of Castes were 16.6 percent of total people in India.
(2) The group is also known as Dalits.
(3) They were subjected to exclusion and untouchability.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 20.
Gender division tends to be understood as natural and unchangeable.
Answer:
True

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 21.
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Earlier, only women were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.
Answer:
False

Earlier, only men were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.

Explanation: Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies. In fact women, women had to fight for their voting rights to participate in elections.

Question 23.
Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation does not help to improve women’s role in public life.
Answer:

Question 24.
The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2014.
Answer:
False

The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2019. Explanation: One Third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies have been reserved for women.

Question 25.
In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-female even when aman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.
Answer:
False

In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-male even when a woman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 26.
Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Expression of caste differences in politics gives many advantaged communities the space to demand their share of power.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 28.
Castes and Caste system in modern India have undergone a great change because of [CBSE 2019]
Answer:
Urbanisation, growth of literacy and education

Question 29.
The Indian Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion because
Answer:
India is a secular State.

Explanation: Indian Secularism believes in equal respect and equal distance from all religions to promote equality. Western secularism believes abstinence from religion. Indian Constitution does not have any official religion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 30.
The representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European countries because
Answer:
women are not educated, trained and encouraged enough.

Question 31.
……………. is the literacy rate among men and ………… is the literacy rate for women in India.
Answer:
76% and 54%

Question 32.
The Equal wages Act was passed in……………
Answer:

Question 33.
In 2011, the Scheduled Castes were ………… and the Scheduled Tribes were of the country’s population.
Answer:
16.6 percent and 8.6 percent

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 34.
Scandinavian countries like ………. the participation of women in public life is very high.
Answer:
Sweden

Question 35.
The disproportionately large presence of ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our country is because
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): It is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicized.
Reason (R): Politics brings caste into the political arena.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 37.
Assertion (A): Elections are all about caste and nothing else.
Reason (R): Every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Caste is an important source of economic inequality.
Reason (R): It regulates access to resources of various kinds.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste decided the allocation of resources. A Lot of backward classes have become even worse because of inequality of education and opportunities.

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country.
Reason (R): Caste is the only factor that affects Politics.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Caste is not the only factor that affects politics. The performance of the leaders, their control and their decisions, their ideologies and methodologies also affect the result of elections.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Caste groups that had access to education under the old system have done very well.
Reason (R): Education helps in development of people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Unless women control power, their problems will not get adequate attention.
Reason (R): They are not given attention because the decision making bodies have no representation of women and men are unable to relate to women issues.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a democracy.
Reason (R): It can divide the society into different communities and cause inequalities.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.
Reason (R): Violence is a positive expression of caste divisions.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Violence is a negative expression of caste divisions. The negative expression of caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Caste matters in electoral politics.
Reason (R): Caste affects the choice of people in elections. People choose according to their castes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste affects the choice of people. A lot of other factors affect electoral politics.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and men do all the work outside the home. It is notthat men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things.
Which of the following concepts have been reflected in this source?
(a) Communalism
(b) Sexual division of labour
(c) Family structure of India
(d) Society of India
Answer:
(b) Sexual division of labour

Explanation: Sexual division of labour entails stereotyping of labour-related works according to sexes. For example, works like cooking, cleaning and washing clothes have been categorised into works to be done by women while works Like earning and providing are categorised into works to be done by men.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Shree was livid. He wanted a wife who would cook for him, wash his clothes and take care of his ailing parents. Instead, Kriti was a woman or a man who believed in equal rights and opportunities for men and women. She wanted Shree to help her at home so she could also go for her job. She also wanted to provide for their family equally.
Which of the following words can replace the underlined sentence?
(a) Feminist
(b) Patriarch
(c) Ideal Housewife
(d) Modern
Answer:
(a) Feminist

Question 3.
Read the table given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers 1
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers 2
Which of the following is the reason for women’s income generating work figures being drastically less than those of men?
(a) Women work less
(b) Women sleep more
(c) The work of women remains invisible.
(d) The work of women is not worth money.
Answer:
(c) The work of women remains invisible.

Explanation: Work of the women remains invisible. The work done by men is more visible because most of their work leads to generation of income. A bulk of women’s work is household related and thus remains unpaid and invisible.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most tailors or cooks in hotels are men. Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. In villages, women fetch water, collect fuel and work in the fields. In urban areas, poor women work as domestic helpers in middle class homes, while middle class women work in offices. In fact the majority of women do some sort of paid work in addition to domestic labour. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition. The result of this division of labour is that although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
(A) Give a label to the tendency of stereotyping labour/works based on gender.
(a) Female exploitation
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
(c) Casteist Division of Labour
(d) Labour determinism
Answer:
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
Explanation: A system in which all work inside the home is either done by stereotyping or labelling of certain tasks as female-oriented and others as male oriented.

(B) Who does the employers discriminate against while paying wages?
(a) Women
(b) Men
(c) High Caste groups
(d) Middle Class groups
Answer:

(C) What do feminist movements stand for?
Answer:
Feminist women stand for equal political, social, employment related and educational opportunities for women.

(D) Assertion (A): Political movements and mobilisation helped women gain strength.
Reason(R): It helped them raise their voices against the indiscriminate practices.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits every household and records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the proportion of different religious communities in the country and how it has changed over the years.
Since Independence, the total population of each community has increased substantially but their proportion in the country’s population has not changed much. In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following committees is also called the Sachar Committee?
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee
(b) Home Affairs Committee
(c) NSSO
(d) Ministry of Statistics and High Committee
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Scheduled Tribes- Adivasis; Scheduled Castes- …………………
(a) Subcastes
(b) Outcastes
(c) Below Castes
(d) Tricaste
Answer:
(b) Outcastes

(C) Who of the following is the perfect definition of an atheist?
(a) Ram worships Lord Krishna and visits temples everyday.
(b) Srikanth does not wear any religious thread and does not let his brother wear any because he believes there is no supreme power.
(c) Ali does not eat any meat during holy month.
(d) Kriya visits the church every day.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following groups have declined in population since 1961?
(a) Hindus
(b) Scheduled Caste
(c) Muslims
(d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(a) Hindus

Which of the following groups have declined in population since 1961?

Explanation: In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. The proportion of Muslim, Sikh and Buddhist population has increased slightly.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Partly due to their efforts and partly due to other socio-economic changes, castes and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With economic development, large scale URBANISATION, growth of literacy and education, OCCUPATIONAL MOBILITY and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of CASTE HIERARCHY are breaking down.
Now, most of the times, in urban areas it does not matter much who is walking along next to us on a street or eating at the next table in a restaurant. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system. If a person who lived a century ago were to return to India, she would be greatly surprised at the change that has come about in the country. Yet caste has not disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the older aspects of caste have persisted.

Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders have contributed in changing the caste system?
(a) EVRPeriyar
(b) Abdul Kalam
(c) Pt. Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(a) EV R Periyar

(B) Which of the following has not been instrumental in changing the Caste system in India?
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Growth of literacy and education
(c) Occupational Mobility
(d) Change in geography of a country
Answer:
(d) Change in geography of a country

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
……………. is an old aspect of caste which has persisted even today.
(a) Caste marriages
(b) Widow remarriage
(c) Untouchability
(d) Child marriage
Answer:
(c) Untouchability
Explanation: Other social issues do not relate to Caste groups in general.

(D) Which of the following is the correct definition of Caste Hierarchy?
(a) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all caste groups are placed from the ‘highest’ to the ‘lowest’ caste.
(b) Caste hierarchy is a pool of castes.
(c) Caste hierarchy is a bucket of castes where they are arranged according to alphabets.
(d) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all lingual groups are attached.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Unlike gender differences, the religious differences are often expressed in the field of politics.
Consider the following: Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics. What he meant by religion was not any particular religion like Hinduism or Islam but moral values that inform all religions. He believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from religion. Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are people from religious minorities. They have demanded that the government take special steps to protect religious Minorities. Women’s movement has argued that FAMILY LAWS of all religions discriminate against women. So they have demanded that governments should change these laws to make them more equitable.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following beliefs about religion and Politics were that of Gandhiji?
(a) Religion and politics can never be together.
(b) Religion and politics complete each other.
(c) Religion is important for politics to be ethical
(d) Politics is important for religion to sustain.
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?
(a) Religion as the basis of the nation.
(b) One religion pitted against the other.
(c) State with an official religion.
(d) Religion-less state.
Answer:
(d) Religion-less state.
Explanation: Religion causes communalism when expressed negatively. A religion-less state will never face the issue of communalism.

(C) Which of the following groups form a religious minority?
(a) Scheduled Castes
(b) Jains
(c) Children below 2 years
(d) Underprivileged people
Answer:
(c) Jains
Explanation: The other three are not religious minorities.

(D) Which of the following laws are discriminatory according to women?
(a) Civic Laws
(b) Criminal Laws
(c) Family Laws
(d) Moral Laws
Answer:
(c) Family Laws
Explanation: The other three are non- discriminatory towards any group.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention one special feature of the caste system in India?
Answer:
In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to another. Occupational divisions are sanctioned by rituals.

Question 2.
Name a few political leaders and social reformers who advocated and worked to establish a society without any inequalities
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Scheduled’ denote in ‘Scheduled castes’ and ‘Scheduled tribes’?
Answer:
These groups include hundreds of castes or tribes whose names are listed in an official Schedule in the Indian Constitution. Hence, they are called Scheduled.

Question 4.
What was the child sex ratio in India in the 2011 census?
Answer:
The child sex ratio is 919 females to 1000 males.

Question 5.
Read the following information and write a single term for it.
The Constitution of India provides freedom to profess and practice any religion to all its citizens. The Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on religious grounds.
Answer:
The Constitution of India promotes Secularism.

Question 6.
“Caste system is still prevalent in the Indian society.” Suggest anyone measure to abolish it.
Answer:
Casteism can be abolished by providing educational, employment opportunities, and health facilities to all the citizens of the country without any prejudice or discrimination.

Question 7.
“Sometimes elections are all about castes in India.” How can this situation be avoided?
Answer:

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression.
Answer:
Educating women can help them stay aware. This way, they can also learn about various laws made for their protection and save themselves from domestic oppression.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 9.
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various communities of India.
Answer:
One way to create communal harmony among communities is to respect and accept all religions equally.

Question 10.
Suggest any one way to change ‘family laws’ of all religions.
Answer:

Question 11.
How much representation do local governments provide for women in India?
Answer:
One-Third of all the seats present in the institutions are reserved for women.

Question 12.
What do you mean by patriarchal society?
Answer:
Patriarchal society is a male-dominated social system wherein males hold primary and maximum power. In this society, women are not given equal chances.

Question 13.
In which constitutional institution have seats been reserved for women?
Answer:
Local Self Government bodies.

Question 14.
By what term is a p jrson known who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women?
Answer:
Feminist

Question 15.
State any one provision in the Indian constitution which makes India a secular state.
Answer:

Question 16.
Has the caste system really disappeared from India? Justify with reasons.
Answer:
No, the Caste System has not disappeared. Politics is still dominated by religion and caste.

Question 17.
What is urbanisation ?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the shift of population from rural areas to urban areas.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Question 18.
Mention any one of the factors that are decisive in elections.
Answer:

Question 19.
Stdte any one negative result of paying exclusive attention to caste in a democracy.
Answer:
This can lead to diversion of interest and attention from poverty, development and corruption.

Question 20.
How has the relationship between caste and economic status changed?
Answer:
It is possible to find very rich and very poor people in every caste which was not true decades ago. Thus , there are cases where caste and economic status are different.

Question 21.
Define Below Poverty line?
Answer:
Below the poverty line means those who spent Rs. 327 or less per person per month in rural and Rs. 454 or less per person per month in urban areas

Question 22.
What is sexual division of labour ?
Answer:
It is a system in which work is divided based on one’s gender.

Explanation: All work inside the home is either done by the women of the family, or organised by them through the domestic helpers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Local Governments with Answers

Local Governments Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Local Governments with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Local Governments Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Local Governments MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 8 MCQs On Local Governments

Local Government Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following Rural Local Government system exists in Haryana?
(a) Two-tier system
(b) One-tier system
(c) Three-tier system
(d) Four-tier system

Answer

Answer: (c) Three-tier system


MCQ Of Local Government Class 11 Question 2.
In India, the women Sarpanch at the Gram Panchayat level are
(a) 5000
(b) Less than 20,000
(c) Approx. 50,000
(d) More than 80,000

Answer

Answer: (d) More than 80,000


Class 11 Local Government MCQ Question 3.
The term of each Panchayat body is
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 years
(c) 6 months
(d) 5 years

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 years


Local Government MCQ Class 11 Question 4.
According to 73rd Amendment, the tenure of Panchayats in all states is:
(a) Six years
(b) Three years
(c) Five years
(d) Four years

Answer

Answer: (c) Five years


MCQ On Local Government Class 11 Question 5.
______ government is about the government closest to the common people.
(a) Local
(b) Union
(c) State
(d) Provincial

Answer

Answer: (a) Local


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 6.
The first State in the country to adopt the Panchayati Raj System on 2nd October 1959 was
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Orrisa

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan


Class 11 Political Science Local Government MCQ Question 7.
In the total revenue collection of India, the contribution of the rural local bodies is
(a) 0.10%
(b) 0.18%
(c) 0.20%
(d) 0.24%

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.24%


MCQs Of Local Government Class 11 Question 8.
In 1989, P.K. Thungon Committee recommended the constitutional recognition of
(a) Local government bodies
(b) Consumer courts
(c) Planning commission
(d) Financial commission for states

Answer

Answer: (a) Local government bodies


Local Government Class 11 MCQs Question 9.
The maximum duration of Municipalities is
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 6 years

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 years


Local Govt Class 11 MCQ Question 10.
In Bolivia, the law that decentralized the power at the local level is
(a) Presidential Law
(b) Decentralized Law
(c) Popular Participation Law
(d) Popular Decentralized Law

Answer

Answer: (c) Popular Participation Law


Class 11 Political Science Chapter Local Government MCQ Question 11.
Panchayats have been established in:
(a) Villages
(b) Town
(c) Small city
(d) Big city

Answer

Answer: (a) Villages


Local Government Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 12.
Which of the following is not an institution of Rural Local Government?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Zila Parishad
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Gram Sabha

Answer

Answer: (c) Municipal Corporation


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life with Answers

Writing and City Life Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Writing and City Life Class 11 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 2 MCQs On Writing and City Life

Writing And City Life MCQ Questions Question 1.
From which wordCuneiform is derived?
(a) Latin
(b) Greek
(c) Chinese
(d) Mayan

Answer

Answer: (a) Latin


Writing And City Life MCQ Question 2.
Which language replaced the Sumerian language after 2400 BCE?
(a) Mesopotamian language
(b) Akkadian language
(c) Chinese language
(d) Middle Eastern language

Answer

Answer: (b) Akkadian language


Class 11 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
In the 2000 BCE, the city that flourished as the royal capital of Mesopotamia was
(a) Ur
(b) Mari
(c) Mohenjodaro
(d) Kalibangan

Answer

Answer: (b) Mari


Writing And City Life Class 11 MCQ Question 4.
With which person, the first event of Sumerian trade is associated?
(a) The ancient ruler of Uruk City, Enmerkar
(b) The ancient ruler of Lebanon City, Enmerkar
(c) The ancient ruler of Nile City, Enmerkar
(d) The ancient ruler of Aral City, Enmerkar

Answer

Answer: (a) The ancient ruler of Uruk City, Enmerkar


Class 11 History Ch 2 MCQ Question 5.
Inanna was the Goddess of
(a) the Moon
(b) love and War
(c) wind
(d) fire

Answer

Answer: (b) love and War


Class 11 History Chapter 2 MCQ Questions Question 6.
The earliest temples in Southern Mesopotamia were built-in
(a) c.4000 BCE
(b) c.5000 BCE
(c) c.6000 BCE
(d) c.7000 BCE

Answer

Answer: (b) c.5000 BCE


MCQ Of Writing And City Life Question 7.
Mesopotamian weapons were prominently made of
(a) bronze
(b) copper
(c) stone
(d) iron

Answer

Answer: (a) bronze


Class 11 History Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
The Mesopotamian city, which was systematically excavated in the 1930s, was
(a) Uruk
(b) Ur
(c) Mari
(d) Nineveh

Answer

Answer: (b) Ur


Writing And City Life MCQ Questions Pdf Question 9.
The Achaemenids of Iran conquered Babylon in
(a) 639 BCE
(b) 539 BCE
(c) 439 BCE
(d) 339 BCE

Answer

Answer: (b) 539 BCE


History Class 11 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
The King who released Babylonia from Assyrian domination in 625 BCE was
(a) Alexander
(b) Nabonidus
(c) Nabopolassar
(d) Sargon

Answer

Answer: (c) Nabopolassar


History Chapter 2 Class 11 MCQ Question 11.
The technological landmark witnessed by the urban economy of the city of Uruk was
(a) bronze tools
(b) construction of brick columns
(c) potter’s wheel
(d) oil pressing technique

Answer

Answer: (c) potter’s wheel


Writing And City Life Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 12.
War captives and local people who were put to work for the temple or for the ruler were paid
(a) bronze tools
(b) cattle
(c) coins
(d) rations

Answer

Answer: (d) rations


Ch 2 History Class 11 MCQ Question 13.
In ______ part of southern Iran, the first cities and writing emerged.
(a) plain
(b) deserted
(c) mountainous
(d) hilly

Answer

Answer: (b) deserted


MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 2 Question 14.
The Mesopotamian ruler who became the king of Akkad, in 2370 BCE, was
(a) Enmerkar
(b) Gilgamesh
(c) Hammurabi
(d) Sargon

Answer

Answer: (d) Sargon


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Class 11 History with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

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Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Money and Credit

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The exchange of goods for goods is a process of ………………
(a) Buying goods through currency
(b) Selling goods through currency
(c) Bartering goods
(d) Making goods
Answer:
(c) Bartering goods

Money And Credit MCQ Question 2.
What portion of deposits is essential for the banks to maintain in liquid cash for their day to day transaction?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Answer:
(b) 15%

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following statements is an essential feature of barter system?
(a) Money can easily be used to buy any commodity or service.
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.
(c) The barter system promises payments at a later date than the day of transaction.
(d) The barter system helps the people to buy and sell goods easily and quickly.
Answer:
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

MCQ On Money And Credit Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following agencies issues currency notes on behalf of the government of India?
(a) The Finance Minister of India issues them.
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.
(c) All the banks of the country can issue notes.
(d) World Bank issues notes
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQs Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a modern form of money?
(a) Paper currency
(b) Demand Deposits
(c) Coins
(d) Precious metals
Answer:
(d) Precious metals

Explanation: Gold, Silver and Copper were used to make coins in ancient times.

Class 10 Money And Credit MCQ Question 6.
Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits as cash with themselves?
(a) To extend loan to the poor
(b) To extend loan facility
(c) To pay salary to their staff
(d) To pay the depositors who might come to withdraw the money.
Answer:

MCQ Money And Credit Question 7.
Which of the following refers to investment?
(a) The money spent on religious ceremonies.
(b) The money spent on social customs.
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.
(d) The money spent on household goods.
Answer:
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10th Question 8.
Which one of the following is a formal source of credit?
(a) Traders
(b) Cooperative sectors
(c) Money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives
Answer:
(b) Cooperative sector

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10 Question 9.
Which among the following issues currency notes on behalf of the central government?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank of India
(d) Union Bank of India
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India is the monitoring agency and the Central Bank of India that issues currency on behalf of the Government of India. No other person can issue any legalised currency. Other banks are all involved in public dealing of money but don’t issue any currency.

MCQs Of Money And Credit Question 10.
Which one of the following options is NOT correct about a typical Self-Help Group?
(a) It has 15-20 members
(b) It does not have any male members.
(c) Its members usually belonging to one neighbourhood
(d) Saving per member varies in it.
Answer:
(b) It does not have any male members.

MCQ Of Chapter Money And Credit Class 10 Question 11.
What percentage of their deposits as cash, do the banks in India keep with themselves?
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 12 per cent
(d) 10 per cent
Answer:

MCQs On Money And Credit Question 12.
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because:
(a) It is authorized by the government of India
(b) It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) It is legalised as a medium of payment in India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Money And Credit MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Find the incorrect option:
(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque
Answer:
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 14.
What do people do with the extra cash in hand? Choose the most correct option from the following:
(a) They deposit it with one of the informal lenders
(b) They deposit it with an NGO
(c) They deposit it with the bank manager
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.
Answer:
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Money And Credit MCQ Questions Question 15.
When do people have the provision to withdraw money? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:
(a) They can withdraw money at the time of severe illness
(b) They cannot withdraw money before it reaches to it maturity level.
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require.

Explanation: People deposit money with the bonks by opening a bank account in their name and receive an amount as interest from the bank on this deposit which can be withdrawn by them as and when they require it.

Related Theory
Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.

Question 16.
Money borrowed from banks and cooperative societies comes under which source of credit?
(a) Informal
(b) Formal
(c) Semi-Formal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Formal

Explanation: Formal sources of credit include Banks and Cooperative Societies which: provide credit at the low rate of interest to the borrowers and are regulated and supervised by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government in India.

Related Theory
The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and peer groups. Such lenders are not monitored or regulated by any agency. Most of the times, lenders fix extremely high rates of interest and push borrowers into debt traps through their informal rules.

Unorganized sources of Credit correspond to Informal sources of credit and cannot be trusted.

Question 17.
In a self-help group most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by which one of the following:
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) NGOs
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Members

Question 18.
Formal sources of credit do not include
(a) Banks
(b) Cooperatives
(c) Employers
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Employers

Explanation: Employers, moneylenders, neighbors, friends, relatives etc fall under informal sources of credit who charge high interest on loans that they give to the borrowers.

Question 19.
Arrange the following forms of currency according to their usage from oldest to recent use:
(i) Paper Currency
(ii) Grain and cattle
(iii) Coins
(iv) Net banking and digital payments
(a) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)
(c) (i)-(ii)-(iiii)-(iv)
(d) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)

Explanation: In early times, Grain and Cattle were used as barter to buy items of necessity. This was later replaced by silver, gold and copper coins. Post the invention of paper, paper currency dominated the scene. Today net banking and digital payments have replaced paper currency.

Question 20.
Bank deposits are also called
(a) Collateral
(b) Demand deposits
(c) Cheque
(d) Currency
Answer:
(b) Demand deposits

Explanation: Banks provide the facility of depositing surplus cash of citizens safely. They also provide interest on this deposit. Customers can withdraw or deposit cash at any time according to their demand. Hence this is called a demand deposit.

Question 21.
Terms of credit do not include:
(a) Bank deposits
(b) Interest rate
(c) Collateral
(d) Mode of repayment
Answer:
(a) Bank deposits

Terms of credit do not include:

Explanation: Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment together comprise what is called the terms of credit. Together, they are all that a lender or borrower needs to consider before borrowing or lending money.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 22.
Rampur is an area where 80% people borrow money from the bank while 10% don’t borrow and the rest 10% take it from their friends, relatives or local moneylenders. Where will Rampur be situated?
(a) In an Urban Region
(b) Semi-Urban area
(c) In a Rural region
(d) Capital of a country
Answer:
(a) In an Urban Region

Explanation: Rampur is located in an area with proper access to banks, however not all the people are convinced borrowers from the bank. In an urban area, most people go to the bank while some people might also resort to friends and relatives for money, due to small or extremely urgent need.

Related Theory
The country’s capital is generally a High-tech city with all educated and skilled people. Hence Rampur can’t be a Capital. It cannot be situated in a rural area because of the large number of banks and easy accessibility. It cannot be a Semi-urban area due to similar reasons.

Question 23.
Find the correct option:
(a) Collateral is what pushes the lender in to a painful debt trap situation.
(b) Collateral is the amount that RBI gets from other banks.
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.
(d) Collateral does not include jewellery.
Answer:
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.

Explanation: Collateral acts like a guarantee to a lender until loan is repaid, if the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender can reimburse his loan by selling the collateral or confiscating it.

Related Theory
Property such as land titles, deposits with banks(Jewellery, bonds), livestock are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing. Collateral is a safety valve to lender’s benefit. It does not put the lender in a debt trap because lender lends and not borrows.

Identify

Question 24.
Identify the financial institution on basis of the hints given:
(1) Monitors other Banks
(2) Regulates lending activities
(3) Issues Currencies
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 25.
Banks and cooperatives are informal sources of credit.
Answer:
False
Banks and cooperatives are formal sources of credit.

Explanation: Informal sources of credit are locaL moneylenders, sahukars, jewelers, relatives or friends who lend without any proper documentation and charge exorbitant rates of interest. Banks and Cooperatives are backed by the government and hence are formal sources of credit.

Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of Barter system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 27.
………….. is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.
Answer:
Collateral

Explanation: Property such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, jewellery, bonds deposits with banks are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing.

Match the Columns

Choose the correct pairs option from the following:
Match the correct people involved in a variety of occupations with the appropriate reason they might borrow money for:

Column A Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver (i) To buy a house
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down (ii) To buy a shop of his own
(c) Small trader (iii) To revive his business
(d) A person in government service (iv) To buy his own vehicle

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver (iv) To buy his own vehicle
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down (iii) To revive his business
(c) Small trader (ii) To buy a shop of his own
(d) A person in government service (i) To buy a house

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 3

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Not all the money that is deposited in the bank by the depositors is kept by the banks themselves.
Reason (R): They use it to further extend loans to people so that the difference between interest earned and interest is given can be further invested and the chain will continue to go on.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of people. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). They don’t invest the interest earned again, they use it to provide income to their employees.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender does not have the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.
Reason (R): Collateral acts like a guarantee against the borrowed money.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another.
Reason (R): Interest rates, time periods vary from one arrangement to other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas.
Reason (R): They pool their funds together.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Cooperatives are formed with the purposes of sharing resources and collecting resources.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): This is done to ensure the rich get enough loans.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Banks have to submit periodical reports and this is done to ensure appropriate amounts of loans are given to the poor and vulnerable classes.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Match the items in Column A to those in Column B

Column A (Organisation)

Column B(Its Field of Interest)

(A) NSSO  (I) Data on Self Help Groups
(B) NABARD  (II) Economic planning
(C) RBI  (III) Formal and Informal Sector Credit data and survey
(D) NITI AAYOG  (IV) Monitors the banks and credit activities

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 2.
Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers 1
Currency in the era of kings were made from:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper
(b) Ivory and Bones
(c) Grains and Water
(d) Rice and Water
Answer:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 3.
Rita has taken a loan of ? 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments.
The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
Analyse the loan information given above, and point out which one of the following is the correct option that describes the above statements accurately.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
Who legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India?
(a) SBI
(b) Indian Law
(c) RBI
(d) The constitution of France
Answer:
(b) Indian Law

Question 5.
Observe the picture carefully.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers 2
Describe this image in your own words.
Answer:
This image showcases a meeting of a women self-help group.

Explanation: A typical Self Help Group has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save money regularly. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs on smaller rates of interest.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(A) The Cooperatives can be classified into sector.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) Mixed
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(a) Formal
Explanation: Cooperatives are registered and monitored by regulating authorities.

(B) The cooperatives lend without which of the following terms of credit:
(a) Collateral
(b) Interest Rate
(c) Identification
(d) Specific time period for repayment
Answer:
(a) Collateral

(C) Name one type of cooperative mentioned in the source.
Answer:

(D) Assertion (A): Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans.
Reason(R): Formal sector loans need less paperwork.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans because the former have no paperwork or documentation. It leads lenders into debt traps.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Swapna, a small farmer, grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation, hoping that her harvest would help repay the loan. Midway through the season the crop is hit by pests and the crop fails. Though Swapna sprays her crops with expensive pesticides, it makes little difference. She is unable to repay the moneylender and the debt grows over the year into a large amount. Next year, Swapna takes a fresh loan for cultivation. It is a normal crop this year. But the earnings are not enough to cover the old loan. She is caught in debt. She has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Swapna obtains credit from which of the following sectors?
(a) Formal Sector
(b) Informal Sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(b) Informal Sector

(B) Which of the following conditions holds true for Swapna?
(a) Her crop was destroyed and this raised her income.
(b) She borrowed from the moneylender and it did not do anything to add to her incomes and thus it was a bad credit.
(c) She was easily able to pay back what she borrowed.
(d) The credit was good but Swapna was not a good farmer.
Answer:

(C) How could Swapna improve her situation?
(a) She could borrow more.
(b) She could borrow less.
(c) She could stop farming.
(d) She could borrow form bank
Answer:
(d) She could borrow from banks.
Explanation: Formal Sector lends at a lowest rate and thus helps the lender to actually increase his income and lifestyle.

(D) What does Swapna’s situation portray about the rural households and credit?
(a) Rural Households cannot handle credit.
(b) Rural Households need more credit.
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from Informal sources.
(d) Rural Households borrow throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from informal sources.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighborhood, who meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from Rs. 25 to Rs. 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. The loan is sanctioned in the name of the group and is meant to create self-employment opportunities for the members.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Apart from saving and lending, what else is the Self Help Group useful for?
(a) It is a place for taking political decisions
(b) It is a place for discussing social issues
(c) It is a place for entertainment
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: The regular meetings of the group provide a platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as health, nutrition, domestic violence, etc.

(B) What is their saving per member in the group?
(a) Between 20-100 rupees
(b) Below 20 rupees
(c) Above 100 rupees
(d) Varies with states
Answer:
(a) Between 20-100 rupees

(C) What does a Self Help Group have to do to become eligible to borrow from the bank?
(a) Save more
(b) Spend more
(c) Save regularly
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly
Answer:
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly

What does a Self Help Group have to do to become eligible to borrow from the bank?

Explanation: After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.

(D) Who takes the decisions regarding the savings and loan activities in a Self Help Group?
(a) Head of the Self Help Group
(b) Mayor
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group
Answer:
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers buy these inputs and when they sell the crop. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the Loan after harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming. Credit, instead of helping Swapna improve her earnings, left her worse off. This is an example of what is commonly called debt-trap. Credit in this case pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following will be an appropriate reason farmers can lend money?
(I) to arrange for funds for sister’s marriage.
(II) to buy a new factory
(III) to build a new swimming pool
(IV) to buy new fertiliser
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Answer:
(c) (I) & (IV) only

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Farmers generally borrow loans from sector.
(a) Unorganised
(b) Organised
(c) Formal
(d) Informal
Answer:
(a) Unorganised

(C) Which of the following situations will lead to a debt trap?
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.
(b) When loans help to increase the income, a debt trap is formed.
(c) When loans are paid on time, a debt trap is formed.
(d) When loans are borrowed again and again, a debt trap is formed.
Answer:
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.

(D) Which role does credit play according to the situation given in the source?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Negative

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
They charge different rates of interest on the money they loan and the deposits of the customers. The difference forms their revenue and source of income.

Question 2.
Why do farmers require credit?
Answer:
Farmers require credit to buy seeds, fertilisers or other equipment related to farming apart from personal or family needs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 3.
M. Salim wants to withdraw Rs. 20,000 in cash for making payments to Prem after Prem receives the money he deposits it in his own account? What is the result?
(a) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases and Prem’s balance increases.
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.
(c) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases, and Prem’s balance decreases.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.

Question 4.
Why is the higher cost of borrowing bad for investors?
Answer:

Question 5.
Why is it difficult for poor people to get loans from the Banks?
Answer:
It is difficult because often they do not have the required collateral or documents necessary for borrowing money.

Question 6.
Krishna is working in a neighboring field on very less wage. Expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family are also met through loans. The landowner charges an interest rate of 5% per month. At present, she owes the landowner ₹ 5,000.
Analyse his credit arrangements given above.
Answer:

Question 7.
How is money beneficial in transactions?
Answer:
Money has made transactions easy as it solves the problem of double coincidence of wants by acting as a medium of exchange.

Related Theory
Double coincidence of wants occurs when two individuals swap their goods, in exchange for one another’s. This is also referred to as the ‘perfect barter exchange’.

Question 8.
Give one example each of modern currency and older currency.
Answer:
Examples of modem currency are paper bills/notes, coins, credit cards etc., whereas examples of older currency are coins made of precious metals like gold or silver and also terracotta coins, etc.

Related Theory
Money can be defined as anything that acts as medium of exchange, store of value and unit of accounting to facilitate the economic activities and transactions.

Question 9.
Explain the inherent problem of the ‘barter system’.
Answer:

Question 10.
Why are demand deposits considered as money?
Answer:
Demand deposits are considered as money because they can be withdrawn from the bank as and when needed. Also, they are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque instead of cash.

Related Theory
People with surplus money or extra amount deposit it in banks. Banks keep the money safe and give an interest on it. The deposits can be drawn at any time on demand by the depositors. That is why they are called demand deposits.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 11.
Which bank issues ‘currency notes’ in Indie on behalf of the central government?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India on behalf of federal government.

Related Theory
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and monitors the working of other banks and also plays the role of a bank to other banks as well as the government

Question 12.
How do the deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
Banks use a major portion of its deposits to extend loans to people, for which they charge high interests and this is how the deposits with banks become their source of income.

Related Theory
The banks mediate between the depositors and the borrowers. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they pay on the deposits. The difference between the interest charged from the borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is, thus, the main source of income for the banks.

Question 13.
Why is money called a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Money is accepted as a ‘medium of exchange’ because it acts as an intermediary in the process of exchange. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service.

Related Theory
Money helps to facilitate trade because people in the economy generally recognise it as valuable. Earlier, barter system was used as a medium of exchange and later, gold was adopted as an intermediary.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 14.
What can be the alternative mode of payment in place of cash money?
Answer:
Cheques and demand deposits’ are two alternative modes of payment that can be used in place of cash money.

Related Theory
Digital payment through the internet and mobile wallets is also a good alternative for cash. Plastic money like credit and debit cards are also used instead of cash in the market.

Question 15.
Explain the meaning of currency.
Answer:
Currency in the form of money: paper notes and coins.

Question 16.
How is a double coincidence of wants not appreciable in the contemporary scenario?
Answer:
Double coincidence of wants not appreciable: What a person desires to sell is exactly not what the other wishes to buy.

Question 17.
Why do banks ask for collateral while giving loans?
Answer:
Banks use collateral as a guarantee until the loan is repaid.

Question 18.
How do the Demand Deposits offer facilities
Answer:
Demand Deposits offer facilities as:
It offers essential characteristics of money/ Safe transfer of money.

Question 19.
What is credit?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Question 20.
What are formal sources of credit?
Answer:
Banks and Cooperative societies which charge less interest on loan are called formal sources of credit.

Question 21.
Give one reason that prevents a rural poor from getting a formal loan.
Answer:
Lack of collateral

Question 22.
What is a cheque?
Answer:
A cheques is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 23.
What do terms of credit include?
Answer:
The terms of credit include interest rate, collateral, documentation requirement, mode of payment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ: