MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers

Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Forest and Wildlife Resources

Choose the correct option:

Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India
(a) Peepal
(b) Neem
(c) Banyan
(d) Mango

Answer

Answer: (b) Neem


Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of many species due to
(a) Industrial development
(b) Agricultural expansion
(c) Port activities
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: (d) Mining


Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
What was the aim of Chipko movement?
(a) Human rights
(b) Political rights
(c) Agricultural expansion
(d) Forest conservation

Answer

Answer: (d) Forest conservation


Geography Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
The Mundas and Santhals of Chhota Nagpur region worship which one of the following trees?
(a) Mahua
(b) Mango
(c) Peepal
(d) Tamarind

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahua


Geography Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
The species which are in danger of extinction are called:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endangered species
(d) Normal species

Answer

Answer: (c) Endangered species


Ch 2 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
The Himalayan brown bear is an example of:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endemic species
(d) Extinct species

Answer

Answer: (b) Rare species


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Question 7.
The Asian cheetah was declared extinct in India in the year:
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 2010
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (b) 1952


MCQ Of Chapter 2 Geography Class 10 Question 8.
The Himalayan yew is:
(a) an insect
(b) a medicinal plant
(c) a mammal
(d) a bird

Answer

Answer: (b) a medicinal plant


Geography Ch 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forests in:
(a) Ganga Plain
(b) South India
(c) Brahmaputra Plain
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) South India


Class 10 Geo Ch 2 MCQ Question 10.
How many tiger reserves are there in India:
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 27
(d) 29

Answer

Answer: (c) 27


Ch 2 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India?
(a) Peepal
(b) Neem
(c) Banyan
(d) Mango

Answer

Answer: (b) Neem


Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India?

Class 10th Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 12.
India has nearly …………… percent of total number of species in the world
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 8


Cbse Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 13.
When was Asiatic Cheetah declared extinct in India?
(a) in 1958
(b) in 1989
(c) in 1922
(d) in 1952

Answer

Answer: (d) in 1952


Chapter 2 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The Buxa Tiger Reserve is situated in which of the following states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat
(d) Orissa

Answer

Answer: (b) West Bengal


Class 10 Geo Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
How many species of flora are found in India?
(a) 81000
(b) 47000
(c) 15000
(d) 41000

Answer

Answer: (b) 47000


Question 16.
Sariska wildlife sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajasthan


Question 17.
Which one of the following belongs to vulnerable species?
(a) Black buck
(b) Crocodile
(c) Indian rhino
(d) Blue sheep

Answer

Answer: (d) Blue sheep


Question 18.
Which of the following types of species are known as the extinct species?
(a) Species whose population levels are normal
(b) Whose population has declined
(c) Species with small population
(d) Species which are not found

Answer

Answer: (d) Species which are not found


Question 19.
Which one of the following states has the largest area under permanent forests?
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh


Question 20.
Which of the following is an extinct species?
(a) Blue sheep
(b) Asiatic cheetah
(c) Black buck
(d) Asiatic elephant

Answer

Answer: (b) Asiatic cheetah


Question 21.
Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individuals and government are known as:
(a) Sacred groves
(b) Reserved forest
(c) Protected forests
(d) Unclassed forests

Answer

Answer: (d) Unclassed forests


Question 22.
Which of the following species was included for the first time in list of protected species in 1991?
(a) Insects
(b) Fishes
(c) Plants
(d) Reptiles

Answer

Answer: (c) Plants


Question 23.
In which of the following states, a very high percentage of its forests is managed by local communities?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh


Question 24.
What is the Himalayan Yew?
(a) A type of deer
(b) A medicinal plant
(c) A species of bird
(d) A food crop grown in the Himalayas

Answer

Answer: (b) A medicinal plant


What is the Himalayan Yew?

Question 25.
Cleaning of forests is still continuing in Madhya Pradesh mainly due to which of the following reasons?
(a) Dolomite mining
(b) Commercial plantations
(c) Industrialisaiton and urbanisation
(d) Narmada Sagar (River Valley) Project

Answer

Answer: (d) Narmada Sagar (River Valley) Project


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Forest and Wildlife Resources CBSE Class 10 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity with Answers

Democracy and Diversity Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Democracy and Diversity Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Democracy and Diversity

Choose the correct option:

Democracy And Diversity Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The Civil Rights Movement in the US was led by
(a) Martin Luther King Sr.
(b) Martin Luther King Jr.
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Abraham Lincoln

Answer

Answer: (b) Martin Luther King Jr.


Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Homogeneous societies exist in
(a) Germany
(b) Sweden
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)


Democracy And Diversity MCQ Question 3.
The Black Power Movement emerged in
(a) 1966
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: (a) 1966


Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 4.
African-Americans were the descendants of
(a) Americans
(b) Africans
(c) Indians
(d) Germans

Answer

Answer: (b) Africans


African-Americans were the descendants of

The Diversity In Social Life Is Reflected In MCQ Question 5.
The aim of the Civil Rights Movement was to end
(a) child abuse in the UK
(b) racism in the US
(c) slavery in France
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) racism in the US


MCQ Of Democracy And Diversity Class 10 Question 6.
Which one of the following statements is not correct about social division?
(a) Too many small divisions are better than a single big division.
(b) Politics is a force of unity when expressions of various kinds of social divisions occur.
(c) It is only in countries like India that we have social divisions.
(d) Assertion of social diversities in a country need not be seen as a source of danger.

Answer

Answer: (c) It is only in countries like India that we have social divisions.


Ch 3 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
What does the “Civil Rights Movement of USA” signify?
(a) A movement against the discrimination
(b) A reform movement for the Civil Rights of the citizens
(c) A reform movement against the social discriminations of Afro-Americans
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) A reform movement against the social discriminations of Afro-Americans


Democracy And Diversity Class 10 MCQ Test Question 8.
Which three countries faced the problem of social division?
(a) United Kingdom, USA and India
(b) Belgium, Sri Lanka and United Kingdom
(c) Sri Lanka, Canada and India
(d) Belgium, Germany and USA

Answer

Answer: (b) Belgium, Sri Lanka and United Kingdom


MCQ On Democracy And Diversity Question 9.
African – American is the term used for:
(a) Africans who were brought into America as slaves
(b) Black Americans of America
(c) Martin Luther and his group
(d) John Corlos and Smith

Answer

Answer: (a) Africans who were brought into America as slaves


Class 10 Democracy And Diversity MCQ Question 10.
To show his support to the protesting. American athletes during the award ceremony of Mexico Olympics, Peter Norman
(a) wore no socks
(b) wore a human right badge
(c) wore a black scarf
(d) wore a string of beads

Answer

Answer: (b) wore a human right badge


Civics Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 11.
What is the society with similar kinds of people called?
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Humane
(d) Humble

Answer

Answer: (a) Homogeneous
Explanation:
Homogeneous society are the society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant ethnic differences.


Democracy And Diversity MCQs Question 12.
Name the prominent religious group in Northern Ireland and the Netherlands?
(a) Judaism
(b) Christianity
(c) Islam
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Christianity
Explanation:
Northern Ireland and the Netherlands both are predominantly Christian but divided between Catholics and Protestants.


MCQs Of Democracy And Diversity Question 13.
Which of the sentence is correct?
(a) Every social difference does not lead to social division
(b) Social differences divide similar people from one another
(c) They also unite very different people
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above
Explanation:
Every social difference does not lead to social division. Social differences divide similar people from one another, but they also unite very different people.


Ncert Solutions For Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Short Notes MCQ Question 14.
Who led the Civil Rights Movement in USA?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Martin Luther King Jr
(c) Martin Davis
(d) Benjamin Franklin

Answer

Answer: (b) Martin Luther King Jr
Explanation:
Civil Rights Movement in the USA (1954-1968) led by Martin Luther King Jr. refers to a set of events and reform movements aimed at abolishing legal racial discrimination against African-Americans.


Democracy And Diversity Class 10 MCQs Question 15.
Which of these sentences is not correct about the “Black Power Movement”?
(a) It emerged in 1966
(b) It lasted till 1975
(c) It was a more militant movement
(d) It advocated peaceful methods

Answer

Answer: (d) It advocated peaceful methods
Explanation:
The Black Power movement emerged in 1966 and lasted till 1975, which was a more militant anti-racist movement, advocating even violence if necessary to end racism in the US.


Question 16.
Which one of these example of not accommodating other communities demands?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) Belgium
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (d) Both a and b
Explanation:
The Tamil community in Sri Lanka and in Yugoslavia, the leaders of different ethnic communities presented their demands in such a way that these could not be accommodated within a single country.


Question 17.
Dealing with social divisions which one of the following statement is not correct about democracy?
(a) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity.
(b) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.
(c) In a democracy, it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner.
(d) Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.

Answer

Answer: (b) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.
Explanation:
Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity. In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner. Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.


Question 18.
When did the Nationalists and the UK government arrive at an agreement?
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1998
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (c) 1998
Explanation:
It was only in 1998 that the UK government and the Nationalists government arrive at an agreement.


Question 19.
Which of these sentence is correct?
(a) The Catholics in Northern Ireland were represented by Nationalist parties.
(b) They demand Northern Ireland should be unified with the Republic of Ireland.
(c) Republic of Ireland was a predominantly Catholic country.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The Catholics were represented by Nationalist parties who demanded that Northern Ireland be unified with the Republic of Ireland, a predominantly Catholic country.


Which of these sentence is correct?

Question 20.
Which of these sentences is not true?
(a) Democracy involves competition among various political parties.
(b) Their competition tends to unite the country if they compete in terms of existing social divisions.
(c) Social divisions change into political division and lead to conflict, violence etc.
(d) It can even lead to the disintegration the country.

Answer

Answer: (b) Their competition tends to unite the country if they compete in terms of existing social divisions.
Explanation:
Democracy involves competition among various political parties. Social divisions change into political divisions and lead to conflict, violence etc. It can even lead to the disintegration the country.


Source-based Questions:

Read the following conversation taken from Textbook Page 31.

Let us Debate

Some Dalit groups decided to participate in the UN Conference Against Racism in Durban in 2001, demanding the inclusion of caste in the agenda of this conference. Here are three reactions to this move: Amandeep Kaur (a government official): Our Constitution declares caste discrimination to be illegal. If some caste discrimination continues, it is an internal matter. I am opposed to this being raised in an international forum.

Oinam (a sociologist): I am opposed to this because caste and race are not similar divisions. Caste is a social division, while race is a biological one. Raising caste in this conference on racism would mean equating the two.

Ashok (a Dalit activist): The argument about internal matter is a way of preventing open discussion of oppression and discrimination. Race is not purely biological. It is as much a legal and sociological category as caste. Caste discrimination must be raised in this conference.

Question:
Which of the three opinions do you agree with most and why?

Answer

Answer:
I do agree with the opinion expressed by Ashok who is a dalit activist. He is right in saying that the issue of caste discrimination need to be raised in an international forum along with the issue of racism. Unless there is an open discussion of oppression and discrimination, these issues continue to exist in our societies.


Picture-based Questions:

Look at the following cartoon taken from NCERT Textbook Page 32 and answer the question that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: The above cartoon focuses on the difference between the Blacks and Whites that existed in the US some decades ago. The blacks were poor and discriminated against whereas the whites were all powerful and exploited the blacks.


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Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights with Answers

Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Consumer Rights Class 10 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On Consumer Rights

Choose the correct option:

Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following days is being observed as ‘National Consumers Day’ in India?
(a) 24 December
(b) 25 December
(c) 10 December
(d) 31 december

Answer

Answer: (a) 24 December


Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
ISI mark can be seen on which of the following items?
(a) Jewellery
(b) Edible oil
(c) Electrical appliances
(d) Cereals

Answer

Answer: (c) Electrical appliances


ISI mark can be seen on which of the following items?

Consumer Rights MCQ Question 3.
‘Hallmark’ is used as a logo for which one of the following?
(a) Agricultural products
(b) Jewellery
(c) Electrical goods
(d) Electronic goods

Answer

Answer: (b) Jewellery


MCQ On Consumer Rights And Protection Question 4.
The Consumer Protection Act or COPRA was enacted in the year
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988

Answer

Answer: (b) 1986


MCQ On Consumer Rights Class 10 Question 5.
When was the ‘Right to Information’ Act passed?
(a) In January 2002
(b) In March 2004
(c) In October 2005
(d) In July 2007

Answer

Answer: (c) In October 2005


MCQ On Consumer Rights Question 6.
Which of the following is not a right of consumers?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be informed
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to constitutional remedies


MCQ Questions On Consumer Rights Class 10 Question 7.
When did United Nations adopt the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection?
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (a) 1985


MCQ Questionnaire On Consumer Awareness Question 8.
Which of the following is not a function of Consumer Protection Councils?
(a) To create awareness of consumer rights among consumers.
(b) To guide consumers on how to file cases in consumer courts.
(c) To provide compensation to consumers when they are cheated by shopkeepers.
(d) To represent consumers in Consumer Courts at times.

Answer

Answer: (c) To provide compensation to consumers when they are cheated by shopkeepers.


Consumer Rights MCQ Questions Question 9.
What was the name given to the agency at the global level for the protection of consumer rights?
(a) Consumer Court of Justice
(b) International Consumer Forum
(c) Consumers Commission
(d) Consumers International

Answer

Answer: (d) Consumers International


MCQ Questions On Consumer Awareness Question 10.
Which one of the following does not provide certificate of standardization in India?
(a) ISI
(b) Agmark
(c) Hallmark
(d) COPRA

Answer

Answer: (d) COPRA


Question 11.
Suppose you want to buy toothpaste and the shop owner says that he/she can sell the toothpaste only if you buy a toothbrush, which of your right is being violated by the shopkeeper?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be informed
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to represent

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to choose


Question 12.
Which of the following is not a right of consumers?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be informed
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to constitutional remedies


Question 13.
In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law known as:
(a) Right to Choose Act
(b) Right to Information Act
(c) Women Reservation Act
(d) Anti-corruption Act

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to Information Act


Question 14.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Right to Safety?
(a) Right to be protected against unsafe appliances.
(b) Right to protected against unsafe working conditions.
(c) Right to seek information about functioning of government departments.
(d) Right to be protected against services which are hazardous to life.

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to seek information about functioning of government departments.


Question 15.
Which of the following laws was enacted by the Government of India in the year 2005?
(a) The Right to Information Act
(b) The Consumer Protection Act
(c) The Right to Education Act
(d) The Right to Property Act

Answer

Answer: (a) The Right to Information Act


Question 16.
Who amongst the following is protected through rules and regulations in the market place?
(a) The shopkeepers
(b) The manufactures
(c) The consumers
(d) The suppliers

Answer

Answer: (c) The consumers


Question 17.
Marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property is covered under:
(a) right to be protected
(b) right to be assured
(c) right to seek redressal
(d) right to be informed

Answer

Answer: (a) right to be protected


Question 18.
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 covers the whole of India except:
(a) the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) the state of Jammu and Kashmir


Question 19.
Who can seek information under the RTI Act, 2005?
(a) A group of persons
(b) An individual citizen
(c) A registered company
(d) An association / society

Answer

Answer: (b) An individual citizen


Question 20.
Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enacted by Indian Government in:
(a) 1986
(b) 1983
(c) 1988
(d) 1985

Answer

Answer: (a) 1986


Question 21.
MRP on a product represents:
(a) minimum retail price
(b) maximum retail price
(c) micro retail price
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) maximum retail price


Question 22.
Consumers International was created by:
(a) UNESCO
(b) UN
(c) UNICEF
(d) World Bank

Answer

Answer: (b) UN


Question 23.
Which logo or mark you will have to look for on a biscuit packet?
(a) Agmark
(b) ISI mark
(c) Hallmark
(d) ISO mark

Answer

Answer: (a) Agmark


Question 24.
Factors which cause the exploitation of the consumer:
(a) Limited and wrong information
(b) Illiteracy and ignorance of the consumer
(c) Few sellers and limited competition
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 25.
To protect themselves what do consumers need?
(a) Consumer Forums
(b) Consumer Protection Councils
(c) Consumer movement
(d) Consumer awareness

Answer

Answer: (d) Consumer awareness


Question 26.
Which mark should you look for while buying honey?
(a) ISI
(b) ISO
(c) Agmark
(d) ISO

Answer

Answer: (c) Agmark


Question 27.
Name the court to which a consumer can approach, having a claim of Rs. 40 lakhs
(a) National Consumer Court
(b) State Consumer Court
(c) District Consumer Court
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) State Consumer Court


Name the court to which a consumer can approach, having a claim of Rs. 40 lakhs

Question 28.
The organisation which lays down standards of products at the international level is called:
(a) ISI
(b) ISRO
(c) ISO
(d) WCF

Answer

Answer: (c) ISO


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Consumer Rights CBSE Class 10 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Federalism

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……………….. is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Unitary system
(c) Monarchy
(d) Federalism
Answer:
(d) Federalism

Class 10 Federalism MCQ Question 2.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
In a federal system, the central government…………..order the state government to do something.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) May
(d) Should
Answer:

Federalism MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Which subject does not come under the State List in India?
(a) Police
(b) Agriculture
(c) Banking
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) Banking

Explanation: Banking comes under the Union List.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

MCQ Of Federalism Class 10 Question 4.
On which of the following subjects can both the Union as well as the State Governments make laws?
(a) Communications
(b) Defence
(c) Trade Unions
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Trade Unions

Explanation: Trade unions is a part of a concurrent list. On a concurrent list, both the state and central governments can make laws.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Based on the table below, answer the question that follows:
Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers
Which is the second most commonly spoken language according to the table?
(a) Hindi
(b) Bodo
(c) Gujarati
(d) Bengali
Answer:
(d) Bengali

Explanation:
Hindi: 43%
Bodo: 0.12%
Gujarati: 4.58%
Bengali: 8.03%

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which context do they get these provisions?
(a) Their historical circumstances
(b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people
(c) Special provisions for agriculture
(d) Preferential employment in government services.
Answer:
(c) Special provisions for agriculture.

MCQ On Federalism Class 10 Question 7.
On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
(a) On the basis of history
(b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity
(c) On the basis of religion
(d) On the basis of administrative efficiency
Answer:
(b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity

Ch 2 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
There are some units of the Indian Union that enjoy very little power. These are called:
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Villages
(d) Union Territories
Answer:

Federalism Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers.
(b) States are dependent on revenue on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.
(d) The Centre has no financial autonomy.
Answer:
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

MCQ Federalism Class 10 Question 10.
Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian federation:
(1) Hindi was identified as the official language.
(2) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages.
(3) English can be used along with Hindi for official purposes.
Choose the combination that provides the correct statements) from the following :
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) only (1)
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer:
(d) (1), (2) and (3).

Civics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
what type of distribution of powers does the Indian Constitution provide for?
(a) Single-fold
(b) Two-fold
(c) Three-fold
(d) Four-fold
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Ch 2 MCQ Question 12.
Who presides over the meetings of Municipal Corporations?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Mayor
(c) Deputy Mayor
(d) Governor
Answer:
(b) Mayor

Explanation: The head of the municipal corporation is called mayor.

Related Theory
The Mayor is the first citizen of the city and is elected by the members of the municipal corporation for the period of 5 year.

MCQs Of Federalism Class 10 Question 13.
How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 22

Explanation: These 22 languages are calLed ‘Scheduled Languages.’

How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
Which of the following pair of subjects is incorrect?
(a) Police and agriculture
(b) Banking and currency
(c) Computer software and trade unions
(d) Marriage and adoption
Answer:

Civics Ch 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following group of countries are an example of coming together federation?
(a) India, USA, Belgium
(b) USA, Switzerland, Australia
(c) India, Belgium, Spain
(d) USA, Spain, Australia
Answer:
(b) USA, Switzerland, Australia

Question 16.
Study the given picture and identify which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers 2
(a) Sharing of responsibility between Centre and State
(b) Centre undermining the power of States
(c) States pleading from centre for more power
(d) Misuse of power by the States
Answer:

Question 17.
Which of the following pair of languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Pali and Tulu
(b) Bodo and Maithili
(c) Nepali and Oriya
(d) Sindhi and Urdu
Answer:
(a) Pali and Tulu

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 18.
Which of the following pairs of subjects are NOT associated with the union list?
(a) Education and Marriage
(b) Communications and currency
(c) Foreign Affairs and Currency
(d) Banking and Defence
Answer:
(a) Education and Marriage

Question 19.
Which of following language is spoken by the majority of our population?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Punjabi
Answer:
(b) Hindi

Explanation: No one language is the mother tongue of the majority of our population. Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 41 per cent Indians which is less than the 50 per cent of our total population.

Question 20.
How is Panchayat Samiti formed?
(a) By a few gram panchayats when are grouped together.
(b) By most members of the zila parishad
(c) By all MPs and MLAs in the block
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) By a few gram panchayats when are grouped together.

Explanation: Panchayat Samiti is also called Block or Mandal. The members of this local body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area.

Related Theory
All the Panchayat Samiti or Mandats in a district together constitute the zila Parishad. Most members of the zila parishad are elected which includes the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and another official of other district-level bodies. Zila parishad chairperson is the political head of the zila Parishad.

Question 21.
Which of the following is an advantage of the local government in India?
(a) It has deepened the democracy in our country
(b) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in our country
(c) It has failed in conducting the regular elections of local bodies
(d) It has given more power to the local government when compared to the centre.
Answer:
(a) It has deepened the democracy in our country

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 22.
Identify the country:
(1) The country shifted from unitary to federal form of government.
(2) The country gave regional governments constitutional powers in 1993.
(3) The country reduced the powers of the central government through an amendment.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 23.
Identify the type of Government:
(1) There are two or more levels/tiers of governments.
(2) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution.
(3) No government is subordinate to another.
Answer:
Federal Government

Explanation: Federal governments establish two or more tiers of each government and each government has its own powers and jurisdiction as given by the constitution. All levels are equal to one another.

Question 24.
Identify the institution:
(1) It resolves disputes between the states and state and centre.
(2) It interprets the constitution.
(3) It acts like an umpire and decides neutrally.
Answer:
Courts or Judiciary

Explanation: The highest court or the Supreme Court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise Of their respective powers. It has powers to interpret the constitution.

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 25.
In a federal government, different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government is the same in every federation.
Answer:

Question 27.
The Constitution of India clearly provided a twofold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments.
Answer:
False

The Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments.

Explanation: It lays down subjects in form of three lists.

Question 28.
According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1956.
Answer:
According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 29.
At least two-third of all positions are reserved for women at Local level.
Answer:
At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women at local level.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 30.
A ……….. has two levels of government.
Answer:
Federation

Question 31.
Indian Union is based on the principles of
Answer:
Federalism

Question 32.
Banking is included in the……………. List.
Answer:

Question 33.
……….. makes laws on Concurrent list subjects.
Answer:
Both States and the central government

Question 34.
…………. runs the Union Territories
Answer:
Central government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 35.
The subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists are called……………. subjects.
Answer:
Residuary

Explanation: Subjects Like computer software that came up after the constitution was made are called residuary subjects and the union or central government has the power to legislate on these subjects.

Question 36.
The ……………. declared India as a Union of States.
Answer:
Constitution

Explanation: Indian constitution declares India as a union of states. It is an example of holding together federation where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national or central government. In this system, generally central government is more powerful than its constituent units.

Question 37.
In 1956, an act passed by the Government in Sri Lanka recognised the Sinhala Language as the language of the state and disregard the …………… language.
Answer:

Question 38.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of the …………….. type of federations.
Answer:
Holding Together

Explanation: There are two types of federations:

  1. The first type is ‘Coming Together Federation’ where states come together to form a bigger unit by pooling sovereignty and retaining identities. USA, Australia and Switzerland are the examples of coming together federations.
  2. The second type is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the central government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of‘holding together’ federations.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 39.
Australia is an example of type of federation.
Answer:
Coming together

Explanation: When independent States come together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security, the type of federation is called Coming Together Type of federation. Another example is USA.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 40.
Match the following subjects from column A with the lists given in column B:

Column A (Subjects)

Column B (Lists)

(a) Banking (i) State List
(b) Police (ii) Union List
(c) Computer software (iii) Concurrent List
(d) Education (iv) Residuary subject

Answer:

Column A (Subjects)

Column B (Lists)

(a) Banking (ii) Union List
(b) Police (i) State List
(c) Computer software (iv) Residuary subject
(d) Education (iii) Concurrent List

Explanation: Union List includes the subjects of national importance such as banking, defence, foreign affairs and the union government has the right to make laws on these subjects.

State list includes the subjects of state and Local importance such as police, trade, agriculture etc. and state government can make laws on these subjects.

The concurrent list includes subjects like education, forest, trade union, marriage etc. and both central and state governments can make laws on these subjects but in case if their laws conflict with each other, then the central government Law will be implemented.

On residuary subjects, central government has the power to make laws.

Related Theory
The constitution clearly provides a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments via union list (97 subjects), state list (66 subjects), concurrent list (47 subjects) and the subjects which are not included in these lists are known as ‘residuary subjects.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 2

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.
Reason (R): Federal Governments last longer.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Federal governments are more stable, more participative and can handle ethnic conflicts and divisions better than unitary governments.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a federal system.
Reason (R): Federal systems establish a peaceful and stable environment in the country.
Answer:

Question 43.
Assertion (A): The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government in a federal government.
Reason (R): In a Federal government, each government has its own constitutionally laid down jurisdiction.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: In a Federal government, each government has its own constitutionally laid down jurisdiction. Each government takes care of certain subjects which have been specified by the constitution. Hence all decisions have to be taken only after discussions and consensus.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.
Reason (R): States should be treated differently to help them develop.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: In the ‘holding together’ federations, a large country divided power between its constituent units carefully to ensure peace. Hence the distribution is unequal.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power-sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own to change this arrangement.
Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least a majority.
(a) Half
(b) Three-fourth
(c) Two-third
(d) One-fourth
Answer:
(c) Two-third

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 percent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages.
Which among the following is not a scheduled language of India?
(a) Santhali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Angika
(d) Sindhi
Answer:

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two- thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total States. The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures. In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision. The Union and State governments have the power to raise resources by levying taxes in order to carry on the government and the responsibilities assigned to each of them.
(A) Which of this can be considered a form of sharing of powers between the government?
(I) Division of Powers between Chief Minister and the Governor.
(II) Division of Powers between Central and State legislatures.
(III) Power sharing between Union and the States through lists of subjects.
(IV) Power division between Bureaucracy and Executive.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (II) & (IV) only
(d) (II) & (III) only
Answer:

(B) Why was the Supreme Court given the power to resolve disputes between the states?
(a) The Supreme Court is an independent body and the best neutral judge to resolve disputes since it has no relations with working of any of the two legislatures.
(b) The Supreme Court is above the legislature.
(c) The Supreme Court has more experienced people.
(d) The Supreme Court is more representative of people’s will
Answer:
(a) The Supreme Court is an independent body and the best neutral judge to resolve disputes since it has no relations with working of any of the two legislatures.

(C) What is the prerequisite to amend the power sharing arrangement in Indian Constitution?
Answer:
A special majority (2/3rd members present and voting) in both the houses of the Parliament and ratification from the states.

(D) Assertion (A): The sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
Reason(R): Any single government can change this arrangement.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: No single government can unilaterally change the power sharing arrangement. It needs ratification from the state governments and a special majority which is very tough to achieve.

The fact that our entire constitution is based on the Separation of Powers among the different organs of the government and administration makes it the very basic structure of the constitution.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc., all over the country. This number is bigger than the population of many countries in the world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country. It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time, there are many diffculties.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is a difficulty that the local self governments face?
(a) States do not give them much power.
(b) Elections are held regularly.
(c) There is no one to contest elections.
(d) Villagers do not trust them.
Answer:
(a) States do not give them much power.
Explanation: While elections are held regularly and enthusiastically, Gram Sabhas are not held regularly. Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments. Nor have they given adequate resources. These are the basic difficulties Local self governments bodies.

(B) Which of the following has helped to deepen democracy in the country according to the source?
(a) Establishment of Local self governments.
(b) Provision of Constitutional status to Local Self-governments
(c) Establishment of Political parties
(d) Free and fair elections.
Answer:
(b) Provision of Constitutional status to Local Self governments.

(C) Match the following:

Column A (Bodies)

Column B (Details about Bodies)

(A) Gram Sabha (I) Gram Panchayats group together to form this unit.
(B) Gram Panchayat (II) It reviews the performance of the gram panchayat.
(C) Zila Parishad (III) decision-making body for the entire village.
(D) Mandals (IV) mandals in a district together constitute it.

(a) (A)-(II), (B).(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

(D) Which of the following bodies is not a local self-government body.
(a) Zila Parishad
(b) Gram Sabha
(c) State Election Commission
(d) Nagar Panchayat
Answer:
(c) State Election Commission
Explanation: It facilitates elections in Local government bodies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but these are not sufficient. If the federal experiment has succeeded in India, it is not merely because of the clearly laid out constitutional provisions.
The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic politics in our country. This ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became shared ideals in our country.
Let us look at some of the major ways in which this happened. The creation of linguistic States was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. If you look at the political map of India when it began its journey as a democracy in 1947 and that of 2019, you will be surprised by the extent of the changes. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to ……………………..
(a) the nature of democratic politics in our country.
(b) the rules laid down by the central government
(c) the rules laid down by state governments
(d) the execution of laws by Panchayats.
Answer:
(a) the nature of democratic politics in our country.
Explanation: Rules alone cannot help in making a country federal. Its implementation has to be checked and constantly monitored.

(B) Which of the following is not a test for democratic politics in our country?
(a) Creation of linguistic states
(b) Language policy
(c) Religion policy
(d) Policy of traffic rules and policing.
Answer:

(C) Which of the following is an objective of the federal system?
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
(b) To accommodate new territories
(c) To filter people belonging to one caste or ethnic groups.
(d) To reject regional diversity
Answer:
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
Explanation: A federal system has a most important objective which is to work for the unity and territorial integrity of the country and keep it safe.

(D) Complete the following sentence by choosing the most appropriate option: State government has powers of its own for which………………………
(a) It is answerable to Central Government
(b) It is not answerable to Central Government
(c) It is answerable to the people
(d) It is answerable to regional and local governments.
Answer:
(c) It is answerable to the people.
Explanation: A state government is not answerable or subordinate to any other government but the people.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the type of Federation as mentioned in the source.
(a) Holding Together Federation
(b) Coming Together Federation
(c) Running Together Federation
(d) Walking Together Federation
Answer:
(b) Coming together Federation

(B) Which of the following can be an example of the identified type?
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Belgium
Answer:
(a) USA

(C) Which of the following is not true about this type of federation.
(a) States share equal powers
(b) States cannot go out of the federation.
(c) Centre is stronger.
(d) States do not have absolute powers.
Answer:
(c) Centre is stronger.
Explanation: Centre tends to be strong in holding together federations. Here all states and centre share equal powers.

(D) Which of the following factors does not affect the balance of powers in a federation?
(a) Its history
(b) Its culture
(c) Its neighbours
(d) Its economy
Answer:
(c) Its neighbours.
Explanation: A federation is formed and its balance of power varies due to its historical, culturaL and economical situations. Its neighbours play no role.

Which of the following factors does not affect the balance of powers in a federation?

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention two aspects of an ideal federal system?
Answer:
Two aspects are:

  1. Mutual Trust
  2. Agreement between states and people to live together.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 2.
What is the system of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why was the States reorganization commission formed?
Answer:
It was formed in 1954 to recommend the creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.

Question 4.
Which is the highest institution of Panchayati Raj in India?
Answer:
Zila Parishad

Question 5.
What is decentralisation? Why do we need it?
Answer:
Decentralisation grants more autonomy or freedom to lower levels of government and increases participation of the people.

Question 6.
In which list does the subject of Education come?
Answer:
Concurrent list

Question 7.
State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Answer:
The Constitution of Belgium established equality by maintaining equal number of French and Dutch speaking people in the central government so that a single dominant community does not make majoritarian decisions.

Question 8.
Who presides over the meeting of the Municipal Corporation?
Answer:

Question 9.
Who has the special powers in administering the Union Territories of India?
Answer:
Central Government

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 10.
What percentage of reservation is given to women in local administration in India?
Answer:
One third or 33% seats are reserved for women in local administration in India.

Question 11.
What do you mean by a Concurrent List? What subjects are included in this list?
Answer:
A concurrent list includes 66 subjects over which both the centre and the state possess equal powers. Both of them can make laws on these subjects and in case of a deadlock, the will of the centre prevails over that of the states, education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession are examples of certain subjects included in this list.

Question 12.
Which institution has been created in each state of India to conduct panchayat and municipal elections?
Answer:

Question 13.
Arrange the following institutions of power according to the size of their jurisdiction in increasing order:
(i) Panchayat Samiti or Mandal
(ii) State Government
(iii) Gram Panchayat
(iv) Zila Parishad
Answer:
(iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)

Explanation:

  • Gram Panchayat heads a village or groups of villages.
  • Samitis head groups of gram panchayats.
  • Zila Parishad heads all panchayat samitis of a district.
  • State governments head zila parishads.

Question 14.
Who is a mayor?
Answer:
The head of municipal corporation is called mayor.

Explanation: The Mayor is the first citizen of the city and is elected by the members of the municipal corporation for the period of 5 years.

Question 15.
Define a Coalition Government.
Answer:
A coalition government is formed when none of the contesting parties get majority seats in the elections for Lok Sabha or Legislative Assemblies. In such a case, two or more parties form a government by coming together, making an alliance and adopting a common programme. NDA led by BJP under Prime Minister Narender Modi ruling presently in India is an example of a coalition government while the Congress led UPA under Manmohan Singh had been the ruling coalition government in the country for 10 years.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Question 16.
Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India?
Answer:
Union Government

Question 17.
Read the source given below and define what is jurisdiction?
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
Answer:
Jurisdiction is the area over which someone has legal authority. Jurisdiction can be defined by a geographical area or in terms of subjects.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 3 An Empire Across Three Continents with Answers

An Empire Across Three Continents Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 3 An Empire Across Three Continents with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided An Empire Across Three Continents Class 11 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 An Empire Across Three Continents MCQ With Answers

History Class 11 Chapter 3 MCQs On An Empire Across Three Continents

An Empire Across Three Continents MCQ Question 1.
The best kind of wine came to Rome from _______
(a) Fayum
(b) Byzantium
(c) Galilee
(d) Campania

Answer

Answer: (d) Campania


Class 11 History Chapter 3 MCQ Question 2.
The Roman emperor who consolidated the rise of provincial upper classes so as to exclude the senators from military command was
(a) Augustus
(b) Constantine
(c) Gallienus
(d) Tiberius

Answer

Answer: (c) Gallienus


The Roman emperor who consolidated the rise of provincial upper classes so as to exclude the senators from military command was

Class 11 History Chapter 3 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 3.
What were Amphorae?
(a) A type of army
(b) A type of container
(c) A type of district administrator
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A type of container


History Class 11 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 4.
Augustus, the first Roman Emperor was called the leading citizen whose Latin term is
(a) Basileus
(b) Dominus
(c) Princeps
(d) Res gestae

Answer

Answer: (c) Princeps


MCQ Of An Empire Across Three Continents Question 5.
Saint Augustine was bishop of the North African city of
(a) Annaba
(b) Algeria
(c) Hippo
(d) Numidia

Answer

Answer: (c) Hippo


Ch 3 History Class 11 MCQ Question 6.
The emperor who made Christianity the official religion in the Roman Empire was
(a) Alexander
(b) Augustus
(c) Constantine
(d) Nero

Answer

Answer: (c) Constantine


Class 11 History Ch 3 MCQ Question 7.
Roman ruler _____ was considered as the leading citizen only to show that he was not the absolute ruler.
(a) Augustus
(b) Constantine
(c) Gallienus
(d) Tiberius

Answer

Answer: (a) Augustus


An Empire Across Three Continents MCQs Question 8.
In Roman urban life, the entertainment shows called spectacular happened for at least
(a) 150 days
(b) 160 days
(c) 167 days
(d) 176 days

Answer

Answer: (d) 176 days


Chapter 3 History Class 11 MCQ Question 9.
The religion of Islam arose during the
(a) 5th century CE
(b) 8th century CE
(c) 6th century CE
(d) 7th century CE

Answer

Answer: (d) 7th century CE


An Empire Across Three Continents MCQ Questions Question 10.
The Roman Empire got the best kind of wine from the city of
(a) Byzaciuma
(b) Campania
(c) Naples
(d) Sicily

Answer

Answer: (b) Campania


An Empire Across Three Continents Class 11 MCQ Question 11.
Christianity became the state religion of the Roman Empire in the
(a) 1st century CE
(b) 2nd century CE
(c) 3rd century CE
(d) 4th century CE

Answer

Answer: (d) 4th century CE


Class 11 History An Empire Across Three Continents MCQ Question 12.
The Roman silver coin, known as the denarius, weighed _________ gm of pure silver.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (c) 4


MCQ Questions For Class 11 History Chapter 3 Question 13.
______ and Greek languages were used in the administration of the Roman Empire.
(a) Chinese
(b) Mayan
(c) Latin
(d) Turkish

Answer

Answer: (c) Latin


MCQ Of Chapter 3 History Class 11 Question 14.
Which one of the following is a rive that forms the boundary of the Roman Empire?
(a) Mekong River
(b) Rhine River
(c) Amur River
(d) Yangtze River

Answer

Answer: (b) Rhine River


Which one of the following is a rive that forms the boundary of the Roman Empire?

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Class 11 History with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries tops in the index of inequality of income?
(a) Hungary
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) UK
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 2.
To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following parameters should one look for?
(I) Regular, free and fair elections.
(II) Local Self Governments.
(III) Citizens’ right to information about the government.
(IV) Citizen’s non participation in the political processes.
(V) Open public debate on major policies.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I), (III) & (V)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)

Explanation: Citizen’s participation in the political processes is an important parameter to test successful democracies.

MCQ On Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 3.
Which of the following statements do not hold true for non-democratic regimes?
(I) These regimes do not have to bother about public opinion.
(II) These regimes take a lot of time to decide.
(III) Principle of individual dignitg has legal and moral force here.
(IV) These often suppress internal social differences.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (IV)
(c) (I), (II) & (III)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Equal treatment of women is a necessary
ingredient of a society.
(a) Non-Democratic
(b) Monarchical
(c) Autocratic
(d) Democratic
Answer:
(d) Democratic

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Question 5.
Which of the following countries has half of its population living in poverty?
(a) Uzbekistan
(b) Libya
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Bangladesh

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democratic set up?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions.
(b) The government is not worried about taking decisions.
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(d) A democratic government does not have a medium of taking decisions.
Answer:

Class 10 Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monarchy Rule
(c) Military Rule
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQs Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation.
(b) Open in promoting economic development.
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities.
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.
Answer:
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.

Explanation: It produces an accountable government because the majority of the people approve of it.

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 9.
Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies?
(a) They have a formal constitution
(b) They hold regular elections
(c) They have political parties
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

MCQ Of Chapter Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 10.
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is the odd one out. Democracies needs to ensure:
(a) Free and fair election
(b) Dignity of the individual
(c) Majority rule
(d) Equal treatment before law
Answer:
(c) Majority rule

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Question 11.
How many countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics? Choose the correct option from the following ones:
(a) Over 80 countries
(b) Over a hundred countries
(c) Over two hundred countries
(d) Only (a) is correct option
Answer:
(b) Over a hundred countries

Explanation: These countries have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens and so they claim to be a democratic country.

MCQ Outcomes Of Democracy Question 12.
Most democracies have failed on which of the following issues?
(a) Corruption
(b) Removal of poverty
(c) Political equality
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Most democracies have failed on which of the following issues?

MCQs On Outcomes Of Democracy Question 13.
On which of the following pair of factors, economic development does not depend?
(a) Country’s population size and global situation.
(b) Cooperation from other countries and country’s economic priorities.
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Questions Question 14.
Which of the following outcome of democracy cannot be ignored?
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.
(b) Democracy often frustrates the needs of the people.
(c) Democracy often ignores the demands of a majority of its population.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
More than half of population of which country lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 16.
In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities
(b) Maintaining dignity of each individual
(c) Ensuring equality to all
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities

Question 17.
Which of the following features is NOT associated with a democratic government?
(a) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(b) There is transparency in decision¬making.
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.

Explanation: Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people is the feature of dictatorship while in democracy, decisions are taken slowly and it’s a time-consuming process but whatever decisions are taken, is accepted by the people.

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is against the spirit of democracy?
(a) Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
(b) It enhances the dignity of the individual.
(c) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
(d) It provides method to resolve conflicts.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 19.
Democracies are based on:
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Explanation: In democracy, all individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. People have the right to form their own political party, to contest election and take part in the decision-making process.

Question 20.
Study the given picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 1
Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Demand for separate state from Democratic Government.
(b) Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states.
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
(d) Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate state.
Answer:
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.

Question 21.
Which of the following factors is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Accountability
(b) Responsibility
(c) Transparency
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Democracy has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as transparency. Democracy takes care of the needs and expectations of its people which makes it a responsible government.

In democracy, people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over them and they participate in decision-making that affects them all. This makes democracy an accountable government.

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the type of government on basis of the hints given below:
(1) Promotes equality among citizens;
(2) Enhances the dignity of the individual;
(3) Improves the quality of decision-making
Answer:
Democratic governments

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
Democracies are based on social prosperity.
Answer:

Question 24.
Democratic governments have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.
Answer:
Democratic governments do not have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.

Question 25.
Dictatorships are based on political equality.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality.
Explanation: Democracy considers the will of the people above everything. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. They have right to vote or contest elections directly or indirectly through their representatives. They can participate in the decision-making process and can change the government in the next election if the government is not taking care of them. Thus, Democracies provide political equality.

Related Theory
Non-democratic governments such as monarchies, military rules, religious leaders or dictatorships do not consider the will of their people. People do not have any right to choose their representatives or change them. Nor these governments are accountable to their people.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 26.
The passion for ………………. and ………………. are the basis of democracy.
Answer:
respect, freedom

Question 27.
Democracy transforms people from the ……………….. status of a subject into that of a
Answer:
Citizen

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 28.
Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is a plus point of ……………………..
Answer:
Democratic regimes

Question 29.
Complete the following statement: Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in ……………… at some point of time.
Answer:

Match the Columns choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following information from column A with that given in column B:

Column A

Column B

(a) Democracy is accountable (i) Political equality in the country
(b) Democracy is responsive (ii) People’s own government
(c) Democracy is legitimate (iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(d) Democracy ensures (iv) to its citizens

Answer:

Column A

Column B

(a) Democracy is accountable (iv) to its citizens
(b) Democracy is responsive (iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(c) Democracy is legitimate (ii) People’s own government
(d) Democracy ensures (i) Political equality in the country

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 7

In each of following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Democracy is a legitimate government.
Reason (R): Regular, free and fair elections are the spirit of democracy.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Democracies allow room to correct mistakes.
Reason (R): Democratic governments can be reelected.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Democratic governments allow room to correct mistakes that have been done in the past through reformed social and political laws.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.
Reason (R): A Democratic government is weak.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision because it is based upon deliberation and negotiation and needs the consensus of the majority before taking any decision.

Question 34.
Assertion (A):A small number of ultra rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes in various countries.
Reason (R): Due to income inequalities, poor are exploited and do not receive much.
Answer:

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as you would expect them to.
Reason (R): They believe that if the poor remain poor they will vote for them more.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Poor form a huge part of vote bank politics and hence one would expect governments to focus more on their interests and poverty eradication. This is not the case.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 2
Which of the following countries promise the most support to Democracy?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
We felt that democracy was better because it: Promotes equality among citizens;
Enhances the dignity of the individual;
Improves the quality of decision making;
Provides a method to resolve conflicts; and Allows room to correct mistakes.
Are these expectations realised under democracies?

Considering the aims of a democracy and its realisation, which one of the following features is not common to democratic setups?
(a) They have a formal Constitution.
(b) They hold regular and fair, free elections.
(c) They do not have political parties.
(d) They have a universal adult franchise.
Answer:
(c) They do not have political parties.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
(A) Which of the following features of democracy has been highlighted in the source?
(a) It cures economic inequalities.
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.
(c) It cures political equality.
(d) It is legitimate.
Answer:
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.

(B) Which of the following countries do not enjoy a democratic government?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China
Explanation: China has an authoritarian government where the president wields all the authority.

(C) Mention one way democracy avoids social conflicts.
Answer:
Democracy avoids social conflicts by accommodating social diversities.

(D) Assertion (A): Democracy establishes social equality.
Reason (R): It works for the interest of all the social groups without any prejudice or discrimination.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth. The inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us. But this alone cannot be a reason to reject democracy. As you have already studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorships and democracies is negligible.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors does affect economic growth?
(I) Country’s population size
(II) Global situation
(III) Cooperation from other countries
(IV) Economic priorities adopted by the country
(a) (II) & (III) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (111) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following countries is likely to have a greater economic growth rate?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) China
Explanation: China is a dictatorship while the rest are democracies.

(C) How does democracy affect the economic distribution of resources in a country in reality?
(a) It equalises the distribution among classes
(b) The rich get richer.
(c) The poor get richer.
(d) The foreigners get richer.
Answer:
(c) The rich get richer.
Explanation: The rich get richer and the poor get poorer due to the unequal distribution of the resources despite the claim of democracy.

(D) Which of the following countries show a huge economic inequality?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Denmark
Answer:
(a) Brazil

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the
moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What makes it easy to wage a struggle against a discriminating act?
(I) Legal force
(II) Recognition of a problem
(III) Moral Force
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I) & (II)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)

(B) Which of the following governments does not lack moral and legal sanctions?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Aristocracy
Answer:
(b) Democracy

Which of the following governments does not lack moral and legal sanctions?

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the …………. castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
(a) Rich classes
(b) Middle classes
(c) Disadvantaged
(d) Aristocratic
Answer:
(c) Disadvantaged

Explanation: Democracy promotes the dignity of an individual and harmony between classes and castes.

(D) Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a democracy?
(a) Mass participation
(b) Using laws and rules
(c) Establishing justice and peace
(d) Armed revolution
Answer:
(d) Armed revolution

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better.
That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations, and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy: it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why do people ask for more from democracy?
(a) Because democracy is worth it.
(b) Because democracy guarantees benefits.
(c) Because democracy is better than non democratic governments.
(d) Democracy is half developed.

(B) How do people show public dissatisfaction?
(I) Throughsocial movements
(II) By staying quiet
(III) By expecting more
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (III)

(C) …………….. transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
(a) Democracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Dictatorships

(D) Why are people complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy?
(a) It shows that people have developed awareness
(b) It shows people know nothing about democracy.
(c) It shows people do not enjoy democracy.
(d) It shows people want to be part of a dictatorship.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are very different from each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and their cultures. Consequently, what may be achieved or not achieved under each of these democracies will be very different.
(A) Explain the fascination for democracy amongst various countries.
Answer:
Democracies give freedom of speech, expression and religion along with promoting dignity and freedom of human beings. It provides people with a free and dignified life and reduces possibilities of social conflicts. This is why countries are fascinated with democracy.

(B) Explain democracy on the basis of expected and actual outcome.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all.

Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Even when a country achieves economic growth, will wealth be distributed in such a way that all citizens of the country will have a share and lead a better life? Is economic growth in democracies accompanied by increased inequalities among the people? Or do democracies lead to a just distribution of goods and opportunities?

Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
(A) Define democracy in a single sentence on the basis of your reading of the given extract.
Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Answer:
Democracy can be defined as a political system in which people have the right of choosing or changing their rulers who are answerable to them.

(B) What are economic disparities? Has the Indian Democracy been capable of reducing them?
Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens
Answer:

(C) Justify the statement with an example, “Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.”
Answer:
It is true that democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the dis¬advantaged and discriminated castes for equal opportunity. For example, Dalits in India have been given reservations of seats in educational institutions and government jobs while 27 per cent reservation has been given to Socially and Educationally Backward Classes so that they can come up at par with the common people in the society.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly Learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.
(A) Which is the best form of government to handle social differences?
Answer:
Democratic Governments are better suited to handle social differences than Non- democratic regimes.

(B) How does Democracy handle Social Differences?
Answer:
Democracy accepts, acknowledges social differences and gives less volatile mediums to express it without violence in the country. It develops its own method of competition.

(C) Suggest two ways to increase peace and harmony in a socially/communally divided country.
Answer:
Two ways to reduce differences and promote peace and harmony:

  1. one should try to first bring total equality among all communities or social groups. No group should be preferred for any favours.
  2. one should try to develop national unity by reminding them of shared struggles, culture and historical events.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by transparency?
Answer:
Transparency means that every citizen belonging to any democratic country has the right to information, the right to examine or investigate whether the laws, plans, action, policies or decisions taken by the government are correct or are beneficial to them or not.

Question 2.
How does democracy produce an accountable development?
Answer:
Democracy produces an accountable government by giving the citizen the right to examine the process by which decisions are made.

Question 3.
Give any one example of economic development in dictatorial regimes.
Answer:
Dictatorships have higher rates of economic growth as compared to democracies. For example, China’s growth rate is higher than most of the other democracies in the world.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 4.
If you want to extract information about the functions of any government department, which right would you exercise?
Answer:
I would exercise my Right to Information (RTI) to extract information about the functions of any government department.

Related Theory
The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed by the Parliament of India to set out rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information. Under the provisions of this act, any citizen of India may request information from any public authority by filing a petition in the court.

Question 5.
Mention any two common features of democratic politics.
Answer;
Features of democratic politics are:

  1. Free and fair elections are organized.
  2. The principle of one person, one vote, one value’ is followed.
  3. Major decisions are taken by elected leaders.
  4. The rule of Law prevaiLs.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of political system in which the government of a country is elected by the citizens through free and fair elections.

Question 6.
How is democracy based on political equality in India?
Answer:
In India, every citizen above 18 years of age has the right to vote. Every citizen has the right to contest elections irrespective of his/her caste, religion, creed, economic status, etc. if he/she is 21 years of age. Hence, democracy is based on political equality in India.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of government which is for the people, of the people and by the people, it promotes equality and discourages all forms of discrimination- social, economical or political.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 7.
Which type of government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable?
Answer:

Question 8.
What does this image show about the outcomes of democratic politics? Explain in your own words.
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 3

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers

Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Challenges to Democracy Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 8 MCQs On Challenges to Democracy

Choose the correct option:

Challenges To Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following laws was enacted by the Government of India in October 2005?
(a) The Right to Property Act
(b) The Right to Education Act
(c) The Consumer Protection Act
(d) The Right to Information Act

Answer

Answer: (d) The Right to Information Act


MCQ On Challenges To Democracy Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of democracy?
(a) Empowering women
(b) Keeping military away from controlling government
(c) Ensuring greater power to local governments
(d) Empowering minority groups.

Answer

Answer: (b) Keeping military away from controlling government


Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of democracy?

Challenges To Democracy MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following is an indicator of deepening of democracy?
(a) Installation of democratic government
(b) Keeping military away from controlling government
(c) Strengthening of the practices of democracy
(d) Inclusion of women in party politics

Answer

Answer: (c) Strengthening of the practices of democracy


Question 4.
Which legal act is the best to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?
(a) The Right to Information Act
(b) The Right to freedom
(c) The Right to education
(d) The Right to move freely

Answer

Answer: (a) The Right to Information Act


Question 5.
Every established democracy faces
(a) challenge of expansion
(b) challenge of deepening of democracy
(c) foundational challenge
(d) dictatorship

Answer

Answer: (a) challenge of expansion


Question 6.
Looking at the expanded definition, which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
(a) The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
(b) Elections must offer a fair choice to the people to change the current rulers.
(c) The choice should be available to all people on an equal basis.
(d) To exercise this choice government must not be limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizens’ rights.

Answer

Answer: (d) To exercise this choice government must not be limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizens’ rights.


Question 7.
In Nepal, Constituent Assembly about to be elected, unrest in Terai areas, Maoists have not surrendered arms.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: (a) Foundational challenge


Question 8.
In Belgium, one round of constitutional change takes place, but the Dutch speakers, not satisfied, want more autonomy.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: (b) Challenge of expansion


Question 9.
Democracy does not stand for:
(a) Democratic Right
(b) Elections
(c) Violence
(d) Accommodation of diversity

Answer

Answer: (c) Violence


Question 10.
Which one of the following situations represents the success of democracy?
(a) US as the only Super power disregards the UN and takes unilateral action.
(b) General Pinochet government defeated, but army is still under control of many institutions.
(c) The King of Nepal Birendra accepted constitutional Monarchy.
(d) Integration of French speaking and Dutch speaking people in Belgium.

Answer

Answer: (d) Integration of French speaking and Dutch speaking people in Belgium.


Question 11.
Which one of the following is not true regarding ‘Democratic Reforms’?
(a) Legal measures can sometimes prove to be counter-productive.
(b) The media should play an active role.
(c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.
(d) Political empowerment and participation of citizens can help.

Answer

Answer: (c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.


Question 12.
What is the tempting way of reforming politics?
(a) Legal ways
(b) Illegal ways
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Legal ways


Question 13.
How many parts of the globe is not under democratic government?
(a) One-sixth
(b) One-fourth
(c) One-third
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) One-fourth


Question 14.
Which one of the following countries is facing the challenge of expansion of democracy?
(a) India
(b) US
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 15.
What is not true regarding a challenge?
(a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.
(b) A challenge is a difficulty which is significant and which can be overcome.
(c) A challenge is a difficulty that carries within it an opportunity for progress.
(d) Once we overcome a challenge, we go up to a higher level than before.

Answer

Answer: (a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.


Question 16.
Mention reforms that Indian democracy needs?
(a) New laws to ban undesirable things.
(b) It is important to improve quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
(c) Reforms in the administration that will reduce corruption in the political circles.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 17.
Which one of the following statements about democracy is false?
(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Answer

Answer: (d) Democracies are more prosperous than others


Question 18.
In which of the following country, women are not allowed to take part in public activities?
(a) India
(b) South Africa
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Chile

Answer

Answer: (c) Saudi Arabia


Question 19.
Which one of the following is not true regarding how politics can be reformed?
(a) Only legal constitutional changes can reform politics.
(b) There is a need to strengthen democratic practices.
(c) Citizen’s organisations and media should play an active role.
(d) The citizens should be empowered through rights like the Right to Information.

Answer

Answer: (a) Only legal constitutional changes can reform politics.


Question 20.
Which one of the following law is a good example of a law that seeks to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?
(a) Right to Information Act
(b) Law banning sale and purchase of alcoholic drinks in Haryana
(c) Law banning dowry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to Information Act


Which one of the following law is a good example of a law that seeks to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?

Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Each of these cartoons represents a challenge to democracy taken from NCERT textbook pages 103-105. Describe what that challenge is. Also place it in one of the three categories mentioned in the first cartoon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers 1

Answer

Answer:
(i) Mubarak Re-elected: It means that he has used unfair means in the election. This is a case of challenge of expansion of democracy.

(ii) Seeing the Democracy: This cartoon points out the use of muscle power in establishing democracy. This is a case of the foundational challenge.

(iii) Liberal Gender Equality: This cartoon shows that measures have been taken to strengthen democracy by accommodating social diversities. This is a case of the challenge of deepening of democracy.

(iv) Campaign Money: This cartoon shows that money and muscle power can be ignored while making government decisions. This is a case of the challenge of deepening of democracy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers 2


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Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Development Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Development

Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The Literacy rate of Kerala in 2011 was ……………………….
(a) 82
(b) 94
(c) 62
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 94

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Fill in the bLank with respect to the correct criterion of comparison by choosing the most appropriate option:
Students – Height and Weight;
Countries – …………………….
(o) Number of Cities
(b) Size of the Territory
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Population
Answer:
(c) Per Capita Income

Class 10 Development MCQ Question 3.
In which state of India is the infant mortality rate highest?
(a) Goa
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Development MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following actions enhances environmental degradation?
(a) Planting of trees along the roadsides.
(b) Prevention of sewage disposal into water bodies
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc., to rise.
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 5.
Per capita income is:
(a) Income per State
(b) Income per Earning and Non-Earning Members of a family
(c) Income of each female in a house
(d) Income per person
Answer:
(d) Income per person

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

MCQ Of Development Class 10 Question 6.
What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of jobless youth?
(a) More employment opportunities
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) Establishment of a high school
Answer:
(a) More employment opportunities

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ Online Test Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a feature of an underdeveloped country?
(a) Agriculture as the major occupation
(b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty
(d) Mass illiteracy
Answer:
(b) High technological development

Explanation: Any underdeveloped country does not have access to high technology because of its economic inadequacy.

Economics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
……………… will be the aspiration of a working woman.
(a) To have a garden
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.
(c) To have good job opportunities where her education can be made use of.
(d) To have better technologies that can make data storing easy.
Answer:
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.

MCQ On Development Class 10 Question 9.
For each of the sectors, that we come across we should focus on employment and:
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) NNP
(d) NI
Answer:
(a) GDP

Explanation: The other quantities have been associated with the nation and not with individual sectors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Economics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following factors are important for development other than income? [Diksha]
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Literacy
(c) Net Attendance Ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which of the following neighboring country of India has a higher HDI rank than India?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sri Lanka

MCQ Development Class 10 Question 12.
Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate according to 2018 study reports?
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(d) Kerala

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Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 One Word Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is the full form of PDS?
(a) Public Distribution System
(b) Public Development System
(c) Public Division System
(d) Public discussion System
Answer:
(a) Public Distribution System

Explanation: Public Distribution System is a scheme run by the government to provide essential food grains like rice, wheat, pulses, oil at very affordable to the disadvantaged classes to ensure their healthy development.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Question 14.
…………. is an example of a renewable resource.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Crude oil
(c) Groundwater
(d) Coal resources
Answer:
(c) Groundwater

Explanation: Groundwater is a renewable resource and can be renewed through natural processes. Other renewable resources are Solar Energy, wind energy, etc.

Non-Renewable Resources, once exhausted can not be renewed naturally. For example, Coal, minerals, and petroleum.

Class 10 Eco Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
Literacy rate measures the proportion of the Literate population in the Age group:
(a) Above 5 years
(b) Above 12 years
(c) Above 7 years
(d) Above 6 years
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 16.
The average income of a person is called:
(a) Total income
(b) Per capita income
(c) Gross income
(d) Per nation income
Answer:
(b) Per capita income

The average income of a person is called:

Explanation: The average income of a person in a country is known as per capita income. It is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by its total population.

Related Theory

  • The total income of a person is the sum of his income from all sources in a particular time period i.e. monthly or annually.
  • The value of the total goods and services produced within a country in a year is called the National income of a country.

Full form of DSLR is Digital Single-lens Reflex Camera.

Question 17.
UNDP can be expanded as:
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) United Nations Diversity Playground
(c) United Nations Democratic Programme
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation: United Nations Development Programme is a United Nations Agency that studies, looks after the development of member countries by holding annual discussions and programs. It releases a human development report where it measures various countries on scale of a few of its indicators.

Question 18.
Based on Per capita income, India comes in the category of:
(a) Middle-income group
(b) Low-income group
(c) High-income group
(d) Low middle-income group
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following statement defines Sustainable Development?
(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
(b) Present generation fulfills its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.
(c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and future generation.
(d) To meet the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go unmet.
Answer:
(A) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.

Identify

Question 20.
Identify the object on the basis of the hints given:
(1) The resource is renewable.
(2) Its overuse is found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P.
Answer:
Groundwater
Correct and Rewrite

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 21.
Rewrite the statement after correcting the underlined phrase.
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developing country.
Answer:
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developed country.

Fill in the Blanks

Question 22.
USA has low reserves of oil and secures it through ………………………
Answer:
Economic power.

Question 23.
Observe the source given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 1
Complete the following sentence based on your observation.
The idea of …………….. can be depicted from the cartoon.

Question 24.
……………. is a new-renewable resource.
Answer:
Coal or Crude Oil

Question 25.
The present Levels of development are
Answer:
not sustainable

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 26.
The number of deaths of children less than one year of age per 1000 live births is referred as ………….
Answer:
Infant mortality rate (IMR).

Question 27.
One of the best ways to reduce over-usage of groundwater is …………
Answer:
Implementation of stringent policies to control misuse of water.

Question 28.
……………… is an example of renewable resource.
Answer:
Groundwater

Explanation: Renewable resource are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However even these resources may be overused. Groundwater is renewable but highly overused in states of Punjab, Haryana and Western UP.

Question 29.
Human Development Index (HDI) in India can be improved through ……………….
Answer:
(1) Provision of free educational facilities for children up to 16 years of age to improve literacy rate.
(2) Provision of better and more robust health care services.
(Mention any 1)

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Choose the incorrect option from Column A and Column B.

Column A (Category of person) Column B (Developmental goats/Aspirations)
(a) Landless rural Labourers (i) More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab (ii) Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops (iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops
(d) A rural woman from a Land- owning family (iv) Regular job and high wages to increase her income

Answer:
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops (iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops.

Explanation: A large amount of water is required for the cultivation of crops of the farmers, who are primarily dependent on rain. Hence, their primary need is the availability of irrigation facilities to support their crops in the absence of rain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 31.
Match the countries given with their HDI Rank according to Human Development Report, UNDP, 2018.

Column A Column B
(a) Sri Lanka (i) 150
(b) India (ii) 149
(c) Pakistan (iii) 130
(d) Nepal (iv) 76

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Sri Lanka (iv) 76
(b) India (iii) 130
(c) Pakistan (i) 150
(d) Nepal (ii) 149

Explanation: Human Development Report published by UNDP annually compares countries based on the educational levels of the people their health status and per capita income. It calculates a cumulative score by measuring GNI. life expectancy at birth and mean years of schooling (literacy and accessibility to educational facilities). All member countries are compared and ranks are given according to their score. Higher rank means greater human development.

Question 32.
Choose the correctly matched option from the following:

Column I (Category of person) Column II (Development goat)
(a) Farmers who depend only on  rain for growing crops More days of work and better wages
(b) Landless rural Labourers Higher support prices for their crops
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Regular wages
(d) An adivosi from Narmada volley To fulfill Livelihood

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Increase in population, urbanization and industrialization lead to increased use for fossil fuels.
Reason (R): Overuse of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon of greenhouse effect.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country.
Reason (R): About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Kerala has a better net attendance ratio than Bihar.
Reason (R): Kerala has less female children than Bihar hence the attendance ratio is better.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Kerala has better infrastructure and educational facilities for students. This makes it easier to attend school and study.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): People not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect for others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. in mind.
Reason (R): Money cannot buy everything.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The given picture shows an overuse of which of the following resources?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 2
(a) Soil
(b) Air
(c) Woman Power
(d) Groundwater
Answer:
(d) Groundwater

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like. Which of the following is the right replacement for the underlined sentence?
(a) We have community goals.
(b) We have occupational goals.
(c) We have developmental goals.
(d) We have society goals.
Answer:
(c) We have developmental goals.

Question 3.
Match the items in Column A to that of Column B and choose the right option:

Column A

Column B

(A) Girl in an urban family  (I) Regular wages and more job days
(B) A minister  (II) Equal opportunities just like her brother
(C) A laborer  (III) More profit, more projects
(D) A businessman  (IV) More votes

(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
Answer:
(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 3
What could be the development goal for the shown area?
Answer:

Question 5.
Study the picture given below. Ident fy an appropriate developmental goal foe the characters.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 4
Answer:
An appropriate developmental goal for the poor lady would be to have a stable job and affordable house for her small family. For the rich man, his developmental goal can be more opportunities for profit and investment from foreign countries, more luxurious Life or even a bigger car.

Question 6.
Study the table and answer the question tnat follows :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 5
Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 VoL 2, Government of India; National Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 575)
In comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate ?
Answer:
Bihar
Explanation: As Bihar lacks health and proper education facilities, the mortality rate is highest there.

Question 7.
Study the table and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 6
Which State has the lowest net attendance ratio at the secondary stage?
Answer:
Bihar

Explanation: The table shows the lowest statistics for net attendance ratio in Bihar.

Related Theory
Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.

Question 8.
Based on the data given in the following table, calculate the average income for both countries:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 7
Which country has more equitable distribution of income?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 9.
Study the statistics in the table and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 8
Calculate the average income of the family.
Answer:
₹10,000

Explanation: Average Income of the family: 7,000 + 8,000 + 10,000 + 15,000 = 40,000
Sum of incomes = 40,000
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 9
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A vessel dumped 500 tonnes of liquid toxic wastes into open-air dumps in a city and in the surrounding sea. This happened in a city called Abidjan in Ivory Coast, a country in Africa. The fumes from the highly toxic waste caused nausea, skin rashes, fainting, diarrhoea etc. After a month seven persons were dead, twenty in hospital and twenty six thousand treated for symptoms of poisoning. A multinational company dealing in petroleum and metals had contracted a local company of the Ivory Coast to dispose the toxic waste from its ship.
(A) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for natives of Abidjan?
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environ-ment.
(b) More space
(c) More houses
(d) More factories and hence more jobs
Answer:
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environment.

Which of the following would be an ideal goal for natives of Abidjan

(B) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for the multinational company?
(I) More money
(II) To get rid of its waste without having to pay for its disposal.
(III) More employees
(IV) More profit
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I) (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(C) Which resource was severely affected in the given source?
Answer:
Water in the sea bodies.

(D) Assertion (A): Different people may have different and conflicting interests.
Reason (R): They belong to different continents.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criteria. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development For instance, the Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from the Human Development Report 2019.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following countries has a better rank than India in Human Development Report for 2018?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: Sri Lanka is at rank 76 while India is at rank 130.

(B) Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank and UNDP?
(a) Educational levels
(b) Health Status
(c) Gold Reserves
(d) Per Capita Income
Answer:
(d) Per Capita Income

(C) Where is the UNDP headquartered?
(a) London
(b) New York
(c) Burns
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) New York

(D) Which of the Asian country is lower in HDI?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(b) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan is at rank 150 according to the list of 2018.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years,
60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following resources are renewable but excessively used?
(a) Solar Energy
(b) Wind Energy
(c) Air
(d) Trees
Answer:
(d) Trees
Explanation: Trees are heavily deforested and uprooted for various industrial and construction projects.

(B) What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Third
(c) One-Tenth
(d) One-Eighth
Answer:
(b) One-Third

(C) Which of the following options is a reason for Groundwater overuse?
(I) Usage at homes
(II) Usage at Agricultural sites
(III) Watering plants
(IV) Pollution through chemicals and solid wastes
(V) Drinking
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) & (V)
(d) (I), (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of the following is a solution to prevent Groundwater overuse?
(a) Stop drinking groundwater
(b) Stop irrigating plants and crops
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) Use river water for domestic usage
Answer:
(c) Rainwater harvesting

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 13.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Do all of these persons have the same notion of development or progress? Most likely not. Each one of them seeks different things. They seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a developmental goal for labour unions?
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented
(b) To get more buildings made
(c) To get more electricity
(d) To get more money
Answer:
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented

(B) which of the following statements is correct about developmental goals?
(a) They are the same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(c) There are no developmental goals.
(d) These goals do not matter.
Answer:

(C) What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a native craftsman?
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods
Answer:
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods

(D) Which two groups have conflicting interests according to the source?
(a) The girls and the boy
(b) The tribals and the industrialists
(c) Companies fighting for one project
(d) The tribals against one another
Answer:
(b) The tribals and the industrialists

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Suggest any one way to create employment in Semi-rural areas.
Answer:
Capacity building and establishing of food processing units in Semi Rural areas can help create employment in Semi-Rural areas.

Question 2.
State any two goals of development other than Income.
Answer:
Values like Peace and Freedom; Healthy environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 3.
Why does Kerala have a Low Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Availability of Healthcare and medical facilities helps it have a low mortality rate.

Question 4.
What is the development goal of rural people of India as per your viewpoint?
Answer:
To have access to better resources like food, transportation and communication facilities.

Question 5.
What is the advantage of knowing per capita income? Mention any one.
Answer:
Knowing per capita income for a country helps to compare and analyze wealth of different countries and measure their,. economic development. It can be used as a measure of nation’s standard of living.

Question 6.
What is the full form of HDI?
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 7.
According to the World Bank (2004), which country would be classified as a low income country?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 8.
If there are 4 families in a country with per capita income of 15,000 $. The income of 3 families is $10,000, $ 20,000 and $12,000. What is the income of the 4th family?
Answer:
Per Capita Income = Average Income = Sum of income of all units/Total units
= 10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A/4 = 15,000
= 15,000 x 4 = 10,000+20,000+12,000 + A
= 60,000 – (10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A)
A = 60,000 – 42,000
A = Rs. 18,000

Question 9.
“There is enough for everybody’s need but not for everybody’s greed.” Who said these words? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 10.
Why do some people oppose dams? Give one reason.
Answer:
Displacement of homes, destruction of natural habitat makes adivasis in India oppose the construction of dams.

Question 11.
How can development be made sustainable? Illustrate with examples from everyday life.
Answer:
Development can be made sustainable if the existing resources are used in a planned manner. Emphasis should be developing renewable sources of energy and recycling of metals.

Question 12.
Define the term ‘literacy rate’.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 13.
Defirle the term ‘Uteracy rate’.
Answer:

Question 14.
What may be one of the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family? [CBSE 2019,14,11]
Answer:
the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family may be getting the same freedom as her brother, pursue higher studies and a high standard of living.

Related Theory
A development goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. Alt people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 15.
How can two people have different developmental goals ? [CBSE 2018]
Answer:
Different people have different developmental goals because people come from different backgrounds and have different dreams and aspirations.

Related Theory
People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situation and may also change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to the previous goal.

Question 16.
Define IMR.
Answer:
The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year, is called infant mortality rate or IMR.

Question 17.
What may be one of the developmental goals of b rich farmer? [CBSE 2019,15]
Answer:
The developmental goals of a rich farmer might be gaining high profits on the produce or availability of cheap labour to work in the farm.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 18.
Define the term ‘per capita income’.
Answer:
Per capita income is calculated as the average income of a citizen of a country. Per capita Income = total income of a country/total population

Question 19.
What may be a developmental goal of farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops?
Answer:
The development goal of a farmer who is only dependent on rain for growing crop, would be a good and sufficient monsoon season so that his crops get the required irrigation and he can benefit from the good produce.

Related Theory
Developmental goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. All people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 20.
Mention the formula to calculate the BMI (Body Mass Index).
Answer:
BMI: (BODY MASS INDEX)
Weight of person in kg and height in metres is taken. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

Question 21.
What may be a developmental goal of the urban unemployed youth? [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
The development goal of an urban unemployed youth would be to find a good job and earn a decent wage with that work. He/she will aspire to maintain a good standard of living.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 22.
What criteria does UNDP compare to measure the human development index?
Answer:
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Related Theory
UNDP compares countries based on these aspects and prepares a Human Development Report.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Legislature with Answers

Legislature Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below for Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Legislature with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Legislature Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Legislature MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 5 MCQs On Legislature

Legislature Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
The Indian Parliament is:
(a) Unicameral
(b) Three Houses
(c) Bicameral
(d) Four Houses

Answer

Answer: (c) Bicameral


Legislature MCQ Class 11 Question 2.
The bill that enjoys the sitting of both the Houses due to deadlock is
(a) Prevention of Terrorism Bill
(b) Revenue Generation Bill
(c) Entertainment Tax Bill on Gujarat State
(d) Customs Tariff (Amendment) Bill

Answer

Answer: (a) Prevention of Terrorism Bill


MCQ On Legislature Class 11 Question 3.
The members of parliament are free to raise any matter, which according to them is important, during
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) Question hour
(c) No-confidence motion
(d) Zero hour

Answer

Answer: (d) Zero hour


MCQ Of Chapter Legislature Class 11 Question 4.
Germany has a
(a) Unicameral legislature
(b) Bicameral legislature
(c) Dictatorship form of government
(d) Autocratic form of government

Answer

Answer: (b) Bicameral legislature


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 5.
The number of members from Uttar Pradesh to Rajya Sabha is
(a) 23
(b) 29
(c) 31
(d) 33

Answer

Answer: (c) 31


MCQ Of Legislature Class 11 Question 6.
The circumstances for the extension of the term of Lok Sabha are mentioned in the
(a) Article 76
(b) Article 80
(c) Article 81
(d) Article 83(2)

Answer

Answer: (d) Article 83(2)


Class 11 Legislature MCQ Question 7.
Confidence or no-confidence can be moved only in
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Estimate Committee

Answer

Answer: (b) Lok Sabha


MCQ Questions For Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Question 8.
The total numbers of seats for Lok Sabha are
(a) 484
(b) 496
(c) 535
(d) 543

Answer

Answer: (d) 543


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Legislature MCQ Question 9.
The constitutional article that mentions the conduct of the business of the Houses of Parliament is:
(a) Article 77
(b) Article 80
(c) Article 86
(d) Article 118

Answer

Answer: (d) Article 118


Class 11 Political Science Legislature MCQ Question 10.
The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is known as:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Council of States

Answer

Answer: (b) Lok Sabha


MCQ Of Chapter 5 Political Science Class 11 Question 11.
The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 5 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 3 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 years


Nsui full form-national student’s union of india.

MCQ Questions On Legislature Question 12.
The Upper House of the Indian Parliament is known as:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Legislative Council

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Legislature with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Political Science Legislature MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Political Science with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship with Answers

Citizenship Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Citizenship Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 6 MCQs On Citizenship

Citizenship MCQ Class 11 Chapter 6 Question 1.
Who was T. Marshall?
(a) A British Socialist
(b) A British Scientist
(c) A British Cricketer
(d) A British Footballer

Answer

Answer: (a) A British Socialist


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 2.
Martin Luther King Jr. led the movement against
(a) Segregation Laws
(b) Multiple citizenships
(c) Dual citizenship
(d) Multi-National Companies

Answer

Answer: (a) Segregation Laws


MCQs On Citizenship Class 11 Chapter 6 Question 3.
Identify the nation where dual citizenship prevails.
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) USA
(d) Nepal

Answer

Answer: (c) the USA


MCQ Questions On Citizenship Class 11 Chapter 6 Question 4.
Choose the incorrect type of citizenship.
(a) Dual citizenship
(b) Multiple citizenships
(c) Single Citizenship
(d) Non-Resident Citizenship

Answer

Answer: (d) Non-Resident Citizenship


MCQ On Citizenship Class 11 Chapter 6 Question 5.
The Palestinian refugees are fighting for full citizenship of a state in
(a) the Middle East
(b) South-East Asia
(c) Europe
(d) West America

Answer

Answer: (a) the Middle East


Question 6.
Identify the year when Black people got equal citizenship rights in South Africa.
(a) 1960s
(b) 1970s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s

Answer

Answer: (d) 1990s


Question 7.
Citizenship may be lost under the following condition:
(a) Marriage
(b) Long Absence
(c) Adoption
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 8.
Citizenship can be acquired by:
(a) Long residence
(b) Marriage
(c) Government service
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 9.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Apartheid’?
(a) Social Upliftment
(b) Social Discrimination
(c) Economic Upliftment
(d) Economic Discrimination

Answer

Answer: (b) Social Discrimination


Question 10.
The notion of citizenship rights is associated with
(a) A. H. Halsey
(b) E. H. Carr
(c) T. H. Huxley
(d) T. H. Huxlem

Answer

Answer: (c) T. H. Huxley


Question 11.
Choose the incorrect cause of illegal immigration.
(a) War
(b) Poverty
(c) Prostitution and slavery
(d) Peace

Answer

Answer: (d) Peace


Question 12.
The 1951 Geneva Convention deals with
(a) Refugee laws
(b) Laws against segregation
(c) Laws against forced labour
(d) Citizenship rights of women

Answer

Answer: (a) Refugee laws


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Political Science Citizenship MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Political Science with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Unit 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction with Answers

Statistics for Economics Introduction Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Unit 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Statistics for Economics Introduction Class 11 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Economics Chapter 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 11 Chapter 1 MCQs On Statistics for Economics Introduction

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Statistics Economics Chapter 1 Question 1.
Arthashashtra originated in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 18th century
(c) 19th century
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) 18th century


Statistics For Economics Class 11 Chapter 1 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 2.
“Economics is the study of economic welfare” who said this:
(a) Marshall
(b) Prof. Pigou
(c) J. K. Mehta
(d) Keynes.

Answer

Answer: (a) Marshall


Class 11 Statistics Chapter 1 MCQ Questions Question 3.
He is known as father of statistics:
(a) Bowley
(b) Bodington
(c) Gottfried Achenwall
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Bodington


Introduction To Statistics Class 11 MCQ Question 4.
Statistics is:
(a) Facts
(b) Presentation
(c) Numerical data
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Presentation


Chapter 1 Statistics Class 11 MCQ Question 5.
Name of the book by Kautilya:
(a) Economics
(b) Varta
(c) Krishna, Valmiki and Vashista
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Economics


Fill in the blanks:

1. Adam Smith is known as …………………………. of Economics.

Answer

Answer: Father


2. There is difference between wants and …………………………..

Answer

Answer: Intensity


3. Collection is an example of ……………………….

Answer

Answer: Statistics


4. Statistics is an art as well as ………………………..

Answer

Answer: Science


5. When six economists gather they have …………………………. opinion.

Answer

Answer: 7


State true or false:

1. There are limited wants of humans.

Answer

Answer: False


2. “Principles of Economics” is written by Pigou.

Answer

Answer: False


3. Statistical data is numerical data.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Statistics is not important in speculation market.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Rules of economics are universal.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the columns:

Column A Column B
1. Optional use of limited resources (a) Pigou
2. Money is a measuring source (b) Bowley
3. Statistics is the science of counting (c) Robbins
4. Collection of data (d) Samuelson
5. Development related definition of economics (e) Primary and secondary data.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Optional use of limited resources (c) Robbins
2. Money is a measuring source (a) Pigou
3. Statistics is the science of counting (b) Bowley
4. Collection of data (e) Primary and secondary data.
5. Development related definition of economics (d) Samuelson

Answer in one word:

1. According to Marshall, Economics is what type of science?

Answer

Answer: Social


2. Who wrote the book, “Discovery of Nation’s Wealth and Reasons”?

Answer

Answer: Adam Smith


3. What is statistics in singular?

Answer

Answer: Rules


4. Who gave analytical definition of economics?

Answer

Answer: Robbins


5. From which language statistics has been derived?

Answer

Answer: English


6. What are economic goods?

Answer

Answer: The goods which are made by humans are called economic goods.


7. Who is propagator of modern economics?

Answer

Answer: The propagator of modem economics is Prof. Marshall.


8. Who is known as service provider?

Answer

Answer: The person who works for others for remuneration is called service provider.


9. Who is known as service man?

Answer

Answer: The person who keep others to do his work for remuneration is called service man.


10. What is economic activity?

Answer

Answer: Activities which are performed to earn wealth are called economic activities.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Economics Unit 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Economics Statistics for Economics Introduction MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Economics MCQ: