MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare with Answers

Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 10 MCQs On Microbes in Human Welfare

Microbes In Human Welfare MCQ Question 1.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel:
(a) Bio-metallurigcal techniques
(b) Bio-mineralization process
(c) Bio-insecticidal plants
(d) Bio-fertilizers

Answer

Answer: (c) Bio-insecticidal plants

Microbes In Human Welfare Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Streptococcus is used in the preparation of:
(a) Wine
(b) Idli
(c) Paneer
(d) Bread

Answer

Answer: (c) Paneer

Streptococcus is used in the preparation of:

MCQ On Microbes In Human Welfare Question 3.
Nif gene occurs in:
(a) Peiiicillium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Streptococcus

Answer

Answer: (b) Rhizobium

Microbes In Human Welfare MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Azoila has symbiotic relationship with:
(a) Chlotfila
(b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc
(d) Tolypothrix

Answer

Answer: (b) Anabaena

MCQ On Microbes In Human Welfare Class 12 Question 5.
Term antibiotic was first used by :
(a) Flemming
(b) Pasteur
(c) Waksman
(d) Lister

Answer

Answer: (c) Waksman

Microbes In Human Welfare Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 6.
A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Clostridium

Answer

Answer: (d) Clostridium

Microbes In Human Welfare MCQs Question 7.
Citric acid is produced by:
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Saccharomyces

Answer

Answer: (a) Rhizopus

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 10 Question 8.
In nostoc, enzyme nitrogenase occurs in :
(a) Vegetative cells
(b) Heterocysts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only in hormogones

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 MCQ Question 9.
Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from :
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Lichens
(d) Algae

Answer

Answer: (c) Lichens

MCQ Of Microbes In Human Welfare Question 10.
By anobacteria are useful biofertilizers in the; field of:
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Rice

MCQs On Microbes In Human Welfare Question 11.
Streptomycin is produced by:
(a) By Streptomyces Scoleus
(b) By Streptomyces fradiae
(c) By Streptomyces venezueleae
(d) By Streptomyces griseus

Answer

Answer: (d) By Streptomyces griseus

MCQ Questions On Microbes In Human Welfare Question 12.
Antibiotics are:
(a) Medicines
(b) Toxin
(c) Plants
(d) Syrups

Answer

Answer: (a) Medicines

MCQ Microbes In Human Welfare Question 13.
A free-living aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium is:
(a) Anabaena
(b) Clostridium
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Rhizobium

Answer

Answer: (c) Azotobactor

MCQ Of Chapter 10 Biology Class 12 Question 14.
For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe is:
(a) Methanophilic bacteria
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobactor pylon
(d) Streptococcus lactin

Answer

Answer: (b) Butyric acid bacteria

For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe is:

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Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers

Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQs On Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Question 1.
Represser Lac-Operon protein attached to:
(a) Operator
(b) Inducer
(c) Regulator
(d) β-Glacto sidase

Answer

Answer: (b) Inducer

Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 MCQ Question 2.
Following is important in Ïranscription:
(a) DNA Methylase
(b) CAAT Box
(c) Promotar
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (a) DNA Methylase

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Anticodon found in:
(a) On DNA
(b) On t-RNA
(c) On r-RNA
(d) On m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) On t-RNA

MCQ Of Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Question 4.
In DNA helix:
(a) Quadrate structure
(b) Polarity
(c) Antiparallel Polarity
(d) Disuiphide bond

Answer

Answer: (c) Antiparallel Polarity

In DNA helix:

Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 MCQs Question 5.
During splicing axon attached and inducer enzyme for reaction:
(a) RNA Ligase
(b) RNA Catalase
(c) RNA permease
(d) RNA poloymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA Catalase

Ch 6 Bio Class 12 MCQ Question 6.
During DNA synthesis formed segment is:
(a) Polymerase fragment
(b) RNA fragment
(c) Okazaki fragment
(d) RNA Primer

Answer

Answer: (c) Okazaki fragment

MCQ On Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Question 7.
In a give DNA segment ATC ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on coding by the DNA segment will result in :
(a) One amino acid less in protein
(b) No change in the sequence
(c) Complete change in the type and sequence of amino acid
(d) Change in first amino acid only

Answer

Answer: (b) No change in the sequence

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Question 8.
DNA fragments are joined in a correct sequence by :
(a) DNA ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase

Answer

Answer: (b) RNA polymerase

MCQ Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Question 9.
The ratio constant for a species is :
(a) T+C/G + A
(b) A+C/T + G
(c) G + G/A + T
(d) A + C/C + T

Answer

Answer: (b) A+C/T + G

MCQ Of Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Question 10.
DNA repairing is done by:
(a) By DNA polymerase I
(b) By DNA Polymerase II
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) By Ligase

Answer

Answer: (b) By DNA Polymerase II

Molecular Basis Of Inheritance MCQ Class 12 Question 11.
A ribotide is made up of:
(a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
(b) Deoxribose + Uracil + Phosphate
(c) Thymine + Ribose + Phosphate
(d) Deoxyribpse + Phosphate + Adenine

Answer

Answer: (a) Ribose + Phosphate + Uracil

Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 MCQ Question 12.
the enzyme involved in transcription is:
(a) DNA Polymerase I
(b) DNA Polymerase II
(c) RNA Polymerase
(d) DNA Polymerase

Answer

Answer: (d) DNA Polymerase

MCQ On Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Class 12 Question 13.
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that:
(a) One strand turns clockwise
(b) One strand turns anticlockwise
(c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position
(d) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

Answer

Answer: (c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position

Class 12 Bio Chapter 6 MCQ Question 14.
Which one is mainly transcribed:
(a) Only RNA sequence
(b) Middle repetitive DNA sequence
(c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence
(d) Single copy of DNA sequence

Answer

Answer: (c) Highly repetitive DNA sequence

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 15.
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of?
(a) c-DNA
(b) r-RNA
(c) f-RNA
(d) m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (b) r-RNA

Question 16.
DNA multiplication is also called:
(a) Replication
(b) Transduction
(c) Translation
(d) Transcription

Answer

Answer: (b) Transduction

Question 17.
During Protein synthesis, atone point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which any one of the three could bring about this halt:
(a) UUC, UUA, UAC
(b) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) UUE, UCA, UCG
(d) UUU, UCC, UAU

Answer

Answer: (b) UAG, UGA, UAA

Question 18.
One turn of the helix in p-from DNA is approximately:
(a) 20 Å
(b) 2 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 34 nm

Answer

Answer: (d) 34 nm

Question 19.
Which is not component of lac operon:
(a) Primer gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) constructive gene
(d) Regulator gene

Answer

Answer: (c) constructive gene

Question 20.
Okazaki fregments is:
(a) RNA primer
(b) small segments of DNA on leading stand
(c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Small segments of DNA on lagging stand

Question 21.
Transposons occur in:
(a) In Eukaryotes
(b) In Prokaryotes
(c) In both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) In both (a) and (b)

Question 22.
One of these is not prepared directly from DNA
(a) m-RNA
(b) f-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) Protein

Answer

Answer: (d) Protein

Question 23.
Coiling of DNA duplex is:
(a) Left-handed
(b) Right-handed
(c) Parallel
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Parallel

Question 24.
DNA double helix model was given by:
(a) Knoll and Ruska
(b) Khorana
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Priestley

Answer

Answer: (c) Watson and Crick

Question 25.
Inprokaryotic translation, GTP molecule required in at:
(a) Formation of formyl-met-f-RNA
(b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA
(c) Joining of 30S m-RNA on Formyl-met-f-RNA
(d) Joining of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

Answer

Answer: (b) Joining of 30S sub-unit of ribosome with n-RNA

Question 26.
DNA transcription, if nucleotide sequence of DNA strand, that is being coded in ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in m-RNA would be:
(a) UATGC
(b) TATGC
(c) TCTGG
(d) UAUGC

Answer

Answer: (b) TATGC

Question 27.
In a m-RNA, how many nucleotide sequence code for amino acid:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (a) One

In a m-RNA, how many nucleotide sequence code for amino acid:

Question 28.
RNA from which has clover leaf model:
(a) f-RNA
(b) r-RNA
(c) hn-RNA
(d) m-RNA

Answer

Answer: (a) f-RNA

Question 29.
Nitrogenous bases present in DNA:
(a) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
(b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
(c) Adenine, thymine, uracil
(d) Guanine, uracil

Answer

Answer: (a) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Molecular Basis of Inheritance CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation with Answers

Principles of Inheritance and Variation Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Principles of Inheritance and Variation Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQs On Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.
Sucess of mendal is
(a) Selection of Peaplant
(b) Studied of free characters
(c) More Characters selection
(d) Pea is Bisexual

Answer

Answer: (a) Selection of Peaplant

Principle Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Question 2.
Loss of Melanin pigment cause for:
(a) Colourblindness
(b) Depigmentation
(c) Phenyl Ketoneuria
(d) Alkaptoneuria

Answer

Answer: (b) Depigmentation

Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 MCQs Question 3.
Gunetical identification of male human is:
(a) By Nucleus
(b) By cells
(c) By Autosome
(d) By Sex-chromosome

Answer

Answer: (d) By Sex-chromosome

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation MCQ Question 4.
Rh+ individual gene may be:
(a) rr
(b) TT
(c) Rr
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (c) Rr

Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Cause of chromosomal mutation:
(a) Euploidy
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Physical effect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

MCQ Of Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 Question 6.
Mendal was born in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 18th century
(c) 19th century
(d) 8th century

Answer

Answer: (a) 17th century

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Question 7.
Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
(a) No crossing over
(b) High crossing over
(c) Hardly an crossing over
(d) Only double crossing overy

Answer

Answer: (a) No crossing over

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 Question 8.
First geneticist/father of genetics was:
(a) de Vries
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Morgan

Answer

Answer: (b) Mendel

Class 12 Bio Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
An lndividual with into identical alleles is:
(a) Hybrid
(b) Dominant
(c) Homozygous
(d) Heterozygous

Answer

Answer: (c) Homozygous

An lndividual with into identical alleles is:

Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQs Question 10.
Mendal’s law can be applicable only when:
(a) Characters are linked
(b) Parents are pore breed
(c) F1 generation in monohybrid cross show 2 type of individuals
(d) Onepair of contiasting characters depends on another pair

Answer

Answer: (a) Characters are linked

Principle Of Inheritance And Variation Class 12 MCQ Question 11.
A true hybrid condition is:
(a) tt Rr
(b) Tt rr
(c) tt rr
(d) Tt Rr

Answer

Answer: (c) tt rr

MCQ Chapter 5 Biology Class 12 Question 12.
The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called :
(a) Co-dominant
(b) Supplementary
(c) Complementary
(d) Recessive

Answer

Answer: (d) Recessive

Chapter 5 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 13.
Most of the mutations are:
(a) Recessive
(b) Harmful
(c) Germinal
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Recessive

MCQ On Principles Of Inheritance And Variation Question 14.
Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is :
(a) Recon
(b) Cistron
(c) Muton
(d) Exon

Answer

Answer: (c) Muton

Class 12 Biology Ch 5 MCQ Question 15.
Genes located on V-chroinosome are:
(a) Mutant genes
(b) Autosomal genes
(c) Holandric genes
(d) Sex-linked genes

Answer

Answer: (d) Sex-linked genes

Question 16.
A strong mutagen is:
(a) Cold
(b) Heat
(c) Water
(d) X-rays

Answer

Answer: (d) X-rays

Question 17.
A point mutation is:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickel-cell anaemia
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Nightblindness

Answer

Answer: (b) Sickel-cell anaemia

Question 18.
Mendel’s second law is of the law of:
(a) Segregation
(b) Dominance
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (d) Independent assortment

Question 19.
An organism with two unlike genes of a trait is called :
(a) Homozygous
(b) Hetrozygous
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Hetrozygous

Question 20.
Mendel’s laws were discovered by:
(a) Correns
(b) Shermak
(c) de meris
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 21.
When F1 plants heterozygous for tallness are selfed F2, generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle of:
(a) Dominance
(b) Blended inheritance
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Law of segregation

Question 22.
Mendel’s formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of:
(a) Test cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Monohybrid cross
(d) Dihybrid cross

Answer

Answer: (c) Monohybrid cross

Question 23.
tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring:
(a) 75% Ineffective
(b) 50% Uneffective
(c) 25% Uneffective
(d) All Effective

Answer

Answer: (b) 50% Uneffective

Question 24.
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result in the gain or loss of a cromosome (s) is called :
(a) Female heterogamety
(b) Male heterogamety
(c) Aneuploidy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Female heterogamety

Question 25.
Exception of Mendel’s law is:
(a) Dominance
(b) Purity of gametes
(c) Linkage
(d) Independent assortment

Answer

Answer: (c) Linkage

Question 26.
Haemophilia is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) Can be (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Mendelian disorder

Question 27.
Down’s syndrome is a:
(a) Mendelian disorder
(b) Chromosomal disorder
(c) can be both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Chromosomal disorder

Question 28.
Mendel worked on :
(a) Edible pea
(b) Wild pea
(c) Garden Pea
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Edible pea

Question 29.
A gamete contains which of the following :
(a) Both alleles of a gene
(b) Only one allele of a gene
(c) Al allele of a gene
(d) No allele

Answer

Answer: (b) Only one allele of a gene

Question 30.
Name the scientist who discovered the law of Heredity :
(a) Gregor Mendel
(b) Newton
(c) Piinnett
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gregor Mendel

Question 31.
Punnett square was developed by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Watson and Sutton
(c) Raginald
(d) Boveri

Answer

Answer: (c) Raginald

Question 32.
Who introduced Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance?
(a) Mendel
(b) Sutton
(c) Reginald
(d) Boveri

Answer

Answer: (b) Sutton

Who introduced Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance?

Question 33.
The plant Mendel used to study inheritance of two genes is:
(a) Apple
(b) Mango
(c) Garden pea
(d) Potato

Answer

Answer: (c) Garden pea

Question 34.
Mendel published his work on inheritance of character in?
(a) 1870
(b) 1900
(c) 1865
(d) 1845

Answer

Answer: (c) 1865

Question 35.
Female heterogamety is :
(a) Two different types of gametes are produced by females
(b) Four different types of gametes are produced by males
(c) Can be both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Two different types of gametes are produced by females

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Principles of Inheritance and Variation CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production with Answers

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 9 MCQs On Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production MCQ Question 1.
Zoological name of Indian buffalo is:
(a) Bubalus bubalus
(b) Bos indicus
(c) Bos taurus
(d) Gallusgallus

Answer

Answer: (a) Bubalus bubalus

Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 MCQ Questions Question 2.
The best milk breed in the world is:
(a) Chittgong
(b) Deoni
(c) Holstein-Friesian
(d) Sindhi

Answer

Answer: (c) Holstein-Friesian

The best milk breed in the world is:

MCQ On Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Question 3.
There crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are :
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat rice and barley
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum

Answer

Answer: (a) Wheat, rice and maize

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 9 Question 4.
The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is :
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Goat-sheep cross
(d) Mashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross

Answer

Answer: (b) Goat

Enhancement Of Food Production MCQ Question 5.
Both in callus and suspension culture commonly used auxin is:
(a) NAA
(b) IEA
(c) 2-4D
(d) Abscisic acid

Answer

Answer: (c) 2-4D

Food Production MCQ Questions And Answers Pdf Question 6.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By Cell culture
(d) By Totipotency

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion

MCQs On Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Question 7.
India’s w heat yield revolution in the 1986s was possible primarily due to:
(a) Mutations resulting in the plant height reduction
(b) Quantitative trait mutations
(c) Hybrid seeds
(d) Increased chlorophyll content

Answer

Answer: (c) Hybrid seeds

MCQ On Enhancement In Food Production Question 8.
One of the following is a disease of poultry:
(a) Anthrax
(b) Pebrine disease
(c) Ranikhet disease
(d) Foot and mouth disease

Answer

Answer: (c) Ranikhet disease

Food Production MCQ Questions And Answers Question 9.
Choose the cat fish from the following:
(a) Katla Katla
(b) Wallage attu
(c) Labeo rohita
(d) Cirrhinus mrigaja

Answer

Answer: (b) Wallage attu

MCQ Of Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production Question 10.
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called :
(a) Organ culture
(b) Micro-propagation
(c) Macro-propagation
(d) Plantlet culture

Answer

Answer: (b) Micro-propagation

Food Production MCQ Questions Question 11.
Most cultivated plants are:
(a) Autopolyploid
(b) Allopolyploid
(c) Aneuploids
(d) Haploids

Answer

Answer: (b) Allopolyploid

Enhancement In Food Production MCQ Question 12.
Triticale first main-made corral crop has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(a) Rye
(b) Pearl mille
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Barley

Answer

Answer: (a) Rye

Food Production Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
Most nutritious among the following is:
(a) What
(b) Maize
(c) Pearley
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (c) Pearley

Food Production Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 14.
Hybrid vagour is induced by:
(a) By Clonal selection
(b) By Crossing of plant
(c) By crossing of two plants
(d) By Species differentiation

Answer

Answer: (c) By crossing of two plants

Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production MCQ Pdf Download Question 15.
Norman Borlaugh known as “Father of Green Revolution” has developed new cultivating variety of:
(a) Paddy
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: (c) Wheat

Norman Borlaugh known as “Father of Green Revolution” has developed new cultivating variety of:

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers

Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Organisms and Populations Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 13 MCQs On Organisms and Populations

MCQ On Organism And Population Class 12 Chapter 13 Question 1.
Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:
(a) Topography
(b) Trophic level
(c) Boundary
(d) Ecological niche

Answer

Answer: (d) Ecological niche

Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 MCQ Questions Question 2.
The maximum growth rate occurs in :
(a) Lag phase
(b) Exponential, phase
(c) Stationary phase
(d) Senescent phase

Answer

Answer: (b) Exponential, phase

Organism And Population Class 12 MCQ Chapter 13 Question 3.
In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface veiw most?
(a) Shrub land
(b) Forest
(c) Desert
(d) Grassland

Answer

Answer: (c) Desert

In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface veiw most?

Organisms And Population Class 12 MCQ Chapter 13 Question 4.
Science linking heredity with environment is:
(a) Ecology
(b) Ecophysiology
(c) Genecology
(d) Genetics

Answer

Answer: (c) Genecology

Organisms And Population MCQ With Answers Chapter 13 Question 5.
Submerged hydrophytes havedisseced leaves for:
(a) Decreasing surface area
(b) Increasing surface area
(c) Reducing effect pf water currents
(d) Increasing number of stomata

Answer

Answer: (c) Reducing effect pf water currents

Organism And Population MCQ Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 6.
Water holding capacity is maximum in:
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) Gravel

Answer

Answer: (a) Clay

MCQ On Organism And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 7.
Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called :
(a) Acclimatisation
(b) Hibernation
(c) Aestivation
(d) Adapatation

Answer

Answer: (b) Hibernation

Organisms And Populations MCQ Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 8.
Praying mantis is a good example of:
(a) Camouflage
(b) Mullarian mimicry
(c) Warning colouration
(d) Social insect

Answer

Answer: (a) Camouflage

MCQ On Organisms And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 9.
Niche overlap is:
(a) Mutualism between two species
(b) Active cooperation between two species
(c) Tjvo different parasites on same food
(d) Sharing resources between two species

Answer

Answer: (d) Sharing resources between two species

Organisms And Population MCQ Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 10.
Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example:
(a) Colour change in Chameleon
(b) Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
(c) Poison fangas of snakes
(d) Melaninin in moths

Answer

Answer: (c) Poison fangas of snakes

MCQ Organism And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 11.
Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic:
(a) Infra-red rays
(b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) gamma rays

Answer

Answer: (b) Ultraviolet rays

MCQ Of Organism And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 12.
Avicennia, Rhizophora andAtriplex are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Mesophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Halophytes

MCQs On Organism And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 13.
Maximum amounts of humus occurs on:
(a) In lower most layer
(b) In upper layer
(c) In Middle layer
(d) Same everywhere

Answer

Answer: (b) In upper layer

MCQs On Organisms And Population Chapter 13 Class 12 Question 14.
Mycorrhiza is an example to:
(a) Decomposers
(b) Endoparasitism
(c) Symbiotic relationship
(d) Ectoparasitism

Answer

Answer: (c) Symbiotic relationship

Organism And Population Class 12 MCQ Pdf Chapter 13 Question 15.
Plants growing in saline soil with high salt concentration are:
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Heliophytes
(d) Hydrophytes

Answer

Answer: (b) Halophytes

Question 16.
When births are equal to deaths, it is:
(a) Plateau stage
(b) Exponential stage
(c) Early growth stage
(d) Acceleration stage

Answer

Answer: (a) Plateau stage

Question 17.
Which plants is found in mangroove zone?
(a) Rhizophora
(b) Acacia
(c) Pinus
(d) Tectona grandis

Answer

Answer: (a) Rhizophora

Which plants is found in mangroove zone?

Question 18.
Soil transported by air is:
(a) Alluvial
(b) Glacial
(c) Colluvial
(d) Eolian

Answer

Answer: (d) Eolian

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Organisms and Populations CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 16 MCQs On Chemistry in Everyday Life

Question 1.
The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called
(a) chemotherapy
(b) physiotherapy
(c) angiotherapy
(d) polytherapy

Answer

Answer: (a) chemotherapy

Question 2.
Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s artive site, instead bind to a different site of enzyme. This site is called
(a) allosteric site
(b) substrate site
(c) ionic site
(d) competitive site

Answer

Answer: (a) allosteric site

Question 3.
Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
(a) agonistic drugs
(b) antagonists drugs
(c) antimicrobial drugs
(d) allosteric drugs

Answer

Answer: (b) antagonists drugs

Question 4.
Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) antiseptics
(c) analgesics
(d) antipyretics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers

Question 5.
A drug which acts as antipyretic as analgesic is
(a) chloroquin
(b) penicillin
(c) chlorodiazeposide
(d) 4-acetamidophenol

Answer

Answer: (d) 4-acetamidophenol

Question 6.
The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and metnal tension are known as
(a) tranquilizers
(b) analgesics
(c) antimicrobials
(d) antibiotics

Answer

Answer: (a) tranquilizers

The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and metnal tension are known as

Question 7.
Which of the following can be used as an analgesic without causing addiction?
(a) Morphine
(b) Aspirin
(c) Heroin
(d) Codeine

Answer

Answer: (b) Aspirin

Question 8.
Which of the following will not act as a tranquilizer?
(a) Equanil
(b) Analgin
(c) Meprobamate
(d) Chlordiazepoxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Analgin

Question 9.
Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?
(a)Ibuprofen
(b) Aspirin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Morphine

Answer

Answer: (d) Morphine

Question 10.
Antihistamines are not helpful
(a) in curing nasal allergies
(b) in treating rashes caused by itching
(c) in bringing down acute fever
(d) in vasodilation

Answer

Answer: (c) in bringing down acute fever

Question 11.
The main cause of acidity in the stomach is
(a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level
(b) indigestion and pain in large intestine
(c) increase the pH level in the stomach
(d) release of extra bile juice which increases alkaline medium in stomach

Answer

Answer: (a) release of extra gastric acids which decrease the pH level

Question 12.
The chemical substances used to bring down body temperature in high fever are known as
(a) analgesics
(b) antipyretics
(c) antihistamines
(d) tranquilizers

Answer

Answer: (b) antipyretics

Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concehtration
(b) Aspirin is analgesic and natipyretic
(c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines
(d) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum antibiotic

Answer

Answer: (c) Norethindrone is an antihistamines

Question 14.
Terfenadine is commonly used as
(a) antihistamine
(b) antibiotic
(c) antimicrobial
(d) antifertility drug

Answer

Answer: (a) antihistamine

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is not correct about penicillin?
(a) Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum
(b) It is extracted from antibacterial fungus Penicillium
(c) Ampicillin and Amoxycilin are synthetic modification of penicillins
(d) It has bacteriostatic effect

Answer

Answer: (d) It has bacteriostatic effect

Question 16.
Which of the following will not act as antacid?
(a) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(b) Magnesium hydroxide
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Aluminium hydroxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Sodium carbonate

Question 17.
Barbiturates acts as
(a) hypnotic i.e., sleep producing agents
(b) non-narcotic analesics
(c) activator of neurotransmitters
(d) antilallergic drugs

Answer

Answer: (a) hypnotic i.e. sleep producing agents

Question 18.
The structure given below is known as
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers
(a) pronstosil
(b) sulphapyridine
(c) chloramphenicol
(d) chloroxylenol

Answer

Answer: (c) chloramphenicol

Question 19.
Antimicrobial drugs include
(i) antiseptics
(ii) antibiotics
(iii) disinfectants
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 20.
The term ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’ means
(a) bacterial antibiotics
(b) bacteriostatic antibiotics
(c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria
(d) which kill or inhibit all types of gram +ve bacteria

Answer

Answer: (c) which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram -ve and gram +ve bacteria

Question 21.
The main constituents of dettol are
(a) chloramphenicol + glycerol
(b) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol
(c) 0.2% solution of phenol
(d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

Answer

Answer: (d) chloroxylenol and terpineol

Question 22.
A drug which is effective in curring malaria is
(a) aspirin
(b) quinine
(c) morphine
(d) analgin

Answer

Answer: (b) quinine

Question 23.
An ester which is used as a medicine
(a) ethyl acetate
(b) methyl acetate
(c) methyl salicylate
(d) ethyl benzoate

Answer

Answer: (c) methyl salicylate

Question 24.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic
(b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
(c) Salvarsan is toxic to human beings
(d) Some disinfectants are used as antiseptics in lower concentrations

Answer

Answer: (b) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic

Question 25.
Which ofthe following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Ofloxacin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Prontosil

Answer

Answer: (d) Prontosil

Question 26.
Which of the following antibiotic is bactericidal?
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer

Answer: (c) Penicillin

Question 27.
The antibiotic which is effective against certain strain of cancer cells
(a) dysidazirine
(b) sulphanilamide
(c) vancomycin
(d) ofloxacin

Answer

Answer: (a) dysidazirine

Question 28.
Which of the following compounds represents an analgesic?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 29.
Which of the following is not an antidepressants?
(a) Ipronizaid
(b) Phenelzine
(c) Equanil
(d) Salvarsan

Answer

Answer: (d) Salvarsan

Question 30.
Which among the following is not an antibiotic?
(a) Penicillin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracyclin

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxytocin

Question 31.
Which one is a broad spectrum antibiotic?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Plasmoquin
(c) Xylocaine
(d) Antiseptic

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloramphenicol

Question 32.
What is tincture of iodine?
(a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture
(b) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol
(c) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water
(d) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide

Answer

Answer: (a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture

What is tincture of iodine?

Question 33.
The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks because
(a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature
(b) it is 500 times sweeter than cane sugar
(c) it becomes bitter at cooking temperature
(d) it reacts with the food at cooking temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) it is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature

Question 34.
What is the problem faced while using alitame as artificial sweetener?
(a) It decomposes when added to the food items
(b) It provides a huge number of calories to the food
(c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it
(d) It increases the volume of the contents to a large extent

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to control the sweetness of food while using it

Question 35.
Name an artificial sweetner which is derivative of sucrose
(a) Saccharine
(b) Sucrolose
(c) Sucrobenzamide
(d) Aspartame

Answer

Answer: (b) Sucrolose

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Class 12 Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs On Reproductive Health

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
In India, first consus was conducted in:
(a) 1851
(b) 1891
(c) 1921
(d) 1951

Answer

Answer: (b) 1891

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.
Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:
(a) Population density
(b) Population crash
(c) Population explosion
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Population crash

Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:

Reproductive Health MCQ Question 3.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo

MCQ Of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 Question 4.
‘Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Monthly

Answer

Answer: (a) Daily

Chapter 4 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 5.
Drug Ru-486 is used as :
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abortive agent
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Answer

Answer: (b) Abortive agent

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 6.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Answer

Answer: (d) Sterilization

MCQ Of Reproductive Health Class 12 Question 7.
Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named?
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Answer

Answer: (c) Saheli

Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Answer

Answer: (b) Periodic abstinence

Ch 4 Bio Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS

MCQ On Reproductive Health Class 12 Question 10.
Fssay on Population was published by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Malthus
(d) Hugo de vries

Answer

Answer: (c) Malthus

Class 12 Reproductive Health MCQ Question 11.
Surgical removed of testis of male of control the human population is:
(a) Castration
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) Vasectomy

Answer

Answer: (a) Castration

Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 12.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract

Answer

Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus

Reproductive Health MCQs Class 12 Question 13.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T

Answer

Answer: (c) Nirodh

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 MCQs Question 14.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gem. tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis

Biology Chapter 4 Class 12 MCQs Question 15.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted

Question 16.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation

Question 17.
A method of both control is:
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-T
(d) IUDs

Answer

Answer: (d) IUDs

Question 18.
Which is related to makes?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

Question 19.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovulation

Copper-T prevents:

Question 20.
Lactational Amenorrhoea is related to :
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of menstruation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) ASTD name

Answer

Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Reproductive Health CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers

Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 12 MCQs On Biotechnology and its Applications

Biotechnology And Its Applications MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Restriction Endonuclease used in RDT obtained from:
(a) Plasmid
(b) Bacterial ceils
(c) Bacterophages
(d) All Prokaryotic cells

Answer

Answer: (b) Bacterial ceils

MCQ On Biotechnology And Its Applications Pdf Question 2.
Recombinant DNA technology discovered by:
(a) Hargobind Khoorana
(b) James D. Watsan
(c) S. Kohen and H. Boer
(d) Sulton and Boveri

Answer

Answer: (c) S. Kohen and H. Boer

MCQ On Biotechnology And Its Applications Question 3.
Biopiracy is related to the following:
(a) Traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and Bioresources, Isolation of gene from Bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Biotechnology And Its Applications MCQ Question 4.
Some bacterial occured B-7 Toxin’s crystal not kill the Bacteria because of:
(a) Bacteria is Antoxin
(b) Toxin is unripened
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria enclosed toxin a special sell

Answer

Answer: (c) Toxin is inactive

Biotechnology And Its Applications Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Desired properties plants and Animals are possible by Which reproduction.
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Chromosomal Engineering
(c) Ekabana technology
(d) Bonsai technology

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering

MCQ Of Biotechnology And Its Application Question 6.
By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:
(a) Inhibition of a Innate gene
(b) An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
(c) A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:

Biotechnology And Its Application MCQ Question 7.
First Transjenic crop was :
(a) Cotton
(b) Alsi
(c) Pea
(d) Tobacco

Answer

Answer: (d) Tobacco

MCQs On Biotechnology And Its Applications Question 8.
Adjoining of exotic gene is crop is called :
(a) Genetic Engineering
(b) Bio architecture
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Immunisation

Answer

Answer: (a) Genetic Engineering

MCQ Questions On Biotechnology And Its Applications Question 9.
Transgenic Bacteria and m the making of following :
(a) Epinephrin
(b) Human Insullin
(c) Glutanin
(d) Thyroxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Human Insullin

Biotechnology And Its Applications Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 10.
Transgenic Golden Rice Highly Nutrient value for:
(a) Lysine
(b) Methionine
(c) Glutanin
(d) Vitamin-A

Answer

Answer: (d) Vitamin-A

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 12 Question 11.
B7 Toxsin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystal protein
(c) Extracellular Crystal protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (b) Intracellular crystal protein

Application Of Biotechnology MCQ Question 12.
In a Transgenic crop gene for following:
(a) New protein synthesis
(b) Resistance from Antibiotics
(c) In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Biotechnology And Its Applications MCQ Pdf Question 13.
Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from:
(a) One parent for one antigen
(b) Different parents for one antigen
(c) One parent for many antigens
(d) Many parents for many antigens

Answer

Answer: (b) Different parents for one antigen

Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 MCQ Question 14.
Somatic hybridization can be done by:
(a) By Protoplast fusion
(b) By Haploid anther
(c) By cell culture
(d) ByPollen culture

Answer

Answer: (a) By Protoplast fusion

Biotechnology MCQ Class 12 Question 15.
Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?
(a) Vit-B12
(b) Vit-A
(c) Vit-D
(d) Vit-C

Answer

Answer: (b) Vit-A

MCQ On Application Of Biotechnology Question 16.
Which one of the following is a step of PCR?
(a) Denaturation
(b) Annealing
(c) Extension
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Denaturation

Biotechnology Class 12 MCQ Question 17.
The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:
(a) Bacillus thruingiensis
(b) E. Coii
(c) Agrobacterium hizogenes
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

MCQ On Biotechnology Class 12 Question 18.
From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.
(a) Cymohopogen
(b) Tephrosia
(c) Crysanthemum
(d) Vitivera

Answer

Answer: (c) Crysanthemum

Biopiracy Means MCQ Question 19.
The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:
(a) Udder
(b) Skin
(c) Tongue
(d) Earlobe

Answer

Answer: (c) Tongue

Biotechnology And Its Applications MCQs Question 20.
The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDA is:
(a) ELISA
(b) Western Plot
(c) ESR
(d) PCR

Answer

Answer: (a) ELISA

Question 21.
Natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacillus subtilis

Question 22.
Bt toxin is :
(a) Intracellular lipid
(b) Intracellular crystalline protein
(c) Extracellular crystalline protein
(d) Lipid

Answer

Answer: (a) Intracellular lipid

Question 23.
Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:
(a) Insec resistance
(b) Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) High protein content
(d) High vitamin A content

Answer

Answer: (c) High protein content

Question 24.
First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:
(a) Human insulin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Interferons
(d) Fertility factor

Answer

Answer: (b) Penicillin

Question 25.
A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) DNA finger printing
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) DNA finger printing

Question 26.
Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:
(a) In Snake
(b) In Lizard
(c) In Leech
(d) In Scorpion

Answer

Answer: (c) In Leech

Question 27.
Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:
(a) Ct
(b) Mt
(c) Bt
(d) Gst

Answer

Answer: (d) Gst

Question 28.
The species used as natural genetic engineer is :
(a) Agrobacterim tumefaciens
(b) Bacillus thruingiensis
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Drosophila

Answer

Answer: (d) Drosophila

The species used as natural genetic engineer is :

Question 29.
Most widely used Bioweapon is:
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Biometallurgial techniques
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Bioinsecticidal plant

Answer

Answer: (d) Bioinsecticidal plant

Question 30.
Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:
(a) Biofertilizers
(b) Biometallurgical techniques
(c) Biomineralization processes
(d) Bioinsecticidal plants

Answer

Answer: (a) Biofertilizers

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Biotechnology and its Applications CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields with Answers

Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQs On Electric Charges and Fields

Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is the unit of electric field?
(a) Coulomb
(b) Newton
(c) Volt
(d) N/C

Answer

Answer: (d) N/C

Chapter 1 Physics Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Three charges + 3q + q and Q are placed on a st. line with equal separation. In order to maket the net force on q to be zero, the value of Q will be :
(a) +3q
(b) +2q
(c) -3q
(d) -4q

Answer

Answer: (a) +3q

Physics Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
If an electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field then resultant electric force on it is :
(a) always zero
(b) never zero
(c) depend upon capacity of dipole
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) always zero

Electric Charges And Fields Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
The number of electron-taken out from a body to produce 1 coulomb of charge will be :
(a) 6.25 × 1018
(b) 625 × 1018
(c) 6.023 × 1023
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.25 × 1018

Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 5.
The work done in rotating an electric dipole in an electric field:
(a) W = ME (1 – cos θ)
(b) W = ME tan θ
(c)W = ME sec θ
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) W = ME (1 – cos θ)

Physics Chapter 1 Class 12 MCQ Question 6.
If sphere of bad conductor is given charge then it is distributed on:
(a) surface
(b) inside the surface
(c) only inside the surface
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (d) None

Ch 1 Physics Class 12 MCQ Question 7.
Electric field in a cavity of metal:
(a) depends upon the surroundings
(b) depends upon the size of cavity
(c) is always zero
(d) is not necessarily zero

Answer

Answer: (d) is not necessarily zero

MCQ Of Chapter 1 Physics Class 12 Question 8.
The dielectric constant of a metal is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) ∞
(d) -1

Answer

Answer: (c) ∞

MCQ Physics Class 12 Chapter 1 Question 9.
1 coulomb is equal to:
(a) 3 × 109 e.s.u.
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 109 e.s.u.
(c) 3 × 1010 e.s.u.
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 1010 e.s.u.

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 × 109 e.s.u.

MCQ Questions Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Question 10.
Each of the two point charges are doubled and their distance is halved. Force of interaction becomes p times, w here p is :
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (d) 16

Physics Chapter 1 MCQ Class 12 Question 11.
Coulomb’s law in vector form can be written as
\(\vec{F} \) = (\(\frac{1}{4πε_n}\)) (\(\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\))\(\vec{r} \)
where ε0 is the permitivity of free space. The SI units of ε0 will be:
(a) N-1m-2C-2
(b) Nm-2C2
(c) N-1m-2C9.
(d) Nm-2C2

Answer

Answer: (c) N-1m-2C9

MCQ On Electric Charges And Fields Pdf Question 12.
The dimensional representation of cu will be :
(a) [MLT4 A2]
(b) [M-1L-3T4A2]
(c)[ML-2T ]
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) [M-1L-3T4A2]

Electric Charges And Fields MCQ Question 13.
When placed in a uniform field, a dipole experiences:
(a) a net force
(b) a torque
(c) both a net force and torque
(d) neither a net force nor a torque

Answer

Answer: (b) a torque

When placed in a uniform field, a dipole experiences:

Physics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 1 Question 14.
A parrot comes and sits on a bare high power line. It will:
(a) experience a mild shock ‘
(b) experience a strong shock.
(c) get killed instantaneously
(d) not be affected practically

Answer

Answer: (d) not be affected practically

MCQ Of Physics Class 12 Chapter 1 Question 15.
The SI units of electric dipole moment are:
(a) C
(b) Cm-1
(c) Cm
(d) Nm-1

Answer

Answer: (c) Cm

Class 12 Physics Ch 1 MCQ Question 16.
If two conducting sphere are connected after charging separately then:
(a) Electrostatic energy sphere energy will remain conserved
(b) Electrostatic energy charges remains conserved
(c) Electrostatic energy energy and charge remains conserved
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Electrostatic energy charges remains conserved

MCQ Chapter 1 Physics Class 12 Question 17.
A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease

Answer

Answer: (a) increases

Class 12th Physics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 18.
In non-uniform electric field, electric dipole experiences:
(a) torque only
(b) torque as well as net force
(c) force only
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) torque as well as net force

Chapter 1 MCQ Physics Class 12 Question 19.
An electron is sent in an electric field of magnitude 9.1 × 106NC-1. The acceleration produced in it is :
(a) 1.6 ms-2
(b) 1.6 × 1018ms-2
(c) 3.2 × 1018ms-2
(d) 0.8 × 1018 ms-2

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.6 × 1018ms-2

Electric Charge And Field MCQ Question 20.
A semicircular arc of radius r is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is λ. The electric field at the centre is:
(a) \(\frac{λ}{2λε_0r^2}\)
(b) \(\frac{λ}{4πε_0r}\)
(c) \(\frac{λ^2}{2πε_0r}\)
(d) \(\frac{λ}{2πε_0r}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{λ}{4πε_0r}\)

Question 21.
When a dipole of moment \(\vec{p} \) is placed in uniform electric field \(\vec{E} \), then the torque acting on the dipole is:
(a) \(\vec{τ} \) = \(\vec{p} \).\(\vec{E} \)
(b) \(\vec{τ} \) = \(\vec{P} \) + \(\vec{E} \)
(c) \(\vec{τ} \) = \(\vec{p} \) + \(\vec{E} \)
(d ) \(\vec{τ} \) = \(\vec{p} \) – \(\vec{E} \)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\vec{τ} \) = \(\vec{p} \) + \(\vec{E} \)

Question 22.
Two point charges +8q and -2q are located at ,v = O and ,v = L respectively. The location of a point on the .v-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges b is zero :
(a) 4L
(b) 8L
(c) L/4
(d) 2L

Answer

Answer: (d) 2L

Question 23.
The graph drawn between V are r for a non-conducting charged solid sphere of radius R for r < R will be :
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

Question 24.
Corona discharge takes place:
(a) at the surface of a conductor
(b) near the sharp points of a conductor
(c) outside the conductor
(d) at the centre of the conductor

Answer

Answer: (b) near the sharp points of a conductor

Question 25.
The belt of a Vande Graaf generator gets charge by :
(a) corona discharge
(b) induction
(c) electrification
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) corona discharge

Question 26.
Quantisation of charge implies:
(a) Charge does not exist
(b) Charge exists on particles
(c) There is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge
(d) Charge can’t be created

Answer

Answer: (c) There is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge

Question 27.
The conservation of electric charge implies that:
(a) Charge can’t be created
(b) Charge can’t be destroyed
(c) The number of charged particle in the universe is constant
(d) Simultaneous creation of equal and opposite charges is permissible

Answer

Answer: (d) Simultaneous creation of equal and opposite charges is permissible

Question 28.
The number of electrons contained in one coulomb of charge is:
(a) 6.25 × 1018
(b) 6.25 × 1017
(c) 6.25 × 1019
(d) 1.6 × 1019

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.25 × 1018

Question 29.
The unit of intensity of electric field is :
(a) metre/volt
(b) Joule/newton
(c) Coulomb/newton
(d) Newton/coulomb

Answer

Answer: (a) metre/volt

The unit of intensity of electric field is :

Question 30.
1 V equals to:
(a) 1 J
(b) 1 JC-1
(c) 1 CJ-1
(d) 1 JC

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 JC-1

Question 31.
1 V m-1 equals to:
(a) 1 N
(b) 1 Mm-1
(c) 1 NC-1
(d) 1 J-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 NC-1

Question 32.
The minimum amount of charge observed so far is:
(a) 1 C
(b) 4.8 × 1-13 C
(c) 1.6 × 10-19 C
(d) 1.6 × 1019 C

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.6 × 10-19 C

Question 33.
The ratio of electric force between two electrons to the gravitational force between them is of the order:
(a) 1042
(b) 1039
(c) 1036
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 1042

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Electric Charges and Fields CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism with Answers

Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 4 MCQs On Forest Society and Colonialism

Choose the correct option:

Forest Society And Colonialism Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Tendu leaves are used in making
(a) bidis
(b) plates
(c) baskets
(d) umbrellas

Answer

Answer: (a) bidis

Class 9 History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The railway network expanded rapidly in India from the
(a) 1820s
(b) 1830s
(c) 1850s
(d) 1860s

Answer

Answer: (d) 1860s

The railway network expanded rapidly in India from the

Forest Society And Colonialism MCQ Question 3.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at
(a) Allahabad
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Dehradun
(d) Shimla

Answer

Answer: (c) Dehradun

Class 9 History Chapter 4 MCQ Question 4.
Baigas are a forest community of
(a) Central India
(b) North India
(c) South india
(d) North-east india

Answer

Answer: (a) Central India

Forest Society And Colonialism Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
The colonial power in Indonesia were the
(a) English
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Answer

Answer: (b) Dutch

MCQ On Forest Society And Colonialism Question 6.
Who were the colonial power in Indonesia?
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Answer

Answer: (b) Dutch

MCQ Of Forest Society And Colonialism Question 7.
Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia?
(a) Java
(b) Sumatra
(c) Bali
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Java

Class 9 History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers In Hindi Question 8.
The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in
(a) 1700
(b) 1750
(c) 1770
(d) 1800

Answer

Answer: (c) 1770

MCQs On Forest Society And Colonialism Question 9.
What was the system of ‘blandongdiensten’?
(a) A system of education
(b) Industrialisation
(c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars?
(a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs
(b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British
(c) More and more trees were planted to give employment to Indians
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British

Question 11.
Who wrote the book ‘The Forests of India’ in the year 1923?
(a) David Spurr
(b) E.P. Stebbing
(c) Verrier Elvin
(d) John Middleton

Answer

Answer: (b) E.P. Stebbing

Question 12.
Indian Forest Service was set up in the year:
(a) 1865
(b) 1864
(c) 1854
(d) 1884

Answer

Answer: (b) 1864

Question 13.
The system of scientific forestry stands for:
(a)System whereby the local farmers were allowed to cultivate temporarily within a plantation
(b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones
(c) Division of forest into three categories
(d) Disappearance of forests

Answer

Answer: (b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones

Question 14.
In South-East Asia shifting agriculture is known as:
(A) Chitemene
(b) Tavy
(c) Lading
(d) Milpa

Answer

Answer: (c) Lading

Question 15.
Forests consisting of which type of trees were preferred by the Forest Department?
(a) Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder and leaves
(b) Forests having soft wood
(c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways

Answer

Answer: (c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways

Question 16.
Which of the following is a community of skilled forest cutters?
(a) Maasais of Africa
(b) Mundas of Chotanagpur
(c) Gonds of Orissa
(d) Kalangs of Java

Answer

Answer: (d) Kalangs of Java

Question 17.
Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:
(a) Beams
(b) Sleepers
(c) Rail fasteners
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Sleepers

Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:

Question 18.
Which of the following is a commercial crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Maize

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Forest Society and Colonialism CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers

Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Human Health and Disease Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 8 MCQs On Human Health and Disease

Human Health And Disease MCQ Question 1.
Pain-killer drugs:
(a) Makes Tissue
(b) Relieve from pain
(c) Relieve from tired
(d) Pain creater

Answer

Answer: (c) Relieve from tired

Human Health And Disease Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
AIDS caused by:
(a) By fungus
(b) By Virus
(c) By Bacteria
(d) By Helminthes

Answer

Answer: (b) By Virus

MCQ On Human Health And Disease Class 12 Question 3.
Immune deficiency symdrome is caused by:
(a) Defected liver
(b) Defected thymus
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Loss of Immune system

Answer

Answer: (c) AIDS Virus

MCQ On Human Health And Disease Question 4.
Opium is:
(a) Hemp
(b) Charas
(c) Heroin
(d) Nicotin

Answer

Answer: (c) Heroin

Human Health And Disease Class 12 MCQ Pdf Download Question 5.
AIDS occur by which cause?
(a) Reduction of T-Helper cells
(b) Reduction of Killer T-cells
(c) Auto immune
(d) Less production of interferon

Answer

Answer: (a) Reduction of T-Helper cells

Human Health And Disease MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Heroin is the form of :
(a) Aesthetic
(b) Hallucination
(c) Irritation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Hallucination

Human Health And Disease Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 7.
Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:
(a) Pain Killer
(b) Tranquillizer
(c) Hallucination
(d) Stimulant

Answer

Answer: (d) Stimulant

Caffein, Amphetamine and coceins are:

Human Health And Disease Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 8.
Following is Hallucinator
(a) LSD
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocein
(d) Morphin

Answer

Answer: (a) LSD

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 9.
World AIDS day is:
(a) 1 May
(b) 20 December
(c) 1 June
(d) 1 December

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 December

MCQs On Human Health And Disease Question 10.
By the plant of which family Heroin is obtained?
(a) Leguminaceae
(b) Papa Veraceae
(c) Liliaece
(d) Solanaceae

Answer

Answer: (b) Papa Veraceae

Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 MCQ Question 11.
Opiates are obtained from
(a) Thea sinesis
(b) Coffea Arabica
(c) Oryzasativa
(d) Papaver Seminiferum

Answer

Answer: (d) Papaver Seminiferum

MCQ Human Health And Disease Question 12.
PCR is test for:
(a) HIV
(b) Cancer
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) HIV

MCQ Questions On Human Health And Disease Question 13.
Following which is STD:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Syphilis

MCQ Of Human Health And Disease Question 14.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filaria in human being. It is of which group:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth

Answer

Answer: (d) Helminth

MCQ On Human Health And Diseases Pdf Question 15.
Which organ of body is most affected by excessive intake of alcohol?
(a) Lungs
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Spleen

Answer

Answer: (b) Liver

Question 16.
Common cold is caused by:
(a) Retro virus
(b) Phage virus
(c) Rhino virus
(d) Sendai virus

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhino virus

Question 17.
Which of the following is the cancer of blood?
(a) Sarcoma
(b) Lymphoms
(c) Leukemia
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Leukemia

Question 18.
Gonorrhoea is caused by:
(a) By Treponema pallidium
(b) By Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) By Mycobacterium taprae
(d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer

Answer: (d) By Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 19.
Antigen-binding site in an antibody, is found between:
(a) Two light chains
(b) Two heavy chains
(c) One heavy and one light chain
(d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Answer

Answer: (d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

Question 20.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to:
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Live cirrhosis
(c) State of hellucination
(d) Suppresion of brain function

Answer

Answer: (b) Live cirrhosis

Question 21.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is:
(a) TB
(b) AIDS
(c) Tetanus
(d) Food Poisoning

Answer

Answer: (c) Tetanus

Question 22.
Widal test is done to confirm:
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cancer

Answer

Answer: (b) Typhoid

Question 23.
Which part of poppy plant yields opium:
(a) Latex from unripe capsules
(b) Dried roots
(c) Dried leaves
(d) Dired seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Latex from unripe capsules

Question 24.
Kala-azar is transmitted by:
(a) By Sand fly
(b) By Tsetse fly
(c) By House fly
(d) By Mosquitoes

Answer

Answer: (a) By Sand fly

Question 25.
Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Monocytes
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Neutrophils
(d) Lymphocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Lymphocytes

Question 26.
BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) Cholera

Answer

Answer: (a) Tuberculosis

Question 27.
Antigens are present:
(a) Inside nucleus
(b) One the cell surface
(c) Inside cytoplasm
(d) On nuclear membrane

Answer

Answer: (b) One the cell surface

Question 28.
The disease, tetanus also known as:
(a) Shingles
(b) Gangrene
(c) Lockjaw
(d) Whooping cough

Answer

Answer: (c) Lockjaw

Question 29.
Man in the life-cycle of plasmodium is:
(a) Primary host
(b) Secondary host
(c) Intemediate host
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary host

Question 30.
Allegens:
(a) Infectious and increase secretion of IgE antiboides
(b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies
(c) Infectious and increase secretion of IgS antibodies
(d) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgM antibodies

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-infectious and increase secretion of IgE antibodies

Question 31.
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chores are:
(a) Bacerial diseases
(b) Congenital diseases
(c) Pollution related diseases
(d) Viral diseases

Answer

Answer: (b) Congenital diseases

Question 32.
In AIDS, which of these cells are most affected:
(a) B-cells
(b) T-cells
(c) Monocytes
(d) Neutrophils

Answer

Answer: (b) T-cells

Question 33.
Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting:
(a) Antibodies
(b) Antigens
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Vaccination

Answer

Answer: (a) Antibodies

Question 34.
Changa’s disease is caused by:
(a) Trypanosoma ganabiense
(b) Trypanosoma Cruzi
(c) Trypanosoma-rhodesiense
(d) Leishmania donovani

Answer

Answer: (b) Trypanosoma Cruzi

Question 35.
Which of the following disease effect the immune system directly?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Tetanus
(d) AIDS

Answer

Answer: (d) AIDS

Question 36.
Which of the following vaccines are injected at the age of 11/2, 21/2 and 31/2 months:
(a) DPT-Hib and Polio
(b) Polio and BCG
(c) BCG and DTP-Hib
(d) BCG and Hepatitis-B

Answer

Answer: (a) DPT-Hib and Polio

Question 37.
The drug which stimulates the nervous system and makes him more wakeful alert and active is called :
(a) Sedative
(b) Opiate narcotic
(c) Stimulant
(d) Hallucinogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Stimulant

Question 38.
Ascaris is most commonly found in:
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Children

Question 39.
Kupffer cells are present in:
(a) Liver
(b) Small intestine
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thyroid

Answer

Answer: (a) Liver

Question 40.
Intermediate host of Schistosoma is:
(a) Snail
(b) Mosquito
(c) Housefly
(d) Sheep

Answer

Answer: (d) Sheep

Question 41.
A person showing unpredicatable moods, outbursts of emotion quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with other is suffering from:
(a) Addictive disorders
(b) Schizophrenia
(c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)
(d) Mood disorders

Answer

Answer: (c) Borderline personality disorder (BOD)

Question 42.
Current treatment for cancer does not include which of the following:
(a) Chemotherapy
(b) Radiaotherapy
(c) Surgery
(d) Physiotherapy

Answer

Answer: (d) Physiotherapy

Question 43.
Screening test of AIDS is:
(a) Western blot
(b) ALISA
(c) PCR
(d) Southern blot

Answer

Answer: (b) ALISA

Question 44.
The vactor of Break bone fever is:
(a) Anopheled
(b) Aedes
(c) Culex
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Culex

Question 45.
An allergic reaction is intiated by antibodies of, group :
(a) IgG
(b) IgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgA

Answer

Answer: (b) IgE

Question 46.
In Malaria, the product released by mosquito into blood that causes chill and fever is called:
(a) Haematin
(b) Schuffher’s dots
(c) Haemozoin
(d) Haemotoxin

Answer

Answer: (b) Schuffher’s dots

Question 47.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) Helper T-lymphocytes
(b) B-Lymphocytes
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Thrombocytes

Answer

Answer: (a) Helper T-lymphocytes

HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:

Question 48.
Morphine obtained from opium is:
(a) Latex
(b) Pome
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Tannin

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkaloid

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Class 12 Biology MCQ: