MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Factorisation Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Factorisation Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Factorisation Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The common factor of x²y² and x³y³ is
(a) x²y²
(b) x³y³
(c) x²y³
(d) x³y².

Answer

Answer: (a) x²y²
Hint:
x2y2 = x × x × y × y
x3y3 = x × x × x × y × y × y


Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 MCQ Question 2.
The common factor of x3y2 and x4y is
(a) x43y2
(b) x4y
(c) x3y2
(d) x3y.

Answer

Answer: (d) x3y.
Hint:
x3y2 = x × x × x × y × y
x4y = x × x × x × x × y


Class 8 Factorisation MCQ Question 3.
The common factor of a2 m4 and a4m2 is
(a) a4m4
(b) a2m2
(c) a2m4
(d) a4m2

Answer

Answer: (b) a2m2
Hint:
a2m4 = a × a × m × m × m × m
a4m2 = a × a × a × a × m × m


MCQ Of Factorisation Class 8 Question 4.
The common factor of p3q4 and p4q3 is
(a) p4q4
(b) p4q3
(c) p3q3
(d) p3q4

Answer

Answer: (c) p3q3
Hint:
p3q4 = p × p × p × q × q × q × q
p4q3 = p × p × p × p × q × q × q


MCQ On Factorisation Class 8 Question 5.
The common factor 12y and 30 is
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 6y.

Answer

Answer: (a) 6
Hint:
12y = 2 × 2 × 3 × y
30 = 2 × 3 × 5.


MCQ On Factorization For Class 8 Question 6.
The common factor of 2x, 3x3, 4 is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Hint:
2x = 2 × x
3x3 = 3 × x × x × x
4 = 2 × 2.


Factorization Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
The common factor of 10ab, 30bc, 50ca is
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) abc.

Answer

Answer: (a) 10
Hint:
10ab = 2 × 5 × a × b
30bc = 2 × 3 × 5 × b × c
50ca = 2 × 5 × 5 × c × a.


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Factorisation Question 8.
The common factor of 14a2b and 35a4b² is
(a) a4
(b) 35a4
(c) 14a²b
(d) 7a²b.

Answer

Answer: (d) 7a²b.
Hint:
14a²b = 2 × 7 × a × a × b
35a4b2 = 5 × 7 × a × a × a × a × b × b.


Factorisation Class 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
The common factor of 8a2b4c2, 12a4bc4 and 20a3b4 is
(a) a4b4
(b) a2b2
(c) 4a2b2
(d) 4a2b.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4a2b.
Hint:
8a2b4c2 = 2 × 2 × 2 × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c
12a4bc2 = 2 × 2 × 3 × a × a × a × a × b × c × c
20a3b4 = 2 × 2 × 5 × a × a × a × b × b × b × b


Class 8 Maths Factorisation MCQ Question 10.
The common factor of 6a3b4c2, 21a2b and 15a3 is
(a) 3a2
(b) 3a3
(c) 6a3
(d) 6a2

Answer

Answer: (a) 3a2
Hint:
6a3b4c2 = 2 × 3 × a × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c
21a2b = 3 × 7 × a × a × a
15a364c4 = 3 × 5 × a × a × a


MCQ Factorisation Class 8 Question 11.
The common factor of 2a2b4c2, 8a4b3c4 and 6a3b4c2 is
(a) 2a2b3c2
(b) 6a2b3c2
(c) 8a2b3c2
(d) a4b4c4.

Answer

Answer: (a) 2a2b3c2
Hint:
6a2b4c2 = 2 × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c × c × c
8a4b3c4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × a × a × a × a × b × b × b × c × c × c × c
6a3b4c2 = 2 × 3 × a × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c.


Factorisation MCQ Class 8 Question 12.
The common factor of 3a2b4c2, 12b2c4 and 15a3b4c4 is
(a) b4c4
(b) 3b2c2
(c) 15b2c4
(d) 12b2c4

Answer

Answer: (b) 3b2c2
Hint:
3a²b4c² = 3 × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c
12b²c4 = 2 × 2 × 3 × b × b × c × c × c × c.
15a³b4c4 = 3 × 5 × a × a × a × b × b × b × b × c × c × c × c.


Factorisation Of Algebraic Expressions Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
The common factor of 24x3y4, 36x4z4 and 48x3y2z is
(a) 12x3
(b) 24x3
(c) 36x3
(d)48x3

Answer

Answer: (a) 12x3
Hint:
24x³y4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × x × x × x × y × y × y × y.
36x4z4 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × x × x × x × x × z × z × z × z.
48x3y2z = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × x × x × x × y × y × z


Class 8 Maths Ch 14 MCQ Question 14.
The common factor of 72x3y4z4, 120z2d4x4 and 96y3z4d4 is
(a) 96z3
(b) 120z3
(c) 72z3
(d) 24z2.

Answer

Answer: (d) 24z2
Hint:
72x3y4z4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × x × x × x × y × y × y × y × z × z × z × z.
120z²d4x4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × z × z × d × d × d × d × x × x × x × x
96y3z4d4 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × y × y × z × z × z × z × d × d × d × d


MCQ Questions On Factorisation Class 8 Question 15.
The common factor of 36p2q3x4, 48pq3x2 and 54p3q3x4 is
(a) 6pq3x2
(b) 36pq3x2
(c) 54pq3x2
(d) 48pq3x2

Answer

Answer: (a) 6pq3x2
Hint:
36p2q3x4 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × p × p × q × q × q × x × x × x × x
48pq³x² = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × p × q × q × q × x × x
p3q3x4 = p × p × p × q × q × q × x × x × x × x


Question 16.
The factorisation of 12a2b + 15ab2 is
(a) 3ab (4a + 5b)
(b) 3a2b (4a + 5b)
(c) 3ab2 (4a + 5b)
(d) 3a2b2 (4a + 5b).

Answer

Answer: (a) 3ab (4a + 5b)
Hint:
12a²b + 15ab² = 3ab(4a + 5b).


Question 17.
The factorisation of 10x2 – 18x3 + 14x4 is
(a) 2x2 (7x2 – 9x + 5)
(b) 2x (7x2 – 9x + 5)
(c) 2 (7x2 – 9x + 5)
(d) 2x3 (7x2 – 9x + 5).

Answer

Answer: (a) 2x2 (7x2 – 9x + 5)
Hint:
10x² – 18x³ + 14x³ = 2x²(5 – 9x + 7x²).


Question 18.
The factorisation of 6x – 42 is
(a) 6(x – 7)
(b) 3(x – 7)
(c) 2(x – 7)
(d) 6(x + 7)

Answer

Answer: (a) 6(x – 7)
Hint:
6x – 42 = 6(x – 7)


Question 19.
The factorisation of 6x + 12y is
(a) 6(x + 2y)
(b) 3(x + 4y)
(c) 2(3x + 12y)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) 6(x + 2y)
Hint:
6x + 12y = 6(x + 2y)


The factorisation of 6x + 12y is

Question 20.
The factorisation of 28a3b5 – 42a5b3 is
(а) 14a3b3(2b2 – 3a2)
(b) 14a2b3(2b2 – 3a2)
(c) 14a3b2(2b2 – 3a2)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (а) 14a3b3(2b2 – 3a2)
Hint:
28a³ b5 – 42a5b3 = 14a3b3(2b² – 3a²)


Question 21.
The factorisation of a3 + a2b + ab2 is
(a) a(a2 + ab + b2)
(b) 6(a2 + ab + b2)
(c) ab(a2 + ab + b2)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) a(a2 + ab + b2)
Hint:
a³ + a²b + ab² = a(a² + ab + b²)


Question 22.
The factorisation of x2yz + xy2z + xyz2 is
(a) xyz(x + y + z)
(b) x2yz(x + y + z)
(c) xy2z(x + y + z)
(d) xyz2(x + y + z).

Answer

Answer: (a) xyz(x + y + z)
Hint:
x²yz + xy²z + xyz² = xyz (x + y + z)


Question 23.
The factorisation of ax2y + bxy2 + cxyz is
(a) xy(ax + by + cz)
(b) axy(ax + by + cz)
(c) bxy(ax + by + cz)
(d) cxy(ax + by + cz).

Answer

Answer: (a) xy(ax + by + cz)
Hint:
ax²y + bxy² + cxyz = xy (ax + by + cz)


Question 24.
The factorisation of
a (x + y + z) + b(x + y + z) + c(x + y + z) is
(a) (a + b + c)(x + y + z)
(b) (ab + bc + ca)(x + y + z)
(c) (xy + yz + zx)(a + b + c)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) (a + b + c)(x + y + z)
Hint:
a(x + y + z) + b(x + y + z) + c(x + y + z)
= (x + y + z) (a + b + c).


Question 25.
The factorisation of 6xy – 4y + 6 – 9x is
(a) (3x – 2)(2y – 3)
(b) (3x + 2)(2y – 3)
(c) (3x – 2)(2y + 3)
(d) (3x + 2)(2y + 3).

Answer

Answer: (a) (3x – 2)(2y – 3)
Hint:
6xy – 4y + 6 – 9x
= 2y(3x – 2) – 3(- 2 + 3x)
= (3x – 2)(2y – 3)


Question 26.
The factorisation of x2 + xy + 2x + 2y is
(a) (x + 2)(x + y)
(b) (x + 2)(x – y)
(c) (x – 2)(x + y)
(d) (x – 2)(x – y).

Answer

Answer: (a) (x + 2)(x + y)
Hint:
x² + xy + 2x + 2y
= x(x + y) + 2(x + y)
= (x + 2) (x + y).


Question 27.
The factorisation of ax + bx – ay – by is
(a) (x – y)(a + b)
(b) (x + y)(a + b)
(c) (x – y)(a – b)
(d) (x + y)(a – b).

Answer

Answer: (a) (x – y)(a + b)
Hint:
ax + bx – ay – by
= x(a + b) – y(a + b)
= (x – y)(a + b).


Question 28.
The factorisation of ab – a – b + 1 is
(a) (a – 1)(b – 1)
(b) (a + 1)(b + 1)
(c) (a – 1)(b + 1)
(d) (a + 1)(b – 1).

Answer

Answer: (a) (a – 1)(b – 1)
Hint:
ab – a – b + 1
= a(b – 1) – 1(b – 1)
= (a – 1)(b – 1).


Question 29.
The factorisation of
x2 + x + xy + y + zx + z is
(a) (x + y + z)(x + 1)
(b) (x + y + z)(x + y)
(c) (x + y + z)(y + z)
(d) (x + y + z)(z + x).

Answer

Answer: (a) (x + y + z)(x + 1)
Hint:
x² + x + xy + y + zx + z
= x(x + 1) + y(x + 1) + z(x + 1)
= (x + 1)(x + y + z).


Question 30.
The factorisation of x2y2 + xy + xy2z + yz + x2yz + xz is
(a) (xy + yz + zx)(xy + 1)
(b) (xy + yz + zx)(yz + 1)
(c) (xy + yz + zx)(zx + 1)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) (xy + yz + zx)(xy + 1)
Hint:
x²y² + xy + xy²z + yz + x²yz + xz
= xy(xy + 1) + yz(xy + 1) + zx(xy + 1)
= (xy + yz + zx)(xy + 1).


Question 31.
The factorisation of x2 + 8x + 16 is
(a) (x + 2)2
(b) (x + 4)2
(c) (x – 2)2
(d) (x – A)2

Answer

Answer: (b) (x + 4)2
Hint:
x² + 8x + 16
= (x)² + 2 (x)(4) + (4)²
= (x + 4)².


Question 32.
The factorisation of 4y2 – 12y + 9 is
(a) (2y + 3)2
(b) (2y – 3)2
(c) (3y + 2)2
(d) (3y – 2)2

Answer

Answer: (b) (2y – 3)2
Hint:
4y² – 12y + 9
= (2y)² – 2(2y)(3) + (3)²
= (2y – 3)²


Question 33.
The factorisation of 49p2 – 36 is
(a) (7p + 6)(7p – 6)
(b) (6p + 7)(6p – 7)
(c) (7p + 6)2
(d) (7p – 6)2

Answer

Answer: (a) (7p + 6)(7p – 6)
Hint:
49p² – 36
= (7p)² – (6)² = (7p – 6)(7p + 6).


Question 34.
The factorisation of y2 – 7y + 12 is
(a) (y + 3)(y + 4)
(b) (y + 3)(y – 4)
(c) (y – 3)(y + 4)
(d) (y – 3)(y – 4).

Answer

Answer: (d) (y – 3)(y – 4)
Hint:
y² – 7y + 12
= y² – 3y – 4y + 12
= y(y – 3) – 4(y – 3)
= (y – 3)(y – 4).


Question 35.
The factorisation of z2 – 4z – 12 is
(a) (z + 6)(z + 2)
(b) (z – 6)(z – 2)
(c) (z – 6)(z + 2)
(d) (z + 6)(z – 2).

Answer

Answer: (c) (z – 6)(z + 2)
Hint:
z³ – 4z – 12
= z² – 6z + 2z — 12
= z(z – 6) + 2(z – 6)
= (z – 6)(z + 2).


Question 36.
The factorisation of am2 + bm2 + bn2 + an2 is
(a) (a + b)(m2 – n2)
(b) (a + b)(m2 + n2)
(c) (a – b)(m2 + n2)
(d) (a – b)(m2 – n2).

Answer

Answer: (b) (a + b)(m2 + n2)
Hint:
am² + bm² + bn² + an²
= m²(a + b) + n²(b + a)
= (a + b)(m² + n²).


Question 37.
The factorisation of (lm + l) + m + 1 is
(a) (l + 1)(m + 1)
(6) (l – 1)(m – 1)
(c) (l + 1)(m – 1)
(d) (l – 1)(m + 1).

Answer

Answer: (a) (l + 1)(m + 1)
Hint:
lm + l + m + 1
= l(m + 1) + 1 (m + 1)
= (l + 1 )(m + 1).


Question 38.
The factorisation of (l + m)2 – 4lm is
(a) (l – m)2
(b) (l + m – 2)2
(c) (l + m + 2)2
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) (l – m)2
Hint:
(1 + m)² – 4lm
= l² + m² + 2lm – 4lm
= l² – 2lm + m² = (l – m)²


Question 39.
The factorisation of
1 + p + q + r + pq + qr + pr + pqr is
(a) (1 + p)(1 + q)(1 + r)
(b) (1 – p)(1 – q)(1 – r)
(c) (1 – p)(1 – q)(1 + r)
(d) (1 + p)(1 – q)(1 – r).

Answer

Answer: (a) (1 + p)(1 + q)(1 + r)
Hint:
1 + p + q + r + pq + qr+pr + pqr
= 1 + p + q + pq + r(1 + p + q + pq)
= (1 + r)(1 + p + q + pq)
= (1 + r)(1 + p)(1 + q).


Question 40.
The value of
0.645 × 0.645 + 2 × 0.645 × 0.355 + 0.355 × 0.355 is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Hint:
Value = (0.645 + 0.355)² = (1)² = 1.


Question 41.
The factorisation 1 + 16x + 64x² is
(a) (1 – 8x)2
(b) (1 + 8x)2
(c) (8 – x)2
(d) (8 + x)2

Answer

Answer: (b) (1 + 8x)2
Hint:
1 + 16x + 64x²
= (1)2 + 2(1) (8x) + (8x)² = (1 + 8x)²


Question 42.
The factorisation x2 + x + \(\frac{1}{4}\) is
(a) (\(\frac{x}{2}\) – 1)²
(b) (\(\frac{x}{2}\) + 1)²
(c) (x + \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
(d) (x – \(\frac{1}{2}\))²

Answer

Answer: (c) (x + \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
Hint:
x² + x + \(\frac{1}{4}\) = x² + 2(x)(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\))2
= (x + \(\frac{1}{2}\))2


Question 43.
The value of 992 is
(a) (90)2 + 2(90)(9) + (9)2
(b) (90)2 – 2(90)(9) + (9)2
(c) (90)2 + (9)2
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) (90)2 + 2(90)(9) + (9)2
Hint:
99² = (90 + 9)²
= (90)² + 2(90)(9) + (9)²


Question 44.
The value of 492 is
(a) (50)2 – 2(50)(1) + (1)2
(b) (50)2 + 2 (50) (1) + (1)2
(c) (50)2 – (1)2
(d) (50)2 + (1)2

Answer

Answer: (a) (50)2 – 2(50)(1) + (1)2
Hint:
49² = (50 – 1)²
= (50)² – 2(50)(1) + (1)²


Question 45.
The factorisation of (\(\frac{x^2}{y^2}\) -2+\(\frac{y^2}{x^2}\)) x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0 is
(a) (\(\frac{x}{y}\)+\(\frac{y}{x}\))2
(b) (\(\frac{x}{y}\)–\(\frac{y}{x}\))2
(c) (\(\frac{x}{y}\)-1)2
(d) (\(\frac{x}{y}\)+1)2

Answer

Answer: (b) (\(\frac{x}{y}\)–\(\frac{y}{x}\))2
Hint:
\(\frac{x^2}{y^2}\) – 2 + \(\frac{y^2}{x^2}\)
= (\(\frac{x}{y}\))2 – 2(\(\frac{x}{y}\))(\(\frac{y}{x}\)) + (\(\frac{y}{x}\))2
= (\(\frac{x}{y}\) – \(\frac{y}{x}\))2


Question 46.
The value of \(\frac{0.73×0.73×-0.27×0.27}{0.73-0.27}\) is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 0.73
(d) 0.27.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1
Hint:
Value = \(\frac{(0.73+0.27)(0.73-0.27)}{0.73-0.27}\) = 1


Question 47.
The factorisation of x2 – 9 is
(a) (x – 3)2
(b) (x + 3)2
(c) (x + 3)(x – 3)
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) (x + 3)(x – 3)
Hint:
x² – 9 = (x)² – (3)² = (x – 3) (x + 3).


Question 48.
The factorisation of 36x2y2 – 1 is
(a) (6xy – 1)(6xy + 1)
(b) (6xy – 1)2
(c) (6xy + 1)2
(d) (6 + xy)2

Answer

Answer: (a) (6xy – 1)(6xy + 1)
Hint:
36x²y² – 1 = (6xy)² – (1)²
= (6xy – 1)(6xy + 1).


Question 49.
The value of \(\frac{0.564×0.564×-0.436×0.436}{0.564-0.436}\) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1
Hint:
Value = \(\frac{(0.564+0.436)(0.564-0.436)}{0.564-0.436}\) = 1


Question 50.
The value of (0.68)2 – (0.32)2 is
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 0.36.

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.36.
Hint:
Value = (0.68 + 0.32) (0.68 – 0.32) = 0.36.


Question 51.
The factorisation of 3x² + 10x + 8 is
(a) (3x + 4)(x + 2)
(b) (3x – 4)(x – 2)
(c) (3x + 4)(x – 2)
(d) (3x – 4)(x + 2).

Answer

Answer: (a) (3x + 4)(x + 2)
Hint:
3x² + 10x + 8 = 3x² + 6x + 4x + 8
= 3x(x + 2) + 4(x + 2)
= (x + 2)(3x + 4).


Question 52.
The factorisation of 3x2 – 16x + 16 is
(a) (x – 4)(3x – 4)
(b) (x + 4)(3x + 4)
(c) (x – 4)(3x + 4)
(d) (x + 4)(3x – 4).

Answer

Answer: (a) (x – 4)(3x – 4)
Hint:
3x² – 16x + 16
= 3x² – 12x – 4x + 16
= 3x(x – 4) – 4(x – 4)
= (x – 4) (3x – 4).


Question 53.
The factorisation of 6x2 – 5x – 6 is
(a) (2x – 3)(3x + 2)
(b) (2x + 3)(3x + 2)
(c) (2x – 3)(3x – 2)
(d) (2x + 3)(3x – 2).

Answer

Answer: (a) (2x – 3)(3x + 2)
Hint:
6x² – 5x – 6
= 6x² – 9x + 4x – 6
= 3x(2x – 3) + 2(2x – 3)
= (2x – 3)(3x + 2).


Question 54.
The factorisation of 6 – x – 2x2 is
(a) (2 + x)(3 – 2x)
(b) (2 + x)(3 + 2x)
(c) (2 – x)(3 – 2x)
(d) (2 – x)(3 + 2x).

Answer

Answer: (a) (2 + x)(3 – 2x)
Hint:
6 – x – 2x²
= 6 + 3x – 4x – 2x²
= 3(2 + x) – 2x (2 + x)
= (2 + x)(3 – 2x).


Question 55.
If x2 – x – 42 = (x + k)(x + 6), then k =
(a) 6
(b) -6
(c) 7
(d) -7.

Answer

Answer: (d) -7
Hint:
x² – x – 42
= x² – 7x + 6x – 42
= x(x – 7) + 6(x – 7)
= (x – 7)(x + 6) ∴ k = – 7.


Question 56.
The value of 3.5 × 3.5 – 2.5 × 2.5 is
(a) -6
(b) 6
(c) 60
(d) 1.

Answer

Answer: (b) 6
Hint:
Value = (3.5 + 2.5)(3.5 – 2.5) = 6.


Question 57.
If (x – \(\frac{1}{x}\))² = x² + a + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\) then a =
(a) -2
(b) 2
(c) 2x
(d) -2x

Answer

Answer: (a) -2
Hint:
(x – \(\frac{1}{x}\))2 = x² – 2 + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\) ∴ a = -2.


Question 58.
If x = 2, y = -1 then the value of x² -+ 4xy + 4y² is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 0
Hint:
x² + 4xy + 4y² = (x)² + 2(x)(2y) + (2y)²
= (x + 2y)² = {2 + 2(- 1)}² = 0.


Question 59.
The quotient of 28x² + 14x is
(a) 2
(b) 2x
(c) x
(d) x²

Answer

Answer: (b) 2x
Hint:
\(\frac{28x^21}{14x}\) = \(\frac{2×2×7×x×x}{2×7×x}\) = 2x


Question 60.
The quotient of 12a8b8 + (- a6b6) is
(a) 3a2b2
(6) 3a2b
(c) 3ab2
(d) -3a2b2

Answer

Answer: (d) -3a2b2
Hint:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation with Answers
= -3a²b²


Question 61.
The factorisation of 12a2b +15ab2 gives:
(a) 3ab(4ab + 5)
(b) 3ab(4a + 5(b)
(c) 3a(4a + 5(b)
(d) 3b(4a + 5(b)

Answer

Answer: (b) 3ab(4a + 5(b)
Hint:
12a2b+15ab2
12a2b = 3 x 4 x a x a x b
15ab2 = 3 x 5 x a x b x b
The common factors are 3ab.
12a2b + 15ab2 = 3ab(4a +5b)


Question 62.
The factorisation of 12x + 36 is
(a) 12(x + 3)
(b) 12(3x)
(c) 12(3x + 1)
(d) x(12 + 36x)

Answer

Answer: (a) 12(x + 3)
Hint:
12x + 36
12 x + 12 . 3
= 12(x + 3)


Question 63.
On factorising 14pq + 35pqr, we get:
(a) pq(14 + 35r)
(b) p(14q + 35qr)
(c) q(14p + 35pr)
(d) 7pq(2 + 5r)

Answer

Answer: (d) 7pq(2 + 5r)
Hint:
14pq + 35pqr
= 2.7.p.q + 5.7.p.q.r
= 7pq(2 + 5r)


Question 64.
The factors of 6xy – 4y + 6 – 9x are:
(a) (3x + 2) (2y + 3)
(b) (3x – 2) (2y – 3)
(c) (3x – 2) (2y + 3)
(d) (3x + 2) (2y – 3)

Answer

Answer: (b) (3x – 2) (2y – 3)
Hint:
6xy – 4y + 6 – 9x
= 6xy – 4y – 9x + 6
= 2y (3x – 2) – 3 (3x – 2)
= (3x – 2) (2y – 3)


The factors of 6xy – 4y + 6 – 9x are:

Question 65.
The factors of x2 + xy + 8x + 8y are:
(a) (x +y) (x + 8)
(b) (2x + y) (x + 8)
(c) (x + 2y) (x + 8)
(d) (x + y) (2x + 8)

Answer

Answer: (a) (x +y) (x + 8)
Hint:
x2 + xy + 8x + 8y
= x(x + y) + 8(x + y)
=(x + y)(x + 8)


Question 66.
The factors of 4y – 12y + 9 is:
(a) (2y + 3)2
(b) (2y – 3)2
(c) (2y – 3)(2y + 3)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) (2y-3)2
Hint:
4y – 12y + 9
4y2 = (2y)2 & 9 = 32 & 12y = 2.3.2y
4y – 12y + 9 = (2y)2 – 2 × 3 × (2y) + (3)2
= (2y – 3)2 [By algebraic identities: (a-(b)2 = a2+b2-2ab


Question 67.
The factors of 49p2 – 36 are:
(a) (7p + 6)2
(b) (7p – 6)2
(c) (7p – 6 ) ( 7p + 6)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) (7p – 6 ) ( 7p + 6)
Hint:
49p2 – 36 = (7p)2 – ( 6 )2 = (7p – 6 ) ( 7p + 6)


Question 68.
The factors of m2 – 256 are:
(a) (m + 4)2
(b) (m – 4)2
(c) (m – 4) (m+4)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above
Hint:
m4 = (m2)2 and 256 = (16)2
m4 – 256 = (m2)2 – (16)2 = (m2 – 16) (m2 + 16)
m2 – 16 = m2 – 42 = (m – 4) (m + 4)
m – 256 = (m – 4) (m + 4) (m2 + 16)


Question 69.
When we factorise x2 + 5x + 6, then we get:
(a) (x + 2) (x + 3)
(b) (x – 2) (x – 3)
(c) (x × 2) + (x × 3)
(d) (x × 2) – (x × 3)

Answer

Answer: (a) (x + 2) (x + 3)
Hint:
The factors of a form:
(x + (a) (x + (b) = x2 + (a + (b) x + ab
x2 + 5x + 6
a + b = 5 and ab = 6
x2 + 5x+6 = (x + 2) (x + 3)


Question 70.
The factors of 3m2 + 9m + 6 are:
(a) (m + 1) (m + 2)
(b) 3(m + 1) (m + 2)
(c) 6(m + 1) (m + 2)
(d) 9(m + 1) (m + 2)

Answer

Answer: (b) 3(m + 1) (m + 2)
Hint:
3m2 + 9m + 6 = 3(m2 + 3m + 2)
= 3 [m2 + m + 2m + 2]
= 3 [m(m + 1)+ 2( m + 1)]
= 3 [(m + 1) (m + 2)]


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 14 Factorisation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Factorisation CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Poverty As A Challenge Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress
(b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing
(d) National Food for Work Programme

Answer

Answer: (d) National Food for Work Programme


Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
How many people in India live below the poverty line?
(a) 30 crores
(b) 26 crores
(c) 28 crores
(d) 24 crores

Answer

Answer: (b) 26 crores


Poverty As A Challenge MCQ Question 3.
Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Scheduled tribes
(c) Casual labourers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Poverty As Challenge Class 9 MCQ Question 4.
Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)
(a) Rs 328
(b) Rs. 370
(c) Rs 454
(d) Rs. 460

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 328


Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)

Class 9 Poverty As A Challenge MCQ Question 5.
What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?
(a) 50%
(b) 47%
(c) 60%
(d) 57%

Answer

Answer: (b) 47%


MCQ Of Poverty As A Challenge Question 6.
In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala

Answer

Answer: (c) West Bengal


Ch 3 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Question 8.
Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities
(b) Unequal distribution of land
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Economics Class 9 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 9.
Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
(a) calories per day
(b) wheat consumption
(c) rice consumption per day
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) calories per day


Poverty MCQ Class 9 Question 10.
Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) two and a half times

Answer

Answer: (c) two times


Poverty As Challenge MCQ Question 11.
Which one from the following is considered as poor?
(a) A rich landlord
(b) A businessman
(c) A landless labourer
(d) A teacher

Answer

Answer: (c) A landless labourer


Poverty Class 9 MCQ Question 12.
Which state has the largest percentage of poors in India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Kerala
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (b) Orissa


Class 9 Eco Ch 3 MCQ Question 13.
Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawahar lal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi


Economics Chapter 3 Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Who do not come under the category of urban poor?
(a) The casual workers
(b) The unemployed
(c) The shopkeepe
(d) Rickshawpullers

Answer

Answer: (c) The shopkeepe


Class 9 Economics Ch 3 MCQ Question 15.
Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme
(d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

Answer

Answer: (a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana


MCQ Of Poverty As A Challenge Class 9 Question 16.
Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste
(b) Urban casual labour
(c) Rural agricultural households
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Ncert Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 17.
Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?
(a) Unequal distribution of land
(b) Lack of fertile land
(c) Gap between rich and the poor
(d) Increase in population

Answer

Answer: (b) Lack of fertile land


MCQ Of Chapter 3 Economics Class 9 Question 18.
The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas.
(b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work.
(d) people are engaged in physical labour.

Answer

Answer: (d) people are engaged in physical labour.


Class 9th Economics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 19.
Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation
(b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level
(d) Overlapping of schemes

Answer

Answer: (c) Corruption at the highest level


Chapter 3 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 20.
Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

Answer

Answer: (a) West Bengal


Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Poverty as a Challenge CBSE Class 9 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 9 सिकतासेतुः with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 9 सिकतासेतुः with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 9 सिकतासेतुः with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided सिकतासेतुः Class 9 Sanskrit MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-sanskrit-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 9 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

निम्नवाक्येषु रेखांकित पदानाम् स्थानेषु प्रश्नवाचकपदं लिखत.

Question 1.
तपोदत्तः तपश्चर्यया विद्यामवाप्तुं प्रवृत्तोऽस्ति।
(क) काम्
(ख) कया
(ग) कः
(घ) किम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) कः


Question 2.
तपोदत्तः कुटुम्बिभिः मित्रैः गर्हितः अभवत्।
(क) केन
(ख) कया
(ग) कैः
(घ) काभिः

Answer

Answer: (ग) कैः


Question 3.
पुरुषः नद्याम् सिकताभिः सेतुं निर्मातुं प्रयतते।
(क) कैः
(ख) काभिः
(ग) केन
(घ) काभ्यः

Answer

Answer: (ख) काभिः


Question 4.
तपोदत्तः विद्याध्ययनाय गुरुकुलम् अगच्छत्।
(क) किमर्थम्
(ख) काय
(ग) कस्यै
(घ) कस्माय

Answer

Answer: (क) किमर्थम्


Question 5.
गुरुगृहं गत्वैव विद्याभ्यासः करणीयः।
(क) कम्
(ख) किम्
(ग) कुत्र
(घ) किमर्थम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) कुत्र


गुरुगृहं गत्वैव विद्याभ्यासः करणीयः।

Question 6.
तपोदत्तः अक्षरज्ञानं विनैव वैदुष्यमवाप्तुम् अभिलषति।।
(क) कम्
(ख) किम्
(ग) कस्य
(घ) कः

Answer

Answer: (ख) किम्


Question 7.
भवद्भिः उन्मीलितं मे नयनयुगलम्।
(क) कः
(ख) के
(ग) कस्य
(घ) कस्याम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) कस्य


Question 8.
केवलं तपोभिः एव ज्ञानं प्राप्यते।
(क) काभिः
(ख) कैः
(ग) केन
(घ) कया

Answer

Answer: (ख) कैः


Question 9.
सिकता जलप्रवाहे न स्थास्यति।
(क) कुत्र
(ख) कस्मिन्
(ग) के
(घ) कैः

Answer

Answer: (ख) कस्मिन्


Question 10.
पुरुषार्थेः एव लक्ष्यं प्राप्यते।
(क) कैः
(ख) केन
(ग) कथम्
(घ) कुत्र

Answer

Answer: (क) कैः


Question 11.
जगति मूर्खाणाम् अभावः न अस्ति।
(क) काम्
(ख) केषाम्
(ग) कानाम्
(घ) कासाम्

Answer

Answer: (ख) केषाम्


Question 12.
सः नद्याम् सेतुं निमार्तुम् प्रयतते।
(क) काम्
(ख) कस्मिन्
(ग) कस्याम्
(घ) काः

Answer

Answer: (ग) कस्याम्


Question 13.
महामत्स्यः मकरो वा भवेत्।
(क) किम्
(ख) कम्
(ग) केन
(घ) कः

Answer

Answer: (घ) कः


Question 14.
रामः मकरालये सेतुं बबन्ध।
(क) कस्मिन्
(ख) कुत्र
(ग) काम्
(घ) के

Answer

Answer: (क) कस्मिन्


Question 15.
तपोदत्तः विद्यां न अधीतवान्।
(क) काम्
(ख) कम्
(ग) कः
(घ) कस्मै

Answer

Answer: (क) काम्


Question 16.
विद्याहीनः नरः सभायाम् न शोभते।
(क) कः
(ख) कुत्र
(ग) कस्याम्
(घ) कीदृशः

Answer

Answer: (घ) कीदृशः


Question 17.
बाल्ये सः न अधीतवान्।
(क) कदा
(ख) केन
(ग) के
(घ) केय

Answer

Answer: (क) कदा


Question 18.
सः ज्ञातिजनैः गर्हितः अभवत्।।
(क) काभिः
(ख) कुत्र
(ग) कीदृशः
(घ) के

Answer

Answer: (ग) कीदृशः


Question 19.
दिवसे मार्गभ्रान्तः सन्ध्यां गृहमुपैति।
(क) किम्
(ख) कदा
(ग) कैः
(घ) कस्य

Answer

Answer: (ख) कदा


Question 20.
सः तपश्चर्यया विद्यामवाप्तुं प्रवृत्तोऽसि।।
(क) किमर्थम्
(ख) कस्य
(ग) कः
(घ) कया

Answer

Answer: (घ) कया


Question 21.
ततः तपस्यारतः तपोधनः प्रविशति।
(क) कीदृशः
(ख) कस्याम्
(ग) किम्
(घ) केषाम्

Answer

Answer: (क) कीदृशः


ततः तपस्यारतः तपोधनः प्रविशति।

निम्नलिखितम् अनुच्छेदं पठित्वा आधारितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत

(ततः प्रविशति तपस्यारतः तपोदत्तः)
तपोदत्तः – अहमस्मि तपोदत्तः। बाल्ये पितृचरणैः क्लेश्यमानोऽपि विद्यां नाऽधीतवानस्मि। तस्मात् सर्वैः कुटुम्बिभिः मित्रैः ज्ञातिजनैश्च गर्हितोऽभवम्।
(ऊर्ध्वं निःश्वस्य)
हा विधे! किम् इदं मया कृतम्? कीदृशी दुर्बुद्धि आसीत् तदा। एतदपि न चिन्तितं यत्
परिधानैरलङ्कारैर्भूषितोऽपि न शोभते।
नरो निर्मणिभोगीव सभायां यदि वा गृहे॥1॥
(किञ्चिद् विमृश्य)
भवतु, किम् एतेन? दिवसे मार्गभ्रान्तः सन्ध्यां यावद् यदि गृहमुपैति तदपि वरम्। नाऽसौ भ्रान्तो मन्यते। अतोऽहम् इदानीं तपश्चर्यया विद्यामवाप्तुं प्रवृत्तोऽस्मि।

Question 1.
अहम् कः अस्मि?

Answer

Answer: तपोधनः


Question 2.
तस्य बुद्धिः कीदृशी आसीत्?

Answer

Answer: दुर्बुद्धिः


Question 3.
कीदृशः नरः न शोभते?

Answer

Answer: परिधानैः अलङ्कारैः भूषितः अपि अपठितः नरः न शोभते।


Question 4.
बाल्ये सः किम् अकरोत्?

Answer

Answer: बाल्ये सः पितृचरणैः क्लेश्यमानोऽपि विद्यां नाऽधीतवान्।


Question 5.
अत्र ‘आगच्छति’ इति क्रियापदस्य पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे किम् प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: उपैति


Question 6.
‘सुबुद्धिः’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं अस्मिन् गद्यांशे किम् प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: दुर्बुद्धिः


Question 7.
‘शोभते’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदम् किम्?

Answer

Answer: नरः


Question 8.
‘अधः’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं किं प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: ऊर्ध्वः


(जलोच्छलनध्वनिः श्रूयते)
तपोदत्तः – अये कुतोऽयं कल्लोलोच्छलनध्वनिः? महामत्स्यो मकरो वा भवेत्। पश्यामि तावत्।
(पुरुषमेकं सिकताभिः सेतुनिर्माण-प्रयासं कुर्वाणं दृष्ट्वा सहासम्)
हन्त! नास्त्यभावो जगति मूर्खाणाम्! तीव्रप्रवाहायां नद्यां मूढोऽयं सिकताभिः सेतुं निर्मातुं प्रयतते!
(साट्टहासं पार्श्वमुपेत्य)
भो महाशय! किमिदं विधीयते! अलमलं तव श्रमेण। पश्य,
रामो बबन्ध यं सेतुं शिलाभिर्मकरालये।
विदधद् बालुकाभिस्तं यासि त्वमतिरामताम्॥2॥
चिन्तय तावत्। सिकताभिः क्वचित्सेतुः कर्तुं युज्यते?

Question 1.
एकः पुरुषः काभिः सेतुनिर्माणप्रयासं करोति स्म?

Answer

Answer: सिकताभिः


Question 2.
जगति केषाम् अभावः न अस्ति?

Answer

Answer: मूर्खाणाम्


Question 3.
मूर्खाणाम् कुत्र अभावः नास्ति?

Answer

Answer: जगति


Question 4.
कल्लोलोच्छलनस्य ध्वनिं श्रुत्वा तपोधनः किम् अचिन्तयत्?

Answer

Answer: कल्लोलोच्छलनध्वनिं श्रुत्वा तपोधनः अचिन्तयत् यत् तत्र महामत्स्यो मकरो वा भवेत्।


Question 5.
तपोदत्तः किमर्थम् हसति?

Answer

Answer: पुरुषमेकं सिकताभिः सेतुनिर्माण-प्रयासं कुर्वाणं दृष्ट्वा तपोदत्रः हसति।


Question 6.
‘संसारे’ पदस्य पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे किम् अस्ति?

Answer

Answer: जगति


Question 7.
अत्र ‘प्रयतते’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्ता कः?

Answer

Answer: मूढः


Question 8.
‘मूढः’ इति पदस्य विशेषणपदं किम् अत्र लिखितम्?

Answer

Answer: अयं


Question 9.
‘विदुषाम्’ इति पदस्य विपरीतार्थकं पदं किम् अनुच्छेदे प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: मूर्खाणाम्


पुरुषः – भोस्तपस्विन्! कथं माम् अवरोधं करोषि। प्रयत्नेन किं न सिद्धं भवति? कावश्यकता शिलानाम्? सिकताभिरेव सेतुं करिष्यामि स्वसंकल्पदृढतया।
तपोदत्तः – आश्चर्यम् किम् सिकताभिरेव सेतुं करिष्यसि? सिकता जलप्रवाहे स्थास्यन्ति किम्? भवता चिन्तितं न वा?
पुरुषः – (सोत्प्रासम्) चिन्तितं चिन्ततम्। सम्यक् चिन्तितम्। नाहं सोपानसहायतया अधिरोढं विश्वसिमि समुत्प्लुत्यैव गन्तुं क्षमोऽस्मि।
तपोदत्तः – (सव्यङ्ग्यम्)
साधु साधु! आञ्जनेयमप्यतिक्रामसि!
पुरुषः – (सविमर्शम्)
कोऽत्र सन्देहः? किञ्च,
विना लिप्यक्षरज्ञानं तपोभिरेव केवलम्।
यदि विद्या वशे स्युस्ते, सेतुरेष तथा मम॥3॥

Question 1.
सर्वं कार्यं केन सिद्धं भवति?

Answer

Answer: प्रयत्नेन


Question 2.
सिकता कुत्र न स्थास्यति?

Answer

Answer: जलप्रवाहे


Question 3.
कः आश्चर्यम् करोति?

Answer

Answer: तपोदत्तः


Question 4.
स्वसंकल्पदृढतया सः किम् करिष्यति?

Answer

Answer: स्वसंकल्पदृढ़तया सः सिकताभिरेव सेतु निर्माणं करिष्यति।


Question 5.
पुरुषः सविमर्शम् किम् कथयंति?

Answer

Answer: पुरुषः सविमर्शम् कथयति-“लिपि, अक्षर ज्ञानं विना केवलं तपोभिः एव यदि ते विद्या वशे स्युः तथा मम एषः सेतुः अपि स्युः।”


Question 6.
अनुच्छेदे ‘सेतुरेष’ अत्र विशेषणपदं किम्?

Answer

Answer: एष


Question 7.
‘सफलम्’ इति अर्थे किम् पदं अत्र प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: सिद्धम्


Question 8.
अत्र ‘चिन्तितं’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किम्?

Answer

Answer: भवता


Question 9.
अस्मिन् अनुच्छेदे ‘उपहासपूर्वकम्’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?

Answer

Answer: सोत्प्रासम्


तपोदत्तः – (सवैलक्ष्यम् आत्मगतम्)
अये! मामेवोद्दिश्य भद्रपुरुषोऽयम् अधिक्षिपति! नूनं सत्यमत्र पश्यामि। अक्षरज्ञानं विनैव वैदुष्यमवाप्तुम् अभिलषामि! तदियं भगवत्याः शारदाया अवमानना। गुरुगृहं गत्वैव विद्याभ्यासो मया करणीयः। पुरुषाथैरेव लक्ष्यं प्राप्यते।
(प्रकाशम्)
भो नरोत्तम! नाऽहं जाने यत् कोऽस्ति भवान्। परन्तु भवद्भिः उन्मीलितं मे नयनयुगलम्। तपोमात्रेण विद्यामवाप्तुं प्रयतमान: अहमपि सिकताभिरेव सेतुनिर्माणप्रयासं करोमि। तदिदानी विद्याध्ययनाय गुरुकुलमेव गच्छमि।
(सप्रणामं गच्छति)

Question 1.
नरः किं विना वैदुष्यम् न प्राप्नोति?

Answer

Answer: अक्षरज्ञानं


Question 2.
तपोदत्तः विद्याध्ययनार्थं कुत्र गच्छति?

Answer

Answer: गुरुकुलम्


Question 3.
तपोदत्तः कस्याः अवमाननां करोति?

Answer

Answer: शारदायाः


Question 4.
तपोमात्रेण विद्यां प्राप्तुं तपोधनस्य प्रयासः कीदृशः आसीत्?

Answer

Answer: तपोमात्रेण विद्यामवाप्तुं तपोधनस्य प्रयासः सिकताभिरेव सेतुनिर्माणप्रयासः आसीत्।


Question 5.
तपोदत्रः किं निश्चयं करोति?

Answer

Answer: तपोदत्तः निश्चयं करोति यत् सः इदानीम् विद्याध्ययनाय गुरुकुलमेव गमिष्यति।


Question 6.
असत्यम्’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं किम् अत्र प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: सत्यम्


Question 7.
अत्र अनुच्छेदे ‘अभिलषामि’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किं?

Answer

Answer: अहम् (तपोदत्तः)


Question 8.
‘भगवत्याः’ इति विशेषणपदस्य विशेष्यपदं किम् अस्ति अत्र?

Answer

Answer: शारदायाः


Question 9.
‘आंगच्छामि’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं किम् अत्र प्रयुक्तम्?

Answer

Answer: गच्छामि।


अधोलिखितस्य श्लोकस्य अन्वये रिक्तस्थानानां पूर्तिः समुचित पदैः कुरुत

परिधानैरलङ्कारैर्भूषितोऽपि, न शोभते।
नरो निर्माणिभोगीव सभायां यदि वा गृहे॥

अन्वयः- परिधानैः (i) …………….. अपि (ii) …………….. (विद्याहीनः) नरः (iii) …………….. वा सभायाम् (iv) …………….. न शोभते।
मञ्जूषा- अलङ्कारैः, निर्मणिभोगीव, गृहे, भूषितः

Answer

Answer:
(i) अलङ्कारैः
(ii) भूषितः
(iii) गृहे
(iv) निर्माणिभोगीव।


रामो बबन्ध यं सेतुं शिलाभिर्मकराले।
विदधद् बालुकाभिस्तं यासि त्वमतिरामताम्॥

अन्वयः- रामः (i) ……………. शिलाभिः (ii) ……………. सेतुं बबन्ध तं (सेतुं) (iii) …………. विदधद् (iv) …………. अतिरामताम् यासि।
मञ्जूषा- बालुकाभिः, यं, मकरालये, त्वम्

Answer

Answer:
(i) मकरालये
(ii) यं
(iii) बालुकाभिः
(iv) त्वम्।


विना लिप्यक्षरज्ञानं तपोभिरेव केवलम्।
यदि विद्या वशे स्युस्ते, सेतुरेष तथा मम्॥

अन्वयः- लिपि (i) ……………… ज्ञानं विना केवलं (ii) ……………. एव (iii) ……………… विद्या (iv) ……………….. स्युः तथा मम एष सेतुः (अपि स्युः)।
मञ्जूषा- यदि, तपोभिः, वशे, अक्षर

Answer

Answer:
(i) अक्षर
(ii) तपोभिः
(iii) यदि
(iv) वशे


अधोलिखितस्य श्लोकस्य भावार्थ रिक्तस्थानानां पूर्तिः मञ्जूषायाः समुचितैः पदैः कुरुत

परिधानैरलङ्कारैर्भूषितोऽपि, न शोभते।
नरो निर्माणिभोगीव सभायां यदि वा गृहे॥

भावार्थ:- अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत् मानवजीवने विद्यायाः अतीव महत्त्वम् अस्ति। यथा (i) …………… मणिं विना कदापि न शोभां प्राप्नोति तथैव सुन्दरैः (ii) ………………… आभूषणैः वा (iii) …………….. पुरुषः अपि कदापि विद्यां विना (iv) ……………. शोभां न प्राप्नोति।
मञ्जूषा- वस्त्रैः, सभायां, सुसज्जितः, सर्पः

Answer

Answer:
(i) सर्पः
(ii) वस्त्रैः
(iii) सुसज्जितः
(iv) सभायां


रामो बबन्ध यं सेतुं शिलाभिर्मकरालये।
विदधद् बालुकाभिस्तं यासि त्वमतिरामताम्॥

भावार्थ:- अर्थात् (i) ………….. श्रीरामः त्रेतायुगे पाषाणशिलाभिः यं. (ii) …………… रचितवान्। त्वम् अद्य (iii) ……………… एव तत् कार्यं कृत्वा तस्य प्रयत्नम् (iv) …………… करोषि।
मञ्जूषा- सेतुं, अतिक्रमणं, भगवान्, बालुकाभिः

Answer

Answer:
(i) भगवान्
(ii) सेतुं
(iii) बालुकाभिः
(iv) अतिक्रमणं


विना लिप्यक्षरज्ञानं तपोभिरेव केवलम्।
यदि विद्या वशे स्युस्ते, सेतुरेष तथा मम्॥

भावार्थ:- अस्मिन् संसारे यदि (i) ……………. अक्षरज्ञानं विना केवलं (ii) …………… एव विद्या प्राप्तुं (iii) …तदा मम् अपि (iv) ……………….. एव एषः सेतुः अपि भवितुं कथं न शक्नोति?
मञ्जूषा- सिक्ताभिः, लिपिज्ञानं, शक्नोति, तपोभिः

Answer

Answer:
(i) लिपिज्ञानं
(ii) तपोभिः
(iii) शक्नोति
(iv) सिक्ताभिः


निम्नवाक्यानि घटनाक्रमानुसारं पुनर्लिखत

1. (i) तस्मै ज्ञानदातुम् इन्द्रः वेशं परिवर्त्य तस्य समीपम् अगच्छत्।
(ii) इदं श्रुत्वा तपोदत्तः विद्यां प्राप्तुं गुरुकुलम् अगच्छत्।
(iii) तदा तपोदत्तः इदं दृष्ट्वा तस्य उपहासं करोति।
(iv) एकः तपोदत्तः तपस्यारतः बालकः आसीत्।
(v) सः कथयति-भोः! कथमेतत् व्यर्थमेव सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करोषि।
(vi) सः पुरुषः गंगायाः सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणम् आरभत।
(vii) सः विद्याप्राप्त्यै अध्ययनं न कृत्वा केवलं तपः एव अकरोत्।
(viii) इन्द्रः अवदत् यदि तपसा एव त्वं विद्यां प्राप्स्यसि तर्हि अहमपि सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करिष्यामि।

Answer

Answer:
(i) एकः तपोदत्तः तपस्यारतः बालकः आसीत्।
(ii) सः विद्याप्राप्त्यै अध्ययनं न कृत्वा केवलं तपः एव अकरोत्।
(iii) तस्मै ज्ञानदातुम् इन्द्रः वशं परिवर्त्य तस्य समीपम् अगच्छत्।
(iv) सः पुरुषः गंगायाः सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणम् आरभत।
(v) तदा तपोदत्तः इदं दृष्ट्वा तस्य उपहासं करोति।
(vi) सः कथयति-भोः! कथमेतत् व्यर्थमेव सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करोषि।
(vii) इन्द्रः अवदत् यदि तपसा एव त्वं विद्यां प्राप्स्यसि तर्हि अहमपि सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करिष्यामि।
(viii) इदं श्रुत्वा तपोदत्तः विद्यां प्राप्तुं गुरुकुलम् अगच्छत्।


2. (i) इदं दृष्ट्वा तस्मै ज्ञानं दातुम् देवराजः इन्द्रः वेशं परिवर्त्य तत्रागच्छत्।
(ii) इदं श्रुत्वा इन्द्रः अवदत् यथा त्वं पठनं, लेखनं लिपि अभ्यासं च विना विद्यां प्राप्तुम् इच्छसि।
(iii) सः गंगायाः सिक्ताभिः तस्य समक्षे सेतुं निर्मातुम् आरभत।
(iv) परं वारं-वारं जले सेतुसिक्ता प्रवहत्।
(v) एकः कश्चित् तपोदत्तः नामक : बालक : विद्यां प्राप्तुं तपः करोति स्म।
(vi) ‘तथैव अहमपि सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करिष्यामि’। इदं श्रुत्वा सः पठनाय गुरुकुलम् अगच्छत्।
(vii) इदं दृष्ट्वा तपोदत्तः अहसत् अवदत् च-सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं कथं भविष्यति?
(viii) परं तस्मै कापि सफलता न अमिलत्।

Answer

Answer:
(i) एकः कश्चित् तपोदत्तः नामकः बालकः विद्यां प्राप्तुं तपः करोति स्म।
(ii) परं तस्मै कापि सफलता न अमिलत्।
(iii) इदं दृष्ट्वा तस्मै ज्ञानं दातुम् देवराजः इन्द्रः वेशं परिवर्त्य तत्रागच्छत्।
(iv) सः गंगायाः सिक्ताभिः तस्य समक्षे सेतुं निर्मातुम् आरभत।
(v) परं वारं-वारं जले सेतुसिक्ता प्रवहत्।
(vi) इदं दृष्ट्वा तपोदत्तः अहसत् अवदत् च-सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं कथं भविष्यति?
(vii) इद्रं श्रुत्वा इन्द्रः अवदत् यथा त्वं पठनं, लेखनं लिपि अभ्यासं च विना विद्यां प्राप्तुम् इच्छसि।
(viii) तथैव अहमपि सिक्ताभिः सेतुनिर्माणं करिष्यामि’। इदं श्रुत्वा सः पठनाय गुरुकुलम् अगच्छत्।


निम्नपदानां पर्यायपदानि चित्वा लिखत

Question 1.
बाल्ये पितृचरणैः क्लेश्यमानः विद्यांनाधीतवान्।
(क) पित्रे
(ख) तातपादैः
(ग) पितुः
(घ) पितरि

Answer

Answer: (ख) तातपादैः


Question 2.
तपोदत्तः सर्वैः कुटम्बिभिः मित्रैः च गर्हितः अभवत्।।
(क) निन्दितः
(ख) प्रशंसितः
(ग) प्रसन्नः
(घ) दुःखितः

Answer

Answer: (क) निन्दितः


Question 3.
यदि गृहमुपैति तदपि वरम्
(क) अश्रेष्ठम्
(ख) गर्हितम्
(ग) श्रेष्ठम्
(घ) न उत्तमम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) श्रेष्ठम्


Question 4.
हन्त! नास्त्यभावो जगति मूर्खाणाम्।
(क) शरीरे
(ख) संसारे
(ग) मुखे
(घ) मनसि

Answer

Answer: (ख) संसारे


Question 5.
भो महाशय! किमिदं विधीयते?
(क) करोति
(ख) करोमि
(ग) क्रियन्ते
(घ) क्रियते

Answer

Answer: (घ) क्रियते


Question 6.
कथं माम् उपरुणत्सि?
(क) अवरुणद्धि
(ख) अवरोधं करोषि
(ग) प्रोत्साहनं करोषि
(घ) हतोत्साहितं करोषि

Answer

Answer: (ख) अवरोधं करोषि


Question 7.
आञ्जनेयम् अपि अतिक्रामसि।
(क) ईश्वरम्
(ख) रामम्
(ग) हनुमन्तम्
(घ) लक्ष्मणम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) हनुमन्तम्


Question 8.
यदि विद्या वशे स्युः।।
(क) लेखम्
(ख) लेखनम्
(ग) पठनम्
(घ) धावनम्

Answer

Answer: (ग) पठनम्


Question 9.
अक्षरज्ञानं विना एव वैदुष्यम् आवाप्तुम् अभिलषामि।
(क) विद्वत्त्वम्
(ख) कार्यम्
(ग) शक्तिम्
(घ) भ्रमम्

Answer

Answer: (क) विद्वत्त्वम्


Question 10.
तदियं भगवत्याः शारदायाः अवमानना।
(क) देव्याः
(ख) सरस्वत्याः
(ग) शक्तिम्
(घ) दुर्गायाः

Answer

Answer: (ख) सरस्वत्याः


Question 11.
भवद्भिः उन्मीलितं मे नयनयुगलम्।
(क) मयि
(ख) माम्
(ग) मया
(घ) मम

Answer

Answer: (घ) मम


‘क’ स्तम्भे विशेषणानि ‘ख’ स्तम्भे विशेष्याणि दत्तानि। तानि समुचित योजयत

‘क’ स्तम्भः – ‘ख’ स्तम्भः
(i) सर्वैः – सेतुम्
(ii) तीव्रप्रवाहमानायाम् – अयम्
(iii) तपस्यारतः – पुरुषम्
(iv) यम् – सेतुः
(v) मूढः – नरः
(vi) एकम् – शारदायाः
(vii) एषः – अहम्
(viii) उत्तमः – तपोदत्तः
(ix) भगवत्याः – नद्याम्
(x) प्रयतमानः – कुटुम्बिभिः

Answer

Answer:
(i) कुटुम्बिभिः
(ii) नद्याम्
(iii) तपोदत्तः
(iv) सेतुम्
(v) अयम्
(vi) पुरुषम्
(vii) सेतुः
(viii) नरः
(ix) शारदायाः
(x) अहम्


निम्नपदायां विपर्ययपदानि चिनुतपदानि

विपर्ययाः – पदानि
(i) बाल्ये – अवरम्
(ii) विद्याम् – सुबुद्धिः
(iii) गर्हितः – विदुषाम्
(iv) दुर्बुद्धिः – मार्गयुक्तः
(v) वरम् – विद्वान्
(vi) मार्गभ्रान्तः – प्रियः
(vii) मूर्खाणाम् – असिद्धम्
(viii) मूढः – आलस्यैः
(ix) पार्श्वम् – अवरोढुम्
(x) सिद्धम् – प्रकाशम्
(xi) अधिरोढ़म् – अक्षमः
(xii) क्षमः – यौवने
(xiii) आत्मगतम् – सम्मानम्
(xiv) अवमानना – अविद्याम्
(xv) पुरुषार्थः – दूरम्

Answer

Answer:
(i) यौवने
(ii) अविद्याम्
(iii) प्रियः
(iv) सुबुद्धिः
(v) अवरम्
(vi) मार्गयुक्तः
(vii) विदुषाम्
(viii) विद्वान्
(ix) दूरम्
(x) असिद्धम्
(xi) अवरोढुम्
(xii) अक्षमः
(xiii) प्रकाशम्
(xiv) सम्मानम्
(xv) आलस्यैः


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 9 सिकतासेतुः with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 9 Sanskrit सिकतासेतुः MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Forest And Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India
(a) Peepal
(b) Neem
(c) Banyan
(d) Mango

Answer

Answer: (b) Neem


Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of many species due to
(a) Industrial development
(b) Agricultural expansion
(c) Port activities
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: (d) Mining


Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
What was the aim of Chipko movement?
(a) Human rights
(b) Political rights
(c) Agricultural expansion
(d) Forest conservation

Answer

Answer: (d) Forest conservation


Geography Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
The Mundas and Santhals of Chhota Nagpur region worship which one of the following trees?
(a) Mahua
(b) Mango
(c) Peepal
(d) Tamarind

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahua


Geography Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
The species which are in danger of extinction are called:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endangered species
(d) Normal species

Answer

Answer: (c) Endangered species


Ch 2 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
The Himalayan brown bear is an example of:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endemic species
(d) Extinct species

Answer

Answer: (b) Rare species


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Question 7.
The Asian cheetah was declared extinct in India in the year:
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 2010
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (b) 1952


MCQ Of Chapter 2 Geography Class 10 Question 8.
The Himalayan yew is:
(a) an insect
(b) a medicinal plant
(c) a mammal
(d) a bird

Answer

Answer: (b) a medicinal plant


Geography Ch 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forests in:
(a) Ganga Plain
(b) South India
(c) Brahmaputra Plain
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) South India


Class 10 Geo Ch 2 MCQ Question 10.
How many tiger reserves are there in India:
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 27
(d) 29

Answer

Answer: (c) 27


Ch 2 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India?
(a) Peepal
(b) Neem
(c) Banyan
(d) Mango

Answer

Answer: (b) Neem


Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India?

Class 10th Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 12.
India has nearly …………… percent of total number of species in the world
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 8


Cbse Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 13.
When was Asiatic Cheetah declared extinct in India?
(a) in 1958
(b) in 1989
(c) in 1922
(d) in 1952

Answer

Answer: (d) in 1952


Chapter 2 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The Buxa Tiger Reserve is situated in which of the following states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat
(d) Orissa

Answer

Answer: (b) West Bengal


Class 10 Geo Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
How many species of flora are found in India?
(a) 81000
(b) 47000
(c) 15000
(d) 41000

Answer

Answer: (b) 47000


Question 16.
Sariska wildlife sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajasthan


Question 17.
Which one of the following belongs to vulnerable species?
(a) Black buck
(b) Crocodile
(c) Indian rhino
(d) Blue sheep

Answer

Answer: (d) Blue sheep


Question 18.
Which of the following types of species are known as the extinct species?
(a) Species whose population levels are normal
(b) Whose population has declined
(c) Species with small population
(d) Species which are not found

Answer

Answer: (d) Species which are not found


Question 19.
Which one of the following states has the largest area under permanent forests?
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh


Question 20.
Which of the following is an extinct species?
(a) Blue sheep
(b) Asiatic cheetah
(c) Black buck
(d) Asiatic elephant

Answer

Answer: (b) Asiatic cheetah


Question 21.
Forests and wastelands belonging to both private individuals and government are known as:
(a) Sacred groves
(b) Reserved forest
(c) Protected forests
(d) Unclassed forests

Answer

Answer: (d) Unclassed forests


Question 22.
Which of the following species was included for the first time in list of protected species in 1991?
(a) Insects
(b) Fishes
(c) Plants
(d) Reptiles

Answer

Answer: (c) Plants


Question 23.
In which of the following states, a very high percentage of its forests is managed by local communities?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh


Question 24.
What is the Himalayan Yew?
(a) A type of deer
(b) A medicinal plant
(c) A species of bird
(d) A food crop grown in the Himalayas

Answer

Answer: (b) A medicinal plant


What is the Himalayan Yew?

Question 25.
Cleaning of forests is still continuing in Madhya Pradesh mainly due to which of the following reasons?
(a) Dolomite mining
(b) Commercial plantations
(c) Industrialisaiton and urbanisation
(d) Narmada Sagar (River Valley) Project

Answer

Answer: (d) Narmada Sagar (River Valley) Project


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Forest and Wildlife Resources CBSE Class 10 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided How, When and Where Class 8 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

How, When and Where Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Class 8 History Chapter 1 MCQ Question 1.
Who was the last Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) dtipon
(d) Lord Wellesley

Answer

Answer: (b) Lord Mountbatten


Who was the last Viceroy of India?

How When And Where Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
Medieval period was
(a) the old period of history
(b) the period associated with the growth of all the forces of modernity
(c) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) none of the above


MCQ Questions For Class 8 History Chapter 1 Question 3.
The British thought surveys were important for
(a) writing history
(b) effective judgement
(c) effective administration
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) effective administration


Class 8 History Ch 1 MCQ Question 4.
The British preserve official documents because
(a) the preserved documents reveal the progress made by country in the past
(b) one can study the notes and reports which were prepared in the past
(c) their copies may be made and used in modern times
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


History Chapter 1 Class 8 MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the sources do historians use in writing about the last 250 years of Indian history?
(а) Official records of the French administration
(b) Official records of the British administration
(c) Official records of the Church administration
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Official records of the British administration


Class 8 Chapter 1 History MCQ Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT the period of division of Indian History by James Mill?
(a) Hindu
(b) Muslim
(c) Christians
(d) Sikhs

Answer

Answer: (d) Sikhs


Ch 1 History Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
Which is NOT the source of describing history.?
(a) Diaries of people
(b) Conversation between two people
(c) Accounts of pilgrims and travellers
(d) Autobiographies of important personalities

Answer

Answer: (b) Conversation between two people


History Class 8 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
The National Archives of* India came up in the
(a) 1910s
(b) 1920s
(c) 1930s
(d) 1940s

Answer

Answer: (b) 1920s


The National Archives of* India came up in the

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) James Mill (a) The first Governor General of India
(ii) Warren Hastings (b) Scholars who write histories
(iii) Calligraphists (c) A Scottish economise and political leader
(iv) Historians (d) The earlier period of the history
(v) Ancient (e) Expert in writing documents with beautiful hand-writing
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) James Mill (c) A Scottish economise and political leader
(ii) Warren Hastings (a) The first Governor General of India
(iii) Calligraphists (e) Expert in writing documents with beautiful hand-writing
(iv) Historians (b) Scholars who write histories
(v) Ancient (d) The earlier period of the history

State whether true or false:

1. Lawrence was a prominent Viceroy of India.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Curzon was a Governor General of India.

Answer

Answer: True


3. James Mill published a newspaper in 1817.

Answer

Answer: False


4. We need to divide history into different periods.

Answer

Answer: True


5. The British came to India to know about its great culture.

Answer

Answer: False


6. History deals with changes that occur over time.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

1. The last Viceroy of British India was

Answer

Answer: Lord Mountbatten


2. James Rannel prepared the in 1782.

Answer

Answer: first map


3. James Mill divides into three periods.

Answer

Answer: Indian history


4. The British preserved all important and

Answer

Answer: letters, documents


5. In Mill’s idea of history, the period before British rule was one of

Answer

Answer: darkness


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding How, When and Where CBSE Class 8 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Comparing Quantities Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities Roots for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Comparing Quantities Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Comparing Quantities Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The ratio of 50 paise to Rs. 1 is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Rs 1 = 100 paise
50 paise : 100 paise or 50 : 100 or 1 : 2.


Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 MCQ Question 2.
The ratio of 10 m to 1 km is
(a) 1 : 10
(b) 10 : 1
(c) 1 : 100
(d) 100 : 1.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
1 km = 1000 m
10 m : 1000 m or 10 : 1000 or 1 : 100.


Class 8 Maths Ch 8 MCQ Question 3.
The ratio of 10 km per hour to 30 km per hour is
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1:2
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 2 : 1.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
10 : 30 = 1 : 3.


MCQ On Comparing Quantities Class 8 Question 4.
The ratio 1 : 4 converted to percentage is
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 4%.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
1 : 4 = \(\frac{1}{4}\) x 100% = 25%.


MCQ Of Comparing Quantities Class 8 Question 5.
The ratio 4 : 25 converted to percentage is
(a) 8%
(b) 4%
(c) 16%
(d) 25%.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
4 : 25 = \(\frac{4}{25}\) x 100% = 16%.


The ratio 4 : 25 converted to percentage is

Class 8 Math Chapter 8 MCQ Question 6.
The fraction \(\frac{2}{5}\) converted to percentage is
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
\(\frac{2}{5}\) = \(\frac{2}{5}\) x 100% = 40%.


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Question 7.
The fraction \(\frac{1}{8}\) converted to percentage is
(a) 12\(\frac{1}{2}\)%
(b) 25%
(c) 8%
(d) 16%.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac{2}{5}\) = \(\frac{2}{5}\) x 100% = 12\(\frac{1}{2}\)%.


Class 8 Comparing Quantities MCQ Question 8.
Out of 40 students in a class, 25% passed. How many students passed ?
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 30
(d) 40.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
∵ Out of 100, passed = 25
∴ Out of 40, passed = \(\frac{25}{100}\) x 40 = 10.
or
25% of 40 = \(\frac{25}{100}\) x 40 = 10


Class 8 Chapter 8 Maths MCQ Question 9.
Out of 100 students of a class, 30% like to watch T.V. How many students like to watch T.V. ?
(a) 70
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 30.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
Number of students who like to watch T.V. = 30% of 100 = \(\frac{30}{100}\) x 100 = 30 .


MCQ On Percentage For Class 8 Question 10.
There are 50 students in a class of which 40 are boys and the rest are girls. The ratio of the number of boys and number of girls is
(a) 2 : 3
(6) 1 : 5
(c) 4:1
(d) 2:5.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
Number of Girls = 50 – 40 = 10
Required ratio = 40 : 10 = 4 : 1.


Class 8 Chapter 8 MCQ Question 11.
40% of 50 students of a class are good at Science. How many students are not good at Science ?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) 40.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
∵ Out of 100, good at Science = 40
∴ Out of 50, good at Science
= \(\frac{40}{100}\) × 50 = 20.
or
Number of students good at science
= 40% of 50 = \(\frac{40}{100}\) x 50 = 20
∴ Number of students not good at Science
= 50 – 20 = 30.


Class 8th Maths Chapter 8 MCQ Question 12.
Apala has Rs 200 with her. She spent 80% amount she had. How much money is left with her ?
(a)Rs 10
(b) Rs 20
(c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 40.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
∴ Out of Rs 100, money spent = Rs 80
∴ Out of Rs 200, money spent = \(\frac{80}{100}\) x 200 = Rs 160
or
Money spent = 80% of Rs 200
= 200 x \(\frac{80}{100}\) = Rs 60
∴ Money left = Rs 200 – Rs 160 = Rs 40.


MCQ Comparing Quantities Class 8 Question 13.
The marked price of a book is Rs 100. The shopkeeper gives 25% discount on it. What is the sale price of the book ?
(a) Rs 100
(b) Rs 25
(c) Rs 125
(d) Rs 75.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
Discount on Rs 100 = 25
∴ Sale price = 100 – 25 = Rs 75


Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 MCQ Questions Question 14.
A bag is available for Rs 90. The shopkeeper allows 10% discount on the marked price. What is the marked price of the bag ?
(a) Rs 100
(b) Rs 90
(c) Rs 110
(d) Rs 10.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
100 – 10 = 90 .
If the bag is available for Rs 90, then marked price = Rs 100.


Ch 8 Maths Class 8 MCQ Question 15.
A toy marked at Rs 40 is available for Rs 32. What per cent discount is given on the marked price ?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 40%.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Discount = 40 – 32 = Rs 8
∴ Discount on Rs 40 = Rs 8
∴ Discount on Rs 100
= \(\frac{80}{100}\) × 10 = Rs 20


Question 16.
Meenu purchased a fridge for Rs 10000 and sold it for Rs 8000. Find her loss.
(a) Rs 8000
(b) Rs 10000
(c) Rs 2000
(d) Rs 12000

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
Loss = C.P. – S.P. = 10000 – 8000
= Rs 2000.


Question 17.
Saroj purchased a fan for Rs 1000 and sold it for Rs 1200. What is her profit ?
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 1200
(c) Rs 200
(d) Rs 800.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
Gain = S.P. – C.P. = 1200 – 1000
= Rs 200.


Question 18.
Vimla purchased a watch for Rs 500. She sold it at a loss of 20%. Find the selling price.
(a) Rs 500
(b) Rs 400
(c) Rs 300
(d) Rs 200.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
100 – 20 = 80
∵ If C.P. is 100, then S.P. = Rs 80
∴ If C.P. is Rs 500, then S.P.
= \(\frac{80}{100}\) x 500 = Rs 400.


Question 19.
Kanti purchased a sewing machine for Rs 2000. She sold it at a loss of 40%. Find the selling price.
(a) Rs 1200
(b) Rs 400
(c) Rs 800
(d) Rs 2800.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
100 – 40 = 60
∵ If C.P. is Rs 100, then S.P. = Rs 60
∴ If C.P. is Rs 2000, then S.P.
= \(\frac{60}{100}\) x 2000 = Rs 1200.


Question 20.
Mithlesh purchased a T.V. for Rs 10000 and sold it for Rs 8000. Find her loss %.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 40%
(d) 60%.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Loss = 10000 – 8000 = 2000
∴ Loss% = \(\frac{200}{1000}\) × 100% = 20%.


Question 21.
Sapna purchased a cycle for Rs 1000 and sold it for Rs 1200. Find her gain%.
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 40%
(d) 12%.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Gain = 1200 – 1000 = 200
∴ Gain% = \(\frac{200}{1000}\) × 100% = 20%.


Question 22.
Find the simple interest on Rs 1000 for 2 years at 8% per annum.
(a) Rs 80
(b) Rs 40
(c) Rs 120
(d) Rs 160.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
S.I = \(\frac{1000×2×8}{100}\) = Rs 160


Find the simple interest on Rs 1000 for 2 years at 8% per annum.

Question 23.
A sofa-set was bought for Rs 10000. Its value depreciated at the rate of 10% per annum. Find its value after one year.
(a) Rs 11000
(b) Rs 9000
(c) Rs 10000
(d) Rs 1000.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Depreciation in 1 year = 10000 x \(\frac{10}{100}\) = Rs 1000
∴ Value after 1 year
= 10000 – 1000 = Rs 9000.


Question 24.
There are 1275 trees in Chaudhary Farm. Out of these 36% trees are of fruits. How many trees of fruits are there in Chaudhary Farm ?
(a) 459
(b) 549
(c) 945
(d) 954.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Required number = \(\frac{1275×36}{100}\) = Rs 459


Question 25.
The quantity of protein in a particular variety of pulse is 25%. Find the amount of protein in 4 kg of pulse.
(a) 1 kg
(b) 2 kg
(c) 3 kg
(d) 4 kg.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
Amount of protein = 4 × \(\frac{25}{100}\) = 1 kg


Question 26.
In a miRsture the amount of zinc is 45%. Find the amount of zinc in 400 g miRsture.
(a) 60 g
(b) 120 g
(c) 180 g
(d) 200 g.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
Amount of zinc = 400 × \(\frac{45}{100}\) = 180 kg


Question 27.
In a school out of 340 students, 55% students are of Science. The remaining students are of Commerce. Find the number of students of Commerce.
(a) 135
(b) 153
(c) 315
(d) 140.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Number of Science students
= 340 x \(\frac{55}{100}\) = 187.
∴ Number of students of Commerce
= 340 – 187 = 153.


Question 28.
The salary of Manish is Rs 10000. His salary gets increased by 10%. Find his increased salary.
(a) Rs 9000
(b) Rs H000
(c) Rs 8000
(d) Rs 12000.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
Increase in salary
= 10000 x \(\frac{10}{100}\) = Rs 1000
∴ Increased salary
= Rs 10000 + Rs 1000 = Rs 11000.


Question 29.
A shopkeeper purchased 2 refrigerators for Rs 9800 and Rs 8200 respectively. He sold them for Rs 16920. Find loss%.
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
Total C.P. = 9800 + 8200 = Rs 18000
S.P. = Rs 16920
∴ Loss = Rs 18000 – Rs 16920 = Rs 1080
∴ Loss % = \(\frac{1080}{18000}\) x 100% = 6%.


Question 30.
In selling a plot of land for Rs 61200, a profit of 20% is made. The cost price of the plot is
(a) Rs 51000
(b) Rs 50000
(c) Rs 49000
(d) Rs 52000.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
∵ If S.P. is Rs 120(100 + 20),
C.P. = Rs 100
∴ If S.P. is Rs 61200
C.P. = \(\frac{100}{120}\) x 61200 = Rs 51000


Question 31.
The simple interest on Rs 2000 for 4 years is Rs 400. The rate per cent of interest is
(a) \(\frac{2000×100}{400×4}\)
(b) \(\frac{400×4}{2000×10}\)
(c) \(\frac{400×100}{2000×4}\)
(d) \(\frac{2000×4}{400×100}\)

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
\(\frac{2000×4×R}{100}\) = 400
⇒ R = \(\frac{400×100}{2000×4}\) = 5


Question 32.
The simple interest of Rs 500 at the rate of 5% is Rs 100. This interest is of the time.
(a) 1 year
(b) 4 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 20 years.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac{500×5×T}{100}\) = 100
⇒ T = \(\frac{100×100}{500×5}\) = 4


Question 33.
The S.I. of Rs 100 of 1 year at the rate of 3 paise per rupee per month is
(a) Rs 30
(b) Rs 36
(c) Rs 24
(d) Rs 48.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
S.I = 100 × 1 ×(3 × 12) = 3600 paise = Rs 36


The S.I. of Rs 100 of 1 year at the rate of 3 paise per rupee per month is

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Comparing Quantities CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 10 Hindi Chapter 6 MCQ Question 1.
शिशु की प्रथम गुरू कौन होती है?
(a) बहन
(b) नानी
(c) माँ
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) माँ


शिशु की प्रथम गुरू कौन होती है?

यह दंतुरित मुसकान Extra Question Answer Question 2.
कवि के अनुसार फसलें किनका बदला हुआ रूप है?
(a) बीजों का
(b) खनिज लवणों का
(c) पौधों का
(d) सूर्य की किरणों का

Answer

Answer: (d) सूर्य की किरणों का


Class 10 Hindi Ch 6 MCQ Question 3.
वायु का योगदान किन्हें बड़ा करने में होता है?
(a) बच्चों को
(b) फसलों को
(c) पेड़ों को
(d) जानवरों को

Answer

Answer: (b) फसलों को


Hindi Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQ Question 4.
कविता ‘फसल’ में किसकी महिमा पर प्रकाश डाला गया है?
(a) कवि की
(b) पक्षियों की
(c) किसानों की
(d) फसलों की

Answer

Answer: (d) फसलों की


Danturit Muskan Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
नन्हे शिशु का शरीर किसकी तरह खिल उठता है?
(a) सूरज
(b) कमल
(c) चाँदनी
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) कमल


Yeh Danturit Muskan Extra Question Answers Question 6.
किसकी मुसकान इतनी मनमोहक है कि यह मुर्दे में भी जान डाल सकती है?
(a) नन्हें शिशु की
(b) गुड़िया की
(c) पक्षियों की
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) नन्हें शिशु की


Yah Danturit Muskan MCQ Question 7.
कवि को एकटक कौन निहार रहा है?
(a) लड़की
(b) किसान
(c) शिशु
(d) मेहमान

Answer

Answer: (c) शिशु


Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 8.
फसलें किसके अमृत-भरे प्रभाव से सिंचकर पुष्ट हुई हैं?
(a) बादलों के
(b) तालाब के
(c) नदियों के
(d) नहरों के

Answer

Answer: (c) नदियों के


Class 10 Hindi Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 9.
फसलों में किसकी मेहनत छिपी है?
(a) किसानों की
(b) बच्चों की
(c) कवि की
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) किसानों की


Ncert Solutions For Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 Question 10.
मिट्टी का गुणधर्म किसे कहा गया है?
(a) जल
(b) फसल
(c) हवा
(d) धूप

Answer

Answer: (b) फसल


मिट्टी का गुणधर्म किसे कहा गया है?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 6 यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding यह दंतुरहित मुस्कान और फसल CBSE Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Structure of the Atom Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Online Education for Structure of the Atom Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Structure Of Atom Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following correctly represents the electronic distribution in the Mg atom?
(a) 3, 8, 1
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) 1, 8, 3
(d) 8, 2, 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 2, 8, 2


Structure Of Atom Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Rutherford’s ‘alpha (α) particles scattering experiment’ resulted in the discovery of
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) nucleus in the atom
(d) atomic mass

Answer

Answer: (c) nucleus in the atom


Class 9 Science Chapter 4 MCQ Question 3.
The number of electrons in an element X is 15 and the number of neutrons is 16. Which of the following is the correct representation of the element?
(a) \(_{15}^{31}\)X
(b) \(_{16}^{31}\)X
(c) \(_{15}^{16}\)X
(d) \(_{16}^{15}\)X

Answer

Answer: (a) \(_{15}^{31}\)X


MCQ On Structure Of Atom Class 9 Question 4.
Which of the following are true for an element?
(i) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(iii) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (d) (ii) and (iv)


Structure Of Atom MCQ Class 9 Question 5.
Atomic models have been improved over the years. Arrange the following atomic models in the order of their chronological order
(i) Rutherford’s atomic model
(ii) Thomson’s atomic model
(ii) Bohr’s atomic model
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (i)
(c) (ii), (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii), (ii) and (i)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii), (i) and (iii)


Class 9 Science Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 10


Class 9 Science Ch 4 MCQ Question 7.
Identify the Mg2+ ion from the figure where, n and p represent the number of neutrons and protons respectively.
Class 9 Science Ch 4 MCQ

Answer

Answer: (d)


MCQ Structure Of Atom Class 9 Question 8.
The first model of an atom was given by
(a) N. Bohr
(b) E. Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) J.J. Thomson

Answer

Answer: (d) J.J. Thomson


The first model of an atom was given by

Structure Of The Atom Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
An atom with 3 protons and 4 neutrons will have a valency of
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 1


Class 9 Structure Of Atom MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following statement is always correct?
(a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.
(b) An atom has equal number of electrons and neutrons.
(c) An atom has equal number of protons and neutrons.
(d) An atom has equal number of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Answer

Answer: (a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.


MCQ On Structure Of Atom Class 9 Question 11.
Which of the following statements about Rutherford’s model of atom are correct?
(i) Considered the nucleus as positively charged.
(ii) Established that the a-particles are four times as heavy as a hydrogen atom.
(iii) Can be compared to solar system.
(iv) Was in agreement with Thomson’s model.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) only (i)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Question 12.
Hydrogen exists in three isotopic forms, \(_{1}^{1}\)H, \(_{1}^{2}\)H, \(_{1}^{3}\)H known as protium, deuterium and tritium. Why are all the isotopes neutral in nature?
(a) Since neutrons are neutral in nature hence isotopes are electrically neutral.
(b) All the isotopes have one electron and one proton, hence they are neutral.
(c) All the isotopes have one proton and one neutron, hence they are neutral.
(d) Increasing number of protons in the isotopes make them neutral.

Answer

Answer: (b) All the isotopes have one electron and one proton, hence they are neutral.


Ch 4 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 13.
How many electrons are present in M-shell of an element with atomic number 20?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 18

Answer

Answer: (b) 8


Chapter 4 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
There are two atomic species X and Y, such that
Chapter 4 Science Class 9 MCQ
Which of the following statements is true about X and Y?
(a) X and Y are isobars.
(b) X and Y have different chemical properties.
(c) X and Y have different physical properties.
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) X and Y have different physical properties.


MCQ Of Structure Of Atom Class 9 Question 15.
The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 10


Question 16.
An alpha particle is also known as:
(a) subatomic particle
(b) an unionised helium atom
(c) a neutral particle
(d) a doubly-charged helium ion

Answer

Answer: (d) a doubly-charged helium ion


Question 17.
There are three isotopes of carbon which are named as C-12, C-13 and C-14 out of which C-12 is the most abundant isotope. In the given structures of 3 isotopes, what will be the composition of the nucleus?
MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers
(a) C-12 : 6p + 6n, C-13 : 7p + 6n, C-14 : 8p + 6n
(b) C-12 : 6p + 6n, C-13 : 6p + 7n, C-14 : 6p + 8n
(c) C-12 : 6p + 6n, C-13 : 5p + 8n, C-14 : 7p + 7n
(d) C-12 : 6p + 6n, C-13 : 12p + 1n, C-14 : 5p + 9n

Answer

Answer: (b) C-12 : 6p + 6n, C-13 : 6p + 7n, C-14 : 6p + 8n


Question 18.
The charge on an electron is equal to:
(a) 1.6 × 10-19 C of -ve charge
(b) 2.6 × 10-19 C of -ve charge
(c) 1.6 × 10-22 C of -ve charge
(d) 1.6 × 10-23 C of -ve charge

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.6 × 10-19 C of -ve charge


Question 19.
Which of the following isotope is used in the treatment of blood cancer?
(a) P-32
(b) I-131
(c) Co-60
(d) any of these

Answer

Answer: (a) P-32


Question 20.
Isobars do not differ in the number of
(a) protons
(b) electrons
(c) neutrons
(d) nucleons

Answer

Answer: (d) nucleons


Isobars do not differ in the number of

Fill in the blanks

1. Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of the ……………….

Answer

Answer: atomic nucleus


2. Isotopes have same ……………… but different ……………..

Answer

Answer: atomic number, mass number


3. Neon and chlorine have atomic numbers 10 and 17 respectively. Their valencies will be ………….. and ……………. respectively.

Answer

Answer: 0 and 1


4. The electronic configuration of silicon is …………… and that of sulphur is ……………..

Answer

Answer: 2, 8, 4, and 2, 8, 6


5. Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles known as ………………

Answer

Answer: electrons


6. ……………. are the atoms containing same number of neutrons.

Answer

Answer: isotones


7. The outermost shell of an atom is known as its ……………..

Answer

Answer: valence shell


8. Alpha particles are helium nuclei (He2+) and have …………. mass and ……………. units charge.

Answer

Answer: 4u and +2


9. The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by ……………..

Answer

Answer: 2n²


10. Neutrons were discovered by …………….

Answer

Answer: James Chadwick


Match the names of the scientists given the columns A with their contributions towards the understanding of the atomic structure as given in column B.

1.

Column A Column B
(a) Ernest Rutherford (i) Indivisibility of atoms
(b) J. J. Thomson (ii) Stationary orbits
(c) Dalton (iii) Concept of nucleus
(d) Neils Bohr (iv) Discovery of electrons
(e) James Chadwick (v) Atomic number
(f) E. Goldstein (vi) Neutron
(g) Mosley (vii) Canal rays
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Ernest Rutherford (iii) Concept of nucleus
(b) J. J. Thomson (iv) Discovery of electrons
(c) Dalton (i) Indivisibility of atoms
(d) Neils Bohr (ii) Stationary orbits
(e) James Chadwick (vi) Neutron
(f) E. Goldstein (vii) Canal rays
(g) Mosley (v) Atomic number

2.

Column A Column B
(a) Ions (i) Same mass number, different atomic numbers.
(b) Isobars (ii) Same number of neutrons, different mass numbers.
(c) Isotopes (iii) Formed by loss or gain of electron
(d) Isotones (iv) Combining capacity of an atom.
(e) Valency (v) Same atomic numbers, different mass numbers.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Ions (iii) Formed by loss or gain of electron
(b) Isobars (i) Same mass number, different atomic numbers.
(c) Isotopes (v) Same atomic numbers, different mass numbers.
(d) Isotones (ii) Same number of neutrons, different mass numbers.
(e) Valency (iv) Combining capacity of an atom.

3.

Column A Column B
Chlorine atom 2, 8
Sodium atom 2, 8, 7
Magnesium ion 2, 8, 2
Magnesium atom 2, 8, 1
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
Chlorine atom 2, 8
Sodium atom 2, 8, 7
Magnesium ion 2, 8, 2
Magnesium atom 2, 8, 1

Answer the questions in one word:

1. Which symbols are used to represent different Bohr’s orbits?

Answer

Answer: K, L, M, N


2. Which isotope is used in the treatment of cancer?

Answer

Answer: Cobalt-60


3. What is the charge of anode rays?

Answer

Answer: positive


4. There are 14 protons and 13 neutrons in the nucleus of an atom. What is its mass number?

Answer

Answer: 27


5. Indicate the number of electrons, protons and neutrons in the element \(_{19}^{39}\)K.

Answer

Answer: e = 19, p = 19, n = 20


6. The atomic number of cation M2+ is 12. How many electrons are present in it?

Answer

Answer: 10


7. Which isotope of hydrogen is called protium?

Answer

Answer: \(_{1}^{1}\)H


8. Which particles determine the mass of an atom?

Answer

Answer: Protons, neutrons


Solve the crossword with the help of clues:

Across:
1. Part of atom responsible for mass.
3. Same mass number of species.
5. a-particle scattering experiment.
7. No. of valence electron in sodium.
Down:
2. Discovered the neutron.
4. Latest atomic model given by.
6. Negatively charged subatomic particle.
8. Positively charged substance particle.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers

Answer

Answer:

Across:
1. Nucleus
3. Isobar
5. Rutherford
7. One

Down:
2. Chadwick
4. Bohr
6. Electron
8. Proton


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Structure of the Atom CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Metals and Non-metals Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Metals And Non Metals Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following properties is generally not shown by metals?
(a) Electrical conduction
(b) Sonorous in nature
(c) Dullness
(d) Ductility
Answer:
(c) Dullness

Explanation: Metals generally do not show dullness. Metals such as gold and silver are usuaLly shiny rather than dull.

Related Theory:
Conduction: Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity as they have free electrons. Silver and copper are the best conductors of heat, whereas lead and mercury are poor conductors of heat. Sonorous: Metals that produces a sound on striking a hard surface.

Metallic lustre: Metal, in its pure state, has a shining surface. This property is known as metallic lustre. Ductility: The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires. Cold is the most ductile metal.

Metal And Non Metals Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
The solution of one of the following compounds will not conduct electricity. This compound is:
(a) NaCl
(b) CCl4
(c) MgCl2
(d) CaCl2
Answer:

Metals And Nonmetals Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Mg
(d) Fe
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Class 10 Metals And Non Metals MCQ Question 4.
An aluminium strip is kept immersed in freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken in a test tube, the change observed is that:
(a) Green solution slowly turns colourless
(b) Lower end of test tube becomes slightly warm
(c) A colourless gas with the smell of burning sulphur is observed
(d) Light green solution changes to blue
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on the prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO
(b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
Answer:
(c) Fe3O4

Metals And Non Metals MCQ Question 6.
What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(I) It does not react with water.
(II) It reacts violently with water.
(III) It reacts Less violently with water.
(IV) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (III) and (IV)

Explanation: When calcium is treated with water, it reacts vigorously with water and to produce a cloudy white precipitate of calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas is released as bubbles.
Metals And Non Metals MCQ Class 10

‘Related Theory
Sometimes hydrogen bubbles get stuck to the surface of calcium metaL making it tight arid thus calcium starts floating. Reaction of calcium with water is exothermic but the heat produced in this reaction is not sufficient so that hydrogen can catch

Ch 3 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the foLLowing are not ionic compounds?
(I) KCl
(II) HCl
(III) CCl4
(IV) NaCl
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Class 10 Science Ch 3 MCQ Question 8.
Generally, non-metals are not Lustrous. Which of the following non-metals is lustrous?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Iodine
Answer:
(d) Iodine

Explanation: Iodine is a non-metal with a lustrous appearance and exists in solid state.

Related Theory
Graphite is another non-metaL that is shiny and Lustrous.

MCQ On Metals And Non Metals Class 10 Question 9.
2 mt each of conc. HCL, HNO3, and a mixture of conc. HCL and conc. HNO3 in the ratio of 3:1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metaL got dissolved in test tube C. The metal could be:
(a) Al
(b) Au
(c) Cu
(d) Pt

Metal And Non Metals MCQ Class 10 Question 10.
An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept ¡n open air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following:
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) P
(d) Co
Answer:
(b) Na

Explanation: Na (sodium) possesses all the above properties. It is too soft and can be cut with a knife. It is also very reactive and reacts with oxygen or moisture present in air and produces sodium hydroxide, which is a highly exothermic reaction producing a lot of heat. It also reacts with water and burns due to the vigorous formation of hydrogen gas. That is why sodium is stored in kerosene oil to prevent any reaction.

MCQ On Metals And Non Metals Question 11.
Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evoLves hydrogen gas.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Metal And Non Metal Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X – 2, 8; Y – 2, 8, 7 and Z – 2, 8, 2. Which of the following ¡s correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metaL
(c) Z ¡s a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metaL and Z is a metaL

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Question 13.
In the given reaction,
Al2O3 + NaOH → X + H2O.
What is element X?
(a) NaAlO2
(b) Na3Al
(c) Na2O3
(d) NaAl2O3 [Diksha]

MCQ Of Metal And Nonmetal Class 10 Question 14.
Sandhya took three beakers A, B and C containing zinc sulphate, silver sulphate and iron(ll) sulphate solutions respectively. Copper pieces were added to each beaker. The solution will appear blue in the case of:
(a) Beaker A
(b) Beaker B
(c) Beaker C
(d) Beakers B and C [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Beaker B

Explanation: The solution will appear blue in Beaker B. Let us see how.

When pieces of copper metal are kept immersed in silver sulphate solution for some time, the solution gradually becomes blue and a shiny greyish-white deposit of silver metal is formed on the copper strip.

In this reaction, copper metal is displacing silver from silver sulphate solution, forming copper sulphate and silver metal. The solution becomes blue due to the formation of copper sulphate. The reason behind this displacement reaction is that copper is more reactive than silver.
Chapter 3 Science Class 10 MCQ
On the other hand, copper metal is less reactive than iron and zinc and hence cannot displace them from their respective salt solutions.

Chapter 3 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Arrange the following metal in the decreasing chemical activity series.
(I) Potassium
(II) Magnesium
(III) Gold
(IV) Iron
Correct options are:
(a) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(b) (I), (III), (IV) and (II)
(c) (I), (II), (IV) and (III)
(d) (I), (IV), (II) and (III)

Question 16.
Which metal can be displaced by copper from Its salt solution?
(I) Silver
(II) Magnesium
(III) iron
(IV) Iron
Correct options are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) and (IV)

Silver and mercury are less reactive than copper and as copper will displace those metals from its salt solution which are less reactive than it, the correct option is (d).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 17.
Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(I) Au
(II) Cu
(III) Na
(IV) K
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (IV) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I) and (II)

Explanation: Gold (Ag) and copper (Cu) obtained after extraction are in impure form. So, metals Au (gold) and Cu (copper) are refined by electrolytic refining. Other than gold and copper, electrolytic refining is used for metals such as Zn and Ag. Sodium (Na) and potassium (K) are extracted by electrolytic reduction. Metals obtained after electrolytic reduction are in pure form.

Related Theory
Alkali metals are very reactive, so they cannot be refined with the help of the electrolytic refining process.

Question 18.
Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating it with a thin layer of:
(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Zinc
(d) Silver
Answer:
(c) Zinc

Explanation: Zinc (Zn) metal is used to protect iron surfaces from rusting.

Related Theory
Galvanization is basically coating iron or steel with a layer of zinc to prevent it from rusting. Water pipes are also galvanized to prevent corrosion.

Question 19.
Stainless steel is a very useful material in our life, in stainless steel, iron is mixed with:
(a) Mi and Cr
(b) Cu and Cr
(c) Mi and Cu
(d) Cu and Au
Answer:
(a) Ni and Cr

Explanation: Stainless steel is an alloy of iron (74%), nickel (8%) and chromium (18%).

Related Theory
‘Alloying elements enhance the structure and properties such as durability, strength and toughness of the metal. It makes them corrosion-resistant.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 20.
If copper is kept in the open air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation of:
(a) CuSO4
(b) CuCO3
(c) CU(NO3)2
(d) CuO
Answer:

Question 21.
Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in a molten state?
(I) Na
(II) Ca
(III) Fe
(IV) Cu
(a) (I)and(IV)
(b) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (II)
Answer:

Question 22.
An electrolytic cell consists of:
(I) Positively charged cathode
(II) Negatively charged anode
(III) Positively charged anode
(IV) Negatively charged cathode
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (III) and (IV)

Explanation: There is a positively charged anode and a negatively charged cathode in an electrolytic cell. Positively charged ions (cations) are deposited at the negatively charged cathode. Negatively charged ions (anions) are deposited at the positively charged anode.

Question 23.
During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets:
(a) Deposited on the cathode
(b) Deposited on the anode
(c) Deposited on the cathode as well as anode
(d) Remains in the solution
Answer:

Question 24.
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contains non-metal as one of its constituents?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel
Answer:
(d) Steel

Explanation: SteeL contains non-metal as one of its constituents. Steel is an alloy made by combining iron and other elements, mainly carbon. Carbon gives strength to iron. It is used to make buildings, ships, automobiles, machines, and appliances.

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contains non-metal as one of its constituents?

Related Theory

  • Brass – Copper and zinc
  • Bronze – Copper and tin
  • Amalgam – Mercury with other metal
  • Steel – Iron with carbon

Question 25.
Which among the following alloys contains mercury as one of its constituents?
(a) Stainless steel
(b) Alnico
(c) Solder
(d) Zinc amalgam
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 26.
Which one of the following figures correctly describes the process of electrolytic refining?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 3
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 4

Explanation: In the electrolytic refining process, impure metal forms the anode, which is the positive electrode, whereas pure metal forms the cathode which is the negative electrode.

Figure (c) shows the process of electrolytic refining of copper metal. Copper from impure anode dissolves into the solution. Copper ions (Cu2+) from the solution are deposited on the cathode and impurities settle down below the anode as anode mud.

Question 27.
Select the incorrect statements):
(I) Solder is an alloy of lead and copper
(II) Solder is an alloy of lead and tin
(III) Melting point of solder is low
(IV) Melting point of solder is high
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 28.
All ionic compounds:
(a) Have high melting point but the low boiling point
(b) Are generally soluble in kerosene
(c) Are generally brittle
(d) Conduct electricity in solid-state
Answer:

Question 29.
The cations and anions present in aluminium oxide are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 5
Answer:
(b) Cation: Al37; Anion: O2-

Explanation: Aluminium oxide or Al2O3 is formed by the transfer of electrons from aluminium atoms to oxygen atoms.

Aluminium (Atomic number = 13) has 3 valence electrons whereas oxygen (atomic number = 8) has 2 valence electrons.

So, each aluminium atom donates its 3 valence electrons to the oxygen atoms and forms cations [Al3+], whereas each oxygen atom gains two electrons and forms anions [O2-].
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 6

Question 30.
The metals which have very low melting points are:
(a) Gallium and caesium
(b) Gallium and sodium
(c) Caesium and potassium
(d) Sodium and potassium

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 3

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Alkali metals like sodium and potassium can be cut with a knife.
Reason (R): They have high densities.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: Alkali metals like sodium and potassium are so soft that they can be cut with a knife as they have low densities.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Magnesium is less reactive than sodium.
Reason (R): Sodium reacts more vigorously with oxygen than magnesium.
Answer:

Question 33.
Assertion (A): In the following reaction between calcium and water, calcium starts floating.
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
Reason (R): Calcium hydroxide is lighter than water.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: In the reaction between calcium and water, calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium metal.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Hydrogen gas is evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R): Nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent.
Answer:

Question 35.
Assertion (A): The compound MgCl2 will not conduct electricity in a solid-state.
Reason (R): Movement of ions in ionic compounds is not possible in solid-state.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are. true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation; The compound MgCl2 is an ionic compound as it is formed by the transfer of electrons between magnesium and chlorine. It will not conduct electricity in solid-state as the movement of ions in ionic compounds is not possible in a solid-state.

Question 36.
Assertion (A): The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R): Bronze Is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Explanation: All the metals and alloys are not always good conductors of electricity like bronze is not a good conductor of electricity, its constituents are copper and tin. Copper is a good conductor whereas tin is not a good conductor of electricity. Alloy nichrome is a good conductor of electricity.

Related Theory

  • Metals are good conductors of electricity because they.
  • have a large number of free electrons.
  • Possess small resistivity in the range of 10-8 W m to 10-6 W m. Whereas alloys have more resistivity.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The exact date that humans first began to mine gold is unknown, but some of the oldest known gold artefacts were found in the Varna Necropolis in Bulgaria. The graves of the necropolis were built between 4700 and 4200 BC, indicating that gold mining could be at least 7000 gears old. In the area of the Kolar Gold Fields in Bangarpet Taluk, Kolar District of Karnataka state, India, gold was first mined prior to the 2nd and 3rd century AD by digging small pits. (Golden objects found in Harappa and Mohenjo-daro have been traced to Kolar through the analysis of impurities — the impurities include 11% silver concentration, found only in KGF ore.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 7
In nature, aluminium is found in a combined state whereas silver/gold is found in Freestate. Give reason.
Answer:
Silver and gold are least reactive metals and are often found in their native or free state. Aluminium is a very reactive metal and is never found in free state, but in combined state.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 2.
Dhanteras, also known as Dhanatrayodashi, is the first day that marks the festival of Diwali in India. Dhanteras is the worship of lord Dhanvantari. Fundus considers this an extremely auspicious day for making new purchases, especially of gold or silver articles and new utensils. It is believed that new “Dhan” (wealth} or some item made of precious metal is a sign of good. luck. In modern times, Dhanteras has come to be known as the most: auspicious occasion for buying gold, silver, and other metals, especially kitchenware. Palak, along with her mother, purchased some kitchenware articles made of stainless steel on this occasion.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 8
How does alloying of iron change its properties?
Answer:
Pure iron is very soft arid stretches easily when hot but if iron ismixed with a small amount of carbon (about 0.05 %), it becomes hardand strong. When iron is mixed with nickel and chromium, we getstainless steel, which is hard and does not rust. Thus, if iron is mixedwith some other substance, its properties change.

Question 3.
Have you ever imagined what would happen if all the electrical wires used in our homes, offices and other places were without any covering? Well, people handling them would die of electrical chock and there would be short-circuiting leading to electrical fires all around us!
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 9
Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is:
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) PVC
(d) All can be used
Answer:
(c) PVC

Explanation: An insulating substance is required to coat the electrical wire such as PVC, PVC is a polymer and a bad conductor of electricity, it is the most common insulating material used to insulate electrical conductors from electric charge, thus preventing direct human contact with electricity.

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. Hence, it cannot be used as insulating material. Sulphur, although a bad conductor of electricity, is brittle in nature. So, it cannot be used as an insulating material.

Question 4.
Analyse the following reactivity series given below and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 10
(A) Which of the two metals is more reactive: copper or silver?
Answer:

(B) What will happen if a strip of zinc is immersed in o solution of copper sulphate?
Answer:
When a strip of zinc metal is put in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades gradually and red-brown coating of copper is deposited on zinc strip.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 11
This is an example of displacement reaction.

Explanation: Zinc is more reactive than copper so it will displace copper from its salt solution so displacement reaction takes place.

(C) If copper is kept open in air, it slowly Loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation
(a) Acidic CuSO4
(b) Basic CuCO3
(c) Acidic Cu(NO3)2
(d) Basic CuO
Answer:

(D) Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the soLution of its softs by other three metals?
(a) Mg
(b) Ag
(c) Zn
(d) Cu
Answer:
(b) Ag

Explanation: Least reactive metal can be displaced from its solution by other three metals. Silver is least reactive out of the given four metals.

Related Theory
Basic copper carbonate is an undesired layer formed on the surface of the copper and the process is known as corrosion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 5.
Aqua regia is a yellow-orange (sometimes red) fuming liquid, so named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum, though not all metals.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 12

The composition of aqua-regia is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 13
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 14
Explanation: Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concen¬trated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. Aqua-regia, being a strong acid, dissolves gold.

Question 6.
Atoms that gain electrons and therefore have a net negative charge are known as anions. Conversely, atoms that lose electrons and therefore have a net positive charge are called cations. Cations tend to be metals, while anions tend to be non-metals. Ions may also be single atoms or multiple, complex groups of atoms. When we talk about ions, it’s true that opposites attract.

The opposite negative and positive charges of the ions hold together in ionic bonds, forming ionic compounds, which are just what they sound like: compounds made of ions. The loss or gain from one atom matches the loss or gain of the other, so one atom essentially ‘donates’ an electron to the other atom it pairs up with. Two positive or two negative ions will not join together because they have the same charge. But one positive and one negative will happily join together to make an ionic compound.
(A) Explain the formation of MgO. (Atomic No. of O = 8, Mg = 12).
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Mg: 2, 8, 2 and that of O: 2, 6.
Magnesium atom loses its two valence electrons to form Mg2+ ion and oxygen atom gains two electrons to form O2 ion thereby achieving their nearest inert gas configuration.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 15

(B) Will the aqueous solution of MgO conduct electricity? If yes, give reasons for your answer?
Answer:

(C) Name a solvent in which ionic compounds are soluble and a solvent in which they are insoluble.
Answer:
Ionic compounds are soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene.

(D) Why do ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 7.
When Rohan was suffering from fever, the doctor had asked his parents to check his temperature every 2 hours and also to keep a record. He was a thermometer that has a certain metal in a liquid state inside it
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 16
Generally, metals are soLid in nature. Which one of the following metals is found in Liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Na
(b) Fe
(c) Cr
(d) Hg
Answer:
(d) Hg

Explanation: At room temperature, mercury (Hg) is the only metal found in a liquid state.

Related Theory
All other metals are solid at room temperature. Hg also has the lowest melting point.

Question 8.
Collect the samples of the following metals aluminium, copper, iron, lead, magnesium, zinc and sodium. Hold each of the samples above with a pair of tongs and try burning over a flame. It would be better if students wear eye protection and perform this activity with assistance from the teacher. Repeat with the other metal samples.
(A) Select the incorrect statements).
(I) All metals burn easily.
(II) Not all metals burn easily.
(III) Magnesium burns easily.
(IV) Copper and aluminium take time to burn.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The student performing this activity noted the following observations on the colour of flame observed when the metal is burnt.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 17
Select the correct observation.
Answer:
(d) Metal: Magnesium; Colour of Flame: White

Explanation: The colour of flame observed when the given metals are heated is given below:
Aluminium: Silvery white
Copper: Blue
Sodium: Yellow
Magnesium: White

(C) The correct arrangement of metaLs Al, Mg, Na and Zn in the decreasing order of their reactivity towards oxygen ¡s:
(a) Na > Al > Mg > Zn
(b) Na > Mg > Al> Zn
(c) Na > Al > Zn > Mg
(d) Mg > Na > Al > Zn
Answer:
(b) Na > Mg > Al > Zn

Explanation: Almost all metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxide. However, the reactivities of different metals towards oxygen are different. The most reactive of the given metals is Na followed by Mg, Al and Zn.

(D) Which of the following metal oxides are soluble in water?
(I) CuO
(II) Na20
(III) FeO
(IV) K20
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Most metal oxides are
insoluble in water but some of these dissolve in water to form alkalis. Sodium oxide and potassium oxide dissolve in water to produce alkalis as follows:
Na2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq)
K2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq)

(E) Metals such as sodium and potassium are kept immersed in:
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon disulphide
(d) Alcohol
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 9.
Pritha’s mother had lots of silver jewellery which she had kept in a jewellery box. One day, when she took them out to show them to her friends, she was surprised to see that most of them had a black coating over them.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 18
Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of:
(a) Ag3N
(b) Ag3O
(c) Ag2S
(d) Ag3S and Ag3N
Answer:
(c) Ag2S

Explanation: Silver metal reacts with atmos¬pheric sulphur compounds like H2S gas and forms a black coating of Ag2S over the surface. This reaction is as below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 19

Question 10.
Take samples of sodium chloride, potassium iodide, barium chloride or any other salt from the science laboratory. Take a small amount of a sample on a metal spatula and heat directly on the flame as shown in fig. Also try to dissolve the samples in water, petrol and kerosene.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 20
Heating a sail sample on a spatula

Make a circuit as shown in Fig. and insert the electrodes into a solution of one salt.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 21
(A) The physical state and properties of the salt samples used in the activity is:
(I) All are crystalline solids
(II) All are brittle
(III) Not all are hard
(IV) Not all are brittle
Which of the statements above is correct?
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: All the salts are ionic compounds and are crystalline solids and hard due to the strong force of attraction between the positive arid negative ions. They are also brittle.

(B) Select the correct, observation when the salt sample is taken on a metal spatula and heated directly on the flame:
(a) The salts melt immediately
(b) The salts give out characteristics flame upon heating
(c) The salts do not melt easily
(d) The salts undergo sublimation
Answer:
(c) The salts do not melt easily

Explanation: The given salts are ionic compounds that have very high melting and boiling points as a large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction.

(C) The solution of which of the following compounds will not conduct electricity?
(a) CCl4
(b) NaCl
(c) CaCl2
(d) KBr
Answer:

(D) A student noted the following observations with four compounds A, B, C and D.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 22
Which of the compounds A, B, C and D are ionic compounds?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) A and D
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statement regarding the electrical conductivity of ionic compounds:
(a) The salt samples in the activity conduct electricity in their solid-state.
(b) The salt samples in the activity conduct electricity in a solution of water.
(c) The salt samples do not conduct electricity in a molten state.
(d) The salt samples do not conduct electricity in solution or in molten state.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 11.
Displacement reactions are very important reactions of chemistry. They have many applications in various fields some of which are listed below:
(1) It is used in thermite welding.
(2) It is used in making alloy steel.
(3) It is used in the extraction of various metals.
(4) It is used in treating acid indigestion.
A thermite reaction is a single displacement reaction between iron oxide and aluminium which is also a highly exothermic reaction. The extreme heat released from this reaction is sufficient to melt the iron product.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 23
(A) The correct chemical equation describing the thermite process is:
(a) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) + Heat → 2Fe(s) + Al2O3(l)
(b) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(S) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(c) 3FeO(s) + 2Al(S) + Heat → 3Fe(l) + Al2O3(s)
(d) 3FeO(s) + 2Ai(s) → 3Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
Answer:
(b) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat

Explanation: Thermite reaction is the reaction between iron (III) oxide or Fe2O3 and aluminium. It is a highly exothermic process (shown by “+ Heat” in the product side) and iron is produced in the molten state. It is used to join is used tojoin railway tracks or cracked machine parts.

(B) What happens when zinc metal is added to G test tube containing Al2(SO4)3 solution?
(a) Zinc displaces aluminium from its salt solution
(b) No reaction takes place
(c) The solution becomes blue in colour
(d) The solution becomes colourless and aluminium metal is deposited.
Answer:
(b) No reaction takes place

Explanation: No reaction takes place as zinc is less reactive than aluminium and cannot displace aluminium from its salt solution, namely, Al2(SO4)3 solution.

(C) A student made the following observations after studying the following displacement reactions between a metal and a salt solution of a different metal:
(i) Mg + ZnSO4 → MgSO4 + Zn
(ii) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(iii) Co + MgSO4 → CaSO4 + Mg
Selsect the incorrect observation(s):
(i) Calcium will displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
(II) Magnesium will be displaced by both calcium and zinc
(II) The least reactive metal out of Mg, Ca, Cu and Zn are Zinc.
(IV) The most reactive metal out of Mg, Ca, Cu and Zn is calcium.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) An activity was performed by a student to find the reactivity of four metals- A, B, C and D by taking salt solutions of four metals in four test tubes numbered 1 to 4 and adding the samples of each metal one by one to each of the test tubes.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 24
The observations recorded by the student are as given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 25
The correct arrangement of the given metals A, B, C and D in decreasing order of their reactivities is:
(a) C < B < A < D
(b) B < C < A < D
(c) C < B < D < A
(d)D < A < B < C
Answer:

(E) A student performed an experiment to study the displacement reaction of metals. He took two test tubes X and Y containing copper sulphate and silver nitrate solutions respectively.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 26
He dipped a strip of zinc in test tube X and copper strip in test tube Y and recorded his observations as shown below. Select the correct observation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 27
Answer:
(d) Test Tube X: Reaction takes place; Test Tube Y: Reaction takes place.

Explanation: Zinc is more reactive than copper and will displace copper from copper (II) sulphate solution in test tube X.
Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
Also, copper is more reactive than silver and will displace silver from silver nitrate solution in test tube Y.
Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

Question 12.
A fusible metal alloy is used to create a permanent bond between metal workpieces. The alloy is melted in order to adhere to and connect the pieces after cooling, which requires that the alloy have a lower melting point than the pieces being joined. The alloy should also be resistant to oxidative and corrosive effects that would degrade the joint over time.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 28
Name an alloy that is used for welding electrical wires together and also give its composition.
Answer:
Solder is an alloy that is used for welding electrical wires together. It is an alloy of lead and tin (Pb and Sn) and has a low melting point.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 13.
Sam went to the grocery store with his mother one day.
He observed that pickles, curds and other sour things are always stored in glass or plastic containers and never in any container made of a metal or alloy. He later found out that this is related to the chemical properties of metals as metals react with acids.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 29
(A) Metals react with dilute acids to give:
(a) Salt and water
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
(c) Salt and carbon dioxide gas
(d) Salt, water and carbon dioxide gas
Answer:
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas

Explanation: Most metals react with dilute acid to give the metal salt and hydrogen gas. Example:
Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4(aq)) + H2(g)

Metals react with dilute acids to give:

(B) Which of the following metal will react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(I) Cu
(II) Zn
(III) Al
(IV) Ag
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:

(C) Which of the following oxides will not react with dilute sulphuric acid?
(a) CO2
(b) CuO
(c) MgO
(d) Na2O
Answer:

(D) Some students reacted an insoluble metal oxide with a dilute acid to form a soluble salt with a characteristic blue colour.
The insoluble metal oxide and the soluble salt could be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 30
Answer:

(E) The correct arrangement of metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al in decreasing order of their reactivity with dilute acids is:
(a) Al > Mg > Zn > Fe
(b) Al > Mg > Fe > Zn
(c) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
(d) Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
Answer:
(c) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe

Explanation: Out of the metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al, Mg will react most vigorously with dilute acid, followed by Al, Zn and Fe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 14.
While walking along the roadside with his grandfather, Aman observed that many iron pipes had developed cracks on their surfaces.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 31
(A) Metals react with dilute acids to give:
(a) Salt and water
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
(c) SaLt ared carbon dioxide gas
(d) Salt, water and carbon dioxide gas
Answer:
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
Explanation: Most metals react with dilute acid to give the metal salt and hydrogen gas.
Example:
Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

(B) Which of the following metal will react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(I)Cu
(II)Zn
(III)AL
(IV)Ag
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (il) and (III)
Answer:

(C) Which of the following oxides will not react with dilute sulphuric acid?
(a)CO2
(b)CuO
(c) MgO
(d) Na2O

(D) Some students reacted an insoluble metal oxide with a dilute acid to form a soluble salt with a characteristic blue colour.
The insoluble metal oxide and the soluble salt couLd be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 32

(E) The correct arrangement of metals Mg, Zn, Fe and AL in decreasing order of their reactivity with diLute acids is:
(a) Al > Mg > Zn> Fe
(b) Al > Mg> Fe > Zn
(c) Mg > Al> Zn > Fe
(d) Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
Answer:
(c)Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
Explanation: Out of the metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al, Mg will react most vigorously with dilute acid, folLowed by At. Zn and Fe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 15.
While walking along the roadside with his grandfather, Aman observed that many iron pipes had developed cracks on their surfaces.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 33
Being inquisitive in nature and atso having Learned about the phenomenon of corrosion, Aman searched the internet for more information about corrosion and its prevention and found out that the most important factor in atmospheric corrosion, overriding pollution or lack of it, is moisture, either in the form of rain, dew, condensation, or high relative humidity (RH). In the absence of moisture, most contaminants would have little or no corrosive effect.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 34
(A) Identify the correct statement:
(a) Rusting of iron is caused only by water.
(b) Rusting of iron is caused only by air,
(c) Rusting of iron is caused only by impurities.
(d) Rusting of iron is caused by both air and water.
Answer:

(B) Two students noted down the following observations after studying the graph showing the effect of reLative humidity on the rate of corrosion in iron
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 35
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 36
Select the correct option.
(C) Chemically rust is:
(a) Hydrated Iron (II) oxide
(b) Hydrated Iron (III) oxide
(c) Iron (III) sulphate
(d) Iron (III) oxide
Answer:
(c) Student A: Rate of corrosion is high for neiative humidity between 50% – 60%; Student B: Rate of corrosion… >60%.

Explanation: From the graph, we observe that the rate of corrosion depends upon the relative humidity and it increases with increase in the relative humidity.

Rate of corrosion is minimal for relative humidity < 40 %, is low for relative humidity between 40 % to 50 %. is high for relative humidity between 50% – 60 % and is extreme for relative humidity > 60 %.

(D) Which of the following statement is /are incorrect about corrosion?
(I) The black coating on silver articles is due to formation of basic silver oxide when silver reacts with oxygen present in air.
(II) The green coating on copper articles is due to formation of copper carbonate.
(III) The brown flaky substance formed on iron articles is due to the formation of rust.
(IV) The black coating on silver articles is due to formation of silver sulphide when silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide present in air.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

(E) 0 Rusting of iron can be prevented by :
(a) Galvanisation only
(b) Alloying only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A metal combines with a non-metal to form a compound Y. Will it dissolve in an organic solvent or not?
Answer:
Metals combine with non-metals to form ionic compounds by transfer of electrons. Ionic compounds do not dissolve in organic solvents but are soluble in water.

Question 2.
An element E combines with 02 to form an oxide E20, which is a good conductor of electricity. Write the formula of the compound formed when it combines with chlorine?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state?
Answer:
ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state because the ions move freely in molten state since the electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is overcome due to heat.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 4.
Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in the process of extraction of metal from them?
Answer:
Usually, metal sulphides and carbonates are converted to metal oxides in the process of extraction of metal. This is because extraction of a metal from its oxide is easier as compared to its extraction from its sulphides and carbonates. Metal oxides can easily reduce to metal with the help of a common reducing agent like coke.

Question 5.
From amongst the metal, sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name the metal:
(A) Which reacts with water only on boiling.
(B) Another one which does not. react even with steam.
Answer:
(A) The metal which reacts with water only on boiling is magnesium as it does not react with cold water.
(B) The metal which does not react even with steam is copper.

Question 6.
An element ‘A’ form two oxides AO and AO2. The oxide AO is neutral whereas the oxide AO2 is acidic in nature. Would you call element ‘A’ a metal or a non-metal?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Vocation Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 7

Vocation Class 6 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 7

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Poem 7 Vocation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Vocation Class 6 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-6-english-with-answers/

MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Poem 7 Vocation with Answers

Vocation Poem Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
A child wishes to
(a) take breakfast at noon
(b) be a watchman
(c) wash his dress
(d) get up early in the morning

Answer

(b) be a watchman


MCQ Questions For Class 6 English With Answers Chapter 1 Question 2.
When no one checks him he will
(a) not get baked in the sun
(b) not spoil his clothes
(c) walk the street all night
(d) not indulge In gossip

Answer

(c) walk the street all night


Vocation Class 6 MCQ Question 3.
The child wishes to become
(a) a doctor
(b) an engineer
(c) a hawker
(d) a teacher

Answer

(c) a hawker


MCQ Questions For Class 6 English With Answers Pdf Question 4.
The word giant’ is a
(a) noun
(b) gerund
(c) verb
(d) adjective

Answer

(a) noun


MCQ For Class 6 English Chapter 1 Question 5.
The hawker leads a
(a) pious life
(b) carefree life
(c) miserable life
(d) peaceful life

Answer

(b) carefree life


Question 6.
According to the poet, the gardener should
(a) plant only weeds
(b) be punished for soiling his clothes
(c) plant flowers and vegetables
(d) plant fruits

Answer

(b) be punished for soiling his clothes


Question 7.
When the mother sends him to bed the poet is
(a) unhappy
(b) happy
(c) revengeful
(d) jealous

Answer

(a) unhappy


Question 8.
When all seem free, the poet feels
(a) choked
(b) to Join them
(c) envious
(d) to go to sleep

Answer

(c) envious


Question 9.
The speaker seems to be disgusted with
(a) the gong
(b) the hawker
(c) the school
(d) the discipline

Answer

Answer: (d) the discipline


Question 10.
The speaker loves the gardener’s
(a) gardening
(b) digging
(c) freedom
(d) dress

Answer

Answer: (c) freedom


The speaker loves the gardener’s

Question 11.
The one who is taken to task for getting baked in the sun is
(a) the gardener
(b) the bangle-seller
(c) the speaker
(d) the watchman

Answer

Answer: (c) the speaker


Question 12.
The watchman comes on duty when
(a) the child sleeps
(b) the gardener comes
(c) the bangle seller comes
(d) the sun rises

Answer

Answer: (a) the child sleeps


Question 13.
The street is lonely because
(a) People fear to come out
(b) people are asleep
(c) there is curfew
(d) nobody lives in this lane

Answer

Answer: (b) people are asleep


(1)

When the gong sounds ten in the morning and
I walk to school by our lane,
Every day I meet the hawker crying. Bangles.
crystal bangles!”
There is nothing to hurry him on. there is no
road he must take, no place he must go to, no
tune when he must come home.
I wish I were a hawker, spending my day in
the road, crying. ‘Bangles, crystal bangles !

Question 1.
The speaker of the passage is
(a) a baby
(b) a young man
(c) a school-going child
(d) a school teacher

Answer

(c) a school-going child


Question 2.
The speaker seems to be disgusted with
(a) the gong
(b) the hawker
(c) the school
(d) the discipline

Answer

(d) the discipline


Question 3.
The speaker seems to love
(a) his school
(b) the bangles
(c) the hawker
(d) the freedom

Answer

(d) the freedom


Question 4.
The passage has been taken from
(a) Vocation
(b) What if
(c) Beauty
(d) The Quarrel

Answer

(a) Vocation


Question 5.
The noun form of ‘spending is
(a) spend
(b) spender
(c) sperm
(d) spent

Answer

(b) spender


(2)

When at four in the afternoon I come back from the school.
I can see through the gate of that house the
gardener digging the ground.
He does what he likes with his spade, he soils
his clothes with dust, nobody takes him to
task, f he gets baked in the sun or gets wet.

Question 1.
The author of this passage is
(a) R.N. Tagore
(b) Shel Silverstein
(c) L.M. Hall
(d) Eleanor Farjeon

Answer

(a) R.N. Tagore


Question 2.
The speaker loves the gardener’s
(a) gardening
(b) digging
(c) freedom
(d) dress

Answer

(c) freedom


Question 3.
The one who is taken to task for getting baked In the sun is
(a) the gardener
(b) the bangle-seller
(c) the speaker
(d) the watchman

Answer

(c) the speaker


Question 4.
The gardener’s tool is his
(a) trees
(b) plants
(c) soil
(d) spade

Answer

(d) spade


Question 5.
The noun form of ‘see’ is
(a) saw
(b) sight
(c) seen
(d) seeing

Answer

(b) sight


(3)

I wish I were a gardener digging away at the
garden with nobody to stop inc from digging.
Just as it gets dark in the evening and my
mother sends me to bed,
I can see through my open window the
watchman walking up and down.

Question 1.
The common point between a gardener and a watchman is
(a) job
(b) poverty
(c) age
(d) freedom

Answer

(d) freedom


Question 2.
The speaker wants to become
(a) gardencr
(b) watchman
(c) free
(d) bangle seller

Answer

(c) free


Question 3.
The watchman comes on duty when
(a) the child sleeps
(b) the gardener comes
(c) the bangle seller comes
(d) the sun rises

Answer

(a) the child sleeps


Question 4.
The speaker is
(a) an old man
(b) a young man
(c) a child
(d) a woman

Answer

(c) a child


Question 5.
The word dark’ is
(a) noun
(b) verb
(c) adjective
(d) adverb

Answer

(c) adjective


(4)

The Zane is dark and lonely. and the street
lamp stands like a giant with one red eye In its head
The watchman swings his lantern and walks
with his shadow at his side, and never once
goes to bed in his life.
I wish I were a watchman walking the street
all night chasing the shadows with my lantern.

Question 1.
The lamp is dark because
(a) it is night
(b) the people don’t like light
(c) the weather is cloudy
(d) there is no moon

Answer

(a) it is night


Question 2.
The street is lonely because
(a) people fear to come out
(b) people are asleep
(c) there is curfew
(d) nobody lives In this lane

Answer

(b) people are asleep


Question 3.
The word giant’ refers to
(a) the watchman
(b) the shadow
(c) lantern
(d) the speaker

Answer

(c) lantern


The word giant’ refers to

Question 4.
The speaker
(a) looks at the watchman
(b) is a friend of the watchman
(c) is afraid of the watchman
(d) likes the life of a watch man

Answer

(d) likes the life of a watch man


Question 5.
The adjective form of lonely’ is
(a) loneliness
(b) lone
(c) loner
(d) alone

Answer

(b) lone


We are providing NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 English Honeysuckle Poem 7 Vocation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 6 English Poem Vocation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get ba ck to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 9 आत्मत्राण with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 9 आत्मत्राण with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 9 आत्मत्राण with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided आत्मत्राण Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-sparsh-chapter-9/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 9 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

आत्मत्राण Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 10 Hindi Chapter 9 MCQ Question 1.
रवीन्द्र संगीत किसको कहा जाता है ?
(a) गीतो को
(b) कविताओ को
(c) रवीन्द्र के गीतो को
(d) किसी को नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) रवीन्द्र के गीतो को


Question 2.
कवि को कौन सा पुरस्कार पहले भारतीय के रूप मे मिला ?
(a) नोबेल पुरस्कार
(b) पदम
(c) पदम विभूषन
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) नोबेल पुरस्कार


Question 3.
सुख के दिनो मे कवि क्या करना चाहता है ?
(a) भजन
(b) दूसरों को कोसना
(c) ईश्वर को स्मरण
(d) काम

Answer

Answer: (c) ईश्वर को स्मरण


Question 4.
कवि ईश्वर से क्या नही चाहता है ?
(a) दुख
(b) सुख
(c) सांत्वना
(d) दुःख सुख

Answer

Answer: (c) सांत्वना


Question 5.
रवीन्द्र नाथ की कविता की शेली कैसी है ?
(a) भावात्मक और आत्म कथात्मक
(b) कठोर
(c) हास्यात्मक
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) भावात्मक और आत्म कथात्मक


Question 6.
अपनी इच्छाओ की पूर्ति के लिये प्रार्थना के अलावा हम और क्या करते हैं ?
(a) मेहनत करते हैं
(b) दूसरो से प्रेरणा लेते हैं
(c) आत्म विश्वास पर भरोसा करते हैं
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


Question 7.
इस कविता मे किस रस की प्रधानता है ?
(a) वीर रस
(b) शृङ्गार रस
(c) शान्त रस
(d) हास्य रस

Answer

Answer: (c) शान्त रस


Question 8.
कवि किसे वहन करना चाहता है ?
(a) सुखो को
(b) तानो को
(c) रिश्तेदारो को
(d) दुखो को

Answer

Answer: (d) दुखो को


कवि किसे वहन करना चाहता है ?

Question 9.
कवि संकटो का सामना किसकी मदद से करना चाहता है ?
(a) ईश्वर की कृपा से
(b) दोस्तो की मदद से
(c) स्वयं
(d) किसी की मदद से नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) स्वयं


Question 10.
कवि ने किसके न हिलने की प्रार्थना की है ?
(a) हिमालय के
(b) चान्द् के
(c) तारो के
(d) आत्मिक बल के

Answer

Answer: (d) आत्मिक बल के


Question 11.
कवि किस पर विजय पाना चाहता है ?
(a) स्वयं पर
(b) दुश्मन पर
(c) दुखो पर
(d) दोस्तों पर

Answer

Answer: (c) दुखो पर


Question 12.
कवि क्या है ?
(a) नास्तिक
(b) शाक्त
(c) आस्तिक
(d) पाखंडी

Answer

Answer: (c) आस्तिक


Question 13.
कवि ईश्वर से प्रार्थना कर क्या कहता है ?
(a) उसे मुसीबतों से बचाया जाये
(b) उस पर कोई मुसीबत न आये
(c) सभी संकटो से लडने की शक्ति
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (c) सभी संकटो से लडने की शक्ति


Question 14.
रवीन्द्रनाथ ठाकुर की कविताओ मे किस भाव की अभिव्यक्ति हुई ?
(a) राष्ट्र प्रेम
(b) मानव प्रेम
(c) अध्यात्म प्रेम
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


Question 15.
ये कविता मूल रूप मे किस भाषा मे लिखी गयी थी ?
(a) उर्दु मे
(b) फ़ारसी
(c) बांग्ला भाषा मे
(d) उर्दू फ़ारसी

Answer

Answer: (c) बांग्ला भाषा मे


Question 16.
सुख के दिनों में कवि क्या चाहता है?
(a) ईश्वर से उसका भरोसा उठ जाए
(b) विनम्र होकर ईश्वर का हर पल आसपास अनुभव करे
(c) ईश्वर के मुख को देखता रहे
(d) ईश्वर को भूलकर मौज-मस्ती से रहे

Answer

Answer: (b) विनम्र होकर ईश्वर का हर पल आसपास अनुभव करे


Question 17.
दुखों से घिर जाने और लोगों से ठगे जाने पर
(a) कवि का ईश्वर पर विश्वास डगमगा जाता है
(b) कवि ईश्वर पर संदेह नहीं करना चाहता
(c) कवि ईश्वर की करुणा चाहता है
(d) कवि ‘अनामय’ रहना चाहता है

Answer

Answer: (b) कवि ईश्वर पर संदेह नहीं करना चाहता


Question 18.
निखिल मही द्वारा वंचना करने का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(a) सारी पृथ्वी के लोगों द्वारा दुख में कवि का साथ देना
(b) सारी धरती के लोगों द्वारा सुख में कवि को धोखा देना
(c) सारी धरती के लोगों द्वारा सुख में कवि का साथ देना
(d) सारी धरती के लोगों द्वारा दुख में साथ छोड़ कर उसे धोखा देना

Answer

Answer: (d) सारी धरती के लोगों द्वारा दुख में साथ छोड़ कर उसे धोखा देना


Question 19.
‘नत शिर होकर सुख के दिन में’- से क्या आशय है?
(a) सुख के दिनों में उसके मन में विनय का भाव बना रहे
(b) सुख के दिनों में कवि की गर्दन अकड़ जाए
(c) सुख के दिनों में कवि के मन में अहम् भाव आ जाए
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) सुख के दिनों में उसके मन में विनय का भाव बना रहे


Question 20.
कवि परमात्मा से सांत्वना क्यों नहीं चाहता?
(a) क्योंकि कवि को परमात्मा पर विश्वास नहीं है
(b) क्योंकि कवि दया की भीख नहीं माँगना चाहता
(c) क्योंकि कवि के अनुसार सांत्वना से दुख कम नहीं होते
(d) क्योंकि कवि दुख को महसूस करना चाहता है

Answer

Answer: (d) क्योंकि कवि दुख को महसूस करना चाहता है


Question 21.
कवि परमात्मा से क्या प्रार्थना करता है?
(a) कवि चाहता है कि परमात्मा उसे सांत्वना के दो शब्द कहे
(b) कवि परमात्मा से प्रार्थना करता है कि उसके दुखों को कम कर दे
(c) कवि परमात्मा से दुखों पर विजय प्राप्त करने की शक्ति के लिए प्रार्थना करता है
(d) उपरोक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (c) कवि परमात्मा से दुखों पर विजय प्राप्त करने की शक्ति के लिए प्रार्थना करता है


Question 22.
‘तो भी मन में ना मानूँ क्षय’ कवि किस स्थिति में भी क्षय नहीं मानना चाहता?
(a) दुख पड़ने पर भी
(b) पुरस्कार न मिलने पर
(c) कार्य हानि होने पर
(d) ईश्वर की प्राप्ति न होने पर

Answer

Answer: (c) कार्य हानि होने पर


Question 23.
‘अनामय’ का अर्थ है
(a) स्वस्थ
(b) हिम्मती
(c) सहायक
(d) बीमार

Answer

Answer: (a) स्वस्थ


Question 24.
कविता का केंद्रीय स्वर है:
(a) प्रार्थना और अनुनय
(b) दीनता और याचना
(c) दया और करुणा
(d) स्वाभिमान और आत्मविश्वास

Answer

Answer: (d) स्वाभिमान और आत्मविश्वास


कविता का केंद्रीय स्वर है:

Question 25.
विपत्ति पड़ने पर कवि चाहता है
(a) ईश्वर द्वारा कृपा
(b) सुख
(c) विपदाओं से बचना
(d) विपत्ति से न डरना

Answer

Answer: (d) विपत्ति से न डरना


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