MCQ Questions – Page 41

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws of Motion with Answers

Laws of Motion Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Laws of Motion Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 5 MCQs On Laws of Motion

Laws Of Motion Class 11 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
The mass of a body which is equal to the ratio of the force acting on a body to the acceleration produced in the body is
(a) the gravitational mass
(b) the electromagnetic mass
(c) the internal mass
(d) the inertial mass

Answer

Answer: (d) the inertial mass

Laws Of Motion Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
A spherical ball of mass 10-6 kg hits a wall 1000 times per second normally with a velocity of 1000 m/s and rebounds with same velocity along the initial direction. The force experienced by the wall is
(a) 1 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 2 N

Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 MCQ Question 3.
The force required to produce an acceleration of 2 m/s² on a mass of 2 kg is
(a) 4 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 22 N
(d) 18 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 N

Laws Of Motion MCQ Class 11 Question 4.
A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 1200 ms^-1. The man holding it can exert a maximum force on 144 N on the gum. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
(a) one
(b) four
(c) two
(d) three

Answer

Answer: (d) three

MCQ On Laws Of Motion Class 11 Question 5.
A passenger in a moving bus is thrown forward when the bus is suddenly stopped. This is explained
(a) by Newtons first law
(b) by Newtons second law
(c) by Newtons third law
(d) by the principle of conservation of momentum

Answer

Answer: (a) by Newtons first law

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Question 6.
A passenger sitting in a bus moving at uniform speed, feels pushed backward whenever the bus is accelerated forward. This type of force is called
(a) Gravitational force
(b) real force
(c) fictitious force or pseudo force
(d) frictional force

Answer

Answer: (c) fictitious force or pseudo force

MCQ Of Laws Of Motion Class 11 Question 7.
A body of mass 5 kg is travelling with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Its momentum is
(a) 10 kg m/s
(b) 7 kg m/s
(c) 2 .5 kg m/s
(d) 3 kg m/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 kg m/s

Law Of Motion Class 11 MCQ Question 8.
Inside the nucleus, two protons are held together by a force which overcomes the repulsion. This force is called
(a) gravitational force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) weak force
(d) strong force

Answer

Answer: (d) strong force

Class 11 Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 9.
A block of wood is placed on a surface. A force is applied parallel to the surface to move the body. The frictional force developed acts
(a) normal to the surface upwards
(b) normal to the surface downwards
(c) along the direction of the applied force
(d) opposite to the direction of the applied force

Answer

Answer: (d) opposite to the direction of the applied force

Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 10.
A bullet of mass 25 g moving with a velocity of 200 cm/s is stopped within 5 cm of the target. The average resistance offered by the target is
(a) 1 N
(b) 2 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 4 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 N

MCQ Questions On Laws Of Motion Class 11 Question 11.
The mass of a body is 2 kg. It weight is
(a) 19.6 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 30 N
(d) 40 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 19.6 N

Class 11 Physics Ch 5 MCQ Question 12.
A body is sliding down a rough inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 degree with the horizontal. If the coeffcient of friction is 0.26, the acceleration in m/s² is
(a) 1.95
(b) 2.78
(c) 3.47
(d) 4.6

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.78

Ch 5 Physics Class 11 MCQ Question 13.
A gun of mass 1000 kg fires a projectile of mass 1 kg with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/s. The velocity of recoil of the gun in the horizontal direction is
(a) 5 m/s
(b) 0.1 m/s
(c) 15 m/s
(d) 20 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.1 m/s

Chapter 5 Physics Class 11 MCQs Question 14.
A block of wood is placed on a surface. A force is applied parallel to the surface to move the body. The frictional force developed acts
(a) normal to the surface upwards
(b) normal to the surface downwards
(c) along the direction of the applied force
(d) opposite to the direction of the applied force

Answer

Answer: (d) opposite to the direction of the applied force

Class 11 Physics Laws Of Motion MCQ With Answers Question 15.
A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 degree with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between he block and the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is
(a) 9.8 N
(b) 0.7 × 9.8 × √3 N
(c) 9.8 × √3 N
(d) 0.7 × 9.8 N

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.7 × 9.8 N

MCQs On Laws Of Motion Class 11 Question 16.
A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force F = -kx with k = 15 N/m. What will be its initial acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin?
(a) 15 m/s²
(b) 3 m/s²
(c) 10 m/s²
(d) 5 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (c) 10 m/s²

Laws Of Motion Class 11 MCQs Question 17.
Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are acted upon by the same force. If the acceleration of lighter body is 2 m/s², the acceleration of heavier body is
(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 1.2 m/s²
(c) 1.6 m/s²
(d) 1.8 m/s²

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.6 m/s²

MCQ On Laws Of Motion Class 11 Pdf Question 18.
Out of the basic forces , gravitational force
(a) ranks first in strength
(b) ranks second in strength
(c) ranks third in strength
(d) ranks fourth in strength

Answer

Answer: (d) ranks fourth in strength

Question 19.
The frame of reference attached to a satellite of the earth is
(a) an inertial frame
(b) an absolute frame at rest with respect to the stars
(c) a non – inertial frame
(d) a gravitational frame

Answer

Answer: (c) a non – inertial frame

Question 20.
A block of mass M is placed on a flat surface. A force is applied to move it parallel to the surface. The frictional force f developed is proportional to the
(a) square of the mass of the body
(b) mass of the body
(c) reciprocal of the mass of the body
(d) reciprocal of the square of the body

Answer

Answer: (b) mass of the body

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 5 Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Laws of Motion MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 Gravitation with Answers

Gravitation Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Gravitation Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 8 MCQs On Gravitation

Gravitation Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
The radius of the earth is 6400 km and g = 10 m/s². In order that a body of 5 kg weighs zero at the equator, the angular speed of the earth is
(a) 1/80 rad /s
(b) 1/400 rad /s
(c) 1/800 rad /s
(d) 1/1600 rad /s

Answer

Answer: (c) 1/800 rad /s

Gravitation MCQ Class 11 Question 2.
A body weighs 500 N on the surface of the earth. How much would it weight half way below the surface of the earth?
(a) 1000 N
(b) 500 N
(c) 250 N
(d) 125 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 250 N

MCQ Questions On Gravitation For Class 11 Question 3.
The time – period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time – period will become
(a) 10 hours
(b) 20 hours
(c) 40 hours
(d) 80 hours

Answer

Answer: (c) 40 hours

Class 11 Gravitation MCQ Question 4.
A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) may be positive or negative

Answer

Answer: (b) Negative

MCQ On Gravitation Class 11 Question 5.
What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun gets doubled?
(a) 1032 days
(b) 129 days
(c) 365 days
(d) 730 days

Answer

Answer: (a) 1032 days

MCQ Of Gravitation Class 11 Question 6.
If a body of mass m is taken out from a point below the surface of earth equal to half the radius of earth, R, to a height R above the earths surface, then work done on it will be
(a) (5/6) mgR
(b) (6/7) mgR
(c) (7/8) mgR
(d) (8/9) mgR

Answer

Answer: (c) (7/8) mgR

Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 MCQ Question 7.
A artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is
(a) 2E0
(b) E0
(c) 1.5 E0
(d) -E0

Answer

Answer: (a) 2E0

Class 11 Physics Gravitation MCQ Question 8.
A body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth of radius R with velocity equal to half of the escape velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
(a) R
(b) R/2
(c) R/3
(d) R/4

Answer

Answer: (c) R/3

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 Question 9.
The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 450 with the vertical, the escape velocity will be
(a) 11/√2 km/s
(b) 11√2 km/s
(c) 2 km/s
(d) 11 km/s

Answer

Answer: (d) 11 km/s

MCQ Questions On Gravitation For Class 11 With Solutions Question 10.
There is no atmosphere on the moon because
(a) it is closer to the earth
(b) it revolves round the earth
(c) it gets light from the sun
(d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here

Answer

Answer: (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here

Gravitation MCQs With Answers Pdf Class 11 Question 11.
The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec² suppose the earth suddenly shrink uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of g at the same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the centre of the earth does not shrink) will become
(a) 9.8 m/sec²
(b) 4.9 m/sec²
(c) 19.6 m/sec²
(d) 2.45 m/sec²

Answer

Answer: (a) 9.8 m/sec²

MCQs On Gravitation Class 11 Question 12.
A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) may be positive or negative

Answer

Answer: (b) Negative

MCQ Gravitation Class 11 Question 13.
If the radius of the earth were to be raise by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth will
(a) increase by 1%
(b) decrease by 2%
(c) decrease by 1%
(d) increase by 2%

Answer

Answer: (d) increase by 2%

MCQ On Gravitation For Class 11 Pdf Question 14.
A body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth of radius R with velocity equal to half of the escape velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
(a) R
(b) R/2
(c) R/3
(d) R/4

Answer

Answer: (c) R/3

Class 11 Physics Ch 8 MCQ Question 15.
The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R = 6400 km)
(a) 7 km/sec
(b) 112 km/sec
(c) 12.2 km/sec
(d) 1.1 km/sec

Answer

Answer: (c) 12.2 km/sec

MCQ Of Chapter Gravitation Class 11 Question 16.
Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G?
(a) Cavendish
(b) Copernicus
(c) Brook Taylor
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cavendish

Gravitation Class 11 MCQs Question 17.
A satellite S is move in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared to the mass of the earth .
(a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(b) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains constant.
(c) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(d) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.

Answer

Answer: (a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.

Ch 8 Physics Class 11 MCQ Question 18.
The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is w and the acceleration due to gravity at earths surface is g. The cube of the radius of the orbit of a geo-stationary satellite will be
(a) r²g / w
(b) R²w²/ g
(c) RG w²
(d) R²g / w²

Answer

Answer: (d) R²g / w²

Chapter 8 Physics Class 11 MCQs Question 19.
If the distance between the earth and the sun were half its present value, the number of day in a year would have been
(a) 64.5
(b) 129
(c) 182.5
(d) 730

Answer

Answer: (b) 129

Gravitation Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 20.
The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio.
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 5 : 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 2

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 8 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Gravitation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Gravitation Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 10 MCQs On Gravitation

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ Chapter 10 Question 1.
Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the moon would
(a) have same velocities at any instant
(b) have different acceleration
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer

Answer: (a) have same velocities at any instant

Gravitation MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity
(a) is same on equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer

Answer: (c) is least on equator

Class 9 Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 3.
The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved without changing the distance between them, then the gravitational force would become
(a) F/4
(b) F/2
(c) F
(d) 2F

Answer

Answer: (a) F/4

MCQ On Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 4.
A boy is whirling a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular path. If the string breaks, the stone
(a) will continue to move in the circular path
(b) will move along a straight line towards the centreof the circular path
(c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(d) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

Answer

Answer: (c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path

MCQ Of Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 5.
An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with $\frac{1}{9}$, $\frac{2}{11}$ and $\frac{3}{7}$ parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of densities d₁, d₂ and d₃respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d₁ > d₂ > d₃
(b) d₁ > d₂ < d₃
(c) d₁ < d₂ > d₃
(d) d₁ < d₂ < d₃

Answer

Answer: (d) d₁ < d₂ < d₃

Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 6.
In the relation F = GM mld², the quantity G
(a) depends on the value ofg at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the Earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the Earth
(d) is universal constant of nature

Answer

Answer: (d) is universal constant of nature

Class 9 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 7.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between
(a) the Earth and a point mass only
(b) the Earth and Sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Answer

Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

MCQ Questions On Gravitation For Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 8.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation
(a) depends on mass of Earth only
(b) depends on radius of Earth only
(c) depends on both mass and radius of Earth
(d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth

Answer

Answer: (d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ With Answers Chapter 10 Question 9.
Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
(a) $\frac{1}{4}$ times
(b) 4 times
(c) $\frac{1}{2}$ times
(d) unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 times

MCQ Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 10.
The atmosphere is held to the Earth by
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) Earth’s magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

Class 9 Physics Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 11.
The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called
(a) gravitational potential
(b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field
(d) universal gravitational constant

Answer

Answer: (d) universal gravitational constant

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 10 Question 12.
The weight of an object at the centre of the Earth of radius R is (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) R times the weight at the surface of the Earth
(d) 1/R² times the weight at surface of the Earth

Answer

Answer: (a) zero

Class 9 Science Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 13.
An object weighs 10 N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the liquid displaced by the object will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 12 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 N

Class 9 Science Ch 10 MCQ Question 14.
A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40 cm breadth and 20 cm width in three ways. In which of the following cases, pressure exerted by the box will be
(a) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(b) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(c) maximum when width and length form the base
(d) the same in all the above three cases

Answer

Answer: (b) maximum when breadth and width form the base

MCQs On Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 15.
An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attractionbetween the Earth and the apple. If F₁ is the magnitude of force exerted by the Earth on the apple and F₂ is the magnitude of force exerted by the apple on the Earth, then
(a) F₁ is very much greater than F₂
(b) F₂ is very much greater than F₁
(c) F₁ is only a little greater than F₂
(d) F₁ and F₁ are equal

Answer

Answer: (d) F₁ and F₁ are equal

Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Chapter 10 Question 16.
The acceleration due to gravity on the Earth depends upon the
(a) mass of the body
(b) mass of the Earth
(c) shape and size of the body
(d) volume of the body

Answer

Answer: (b) mass of the Earth

Question 17.
When a mango falls from a mango tree then
(a) only the Earth attracts the mango.
(b) only the mango attracts the Earth.
(c) both the mango and the Earth attract each other.
(d) both the mango and the Earth repel each other.

Answer

Answer: (c) both the mango and the Earth attract each other.

Question 18.
When a ship floats in sea water
(a) The weight of water displaced is greater than the weight of ship
(b) The weight of water displaced is less than the weight of the ship
(c) The weight of water displaced is equal to the weight of the ship
(d) It displaces no water.

Answer

Answer: (c) The weight of water displaced is equal to the weight of the ship

Question 19.
The SI unit of pressure is
(a) Nm²
(b) N/m
(c) N/m²
(d) N²/m²

Answer

Answer: (c) N/m²

Question 20.
If the gravitational attraction of the Earth suddenly disappears, which of the following statements will be true?
(a) The weight of body will become zero but the mass will remain same.
(b) The weight of a body will remain same but the mass will become zero.
(c) Both mass and weight become zero.
(d) Neither mass nor weight becomes zero.

Answer

Answer: (a) The weight of body will become zero but the mass will remain same.

Fill in the blanks

1. Gravitational force is always ………….. in nature.

Answer

Answer: attractive

2. …………… of a body is the quantity of matter contained in it.

Answer

Answer: Mass

3. SI unit of mass is …………….

Answer

Answer: kilogram

4. Weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards the ………………

Answer

Answer: Earth

5. The acceleration due to gravity of moon is …………… of that of the Earth.

Answer

Answer: one sixth

6. Every fluid exerts an …………….. force on a body immersed in it. This force is called ……………

Answer

Answer: upward, buoyant

7. Density of a substance is defined as mass per unit ……………..

Answer

Answer: volume

8. The force acting on an object …………… to the surface is called thrust.

Answer

Answer: perpendicular

9. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to that of ……………..

Answer

Answer: water

Match the following columns

Column A	Column B
(a) SI unit of Weight	(i) Kilogram
(b) mass	(ii) F = $\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}$
(c) Weight	(iii) mg
(d) Buoyant force	(iv) newton
(e) Relative density	(v) Ratio of density of the substance to that of water
(f) SI unit of mass	(vi) Quantity of matter contained in a body
(g) Gravitational force between two bodies (expression)	(vii) Force acting on body due to Earth’s attraction
(viii) Weight of an object (expression)	(viii) Upward force on a body placed in a fluid

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) SI unit of Weight	(iv) newton
(b) mass	(vi) Quantity of matter contained in a body
(c) Weight	(vii) Force acting on body due to Earth’s attraction
(d) Buoyant force	(viii) Upward force on a body placed in a fluid
(e) Relative density	(v) Ratio of density of the substance to that of water
(f) SI unit of mass	(i) Kilogram
(g) Gravitational force between two bodies (expression)	(ii) $\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}$
(viii) Weight of an object (expression)	(iii) mg

Complete the crossword given below

Across
3. Quantity of matter contained in a body
4. The property due to which a body immersed in fluid experiences upward force.
5. Acceleration due to gravity of moon is how much time that of Earth
7. Whenever objects fall towards the Earth under gravitational force alone, we say that objects are in
8. The force with which a body is attracted towards the Earth
10. Force of gravitation due to Earth is called
11. Nature of gravitational force is always
Down
1. Force between two bodies due to their masses
2. Thrust on unit area
6. Mass per unit volume
9. SI unit of pressure

Answer

Answer:
Across:
3. Mass
4. Buoyancy
5. One sixth
7. Free fall
8. Weight
10. Gravity
11. Attractive

Down:
1. Gravitational force
2. Pressure
6. Density
9. Pascal

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Gravitation CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers

Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 9 MCQs On Mechanical Properties of Solids

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 1.
A body of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a wire and rotated in horizontal circle of diameter 40 cm with a constant speed of 2 m/s. what is the area of cross-section of the wire if the stress developed in the wire is 5 × 106 N/m²?
(a) 2 mm²
(b) 3 mm²
(c) 4 mm²
(d) 5 mm²

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 mm²

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
In a wire, when elongation is 2 cm energy stored is E. if it is stretched by 10 cm, then the energy stored will be
(a) E
(b) 2 E
(c) 4 E
(d) 25 E

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 E

MCQ On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 3.
Two wires A and B are of the same length. The diameters are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the Youngs modulus are in ratio 2 : 1. if they are pulled by the same force, then their elongations will be in ratio
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 : 1

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Pdf Question 4.
Hookes law essentially defines
(a) Stress
(b) Strain
(c) Yield point
(d) Elastic limit

Answer

Answer: (d) Elastic limit

MCQ On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Question 5.
Longitudinal strain is possible in the case of
(a) Gases
(b) Liquid
(c) Only solids
(d) Only gases & liquids

Answer

Answer: (c) Only solids

Engineering Physics MCQ Electrical Engineering.

Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 MCQ Question 6.
Two wires have the same material and length, but their masses are in the ration of 4 : 3. If they are stretched by the same force, their elongations will be in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 3
(d) 9 : 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 : 4

Mechanical Properties Of Solid MCQ Question 7.
A rubber cord of cross sectional area 1 mm² and unstretched length 10 cm is stretched to 12 cm and then released to project a stone of mass 5 gram. If Y for rubber = 5 ? 108N/m², then the tension in the rubber cord is
(a) 25 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 200 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 100 N

MCQ Questions On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 8.
Out of the following materials, whose elasticity is independent of temperature?
(a) Copper
(b) Invar steel
(c) Brass
(d) Silver

Answer

Answer: (b) Invar steel

MCQs On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 9.
An iron bar of length l m and cross section A m² is pulled by a force of F Newton from both ends so as to produce and elongation in meters. Which of the following statement statements is correct
(a) Elongation is inversely proportional to length l
(b) Elongation is directly proportional to cross section A
(c) Elongation is inversely proportional to A
(d) Elongation is directly proportional to Youngs modulus

Answer

Answer: (c) Elongation is inversely proportional to A

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQs Question 10.
The ratio of the change in dimension at right angles to the applied force to the initial dimension is known as
(a) Youngs modulus
(b) Poissons ratio
(c) Lateral strain
(d) Shearing strain

Answer

Answer: (c) Lateral strain

Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 MCQs Question 11.
Four wires whose lengths and diameter respectively are given below are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when same tension is applied?
(a) 0.50 m, 0.50 mm
(b) 1.00 mm, 1.00 mm
(c) 2.00 m, 2.00 mm
(d) 4.00 m, 4.00 mm

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.50 m, 0.50 mm

MCQ On Elasticity Class 11 Question 12.
When the intermolecular distance increases due to tensile force, then
(a) There is no force between the molecules
(b) There is a repulsive force between the molecules
(c) There is an attractive force between the molecules
(d) There is zero resultant force between the molecules

Answer

Answer: (c) There is an attractive force between the molecules

Class 11 Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 13.
A body of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a wire and rotated in horizontal circle of diameter 40 cm with a constant speed of 2 m/s. what is the area of cross-section of the wire if the stress developed in the wire is 5 × 106 N/m²?
(a) 2 mm²
(b) 3 mm²
(c) 4 mm²
(d) 5 mm²

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 mm²

MCQ Of Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 14.
One end of a steel wire of area of cross-section 3 mm² is attached to the ceiling of an elevator moving up with an acceleration of 2.2 m/s². if a load of 8 kg is attached at its free end, then the stress developed in the wire will be
(a) 8 × 106 N/m²
(b) 16 × 106 N/m²
(c) 20 × 106 N/m²
(d) 32 × 106 N/m²

Answer

Answer: (d) 32 × 106 N/m²

Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQs Question 15.
The ratio of the change in dimension at right angles to the applied force to the initial dimension is known as
(a) Youngs modulus
(b) Poissons ratio
(c) Lateral strain
(d) Shearing strain

Answer

Answer: (c) Lateral strain

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Question 16.
The magnitude of the force developed by raising the temperature from 0°C to 100°C of the iron bar of 1.00 m long and 1 cm² cross-section when it is held so that it is not permitted to expand or bend is (a = 10-5/oC and Y = 1011 N/m²)
(a) 103 N
(b) 104 N
(c) 105
(d) 109 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 104 N

Chapter 9 Physics Class 11 MCQs Question 17.
The upper end of wire 1 m long and 2 mm radius is clamped. The lower end is twisted through an angle of 45°. The angle of shear is
(a) 0.09°
(b) 0.9°
(c) 9°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.09°

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Questions Question 18.
The radii of two wires of a same material are in ratio 2 : 1. if the wires are stretched by equal forces, the stress produced in them will be
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 4

Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 19.
A rubber cord of cross sectional area 1 mm² and unstretched length 10 cm is stretched to 12 cm and then released to project a stone of mass 5 gram. If Y for rubber = 5 ? 108N/m², then the tension in the rubber cord is
(a) 25 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 200 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 100 N

Class 11 Physics Ch 9 MCQ Question 20.
In a wire, when elongation is 2 cm energy stored is E. if it is stretched by 10 cm, then the energy stored will be
(a) E
(b) 2 E
(c) 4 E
(d) 25 E

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 E

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers

Getting to Know Plants Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 7 MCQs On Getting to Know Plants

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Getting To Know Plants Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Which is an example of a shrub?
(a) Spinach
(b) Mango tree
(c) Tomato plant
(d) Lemon

Answer

Answer: (d) Lemon
Explanation:
Spinach and tomato are herbs while mango is a tree. So lemon is a shrub.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following type of plants has thick, hard and woody stem?
(a) Tree
(b) Shrub
(c) Herb
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tree
Explanation:
Herb has a soft stem while shrubs have thin stem.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Question 3.
Which is not a part of a leaf?
(a) Petiole
(b) Lamina
(c) Veins
(d) Nodes

Answer

Answer: (d) Nodes
Explanation:
Nodes are found on stem.

Getting To Know Plants MCQ Question 4.
parallel venation is not found in
(a) sugarcane
(b) peepal
(c) maize
(d) wheat

Answer

Answer: (b) peepal
Explanation:
In peepal, reticulate venation.

Getting To Know Plants Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Which one of the following is a function of leaves?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Support fruits

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Leaves perform both functions.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Leaf venation and type of root is correctly paired in
(a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
(b) parallel venation, taproot
(c) no relation exists in leaf venation and type of roots
(d) reticulate venation, fibrous roots

Answer

Answer: (a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
Explanation:
Plants with parallel leaf venation have fibrous roots while plants with reticulate leaf venation have taproots.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 7.
Male reproductive part of flower is
(a) sepals
(b) petals
(c) stamens
(d) pistil

Answer

Answer: (c) stamens
Explanation:
Stamen is male reproductive part.

Class 6 Science Ch 7 MCQ Question 8.
Which is a correct set of parts of a pistil?
(a) Ovary, style and filament
(b) Ovary style and stigma
(c) Ovary, anther and filament
(d) Filament and anther

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovary style and stigma

Class 6 Getting To Know Plants MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following has fibrous root?
(a) Peas
(b) Wheat
(c) Radish
(d) Neem

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat
Explanation:
Wheat roots spread out in the soil.

MCQ On Getting To Know Plants Question 10.
The process of loss of water by a plant through leaves is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) photosynthesis
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
The process of losing water by leaves is called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Creeper	(i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(b) Herb	(ii) Manufacture food.
(c) Shrub	(iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(d) Tree	(iv) Reproduction.
(e) Root	(v) Need support to stand up.
(f) Stem	(vi) Hard and thick stem.
(g) Leaf	(vii) Green and tender stem.
(h) Flower	(viii) Hard but thin stem.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Creeper	(v) Need support to stand up.
(b) Herb	(vii) Green and tender stem.
(c) Shrub	(viii) Hard but thin stem.
(d) Tree	(vi) Hard and thick stem.
(e) Root	(i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(h) Stem	(iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(g) Leaf	(ii) Manufacture food.
(h) Flower	(iv) Reproduction.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Water Havels up the stem through …………. inside the stem.

Answer

Answer: narrow tubes

2. Thick vein in the centre of leaf is called ………….. .

Answer

Answer: midrib

3. Design made by ……………. in a leaf is called venation.

Answer

Answer: veins

4. Leaves Bicchu (Meltles) give you …………. on touching.

Answer

Answer: rashes and itching

5. Leaves have ……………. shapes, sizes, edges, tips, etc.

Answer

Answer: different

6. Water comes out of leaves in the form of vapour by a process called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: transpiration

7. Green leaves make food from ………………………, air and water by a process called photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: sunlight

8. The fine hair like structures on the lateral roots are ………………… .

Answer

Answer: root hair

9. Potatoes and jams are ………….. .

Answer

Answer: stem

10. Small fine particles present in the anther are called …………………..

Answer

Answer: pollen grains

11. …………………… is the lower most part of a pistil.

Answer

Answer: Ovary

12. After maturation, ovary is converted into a ………………

Answer

Answer: fruit

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Herbs are usually short and sometimes do not have branches.

Answer

Answer: True

2. In shrubs, branches arise from the base of the stem.

Answer

Answer: True

3. In trees, branches arise from the upper part of stem.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Stem absorbs water and minerals from the soil.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Roots hold the plant firmly in the soil.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Leaves manufacture the food in presence of sunlight by the process of transpiration.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Plants having leaves with reticulate venation have fibrous roots.

Answer

Answer: False

8. All plants have colourful flowers.

Answer

Answer: False

9. The parts of a flower are usually present in whorls.

Answer

Answer: True

10. Pistil is female reproductive part of a flower.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Getting to Know Plants CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 12 MCQs On Thermodynamics

MCQ On Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics Question 1.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P¹, V¹) to (P², V²) by two different processes, the quantity which will remain same is:
(a) ΔQ
(b) ΔW
(c) ΔQ + ΔW
(d) ΔQ – ΔW

Answer

Answer: (d) ΔQ – ΔW

Thermodynamics Physics Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
The temperatures of inside and outside of a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming, that the refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be nearly:
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 J

Thermodynamics Physics Class 11 MCQ Pdf Question 3.
An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is:
(a) 124°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 62°C
(d) 99°C

Answer

Answer: (d) 99°C

Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics MCQ Question 4.
A black body at a temperature of 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 20 cal m^-2s-1. When its temperature rises to 727°C, the heat radiated will be
(a) 40 units
(b) 160 units
(c) 320 units
(d) 640 units

Answer

Answer: (c) 320 units

MCQ On Thermodynamics Physics Question 5.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics? A. It is not applicable to any cyclic process B. It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy C. It introduces the concept of the internal energy D. It introduces the concept of the entropy
(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A and B

Answer

Answer: (a) A and D

Thermodynamics Physics MCQs With Answers Pdf Question 6.
At a given volume and temperature, the pressure of a gas
(a) varies inversely as its mass
(b) varies inversely as the square of its mass
(c) varies linearly as its mass
(d) is independent of its mass

Answer

Answer: (c) varies linearly as its mass

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Question 7.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of the gas is changed in such a manner that the gas molecules give out 30 J of heat. Also, 10 J of work is done on the gas. If the internal energy of the gas was 40 J, what will be the final internal energy?
(a) 20 J
(b) -20 J
(c) 80 J
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 J

Thermodynamics MCQ Class 11 Question 8.
The translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at temperature T for one mole of a gas is
(a) (3/2) RT
(b) (9/2) RT
(c) (1/3) RT
(d) (5/2) RT

Answer

Answer: (a) (3/2) RT

MCQ Of Thermodynamics Class 11 Question 9.
Which of the following parameters dose not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(a) work
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) Temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) work

Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics Questions And Answers Pdf Question 10.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A Carnots engine works as a refrigerator between 250 K and 300 K. If it receives 750 calories of heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the higher temperature is __________.
(a) 900 cal
(b) 625 cal
(c) 750 cal
(d) 1000 cal

Answer

Answer: (a) 900 cal

Thermodynamics MCQs With Answers Pdf Class 11 Question 11.
The temperatures of inside and outside of a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming, that the refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be nearly:
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 J

MCQs On Thermodynamics Physics Question 12.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of the gas is changed in such a manner that the gas molecules give out 30 J of heat. Also, 10 J of work is done on the gas. If the internal energy of the gas was 40 J, what will be the final internal energy?
(a) 20 J
(b) −20 J
(c) 80 J
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 J

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 13.
A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased, so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency?
(a) 275 K
(b) 325 K
(c) 250 K
(d) 380 K

Answer

Answer: (c) 250 K

Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics Questions Question 14.
For a diatomic gas change in internal energy for a unit change in temperature for constant pressure and constant volume is U1 and U2 respectively. What is the ratio of U1 and U2?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 5 : 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1

Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following parameters dose not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(a) work
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) Temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) work

Question 16.
The translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at temperature T for one mole of a gas is
(a) (3/2) RT
(b) (9/2) RT
(c) (1/3) RT
(d) (5/2) RT

Answer

Answer: (a) (3/2) RT

Question 17.
Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature is a statement as a conseqence of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics

Answer

Answer: (d) second law of thermodynamics

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system?
(a) The internal energy changes in all processes.
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.
(c) The change in entropy can never be zero.
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero.

Answer

Answer: (b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.

Question 19.
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv for the gas is
(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 4/3
(d) 5/3

Answer

Answer: (b) 3/2

Question 20.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P¹, V¹) to (P², V²) by two different processes, the quantity which will remain same is:
(a) ΔQ
(b) ΔW
(c) ΔQ + ΔW
(d) ΔQ – ΔW

Answer

Answer: (d) ΔQ – ΔW

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers

Water Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Water Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 14 MCQs On Water

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 1.
Which one is a process in which water changes into vapours in atmosphere?
(a) Evaporation
(b) transpiration
(c) Precipitation
(d) condensation

Answer

Answer: (a) Evaporation
Explanation:
Changing water into vapours is called evaporation.

Water Class 6 MCQ Question 2.
Potable water is
(a) ocean water
(b) groundwater at selected places
(c) river water
(d) ponds water

Answer

Answer: (b) groundwater at selected places
Explanation:
Potable water is groundwater at specific area.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Question 3.
Which is not a part of water cycle?
(a) Cloud formation
(b) Rain
(c) Drinking by animals
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (c) Drinking by animals
Explanation:
Drinking by animals is not a part of water cycle.

Water MCQs With Answers Chapter 14 Question 4.
Which is a result of condensation of water vapours?
(a) Rain
(b) Snowfall
(c) Hail
(d) Tiny water droplets

Answer

Answer: (d) Tiny water droplets
Explanation:
Water vapour, being brighter, rises up in the atmosphere and cools down. It further condenses to form tiny droplets.

MCQ On Water Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Question 5.
Which one is the purest form of water?
(a) River water
(b) Groundwater
(c) Rainwater
(d) Ocean water

Answer

Answer: (c) Rainwater
Explanation:
Rainwater is the purest form of water.

Water Class 6 MCQ With Answers Chapter 14 Question 6.
Circulation of water between ocean and land is known as
(a) water cycle
(b) rain cycle
(c) water management
(d) water harvesting

Answer

Answer: (a) water cycle
Explanation:
Constant flow of water from the earth to the atmosphere and back to the earth is known as water cycle if

MCQ On Water Class 6 Chapter 14 Question 7.
The percentage of water in potato is
(a) 88
(b) 75
(c) 90
(d) 95

Answer

Answer: (b) 75
Explanation:
75% of potato is water.

Class 6 Water MCQ Chapter 14 Question 8.
Out of these, which is not a source of surface water?
(a) rain water
(b) river and lake water
(c) Spring water
(d) sea water

Answer

Answer: (c) Spring water
Explanation:
Rainwater, river water and sea water are the examples of surface water.

Water MCQ Class 6 Chapter 14 Question 9.
Boiling point of water is
(a) 100°C
(c) 101°C
(b) 99°C
(d) 102°C

Answer

Answer: (a) 100°C
Explanation:
Boiling point of water is 100°C.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 10.
Plants release large amount of water vapour into the atmosphere by the process called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) precipitation
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
Plants release large amount of water vapour into the atmosphere by the process called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(i) Oceans	(a) Are covered with ice
(ii) Lakes	(b) Water drawn from tube well, hand pump and wells
(iii) Rivers	(c) Sources of saline water
(iv) Poles	(d) Results due to excess and continuous rains
(v) Groundwater	(e) Are of both types sweet water and saline water
(vi) Drought	(f) Meant to make up of the water level
(vii) Flooding	(g) The solid form of water
(viii) Water harvesting	(h) Results due to no rain for prolonged time
(ix) Snow	(i) Are sources of sweet water

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Water cycle	(v) Interconversion of water in various forms B
(ii) lakes	(i) conversion of water into steam
(iii) poles	(x) water loss by plants
(v) Ground water	(viii) usually results in rain
(vi) Drought	(ii) feeds nearly all others water sources
(vii) Flooding	(iii) formed during winters due to cooling of atmospheric moisture
(viii) Water Harvesting	(iv) suspend water droplets in atmosphere
(ix) Snow	(vi) ice, water and stream

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. ………………. is needed for drinking, bathing, washing our clothes and many more functions.

Answer

Answer: Water

2. Large part of the earth is covered by……………………

Answer

Answer: Ocean and seas

3. The water in the oceans is very ……………. in taste.

Answer

Answer: salty

4. Ice, water and ………………….. are the three states of same material.

Answer

Answer: salty

5. Water vapours get continuously added to atmosphere due to evaporation and ………………

Answer

Answer: transpiration

6. The process of conversion of vapours into liuid is known as ………………………

Answer

Answer: transpiration

7. Falling of …………….. is called precipitation.

Answer

Answer: water drops

8. If water during precipitation remains liquid till it reaches the surface of earth we have …………………………

Answer

Answer: rains

9. Precipitation in frozen, form is called ……………………

Answer

Answer: hail/snow

10. Water drops present on grass during winter morning is called ………………………

Answer

Answer: dew

11. ………………………. carry the water which mainly serves the purpose of drinking.

Answer

Answer: Rivers

12. Nearly all the trains in winters run late because of a natural phenomenon known as ………………………

Answer

Answer: fog

13. ……………… is the basis of life.

Answer

Answer: Water

14. Most of the water that human beings use come from …………………

Answer

Answer: rivers

15. Oceans act as a ……………………. for large number of plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: habitat

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Water is needed in producing almost all materials and goods that we use in our everyday life.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Oceans are the major sources of sweet water.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Water from wet roads, rooftops and other places disappears some time after the rains.

Answer

Answer: True

4. The process of condensation is opposite to evaporation.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Clouds are the mixture of opaque gases.

Answer

Answer: False

6. Condensation near the surface of earth results in fog.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Vapourisation takes place only in presence of sunlight.

Answer

Answer: False

8. Cloud formation occurs only at higher temperatures.

Answer

Answer: False

9. Rains feed almost all other sources of water.

Answer

Answer: True

10. We should take bath by as much water as we can.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Conversion of water into ice, water into vapours and vapours into water, all are chemical processes.

Answer

Answer: False

12. Distribution of water is similar in all cold countries.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Our body contains about 98% of water.

Answer

Answer: False

14. In cold countries, people use water to warm their houses.

Answer

Answer: True

15. The groundwater is actually the rainwater.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Water CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 12 MCQs On Electricity

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The values of mA and µA are:
(a) 10^-6 and 10^-9 A respectively
(b) 10^-3 and 10^-6 A respectively
(c) 10^-3 and 10^-9 A respectively
(d) 10^-6 and 10^-3 A respectively
Answer:
(b) 10^-3 A and 10^-6 A.

Explanation: An ampere is the SI unit of electric current
1A = 1000mA Or 1mA = $\frac{1 \mathrm{~A}}{1000}$ = 10³A

∴ 1 µA = 10^-3 × 10^-3 A = 10^-6A

Electricity MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
A cylindrical conductor of Length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross-section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another conductor of Length 2.5 1 and resistance 0.5 R of the same material has area of cross-section.
(a) 5A
(b) 2.5A
(c) 0.5A
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$ A

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Question 3.
Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly connected.

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II)

Explanation: In figure (I), the voltmeter is connected in series (not parallel). Similarly, in figure (III). the ammeter ¡s in parallel which should be in series. In figure (IV), the negative terminal of battery has been connected to the positive terminal of the ammeter, whereas it should be connected to the negative terminal

Related Theory:
Essential conditions when components connected:

The voltmeter should be connected in parallel
The ammeter should be connected in series.
Positive terminals of the voltmeter arid ammeter should be connected to the positive terminal of the cell and their negative removals should be joined to the negative terminal of the cell

Electricity Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
If a person has five resistors each of value Ω, then the maximum resistance he can obtain by connecting them ¡s:
(a)1 Ω
(b)5 Ω
(c) 10 Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

MCQ On Electricity Class 10 Question 5.
What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors, each of $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω?
(a) $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω
(b) $\frac{1}{25}$ Ω
(c) $\frac{1}{10}$ Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 6.
The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) two times
(b) half
(c) one-fourth
(d) four times
Answer:
(a) two times

Explanation: Resistance of a resistor R Q New resistance of a resistor Q

All other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged

By applying Joule’s law of heating H = I²Rt

As per Ohms Law V = IR Or I = $\frac{V}{R}$

Hence, the heating effect in the resistor will become two times if all other parameter of the circuit remain same.

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit:
(a) vary continuously
(b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially
(d) increases heavily
Answer:

MCQ Electricity Class 10 Question 8.
Two bulbs of 100 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The current through the 100 Ω bulb is 1 A. The current through the 40 Ω bulb will be:
(a) 0.4 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 1A
Answer:
(d) 1 A

Explanation:

In a series combination of resistors (bulbs) the current is the same in every part of the circuit as current does not change in series combination so both the bulbs get equal amount of current Hence the current through the 40 Ωbulb will be 1A.

Ch 12 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
When a 4 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor is:
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 400 Ω
(d) 0.4 Ω
Answer:
(b) 40 Ω
V = IR, V = 4 V,
I = 100 mA = 0.1 A
Hence R = $\frac{V}{1}=\frac{4}{0.1}$ Ω = 40 Ω.

Class 10 Science Ch 12 MCQ Question 10.
The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistances is X Ohm. If the resistance are of 10 Ohm and 40 Ohm respectively, the value of X will be:
(a) 10 Ohm
(b) 20 Ohm
(c) 50 Ohm
(d) 40 Ohm [Diksha]
Answer:

Class 10 Physics Electricity MCQ Question 11.
Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:
(a) volt-ampere
(b) kilowatt-hour
(c) watt-second
(d) joule-second
Answer:

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Questions Question 12.
if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, then the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about:
(a) 25 Ω
(b) 30 Ω
(c) 60 Ω
(d) 45 Ω
Answer:
(c) 60 Ω

Explanation: if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about 60 Ω because the resistivity of nichrome is 60 times the resistivity of copper.

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 13.
The resistivity of a certain material is 0.6 Ω m, The material is most likely to be:
(a) an insulator
(b) a superconductor
(c) a conductor
(d) a semiconductor
Answer:

MCQs On Electricity Class 10 Question 14.
A cell, a resistor, a key, and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of the figure. The current recorded in the ammeter will be:

(a) Maximum in (I)
(b) Maximum in (II)
(c) Maximum in (III)
(d) The same in all the cases
Answer:
(d) The same in all the cases

Explanation: In series connections, the order of elements in the circuit will not affect the amount of current flowing in the circuit.

Class 10 Science Electricity MCQ Question 15.
The instrument used for measuring electric current is:
(a) galvanometer
(b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter
(d) potentiometer
Answer:

MCQs Of Electricity Class 10 Question 16.
A student plots V-l graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃. Choose from the following the statement that holds true for this graph.

(a) R₁ = R₂ = R₃
(b) R₁ > R₂ > R₃
(c) R₃ > R₂ > R₁
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃
Answer:
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃

Explanation: As is clear from the graph, the current for A₂ conductor is less than A₁ and A₁ is Less than A₃. We can say IA₂ < IA₁ < IA₃
R₂ > R₁ > R₃ (AS, R = V)

Chapter 12 Class 10 Science MCQ Question 17.
The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 2.5 Ω
(d) 8 Ω
Answer:
(a) 2 Ω

$The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:$

Explanation: When a number of resistances are connected in series the resultant resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances and is greater than any individual resistance. Four resistors are given:

Hence, the maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is 2 Ω.

Electricity Class 10 MCQs Question 18.
A current of 2 A is drawn by a conductor on applying a potential difference of 6 V across its ends. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the conductor and the heat generated in the conductor in 8 seconds is:

Number of Electrons Passing in 8 s	Heat Generated in 8 s
(a) 1.6 × 10^-20	24J
(b) 10²⁰	96J
(c) 1.28 × 10^-18	3.6 × 10⁶J
(d) 10³⁰	96J

Answer:

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 19.
The resistivity of four wires A, B, C, and D are of the order of 10¹², 10^-6, 10^-8, and 10¹⁴ respectively. !f the wires are of equal lengths and equal areas of cross-section, then select the row containing the correct information:

Resistance	Nature
(a) Resistance of C will be the least	C is the conductor best of electricity
(b) Resistance of A will be the largest	A is a good conductor of electricity
(c) Resistance of B will be the largest	B is a poor conductor of electricity
(d) Resistance of D will be the least	D is the conductor best of electricity

Answer:

Question 20.
Given below are four statements on resistance of a conductor. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is doubled the voltage also gets doubled.
(II) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is halved the current gets doubled.
(III) Variable resistance is a component used to regulate voltage without changing the current.
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Ohm’s law, V = IR.
Therefore, l = $\frac{V}{R}$.

It means that if resistance R is doubled, the current gets halved, but the voltage remains the same. Similarly, if resistance is halved, currently gets doubled.

Question 21.
Given below are four statements about resistivity. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Resistivity is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
(II) Resistivity depends on the length and area of the cross-section of the conductor.
(III) Metals and alloys have very low resistivity and are good conductors of electricity.
(IV) Insulators have low resistivity of the order of 10¹² to 10¹⁷ Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (iV)
Answer:

Question 22.
Select the correct statements from the statements given below:
(I) In a parallel circuit the current is constant throughout the electric circuit.
(II) In a parallel circuit the other components keep working even if one component fails.
(III) In a series circuit when one component fails, the circuit is broken and the other components stop working.
(IV) in a series circuit, the current is divided among the electrical gadgets depending upon their resistance.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: In a series circuit, the current is constant through the electric circuit and if one component fails, the other components also stop working. Whereas in a parallel circuit, the current is divided among the different components depending upon their resistance, and if one component fails, the other components keep working.

Question 23.
The unit of potential difference is:
(a) JC
(b) J/C
(c) J
(d) C/J
Answer:
(b)J/C

Explanation: Potential difference between two points in an electric field of a given charge is defined as the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another. As V = $\frac{W}{q}$ , the unit of potential difference is Joule/ Coulomb or J/C.

Question 24.
If both the length of a conductor and its radius is doubled, the ratio of new resistance and original resistance will be:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1: 2
Answer:

Question 25.
When a 2 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 6 V battery, the charge (in coulombs) passing through the resistor per second is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Explanation: The charge passing through a resistor per second is the same as the current passing through the resistor since current is defined as the rate of flow of charges. The current flowing is found by using Ohm’s law, V = IR. Therefore, I = V/R = 6/2 = 3A, which is the same as the charge passing in one second.

Question 26.
A battery of 6V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohms, 0.2 ohms, 0.3 ohms, 0.4 ohms, and 2 ohms. How much current would flow through the 0.3-ohm resistor?
(a) 0.895A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 3 A

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 12

For the following questions, two statements are given – One labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R), select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): At high temperatures, metal wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting.
Reason (R): Both resistance and resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: At high temperatures, the free electrons start moving at a greater speed and more heat is evolved. The increased amount of heat melt the insulation of wires and wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting. Sometimes the short circuit may even melt the wire and it may cause fire.

Both resistance and resistivity vary with temperature. When the temperature is increased, the random motion of electrons increases. As a result the number of collisions increases between atoms and electrons.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): When two ends of a metallic wire are connected across the terminals of a cell, then some potential difference is set up between its ends. The direction of electrons are from a positive terminal to negative terminal of the cell.
Reason (R): Electrons are flowing through the conductors from its higher potential to its lower potential end. [Diksha]
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion: A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the mainline.
Reason: If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire melts.
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion(A): Electric appliances with the metallic body have three pin connection, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting wires. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: The three connection of electric appliances with metallic body are live wire, neutraL wire and earth wire. The live and neutraL wire supply electric current to the appliance, whereas the earth wire, which is connected to the metal body of the electric appliance, protects us from electric shock in case we touch the metal body of appliances.

In case of an electric shock, the current passes directly to the earth through the earth wire and we do not feel the electric shock.

On the contrary, three-pin connection do not reduce heating of connecting wires.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): In a purely resistive circuit, the source energy is dissipated in the form of heat.
Reason (R): The potential difference across the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric ion and heater.
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low melting points then their constituents, metals.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.

Related Theory
Alloys have more resistivity than of its constituent elements because alloys have better properties than that of metals. Resistivity is the property of a material that explains how strongly the material opposes flow of electrons. Higher the resistivity, smaller will be the conductivity i.e. why alloys are used in electrical heating devices.

Metals have a higher melting point as the atoms are arranged in a regular manner and form a strong bond whereas alloys are made up of different metals. The different sizes of atoms in an alloy make their arrangement less regular than a pure metal. This makes the bonds between the atoms weaker and lowers the melting point.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The following table given below shows the resistivity of three materials X. Y and Z Analyse the table and answer the following questions:

(A) Arrange the samples in increasing order of conductivity.
Answer:
Conductivity is inversely proportional to resistivity so Y < X < Z.

(B) Which of these is the best conductor?
Answer:
Z is the best insulator as it has the least resistivity.

(D) Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:
(a) Its length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material
Answer:
(d) Nature of the material

Explanation: The resistivity of a material depends on the nature and the temperature of the conductor, but not its shape and size.

Question 2.
Shivani 8 had studied in her class that an electric bulb consists of a filament made up of a metal having high melting point such as tungsten. Also, the bulbs are filled with a chemically inert gas such as nitrogen or argon to prolong the life of filament.

A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of anelectric bulb. The number of electrons passingthrough a cross-section of the filament in 16seconds would be roughly:
(a) 10²⁰
(b) 10¹⁶
(c) 10¹⁸
(d) 10²³
Answer:
(a) 10²⁰
Explanation: Electric current, 1 = 1 A Time, t = 16 seconds No. of electrons, n = ?

We know that current is the amount of electric charge passing through a given point of conductor in 1 second.

The number of eectrons flowing is 1020 electrons.

Question 3.
The following table given below shows the information about two heaters A and B. Analyse the table and answers the following questions:

(A) Which Heater has higher resistance?
(B) If 1KWh is priced at 30 paise, which heater wilt be costlier if they run for 1 hours each?

Question 4.
Prateek bought a new battery for his Laptopas the earlier battery would not stay charged for more than 5 minutes. He Learnt that a battery consisted of celLs combined together in a particular manner.

The proper representation of series combination of cells obtaining maximum potential is:

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)

Question 5.
Take a nichrome wire, a torch bulb, a 10 W bulb and an ammeter (0 – 5 A range), a plug key and some connecting wires. Set up the circuit by connecting four dry cells of 1.5 V each in series with the ammeter leaving a gap XV in the circuit, as shown in Fig. below.

Complete the circuit by connecting the nichrome wire in the gap XY Plug the key. Note down the ammeter reading. Take out the key from the plug. Replace the nichrome wire with the torch bulb in the circuit and find the current through it by measuring the reading of the ammeter. Now repeat the above step with the 10 Wbu(bin the gap XY

Next, complete an electric circuit consisting of a cell and ammeter, a nichrome wire of Length l [say, marked (1)] and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Now, plug the key. Note the current in the ammeter. Replace the nichrome wire by another riichrome wire of same thickness but twice the length, that is 21 [marked (2) in the Fig. Note the ammeter reading. Now replace the wire by a thicker nichrome wire, of the same length l [marked (3)]. A thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area. Again note down the current through the circuit Instead of raking a nichrome wire, connect a copper wire [marked (4) in Fig.] in the circuit Let the wire be of the same length and same area of cross-section as that of the first nichrome wire [marked (1)].
(A) The observation regarding ammeter readings on connecting the different components nichrome wire, torch bulb and a 10 w bulb in the gap XY is tabulated below.
Select the row containing the correct observation and its explanation.

Observation	Explanation
(a) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	Current flowing in a circuit depends only on the potential difference
(b) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	All the components used are good conductors of electric current.
(c) Reading of ammeter will be different for different	All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts components
(d) Reading of ammeter will be different for different components	All components offer equal resistance to the flow of electric current.

Answer:
(c) Observation: Reading of ammeter will be different for different components: Explanation: All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts

Explanation: The current is different for different components as certain components offer an easy path for the flow of electric current while the others resist the flow. The motion of electrons through a conductor isretarded by its resistance.

(B) Refer to the second activity and select the incorrect observations:
(I) The ammeter reading will be same in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of length l and area of cross-section A are connected one by one in the circuit.
(II) The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross-section are connected one by one in the circuit.
(III) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (2), of length 21 and area of cross-section A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(IV) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross-section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross section are connected one by one in the circuit. This is because copper and nichrome are made up of different materials and resistance of a wire depends on the nature of the material.

The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross section A. This is because a thicker wire offers lesser resistance and hence current flowing will be more through a thicker wire as compared to a thinner wire. However, on increasing the length of a conductor to 21. the resistance also becomes double and therefore current decreases to half of its value.

(C) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The flow of electrons within a conductor is restrained by the attraction of the atoms among which they move.
(b) The electrons are completely free to move within a conductor.
(c) The motion of electrons through a conductor is retarded by its resistance.
(d) A component of a given size that offers a low resistance is a good conductor.
Answer:

(D) What will be the effect on current flowing in the circuit when length is made double?
(a) Current will remain same
(b) Current will become double
(c) Current will become half
(d) Current will become four times
Answer:

(E) What will be the least count of an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5 A shown below:

(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 0.02 A
(d) 0.05 A
Answer:

Question 6.
Wires used for electrical connections have different properties and hence different ratings. So, one must select wires of proper rating to be used for different appliances as different appliances have different requirements.

Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire-depends upon:
(a) Its Length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material

Question 7.
Join three resistors of different values, say, 1 Ω, 2Ω and 3 Ω etc.. and a battery of 6 Vin series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading. Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors. Note the ammeter reading each time.

In the next activity. insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y of the series combination of three resistors as shown in Fig. below. Plug the key in the circuit and note the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference across the series combination of resistors. Let it be V. Now measure the potential difference across the two terminals of the battery. Compare the two values. Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the ends X and P of the first resistor, as shown in

Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. Let it be V1. Similarly, measure the potential difference across the other two resistors, separately. Let these values be V2 and V3, respectively.

(A) Refer to the first activity and circuit diagram at fig. 1. A student recorded his observations in a tabuLar form as shown below. SeLect the row containing correct observations/readings.

Answer:
(a) Position of Ammeter: Between battery and 1 O resistor as shown in figure; Ammeter Beading: 1A; Voltmeter Reading: 6 V.

Explanation: The value of the current in the ammeter is the same and does not depend on its position in the electric circuit.
The total resistance resistance = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 D.
Therefore, reading of ammeter = I = V / R = 6/6 A = 1 A

(B) Select the correct concLusion based the observations recorded in activity 1 above:
(I) The resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series in the activity.
(II) In a series combination of resistors the current is different in different parts of the circuit.
(III) In a series combination of resistors the current is the same through each resistor.
(IV) In a series combination of resistors the potential difference is the same across each resistor.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(C) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) In the second activity (refer fig. 2), the values of potential difference V, V₁, V₂ and V₃ are:
(a) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(b) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(c) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(d) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
Answer:
(d) V = 6 K V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 K V₃ = 3 V

Explanation: The potential difference across the resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ can be calculated by applying Ohm’s law.
As current I = 1 A, V₁ = IR₁ = 1 V. Similarly, V₂ = 2 V and V₃ = 3V.
The potential difference V is equal to the sum of potential differences V1, V2, and V3.

(D) Which of the following relations for V and I is correct for a series combination of three resistors as shown above?
(a) I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
(b) V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
(c) $\frac{1}{V}=\frac{1}{V_{1}}+\frac{1}{V_{2}}+\frac{1}{V_{3}}$
(d) $\frac{1}{I}=\frac{1}{I_{1}}+\frac{1}{I_{2}}+\frac{1}{I_{3}}$
Answer:

(E) Suppose in the above activity, each resistance is doubled. Select the correct observation:
(a) The total current is doubled
(b) The potential difference is doubled
(c) The total current is halved
(d) The potential difference is halved.
Answer:

Question 8.
Rahman wanted to change the electric bulb in his study room as he felt that the present bulb was not bright enough for him to study properly. So, he called the electrician. The electrician came and changed the bulb by holding the illuminated bulb with a piece of cloth as the bulb was very hot.

The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not getburnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:

Question 9.
Electric force is the force that pushes apart two like charges, or that pulls together two unlike charges. The electric potential (also called the electric field potential, potential drop, the electrostatic potential) is the amount of work energy needed to move a unit of electric charge (a Coulomb) from a reference point to the specific point in an electric field. The graph of variation of electric potential arising from a point charge Q with distance r from the charge q is shown below:

Note: Both the charges Q and q are positive charges.
(A) The conclusion that can be made from the above graph between electric potential (V) and distance (r) from the given charge is:
(I) The electric potential decreases as the point charge Q is brought near the given charge q.
(II) The electric potential of a given charge q is inversely proportional to the distance of the point charge from the given charge.
(III) Work is done on a charge to move it closer to another charge of the same sign.
(IV) Less energy is required to bring the point charge Q closer to the given charge q.
Which of the above conclusions are correct?
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)

(B) The unit of electric potential is:
(a) J/C
(b) JC
(c) J/s
(d) J/A

(C) The work done in moving a charge of 5 C across two points having a potential difference 12 V is:
(a) 2.4 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 0.42 J
(d) 120 J

(D) The instrument which is used to measure potential difference between two points and type of connection is given below. Select the row containing the correct information.

Name of instrument	Type of connection
(a) Ammeter	Series
(b) Voltmeter	Parallel
(c) Voltmeter	Parallel
(d) Voltmeter	Series

(E) When 120 J work is done to move 8 C charge from one point to another in an electric field, the potential difference developed between the two points is:
(a) 15 V
(b) 960 J
(c) 960 V
(d) 7.5 V
Answer:
(D) (c) Name of instrument: Voltmeter; Type of connection: Parallel
Explanation: The instrument used to measure the potential difference between two points is voltmeter and is always connected in parallel across thepoints between which the potential difference is to be measured.

Question 10.
Potentiometers, or spots” for short, are used for volume and tone control in electric guitars. They allow us to alter the electrical resistance in a circuit at the turn of a knob. The guitar pickups provide the voltage and current source, while the potentiometers provide the resistance. From Ohm’s Law, we can see how increasing resistance decreases the flow of current through a circuit while decreasing the resistance increases the current flow. If two circuit paths are provided from a common voltage source, more current will flow through the path of least resistance.

We can visualize the operation of a potentiometer from the drawing below.

Imagine a resistive track connected from terminal 1 to 3 of the pot. Terminal 2 is connected to a wiper that sweeps along the resistive track when the potentiometer shaft is rotated from 0° to 300°. This changes the resistance from terminals 1 to 2 and 2 to 3 simultaneously, while the resistance from terminals 1 to 3 remains the same. As the resistance from terminal 1 to 2 increases, the resistance from terminal 2 to 3 decreases, and vice-versa.

(A) When we turn the knob in the potentiometer or pots used in electric guitars, it alters the:
(a) Resistivity of the circuit
(b) Resistance in the circuit
(c) Voltage in the circuit
(d) Effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:

(B) Four statements are given below regarding the “cold” and “hot” terminals in the diagram of potentiometer.
Select the correct statements:
(I) The “cold” terminal refers to 0° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 300° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(II) The “cold” terminal refers to 300° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 150° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(III) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is maximum, whereas it is minimum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(IV) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is minimum, whereas it is maximum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 0°, it refers to the “cold” terminal and at this position the resistance is minimum. When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 300°, it refers to the “hot’’ terminal and at this position the resistance is maximum.

(C) When the shaft undergoes 50% rotation, the effective resistance between its terminals is:
(a) R
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) R/2
Answer:

(D) The device that is used to change resistance in a circuit is:
(a) Rheostat
(b) Fuse
(c) Transformer
(d) Circuit breakers
Answer:
(a) Rheostat

Explanation: in many cases it may be necessary to increaseor decrease the current in an electric circuit. A component used toregulate current without changing the voltage source is called variabLeresistance. In an electric circuit, a device called rheostat is used tochange the resistance in the circuit.

(E) The table below lists the change in resistance of a wire on changing the physical parameter such as length (l) and area of cross section (A) of the wire. Select the row containing the income Answer:

Change in Parameter	Change in Value of Resistance
(a) Length is tripled	Resistance becomes three times
(b) Area is halved	Resistance becomes double
(c) Wire is pulled to double its Length	Resistance becomes double
(d) Diameter is doubted	Resistance becomes one fourth

Answer:

Question 11.
Ohm law’s application ranges from household appliances like heaters to the high tension wires and massive projects like rockets and spaceships. Ohm’s law is used to maintain the desired voltage drop across the electronic components. Ohm’s law is also used in dc ammeter and other dc shunts to divert the current. We can control the speed of the fans at our homes by moving the regulator to and fro. Here the current flowing through the fan is controlled by regulating the resistance through the regulator. A circular knob on the component can be rotated to achieve a variable resistance on the output terminals. For any specific value of the input, we can calculate the resistance, current and thus power flowing through Ohm’s Law.

(A) Refer to the figure-2 above. Select the row containing the correct information:

Answer:

(B) The current flowing through a fan is controlled by:
(a) Regulating the voltage through the regulator
(b) Regulating the speed through the regulator
(c) Regulating the resistance through the regulator
(d) Regulating the resistivity through the regulator
Answer:

(C) A resistance of 5 ohms is further drawn so that its length becomes double. Its resistance will now be:
(a) 20 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 7.5 ohms
(d) 5 ohms
Answer:

(D) For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will decrease when
(a) The cross-sectional area of the conductor is increased
(b) The length of the conductor is increased
(c) The length of the conductor is decreased
(d) The cross-sectional area is increased and length is decreased
Answer:

(E) Observe the V-l graph plotted below and select the incorrect observations:

(I) The graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) is a straight line not passing through the origin.
(II) With increase in potential difference, current flowing through the conductor increases.
(III) The slope of the above graph gives the resistivity of the conductor.
(IV) The resistance of the given conductor is 25 Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (111) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) (a) 20 ohms
Explanation: When a 5 ohm resistance is drawn so that its length becomes double, the area of cross section becomes half. As
R = ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 5 Ohm, the new resistance will be A
R’ = ρ$\frac{2l}{A/2}$ = 4 × ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 4 × 5 = 20 Ohm.

Question 12.
Electric heaters, toasters, geysers, iron and kettles are common appliances used throughout the world. The heaters have a metal coil that has high resistance that permits a certain amount of current to flow through them to provide the required heat as per the Joule’s law of heating. The electric kettle and irons have a lot of resistors in them. The resistors limit the amount of current to flow through them to provide the required amount of heat. The size of resistors used in them is determined by using Ohm’s Law.

(A) According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is:
(I) Directly proportional to the square of current for a given resistance
(II) Inversely proportional to the potential difference across the resistance
(III) Directly proportional to resistance for a given current
(IV) Inversely proportional to the time for which the current flows through the resistor.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is given by H = Pt = Vlt = l²Rt ⇒H ∝ l², H ∝ R, H ∝ t

(B) If the resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value, potential difference remaining unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two times
(d) Four times
Answer:

(C) Another common application of Joule’s heating is the fuse used in electric circuits. Select the incorrect statement regarding fuse:
(a) It protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
(b) The fuse is placed in parallel with the device.
(c) It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point.
(d) If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit.
Answer:

(D) Consider an electric iron which consumes 1 kW electric power when operated at 220 V. The table below gives the rating of ideal fuse that should be used in this case and the heat generated in the electric iron in 30 seconds.

Ideal Rating of Fuse (A)	Heat Generated in 30 s (J)
(a) 4A	3.0 × 10⁴
(b) 10A	1.0 × 10⁴
(c) 5A	3.0 × 10⁴
(d) 5A	3.6 × 10⁶

Answer:

(E) A resistance of 30 ohm is connected to a 6 V battery. The heat energy in joules generated per minute will be:
(a) 72 J
(b) 144 J
(c) 288 J
(d) 36 J
Answer:
(A)
(E) (a)72J
Explanation: The heat generated in a resistor is given by Joule’s law of heating,
H = I²Rt.
Here, I = $\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{30}$ = 0.2A , R = 30 Ohm and t = 60 s.
Therefore, H = (0.2)² × 30 × 60 = 72 J

Question 13.
Electrical energy is the energy derived from electric potential energy or kinetic energy of the charged particles. In general, it is referred to as the energy that has been converted from electric potential energy. In many cases it is necessary to calculate the energy usage by an electric device or a collection of devices, such as in a home. The electrical energy (E) used can be reduced either by reducing the time of use or by reducing the power consumption of that appliance or fixture. This will not only reduce the cost, but it will also result in a reduced impact on the environment. Improvements to lighting are some of the fastest ways to reduce the electrical energy used in a home or business. About 20% of a home’s use of energy goes to lighting, while the number for commercial establishments is closer to 40%. A few common electrical appliances and their power ratings are given below:

Load Types	Power Ratings
(1) Light bulbs (incandescent)	60W, 80W, 100W
(2) Electric (steam) iron	2400W
(3) Standing fan	70W
(4) Water heater/Kettle	2000W
(5) Electric blender	350W
(6) Refrigerator	200W
(7) Microwave oven	1200W
(8) Hand dryer	1800W

(A) Which of the following can be concluded from the table shown above?
(I) The energy consumption of an electrical appliance depends on the power rating and the usage time.
(II) The larger the power rating in the electrical appliance, the lesser is the energy used every second.
(III) The Longer the usage time, the more electrical energy is consumed.
(IV) Appliances that have a heating effect usually have a high power rating and consume more electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

(B) An electrical water heater/kettle which is marked 2000 W, 220 V means that:
(a) The electric kettle will consume 2000 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(b) The electric kettle will consume 7.2 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(c) The electric kettle will consume 440 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(d) The electric kettle will consume 3.6 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.

(C) Students calculated the number of electrical units consumed daily by operating a hand dryer (Power rating 1800 W) for 2 h daily on a supply of 220 V, the total electrical energy consumed in the month of June (in Joule) and the cost of electricity for the month of June if one unit costs Rs. 5.50 and assuming that no other appliance is used.
Select the row containing the correct entries.

(D) The resistance of the refrigerator (Power rating 200 W, 220 V) is:
(a) 44 kilo Ohm
(b) 44 Ohm
(c) 242 Ohm
(d) 484 Ohm

(E) If the microwave oven and the electric blender of power ratings 1200 W and 350 W respectively are both used for 5 hours daily, the electrical energy consumed in a day is:
(a) 6.0 units
(b) 7.75 units
(c) 15.5 units
(d) 232.5 units
Answer:
(E) (b) 7.75 units

Explanation: The electrical energy consumed in a day is given by E = Pt = 1200 × 5 + 350 × 5 Wh = 7750 Wh = 7.75 kWh or 7.75 units

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define resistance. Give its S.i. unit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define the term electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
Electrical resistivity is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having cross¬sectional area 1 m2 and a length 1 m.

Related Theory

SI unit of electrical resistivity is ohm m (Wm)
It is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
Metals and alloys have very low resistivity but insulators have very high resistivity.

Question 3.
How will the heat produced in a resistor R change if its resistance is reduced to half of its initial value, other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged?
Answer:

Question 4.
The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not get burnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:
Filament of bulb is made using strong metals having high melting points such as Tungsten which has melting point of 3380 °C, which is higher than the temperature at which it glows

Question 5.
Should the resistance of an ammeter below or high? Give reason.
Answer:

Question 6.
Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. If you are not provided with any other parameters (eg. Numerical value of I and R). What can be said about the voltage drop across the tow resistors?
Answer:

Voltage-drop is same across both the resistors. Explanation: In parallel connection, all the elements are connected between same two points hence the voltage drop across any number of resistors or other elements
Connected in parallel is same. Thus the voltage drop across the two resistors is same

Question 7.
Some work is done to move a charge Q from infinity to a point A in space. The potential of the point? A is given as V. What is the work done to move this charge from infinity in terms of Q and V?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers

Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 7 MCQs On Conservation of Plants and Animals

Choose the correct option.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The clearing of forests is referred to as
(a) reforestation
(b) desertification
(c) deforestation
(d) sanitation

Answer

Answer: (c) deforestation

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
Deforestation leads to
(a) an increase in the temperature of the earth
(b) imbalance of O₂ and CO₂
(c) increase in rainfall
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Question 3.
Which of the following gases is needed by plants for photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

Conservation Of Plants And Animals MCQ Question 4.
Name the process undertaken by plants for preparing their own food.
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Stealing
(d) Sterilisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Photosynthesis

Class 8 Science Ch 7 MCQ Question 5.
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide results in
(a) winter season
(b) global warming
(c) rainfall
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) global warming

Class 8 Chapter 7 Science MCQ Question 6.
The reduction in rainfall could cause
(a) droughts
(b) cold
(c) greenery
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) droughts

Chapter 7 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
The removal of top layer of soil leads to
(a) desertification
(b) rainfall
(c) snowfall
(d) deforestation

Answer

Answer: (a) desertification

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQs Question 8.
Name the sphere that supports life, and where living organisms exist.
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Biosphere
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Biosphere

Ch 7 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
The variety of organisms living on the earth, is referred to as
(a) biodiversity
(b) food chain
(c) lithosphere
(d) relationship

Answer

Answer: (a) biodiversity

Class 8 Ch 7 Science MCQ Question 10.
Name a biosphere reserve where the plants and animals are similar to those of the upper Himalayan ranges and lower western ghats.
(a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(b) Kaziranga Biosphere Reserve
(c) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
(d) Dudhwa National Park

Answer

Answer: (c) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

Class 8 Conservation Of Plants And Animals MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following activities are prohibited in national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves?
(a) Poaching
(b) Hunting
(c) Felling trees
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Science Class 8 Chapter 7 MCQ Question 12.
Name the areas where animals are protected from any disturbance to them and their habitat.
(a) Sanctuary
(b) Biodiversity
(c) Palaces
(d) Beach

Answer

Answer: (a) Sanctuary

Chapter 7 Class 8 Science MCQ Question 13.
Name the areas reserved for wildlife where they can freely use the habitats and national resources.
(a) National parks
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Oceans
(d) Homes

Answer

Answer: (a) National parks

Class 8th Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 14.
Large areas of protected land for conservation of wildlife, plant and animal resources and traditional life of the tribals living in the area are referred to as
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) sanctuaries
(c) national parks
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) biosphere reserves

MCQ On Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 15.
The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists one national park named
(a) bori
(b) satpura
(c) anand
(d) dudhwa

Answer

Answer: (b) satpura

Question 16.
The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists two wildlife sanctuaries named
(a) Bori and Pachmarhi
(b) Pachmarhi and Satpura
(c) Satpura and Bori
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bori and Pachmarhi

Question 17.
The plants found in a particular area are termed as
(a) flora
(b) fauna
(c) species
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) flora

Question 18.
The animal found in a particular area are termed as
(a) flora
(b) fauna
(c) dogs
(d) humans

Answer

Answer: (b) fauna

Question 19.
Those species of plants and animals that are found exclusively in a particular area are termed as
(a) endemic species
(b) exclusive species
(c) particular species
(d) significant species

Answer

Answer: (a) endemic species

Question 20.
The killing of animals illegally is referred to as
(a) assassinating
(b) poaching
(c) killing
(d) hunting

Answer

Answer: (b) poaching

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Giant squirrel	(a) Food chain
2. Cutting of forests	(b) Endemic species
3. Eating and being eaten	(c) Red Data Book
4. Wildlife sanctuaries	(d) Deforestation
5. Record of endangered plants and animals	(e) Pachmarhi
6. Satpura	(f) Surkhab
7. Bird Sanctuary	(g) National Park
8. Migratory Bird	(h) Extinct species
9. Conversion of fertile land into desert	(i) Bharatpur
10. Woolly mammoth	(j) Desertification

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Giant squirrel	(b) Endemic species
2. Cutting of forests	(d) Deforestation
3. Eating and being eaten	(a) Food chain
4. Wildlife sanctuaries	(e) Pachmarhi
5. Record of endangered plants and animals	(c) Red Data Book
6. Satpura	(g) National Park
7. Bird Sanctuary	(i) Bharatpur
8. Migratory Bird	(f) Surkhab
9. Conversion of fertile land into desert	(j) Desertification
10. Woolly mammoth	(h) Extinct species

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. _________ is an endemic flora of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Answer

Answer: 1. Wild mango

2. _________ is a group of population which are capable of interbreeding.

Answer

Answer: Species

3. _________ is also a place where animals receive protection.

Answer

Answer: Zoo

4. _________ is the first Reserve Forest of India.

Answer

Answer: Satpura National Park

5. _________ was launched by the government to protect the tigers in India.

Answer

Answer: Project Tiger

6. Animals whose numbers are diminishing to such a level that they might face extinction are called _________ animals.

Answer

Answer: endangered

7. A/an _________ is made of all the plants, animals and microbes in an area with non-living components such as climate, soil, river, deltas, etc.

Answer

Answer: ecosystem

8. _________ is a source book which keeps records of all the endangered plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: Red Data Book

9. _________ birds fly to far away areas every year during a particular time because of climatic changes.

Answer

Answer: Migratory

10. The restocking of destroyed forests by planting new trees is known as _________.

Answer

Answer: reforestation

11. We should save, reuse and _________ paper to save trees, energy and water.

Answer

Answer: recycle

12. Paper can be recycled _________ to _________ times.

Answer

Answer: 5,7

13. Revised Forest Policy of 1952 is called _________.

Answer

Answer: Forest Act, 1980

14. Kaziranga is a _________.

Answer

Answer: National Park

15. Passenger pigeon is one of the _________ species.

Answer

Answer: extinct

16. The main example of Biosphere Reserve is _________.

Answer

Answer: Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

17. The cutting of trees is called _________.

Answer

Answer: deforestation

18. Satpura National Park is a part of _________ Biosphere Reserve.

Answer

Answer: Pachmarhi

19. Corbett National Park is located at _________.

Answer

Answer: Uttarakhand

20. The causes of deforestation have been _________ and _________.

Answer

Answer: Forest fires, severe drought

State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Kaziranga National Park is situated in Bihar.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Reforestation increases the temperature and pollution level on earth.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Global warming is caused due to the increase in the level of oxygen.

Answer

Answer: False

4. The reduction in rainfall could cause droughts.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Red Data Book keeps a record of all endangered plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True

6. The project Tiger was launched on December 2, 2004.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Dodo is an extinct species.

Answer

Answer: True

8. In a wildlife sanctuary, a limited human activity is allowed.

Answer

Answer: True

9. IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Answer

Answer: True

10. In India, protected forests cover about 25% of the total forest area.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Wildlife sanctuary and national park are protected areas.

Answer

Answer: True

12. Those species which no longer exist on the earth are known as endemic species.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Private ownership is not allowed in the national parks.

Answer

Answer: True

14. There can be a wildlife sanctuary within a biosphere reserve.

Answer

Answer: True

15. A famous wildlife sanctuary situated in Kerala is Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Conservation of Plants and Animals CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers

Heredity and Evolution Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 9 MCQs On Heredity and Evolution

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in F₂ generation will be:
(a) 1: 3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 2:1
Answer:
(c) 1:1

Explanation: The genotype ratio of F₂ generation is: TT: Tt: tt = 1: 2: 1. Therefore, the ratio of TT and tt plants of F₂ generation will be the same.

Heredity Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Two pink-colored flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink, and 1 white flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be:
(a) Double fertilization
(b) Self-pollination
(c) Cross-fertilization
(d) No fertilization
Answer:
(c) Cross-fertilization

Explanation: The nature of the cross will be cross fertilization, which is the transfer of pollen from one plant to the stigma of flower; borne on a different plant of the same species.

Related Theory:

Self-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower of the same plant.
Cross-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower.
Double fertilization: This process occurs when one male nucleus fertilizes (fuses) with the egg cell to form a zygote cell and the other male nucleus fuses (fertilizes) with two polar nuclei to cause triple fusion. These two types of fertilization take place at the same time in the ovule of the plant.

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 3.
In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired chromosomes are:
(I) Large chromosome
(II) Small chromosome
(III) Y chromosome
(IV) X chromosome
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (III) and (II)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.
Answer:
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene. Explanation: A section of DNA that provides information for one protein is called the gene for that protein. Hormones and enzymes are proteins, and the formation of any particular protein is controlled by a particular gene. Fat biosynthesis occurs through metabolic reaction. They are not related to genes.

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Question 5.
Which one is a possible progeny in F2 generation of purebred tall plant with round seed and dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds?
(a) Tall plant with round seeds
(b) Tall plant with wrinkled seeds
(c) Dwarf plant with round seed
(d) All of the above

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Questions Question 6.
If a round, green-seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY), the seeds production in the F₁ generation are:
(a) Round and yellow
(b) Round and green
(c) Wrinkled and green
(d) Wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) Round and yellow

Explanation: The cross between RR yy and rr YY seeds will obtain RrYy offspring which will exhibit round and yellow phenotype, as these traits are the dominant ones.

MCQ Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 7.
A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) Boy
(b) Girl
(c) X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) Either boy or girl
Answer:
(b) Girl

Explanation: Humans follow XX- XY mechanism of sex determination i.e., women are XX while men are XY. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy.

Heredity MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in evolution.
(b) The reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation is genetically controlled.
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny.
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution.
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Question 9.
Select the correct statement:
(a) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are homologous.
(b) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are analogous.
(c) The wings of birds and the limbs of lizards are analogous.
(d) The wings of bird and the wings of bats are homologous.
Answer:

MCQs On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 10.
If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of earth, then we can predict that:
(a) The extinction of the organism occurred recently.
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.
(c) The fossil position in the layers of Earth is not related to its time of extinction.
(d) The time of extinction cannot be deter¬mined.
Answer:
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.

Explanation: If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, the fossils we find closer to the surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.

Related Theory
Depth of each stratum signifies the relative age of fossils present in it. The deeper the stratum, the older the rock and the fossils present in it

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 11.
A trait in an organism is influenced by:
(a) Paternal DNA only
(b) Maternal DNA only
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA
(d) Neither paternal nor maternal DNA
Answer:
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA

Explanation: DNA is contributed to an offspring by both the parents; hence, traits are influenced by both maternal and paternal DNA. During sexual reproduction, both mother and father pass their genes to their children, thus determining their traits; or characteristic features.

MCQ Of Heredity And Evolution Question 12.
New species may be formed if:
(I) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells.
(II) The chromosome number changes in the gamete.
(III) There is no change in the genetic material.
(IV) Mating does not take place.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 13.
which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation.
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 14.
According to the evolutionary theory, for¬mation of a new species is generally due to:
(a) Sudden creation by nature.
(b) Accumulation of variations over several generations.
(c) Clones formed during asexual reproduction.
(d) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 15.
The theory of the evolution of species by natural selection was given by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Morgan
(d) Lamarck
Answer:

Question 16.
Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means that:
(a) Reptiles have evolved from birds.
(b) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds.
(c) Feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms.
(d) Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Answer:

Question 17.
Select a set of homologous organs from the following:
(a) Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly
(b) Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat
(c) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard
Answer:
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard

Explanation: Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly (A), Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat (B) and Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon (C) are analogous organs as they all use wings for flying but the wings have different structures.

Bat wings consist of flaps of skin stretched between the bones of the fingers and arm, wings of pigeon consist of feathers extending all along the arm whereas butterfly wings are covered in scales.

On the other hand, Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard are homologous organs as they all have similar structures which have been modified to perform different functions.

Question 18.
Select the correct statements regarding monohybrid cross between a pure tall pea plant and pure short pea plant performed by Mendel:
(I) All plants of the F₁ generation were tall.
(II) The tall plants in the F₁ generation were exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation
(III) One-quarter of the F₂ progeny of the F₁ tall plants were short.
(IV) Both the tallness and shortness traits were inherited in the F₁ plants
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: When a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure short plant, it was observed that all plants of the F₁ generation were tall. But the tall plants in the F₁ generation were not exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation. The genotype of the pure tall plant is TT, whereas the genotype of the tall plant in the F₁ generation was Tt. The ratio of the tall and short plants in the F₂ generation was 3:1. As 25 % of the pea plants in the F₂ generation were tall, it means that both the shortness (t) and tallness (T) trait were inherited in the FI plants.

Question 19.
Which of the following are acquired traits?
(I) Attached or free earlobe
(II) Muscular body of a wrestler
(III) Body weight of starving animals
(IV) Brown and curly hair
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Consider the plants the pitcher plant, venus fly trap, poinsettia and cactus.
Select the row containing incorrect information regarding the leaves of these plants in terms of evolutionary relationships.

(a) Leaves of these plants are homologous organs	The leaves are structurally similar but modified to perform different functions
(b) Leaves of these plants are analogous organs	The leaves are structurally dissimilar but perform similar functions
(c) Leaves of these plants are vestigial organs	Leaves are homologous to similar leaves in other plants
(d) Leaves of these plants are neither homologous nor analogous	The leaves have no structural or functional similarity

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the organs and evolutionary relationship mentioned alongside. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Organs Relationship	Evolutionary
(a) limbs of human being and frog	Homologous organs
(b) wings of bird and bat	Analogous organs
(c) Thorns and spines in plants	Analogous organs
(d) Tendril of pea plant and grape plant	Homologous organs

Answer:
(d) Organs: Tendril of pea plant and grape plant; Evolutionary Relationship: Homologous organs

Explanation: Thorn is modification of stem and spine is modification of leaf. Tendrils in plant show similar function but they are different in origin. Pea plant has Leaf tendril whears. Grape plant has Stem tendril

Question 22.
which of the statements regarding evolution is correct?
(a) One species is always eliminated in order to give rise to a new species.
(b) The newly formed species are better than the old species.
(c) Evolution is the generation of diversity and the shaping of the diversity by environmental selection.
(d) More and more complex body designs have emerged over time as the older designs are ineffcient.
Answer:

Question 23.
which of the following cannot be an outcome of Mendel’s Experiment on crossing a tall pea plant with a short pea plant?
(a) 3 tall 1 short plant
(b) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant.
(c) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(d) 8 tall and 0 short plants
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
(a) Only Girls
(b) Only Boys
(c) Both girls and boys
(d) It depends on many other factors
Answer:
(a) Only Girls

Explanation: Girls have a perfect paired 23rd chromosome, which is XX, whereas boys have a mismatched 23rd pair of chromosomes, which is XY.

Question 25.
Select the incorrect option.
Genetic drift is:
(a) A mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant over generations.
(b) It occurs in all populations of non-infinite size, but its effects are strongest in small populations.
(c) It may result in the loss of some alleles.
(d) It can have major effects when a population is sharply reduced in size by a natural disaster.
Answer:

Question 26.
Select the group which shares the maximum number of common characters:
(a) Two individuals of a species
(b) Two species of a genus
(c) Two genera of a family
(d) Two genera of two families
Answer:

Question 27.
Select the statements that describe the characteristics of genes:
(I) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.
(II) A gene does not code for proteins.
(III) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
(IV) Each chromosome has only one gene.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) and (III)

Explanation: Genes are units of heredity and are responsible for inheritance. Genes control the expression of a trait or a character in an organism. Genes are located on the chromosomes, which is present inside the nucleus of the cell in the crytoplasm.

Question 28.
The number of pair(s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 9

For the following questions, two statements are given: one Labeled Assertion (A) and the other Labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): The wing of an insect and wing of a bird are analogous organs
Reason (R): The organs which are quite different in fundamental structure and origin but perform the same function in different species are called analogous organs
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/ she inherits from the father.
Reason (R): A child who inherits ‘X‘ chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y‘ chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of which one pair is sex chromosomes and 22 pairs are autosomes. In men, sex chromosome pair is mismatched pair ‘XY‘, ‘X‘ is normal sized and Y is shorter than ‘X‘ chromosomes. Human females have ‘XX chromosomes. Males produce two types of sperms whereas females produce only one ovum having ‘X’ chromosomes. A child who inherits the ‘X’ chromosome from a father would be a girl ‘(XX)’.

While a child who inherits a Y chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).

Question 31.
Assertion: A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a peaplant with white flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason: White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): New combination of traits are observed in F₂ offspring when tall plants with round seeds are crossed with short plants with wrinkled seeds.
Reason (R): Tallness and round seed are both dominant traits.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Lokesh was very fond of dogs. So, one day his friend called him to show a white dog and a black dog which he had recently got from his friend. Lokesh was wondering as to how different dogs have different colours!

Dogs having black coat colour when crossed with dogs having same colour, produced 200 offsprings. Out of this 150 were black and 50 were white. The genotype of dogs is:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(b) Bb and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(c) Bb and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
(d) BB and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
Answer:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)

Explanation: As the ratio of black: white dogs = 150 : 50 = 3 :1, black coat colour is dominant over white. Further, both black and white dogs are homozygous (BB and bb).

Question 2.
A giant 70 million year old fossil of a fish that lived amongst dinosaurs has been discovered in Argentine Patagonia, a team of researchers said on Monday.Argentine paleontologists “found the remains of a predator fish that was more than six meters long,” the researchers said in a statement.The discovery was published in the scientific journal Alcheringa: An Australasian Journal of Palaeontology.The fish “swam in the Patagonian seas at the end of the Cretaceous Period, when the temperature there was much more temperate than now,” the statement said.

Mention any two methods of estimating life of a fossil.
Answer:
The two methods of estimating the life of a fossil are:
(1) By digging the earth and start finding fossils. The fossils found closer to the surface are more recent as compared to the fossils found in deeper layers.
(2) By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of a radioactive element in the fossil material, such as Carbon-14.

Question 3.
Inheritance from the previous generation provides both a common basic body design, and subtle changes in it, for the next generation. The original organism at the top will give rise to two individuals, similar in body design, but with subtle differences. Each of them, in turn, will give rise to two individuals in the next generation. Each of the four individuals in the bottom row will be different from each other. While some of these differences will be unique, others will be inherited from their respective parents, who were different from each other. Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis for evolutionary processes.
(A) If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Answer:
Trait B is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction traits are carried from parents to offspring with least variations so since trait B has higher percentage it is likely to have arisen earlier.

(B) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
Answer:
The Y chromosome in the zygote

Explanation: A child who inherits an X chromo¬some from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a child is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

(C) Give any one factor that could lead to the rise of a new species?
Answer:
The factors could lead to the rise of a new species are:
(1) Natural Selection
(2) Method of Genetic Drift
(3) Gene Variation on Mutation
(4) Geographical and environmental factors

Related Theory
Specialtion is the process by which new species form. It occurs when groups in a species become reproductively isolated and diverge.

(D) Which of the processes, sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction, brings about maximum variations in the offsprings?
Answer:

Question 4.
When Simran visited the hospital, maternity ward to see her little brother born just a day before, she was pleasantly surprised to see so many new born babies in the hospital nursery. So, she thought, how many of these are male babies and how many are female?

The genetic makeup of a male embryo is determined by
(a) The X chromosome in the zygote
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
(c) The cytoplasm of the germ cell which determines the sex
(d) Sex is determined by chance
Answer:
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
Explanation: A chiLd who inherits an X chromosome from her father wilt be a girL and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a chiLd is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

Question 5.
In the F₂ generation of a cross, progeny having different traits are produced in the ratio 3:1.
(A) State whether it is a monohybrid cross or a dihybrid cross? Give one example of such a cross.
(B) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:
(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction
(c) Sexual reproduction
(d) Budding
Answer:
It is a monohybrid cross.

Example: when two hybrids tall Pea plants crossbreed with each other they will produce three tall plants and one dwarf planet in the F₂ generation.

(C) A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness is the dominant trait
(c) Tallness is the recessive trait
(d) Height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
Answer:

Question 6.
Observe the ears of all the students in the class. The lowest part of the ear, called the earlobe, is closely attached to the side of the head in some of us, and not in others. Free and attached earlobes are two variants found in human populations.

Prepare a list of students having free or attached earlobes and calculate the percentage of students having each. Find out about the earlobes of the parents of each student in the class. Correlate the earlobe type of each student with that of their parents. Based on this evidence, suggest a possible rule for the inheritance of earlobe types.
The percentage of people having free earlobes and attached earlobes is shown below:

(A) Based on the findings in the NCERT activity, it can be concluded that:
(I) The gene responsible for free earlobes in dominant.
(II) The gene responsible for free earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(III) The gene responsible for attached earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(IV) The gene responsible for attached earlobe is recessive.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The earlobes of a child whose parents have free earlobes will be:
(a) Free earlobe
(b) Attached earlobe
(c) Can be free or attached earlobe
(d) Neither free nor attached
Answer:
(B) (c) Can be free or attached earlobe

Explanation: Parents with free earlobes can have both a copy of the dominant and recessive allele and they may give birth to a baby with free or attached earlobes.

(D) Mrs. and Mr. Sharma have six children. Three of them have attached eartobes Like their father, and the other three have free earlobes like their mother.
Taking F for free earlobes and f for attached earLobes, seLect the row containing the correct genotype of parents and children from the table below:

Answer:
(b) Mrs. Sharma: Ff; Mr. Sharma: Ff; Children with free earlobes: Ff; Children with attached earlobes: ff

Explanation: All of the individuals with attached earlobes must be ff. AIL of the individuals with free earlobes can be FF or ff. In this particular case, the parent having free earlobe has children who have attached earlobes, so that parent must have an f, and is thus Ff. And all of the children have one parent with attached earlobes, so they must also all have at Least one f, and are thus Ff. So the answer is, Mr. Sharma is ff, Mrs. Sharma is Ff. The three chiLdren with attached earlobes are ff, and the three with free earlobes are Ff.

(E) A child has attached earlobes.
Select the most appropriate statement regarding the earlobe of his/her parents.
(a) Earlobes of either parent may be attached or free.
(b) Both parents have attached earlobes.
(c) One parent has attached earlobes
(d) Cannot be determined.
Answer:

Question 7.
Natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype. It is a key mechanism of evolution, the change in the heritable traits characteristic of a population over generations.

Charles Darwin popularized the term “natural selection”, contrasting it with artificial selection, which in his view is intentional, whereas natural selection is not.

Natural selection can cause microevolution (change in allele frequencies), with fitness-increasing alleles becoming more common in the population. Fitness is a measure of reproductive success (how many offspring an organism leaves in the next generation, relative to others in the group). Natural selection can act on traits determined by alternative alleles of a single gene, or on polygenic traits (traits determined by many genes). Natural selection on traits determined by multiple genes may take the form of stabilizing selection, directional selection, or disruptive selection.
(A) Which of the following are examples of natural selection?
(I) In an ecosystem, lizards that had long legs could climb better to avoid floods and reach food.
(II) Insects become resistant to pesticides very quickly, sometime in one generation and if an insect is resistant to the chemical, most of the offspring will also be resistant.
(III) Cultivation of wild cabbage as a food plant, and generation of different vegetables from it
(IV) Dog breeding for various desired characteristics.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

(B) Natural selection acts on an organism’s:
(a) Environment
(b) Chromosome
(c) Phenotype
(d) Genotype
Answer:

(C) Imagine a population of brown and white rabbits, whose coat color is determined by dominant brown (B) and recessive white (b) alleles of a single gene. A predator such as a hawk can see white rabbits more easily than brown rabbits against the backdrop of a grassy field.
What is likely to happen? Select the incorrect answer:
(a) Brown rabbits are more likely than white rabbits to survive hawk predation.
(b) The b alleles may disappear from the population after several generations due to selection.
(c) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of B alleles.
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.
Answer:
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.

Explanation: Natural selection can shift allele and phenotype frequencies to make a population better-suited to its environment. If we imagine that half of the white rabbits (but none of the brown rabbits) are eaten by hawks, then the frequency of B allele will increase.

Natural selection acts on phenotypes, not genotypes, as a hawk can tell a brown rabbit from a white rabbit, but it can’t tell an BB rabbit from a Bb rabbit.

(D) Humans have, over more than two thousand years, cultivated wild cabbage as a food plant, and generated different vegetables from it by selection.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Desirable Characteristic	Name of Vegetable Evolved from Wild Cabbage
Short distances between leaves	Cabbage
For sterile flowers	Kale
For arrested flower development	Broccoli
For swollen parts	Kohlrabi

Answer:
(b) Desirable characteristic: For sterile flowers: Name of vegetable evolved from wild cabbage: Kale

Explanation: For sterile flowers, man of made cauliflower and for leafy vegetable, made kale.

(E) In a habitat there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs, so soon there are many green bugs and few red bugs. The green bugs reproduce and make more green bugs and eventually there are no more red bugs.
The above is an example of:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Geographical isolation
(d) Speciation
Answer:

Question 8.
X-linked recessive inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be always expressed in males (who are necessarily homozygous for the gene mutation because they have one X and one Y chromosome) and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation. Females with one copy of the mutated gene are carriers. X-linked inheritance means that the gene causing the trait or the disorder is located on the X chromosome.

In humans, inheritance of X-linked recessive traits follows a unique pattern as shown below:

The first is that affected fathers cannot pass x-linked recessive traits to their sons because fathers give Y chromosomes to their sons. Second, x-iinked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females.
This is due to the fact that males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected. The last pattern seen is that x-linked recessive traits tend to skip generations, meaning an affected grandfather will not have an affected son, but could have an affected grandson through his daughter.

(A) In the cross shown above, if the father is unaffected and mother is also unaffected, but mother is a carrier (X-linked recessive allele present), then which of the following statements are correct about their children:
(I) Both sons will be unaffected but will be carriers.
(II) One son will be unaffected and one son will be affected.
(III) Both daughters will be unaffected
(IV) One daughter will be unaffected and one daughter will be affected.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: Females have two X chromosomes while males have one X and one Y chromosome. Carrier females who have only one copy of the mutation do not usually express the phenotype. So, the son who receives the X chromosome containing the dominant allele will be unaffected whereas the son who receives X chromosome containing the recessive allele will be affected. Both daughters will be unaffected, but the daughter who receives the recessive allele from her mother will be carrier.

This means that males affected by an x-linked recessive disorder inherited the responsible X chromosome from their mothers.

Women possess two X chromosomes and thus must receive two of the mutated recessive X chromosomes (one from each parent). A popular example showing this pattern of inheritance is that of the descendants of Queen Victoria and the blood disease hemophilia.

(B) Study the cross shown above and select the row containing incorrect information:

Answer:

(C) Sex-linked genetically inherited traits:
(a) can appear in both males and females
(b) are only found in males
(c) are only found in females
(d) appear only in F₂generation
Answer:

(D) X-linked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females because:
(a) Females have both X chromosomes which will be mutated at the same time
(b) Males possess a Y chromosome which can be mutated
(c) Males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected
(d) Chances of mutation of both X chromosomes in females is very low
Answer:

(E) Insects also follow an XY sex- determination pattern and like humans, Drosophila males have an XY chromosome pair and females are XX. Eye color in Drosophila was one of the first X-linked traits to be identified. In fruit flies, the wild-type eye color is red (XW) and is dominant to white eye color (Xw).
In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and red-eyed male, what percent of the female offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
(a) 100 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:
(d) 0%

Explanation: The genotype of a white-eyed female fruit fly will be XWXW and of red-eyed male will be XWY. When we cross them, the genotype of offspring will be:

XWXW (Red eyed female), X (White-eyed male), XWXW (Red-eyed female) and XWY (white-eyed male).
All of the females are thus red-eyed and heterozygous. All of the males are white-eyed and hemizygous.

Question 9.
In mice, black coat colour (B) is dominant over brown coat colour (b), and a solid pattern (S) is dominant over white spotted (s). Colour and spots are controlled by genes that assort independently. A homozygous (both alleles identical) black, spotted mouse is crossed with a homozygous brown, solid mouse.
(A) The genotypes of the parents is:
(a) Bbss and bbSS
(b) BBss and bbSs
(c) BbSs and BbSs
(d) BBss and bbSS
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statements regarding the F₁ progeny obtained:
(I) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is brown coat with solid pattern.
(II) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is black coat with solid pattern.
(III) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BbSs.
(IV) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BBSs.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Genotype of the homozygous black, spotted mouse is BBss and of the homozygous brown, solid mouse is bbSS.
When these are crossed, all F₁ progeny will be black coat with solid pattern (BbSs) as gametes of homozygous black, spotted mouse will be Bs and of homozygous brown, solid mouse is bS.

(C) The table below shows the phenotypic ratio of F₂ generation when mice of F₁ generation are crossed with each other.
Select the row containing correct information:

Answer:

(D) From the cross mentioned in (B) above, it can be concluded that:
(a) The phenotype of progeny is independent of inherited genes.
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are inherited independently.
(c) The genotype of progeny does not decide the phenotype.
(d) The phenotype and genotype of progeny are independently inherited.
Answer:
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are Inherited independently.

Explanation: The genes responsible for coLour (black or brown) and spotting (solid pattern or spotted) are assorted independently.

(E) Suppose a test cross is carried out by mating FI mice with brown, spotted mice. The percentage of progeny having black coat with solid pattern will be;
(a) 75 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:

Question 10.
Remember the Hindi film Ghajini where Aamir Khan had sported a new hairstyle? It became a rage and later, several boys started to experiment with their hairstyle in unique ways.

From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited:
(a) Colour of eyes
(b) Colour of skin
(c) Size of body
(d) Nature of hair
Answer:

Question 11.
A big challenge with species conservation is trying to limit and reduce the negative genetic effects of small or isolated populations. Founder’s effect or bottleneck effect can lead to small populations which are highly susceptible to genetic drift. This means there is a serious reduction in genetic variation within the population, making that population less able to adapt to new selective pressures (“Bottleneck and founder effects”). Even if the species’ numbers were to rebound, the new generations would only carry the limited set of alleles passed down by the small population.

A population bottleneck is an event that drastically reduces the size of a population. The bottleneck may be caused by various events, such as an environmental disaster, the hunting of a species to the point of extinction, or habitat destruction that results in the deaths of organisms. The population bottleneck produces a decrease in the gene pool of the population because many alleles, or gene variants, that were present in the original population are lost. Due to the event, the remaining population has a very low level of genetic diversity, which means that the population as a whole has few genetic characteristics.

(A) Select the correct statements:
(I) A population bottleneck decreases genetic variation in a species or subspecies.
(II) Gene flow increases genetic diversity by introducing new alleles into the population.
(III) Mutation decreases genetic diversity in a population.
(IV) Species can become extinct if genetic diversity recovers after the bottleneck.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Gene pool frequencies do not change as a result of migrations in or out of a population.
(b) Gene flow occurs only as a result of migrations.
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.
(d) Gene flow is possible only in aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.

Explanation: Since gene flow alters the recipient population’s gene pool, it causes evolution independent of any other evolutionary mechanism.

(C) Which of the following is not true of genetic drift?
(a) It can lead to alleles being fixed in a population
(b) It results from the random transmission of alleles from parents to offspring in a population
(c) It can lead to loss of alleles from a population
(d) It can increase the genetic diversity of a population
Answer:

(D) In a population where the allele frequency shifts by random chance, the mechanism of evolution at work is:
(a) mutation
(b) genetic drift
(c) natural selection
(d) migration
Answer:
(b) genetic drift

Explanation: Genetic drift occurs as a result of chance events causing changes in the allele frequency of a population. It doesn’t favor the fittest individuals, but occurs at random.

(E) Mutation may be described as:
(a) Continuous genetic variation
(b) Phenotypic change
(c) Discontinuous genetic variation
(d) Change due to hybridization
Answer:

Question 12.
When a friend showed Uma two photographs and asked her to identify the relation between the persons shown in the photograph, she immediately replied that the photographs are of identical twins as they had identical features. But to her surprise, the photograph was of a father when he was a kid and of his daughter. The similarity in their features was remarkable!

Answer:
Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell. As genes are responsible for controlling various processes in an organism and are made up of DNA, we can say that DNA is the carrier of basic genetic information in organisms.

Question 13.
Speciation, the formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution. Speciation involves the splitting of a single evolutionary lineage into two or more genetically independent lineages. Speciation occurs when a group within a species separates from other members of its species and develops its own unique characteristics. The demands of a different environment or the characteristics of the members of the new group will differentiate the new species from their ancestors.
There are many hypotheses about how speciation starts, and they differ mainly in the role of geographic isolation and the origin of reproductive isolation (the prevention of two populations or more from interbreeding with one another).

(A) Select the incorrect statement.
Speciation is possible in isolated populations of the parent species because:
(a) There will be an accumulation of different changes in each sub-population due to genetic drift.
(b) Natural selection may operate differently in these different geographic locations.
(c) isolated populations are no longer able to interbreed.
(d) Increased gene flow
Answer:
(d) Increased gene flow

Explanation: Speciation is possible when the parent species is subdivided into subpopulations. Each sub-population has a different gene pool and accumulation of different changes due to genetic drift. Moreover, different variations may be selected in the subpopulations by environmental factors. Eventually, the organisms belonging to the sub-populations may no longer be able to interbreed. However, if gene flow decreases, then the groups will evolve along separate paths.

(B) Two separate squirrel species inhabit the north and south rims of the canyon when Arizona’s Grand Canyon formed. This is an example of:
(a) Genetic Drift
(b) Geographical isolation
(c) Natural selection
(d) Variation
Answer:

(C) New species may be formed if
(I) DNA undergoes significant change in germ cells
(II) Chromosome number changes in the gamete
(III) There is no change in the genetic material
(IV) Mating is no longer possible
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: New species may be formed due to significant change in DNA such that the organisms are no longer able to inter breed. Then, a new species is said to have been formed.

(D) Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower by
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) artificial selection
Answer:

(E) Imagine a situation in which a population extends over a broad geographic range, and mating throughout the population is not random. Individuals in the far west would have zero chance of mating with individuals in the far eastern end of the range.

Which of the following can lead to the formation of a new species in such a situation?
Select the most appropriate answer in the given context.
(a) Geographical isolation
(b) Reduced gene flow
(c) Increased gene flow
(d) Genetic drift
Answer:

Question 14.
When Priyanka went to the market to buy some pulses, she was quite surprised when the shopkeeper mentioned the different varieties of pea. There was green and round variety as well as yellow and wrinkled and also yellow and round varieties!

Round and green seeds of pea plant were crossed with wrinkled and yellow seeds. Progeny of F₁ generation were all having round and green seeds. These F₁ progenies were used to generate F₂ progeny. Select the row containing incorrect observation or remarks:

Observation	Remarks
(a) Genotype of parents of F₁ progeny was RRyy (Round, green) and rrYY (Wrinkled, yellow)	Roundness and yellow were dominant as all F₁ progeny had round and yellow seeds
(b) Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny.	As alt F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.
(c) Some F₂ progeny showed new combinations	The round seed/ wrinkled seed trait and yellow! green trait are independently inherited.
(d) Phenotype ratio of F₂ progeny was 9:3:3:1	9 (round/yellow)
	3 (round green)
	3 (wrinkled yellow)
	1 (wrinkled green)

Answer:
(b) Observation: Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny: Remarks: As all F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mendel took tall pea plants and short pea plants and produced F₁ progeny through cross-fertilisation. What did Mendel observe in the F₁ progeny?
Answer:
When Mendel cross-fertilized tall pea plants and short pea plants, he observed that all plants in the F₁progeny were tall.

Related Theory

When these F₁ progeny are self crossed, he observed that the F₂ progeny are not all tall. The ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants comes to be approximately 3:1.
This indicates that both the tallness (T) and shortness (t) traits were inherited in the F₁ plants, but only the tallness trait was expressed.
Above experiment led Mendel to propose that two copies of factor (now called genes) controlling traits are present in sexually reproducing organisms.
Traits like T which are expressed are called dominant traits, while traits like’t’ are called recessive traits.

Question 2.
How is the normal number of chromosomes restored in the progeny of sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one each from the male and female parents. Each germ cell or gamete takes one chromosome from each pair and when two germ cells combine, the original number of chromosomes is restored in the progeny.

Question 3.
Do all variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves?
Answer:
No, all variations in a species do not have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves. Depending upon the nature of variations, each individual would have different advantages of survival.

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers

Separation of Substances Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Separation of Substances Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 5 MCQs On Separation of Substances

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Butter is separated from milk by
(a) sedimentation
(b) filtration
(c) churning
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (c) churning
Explanation:
Butter is separated by churning.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
Filtration is a method to separate the components of a
(a) solution
(b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) pure substance

Answer

Answer: (b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
Explanation:
Components of solution cannot be separated by this method.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
Threshing is done by
(a) beating
(b) bullocks
(c) machines
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation:
All the three methods can be used for threshing.

MCQ On Separation Of Substances Class 6 Question 4.
Which method is used to separate pebbles and stones from sand?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Sieving
(d) Any of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Sieving
Explanation:
Handpicking will require more time while winnowing is not fit at all.

Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 5.
The components of a solution (say sugar in water) can be separated by
(a) filtration
(b) evaporation
(c) sedimentation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) evaporation
Explanation:
By evaporation, the volatile component is evaporated which is then condensed.

Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Sand from water is separated by
(a) sieving
(b) evaporation
(c) filtration
(d) sedimentation and decantation

Answer

Answer: (d) sedimentation and decantation
Explanation:
It can be done by evaporation and filtration also but sedimentation and decantation are easier ways.

Separation Of Substances Class 6 Worksheets With Answers MCQ Question 7.
The process of conversion of water vapours into liquid is called
(a) condensation
(b) decantation
(c) sedimentation
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (a) condensation
Explanation:
Water vapours changing into liquid is called condensation.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 8.
The process of conversion of water into its vapours is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) guttation
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (a) evaporation
Explanation:
The conversion of water into vapours is called evaporation.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
A mixture of ammonium chloride and sand is separated by
(a) evaporation
(b) decantation
(c) sublimation
(d) filtration

Answer

Answer: (c) sublimation
Explanation:
Ammonium chloride is separated by sublimation process.

Class 6 Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 10.
The property which forms the basis of sieving
(a) difference in weight
(b) difference in colour
(c) difference in shape
(d) difference in size

Answer

Answer: (d) difference in size
Explanation:
Sieving method is used for separating solid constituents of a mixture which differ in their size.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Handpicking	(i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(b) Threshing	(ii) Separating bran from flour
(c) Winnowing	(iii) Separating larger size impurities
(d) Sieving	(iv) Separating butter from milk
(e) Sedimentation	(v) Conversion of water into Us vapours
(f) Evaporation	(vi) Separating grains from its stalks
(g) Condensation	(vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(h) Churning	(viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Handpicking	(iii) Separating larger size impurities
(b) Threshing	(iv) Separating grains from its stalks
(c) Winnowing	(viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air
(d) Sieving	(ii) Separating bran from flour
(e) Sedimentation	(vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(f) Evaporation	(v) Conversion of water into its vapours
(g) Condensation	(i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(h) Churning	(iv) Separating butter from milk

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Peanuts are separated from a mixture of wheat and peanut by …………… .

Answer

Answer: handpicking

2. ………………. is used to separate husk from wheat.

Answer

Answer: Winnowing

3. Fine sand can be separated from larger particles by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: sieving

4. Glass is a ………….. .

Answer

Answer: mixture

5. Compounds have ……………….. melting points.

Answer

Answer: fixed

6. Milk has a ……………………….. boiling point.

Answer

Answer: variable

7. Boiling point of pure water is …………………. than that of impure water.

Answer

Answer: less

8. Mixture may be solid, liquid or …………… .

Answer

Answer: gas

9. Butter is a component of …………….. .

Answer

Answer: butter milk

10. Sugarcane juice is a mixture of …………………………, water and many other substances.

Answer

Answer: sugar

11. Separation of components is done to obtain a …………………….. substance.

Answer

Answer: pure

12. Components retain their properties in a ……………… .

Answer

Answer: mixture

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Butter is separated from butter milk by churning.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Separation of components of a mixture is a useful process.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Ink loses its properties when mixed in water.

Answer

Answer: False

4. ‘Sharbat’ is a mixture of sugar and water.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Rocks are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: False

6. Milk is a mixture.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Common salt is ai pure substance.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Mixture has properties different from its components.

Answer

Answer: False

9. Tap water and pond water are alike.

Answer

Answer: False

10. Elements are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: True

11. A pure substance has a fixed melting and boiling points.

Answer

Answer: True

12. Condensation method is used for separating substances which on heating change directly into vapour.

Answer

Answer: False

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