Category: MCQ Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Communication Systems Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 12 Chapter 15 MCQs On Communication Systems

MCQ On Communication System Class 12 Question 1.
Who undertook the first space walk and in which year?
(a) Leonov 1965
(b) Neil Armstrong, 1969
(c) Rakesh Sharma. 1998
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Leonov 1965

---

MCQ On Communication System Class 12 Pdf Question 2.
The term used “to collect the information about an object and a place without physical contact” is called :
(a) modulation
(b) communication
(c) amplification
(d) remote sensing

Answer

Answer: (d) remote sensing

---

Communication System Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
The velocity of electromagnetic wave is:
(a) 3 × 10⁵ ms^-1
(b) 3 × 10⁶ ms^-1
(c) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
(d) 3 × 10¹⁰ ms^-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1

---

Chapter 15 Physics Class 12 MCQs Question 4.
The audio frequencies range from:
(a) 20 Hz to 20.000 kHz
(b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(c) 20 kHz to 20.000 kHz
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

---

MCQ On Communication System Question 5.
The wavelength of a wave of frequency 10 kHz is:
(a) 30 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 30 km
(d) 300 km

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 km

---

Communication Systems MCQ Question 6.
The area served by an antenna of height 100 m is:
(a) 10⁹m²
(b) 4 × 10⁹ m²
(c) 6 × 10⁹m²
(d) 8 × 10¹⁰m²

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 × 10⁹ m²

---

Communication System MCQ Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following is not transducer?
(a) Loudspeaker
(b) Amplifier
(c) Microphone
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (b) Amplifier

---

MCQ On Communication Question 8.
The space waves which are affected seriously by atmospheric conditions are:
(a) MF
(b) HUF
(c) VHF
(d) UHF

Answer

Answer: (d) UHF

---

Communication System MCQ Questions Question 9.
An antenna is:
(a) Inductive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Resistive
(d) A transformer

Answer

Answer: (a) Inductive

---

Communication System MCQs Question 10.
Broadcasting antenna are generally:
(a) Ommi directional type
(b) Vertical type
(c) Horizontal type
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Vertical type

---

MCQ On Communication With Answers Question 11.
The modulation index in amplitude modulation is:
(a) Always zero
(b) Between 0 and 1
(c) Between 1 and ∞
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Between 1 and ∞

---

Communication Physics Pdf Question 12.
The output of a digital computer is an example of:
(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) digital signal

---

Communication Systems Class 12 Question 13.
Name the man who was first to place his foot on the moon and in which year:
(a) Neil Armstrong, 1969
(b) James Van A lien, 1971
(c) Leonov, 1965
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Neil Armstrong, 1969

---

Physics MCQ Class 12 Question 14.
A microphone converts:
(a) sound signals into electrical signals
(b) electrical signals into sound signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) sound signals into electrical signals

---

Communication System MCQ Question 15.
A loudspeaker converts:
(a) electrical signals into sound signals
(b) sound signals into electrical signals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) electrical signals into sound signals

---

Question 16.
The sound produced by a tuning fork is a sort of:
(a) analog signal
(b) digital signal
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) analog signal

---

Question 17.
The length of a half wave dipole at 30 mega-hertz is:
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 80 m

Answer

Answer: (a) 5 m

---

Question 18.
In space communication, the sound waves can be sent from one place to another:
(a) through space
(b) through wires
(c) by superimposing it on undamped electro-magnetic waves
(d) by superimposing it on damped electro-magnetic waves

Answer

Answer: (c) by superimposing it on undamped electro-magnetic waves

---

Question 19.
The output of a digital computer is an example of:
(a) digital signal
(b) analog signal
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) digital signal

---

Question 20.
Which is more advantageous?
(a) analog data communication
(b) digital data communication
(c) both (a) and (b) are equally good
(d) depends on the situation

Answer

Answer: (b) digital data communication

---

Question 21.
Communication channel consists of:
(a) transmission line only
(b) optical fibre only
(c) free space only
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 22.
AM is used for broadcasting because:
(a) it is more noise immune than other modulation system
(b) it requires less transmitting power compare with other systems
(c) its use avoids receiver complexity
(d) No other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth faithful transmission

Answer

Answer: (c) its use avoids receiver complexity

---

Question 23.
Digital signals:
(a) represents values as discrete steps
(b) Do not represents values as discrete steps
(c) represent values steps
(d) represent random steps

Answer

Answer: (a) represents values as discrete steps

---

Question 24.
Digital signals:
(a) deal with all sort of values
(b) can use decimal system
(c) can use binary system
(d) (b) and (c) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (b) and (c) both

---

Question 25.
Increase in frequency deviation results into:
(a) increase in noise of FM receiver
(b) decrease in noise of AM receiver
(c) increase in noise of Am receiver
(d) decrease in noise of FM receiver

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease in noise of AM receiver

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 15 Communication Systems with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Communication Systems CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Physics MCQ:

• Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQ
• Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Class 12 MCQ
• Current Electricity Class 12 MCQ
• Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 MCQ
• Magnetism and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 MCQ
• Alternating Current Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ
• Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 MCQ
• Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ
• Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Atoms Class 12 MCQ
• Nuclei Class 12 MCQ
• Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQ
• Communication Systems Class 12 MCQ

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Wave Optics Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 12 Chapter 10 MCQs On Wave Optics

Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Question 1.
What happens if one of the slits, say S₁ in Young’s double , slit experiment-is covered with a glass plate which absorbs half the intensity of light from it?
(a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity
(b) The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker
(c) The fringe width decreases
(d) No fringes will be observed

Answer

Answer: (a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity

---

Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
What happens to the interference pattern the two slits S₁ and S₂ in Young’s double experiment are illuminated by two independent but identical sources?
(a) The intensity of the bright fringes doubled
(b) The intensity of the bright fringes becomes four times
(c) Two sets of interference fringes overlap
(d) No interference pattern is observed

Answer

Answer: (d) No interference pattern is observed

---

MCQ On Wave Optics Class 12 Question 3.
What is the reason for your answer to the above question?
(a) The two sources do not emit light of the same wavelength
(b) The two sources emit waves which travel with different speeds
(c) The two sources emit light waves of different amplitudes
(d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources

Answer

Answer: (d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources

---

Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Question 4.
A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light What happened the red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) There is no change in diffraction pattern
(b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded
(d) Diffraction fringes become broader and farther apart
(d) The diffraction pattern disappear

Answer

Answer: (b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded

---

Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 5.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light varies but never reduces to zero. It shows that the incident light is:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely plane polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) partially plane polarised

---

MCQ Of Wave Optics Class 12 Question 6.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light does not vary. The incident light may be:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) unpolarised

---

Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 7.
In Young’s double slit experiment, a maximum is obtained when the path difference between the interfering waves is (n ∈ l):
(a) nλ
(b) n \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(c) (2n + 1) \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(d) (2n – 1) \(\frac{λ}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) nλ

---

Wave Optics Objective Questions Question 8.
For sustained interference, we need two sources which
emit radiations :
(a) of the same intensity
(b) of the same amplitude
(c) having a constant phase difference
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) having a constant phase difference

---

Wave Optics MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the same:
(a) amplitude and phase
(b) intensity and wavelength
(c) speed
(d) wavelength and a constant phase difference

Answer

Answer: (d) wavelength and a constant phase difference

---

Wave Optics MCQ Questions Question 10.
The intensity of light emerging from the two slits, in Young’s experiment is in the ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of,the intensity of the minimum to that of the consecutive maximum will be:
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 1 : 16
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 : 9

---

MCQ Questions On Wave Optics Question 11.
Poisson’s bright spot was discovered by:
(a) Fresnel
(b) Rayleigh
(c) Poisson
(d) Fraunhoffer

Answer

Answer: (c) Poisson

---

MCQ Wave Optics Class 12 Question 12.
The theory of expanding universe is confirmed by the observation of the spectral lines of the star, which shows :
(a) green shift
(b) red shift
(c) violet shift
(d) yellow shift

Answer

Answer: (b) red shift

---

Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Download Question 13.
The application of Doppler effect are:
(a) Doppler spectrometer
(b) Doppler radius
(c) Doppler velocimeter
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

MCQs On Wave Optics Question 14.
Which of the following is conserved when light waves interefere?
(a) phase
(b) intensity
(c) amplitude
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these

---

Question 15.
In Young double slit experiment, a minimum is obtained when the phase difference of the superposing waves, is (n ∈ l):
(a) nπ
(b) (n + \(\frac{1}{2}\))π
(c) (2n + 1)π
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) (2n + 1)π

---

Question 16.
The angle of minimum deviation of a prism depends upon the aggie of:
(a) incidence
(b) reflection
(c) prism
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) prism

---

Question 17.
he minimum value of the refractive index is:
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) less than 1 but not zero
(d) more than 1

Answer

Answer: (c) less than 1 but not zero

---

Question 18.
Polarization of light prove the :
(a) corpuscular nature of light
(b) quantum nature of light
(c) Transverse wave nature of light
(d) Longitudinal wave nature of light

Answer

Answer: (c) Transverse wave nature of light

---

Question 19.
Out of the following Statements which is not correct?
(a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized
(b) Nicol’s prism works on the principle of double refraction and T.l.R.
(c) Nicol’s prism can be used both the produce and analyse polarized light
(d) Calcite and Quartz are both double refracting crystal

Answer

Answer: (a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized

---

Question 20.
Polaroid glasses is used in sun glasses because :
(a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization
(b) It is fashionable
(c) It has good colour
(d) It is cheaper

Answer

Answer: (a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization

---

Question 21.
In vacuum, the speed of light depends upon :
(a) frequency
(b) velocity
(c) wave length
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

---

Question 22.
The fringe width (β) of a diffraction pattern and the slit width d are related as:
(a) β ∝ d
(b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)
(c) β ∝ √d
(d) β ∝ \(\frac{1}{d^2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)

---

Question 23.
C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel prize for his work associated with which of the following phenomenon of radiations?
(a) scattering
(b) diffraction
(c) interference
(d) polarisation

Answer

Answer: (a) scattering

---

Question 24.
Light takes 10^-10 to cross a glass slab. What is the thickness of the glass slab?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 3.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 cm

---

Question 25.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is:
(a) bright
(b) dark
(c) first bright and later dark
(d) first dark and later bright

Answer

Answer: (a) bright

---

Question 26.
Between the slit is id\ the distance between the slit and the screen is α, with light of wavelength λ, the number of fringe observed per metre on the screen is:
(a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)
(b) \(\frac{Dα}{λ}\)
(c) \(\frac{α}{Dλ}\)
(d) \(\frac{λd}{D}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)

---

Question 27.
In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled and the separation between the slit is reduced to half. The fringe width:
(a) is doubled
(b) become four time
(c) is halfed
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) become four time

---

Question 28.
In a Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit is 1 mm and the distance of screen from the slit is 1 m. If light of wavelength 6000 A is used then the fringe width is:
(a) 0.4 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 0.6 mm
(d) 0.8 mm

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.6 mm

---

Question 29.
A person cannot see object clearly beyond 50 cm. The pow er of the lens to correct his vision is :
(a) +0.5 dioptre
(b) -0.5 dioptre
(c) -2 dioptre
(d) +2 dioptre

Answer

Answer: (c) -2 dioptre

---

Question 30.
A phase difference of 5π corresponds to a path difference (in terms of λ) of:
(a) 5λ
(b) 10λ.
(c) 5λ/2
(d) 2λ

Answer

Answer: (c) 5λ/2

---

Question 31.
A polaroid produces a strong beam of light which is :
(a) circularly polarised
(b) elliptically polarised
(c) plane polarised
(d) unpolarised

Answer

Answer: (c) plane polarised

---

Question 32.
Images of a distant lamp seen through a fire cloth rotate on rotating the cloth. This is due to the phenomenon of:
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) scattering

Answer

Answer: (b) diffraction

---

Question 33.
A young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of interference fringes formed on a screen is :
(a) parabola
(b) straight line
(c) circle
(d) hyperbola

Answer

Answer: (b) straight line

---

Question 34.
A monochromatic light is refracted from air into a glass of refractive index µ. The ratio of the wavelengths of the incident and the refracted waves is:
(a) 1 : µ
(b) 1 : µ²
(c) µ : 1
(d) µ² : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) µ : 1

---

Question 35.
The focal length of the lens is 50 cm; then its power is:
(a) +2D
(b) +1D
(c) -2D
(d) -1D

Answer

Answer: (a) +2D

---

Question 36.
In the above question, the number of the lens is:
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) -2
(d) -1

Answer

Answer: (a) +2

---

Question 37.
The refractive index of diamond is about:
(a) 1
(b) 1.42
(c) 2.42
(d) 4.24

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.42

---

Question 38.
Two lenses having power +6 D and -4 D are placed in contact. The power of the combination is
(a) -2D
(b) -4D
(c) +4D
(d) +2 D

Answer

Answer: (d) +2 D

---

Question 39.
Diffraction was discovered by :
(a) Grimaldi
(b) Thomas Young
(c) Malus
(d) Huygens

Answer

Answer: (a) Grimaldi

---

Question 40.
The electromagnetic wave theory of light fails to explain :
(a) compton effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) compton effect

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Wave Optics CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Physics MCQ:

• Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQ
• Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Class 12 MCQ
• Current Electricity Class 12 MCQ
• Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 MCQ
• Magnetism and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 MCQ
• Alternating Current Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ
• Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 MCQ
• Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ
• Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Atoms Class 12 MCQ
• Nuclei Class 12 MCQ
• Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQ
• Communication Systems Class 12 MCQ

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQs On Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Choose the correct option:

Class 9 History Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
The leader of the Bolshevik party was
(a) Stalin
(b) Lenin
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Louis Blanc

Answer

Answer: (b) Lenin

---

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution MCQ Question 2.
Tsarist power in Russia collapsed in the year
(a) 1905
(b) 1916
(c) 1917
(d) 1920

Answer

Answer: (c) 1917

---

Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQ Question 3.
Tsarina Alexandra was of the
(a) German origin
(b) French origin
(c) Russian origin
(d) Dutch origin

Answer

Answer: (a) German origin

---

Class 9 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
Jadidists were ………………… within the Russian empire.
(a) Muslim reformers
(b) Muslim educationists
(c) Parsi reformers
(d) German refugees

Answer

Answer: (a) Muslim reformers

---

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
The main occupation of the people of Russia in the beginning of the twentieth century was
(a) manufacturing
(b) poultry farming
(c) fishing
(d) agriculture

Answer

Answer: (d) agriculture

---

History Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 6.
A Labour Party in Britain was formed by socialist and
(a) trade unionists
(b) peasants
(c) industrialists
(d) young students

Answer

Answer: (a) trade unionists

---

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution MCQ With Answers Question 7.
The Central powers during the First World War included countries like Germany, Turkey and
(a) France
(b) Austria
(c) Britain
(d) Russia

Answer

Answer: (b) Austria

---

Class 9 History Ch 2 MCQ Question 8.
The name associated with April Theses is
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Robert Owen
(c) Lenin
(d) Stalin

Answer

Answer: (c) Lenin

---

History Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 9.
The successor of Lenin was
(a) Stalin
(b) Kerenskii
(c) Trotskii
(d) Louis Blance

Answer

Answer: (a) Stalin

---

Ch 2 History Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Budeonovka was the name given to the Soviet
(a) boots
(b) coat
(c) scarf
(d) hat

Answer

Answer: (d) hat

---

MCQ Questions For Class 9 History Chapter 2 Question 11.
Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
(a) Nationalists
(b) conservatives
(c) liberals
(d) radicals

Answer

Answer: (b) conservatives

---

Class 9th History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 12.
Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Socialism In Europe And Russian Revolution MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?
(a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra
(b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin
(c) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

---

Chapter 2 History Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise
(b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Ncert Class 9 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution occurred
(b) New cities came up
(c) Railways expanded
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 16.
Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
(a) Bismarck
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) Giuseppe Mazzini

---

Question 17.
What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours
(b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 18.
In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against
(a) Britain and France
(b) Germany and Austria
(c) America
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Germany and Austria

---

Question 19.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down
(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down
(c) Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 20.
On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called
(a) Soviet Council
(b) Petrograd Soviet
(c) Moscow Union
(d) Russian Council

Answer

Answer: (b) Petrograd Soviet

---

Question 21.
Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin’s ‘April Theses’?
(a) World War I should be brought to an end
(b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalised
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 22.
Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Friedrich Engels
(c) Vladimir Lenin
(d) Trotsky

Answer

Answer: (c) Vladimir Lenin

---

Question 23.
Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?
(a) October Revolution in 1917
(b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919
(d) February Revolution in 1920

Answer

Answer: (a) October Revolution in 1917

---

Question 24.
At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:
(a) Industrial sector
(b) Agricultural sector
(c) Mining sector
(d) Transport sector

Answer

Answer: (b) Agricultural sector

---

Question 25.
The commune of farmers was known as:
(a) Tsar
(b) Duma
(c) Mir
(d) Cossacks

Answer

Answer: (c) Mir

---

Look at the picture (NCERT Text book page 30) given below and write a few lines about him.

Answer

Answer:
He is Tsar Nicholas II who ruled Russia and its empire till the revolution. He proved to be a very corrupt and inefficient Tsar who never paid attention to the welfare for his people. His weak personality and failure in the assessment of the situation led to his downfall.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

• The French Revolution Class 9 MCQ
• Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQ
• Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 MCQ
• Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 MCQ
• Pastoralists in the Modern World MCQ
• Peasants and Farmers Class 9 MCQ
• History and Sport The Story of Cricket Class 9 MCQ
• Clothing A Social History Class 9 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 7 MCQs On Equilibrium

MCQ On Equilibrium Class 11 Question 1.
The solubility of Ca₃​(PO₄​​)₂​ in water is y mol/L. Its solubility product is:
(a) 6y²
(b) 36 y⁴
(c) 64 y⁵
(d) 108 y⁵

Answer

Answer: (d) 108 y⁵
Explanation:

= (3y)³ × (2y)²
= 27 y³ × 4y²
= 108 y⁵

---

Buffer pH Calculator makes it easy for you to determine the theoretical yield value of the chemical reaction in fraction of seconds with steps.

Equilibrium Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH = 3.85 that efficiently resists changes in pH yet contains only small concentration of the buffering agents. Which of the following weak acids together with its sodium salt would be best to use?
(a) 2, 5-Dihydroxy benzoic acid (pK_a = 2.97)
(b) Acetoacetic acid (pK_a = 3.58)
(c) m-Chlorobenzoic acid (pK_a = 3.98)
(d) p-Chlorocinnamic acid (pK_a = 4.41)

Answer

Answer: (b) Acetoacetic acid (pK_a = 3.58)
Explanation:
For small concentration of buffering agent and for maximum buffer capacity
[Salt]/ [Acid] ≈ 1
i.e., pH = pK_a

---

MCQ On Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Question 3.
Which of the following aqueous solutions will have highest pH?
(a) NaCl
(b) CH₃COONa
(c) Na₂CO₃
(d) NH₄Cl

Answer

Answer: (c) Na₂CO₃
Explanation:
NaCl is salt of strong acid and strong base so it has pH of about 7.
NH₄Cl is salt of strong acid and weak base so it has pH is much less than 7.
CH₃​COONH₄ is salt of weak acid and weak base so it has pH of about 7.
Na₂​CO₃ is salt of weak acid and strong base so it has pH is much greater than 7.

---

Equilibrium MCQ Class 11 Question 4.
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of barium hydroxide, Ba (OH)₂?
(a) 11.31
(b) 11.7
(c) 13.30
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 13.30
Explanation:
pH = 13.30
Barium hydroxide is a strong base for both stages of dissociation:
Ba (OH)₂(s) → Ba²⁺ + 2OH^–
So the solution will have 0.20 M hydroxide ions. Now use the auto dissociation product for water:
[H⁺][OH^–] = 1.0 × 10^-14M
[OH^–] = 2.0 × 10^-1M
[H⁺] = 5.0 × 10^-14M
And then pH = −log₁₀ ([H+] = 5.0 × 10^-14)
= 13.30.

---

MCQ Of Equilibrium Class 11 Question 5.
Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(a) CaO
(b) SiO₂
(c) BeO
(d) B₂O₃

Answer

Answer: (a) CaO
Explanation:
CaO being a basic oxide does not react with NaOH, however SiO₂ (acidic oxide), BeO (amphoteric oxide) and Br₂O₃ (acidic oxide) react with NaOH.

---

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ Question 6.
The pH of a 10^-10 M NaOH solution is nearest to
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 4
(d) -10

Answer

Answer: (c) 4
Explanation:
pOH= −log [OH^–]
= −log 10^-10
= 10 log 10
= 10pH + pOH
= 14pH
= 14−pOH
= 14−10
= 4

---

Chemical Equilibrium MCQs Class 11 Question 7.
A weak acid HX has the dissociation constant 1 × 10^-5 M. It forms a salt NaX on reaction with alkali. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.1 M solution of NaX is
(a) 0.0001%
(b) 0.01%
(c) 0.1%
(d) 0.15%

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.01%
Explanation:
NaX: Salt of weak acid, strong base.
⇒ α = (√Kh/c)
= √ (Kw)/ (KaC)
= (10^-14)/(10^-5×0.1)
= 10^-4
⇒ % hydrolysis = 0.01%

---

MCQ On Chemical Equilibrium With Answers Question 8.
When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the hydroxide ion concentration is
(a) 7.0
(b) 1.04
(c) 12.65
(d) 2.0

Answer

Answer: (c) 12.65
Explanation:
When equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed, the hydroxide ion concentration is
(0.1 – 0.01)/(2)
​= 0.045 M
The pOH of the solution is pOH = −log [OH^–]
= −log 0.045
= 1.35
The pH of the solution is pH = 14 − pOH
= 14 − 1.35
= 12.65

---

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Question 9.
Concentration of the Ag⁺ ions in a saturated solution of Ag₂C₂O₄ is 2.2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1. Solubility product of Ag₂C₂O₄₂ is
(a) 2.66 × 10^-12
(b) 4.5 × 10^-11
(c) 5.3 × 10^-12
(d) 2.42 × 10^-8

Answer

Answer: (c) 5.3 × 10^-12
Explanation:
[Ag⁺] = 2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1
[C₂​O₄^2-] = 0.5[Ag⁺] = 0.5 × 2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1 = 1.1 × 10^-4 mol L^-1
K_sp ​=[Ag⁺]² [C₂O₄^2-​]K_sp
= (2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1)² × 1.1 × 10^-4 mol L^-1
K_sp = 5.3 × 10^-12

---

Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 MCQ Question 10.
In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, if the concentration of any one of the reactants is doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
(a) Also be Doubled
(b) Be Halved
(c) Remain the Same
(d) Become One-Fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) Remain the Same
Explanation:
Equilibrium constants are not changed if you change the concentrations of things present in the equilibrium. The only thing that changes an equilibrium constant is a change of temperature.

The position of equilibrium is changed if you change the concentration of something present in the mixture. According to Le Chateliers Principle, the position of equilibrium moves in such a way as to tend to undo the change that you have made.

According to Le Chateliers Principle, if you increase the concentration of Reactant, for example, the position of equilibrium will move to the right to decrease the concentration of reactant again.

---

Chapter 7 Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Question 11.
When a neutral atom undergoes oxidation, the atoms oxidation state
(a) Decreases as it gains electrons
(b) Decreases as it loses electrons
(c) Increases as it gains electrons
(d) Increases as it loses electrons

Answer

Answer: (d) Increases as it loses electrons
Explanation:
The acronym “OILRIG” can be used to remember this: Oxidation is Losing electrons, Reduction is Gaining electrons. Therefore, when an atom undergoes oxidation, it loses electrons. This makes its net charge more positive, so its oxidation state increases.

---

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 12.
Concentration of the Ag^-4 ions in a saturated solution of Ag₂C₂O₄ is 2.2 × (a) 10^-4 mol L^-1. Solubility product of Ag₂C₂O₄ is
(b) 2.66 × 10^-12
(c) 4.5 × 10^-11
(d) 5.3 × 10^-12
2.42 × 10^-8

Answer

Answer: (c) 4.5 × 10^-11
Explanation:
[Ag⁺] = 2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1
[C₂​O₄^2-] = 0.5[Ag⁺] = 0.5 × 2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1 =1.1×10^-4 mol L^-1
K_sp ​= [Ag⁺]² [C₂​O₄^2-​] K_sp
= (2.2 × 10^-4 mol L^-1)² × 1.1 × 10^-4 mol L^-1
K_sp = 5.3 × 10^-12

---

Class 11 Chemistry Equilibrium MCQ Question 13.
Among the following the weakest Bronsted base is
(a) F^–
(b) Cl^–
(c) Br^–
(d) I^–

Answer

Answer: (d) I^–
Explanation:
According to this theory, an acid is a proton donor and a base is a proton acceptor. Every strong Bronsted acid has a weak conjugate base and every strong base has a weak conjugate acid. The acidity increases in halogen group atoms,
HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
So, HI is highly acidic and their conjugate bases decrease in order F^– > Cl^– > Br^– > I^–.

---

Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 14.
A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X^– and HX. The k_a for HX is 10^-8. The pH of the buffer is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (b) 8
Explanation:
k_a k_b = k_w
k_b = 10^-8
k_a × 10^-8 = 10^-14
k_a = 10^-6 = [H⁺]
pH = −log [H⁺]
pH = −log 10^-6
= 6pH + pOH
= 14 pOH
= 14−6
= 8

---

Class 11 Equilibrium MCQ Question 15.
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of barium hydroxide, Ba (OH)₂?
(a) 11.31
(b) 11.7
(c) 13.30
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 13.30
Explanation:
pH =13.30
Barium hydroxide is a strong base for both stages of dissociation:
Ba (OH)₂(s) → Ba²⁺ + 2OH^–
So the solution will have 0.20 M hydroxide ions. Now use the auto dissociation product for water:
[H⁺][OH^–] = 1.0×10^-14M
[OH^–] = 2.0 × 10^-1M
[H⁺] = 5.0 × 10^-14M
And then pH = −log₁₀ ([H⁺] = 5.0 × 10^-14)
= 13.30.

---

Chemical Equilibrium MCQs Question 16.
Solubility of M₂S salt is 3.5 × 10^-6 then find out solubility product.
(a) 1.7 × 10^-6
(b) 1.7 × 10^-16
(c) 1.7 × 10^-18
(d) 1.7 × 10^-12

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.7 × 10^-16
Explanation:
Let ”s“ be the solubility of salt M₂​S which undergoes dissociation as follows :-
M₂​S ⇌ 2M⁺ +S^-2
Initial concentration 1 0 0
Concentration at equilibrium 1-s 2s s
Hence, the solubility product (K_sp) = (s) × (2s)²
Therefore, K_sp = 4 × s³
Or K_sp​​ = 4× (3.5×10^-6)³
⇒ K_sp​
= 1.7 × 10^-16

---

Ch 7 Chemistry Class 11 MCQ Question 17.
Among the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of K_sp at ordinary temperature (about 25°C ) is
(a) Mg (OH)₂
(b) Ca(OH)₂
(c) Ba(OH)₂
(d) Be(OH)₂

Answer

Answer: (d) Be(OH)₂
Explanation:
Be(OH)₂ ​has the lowest value of K_sp at ordinary temperature because Be²⁺ ion is smaller than the other metal ions in the group, which results in a tighter bond with the 0H^– ions, thus much lower solubility.

The solubility of a hydroxide of group 2 elements increases down the group because as you go down the group size of metal increases thereby increasing the bond length and decreasing bond energy.

---

Chemical Equilibrium MCQ Class 11 Question 18.
Which of the following mixtures in aqueous solution of equimolar concentration acts as a buffer solution?
(a) HNO₃ and NaOH
(b) H₂SO₄ and KOH
(c) NH₄OH(excess) + HCl
(d) CH₃COOH and NaOH(excess)

Answer

Answer: (c) NH₄OH(excess) + HCl
Explanation:
A mixture of ammonium hydroxide and HCl react to form ammonium chloride. This also contains unreacted ammonium hydroxide.
NH₄​ OH + HCl → NH₄Cl + H₂O
Thus, the resulting mixture of (NH₄OH+NH₄Cl) is a basic buffer solution. It contains a mixture of weak base ammonium hydroxide and its salt (ammonium chloride) with strong acid (HCl).
It is used in a qualitative analysis of group III radicals.
A mixture of HNO₃ and NaOH is a mixture of strong acid and strong base similarly a mixture of
H₂​SO₄ and KOH is also a mixture of strong acid and strong base, thus they do not form buffer solution.
Similarly, in option 4 mixture will form a strong base and salt of strong base weak acid hence it will not form a buffer solution.

---

Chemical Equilibrium MCQ With Answers Question 19.
Which of the following aqueous solutions will have highest pH?
(a) NaCl
(b) CH₃COONa
(c) Na₂CO₃
(d) NH₄Cl

Answer

Answer: (c) Na₂CO₃
Explanation:
NaCl is salt of strong acid and strong base so it has pH of about 7.
NH₄​Cl is salt of strong acid and weak base so it has pH is much less than 7.
CH₃COONH₄ is salt of weak acid and weak base so it has pH of about 7.
Na₂​CO₃ is salt of weak acid and strong base so it has pH is much greater than 7.

---

Question 20.
Amines behave as
(a) Lewis Acids
(b) Lewis Base
(c) Aprotic Acid
(d) Neutral Compound

Answer

Answer: (b) Lewis Base
Explanation:
R−NH₂ (Amines) behaves as a Lewis base because it is capable of donating a lone pair of electron.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Equilibrium MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Chemistry MCQ:

• Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQ
• Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ
• Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQ
• Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQ
• States of Matter Class 11 MCQ
• Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ
• Equilibrium Class 11 MCQ
• Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQ
• Hydrogen Class 11 MCQ
• The s-Block Elements Class 11 MCQ
• The p-Block Elements Class 11 MCQ
• Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQ
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQ
• Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQ

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 12 Chapter 14 MCQs On Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

MCQ On Semiconductor Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 1.
Bonds in a semiconductor :
(a) trivalent
(b) covalent
(c) bivalent
(d) monovalent

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent

---

Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 2.
Number of electrons in the valence shell of a semiconductor is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4

---

Class 12 Semiconductor MCQ Chapter 14 Question 3.
Semiconductors of both p-type and n-type are produced by:
(a) ionic solids
(b) covalent solids
(c) metallic solids
(d) molecular solids

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent solids

---

Semiconductor MCQ Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 4.
With fall of temperature, the forbidden energy gap of a semiconductor
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(d) remains unchanged

Answer

Answer: (d) remains unchanged

---

It can solve systems of linear equations or systems involving nonlinear function calculator.

Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Pdf Chapter 14 Question 5.
In a p-type semiconductor, current conduction is by:
(a) atoms
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) protons

Answer

Answer: (b) holes

---

MCQ Of Semiconductor Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 6.
The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by:
(a) n ∝ T
(b) n ∝ T²
(c) n ∝ T^1/2
(d) n ∝ T^3/2

Answer

Answer: (d) n ∝ T^3/2

---

Semiconductor MCQs Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 7.
In reverse biasing:
(a) large amount of current flows
(b) no current flows
(c) potential barrier across junction increases
(d) depletion layer resistance increases

Answer

Answer: (c) potential barrier across junction increases

---

Chapter 14 Physics Class 12 MCQs Chapter 14 Question 8.
Main function of a transistor is to :
(a) rectify
(b) simplify
(c) amplify
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) amplify

---

Semiconductor Questions And Answers Pdf Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 9.
To obtain p-type silicon semiconductor, we need to dope pure silicon with:
(a) aluminium
(b) phosphorus
(c) oxygen
(d)germanium

Answer

Answer: (a) aluminium

---

MCQ Semiconductor Physics Chapter 14 Question 10.
On applying reverse bias to a junction diode, it:
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raise the potential barrier
(c) increases the majority carrier current
(d) increases the minority carrier current

Answer

Answer: (b) raise the potential barrier

---

Semiconductor MCQ Chapter 14 Question 11.
For germanium crystal, the forbidden energy gap in joules
(a) 1.216 × 10^-19
(b) 1.76 × 10^-19
(c) 1.6 × 10^-19
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.216 × 10^-19

---

Semiconductors Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 12.
To obtain electrons as majority charge carriers in a semiconductors the impurity mixed is:
(a) monovalent
(b) divalent
(c) trivalent
(d) pentavalent

Answer

Answer: (b) divalent

---

Semiconductor Physics MCQ Chapter 14 Question 13.
In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse biased p-n junction, the:
(a) electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential zero.

Answer

Answer: (d) potential zero.

---

Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Pdf Download Chapter 14 Question 14.
In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and output voltage is :
(a) π/2
(b) 0
(c) π/4
(d) π

Answer

Answer: (b) 0

---

MCQ On Semiconductor Chapter 14 Question 15.
Energy bands in solids are a consequence of:
(a) Ohm’s Law
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

Answer

Answer: (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle

---

Semiconductor MCQ Questions Chapter 14 Question 16.
In semi conductor which are responsible for conduction:
(a) only electron
(b) electron and hole both
(c) only hole
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) electron and hole both

---

Semiconductor Devices MCQ Chapter 14 Question 17.
In binary system III represents:
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 7

---

Semiconductors MCQ Chapter 14 Question 18.
On heating, resistance of semiconductors:
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases then decreases

Answer

Answer: (a) decreases

---

MCQ Questions On Semiconductors Chapter 14 Question 19.
p-n junction diode can be used as:
(a) amplifier
(b) oscillator
(c) detector
(d) modulator

Answer

Answer: (c) detector

---

Question 20.
In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes are:
(a) equal
(b) unequal
(c) infinite
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) equal

---

Question 21.
A forward biased diode is:

Answer

Answer: (a)

---

Question 22.
In full wave rectifier, input a.c. current has a frequency v. The output frequency of current is :
(a) V/2
(b) V
(c) 2V
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) 2V

---

Question 23.
Winch of the following gate is not an universal gate?
(a) OR
(b) NOT
(c) AND
(d) NAND

Answer

Answer: (d) NAND

---

Question 24.
Zener diode is used for:
(a) producing oscillations in a oscillator
(b) amplification
(c) stabilisation
(d) rectification

Answer

Answer: (c) stabilisation

---

Question 25.
In semi conductor, at room temperature :
(a) the valence bond is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(b) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled
(d) the conduction band is completely empty

Answer

Answer: (a) the valence bond is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled

---

Question 26.
Crystal diode is:
(a) amplifying device
(b) fluctuating device
(c) non-linear device
(d) linear device

Answer

Answer: (c) non-linear device

---

Question 27.
The part of a transistor which is heavily doped to produce a large number of majority carriers is :
(a) base
(b) emitter
(c) collector
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) emitter

---

Question 28.
A p-type semiconductor is:
(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) uncharged
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) uncharged

---

Question 29.
The material most commonly used to manufacture electronic solid state devices is :
(a) copper
(b) silicon
(c) germanium
(d) aluminium

Answer

Answer: (b) silicon

---

Question 30.
What is the number of possible crystal systems?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 7

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Physics MCQ:

• Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 MCQ
• Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Class 12 MCQ
• Current Electricity Class 12 MCQ
• Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 MCQ
• Magnetism and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 MCQ
• Alternating Current Class 12 MCQ
• Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 MCQ
• Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 MCQ
• Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ
• Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Class 12 MCQ
• Atoms Class 12 MCQ
• Nuclei Class 12 MCQ
• Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQ
• Communication Systems Class 12 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Peasants and Farmers Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

History Class 9 Chapter 6 MCQs On Peasants and Farmers

Choose the correct option:

Class 9 History Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
In which year was the mechanical reaper invented?
(a) 1830
(b) 1831
(c) 1832
(d) 1833

Answer

Answer: (b) 1831

---

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
Which method of cultivation was adopted by the white settlers in the USA?
(a) shifting cultivation
(b) primitive cultivation
(c) intensive agriculture
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) shifting cultivation

---

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Which country was not involved in the triangular trade?
(a) England
(b) China
(c) India
(d) America

Answer

Answer: (d) America

---

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Pdf Question 4.
Which country became the bread basket of the world?
(a) England
(b) America
(c) Japan
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (b) America

---

Peasants And Farmers Class 9 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
The white settlers swept into the Great Plains across the River Mississippi after the
(a) 1830s
(b) 1840s
(c) 1850s
(d) 1860s

Answer

Answer: (d) 1860s

---

MCQ On Peasant And Tribal Movement Question 6.
The continuous movement of the pastoral communities helps in
(a) Recovery of the pastures
(b) prevention of their overuse
(c) Reduction in the demand of houses
(d) both A and B

Answer

Answer: (d) both A and B

---

Question 7.
why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(a) The land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(b) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and Minerals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It was a committed policy of the US Government

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 8.
Which of these reasons led to a radical transformation of the landscape by the early 20th century?
(a) White Americans had moved westward
(b) Local tribes were displaced
(c) Entire landscape was carved into different agricultural belts in the USA
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 9.
In the 19th century, the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world Market were
(a) indigo
(b) opium
(c) maize
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

---

Question 10.
Name the US President who said “Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war.”
(a) President Roosevelt
(b) President Clinton
(c) President Bush
(d) President Wilson

Answer

Answer: (d) President Wilson

---

Question 11.
In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper. What was its most Important advantage?
(a) In could harvest 50 acres of wheat
(b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks
(c) It could cut grass on large areas
(d) It could prepare the ground for cultivation

Answer

Answer: (b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks

---

Question 12.
What did the settlers of the Great Plains realise after the 1930s?
(a) Using older methods of cultivation were better than modern machines
(b) Competition with other countries was not healthy
(c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region

---

Question 13.
In 1839, who was sent by the Emperor to Canton as a Special Commissioner to stop the opium trade?
(a) I-tsing
(b) Lin Ze-xu
(c) Lao-Tsu
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

---

Question 14.
What did the enclosure imply?
(a) It meant green fields
(b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides
(c) It meant open fields
(d) Vast area of marshy land

Answer

Answer: (b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides

---

Question 15.
Opium was exported from India to:
(a) China
(b) Rome
(c) U.K.
(d) Portugal

Answer

Answer: (a) China

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Peasants and Farmers CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science History:

• The French Revolution Class 9 MCQ
• Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQ
• Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 MCQ
• Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 MCQ
• Pastoralists in the Modern World MCQ
• Peasants and Farmers Class 9 MCQ
• History and Sport The Story of Cricket Class 9 MCQ
• Clothing A Social History Class 9 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 11 Chapter 21 MCQs On Neural Control and Coordination

Neural Control And Coordination MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
(a) Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
(b) Pupil constriction
(c) Acceleration of heart beat
(d) Contraction of hair muscles

Answer

Answer: (b) Pupil constriction

---

MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Question 2.
During resting state, fluid outside axon contains
(a) low concentration of K⁺
(b) low concentration of Na⁺
(c) low concentration of Cl^–
(d) high concentration of Cl^–

Answer

Answer: (a) low concentration of K⁺
Explanation:
During resting state (when neuron is not conducting any impulse), axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K⁺
The fluid outside axon contains low concentration of K⁺.

---

Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 MCQ Question 3.
The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Thalamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Medulla oblongata

---

MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Class 11 Question 4.
The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of
(a) Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
(b) A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
(c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
(d) Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions

Answer

Answer: (c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation

---

MCQs On Neural Control And Coordination Question 5.
The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
(a) Generation of end-plate potential
(b) Release of calcium from troponin
(c) Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
(d) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

Answer

Answer: (b) Release of calcium from troponin

---

Control And Coordination Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 6.
Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?
(a) Thalamus
(b) Reticular formation
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Limbic system

Answer

Answer: (d) Limbic system

---

Neural Control And Coordination MCQs Question 7.
Vestibular apparatus is made up of three semi circular canals. These canals lies at ____ degree angle to each other.
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (d) 90
Explanation:
Semicircular canals lies at right angle to each other.

---

MCQ Of Neural Control And Coordination Question 8.
At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Acetylcholine

---

MCQ Questions On Neural Control And Coordination Question 9.
There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 25

Answer

Answer: (b) 12

---

Questions On Neural Control And Coordination Question 10.
When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
(b) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(c) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(d) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

Answer

Answer: (a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

---

Neural Control And Coordination MCQ Pdf Question 11.
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(a) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(c) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(d) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

Answer

Answer: (b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations

---

Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Important Questions Question 12.
The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
(a) Initiate the heart beat
(b) Reduce the heart beat
(c) Accelerate the heart beat
(d) Maintain constant heart beat

Answer

Answer: (b) Reduce the heart beat

---

Neural Control And Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Question 13.
Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
(a) Abducens nerve
(b) Oculomotor nerve
(c) Olfactory nerve
(d) Trigeminal nerve

Answer

Answer: (d) Trigeminal nerve

---

MCQ On Neural Control And Coordination Pdf Question 14.
Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
(a) Peristalsis
(b) Digestion
(c) Excretion
(d) Memory and learning

Answer

Answer: (d) Memory and learning

---

Class 11 MCQ Questions Biology Question 15.
Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.
(a) Parasympathetic
(b) Sympathetic
(c) Central nervous
(d) Autonomic

Answer

Answer: (d) Autonomic

---

Neural Control And Coordination Questions Question 16.
Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
(a) Satellite cells
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer

Answer: (b) Schwann cells

---

Question 17.
Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?
(a) Piamater
(b) Arachnoid
(c) Duramater
(d) Piamater and Arachnoid

Answer

Answer: (a) Piamater
Explanation:
Brain is covered by cranial meninges.
1) Duramater (outer)
2) Arachnoid (middle)
3) Piamater (inner)- in contact with brain tissues)

---

Question 18.
The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Meninges

Answer

Answer: (c) Cerebral cortex

---

Question 19.
Find the odd one.
(a) Schwann cells
(b) Nissl s granules
(c) nephrons
(d) synaptic knob

Answer

Answer: (c) nephrons
Explanation:
Schwann cells, Nissl s granules and synaptic knobs are the parts of neurons.

---

Question 20.
Select the correct statement from the ones given below
(a) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(b) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(d) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

Answer

Answer: (c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Biology Neural Control and Coordination MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Biology MCQ:

• The Living World Class 11 MCQ
• Biological Classification Class 11 MCQ
• Plant Kingdom Class 11 MCQ
• Animal Kingdom Class 11 MCQ
• Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 MCQ
• Anatomy of Flowering Plants Class 11 MCQ
• Structural Organisation in Animals Class 11 MCQ
• Cell: The Unit of Life Class 11 MCQ
• Biomolecules Class 11 MCQ
• Cell Cycle and Cell Division Class 11 MCQ
• Transport in Plants Class 11 MCQ
• Mineral Nutrition Class 11 MCQ
• Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Class 11 MCQ
• Respiration in Plants Class 11 MCQ
• Plant Growth and Development Class 11 MCQ
• Digestion and Absorption Class 11 MCQ
• Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQ
• Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQ
• Excretory Products and their Elimination Class 11 MCQ
• Locomotion and Movement Class 11 MCQ
• Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 MCQ
• Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 10 MCQs On Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Good conductor of electricity and heat is
(a) Anthracite coke
(b) Diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) Charcoal

Answer

Answer: (c) Graphite

---

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 2.
In which of the following allotropes of carbon, percentage of carbon is maximum?
(a) Wood charcoal
(b) Coconut charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Graphite

---

MCQ Of Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 3.
The hybridisation of carbon in diamond is
(a) sp³
(b) sp²
(c) sp
(d) dsp²

Answer

Answer: (a) sp³

---

MCQ On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 4.
Organic compound must contain an element
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon
(c) hydrogen
(d) nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) carbon

---

Solve using Substitution Calculator solves the linear equations having unknown variables in a fraction of seconds.

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Question 5.
Alkene gives which of the following reactions?
(a) Addition reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

---

Class 12 Chemistry Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 6.
Single bond length between carbon-carbon is
(a) 1.34 Å
(b) 1.20 Å
(c) 1.54 Å
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.54 Å

---

Haloalkane And Haloarene MCQ Question 7.
Valency of carbon is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4

---

Class 12 Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 8.
Criteria for purity of organic solid is
(a) boiling point
(b) melting point
(c) specific gravity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) melting point

---

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
General formula of Alkene is
(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n+2
(c) C_nH_2n-2
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) C_nH_2n

---

MCQ Questions On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Question 10.
Hybridisation of carbon in ethane is
(a) sp³
(b) sp²
(c) sp
(d) sp³d²

Answer

Answer: (a) sp³

---

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 MCQ Question 11.
Number of π bonds in ethyne is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 2

---

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Class 12 Question 12.
The compound having general formula C_nH_2n+2 is
(a) Alkene
(b) Alkyne
(c) Alkane
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkane

---

MCQ Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Question 13.
Which of the following is not correctly matched with its IUPAC name?
(a) CHF₂CBrClF : 1-Bromo-1-chIoro-1, 2, 2-trifluoroethane
(b) (CCl₃)₃CCl : 2-(Trichloromethyl)-1, 1, 2, 3, 3-heptachloropropane
(c) CH₃C (p-ClC₆H₄)₂CH(Br)CH₃ : 2-Bromo-3, 3-bis (4- chlorophenyl) butane
(d) o-BrC₆H₄CH (CH₃) CH₂CH₃ : 2-Bromo-l- methylpropylbenzene

Answer

Answer: (b) (CCl₃)₃CCl : 2-(Trichloromethyl)-1, 1, 2, 3, 3-heptachloropropane

---

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQs Question 14.
The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double bond containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as
(a) Saytzeffs rule
(b) Peroxide rule
(c) Markovnikov’s rule
(d) van’t hoff rule

Answer

Answer: (c) Markovnikov’s rule

---

MCQ Questions On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 15.
Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinafed product upon free radical chlorination?
(a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(b) 2-Methylpropane
(c) 2-Methylbutane
(d) n-Butane

Answer

Answer: (a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane

---

Question 16.
The reaction

is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition
(b) free radical addition
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) electrophilic substitution

Answer

Answer: (c) electrophilic addition

---

Integration by Substitution Calculator online with solution and steps.

Question 17.
Halogen acids react with alcohols to form alkyl halides. The reaction follows a nucleophilic substitution mechanism. What will be the product of the following reaction?

(d) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl

Answer

Answer: (a)

---

Question 18.
Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight is a
(a) nucleophilic substitution
(b) free radical substitution
(c) electrophilic substitution
(d) nucleophilic addition

Answer

Answer: (b) free radical substitution

---

Question 19.
Which of the following reactions follows Markovnikov’s rule?
(a) C₂H₄ + HBr
(b) C₃H₆ + Cl₆
(c) C₃H₆ + HBr
(d) C₃H₆ + Br₂

Answer

Answer: (c) C₃H₆ + HBr

---

Question 20.
The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of FeCl₃ gives predominantly.
(a) amixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene
(b) benzyl chloride
(c) m-chlorotuluene
(d) benzoyl chloride

Answer

Answer: (a) amixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene

---

Question 21.
Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
(a)CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl
(b) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
(c) CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂Cl
(d) (CH₃)₃CCl

Answer

Answer: (b) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl

---

Question 22.
Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH₃Cl
(b) CH₂Cl₂
(c) CHCl₅
(d) CCl₄

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃Cl

---

Question 23.
Arrange the following compounds in-decreasing order of their boiling points
(i) CH₃Br
(ii) CH₃CH₂Br
(iii) CH₃CH₂CH₂Br
(iv) CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂Br
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

---

Question 24.

X and Y in the reaction are

Answer

Answer: (a)

---

Question 25.
Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they are polar because
(a) they react with water to give alcohols
(b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water
(c) C -X bond cannot be broken easily
(d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive

Answer

Answer: (b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water

---

Question 26.
Which one of the following is not correct order of boiling .points of the alkyl/aryl halides?
(a) CHCl₃ > CH₂Cl₂
(b) CH₃(CH₂)₃CI > CH₃(CH₂)₂Cl
(c) (CH₃)₃CCl > (CH₃)₂CHCH₂Cl
(d) CH₃(CH₂)₃Cl > CH₃CH₂CHClCH₃

Answer

Answer: (c) (CH₃)₃CCl > (CH₃)₂CHCH₂Cl

---

Question 27.
Which of the following compounds will have highest melting point?
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) o-Dichlorobenzene
(c) m-Dichlorobenzene
(d) p-Dichlorobenzene

Answer

Answer: (d) p-Dichlorobenzene

---

Question 28.
Ethyl alcohol is obtained when ethyl chloride is boiled with
(a) alcoholic KOH
(b) aqueous KOH
(c) water
(d) aqueous KMnO₄

Answer

Answer: (b) aqueous KOH

---

Question 29.
Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes hydrolysis with aqueous KOH at the fastest rate?
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl
(b) CH₃CH₂Cl
(C) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
(d) CH₃CH₂CH (Br) CH₃

Answer

Answer: (d) CH₃CH₂CH (Br) CH₃

---

Question 30.
Butane nitrile can be prepard by heating.
(a) propyl alcohol with KCN
(b) butyl chloride with KCN
(c) butyl alcohol with KCN
(d) propyl chloride with KCN

Answer

Answer: (d) propyl chloride with KCN

---

Question 31.
Which of the following reactions will give the major and minor products?

(a) (a) is major product and (b) is minor product
(b) (a) is minor product and (b) is major product
(c) Both (a) and (b) are major products
(d) Only (b) is formed and (a) is not formed

Answer

Answer: (a) (a) is major product and (b) is minor product

---

Question 32.

The final product in the reaction is
(a) CH₃OH
(b) HCOOH
(c) CH₃OH
(d) CH₃COOH

Answer

Answer: (d) CH₃COOH

---

Question 33.
The end product (Q) is in the following sequence of reaction

Answer

Answer: (c)

---

Question 34.
Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and silver bromide. This reaction is called
(a) Fittig reaction
(b) Swarts reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Finkelstein reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) Swarts reaction

---

Question 35.
The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by
(a) elimination
(b) dehydrohalogenation
(c) addition
(d) substitution

Answer

Answer: (d) substitution

---

Question 36.
A mixture of 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane when treated with alcoholic KOH gives
(a) prop-1-ene
(b) prop-2-ene
(c) a mixture of prop-1 -ene and prop-2-ene
(d) propanol

Answer

Answer: (a) prop-1-ene

---

Question 37.
An alkyl halide, RX reacts with KCN to given propane nitrile, RX is
(a) C₃H₇Br
(b) C₄H₉Br
(c) C₂H₅Br
(d) C₅H₁₁Br

Answer

Answer: (c) C₂H₅Br

---

Question 38.
In S_N² reactions with the sequence of bond breaking and bond formation is as follows
(a) bond breaking is followed by formation
(b) bond formation is followed by breaking
(c) bond breaking and formation are simultaneously
(d) bond breaking and formation take place randomly

Answer

Answer: (c) bond breaking and formation are simultaneously

---

Question 39.
Grignard reagents are formed by the reaction of alkyl halides by warming
(a) with alcoholic solution
(b) with MgCl₂
(c) Mg in presence of dry ether
(d) with MgCO₃

Answer

Answer: (c) Mg in presence of dry ether

---

Question 40.
Which of the following is the most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) ClCH₂– CH = CH₂
(b) CH₂ = CH-Cl
(c) CH₃CH = CH-Cl
(d) C₆H₆Cl

Answer

Answer: (a) ClCH₂-CH = CH₂

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Haloalkanes and Haloarenes CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Chemistry MCQ:

• The Solid State Class 12 MCQ
• Solutions Class 12 MCQ
• Electrochemistry Class 12 MCQ
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 MCQ
• Surface Chemistry Class 12 MCQ
• General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 MCQ
• The p-Block Elements Class 12 MCQ
• The d-and f-Block Elements Class 12 MCQ
• Coordination Compounds Class 12 MCQ
• Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 MCQ
• Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 MCQ
• Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Class 12 MCQ
• Amines Class 12 MCQ
• Biomolecules Class 12 MCQ
• Polymers Class 12 MCQ
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Evolution Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 7 MCQs On Evolution

MCQ On Evolution Class 12 Pdf Chapter 7 Question 1.
Missing link in evolution is:
(a) Pheretima
(b) Limulus
(c) Peripatus
(d) Archaeopterys

Answer

Answer: (d) Archaeopterys

---

Evolution Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 2.
Hardy-Weinberg principle explains :
(a) Chromosomal
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Genetic equilibrium
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Genetic equilibrium

---

MCQ On Evolution Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 3.
As per Neo-Darwinism, which is mainly responsible for evolution?
(a) Mutation
(b) Natural drift
(c) Both of these
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural drift

---

MCQ On Evolution Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 4.
Dispersal of population depends on:
(a) On immigration
(b) On Emigration
(c) On Migration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Evolution MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 5.
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
(a) Ontogeny
(b) Phytogeny
(c) Ancestry
(d) Palaentolgy

Answer

Answer: (b) Phytogeny

---

MCQs On Evolution With Answers Pdf Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 6.
Book ‘Philosophique Zoologique’ was written by:
(a) Lamarck
(b) Mendel
(c) Darwin
(d) Hugo-devries

Answer

Answer: (a) Lamarck

---

MCQs On Evolution Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 7.
Which one of the following phenomenon supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of‘Dolly the sheep’ by cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘Stem cells’ for organ transplantation

Answer

Answer: (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects

---

MCQs Of Biology Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 8.
The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:
(a) Ominis vivum-e-eellula
(b) Omminis cellula-e-cellula
(c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny
(d) Phytogeny repeats ontogeny

Answer

Answer: (c) Ontogeny repeats phytogeny

---

Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
Wings of Butterfly and birds are:
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Analogous organs

---

MCQ Of Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 Question 10.
Theory of Pangenesis was given by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Weismann
(d) DeVries

Answer

Answer: (a) Darwin

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Evolution CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

• Reproduction in Organisms Class 12 MCQ
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQ
• Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQ
• Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ
• Principles of Inheritance and Variation Class 12 MCQ
• Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ
• Evolution Class 12 MCQ
• Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQ
• Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 MCQ
• Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 MCQ
• Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQ
• Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQ
• Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQ
• Ecosystem Class 12 MCQ
• Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQ

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 Biology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQs On Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 MCQ Question 1.
Pollination in Lotus is:
(a) By water
(b) By wind
(c) By insect
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By water

---

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants MCQ Question 2.
Haploid plants develop by pollen are called ……..
(a) Emasculation
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) androgenesis
(d) somatic hybridization

Answer

Answer: (d) somatic hybridization

---

Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Closed flower:
(a) Decliny
(b) Cteistogamy
(c) Dichogamy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Cteistogamy

---

MCQ Of Chapter 2 Biology Class 12 Question 4.
Demerit of self pollinatlon is:
(a) Unisexua
(b) Dichoganty
(c) Hetorostyle
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Dichoganty

---

Chapter 2 Biology Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Which structure is not found in Angiosperm?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Carpel
(c) Anther
(d) Magagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium

---

Chapter 2 Biology Class 12 MCQs Question 6.
Normal Embryosac of Angiosperm is :
(a) Unicellular
(b) Bicelled
(c) Penta celled
(d) Seven called

Answer

Answer: (a) Unicellular

---

Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQs Question 7.
Commonly in a mature fertilized ovule n, 2n, 3n conditions are respectively found in :
(a) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
(b) Egg. antipodals and endosperm
(c) Integuments, synergids and egg
(d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm

Answer

Answer: (d) Egg, nucellus and endosperm

---

Biology Chapter 2 Class 12 MCQs Question 8.
After fertilization ovule develops into:
(a) Integument
(b) Seed
(c) Embryo
(d) Endosperm

Answer

Answer: (b) Seed

---

Chapter 2 Class 12 Biology MCQ Question 9.
Parthenogenesis is common in :
(a) Grape
(b) Mango
(c) Citrus
(d) Litchi

Answer

Answer: (a) Grape

---

Class 12 Chapter 2 Biology MCQ Question 10.
An orthrotropous ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are :
(a) Oblique to funiculus
(b) At right angles to funiculus
(c) In straight line with funiculus
(d) Parallel to funiculus

Answer

Answer: (c) In straight line with funiculus

---

Chapter 2 Bio Class 12 MCQ Question 11.
In an ovule meiotic takes place in:
(a) Nucellus
(b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Megaspore
(d) Archesporium

Answer

Answer: (b) Megaspore mother cell

---

Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 12.
In Capsella the endosperm in generally:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Tetraploid

Answer

Answer: (c) Triploid

---

MCQ Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 Question 13.
All of the following structures are found in angiosperms except ?
(a) Archegonium
(b) Pistil
(c) Anther
(d) Megagametophyte

Answer

Answer: (a) Archegonium

---

Class 12th Biology Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
Totipotency is
(a) Development of a fruit from a flower in a medium
(b) Development of an organ from a cell in a medium
(c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium
(d) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

Answer

Answer: (c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

---

Class 12 Biology Ch 2 MCQ Question 15.
Who proved that the cells are totipotent?
(a) White
(b) Skoog
(c) Miller
(d) Steward

Answer

Answer: (d) Steward

---

Question 16.
A typical angiospermic embryo sac is usually:
(a) One-celled
(b) Two-celled
(c) Five-celled
(d) seven-celled

Answer

Answer: (d) seven-celled

---

Question 17.
Fatheroflndian Angiosperm Embnology is:
(a) B. M. John
(b) B. G L. Swami
(c) R.N. Kapil
(d) P. Maheshwari

Answer

Answer: (d) P. Maheshwari

---

Question 18.
If cotyledons are brought above the soil the germination is:
(a) Hypogeal
(b) Epigeal
(c) Vivipaiy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Epigeal

---

Question 19.
Polymbryony occurs in:
(a) Maize
(b) Citrus
(c) Corchorus
(d) Carthamus

Answer

Answer: (b) Citrus

---

Question 20.
In Monocots, grafting is almost impossible because they lack :
(a) Cambium
(b) Ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundle
(d) Parenchymatous cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Cambium

---

Question 21.
Double fertilization in angiosperms was discovered by:
(a) Strassburger
(b) J. C. Bose
(c) Maheshwari
(d) Nawaschin

Answer

Answer: (d) Nawaschin

---

Question 22.
How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 100 pollen grains ?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (c) 25

---

Question 23.
Double fertilization means:
(a) Fusion of two eggs
(b) Fusion of egg and pollen nuder of two pollen grains
(c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete
(d) Fusion between synergid cells and male gamete

Answer

Answer: (c) Fusion of two polar nuclei with one male gamete

---

Question 24.
Pollination by bats is called:
(a) omithophily
(b) Entromophily
(c) Cheiropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) omithophily

---

Question 25.
Pollination by snails is called:
(a) Malecophily
(b) Zoophily
(c) Anemophily
(d) Hydrophily

Answer

Answer: (a) Malecophily

---

Question 26.
Development of fruit without fertilizations is:
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Heterostyly
(c) Parthenocarpy
(d) Agamospermy

Answer

Answer: (c) Parthenocarpy

---

Question 27.
Who discovered fertilization?
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Strassburger
(c) Leeuwen Hock
(d) Robert Hook

Answer

Answer: (b) Strassburger

---

Question 28.
When more than one embryoper embryosac is found. It is called:
(a) Embryogeny
(b) Amphimisis
(c) Agamospormy
(d) Polyembryoni

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyembryoni

---

Question 29.
When pollen tube enter into the nucellus through micropyle is called:
(a) Porogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Mesogamy
(d) Dikogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Porogamy

---

Question 30.
Maturation of male and female sex organs at different times is known as:
(a) Herkogamy
(b) Dichogamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) Apogamy

Answer

Answer: (a) Herkogamy

---

Question 31.
Stalk of ovule is called :
(a) Funicle
(b) Caruncle
(c) Nucellus
(d) Pedicel

Answer

Answer: (a) Funicle

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 12 Biology MCQ:

• Reproduction in Organisms Class 12 MCQ
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQ
• Human Reproduction Class 12 MCQ
• Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ
• Principles of Inheritance and Variation Class 12 MCQ
• Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQ
• Evolution Class 12 MCQ
• Human Health and Disease Class 12 MCQ
• Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 MCQ
• Microbes in Human Welfare Class 12 MCQ
• Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQ
• Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQ
• Organisms and Populations Class 12 MCQ
• Ecosystem Class 12 MCQ
• Environmental Issues Class 12 MCQ