MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?
(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

Answer

Answer: (b) Sunflower


Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 2.
Which one is not a source of carbohydrate?
(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

Answer

Answer: (d) Gram


Class 9 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 3.
Find out the wrong statement from the following.
(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Find out the wrong statement from the following.

MCQ Of Improvement In Food Resources Question 4.
To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?
(a) Increased production and storage of food grains
(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Class 9 Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 5.
Find out the correct sentence.
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called as inter specific hybridisation
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridisation
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 Question 6.
Weeds affect the crop plants by
(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients
(d) all of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients


MCQ Questions Of Ch Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following species of honeybee is an Italian species?
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florae
(c) Apis cerana indica
(d) Apis mellifera

Answer

Answer: (d) Apis mellifera


Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Find out the correct sentence about manure.
(i) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and small quantities of nutrients.
(ii) It increases the water holding capacity of sandy soil.
(iii) It helps in draining out of excess of water from clayey soil.
(iv) Its excessive use pollutes environment because it is made of animal excretory waste.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (i) and (ii)


Class 9 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 9.
Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes:
(i) Milk production
(ii) Agricultural work
(iii) Meat production
(iv) Egg production
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)


MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Question 10.
Which of the following are Indian cattle?
(i) Bos indicus
(ii) Bos domestica
(iii) Bos bubalis
(iv) Bos vulgaris
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


Class 9 Chapter 15 Science MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following are exotic breeds?
(i) Brawn
(ii) Jersey
(iii) Brown Swiss
(iv) Jersey Swiss
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)


MCQs On Improvement In Food Resources Question 12.
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise following
(i) Egg production
(ii) Feather production
(iii) Chicken meat
(iv) Milk production
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 13.
Poultry fowl are susceptible to the following pathogens
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Food Production Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder?
(a) Rohus
(b) Mrigals
(c) Common carps
(d) Catlas

Answer

Answer: (d) Catlas


MCQ Of Chapter 15 Science Class 9 Question 15.
Animal husbandry is the scientific management of
(i) animal breeding
(ii) culture of animals
(iii) animal livestock
(iv) rearing of animals
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)


Question 16.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 17.
Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include
(a) strict cleaning
(b) proper disjoining
(c) fumigation
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include

Fill in the blanks

1. There are ……………. nutrients essential for growth of crops.

Answer

Answer: 16


2. Manure and …………… are the main sources of nutrient supply to the crop plants.

Answer

Answer: fertilisers


3. Organic farming is a farming system with minimal or no use of …………..

Answer

Answer: chemicals


4. The growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is called ……………

Answer

Answer: crop rotation


5. Poultry farming is done to raise domestic …………….

Answer

Answer: fowl


6. Cross breeding is done between ……………. and …………… breeds for variety improvement.

Answer

Answer: indigenous, exotic


7. Marine fish capture is done by ……………. guided by echo-sounders and satellites.

Answer

Answer: marine fishery


8. Bee-keeping or ……………. is done to get honey and wax.

Answer

Answer: rearing the honeybee


9. The value or …………… of honey depends upon the pasturage available.

Answer

Answer: quality


10. The …………….. bees have high honey collection capacity and sting somewhat less.

Answer

Answer: Apis mellifera


11. Fishing can be done both by ………….. and …………… of fish in marine and freshwater ecosystems.

Answer

Answer: capture, culture


12. Animal feed includes ……………. which is largely fibre, and …………….. which are low in fibre and contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients.

Answer

Answer: roughage, concentrates


13. The ……………. stop the rainwater from flowing away and also reduce soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: small check-dams


14. In …………… soils, the large quantities of organic matter help in drainage and in avoiding water logging.

Answer

Answer: clayey


15. Vermicompost is prepared by using …………….. to hasten the process of decomposition of plant and animal refuse.

Answer

Answer: earthworms


Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (i) Oil-seed crop
(b) Wheat (ii) Roughage
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (iii) Fodder crop
(d) Exotic breed (iv) Bio-pesticide
(e) Turmeric (v) Blue revolution
(f) Berseem (vi) Jersey
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (vii) Inter-specific
(h) Sesame (viii) Energy-yielding
(i) Longer lactation period (ix) Leghorn
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (v) Blue revolution
(b) Wheat (viii) Energy-yielding
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (vii) Inter-specific
(d) Exotic breed (ix) Leghorn
(e) Turmeric (iv) Bio-pesticide
(f) Berseem (iii) Fodder crop
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (ii) Roughage
(h) Sesame (i) Oil-seed crop
(i) Longer lactation period (vi) Jersey

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Improvement in Food Resources CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 Matrices with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 Matrices with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 Matrices with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Matrices Class 12 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Matrices Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Matrices Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 1.
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
3 & 4 & 5 \\
0 & 2 & 3 \\
0 & 0 & 7
\end{array}\right|\) = A then |A| = ?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 42
(d) 15

Answer

Answer: (c) 42


Matrices Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 2.
The inverse of A = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
5 & k
\end{array}\right|\) will not be obtained if A has the value
(a) 2
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{15}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{15}{2}\)


Matrices MCQ Questions Class 12 Question 3.
For any unit matrix I
(a) I² = I
(b) |I| = 0
(c) |I| = 2
(d) |I| = 5

Answer

Answer: (a) I² = I


Matrix Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 4.
A matrix A = [aij]m×n is said to be symmetric if
(a) aij = 0
(b) aij = aji
(c) aij = aij
(d) aij = 1

Answer

Answer: (b) aij = aji


Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
If A = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) then A² is
(a) 27 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 3 A
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 A


MCQ Of Matrices Class 12 Question 6.
A matrix A = [aij]m×n is said to be skew symmetric if
(a) aij = 0
(b) aij = aji
(c) aij = -aji
(d) aij = 1

Answer

Answer: (b) aij = aji


Matrices MCQ Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 7.
A = [aij]m×n is a square matrix if
(a) m = n
(b) m < n
(c) m > n
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) m = n


Matrix MCQ Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 8.
If A and B are square matrices then (AB)’ =
(a) B’A’
(b) A’B’
(c) AB’
(d) A’B’

Answer

Answer: (a) B’A’


MCQ On Matrices Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 9.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\
\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\) and adj A is
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\
\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)


Class 12 Matrices MCQ Chapter 3 Question 10.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1-x & 2 \\
18 & 6
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
6 & 2 \\
18 & 6
\end{array}\right]\) then x =
(a) ±6
(b) 6
(c) -5
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) -5


Matrix MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 11.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & 8 \\
3 & 3
\end{array}\right|\) = 0, the value of x is
(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 24
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) 8


MCQ Of Matrix Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 12.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
i & 0 \\
0 & i
\end{array}\right]\) then A² =
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \\
0 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)


Matrices MCQ With Answers Pdf Chapter 3 Question 13.
Let A be a non-singular matrix of the order 2 × 2 then |A-1|=
(a) |A|
(b) \(\frac{1}{|A|}\)
(c) 0
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{1}{|A|}\)


MCQ On Matrices Class 12 Pdf Download Question 14.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) then adj A =
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
-2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 1 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
-2 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 2 \\
-2 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
-2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)


Class 12 Matrix MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 15.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) then AB =
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)


Matrices Class 12 MCQs Chapter 3 Question 16.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
a & b & -1
\end{array}\right]\) then A² =
(a) a unit matrix
(b) A
(c) a null matrix
(d) -A

Answer

Answer: (a) a unit matrix


Chapter 3 Maths Class 12 MCQ Question 17.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
α & 0 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
5 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) where A² = B then the value of α is
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 4
(d) we cant calculate the value of α

Answer

Answer: (d) we cant calculate the value of α


Class 12 Maths Ch 3 MCQ Question 18.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) then
(a) |A| = 0
(b) A-1 exists
(c) A-1 does not exist
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) A-1 exists


MCQ Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 Question 19.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2x & 5 \\
8 & x
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
6 & -2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) then the value of x is
(a) 3
(b) ±3
(c) ±6
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 3


Matrix MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Question 20.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -1 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) then
(a) A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{3}{5} & \frac{1}{5} \\
\frac{-2}{5} & \frac{1}{5}
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) |A| = 0
(c) |A| = 5
(d) A² = 1

Answer

Answer: (a) A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{3}{5} & \frac{1}{5} \\
\frac{-2}{5} & \frac{1}{5}
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 21.
If A = \( \left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & \lambda & -3 \\
0 & 2 & 5 \\
1 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) yhen A-1 exists if
(a) λ = 2
(b) λ ≠ 2
(c) λ ≠ -2
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these


Question 22.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
α & 2 \\
2 & α
\end{array}\right]\) and |A³| = 25 then α is
(a) ±3
(b) ±2
(c) ±5
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (a) ±3


Question 23.
A² – A + I = 0 then the inverse of A
(a) A
(b) A + I
(c) I – A
(d) A – I

Answer

Answer: (c) I – A


A² – A + I = 0 then the inverse of A

Question 24.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) then find (AB)-1
(a) \(\frac{1}{11}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
14 & 5 \\
5 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{11}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
14 & -5 \\
-5 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{11}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 5 \\
5 & 14
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{11}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -5 \\
-5 & 14
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{11}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
14 & 5 \\
5 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 25.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then A² – 5A – 7I is
(a) zero matrix
(b) a diagonal matrix
(c) identity matrix
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a diagonal matrix


Question 26.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos x & -\sin x \\
\sin x & \cos x
\end{array}\right]\) then A + AT = I if the value of x is
(a) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
(c) π
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{π}{3}\)


Question 27.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & y \\
2x & x-y
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
2 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
3 \\
2
\end{array}\right]\) then xy equal to
(a) -5
(b) -4
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (a) -5


Question 28.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
4 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then |2A| =
(a) 2|A|
(b) 4|A|
(c) 8|A|
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 4|A|


Question 29.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}\right]\) then A² is equal to
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a^{2} & b^{2} \\
c^{2} & d^{2}
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
b^{2}+bc & ab+bd \\
ac+dc & dc+d^{2}
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a^{3} & b^{3} \\
c^{3} & d^{3}
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
b^{2}+bc & ab+bd \\
ac+dc & dc+d^{2}
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 30.
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\) is inverse of
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-\cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
\sin \theta & -\cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 31.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a & b \\
b & a
\end{array}\right]\) and A² = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
α & β \\
β & α
\end{array}\right]\) then
(a) α = a² + b², β = ab
(b) α = a² + b², β = 2ab
(c) α = a² + b², β = a² – b²
(d) α = 2ab, β = a² + b²

Answer

Answer: (b) α = a² + b², β = 2ab


Question 32.
The matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -1 & 4 \\
1 & 0 & -5 \\
-4 & 5 & 7
\end{array}\right]\) is
(a) a symmetric matix
(b) a skew-sybtmetric matrix
(c) a diagonal matrix
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 33.
If a matrix is both symmetric matrix and skew symmetric matrix then
(a) A is a diagonal matrix
(b) A is zero matrix
(c) A is scalar matrix
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) A is zero matrix


Question 34.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 3 \\
4 & x-y
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 3 \\
4 & -3
\end{array}\right]\) then (x, y) is
(a) (-1, 2)
(b) (-1, -2)
(c) (-2, -1)
(d) (1, -2)

Answer

Answer: (a) (-1, 2)


Question 35.
The matrix P = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & 0 & 4 \\
0 & 4 & 0 \\
4 & 0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is
(a) square matrix
(b) diagonal matrix
(c) unit matrix
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) square matrix


Question 36.
Total number of possible matrices of order 3 × 3 with each entry 2 or 0 is
(a) 9
(b) 27
(c) 81
(d) 512

Answer

Answer: (d) 512


Question 37.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2x+y & 4x \\
5x-7 & 4x
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
7 & 7y-13 \\
y & x+6
\end{array}\right]\) then the value of x, y is
(a) 3, 1
(b) 2, 3
(c) 2, 4
(d) 3, 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 2, 3


Question 38.
If A and B are two matrices of the order 3 × m and 3 × n, respectively, and m = n, then the order of matrix (5A – 2B) is
(a) m × 3
(b) 3 × 3
(c) m × n
(d) 3 × n

Answer

Answer: (d) 3 × n


Question 39.
If A = \(\frac{1}{π}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\sin ^{-1}(x \pi) & \tan^{1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) \\
\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) & \cot ^{-1}(\pi x)
\end{array}\right]\)
B = \(\frac{1}{π}\) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos ^{-1}(x \pi) & \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) \\
\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) & -\tan ^{-1}(\pi x)
\end{array}\right]\)
then A – B equal to
(a) I
(b) O
(c) 1
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\) I

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{3}{2}\) I


Question 40.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) then A² is equal to
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 41.
If matrix A = [aij]2×2 where aij = {\(_{0 if i = j}^{1 if i ≠ j}\) then A² is equal to
(a) I
(b) A
(c) O
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) I


Question 42.
The matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 2 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is a
(a) identity matrix
(b) symmetric matrix
(c) skew symmetric matrix
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) symmetric matrix


Question 43.
The matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & -5 & 8 \\
5 & 0 & 12 \\
-8 & -12 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is a
(a) diagonal matrix
(b) symmetric matrix
(c) skew symmetric matrix
(d) scalar matrix

Answer

Answer: (c) skew symmetric matrix


Question 44.
If A is matrix of order m × n and B is a matrix such that AB’ and B’A are both defined, then order of matrix B is
(a) m × m
(b) n × n
(c) n × m
(d) m × n

Answer

Answer: (d) m × n


Question 45.
If A and B are matrices of same order, then (AB’ – BA’) is a
(a) skew symmetric matrix
(b) null matrix
(c) symmetric matrix
(d) unit matrix

Answer

Answer: (a) skew symmetric matrix


Question 46.
If A is a square matrix such that A² = I, then (A – I)³ + (A + I)³ – 7A is equal to
(a) A
(b) I – A
(c) I + A
(d) 3 A

Answer

Answer: (a) A


Question 47.
For any two matrices A and B, we have
(a) AB = BA
(b) AB ≠ BA
(c) AB = 0
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 48.
If A = [aij]2×2 where aij = i + j, then A is equal to
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 49.
The number of all possible matrices of order 3 × 3 with each entry 0 or 1 is
(a) 18
(b) 512
(c) 81
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 512


Question 50.
The order of the single matrix obtained from
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -1 \\
0 & 2 \\
2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left\{\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-1 & 0 & 2 \\
2 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]-\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & 1 & 23 \\
1 & 0 & 21
\end{array}\right]\right\}\) is
(a) 2 × 2
(b) 2 × 3
(c) 3 × 2
(d) 3 × 3

Answer

Answer: (d) 3 × 3


Question 51.
A square matrix A = [aij]n×n is called a diagonal matrix if aij = 0 for
(a) i = j
(b) i < j
(c) i > j
(d) i ≠ j

Answer

Answer: (d) i ≠ j


Question 52.
A square matrix A = [aij]n×n is called a lower triangular matrix if aij = 0 for
(a) i = j
(b) i < j
(c) i > j
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) i < j


Question 53.
The matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is a
(a) unit matrix
(b) diagonal matrix
(c) symmetric matrix
(d) skew symmetric matrix

Answer

Answer: (c) symmetric matrix


Question 54.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 2x+z\\
x-y & 2z+2
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
4 & 7 \\
0 & 10
\end{array}\right]\) then find the value of x, y, z and w respectively
(a) 2, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 3, 0, 1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 2, 2, 3, 4


Question 55.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x-y & 2x+z\\
2x-y & 3z+w
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 5 \\
0 & 13
\end{array}\right]\) then the value of w is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


Question 56.
Find x, y, z and w respectively such that
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x-y & 2x+z\\
2x-y & 2x+w
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 3 \\
12 & 15
\end{array}\right]\)
(a) 7, 2, 1, 1
(b) 7, 5, 3, 8
(c) 1, 2, 5, 6
(d) 6, 3, 2, 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 7, 2, 1, 1


Question 57.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a+b & 2\\
5 & ab
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
6 & 2 \\
5 & 8
\end{array}\right]\) then find the value of a and b respectively
(a) 2, 4
(b) 4, 2
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 58.
For what values of x and y are the following matrices equal
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2x+1 & 3y\\
0 & y^{2}-5y
\end{array}\right]\) B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+3 & y^{2}+2 \\
0 & -6
\end{array}\right]\)
(a) 2, 3
(b) 3, 4
(c) 2, 2
(d) 3, 3

Answer

Answer: (c) 2, 2


Question 59.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
α & 0\\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
5 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) then find value of α for which A² = B is
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 4
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 60.
If P = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
i & 0 & -i \\
0 & -i & i \\
-i & i & 0
\end{array}\right]\) and Q = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-i & i \\
0 & 0 \\
i & -i
\end{array}\right]\) then PQ is equal to
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-2 & 2 \\
1 & -1 \\
1 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)
(b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -2 \\
-1 & 1 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -2\\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -2 \\
-1 & 1 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)


Question 61.
\(\left[\begin{array}{c}
1 & x & 1
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 3 & 2 \\
2 & 5 & 1 \\
15 & 3 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{c}
1 \\
2 \\
x
\end{array}\right]\)
(a) -7
(b) -11
(c) -2
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (c) -2


Question 62.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -1\\
2 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x & 1\\
y & -1
\end{array}\right]\) and (A + B)² = A² + B², then x + y is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5


Question 63.
If AB = A and BA = B, then
(a) B = 1
(b)A = I
(c) A² = A
(d) B² = I

Answer

Answer: (c) A² = A


Question 64.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
a & b & -1
\end{array}\right]\) then (A – I) (A + I) = 0 for
(a) a = b = 0 only
(b) a = 0 only
(c) b = 0 only
(d) any a and b

Answer

Answer: (d) any a and b


Question 65.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1\\
0 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then A8 – 28 (A – I)
(a) I – A
(b) 2I – A
(c) I + A
(d) A – 2I

Answer

Answer: (b) 2I – A


Question 66.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 2 & 1 \\
1 & 3 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then A³ – 7A² + 10A =
(a) 5I + A
(b) 5I – A
(c) 5I
(d) 6I

Answer

Answer: (b) 5I – A


Question 67.
If A is a m × n matrix such that AB and BA are both defined, then B is an
(a) m × n matrix
(b) n × m matrix
(c) n × n matrix
(d) m × m matrix

Answer

Answer: (b) n × m matrix


If A is a m × n matrix such that AB and BA are both defined, then B is an

Question 68.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2\\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) then A2 – 5A is equal to
(a) 2I
(b) 3I
(c) -2I
(d) null matrix

Answer

Answer: (a) 2I


Question 69.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-2 & 4\\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then A2 is
(a) null matrix
(b) unit matrix
(c) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 0\\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
(d) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
0 & 0\\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)

Answer

Answer: (a) null matrix


Question 70.
If A and B are 2 × 2 matrices, then which of the following is true?
(a) (A + B)² = A² + B² + 2AB
(b) (A – B)² = A² + B² – 2AB
(c) (A – B)(A + B) = A² + AB – BA – B²
(d) (A + B) (A – B) = A² – B²

Answer

Answer: (c) (A – B)(A + B) = A² + AB – BA – B²


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 3 Matrices with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Matrices CBSE Class 12 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Wave Optics Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Wave Optics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Question 1.
What happens if one of the slits, say S1 in Young’s double , slit experiment-is covered with a glass plate which absorbs half the intensity of light from it?
(a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity
(b) The bright fringes become brighter and the dark fringes become darker
(c) The fringe width decreases
(d) No fringes will be observed

Answer

Answer: (a) The bright fringes become less-bright and the dark fringes have a finite light intensity


Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
What happens to the interference pattern the two slits S1 and S2 in Young’s double experiment are illuminated by two independent but identical sources?
(a) The intensity of the bright fringes doubled
(b) The intensity of the bright fringes becomes four times
(c) Two sets of interference fringes overlap
(d) No interference pattern is observed

Answer

Answer: (d) No interference pattern is observed


MCQ On Wave Optics Class 12 Question 3.
What is the reason for your answer to the above question?
(a) The two sources do not emit light of the same wavelength
(b) The two sources emit waves which travel with different speeds
(c) The two sources emit light waves of different amplitudes
(d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources

Answer

Answer: (d) There is not constant phase difference between the waves emitted by the two sources


Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Question 4.
A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light What happened the red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) There is no change in diffraction pattern
(b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded
(d) Diffraction fringes become broader and farther apart
(d) The diffraction pattern disappear

Answer

Answer: (b) Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded


Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 5.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light varies but never reduces to zero. It shows that the incident light is:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely plane polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) partially plane polarised


MCQ Of Wave Optics Class 12 Question 6.
When a polaroid is rotated, the intensity of light does not vary. The incident light may be:
(a) unpolarised
(b) completely polarised
(c) partially plane polarised
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) unpolarised


Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 7.
In Young’s double slit experiment, a maximum is obtained when the path difference between the interfering waves is (n ∈ l):
(a) nλ
(b) n \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(c) (2n + 1) \(\frac{λ}{2}\)
(d) (2n – 1) \(\frac{λ}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) nλ


Wave Optics Objective Questions Question 8.
For sustained interference, we need two sources which
emit radiations :
(a) of the same intensity
(b) of the same amplitude
(c) having a constant phase difference
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) having a constant phase difference


Wave Optics MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the same:
(a) amplitude and phase
(b) intensity and wavelength
(c) speed
(d) wavelength and a constant phase difference

Answer

Answer: (d) wavelength and a constant phase difference


Two sources of light are said to be coherent when both give out light waves of the same:

Wave Optics MCQ Questions Question 10.
The intensity of light emerging from the two slits, in Young’s experiment is in the ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of,the intensity of the minimum to that of the consecutive maximum will be:
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 9
(c) 1 : 16
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 : 9


MCQ Questions On Wave Optics Question 11.
Poisson’s bright spot was discovered by:
(a) Fresnel
(b) Rayleigh
(c) Poisson
(d) Fraunhoffer

Answer

Answer: (c) Poisson


MCQ Wave Optics Class 12 Question 12.
The theory of expanding universe is confirmed by the observation of the spectral lines of the star, which shows :
(a) green shift
(b) red shift
(c) violet shift
(d) yellow shift

Answer

Answer: (b) red shift


Wave Optics MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Download Question 13.
The application of Doppler effect are:
(a) Doppler spectrometer
(b) Doppler radius
(c) Doppler velocimeter
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


MCQs On Wave Optics Question 14.
Which of the following is conserved when light waves interefere?
(a) phase
(b) intensity
(c) amplitude
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these


Question 15.
In Young double slit experiment, a minimum is obtained when the phase difference of the superposing waves, is (n ∈ l):
(a) nπ
(b) (n + \(\frac{1}{2}\))π
(c) (2n + 1)π
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (c) (2n + 1)π


Question 16.
The angle of minimum deviation of a prism depends upon the aggie of:
(a) incidence
(b) reflection
(c) prism
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) prism


Question 17.
he minimum value of the refractive index is:
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) less than 1 but not zero
(d) more than 1

Answer

Answer: (c) less than 1 but not zero


Question 18.
Polarization of light prove the :
(a) corpuscular nature of light
(b) quantum nature of light
(c) Transverse wave nature of light
(d) Longitudinal wave nature of light

Answer

Answer: (c) Transverse wave nature of light


Question 19.
Out of the following Statements which is not correct?
(a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized
(b) Nicol’s prism works on the principle of double refraction and T.l.R.
(c) Nicol’s prism can be used both the produce and analyse polarized light
(d) Calcite and Quartz are both double refracting crystal

Answer

Answer: (a) When unpolarised light passes through Nicol’s prism, the emergent light is elliptically polarized


Question 20.
Polaroid glasses is used in sun glasses because :
(a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization
(b) It is fashionable
(c) It has good colour
(d) It is cheaper

Answer

Answer: (a) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarization


Question 21.
In vacuum, the speed of light depends upon :
(a) frequency
(b) velocity
(c) wave length
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 22.
The fringe width (β) of a diffraction pattern and the slit width d are related as:
(a) β ∝ d
(b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)
(c) β ∝ √d
(d) β ∝ \(\frac{1}{d^2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) β ∝\(\frac{1}{d}\)


Question 23.
C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel prize for his work associated with which of the following phenomenon of radiations?
(a) scattering
(b) diffraction
(c) interference
(d) polarisation

Answer

Answer: (a) scattering


Question 24.
Light takes 10-10 to cross a glass slab. What is the thickness of the glass slab?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 3.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 cm


Question 25.
In Young’s double slit experiment, the central point on the screen is:
(a) bright
(b) dark
(c) first bright and later dark
(d) first dark and later bright

Answer

Answer: (a) bright


Question 26.
Between the slit is id\ the distance between the slit and the screen is α, with light of wavelength λ, the number of fringe observed per metre on the screen is:
(a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)
(b) \(\frac{Dα}{λ}\)
(c) \(\frac{α}{Dλ}\)
(d) \(\frac{λd}{D}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{δy}{α}\)


Question 27.
In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit and the screen is doubled and the separation between the slit is reduced to half. The fringe width:
(a) is doubled
(b) become four time
(c) is halfed
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) become four time


Question 28.
In a Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slit is 1 mm and the distance of screen from the slit is 1 m. If light of wavelength 6000 A is used then the fringe width is:
(a) 0.4 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 0.6 mm
(d) 0.8 mm

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.6 mm


Question 29.
A person cannot see object clearly beyond 50 cm. The pow er of the lens to correct his vision is :
(a) +0.5 dioptre
(b) -0.5 dioptre
(c) -2 dioptre
(d) +2 dioptre

Answer

Answer: (c) -2 dioptre


Question 30.
A phase difference of 5π corresponds to a path difference (in terms of λ) of:
(a) 5λ
(b) 10λ.
(c) 5λ/2
(d) 2λ

Answer

Answer: (c) 5λ/2


A phase difference of 5π corresponds to a path difference (in terms of λ) of:

Question 31.
A polaroid produces a strong beam of light which is :
(a) circularly polarised
(b) elliptically polarised
(c) plane polarised
(d) unpolarised

Answer

Answer: (c) plane polarised


Question 32.
Images of a distant lamp seen through a fire cloth rotate on rotating the cloth. This is due to the phenomenon of:
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) scattering

Answer

Answer: (b) diffraction


Question 33.
A young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of interference fringes formed on a screen is :
(a) parabola
(b) straight line
(c) circle
(d) hyperbola

Answer

Answer: (b) straight line


Question 34.
A monochromatic light is refracted from air into a glass of refractive index µ. The ratio of the wavelengths of the incident and the refracted waves is:
(a) 1 : µ
(b) 1 : µ²
(c) µ : 1
(d) µ² : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) µ : 1


Question 35.
The focal length of the lens is 50 cm; then its power is:
(a) +2D
(b) +1D
(c) -2D
(d) -1D

Answer

Answer: (a) +2D


Question 36.
In the above question, the number of the lens is:
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) -2
(d) -1

Answer

Answer: (a) +2


Question 37.
The refractive index of diamond is about:
(a) 1
(b) 1.42
(c) 2.42
(d) 4.24

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.42


Question 38.
Two lenses having power +6 D and -4 D are placed in contact. The power of the combination is
(a) -2D
(b) -4D
(c) +4D
(d) +2 D

Answer

Answer: (d) +2 D


Question 39.
Diffraction was discovered by :
(a) Grimaldi
(b) Thomas Young
(c) Malus
(d) Huygens

Answer

Answer: (a) Grimaldi


Question 40.
The electromagnetic wave theory of light fails to explain :
(a) compton effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) compton effect


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 10 Wave Optics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Wave Optics CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Semiconductor Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 1.
Bonds in a semiconductor :
(a) trivalent
(b) covalent
(c) bivalent
(d) monovalent

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent


Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 2.
Number of electrons in the valence shell of a semiconductor is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


Class 12 Semiconductor MCQ Chapter 14 Question 3.
Semiconductors of both p-type and n-type are produced by:
(a) ionic solids
(b) covalent solids
(c) metallic solids
(d) molecular solids

Answer

Answer: (b) covalent solids


Semiconductor MCQ Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 4.
With fall of temperature, the forbidden energy gap of a semiconductor
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
(d) remains unchanged

Answer

Answer: (d) remains unchanged


With fall of temperature, the forbidden energy gap of a semiconductor

It can solve systems of linear equations or systems involving nonlinear function calculator.

Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Pdf Chapter 14 Question 5.
In a p-type semiconductor, current conduction is by:
(a) atoms
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) protons

Answer

Answer: (b) holes


MCQ Of Semiconductor Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 6.
The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by:
(a) n ∝ T
(b) n ∝ T²
(c) n ∝ T1/2
(d) n ∝ T3/2

Answer

Answer: (d) n ∝ T3/2


Semiconductor MCQs Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 7.
In reverse biasing:
(a) large amount of current flows
(b) no current flows
(c) potential barrier across junction increases
(d) depletion layer resistance increases

Answer

Answer: (c) potential barrier across junction increases


Chapter 14 Physics Class 12 MCQs Chapter 14 Question 8.
Main function of a transistor is to :
(a) rectify
(b) simplify
(c) amplify
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) amplify


Semiconductor Questions And Answers Pdf Class 12 Chapter 14 Question 9.
To obtain p-type silicon semiconductor, we need to dope pure silicon with:
(a) aluminium
(b) phosphorus
(c) oxygen
(d)germanium

Answer

Answer: (a) aluminium


MCQ Semiconductor Physics Chapter 14 Question 10.
On applying reverse bias to a junction diode, it:
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) raise the potential barrier
(c) increases the majority carrier current
(d) increases the minority carrier current

Answer

Answer: (b) raise the potential barrier


Semiconductor MCQ Chapter 14 Question 11.
For germanium crystal, the forbidden energy gap in joules
(a) 1.216 × 10-19
(b) 1.76 × 10-19
(c) 1.6 × 10-19
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.216 × 10-19


Semiconductors Class 12 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 12.
To obtain electrons as majority charge carriers in a semiconductors the impurity mixed is:
(a) monovalent
(b) divalent
(c) trivalent
(d) pentavalent

Answer

Answer: (b) divalent


Semiconductor Physics MCQ Chapter 14 Question 13.
In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse biased p-n junction, the:
(a) electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential zero.

Answer

Answer: (d) potential zero.


Semiconductor Class 12 MCQ Pdf Download Chapter 14 Question 14.
In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and output voltage is :
(a) π/2
(b) 0
(c) π/4
(d) π

Answer

Answer: (b) 0


MCQ On Semiconductor Chapter 14 Question 15.
Energy bands in solids are a consequence of:
(a) Ohm’s Law
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Bohr’s theory
(d) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

Answer

Answer: (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle


Semiconductor MCQ Questions Chapter 14 Question 16.
In semi conductor which are responsible for conduction:
(a) only electron
(b) electron and hole both
(c) only hole
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) electron and hole both


Semiconductor Devices MCQ Chapter 14 Question 17.
In binary system III represents:
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 7


Semiconductors MCQ Chapter 14 Question 18.
On heating, resistance of semiconductors:
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases then decreases

Answer

Answer: (a) decreases


MCQ Questions On Semiconductors Chapter 14 Question 19.
p-n junction diode can be used as:
(a) amplifier
(b) oscillator
(c) detector
(d) modulator

Answer

Answer: (c) detector


Question 20.
In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes are:
(a) equal
(b) unequal
(c) infinite
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) equal


Question 21.
A forward biased diode is:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics Materials Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 22.
In full wave rectifier, input a.c. current has a frequency v. The output frequency of current is :
(a) V/2
(b) V
(c) 2V
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) 2V


Question 23.
Winch of the following gate is not an universal gate?
(a) OR
(b) NOT
(c) AND
(d) NAND

Answer

Answer: (d) NAND


Question 24.
Zener diode is used for:
(a) producing oscillations in a oscillator
(b) amplification
(c) stabilisation
(d) rectification

Answer

Answer: (c) stabilisation


Question 25.
In semi conductor, at room temperature :
(a) the valence bond is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(b) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled
(d) the conduction band is completely empty

Answer

Answer: (a) the valence bond is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled


Question 26.
Crystal diode is:
(a) amplifying device
(b) fluctuating device
(c) non-linear device
(d) linear device

Answer

Answer: (c) non-linear device


Question 27.
The part of a transistor which is heavily doped to produce a large number of majority carriers is :
(a) base
(b) emitter
(c) collector
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) emitter


Question 28.
A p-type semiconductor is:
(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) uncharged
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) uncharged


Question 29.
The material most commonly used to manufacture electronic solid state devices is :
(a) copper
(b) silicon
(c) germanium
(d) aluminium

Answer

Answer: (b) silicon


The material most commonly used to manufacture electronic solid state devices is :

Question 30.
What is the number of possible crystal systems?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 7


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Relations and Functions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Relation And Function Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
If f(x1) = f (x2) ⇒ x1 = x2 ∀ x1 x2 ∈ A then the function f: A → B is
(a) one-one
(b) one-one onto
(c) onto
(d) many one

Answer

Answer: (a) one-one


Relations And Functions Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
What type of a relation is R = {(1, 3), (4, 2), (2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1)} on the set A – {1, 2, 3, 4}
(a) Reflexive
(b) Transitive
(c) Symmetric
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


MCQ On Relation And Function Class 12 Question 3.
If F : R → R such that f(x) = 5x + 4 then which of the following is equal to f-1(x).
(a) \(\frac{x-5}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac{x-y}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{x-4}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{x}{4}\) -5

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{x-4}{5}\)


MCQ Of Relation And Function Class 12 Question 4.
If an operation is defined by a* b = a² + b², then (1 * 2) * 6 is
(a) 12
(b) 28
(c) 61
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 61


Relation And Function MCQ Question 5.
Consider the binary operation * on a defined by x * y = 1 + 12x + xy, ∀ x, y ∈ Q, then 2 * 3 equals
(a) 31
(b) 40
(c) 43
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 31


Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 MCQ Questions Question 6.
The range of the function f(x) = \(\sqrt{(x-1)(3-x)}\) is
(a) [1, 3]
(b) [0, 1]
(c) [-2, 2]
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) [1, 3]


Relation And Function Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 7.
If f: R → R defined by f(x) = 2x + 3 then f-1(x) =
(a) 2x – 3
(b) \(\frac{x-3}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{x+3}{2}\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{x-3}{2}\)


Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
The function f(x) = log (x² + \(\sqrt{x^2+1}\) ) is
(a) even function
(b) odd function
(c) Both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) even function


Relation And Function MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
Let E = {1, 2, 3, 4} and F = {1, 2} Then, the number of onto functions from E to F is
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 12
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (a) 14


MCQ Of Maths Class 12 Chapter 1 Question 10.
If A, B and C are three sets such that A ∩ B = A ∩ C and A ∪ B = A ∪ C. then
(a) A = B
(b) A = C
(c) B = C
(d) A ∩ B = d

Answer

Answer: (c) B = C


Relations And Functions MCQ Question 11.
Let A = {1, 2}, how many binary operations can be defined on this set?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 20

Answer

Answer: (c) 16


Let A = {1, 2}, how many binary operations can be defined on this set?

MCQ Relation And Function Class 12 Question 12.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4,…. n} How many bijective function f : A → B can be defined?
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)n
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers
(d) n

Answer

Answer: (c) [n


Class 12 Maths Ch 1 MCQ Questions Question 13.
If A = (1, 2, 3}, B = {6, 7, 8} is a function such that f(x) = x + 5 then what type of a function is f?
(a) Many-one onto
(b) Constant function
(c) one-one onto
(d) into

Answer

Answer: (c) one-one onto


Relation Function Class 12 MCQ Question 14.
Let function R → R is defined as f(x) = 2x³ – 1, then ‘f’ is
(a) 2x³ + 1
(b) (2x)³ + 1
(c) (1 – 2x)³
(d) (\(\frac{1+x}{2}\))1/3

Answer

Answer: (d) (\(\frac{1+x}{2}\))1/3


Relation And Function Class 12 MCQ Term 1 Question 15.
Let the functioin ‘f’ be defined by f (x) = 5x² + 2 ∀ x ∈ R, then ‘f’ is
(a) onto function
(b) one-one, onto function
(c) one-one, into function
(d) many-one into function

Answer

Answer: (d) many-one into function


MCQs On Relations And Functions Class 12 Question 16.
A relation R in human being defined as, R = {{a, b) : a, b ∈ human beings : a loves A} is-
(a) reflexive
(b) symmetric and transitive
(c) equivalence
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) equivalence


Class 12 Relation And Function MCQ Question 17.
If f(x) + 2f (1 – x) = x² + 2 ∀ x ∈ R, then f(x) =
(a) x² – 2
(b) 1
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x – 2)²
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x – 2)²


MCQ Questions On Relations And Functions Class 12 Question 18.
The period of sin² θ is
(a) π²
(b) π
(c) 2π
(d) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) π


Class 12 Maths MCQ Chapter 1 Question 19.
The domain of sin-1 (log (x/3)] is. .
(a) [1, 9]
(b) [-1, 9]
(c) [-9, 1]
(d) [-9, -1]

Answer

Answer: (a) [1, 9]


Ch 1 Maths Class 12 MCQ Question 20.
f(x) = \(\frac{log_2(x+3)}{x^2+3x+2}\) is the domain of
(a) R – {-1, -2}
(b) (- 2, ∞) .
(c) R- {- 1,-2, -3}
(d) (-3, + ∞) – {-1, -2}

Answer

Answer: (d) (-3, + ∞) – {-1, -2}


Class 12 Relations And Functions MCQ Question 21.
If the function f(x) = x³ + ex/2 and g (x) = fn(x), then the value of g'(1) is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 2


Chapter 1 Maths Class 12 MCQ Question 22.
What type of relation is ‘less than’ in the set of real numbers?
(a) only symmetric
(b) only transitive
(c) only reflexive
(d) equivalence

Answer

Answer: (b) only transitive


Relations And Functions Class 12 MCQs Question 23.
If A = [1, 2, 3}, B = {5, 6, 7} and f: A → B is a function such that f(x) = x + 4 then what type of function is f?
(a) into
(b) one-one onto
(c) many-onto
(d) constant function

Answer

Answer: (b) one-one onto


Relation And Function Class 12th MCQ Question 24.
f: A → B will be an into function if
(a) range (f) ⊂ B
(b) f(a) = B
(c) B ⊂ f(a)
(d) f(b) ⊂ A

Answer

Answer: (a) range (f) ⊂ B


Question 25.
If f : R → R such that f(x) = 3x then what type of a function is f?
(a) one-one onto
(b) many one onto
(c) one-one into
(d) many-one into

Answer

Answer: (c) one-one into


Question 26.
If f: R → R such that f(x) = 3x – 4 then which of the following is f-1(x)?
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x + 4)
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x – 4)
(c) 3x – 4
(d) undefined

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x + 4)


Question 27.
A = {1, 2, 3} which of the following function f: A → A does not have an inverse function
(a) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)}
(b) {(1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1)}
(c) {(1, 3), (3, 2), (2, 1)}
(d) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 1)

Answer

Answer: (b) {(1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1)}


Question 28.
Let T be the set of all triangles in the Euclidean plane, and let a relation R on T be defined as aRb if a congruent to b ∀ a, b ∈ T. Then R is
(a) reflexive but-not transitive
(b) transitive but not symmetric
(c) equivalence
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) equivalence


Question 29.
Consider the non-empty set consisting of children is a family and a relation R defined as aRb If a is brother of b. Then R is
(a) symmetric but not transitive
(b) transitive but not symmetric
(c) neither symmetric nor transitive
(d) both symmetric and transitive

Answer

Answer: (b) transitive but not symmetric


Question 30.
The maximum number of equivalence relations on the set A = {1, 2, 3} are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5


Question 31.
If a relation R on the set {1, 2, 3} be defined by R = {(1, 2)}, then R is
(a) reflexive
(b) transitive
(c) symmetric
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) transitive


Question 32.
Let us define a relation R in R as aRb if a ≥ b. Then R is
(a) an equivalence relation
(b) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
(c) neither transitive nor reflexive but symmetric
(d) symmetric, transitive but not reflexive

Answer

Answer: (b) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric


Question 33.
Let A = {1, 2, 3} and consider the relation R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)}. Then R is
(a) reflexive but not symmetric
(b) reflexive-but not transitive.
(c) symmetric and transitive
(d) neither symmetric, nor transitive

Answer

Answer: (a) reflexive but not symmetric


Question 34.
The identity element for the binary operation * defined on Q ~ {0} as
a * b = \(\frac{ab}{2}\) ∀ a, b ∈ Q ~ {0} is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 2


Question 35.
If the set A contains 5 elements and the set B contains 6 elements, then the number of one-one and onto mappings from A to B is
(a) 720
(b) 120
(c) 0
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 0


Question 36.
Let A = {1, 2,3,…. n} and B = { a, b}. Then the number of surjections from A into B is
(a) nP2
(b) 2n – 2
(c) 2n – 1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 2n – 2


Question 37.
Let f : R → R be defined by f (x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\) ∀ x ∈ R. Then f is
(a) one-one
(b) onto
(c) bijective
(d) f is not defined

Answer

Answer: (d) f is not defined


Question 38.
Let f: R → R. be defined by f (x) = 3x² – 5 and g : R → R by g (x) = \(\frac{x}{x^2+1}\). Then g o f is
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 39.
Which of the following functions from Z into Z are bijective?
(a) f(x) = x³
(b) f(x) = x + 2
(c) f(x) = 2x + 1
(d) f{x) = x² + 1

Answer

Answer: (b) f(x) = x + 2


Question 40.
Let f: R → R be the function defined by f(x) = x³ + 5. Then f-1 (x) is
(a) (x + 5)1/3
(b) (x -5)1/3
(c) (5 – x)1/3
(d) 5 – x

Answer

Answer: (b) (x -5)1/3


Question 41.
Let f: A → B and g : B → C be the bijective functions. Then (g o f)-1 is,
(a) f-1 o g-1
(b) f o g
(c ) g-1 o f-1
(d) g o f

Answer

Answer: (a) f-1 o g-1


Question 42.
Let f: R – {\(\frac{3}{5}\)} → R be defined by f(x) = \(\frac{3x+2}{5x-3}\) then
(a) f-1(x) = f(x)
(b) f-1(x) = -f(x)
(c ) (f o f)x = -x
(d ) f-1(x) = \(\frac{1}{19}\) f(x)

Answer

Answer: (a) f-1(x) = f(x)


Question 43.
Let f: [0, 1| → [0, 1| be defined by
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers
(a) Constant
(b) 1 + x
(c) x
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) x


Question 44.
Let f: |2, ∞) → R be the function defined by f(x) – x² – 4x + 5, then the range of f is
(a) R
(b) [1, ∞)
(c) [4, ∞)
(d) [5, ∞)

Answer

Answer: (b) [1, ∞)


Question 45.
Let f: N → R be the function defined by f(x) = \(\frac{2x-1}{2}\) and g: Q → R be another function defined by g (x) = x + 2. Then (g 0 f) \(\frac{3}{2}\) is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 46.
Let f: R → R be defined by
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers
then f(- 1) + f (2) + f (4) is
(a) 9
(b) 14
(c) 5
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 9


Question 47.
Let f : R → R be given by f (,v) = tan x. Then f-1(1) is
(a) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
(b) {nπ + \(\frac{π}{4}\) : n ∈ Z}
(c) does not exist
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) {nπ + \(\frac{π}{4}\) : n ∈ Z}


Question 48.
The relation R is defined on the set of natural numbers as {(a, b): a = 2b}. Then, R-1 is given by
(a) {(2, 1), (4, 2), (6, 3),….}
(b) {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3, 6),….}
(c) R-1 is not defined
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3, 6),….}


Question 49.
The relation R = {(1,1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)} on set A = {1, 2, 3} is
(a) Reflexive but not symmetric
(b) Reflexive but not transitive
(c) Symmetric and transitive
(d) Neither symmetric nor transitive

Answer

Answer: (a) Reflexive but not symmetric


Question 50.
Let P = {(x, y) | x² + y² = 1, x, y ∈ R]. Then, P is
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) Anti-symmetric

Answer

Answer: (b) Symmetric


Question 51.
Let R be an equivalence relation on a finite set A having n elements. Then, the number of ordered pairs in R is
(a) Less than n
(b) Greater than or equal to n
(c) Less than or equal to n
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Greater than or equal to n


Question 52.
For real numbers x and y, we write xRy ⇔ x – y + √2 is an irrational number. Then, the relational R is
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Reflexive


Question 53.
Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by {(x, y) | x, y ∈ N, 2x + y = 41}. Then R is
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by {(x, y) | x, y ∈ N, 2x + y = 41}. Then R is

Question 54.
Which one of the following relations on R is an equivalence relation?
(a) aR1b ⇔ |a| = |b|
(b) aR2b ⇔ a ≥ b
(c) aR3b ⇔ a divides b
(d) aR4b ⇔ a < b

Answer

Answer: (a) aR1b ⇔ |a| = |b|


Question 55.
Let R be a relation on the set N of natural numbers denoted by nRm ⇔ n is a factor of m (i.e. n | m). Then, R is
(a) Reflexive and symmetric
(b) Transitive and symmetric
(c) Equivalence
(d) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric

Answer

Answer: (d) Reflexive, transitive but not symmetric


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 1 Relations and Functions with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Relations and Functions CBSE Class 12 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Processes Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity wilL be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
Answer:
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars

Explanation: The process of digestion begins in the mouth. The mouth contains a digestive enzyme, salivary amylase. This enzyme breaks the starch molecules in the food, into maltose. The absence of amylase in the saliva thus affects the breakdown of starch into simpler sugar molecules.

Class 10 Life Processes MCQ Question 2.
In the excretory system of human beings, some substances in the initial filtrate such as glucose, amino acids, salts and water are selectively reabsorbed in:
(a) Urethra
(b) Nephron
(c) Ureter
(d) Urinary bladder
Answer:
(b) Nephron.

Explanation: A nephron is a filtering unit present in kidney. It has different parts like Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and tubuLar region (Renal tubule). Glucose, amino acids and salts are selectively reabsorbed in tubular region.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Processes MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) Oesophagus
Answer:
(b) Small intestine

Explanation: Bile is secreted by the liver and is stored in the gall bladder from where it enters the small intestine via a common duct.

Related Theory
It performs two functions:

  1. makes the food alkaline.
  2. breaks the fats present in food into small globules by the process of emulsification.

MCQ On Life Processes Class 10 Question 4.
Pseudopodia are:
(a) small hair-like structures present on unicellular organisms.
(b) false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
(c) long, tube-like structures coming out of the mouth.
(d) suckers which are attached to the walls of the intestines.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 5.
A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour. This indicates that the rice water contains:
(a) Complex proteins
(b) Simple proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Starch
Answer:
(d) Starch

Explanation: Iodine solution is often used for testing the presence of starch in the food particles. When iodine is added to starch, it turns blue-black. Rice water contains starch, hence when iodine solution is added to rice water it turns blue-black.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

MCQ Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 6.
which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
Answer:

Class 10 Life Process MCQ Question 7.
Anaerobic process:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.
(b) takes place in the presence of oxygen.
(c) produces only energy in the muscles of human beings.
(d) produces ethanol, oxygen and energy.
Answer:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.

Explanation: (a) Anaerobic respiration (in absence of oxygen) in yeast is known as fermentation as ethanol (alcohol) carbon dioxide and 2 ATP molecules of energy is produced from glucose.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 1
carbon dioxide + 2 ATP molecules of energy
(b) Aerobic respiration takes place in presence of oxygen and anaerobic in absence of oxygen.
(c) In muscles of human beings: Lack of oxygen or absence of oxygen results into the formation of lactic acid and very less amount of energy.
(d) Ethanol and carbon dioxide are produced. Energy is neither produced nor released.

MCQ Life Processes Class 10 Question 8.
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing Lime water, the lime water turns milky due to the presence of
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Water vapour
Answer:

Ch 6 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the:
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) stomach
(d) large intestine
Answer:
(a) small intestine.

Explanation: Small intestine receives juices from liver, pancreas and walls of small intestine. Bite juice from liver emulsifies the fats and makes the medium alkaline. Pancreas and small intestine juices contain amylase, lipase and tryspin.

The function of these enzymes ore:
Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ

Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the foL[owing statement (s) is (are) true about respiration?
(I) During inhalation ribs move inward and the diaphragm is raised.
(II) In the alveoli, the exchange of gases takes place i.e. oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into bLood and carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveolar air.
(III) Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(IV)Atveoti increases surface area for the exchange of gases.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Lungs
(b) Nasal passage → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Alveoli
(c) Larynx → Nostrils → Pharynx → Lungs
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli
Answer:
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Process Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
During respiration, the exchange of gases take place in:
(a) Trachea and Larynx
(b) Alveoli of lungs
(c) Alveoli and throat
(d) Throat and larynx
Answer:

MCQs Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 13.
Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is exhibited by:
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) whale, dolphin, turtle
Answer:
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas

Explanation: Fishes have two-chambered heart and exhibit single circulation, while three-chambered heart of amphibians and reptiles and four-chambered heart of birds and mammals exhibit double circulation.

MCQs On Life Processes Class 10 Question 14.
In which of the following vertebrate group/ groups, does heart not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
Answer:
(d) Pisces only

Explanation: Fishes have only two-chambered heart and the blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to the rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood.

Class 10 Science Life Process MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect:
(a) They synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
Answer:
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight Explanation: Autotrophs obtain the required carbon and energy requirements from carbon dioxide and Sunlight. They combine carbon dioxide and water to form carbohydrates.

Question 16.
Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) Water
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Glucose
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 17.
The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Water
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in carbon dioxide. When the oxygenated blood passes through the capillaries of the tissue, it gives oxygen to the body cells and takes carbon dioxide, produced during cellular respiration. Thus, it becomes richer in carbon dioxide.

Question 18.
The xylem in plants are responsible for:
(a) Transport of water
(b) Transport of food
(c) Transport of amino acids
(d) Transport of oxygen
Answer:
(a) Transport of water
Explanation: Xylem tissues include tracheids, vessels, fibres and parenchyma and serve in the ascent of sap/water and minerals.

Related Theory
Phloem tissues comprised of four elements: sieve, companion cell, phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma. They serve in the translocation of organic nutrients.

Question 19.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Organisms grow with time.
(b) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure.
(c) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells.
(d) Energy is essential for life processes.
Answer:

Question 20.
The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:
(a) Glycogen
(b) Protein
(c) Starch
(d) Fatty acid
Answer:
(c) Starch

Explanation: The food prepared in the plant (autotrophs) by the process of photosynthesis is glucose that gets stored in various plant parts in the form of starch.

The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 21.
Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Answer:

Question 22.
Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen:
(I) Proteins
(II) Nitrates and Nitrites
(III) Urea
(IV) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 23.
The doctor measured Ravi’s blood pressure and said it is normal now. The range of Ravi’s blood pressure (systolic/diastolic) is likely to be:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg
(b) \(\frac{160}{80}\) mm of Hg
(c) \(\frac{120}{60}\) mm of Hg
(d) \(\frac{180}{80}\) mm of Hg
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg

Explanation: Blood pressure is denoted by two values: one value is above and the other value
is below. The value that is above is the systolic pressure and the one that is below is the diastolic pressure. A normal individual should maintain a systolic/diastolic pressure of \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg.

Related Theory
Blood pressure is the force applied by the blood against the walls of the arteries. The blood pressure is of two types – systolic and diastolic. The blood pressure of a normal individual is 120/80 mm ofHg. If a person has less blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have low blood pressure.

If a person has more blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have high blood pressure.

Question 24.
If the structure marked X in the diagram given below is blocked, then which of the processes will not occur?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 3
(a) Transpiration and respiration
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration
(c) Respiration, transpiration and transportation
(d) Respiration and photosynthesis [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration Explanation: Here, the structure marked as X is stomata.
Stomata are responsible for gaseous exchange in the plant. If they are blocked, the gaseous exchange will not take place.

Hence, the two important processes of the plant: photosynthesis and respiration do not take place. Stomata are also responsible for removing extra water present in the plants.

Hence, if blocked, the process of transpiration will also be affected.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 25.
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect about transport in plants:
(I) The transport in the xylem is achieved by utilizing energy.
(II) Transpiration helps in the absorption of water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.
(III) The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis occurs in the phloem.
(IV) Besides water, the xylem also transports amino acids and other substances.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Transport of water and minerals in xylem takes place by the process of osmosis due to difference in ionic concentration in the soil and inside the root. Transpiration pull helps in the absorption of water to the taller parts of a plant during the daytime when the stomata are open. The phloem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis, amino acids and some other substances.

Question 26.
Which of the following statements are incorrect about aerobic respiration?
(I) The first step is the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate.
(II) Glucose is a six-carbon molecule and pyruvate is a three-carbon molecule.
(III) The breakdown of glucose take place in the mitochondria.
(IV) The breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the cytoplasm.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 27.
A student noted the differences between blood and lymph in the following table. Select the row containing correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 4
Answer:
(d) Blood: It flows through blood capillaries: Lymph: It flows through arteries

Explanation: Lymph drains into Lymph capillaries from the intercellular spaces which join to form large lymph vessels that finally open into larger veins.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 28.
Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below.
Waste products in plants:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.
(b) Are stored in leaves that fall off.
(c) Are stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem.
(d) Are excreted into the soil around them.
Answer:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.

Question 29.
Which of the following part of the human excretory system is under nervous control?
(a) Ureters
(b) Urethra
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) Collecting duct
Answer:
(c) Urinary bladder

Explanation: The urinary bladder is a muscular structure that stores the urine until we get the urge to urinate. It is under nervous control.

Question 30.
In humans, the oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the:
(a) Left atrium.
(b) Right atrium
(c) Left ventricle
(d) Right ventricle
Answer:

Question 31.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The arteries have thick, elastic walls
(b) The veins have thin walls
(c) Veins have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
Answer:
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.

Explanation: Arteries do not have any valves as they carry blood away from the heart. They have thick and elastic walls as they bLood is under high pressure. Veins have valves to ensure that the blood flows in one direction only.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 6

For the following questions two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Transpiration cools leaf surface.
Reason (R): Transpiration helps in translocation of sugar in plants. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: Transpiration is the process by which plants lose extra water off their surface with the help of the stomata of the Leaves. The plants usually lose water during very hot season. As a result, the temperature of the plant decreases and it cools down. However, transpiration does not help in translocation of food in the plants. Therefore, the assertion is true but the reason accompanied is false.

Related Theory
Transpiration is an important plant process. The three important tasks that are accomplished due to transpiration are:

  1. Decrease in temperature of the plant: When the plants lose water, the temperature of the plant’s decreases and therefore, the plants cool down.
  2. Transpirational pull: When plants lose water, an empty space is created in the plants. As a result, the minerals and water from the root are pulled up. This process is called transpirational pull.
  3. Plant turgidity: Transpiration helps plants in maintaining the turgidity of the plants.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The leaves which are partly green and partly white are called variegated leaves.
Reason (R): The green part of such a leaf contains chlorophyll but the writing part does not contain chlorophyll.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Human beings have a complex respiratory system.
Reason (R): Human skin is impermeable to gases.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Explanation: Human skin is impermeable to gas to minimise the loss of water from the skin.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason (R): Green plants can absorb the energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves.
Answer:
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: All the green plants are called autotrophs. This is due to the fact that the green plants make their own food from very simple substances like carbon dioxide and water that is present in the surroundings.

The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it to into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Hydrochloric acid secreted in the stomach makes an acidic medium for the action of the enzyme pepsin.
Reason (R): Bile juice from liver will make the medium alkaline in the small intestine for the panereatic juices to act.
Answer:

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R): Stomatal pores are the site for an exchange of gases by diffusion.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Related Theory:
Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves of plants are called stomata. Each stomatal pore is surrounded by a pair of guard cells.

When water flows into the guard cells, they swell, become curved and cause the pore to open. Similarly when the guard cells lose water, they shrink and the stomatal pore closes.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Respiration is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Respiration is processes in which glucose combines with oxygen and decompose to carbon dioxide and water this reaction also release some energy.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The inner lining of the small intestine does not have numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R): The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: The inner lining of the small intestine have numerous finger-like projections called villi and these villi increase the surface area for absorption. Thus A is false, but R is true.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Oxygenated blood flows in the pulmonary artery.
Reason (R): Arteries have a narrow lumen.
Answer:

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.
Reason (R): Maximum absorption of glucose takes place in the large intestine.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.

Explanation: Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules and its maximum absorption takes place in the small intestine. Thus A is true, but R is false

(Competency-Based Questions)

Question 1.
Gargi loved eating sugar candies. So, whenever she went to local melas or school trips, she would have only sugar candies.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 5
Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Cellulase
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Answer:
(c) Amylase

Explanation: Food digestion process begins in the mouth. Mouth contains salivary gLands that secrete saliva. Saliva contains an important enzyme known as salivary amylase that breaks down starch into simple sugars. Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme. Stomach contains gastric glands that secrete mucus, hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 2.
Raima joined aerobics classes in her neighbourhood along with her friend. On the very first day, her instructor told them to always do these exercises in a well-ventilated room. She later found out the reason why her instructor had said so
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 6

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
(a) It takes place In presence oxygen It takes place in of absence of oxygen
(b) end products are carbon dioxide and water and energy End products are carbon dioxide, energy
(c) Large amount of energy is released Less amount of energy is released
(d) It takes Place in muscles cells It takes place in Mitochondria yeast and human

Question 3.
Why do we need carbohydrates in our diet? Carbohydrates are our body’s main source of energy. They help fuel the brain, kidneys, heart muscles, and central nervous system. For instance, fibre is a carbohydrate that aids in digestion, helps one feel full, and keeps blood cholesterol levels in check. Some of the food items rich in carbohydrates are Breads, grains, and pasta, Nuts and Legumes, Starchy Vegetables, Milk and yogurts, Fruits and Snack Foods.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 7
What happens during digestion of carbohydrates?
(a) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(b) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
(c) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(d) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
Answer:
(c) Specific enzymes breakdown carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose. Explanation: The digestion of food is the break down of complex food substances by the enzymes secreted by various parts of the digestive system. Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands and act on specific targets.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
Table A (Blood glucose chart)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 8
Table B (Blood Report of Patient X and Y)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 9
(A) Refer to Table B showing the blood report of the levels of glucose of patients X and Y. Infer the disease which can be diagnosed from the given data.
Answer:
Diabetes

(B) Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the above disease.
Answer:

(C) Which one of the following diets would you recommended to the affected patient?
(a) High sugar and low fat diet.
(b) Low sugar and high protein diet.
(c) High Fat and low fiber diet.
(d) Low sugar and high fiber diet.
Answer:
(d) low sugar high fibre diet

(D) Refer to Table A and suggest the value of the mean blood glucose level beyond which doctor’s advice is necessary:
(a) 180 mg/dL
(b) 115 mg/dL
(c) 50 mg/dL
(d) 80 mg/dL
Answer:
180 mg/dL

Question 5.
Kidneys are vital organs for survival. In case of kidney failure an artificial kidney can be used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
(A) What are the functions of kidneys?
Answer:
The functions of kidneys are:
(1) To remove nitrogenous waste from the blood.
(2) To maintain salt and water balance in the body.

(B) Name the filtration units present in kidneys.
Answer:
The filtration units present in the kidneys are nephrons.

(C) What is the excretory product removed by kidneys from blood?
Answer:

(D) Name two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood.
Answer:
Two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood are glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water. (Any two)

Related Theory:
Bowman’s capsules of nephrons acts as ultra filters. Blood flows inside the glomerular capillaries under pressure and water with dissolved molecules from blood plasma diffuses out into Bowman’s capsule. The fluid collected in the Bowman’s capsule as a result of ultrafiltration is called nephric filtrate.

Question 6.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 10
Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the thin-walled upper chamber of the heart on the left, the left atrium. The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood. It then contracts, while the next chamber, the left ventricle, expands, so that the blood is transferred to it. When the muscular left ventricle contracts in its turn, the blood is pumped out to the body. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the upper chamber on the right, the right atrium, as it expands. As the right atrium contracts, the corresponding lower chamber, the right ventricle, dilates. This transfers blood to the right ventricle, which in turn pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.

Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs, they have thicker muscular walls than the atria do. Valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract.
(A) Name the organs of the circulatory system in human.
Answer:
The various organs of the circulatory system in humans are: heart, arteries, veins and capillaries.

(B) Name the red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood.
Answer:
The red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood is Haemoglobin.

(C) How many chambers are there in the heart of an amphibian?
Answer:

(D) Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
Answer:
It is necessary to separate the oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood as mammals and birds have high energy needs because they constantly require energy to maintain their body temperature.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 7.
The haemoglobin level is expressed as the amount of haemoglobin in grams (g) per deciliter (di) of whole blood, a deciliter being 100 milliliters. The normal ranges for hemoglobin depend on the age and, beginning in adolescence, the gender of the person. The normal ranges are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 11
Based on the above table answer the following questions
(A) What does o Low haemoglobin Level mean?
Answer:
A low haemoglobin level is rererred to as anemia or low red blood count.

Explanation: A lower than normal number of red blood ceLls is referred to as anaemia and hemoglobin evets reflect this number.

(B) How is oxygen transported in human beings?
Answer:
Transport of oxygen: Hoemoglobin present in the red blood corpuscles takes up the oxygen from the oir in the lungs. It carries the oxygen to tissues which are deficient in oxygen before releasing it.

(C) Respiratory pigment in human body is
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Water
(c) Blood
(d) Haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) Haemoglobin

Explanation: Respiratory pigment in human body is haemoglobin.

(D) Which of the following is an important component of haemoglobin?
(a) Iron
(b) Sodium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 8.
Two students performed the following activities to understand the conditions necessary for photosynthesis.
The first student took a potted plant with variegated leaves – for example, money plant or crotons. He first kept the plant in a dark room for three days and then kept it in sunlight for about six hours. He plucked a leaf from the plant and marked the green areas in it and traced them on a sheet of paper. He then dipped the leaf in boiling water for a few minutes. After this, he immersed it in a beaker containing alcohol and carefully placed the above beaker in a water-bath and heated till the alcohol began to boil.

He dipped the leaf in a dilute solution of iodine for a few minutes, then took out the leaf and rinsed off the iodine solution. He based his conclusions by observing the colour of the leaf and comparing this with the tracing of the leaf done in the beginning.

The second student took two healthy potted plants which were nearly the same size and kept them in a dark room for three days. He then placed each plant on separate glass plates. He placed a watch-glass containing potassium hydroxide by the side of one of the plants and covered both plants with separate bell-jars as shown in Fig. below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 12
He used vaseline to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates so that the set-up is air¬tight and kept the plants in sunlight for about two hours. He then plucked a leaf from each plant and checked for the presence of starch as in the first activity.

(A) The first student noted down the following changes in colour of leaf and colour of alcohol solution after dipping
the Ipaf in boiling alcohol. Select the correct observation:

Colour of Leaf Colour of Alcohol Solution
(a) Leaf becomes colourless No change in colour
(b) No change in colour No change in colour
(c) Leaf becomes colourless Alcohol solution turns green
(d) No change in colour Alcohol solution turns green

Answer:
(c) Colour of leaf: Leaf becomes colourless; Colour of alcohol solution: Alcohol solution turns green Explanation: The green leaf becomes colourless because on immersing green leaf in alcohol, chlorophyll responsible for its green colour gets dissolved in alcohol. The colour of the alcohol solution therefore turns green.

(B) The second student placed a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar.
(b) Potassium hydroxide absorbs moisture present in the bell jar.
(c) Potassium hydroxide absorbs oxygen gas present in the hell jar.
(d) Potassium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide gas to form a compound.
Answer:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. Explanation: As the student wants to show that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis, he sealed both the bell jars with vaseline and placed potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. The plant in this bell jar will not be able to perform photosynthesis as carbon dioxide has been removed from the bell jar.

(C) Given below are four statements regarding the conclusions of the activities performed by the two students:
(I) The first student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(II) The first student concluded that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
(III) The second student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(IV) The second student that water is essential for photosynthesis.
Select the correct statement(s):
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Select the incorrect statement:
When the decolorized leaf is dipped in iodine solution by the first student, he observes that:
(a) There are two color regions in the leaf which are reddish brown and blue-black.
(b) The earlier green parts of the leaf turned blue black
(c) The earlier yellow turned reddish brown.
(d) The entire leaf turned blue-black.
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statement:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch
(b) The second student used tape to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates.
(c) Both the students first dipped the leaves in boiling alcohol to kill a leaf and stop chemical reactions occurring in it.
(d) Plants are kept in the dark for three days to remove all the chlorophyll from the leaves.
Answer:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch

Explanation: In the first set up availability of C02 will be less for making starch by the plant leaves, as potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs the CO2. In second plant setup, the leaves will have more amount of starch. So. the amount of starch wilt be different in the two leaves.

Question 9.
In the first activity, a student Rudra took some freshly prepared lime water in two test tubes marked A and & He blew air through the lime water in test tube A. He then used a syringe or pichkari and passed air through the fresh lime water in test tube B.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 13
In the second activity, another student Siya took some fruit juice or sugar solution and took this mixture in a test tube fitted with a one-holed cork and fitted the cork with ci bent glass rube. She dipped the free end of the glass tube into a test tube containing freshly prepared time water.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 14
(A) Ridra recorded his observations below.
Select the correct observation.

Test Tube A Test Tube B
(a) No change observed Lime water turned milky immediately
(b) Lime water turned milky immediately No change observed
(c) Lime water turned milky immediately Lime water turned milky after a Long time
(d) Lime water turned milky after a Long time Lime water turned milky immediately

Answer:
(c) Test Tube A: Lime water turned milky immediately; Test Tube B: Lime water turned milky after a long time

Explanation: Lime water turns milky when carbon dioxide gas is passed through it as a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed when lime water (calcium hydroxide) reacts with carbon dioxide gas. Lime water turns milky in test tube A as the exhaled air is rich in carbon dioxide. Whereas, lime water takes a lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as the amount of carbon dioxide present in atmesphereic air is very less as compared to exhaled air and hence carbon dioxide is produced after a long time.

(B) Select the incorrect observation from the statements given below:
(I) The amount of carbon dioxide in atmospheric oir and exhaled air are equal
(II) Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to atmospheric air.
(III) Atmospheric air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to exhaled air.
(IV)Lime water turned milky immediately in both the test tubes A and B.
(a) Both (I) and (IV)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I), (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The amount of carbon dioxide is more in exhaled air and very less in the atmosphere. The lime water turns milky immediately in test tube A as the exhaled air contains large amount of carbon dioxide gas whereas it takes lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as fermentation by yeast is a very slow process.

(C) In the second activity, Siya observed that:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time
(b) Lime water in the test tube turned milky immediately
(c) No change observed in the coLour of Lime water
(d) Lime water in the test tube turned blue black
Answer:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time

Explanation: The lime water becomes milky after some time as carbon dioxide is produced as a result of fermentation of sugar on mixing yeast. The other product formed is alcohol.

(D) Setect the correct statement:
It can be concluded that:
(a) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of digestion of food in the first activity.
(b) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(c) Oxygen is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(d) Lactic acid is produced as a resuLt of anaerobic respiration in the second activity.
Answer:

(E) The products of fermentation in yeast are:
(a) Carbon dioxide and energy
(b) Lactic acid and energy
(c) Ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy
(d) Water, carbon dioxide and energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 10.
The unfolding COVID-19 pandemic has led to a global crisis which threatens to become a health, economic and humanitarian disaster. COVID-19 or COronaVIrus Disease 2019 is the term used by the WHO to refer to disease caused by this virus. The virus was also called 2019-nCoV (or 2019 novel CoronaVirus) prior to being official named by the WHO. COVID-19 is predominantly a respiratory disease, with severity ranging from mild to fatal, and transmission mostly from the spread of respiratory droplets. SARS-CoV-2 is transmitted person-to-person, predominantly by respiratory droplet spread and contact, similar to the MERS and SARS corona viruses.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 15
(A) Select the incorrect statement about the COVID-19 disease:
(a) COVID-19 disease is caused by a virus.
(b) It is a respiratory disease
(c) It is transmitted mostly by respiratory droplets.
(d) It can be cured by taking antibiotics.
Answer:

(B) From the statements given below, identify the incorrect cause of the disease:

Respiratory Disease Cause
(a) Tuberculosis Infection of trachea
(b) Emphysema Reduction of gas exchange area of the lungs
(c) Asthma constriction of the bronchi and bronchioles
(d) Pneumoria An infection of the alveoli

Answer:
(a) Respiratory Disease: Tuberculosis;
Cause: Infection of trachea.

Explanation: Tuberculosis is a potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs.The bacteria that cause TB are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

(C) In the respiratory system, an extensive network of blood vessels is present in:
(a) Bronchioles
(b) Alveoli
(c) Trachea
(d) Pharynx
Answer:
(b) Alveoli

Explanation: Within the lungs, the
passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon-like structures which are called alveoli. The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The walls of the alveoli contain an extensive network of blood-vessels.

(D) Given below are four statements about respiration. Identify the correct statement (s).
(I) During inhalation, the chest cavity becomes larger.
(II) Exchange of gases takes place in the bronchioles.
(III) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases.
(IV) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and ill
(d) Both II and IV
Answer:
(c) Both I and III

Explanation: During inhalation of air, our chest cavity or thoracic cavity expands. The exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli, which are balloon like structures in our lungs. These have very thin walls which are richly supplied with blood capillaries. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen and isc arried by blood for oxygen and oxygen is carried by the blood to different parts as oxy haemoglobin, whereas carbon dioxide is transported in dissolved form.

(E) Which one of the following statements is false about the trachea?
(a) It has rings of cartilage
(b) it is covered by epiglottis
(c) It splits into the right and left lungs
(d) It is also called windpipe.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 11.
COVID-19 is a respiratory disease, one that especially reaches into your respiratory tract, which includes your lungs. Now, think of your respiratory tract as an upside-down tree. The trunk is your trachea, or windpipe. It splits into smaller and smaller branches in your lungs. At the end of each branch are tiny air sacs called alveoli. The new coronavirus travels down your airways. The lining can become irritated and inflamed. In some cases, the infection can reach all the way down into your alveoli.
(A) What is the function of alveoli?
(a) This is where SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causesCOVID-19 finally affects.
(b) This is where plasma, proteins and blood cells escapes inthe tissues
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comesout.
(d) Alveoli carries fat and drains excessive fluid back into the blood.
Answer:
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comes out.

Explanation: Alveoli act as the passage gateway for the exchange of the gases between the surroundings and the body.

(B) Your blood oxygen level indicates how much oxygen your red blood cells are carrying. High blood oxygenation plays an essential role in ensuring that your muscles, brain and other organs receive the energy they need to function properly. That’s why it is so important to measure your current level and determine whether it is within an acceptable range.
Why is it important to measure your current oxygen level?
(a) To know how much blood is flowing
(b) To know how much oxygen is flowing in the blood.
(c) To know how your brain is working
(d) To know the heart rate
Answer:

(C) The lungs are the organ most commonly affected by COVID-19. If large parts of the lungs are affected, people struggle to absorb enough oxygen and are admitted to hospital. Another severe effect is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) – also known as “wet lung”. This sees severe inflammation spread quickly throughout the lungs. People who develop this may need mechanical ventilation in an intensive care unit, sometimes for a prolonged period. COVID-19 has a further, unusual effect on the body. Compared to other respiratory viruses, it causes marked clotting in the small blood vessels of the lungs and other organs.
How are the lungs affected by COVID-19?
(A) Blood clotting
(B) Lack of oxygen
(C) Severe inflammation
Now choose the correct option.
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) None of these
(d) A, B and C or either of these
Answer:

(D) Haemoglobin is an iron containing respiratory pigment that carries oxygen through red blood cells. Presence of Haemoglobin gives metallic taste to the blood. Haemoglobin is an intracellular protein which acts as a primary vehicle for transporting 97% of oxygen in the blood.
Which is not true about Haemoglobin?
(a) It is a respiratory pigment.
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(c) it is present in RBCs.
(d) Its deficiency causes anaemia.
Answer:
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation: Haemoglobin has high affinity for carbon dioxide since it forms the coordinate complex between the Fe and C leading to resist the ability of the oxygen to carry the oxygen leading to various respiratory disorders.

(E) In the given picture, “A” represents
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.
(b) Diaphragm which contracts and flattens upon inhalation.
(c) Alveoli where the exchange of gases can take place.
(d) Fine hairs for air filtration.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 16
Answer:
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 12.
Multicellular organisms with small surface area to volume ratios need transport systems. Water and mineral salts are transported through a plant in xylem vessels. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems and flowers. Water is necessary for plants but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism.
The pattern of water uptake and loss by sunflower plant during 24 h is shown in the graph below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 17
The movement of sucrose and other substances like amino acids around a plant is called translocation. Translocation of organic solutes such as sucrose occurs through living phloem sieve tubes. Both xylem vessels and phloem sieve tubes show unique structural features which are adaptations to their roles in transport.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 18
(A) Root pressure is maximum when
(a) Transpiration is very high and absorption is very low
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high
(c) Both transpiration and absorption are very high
(d) Both the absorption and transpiration are very low
Answer:
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high

Explanation: At night, when there is no sunlight, transpiration is very low but the absorption of substances by roots is high.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Cell Vascular Tissue
(a) Vessels Xylem
(b) Sieve tube Xylem
(c) Tracheids Xylem
(d) Companion cell Phloem

Answer:
(b) Cell: Sieve tube: Vascular Tissue: Xylem.

Explanation: Xylem is the conducting tissue for water and minerals and consists of vessels, tracheids and xylem parenchyma. Phloem on the other hand transports the dissolved products of photosynthesis and consists of sieve tubes, phloem parenchyma and companion cells.

(C) Given below are some statements about transport in plants:
(I) Xylem transports water, amino acids and other substances in plants.
(II) Phloem transports soluble products of photosynthesis in plants.
(III) Transpiration helps in absorption of water.
(IV) Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP
Select the correct statement (s):
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Xylem transports water and minerals from the soil to different parts of the plant in upward direction.
PhLoem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis from the leaves to different parts of the plant by using energy from ATP. It also transports amino acids and other substances in plants. Transpiration is the loss of water by the aerial parts of the plant during day time which helps in creating a transpiration pull due to which water moves upward in xylem.

(D) The major driving force in the movement of water from ground to the root during day is:
(a) Osmosis
(b) Imbibition
(c) Transpiration pull
(d) Plasmolysis
Answer:

(E) Water will be absorbed by the root hairs when the external medium is
(a) Isotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Hypotonic
(d) Viscous
Answer:

Question 13.
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for various life processes. Diverse organisms do this in different ways – some use oxygen to break-down glucose completely: some use other pathways that do not involve oxygen.
(A) Name the two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.
(a) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
(b) Respiration and breathing
(c) Fermentation and breathing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration

Explanation: The two ways through which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms is through the aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration occurs during the presence of air., whereas the anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of air.

(B) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are
(I) Presence of oxygen
(II) Release of carbon dioxide
(III) Release of energy
(IV) Release of lactic acid
(a) A and B only
(b) A,B,C only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) D only
Answer:

(C) Fatigue in muscles occurs due to
(a) Aerobic respiration
(b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic fermentation
(d) Breathing
Answer:
(b) Anaerobic respiration

Explanation: In the anaerobic respiration the release of the carborl dioxide takes along with the release of the energy and lactic acid thus fatigue in the muscles occur due to this phenomenon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 20

(D) Break-down of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer:

(E) In humans, however, we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose. This causes formation of:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 19
(a) Ethanol
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Lactic acid
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Lactic acid

Explanation: Lactic acid is formed when we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 14.
Diabetes meilitus, usually caiLed diabetes, is a disease in which your body does not make enough insulin or cannot use normal amounts of insulin properly.

The kidneys play an important role in regulating *glucose homeostasis through utilization of glucose, gluconeogenesis, and glucose reabsorption. Glucose is freely filtered by the glomerulus. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) represents the flow of plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman’s space over a specified period and is the chief measure of kidney function. Under normal conditions, ~ 180 g of glucose are filtered by the kidney each day. More than 99% of this glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule, with < 0.5 g/day excreted in the urine of healthy adults. When the filtered glucose load exceeds the tubular maximum glucose reabsorptive capacity, excess glucose is excreted in the urine.

The physiological relationship between plasma glucose concentration and renal glucose flux (ie, filtration, reabsorption, and excretion) is shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 21
(A) The incorrect conclusion from the graph showing amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys is:
(a) The amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys increases in a linear manner with increasing plasma glucose concentration
(b) Under normal conditions in healthy individuals, nearly all filtered glucose is reabsorbed in the renal tubules
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.
(d) There is a distinct deviation (the “splay”) from this linear relationship as the renal capacity to reabsorb glucose nears saturation.
Answer:
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.

Explanation: The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly until a certain concentration of plasma glucose is present. After the saturation limit of glucose is reached, it does not change.

(B) The excretory system of human beings include
(a) A kidney, a ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(b) A pair of kidneys, a ureter, a pair of urinary bladders, and a urethra
(c) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(d) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a pair of urinary bladders and a urethra
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements) is correct about excretion in human beings?
(I) Kidneys are the primary excretory organs.
(II) Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.
(III) The basic filtration unit in the kidneys is a cluster of very thin- walled blood Capillaries.
(IV) Urine is stored in the urethra until the urge of passing it out.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (III)

Explanation: The only incorrect statement is that urine is stored in the urethra, as urine is actually stored in the urinary bladder, which is a muscular organ and under our nervous control.

(D) The correct function of parts labelled ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the figure below is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 22

Part ‘A’ Part ‘B’
(a) Filtration of blood Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids
(b) Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids Filtration of blood
(c) Reabsorption of hormones from blood Filtration of blood
(d) Collection of urine Reabsorption of glucose,salts and amino acids

Answer:
(a) part ‘A’ : Filtration of blood; part ‘B’ : Reabsorbtion of glucose, Salts and amino acids

Explanation: Part labelled A is the Bowman’s capsule which is a cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney. Fluids from blood in the glomerulus are collected in the Bowman’s capsule and further processed along the nephron to form urine.

Part labelled B is the tubular part of the nephron where some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine along the tube.

(E) The part labelled ‘A’ in the figure above is:
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman’s Capsule
(c) Proximal tubule
(d) Distant convoluted tubule
Answer:

Question 15.
Blood being a fluid connective tissue. Blood consists of fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form. Oxygen is carried by the red blood corpuscles. Many other substances like salts are also transported by the blood. l/l/e thus need a pumping organ to push blood around the body, a network of tubes to reach all the tissues and a system in place to ensure that this network can be repaired if damaged. The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is called blood pressure. This pressure is much greater in arteries than in veins. The pressure of blood inside the artery during ventricular systole (contraction) is called systolic pressure and pressure in artery during ventricular diastole (relaxation) is called diastolic pressure. The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
(A) Blood consists of a fluid medium called as:
(a) Plasma
(b) Red blood corpuscles
(c) White blood corpuscles
(d) Lymph
Answer:
(a) Plasma

Explanation: Blood consists of the 90% water in the form of the ions and the dissolved state known as plasma.

(B) Oxygen is transported in the body by combining with:
(a) Haemoglobin and iron only
(b) Haemoglobin only
(c) Plasma, Haemoglobin and iron
(d) None of these
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 23
Answer:

(C) The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:
(a) Arteries
(b) Veins
(c) Heart
(d) Circulatory system
Answer:
(a) Arteries

The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:

Explanation: Arteries carry the oxygenated blood that is the pure blood to the different parts of the body whereas the deoxygenated blood is carried by the veins from the different body parts back to the heart.

(D) In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood are
(a) 2 and 3 chambered respectively
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively
(c) 4 and 2 chambered respectively
(d) 2 and 2 chambered each
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively

Explanation: In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood is 2 and 4 chambered respectively in human’s two auricles and two ventricles are there for the separation of the oxygenated and the deoxygenated blood.

(E) The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is
(a) More in arteries and less in vein
(b) More in veins and less in arteries.
(c) More in blood capillaries
(d) More in heart
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 24
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 16.
The digestion in stomach is taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus. The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin. The mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions. From the stomach, the food now enters the small intestine. The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act Bile juice from the liver accomplishes this in addition to acting on fats.
(A) In which medium Pepsin and trypsin are active:
(a) basic and acidic medium
(b) acidic and basic medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) sometimes acidic sometimes basic medium
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 25
Answer:
(b) acidic and basic medium

Explanation: Pepsin works in the acidic medium and trypsin works in the basic medium to digest the proteins in stomach and in the intestine respectively.

(B) Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of:
(a) starch in mouth
(b) protein in stomach
(c) fat in stomach
(d) protein in pancreas
Answer:
(b) protein in stomach

Explanation: Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of proteins in the stomach.

(C) The inner lining of the stomach is protected by
(a) enzyme pepsin
(b) mucus
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Muscle
Answer:

(D) Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the information in the graph –
(a) The maximum rate of human digestion occurs at about 45°C.
(b) The maximum rate of human respiration occurs at about 57°C.
(c) Temperature can influence the action of an enzyme.
(d) Growth can be controlled by enzyme
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 26
Answer:

(E) Small Intestine receives the secretions from for complete digestion.
(a) Mouth and Stomach
(b) Stomach and liver
(c) Liver and Pancreas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(C) Liver and Pancreas

Explanation: Small Intestine receives the secretions from the liver and pancreas for complete digestion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name an enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
Answer:
Lipase, Trypsin

Question 2.
If human urine is allowed to stand for sometime, it smells of ammonia, why?
Answer:
Urea present in urine gets decomposed into ammonia by the action of bacteria. So it smells strongly of ammonia.

Related Theory
The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from the blood. Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.

Question 3.
Define parasitic nutrition. Name an organism having parasitic mode of nutrition.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
On what factors does the direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen depend in plants?
Answer:
The direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen in plants depends on the environmental conditions and the requirements of the plant. Carbon dioxide elimination is the major exchange activity at night, whereas oxygen release is the main activity at day time.

Question 5.
What is the role of rings of cartilage present in the throat?
Answer:
The rings of cartilage present ;n the throat ensure that the air passage does not collapse.

Question 6.
What is the role of blood plasma?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
Answer:
Fishes respire with the help of gills. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb oxygen dissolved in water. Since fishes cannot absorb gaseous oxygen, they die soon after they are taken out of water.

Question 8.
What will happen to a plant if its xyiem is removed?
Answer:
If the xyiem of a plant is removed, the upward movement of water and minerals will stop leading to wilting of leaves and ultimately the death of the plant as xyiem is a water¬conducting tissue in plants. It transports water and minerals from the roots to the different parts of the plant.

Question 9.
The pancreas of a person suddenly stopped functioning. How will digestion be affected in such a person?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Good conductor of electricity and heat is
(a) Anthracite coke
(b) Diamond
(c) Graphite
(d) Charcoal

Answer

Answer: (c) Graphite


Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 2.
In which of the following allotropes of carbon, percentage of carbon is maximum?
(a) Wood charcoal
(b) Coconut charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Graphite


MCQ Of Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 3.
The hybridisation of carbon in diamond is
(a) sp3
(b) sp2
(c) sp
(d) dsp2

Answer

Answer: (a) sp3


MCQ On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 4.
Organic compound must contain an element
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon
(c) hydrogen
(d) nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) carbon


Solve using Substitution Calculator solves the linear equations having unknown variables in a fraction of seconds.

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Questions With Answers Pdf Question 5.
Alkene gives which of the following reactions?
(a) Addition reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Class 12 Chemistry Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 6.
Single bond length between carbon-carbon is
(a) 1.34 Å
(b) 1.20 Å
(c) 1.54 Å
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.54 Å


Haloalkane And Haloarene MCQ Question 7.
Valency of carbon is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


Class 12 Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Question 8.
Criteria for purity of organic solid is
(a) boiling point
(b) melting point
(c) specific gravity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) melting point


Criteria for purity of organic solid is

Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
General formula of Alkene is
(a) CnH2n
(b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH2n-2
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) CnH2n


MCQ Questions On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Question 10.
Hybridisation of carbon in ethane is
(a) sp3
(b) sp2
(c) sp
(d) sp3d2

Answer

Answer: (a) sp3


Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 MCQ Question 11.
Number of π bonds in ethyne is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 2


Haloalkanes And Haloarenes MCQ Class 12 Question 12.
The compound having general formula CnH2n+2 is
(a) Alkene
(b) Alkyne
(c) Alkane
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Alkane


MCQ Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Question 13.
Which of the following is not correctly matched with its IUPAC name?
(a) CHF2CBrClF : 1-Bromo-1-chIoro-1, 2, 2-trifluoroethane
(b) (CCl3)3CCl : 2-(Trichloromethyl)-1, 1, 2, 3, 3-heptachloropropane
(c) CH3C (p-ClC6H4)2CH(Br)CH3 : 2-Bromo-3, 3-bis (4- chlorophenyl) butane
(d) o-BrC6H4CH (CH3) CH2CH3 : 2-Bromo-l- methylpropylbenzene

Answer

Answer: (b) (CCl3)3CCl : 2-(Trichloromethyl)-1, 1, 2, 3, 3-heptachloropropane


Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 MCQs Question 14.
The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double bond containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as
(a) Saytzeffs rule
(b) Peroxide rule
(c) Markovnikov’s rule
(d) van’t hoff rule

Answer

Answer: (c) Markovnikov’s rule


MCQ Questions On Haloalkanes And Haloarenes Class 12 Question 15.
Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinafed product upon free radical chlorination?
(a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(b) 2-Methylpropane
(c) 2-Methylbutane
(d) n-Butane

Answer

Answer: (a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane


Question 16.
The reaction
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 1
is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition
(b) free radical addition
(c) electrophilic addition
(d) electrophilic substitution

Answer

Answer: (c) electrophilic addition


Integration by Substitution Calculator online with solution and steps.

Question 17.
Halogen acids react with alcohols to form alkyl halides. The reaction follows a nucleophilic substitution mechanism. What will be the product of the following reaction?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 2
(d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 18.
Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight is a
(a) nucleophilic substitution
(b) free radical substitution
(c) electrophilic substitution
(d) nucleophilic addition

Answer

Answer: (b) free radical substitution


Question 19.
Which of the following reactions follows Markovnikov’s rule?
(a) C2H4 + HBr
(b) C3H6 + Cl6
(c) C3H6 + HBr
(d) C3H6 + Br2

Answer

Answer: (c) C3H6 + HBr


Question 20.
The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly.
(a) amixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene
(b) benzyl chloride
(c) m-chlorotuluene
(d) benzoyl chloride

Answer

Answer: (a) amixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene


Question 21.
Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
(a)CH3CH2CH2Cl
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(c) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl
(d) (CH3)3CCl

Answer

Answer: (b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl


Question 22.
Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) CH3Cl
(b) CH2Cl2
(c) CHCl5
(d) CCl4

Answer

Answer: (a) CH3Cl


Question 23.
Arrange the following compounds in-decreasing order of their boiling points
(i) CH3Br
(ii) CH3CH2Br
(iii) CH3CH2CH2Br
(iv) CH2CH2CH2CH2Br
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)


Question 24.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 3
X and Y in the reaction are
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 4

Answer

Answer: (a)


Question 25.
Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they are polar because
(a) they react with water to give alcohols
(b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water
(c) C -X bond cannot be broken easily
(d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive

Answer

Answer: (b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water


Question 26.
Which one of the following is not correct order of boiling .points of the alkyl/aryl halides?
(a) CHCl3 > CH2Cl2
(b) CH3(CH2)3CI > CH3(CH2)2Cl
(c) (CH3)3CCl > (CH3)2CHCH2Cl
(d) CH3(CH2)3Cl > CH3CH2CHClCH3

Answer

Answer: (c) (CH3)3CCl > (CH3)2CHCH2Cl


Question 27.
Which of the following compounds will have highest melting point?
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) o-Dichlorobenzene
(c) m-Dichlorobenzene
(d) p-Dichlorobenzene

Answer

Answer: (d) p-Dichlorobenzene


Question 28.
Ethyl alcohol is obtained when ethyl chloride is boiled with
(a) alcoholic KOH
(b) aqueous KOH
(c) water
(d) aqueous KMnO4

Answer

Answer: (b) aqueous KOH


Question 29.
Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes hydrolysis with aqueous KOH at the fastest rate?
(a) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(b) CH3CH2Cl
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(d) CH3CH2CH (Br) CH3

Answer

Answer: (d) CH3CH2CH (Br) CH3


Question 30.
Butane nitrile can be prepard by heating.
(a) propyl alcohol with KCN
(b) butyl chloride with KCN
(c) butyl alcohol with KCN
(d) propyl chloride with KCN

Answer

Answer: (d) propyl chloride with KCN


Question 31.
Which of the following reactions will give the major and minor products?
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 5
(a) (a) is major product and (b) is minor product
(b) (a) is minor product and (b) is major product
(c) Both (a) and (b) are major products
(d) Only (b) is formed and (a) is not formed

Answer

Answer: (a) (a) is major product and (b) is minor product


Question 32.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 6
The final product in the reaction is
(a) CH3OH
(b) HCOOH
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3COOH

Answer

Answer: (d) CH3COOH


Question 33.
The end product (Q) is in the following sequence of reaction
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers 7

Answer

Answer: (c)


Question 34.
Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and silver bromide. This reaction is called
(a) Fittig reaction
(b) Swarts reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Finkelstein reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) Swarts reaction


Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and silver bromide. This reaction is called

Question 35.
The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by
(a) elimination
(b) dehydrohalogenation
(c) addition
(d) substitution

Answer

Answer: (d) substitution


Question 36.
A mixture of 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane when treated with alcoholic KOH gives
(a) prop-1-ene
(b) prop-2-ene
(c) a mixture of prop-1 -ene and prop-2-ene
(d) propanol

Answer

Answer: (a) prop-1-ene


Question 37.
An alkyl halide, RX reacts with KCN to given propane nitrile, RX is
(a) C3H7Br
(b) C4H9Br
(c) C2H5Br
(d) C5H11Br

Answer

Answer: (c) C2H5Br


Question 38.
In SN2 reactions with the sequence of bond breaking and bond formation is as follows
(a) bond breaking is followed by formation
(b) bond formation is followed by breaking
(c) bond breaking and formation are simultaneously
(d) bond breaking and formation take place randomly

Answer

Answer: (c) bond breaking and formation are simultaneously


Question 39.
Grignard reagents are formed by the reaction of alkyl halides by warming
(a) with alcoholic solution
(b) with MgCl2
(c) Mg in presence of dry ether
(d) with MgCO3

Answer

Answer: (c) Mg in presence of dry ether


Question 40.
Which of the following is the most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) ClCH2– CH = CH2
(b) CH2 = CH-Cl
(c) CH3CH = CH-Cl
(d) C6H6Cl

Answer

Answer: (a) ClCH2-CH = CH2


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Haloalkanes and Haloarenes CBSE Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Direct and Inverse Proportions Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Indirect Proportions for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Direct and Inverse Proportions Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Direct And Inverse Proportion Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
10 metres of cloth cost Rs 1000. What will 4 metres cost ?
(a) Rs 400
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 200
(d) Rs 100.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 400
Explanation:
\(\frac{10}{1000}\) = \(\frac{4}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 400


Direct And Inverse Variation Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
15 books weigh 6 kg. What will 6 books weigh ?
(a) 1.2 kg
(b) 2.4 kg
(c) 3.8 kg
(d) 3 kg.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.4 kg
Explanation:
\(\frac{15}{6}\) = \(\frac{6}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 2.4


MCQ On Direct And Inverse Proportion Class 8 Question 3.
A horse eats 18 kg of com in 12 days ? How much does he eat in 9 days ?
(a) 11.5 kg
(b) 12.5 kg
(c) 13.5 kg
(d) 14.5 kg.

Answer

Answer: (c) 13.5 kg
Explanation:
\(\frac{12}{18}\) = \(\frac{9}{?}\) ⇒ ? = \(\frac{18×9}{12}\) = 13.5


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Direct And Inverse Proportion Question 4.
8 g of sandal wood cost Rs 40. What will 10 g cost ?
(a) Rs 30
(b) Rs 36
(c) Rs 48
(d) Rs 50.

Answer

Answer: (d) Rs 50.
Explanation:
\(\frac{8}{10}\) = \(\frac{10}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 50


Class 8 Direct And Inverse Proportion MCQ Question 5.
20 trucks can hold 150 metric tonnes. How much will 12 trucks hold ?
(a) 80 metric tonnes
(b) 90 metric tonnes
(c) 60 metric tonnes
(d) 40 metric tonnes.

Answer

Answer: (b) 90 metric tonnes
Explanation:
\(\frac{20}{150}\) = \(\frac{12}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 90


Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 MCQ Question 6.
120 copies of a book cost Rs 600. What will 400 copies cost ?
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 2000
(c) Rs 3000
(d) Rs 2400.

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs 2000
Explanation:
\(\frac{120}{600}\) = \(\frac{400}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 2000


Direct And Inverse Proportion MCQ Question 7.
The rent of 7 hectares is Rs 875. What is the rent of 16 hectares ?
(a) Rs 2000
(b) Rs 1500
(c) Rs 1600
(d) Rs 1200.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 2000
Explanation:
\(\frac{7}{875}\) = \(\frac{16}{?}\) ⇒ ? = \(\frac{875×16}{7}\) = 2000


Direct And Inverse Proportion MCQ Class 8 Question 8.
A boy runs 1 km in 10 minutes. How long will he take to ran 600 m ?
(a) 2 minutes
(b) 3 minutes
(c) 4 minutes
(d) 6 minutes.

Answer

Answer: (d) 6 minutes.
Explanation:
\(\frac{1000}{10}\) = \(\frac{600}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 6


Class 8 Maths Direct And Inverse Proportion MCQ Question 9.
A shot travels 90 m in 1 second. How long will it take to go 225 m ?
(a) 2 seconds
(b) 2.5 seconds
(c) 4 seconds
(d) 3.5 seconds.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.5 seconds
Explanation:
\(\frac{90}{1}\) = \(\frac{225}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 2.5


Ch 13 Maths Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
3 knives cost Rs 63. What will 17 knives cost ?
(a) Rs 357
(b) Rs 375
(c) Rs 537
(d) Rs 573.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 357
Explanation:
\(\frac{3}{63}\) = \(\frac{17}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 357


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Question 11.
15 men can mow 40 hectares of land in 1 day. How much will 6 men mow in 1 day ?
(a) 16 hectares
(b) 12 hectares
(c) 20 hectares
(d) 24 hectares.

Answer

Answer: (a) 16 hectares
Explanation:
\(\frac{15}{40}\) = \(\frac{6}{?}\) ⇒ ? = \(\frac{40×6}{15}\) = 16


15 men can mow 40 hectares of land in 1 day. How much will 6 men mow in 1 day ?

Direct Inverse Proportion Class 8 MCQ Question 12.
A man walks 20 km in 5 hours. How long would he take in walking 32 km ?
(a) 3 hours
(b) 4 hours
(c) 6 hours
(d) 8 hours.

Answer

Answer: (d) 8 hours.
Explanation:
\(\frac{20}{5}\) = \(\frac{32}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 8


MCQ On Direct And Inverse Variation Class 8 Question 13.
What is the cost of 50 sticks at Rs 24 per score ?
(a) Rs 30
(b) Rs 40
(c) Rs 50
(d) Rs 60.

Answer

Answer: (d) Rs 60.
Explanation:
\(\frac{20}{24}\) = \(\frac{50}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 60


Class 8 Maths Ch 13 MCQ Question 14.
A train travels 60 km in 1 hour. How long will it take to go 150 km ?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 2.5 hours
(d) 4 hours.

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.5 hours
Explanation:
\(\frac{60}{1}\) = \(\frac{150}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 2.5


Question 15.
If 3 quintals of coal cost Rs 6000, what is the cost of 120 kg ?
(a) Rs 1200
(b) Rs 2400
(c) Rs 3600
(d) Rs 4800.

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs 2400
Explanation:
\(\frac{300}{6000}\) = \(\frac{120}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 2400


Question 16.
If 20 cows eat as much as 15 oxen, how many cows will eat at much as 36 oxen ?
(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 45
(d) 48

Answer

Answer: (d) 48
Explanation:
\(\frac{15}{20}\) = \(\frac{36}{?}\) ⇒ ? = \(\frac{20×36}{15}\) = 48


Question 17.
The fare for a journey of 40 km is Rs 25. How much can be travelled for Rs40 ?
(a) 32 km
(b) 64 km
(c) 50 km
(d) 60 km.

Answer

Answer: (b) 64 km
Explanation:
\(\frac{25}{40}\) = \(\frac{40}{?}\) ⇒ ? = \(\frac{40×40}{25}\) = 64


Question 18.
Apala types 200 words in half an hour. How many words will she type in 12 minutes ?
(a) 80
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 60.

Answer

Answer: (a) 80
Explanation:
\(\frac{30}{200}\) = \(\frac{12}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 80


Question 19.
A labourer is paid Rs 400 for 2 days work. If he works for 5 days, how much will he get ?
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 800
(c) Rs 750
(d) Rs 900.

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 1000
Explanation:
\(\frac{2}{400}\) = \(\frac{5}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 1000


Question 20.
A machine in a soft drink factory fills 600 bottles in 5 hours. How many bottles will it fill in 2 hours ?
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 150
(d) 240.

Answer

Answer: (d) 240
Explanation:
\(\frac{5}{600}\) = \(\frac{2}{?}\) ⇒ ? = 240


Question 21.
If 8 men can do a piece of work in 20 days, in how many days could 20 men do the same work ?
(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 10 days.

Answer

Answer: (b) 8 days
Explanation:
8 × 20 = 20 × ? ⇒ ? = 8.


Question 22.
If an amount of food last for 40 days for 120 men, how long will it last for 80 men at the same rate ?
(a) 50 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 80 days
(d) 100 days.

Answer

Answer: (b) 60 days
Explanation:
40 × 120 = 80 × ? ⇒ ? = 60.


Question 23.
If 18 women can reap a field in 7 days, in what time can 6 women reap the same field ?
(a) 15 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 36 days.

Answer

Answer: (b) 21 days
Explanation:
18 × 7 = 6 × ? ⇒ ? = 21.


Question 24.
10 men can dig a trench in 15 days. How long will 3 men take ?
(a) 50 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 100 days
(d) 75 days.

Answer

Answer: (a) 50 days
Explanation:
10 × 15 = 3 × ? ⇒ ? = 50.


Question 25.
3 lambs finish eating turnips in 8 days. In how many days will 2 lambs finish them ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12.

Answer

Answer: (d) 12
Explanation:
3 × 8 = 2 × ? ⇒ ? = 12.


Question 26.
6 pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour. How long will it take if only 5 pipes of the same type are used ?
(a) 75 minutes
(b) 72 minutes
(c) 80 minutes
(d) 90 minutes.

Answer

Answer: (b) 72 minutes
Explanation:
6 × 60 = 5 × ? ⇒ ? = 72 minutes.


Question 27.
40 cows can graze a field in 16 days. How many cows will graze the same field in 10 days ?
(a) 60
(b) 64
(c) 80
(d) 75.

Answer

Answer: (b) 64
Explanation:
40 × 16 = ? × 10 ⇒ ? = 64.


Question 28.
If x = ky and when y = 4, x = 8 then k =
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2
Explanation:
8 = 4k ⇒ k = 2.


Question 29.
The constant of variation, if x ∝ y, from the following table is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers
(a ) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (c) 3
Explanation:
2 × 3 = 6, 4 × 3 = 12,
5 × 3 = 15, 7 × 3 = 21.


Question 30.
x and y vary inversely with each other. If x – 15 when y = 6, then the value of x when y = 15 is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (d) 6
Explanation:
15 × 6 = ? × 15 ⇒ ? = 6.


Question 31.
If x = 20 and y = 40, then x and y are:
(a) Directly proportional
(b) Inversely proportional
(c) Neither directly nor inversely proportional
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer

Answer: (a) Directly proportional
Explanation:
x = 20 and y = 40
Clearly, 40 = 2 × 20
y = 2x
y ∝ x, where 2 is the proportionality constant.


Question 32.
If x = 15 and y = 1/30, then x and y are:
(a) Directly proportional
(b) Inversely proportional
(c) Neither directly nor inversely proportional
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer

Answer: (a) Directly proportional
Explanation:
x = 15, y = 1/30
1/30 = 1/(2 × 15)
y = 1/2x
Hence, y ∝ 1/x, where 1/2 is the proportionality constant.


Question 33.
If x and y are directly proportional, then which of the following is correct?
(a) x + y = constant
(b) x – y = constant
(c) xy = constant
(d) x/y = constant

Answer

Answer: (d) x/y = constant
Explanation:
x ∝ y
x = ky
k = x/y, where k is a constant.


Question 34.
If x and y are inversely proportional, then:
(a) x + y = constant
(b) x – y = constant
(c) xy = constant
(d) x/y = constant

Answer

Answer: (c) xy = constant
Explanation:
x ∝ 1/y
x = k/y
xy = k
Where k is a constant.


Question 35.
If x ∝ y and x1= 5, y1 = 210 and x2 = 2, then find y2 ?
(a) 200
(b) 84
(c) 99
(d) 70

Answer

Answer: (b) 84
Explanation:
x ∝ y
x = ky
x/y = k
x1/y1 = x2/y2
5/210 = 2/y2
y2 = 84


Question 36.
If the weight of 12 sheets of thick paper is 40 grams, how many sheets of the same paper would weigh 2500 grams?
(a) 750
(b) 800
(c) 850
(d) 950

Answer

Answer: (a) 750
Explanation:
For 12 sheets, weight of paper is 40 grams
Let number of sheets for 2500 is x.
Using direct proportion concept:
12/40 = x/2500
x = (12 × 2500)/40
x = 750


If the weight of 12 sheets of thick paper is 40 grams, how many sheets of the same paper would weigh 2500 grams?

Question 37.
The scale of a map is given as 1 : 300. Two cities are 4 km apart on the map. The actual distance between them is:
(a) 1000 km
(b) 1100 km
(c) 1200 km
(d) 1300 km

Answer

Answer: (c) 1200 km
Explanation:
1 : 300 = x : y
1/300 = 4/y
y = 4 x 300 = 1200

Hence, the distance between the two cities is 1200 km.


Question 38.
If x and y are inversely proportional, then which one is true?
(a) x1/y1 = x2/y2
(b) x1/x2 = y1/y2
(c) x1/x2 = y2/y1
(d) x1.x2 = y1.y2

Answer

Answer: (c) x1/x2 = y2/y1
Explanation:
x ∝1/y
x = k (1/y)
xy = k
x1y1=x2y2
x1/x2=y2/y1


Question 39.
6 pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour 20 minutes. If we use 5 such types of pipes, how much time it will take to fill the tank?
(a) 120 minutes
(b) 96 minutes
(c) 80 minutes
(d) 85 minutes

Answer

Answer: (b) 96 minutes
Explanation:
For 6 pipes, it takes 1 hour 20 minutes
1 hour 20 minutes = 60 + 20 = 80 minutes
For 5 pipes, let the time taken be x.
This is inverse proportion case:
80 × 6 = x × 5
x = 480/5 = 96


Question 40.
If 12 workers can build a wall in 50 hours, how many workers will be required to do the same work in 40 hours?
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

Answer

Answer: (d) 15
Explanation:
12 × 50 = x × 40
x = (12×50)/40 = 15


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Direct and Inverse Proportions CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Sources of Business Finance Class 11 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Formation of a Company Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Sources Of Business Finance Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
Internal sources of capital are those that are
(a) generated through outsiders such as suppliers
(b) generated through loans from commercial banks
(c) generated through issue of shares
(d) generated within the business

Answer

Answer: (d) generated within the business


Sources Of Business Finance MCQ Chapter 8 Class 11 Question 2.
Under the factoring arrangement, the factor
(a) Produces and distributes the goods or services
(b) Makes the payment on behalf of the client
(c) Collects the client’s debt or account receivables
(d) Transfer the goods from one place to another

Answer

Answer: (c) Collects the client’s debt or account receivables


MCQ On Sources Of Finance With Answers Chapter 8 Class 11 Question 3.
Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to
(a) Share profits earned by the lessor
(b) Participate in the management of the organization
(c) Use the asset for a specified period
(d) Sell the assets

Answer

Answer: (c) Use the asset for a specified period


Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 8 Question 4.
ADRs are issued in
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA

Answer

Answer: (d) USA


MCQ On Sources Of Business Finance Chapter 8 Class 11 Question 5.
The term ‘redeemable’ is used for
(a) Preference shares
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Equity shares
(d) Public deposits

Answer

Answer: (b) Commercial paper


Sources Of Finance MCQ Chapter 8 Class 11 Question 6.
When one party grants the other party the right to use the asset in return for a periodic payment, it is known as __________
(a) Lease Financing
(b) Factoring
(c) Public Deposits
(d) Debts

Answer

Answer: (a) Lease Financing


MCQ Sources Of Business Finance Class 11 Chapter 8 Question 7.
Money obtained by issue of shares is known as ___________
(a) Debts
(b) Share Capital
(c) Loans
(d) Reserve Funds

Answer

Answer: (b) Share Capital


MCQ Of Sources Of Business Finance Chapter 8 Class 11 Question 8.
_____________ was the first company in India to issue convertible zero interest debentures in January 1990
(a) Mahindra and Mahindra
(b) Adani Enterprise
(c) Tata Motors
(d) Reliance Limited

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahindra and Mahindra


Source Of Business Finance Class 11 MCQ Chapter 8 Question 9.
Which of the following is a commercial bank?
(a) All of these
(b) Canara bank
(d) Punjab National Bank
(d) State Bank of India

Answer

Answer: (a) All of these


Question 10.
The ordinary shares of a company are delivered to the depository bank, which in turn issues the depository receipts, known as _______
(a) Commercial banks
(b) ADR
(c) None of these
(d) GDR

Answer

Answer: (d) GDR


Question 11.
Unit Trust of India was established by ___________
(a) ICICI
(b) State Bank Group
(c) Indian Government
(d) HDFC Bank

Answer

Answer: (c) Indian Government


Question 12.
ICICI was established in _________________
(a) 1975
(b) 1955
(c) 1985
(d) 1965

Answer

Answer: (b) 1955


Question 13.
Expand ICICI
(a) None of these
(b) International Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(c) Indian Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(d) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India

Answer

Answer: (c) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India


Question 14.
The maturity period of a commercial paper usually ranges from
(a) 20 to 40 days
(b) 60 to 90 days
(c) 120 to 365 days
(d) 90 to 364 days

Answer

Answer: (d) 90 to 364 days


Question 15.
Debentures represent
(a) Fixed capital of the company
(b) Permanent capital of the company
(c) Fluctuating capital of the company
(d) Loan capital of the company

Answer

Answer: (d) Loan capital of the company


Question 16.
Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from
(a) The public
(b) The directors
(c) The auditors
(d) The owners

Answer

Answer: (a) The public


Question 17.
Funds required for purchasing current assets is an example of
(a) Fixed capital requirement
(b) Ploughing back of profits
(c) Working capital requirement
(d) Lease financing

Answer

Answer: (c) Working capital requirement


Question 18.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executives of the company
(d) Guardian of the company

Answer

Answer: (a) Owners of the company


Question 19.
Investors who want steady income may not prefer ____________
(a) None of these
(b) Debentures
(c) Equity Shares
(d) Bonds

Answer

Answer: (c) Equity Shares


Question 20.
Dividend is paid only on ___________
(a) Loans
(b) Debentures
(c) Bonds
(d) Shares

Answer

Answer: (d) Shares


Question 21.
Funds raised through loans or borrowings are ________
(a) Borrowed funds
(b) Owners Equity
(c) None of these
(d) Share Capital

Answer

Answer: (a) Borrowed funds


Question 22.
GDRs can be converted into shares _____________
(a) At any time
(b) After 5 years
(c) After 10 years
(d) After one year

Answer

Answer: (a) At any time


Question 23.
State Industrial Development Corporations were established by _______
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) None of these
(c) Central Government
(d) Different States

Answer

Answer: (d) Different States


Question 24.
Life insurance corporation was set up in ________
(a) 1965
(b) 1956
(c) 1975
(d) 1985

Answer

Answer: (b) 1956


Question 25.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in _______
(a) July, 1948
(b) July, 2001
(c) July, 1956
(d) July, 1991

Answer

Answer: (a) July, 1948


Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in _______

One Mark Questions

1. Mention any one source of Business Finance.

Answer

Answer: Owners fund


2. Mention any one type of shares.

Answer

Answer: Equity Share


3. Give one merits of Equity shares.

Answer

Answer: Equity shares holders enjoy the limited liability.


4. State any one type of preference shares.

Answer

Answer: Cumulative preference shares


5. State any one type of Debentures.

Answer

Answer: Secured debentures


6. Mention any one sources of owner’s fund.

Answer

Answer: Equity Share


7. Mention any one type of Financial Institutions.

Answer

Answer: Industrial Finance Corporation of India.


8. Expand ADR.

Answer

Answer: American Depository Receipts


9. Expand GDR.

Answer

Answer: Global Depository Receipts


10. Expand IDR.

Answer

Answer: Indian Depository Receipts


11. Expand ICD.

Answer

Answer: Inter Corporate Deposit


12. Expand EXIM Bank.

Answer

Answer: Export Import bank


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Sources of Business Finance CBSE Class 11 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 Class 8 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

The Making Of National Movement Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Marathi newspaper ‘Kesari’ was edited by
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Balgangadhar Tilak
(c) Chitta Ranjan Das
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer

Answer: (b) Balgangadhar Tilak


Class 8 History Chapter 11 MCQ Question 2.
Lala Lajpat Rai was a nationalist from
(a) Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) Haryana

Answer

Answer: (c) Punjab


Lala Lajpat Rai was a nationalist from

Making Of National Movement Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following movement is associated with Chitta Ranjan Das?
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) The Salt March
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Non-Cooperation Movement


MCQ For Class 8 History Chapter 11 Question 4.
The founder of Khudai Khidmatgars was
(a) Mohammad Ali
(b) Shaukat Ali
(c) Badshah Khan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Badshah Khan


The Making Of National Movement Class 8 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Who established Natal Congress?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Balgangadhar Tilak
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi


MCQ For Class 8 History Chapter 9 The Making Of The National Movement Question 6.
Bengal was divided by the British in the year
(a) 1900
(b) 1910
(c) 1905
(d) 1920

Answer

Answer: (c) 1905


MCQ On The Making Of National Movement Class 8 Question 7.
Hindustan Socialist Republic Association was related with the nationalist
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Balgangadhar Tilak
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Bhagat Singh


Making Of The National Movement Class 8 MCQ Question 8.
The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in
(a) 1840
(b) 1857
(c) 1878
(d) 1890

Answer

Answer: (c) 1878


Class 8 History Ch 11 MCQ Question 9.
Ilbert Bill was introduced in
(a) 1860
(b) 1878
(c) 1883
(d) 1890

Answer

Answer: (c) 1883


The Making Of The National Movement MCQ Question 10.
Naoroji was ……………….. settled in London.
(a) a businessman and publicist
(b) an artist
(c) an educationist
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) a businessman and publicist


MCQ Questions For Class 8 History Chapter 11 Question 11.
Second World War ended in
(a) 1910
(b) 1920
(c) 1945
(d) 1947

Answer

Answer: (c) 1945


Class 8 History The Making Of National Movement MCQ Question 12.
The fight for Purna Swaraj was fought under the presidentship of
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru


MCQ For Class 8 History Chapter 11 With Answers Question 13.
Who was the first Indian Governor-General of free India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer

Answer: (c) C. Rajagopalachari


Who was the first Indian Governor-General of free India?

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Knighthood (a) The religious functionaries of Sikh gurudwaras
(ii) Picket (b) The capacity to act independently without interference from outside
(iii) Mahants (c) The protest of the people outside a building to prevent others /owners from entering it
(iv) Publicist (d) An honour granted by the British Crown for exceptional personal achievement
(v) Provincial autonomy (e) A person who publishes an idea by circulating information, writing reports and speaking at meetings
(vi) Sovereign (f) A capacity of the province to make relatively independent decisions while remaining within the federation
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Knighthood (d) An honour granted by the British Crown for exceptional personal achievement
(ii) Picket (c) The protest of the people outside a building to prevent others /owners from entering it
(iii) Mahants (a) The religious functionaries of Sikh gurudwaras
(iv) Publicist (e) A person who publishes an idea by circulating information, writing reports and speaking at meetings
(v) Provincial autonomy (f) A capacity of the province to make relatively independent decisions while remaining within the federation
(vi) Sovereign (b) The capacity to act independently without interference from outside

State whether true or false:

1. People were satisfied with British rule in the 1870s and 1880s.

Answer

Answer: False


2. The Arms Act was passed in 1875.

Answer

Answer: False


3. A.O. Hume was a Chinese educationist.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Muslim League demanded “Independent States” for Muslims in 1940.

Answer

Answer: True


5. The Congress in the first twenty years of its formation was “moderate”.

Answer

Answer: True


6. In 1930, Gandhiji led a march to break the salt law.

Answer

Answer: True


7. The leaders of Khilafat agitation were Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

1. The Arms Act ……………… Indians from having arms.

Answer

Answer: disallowed


2. Gandhiji and his followers marched from ……………… to Dandi.

Answer

Answer: Sabarmati


3. 16 August 1946 was announced as ……………… by the Muslim League.

Answer

Answer: “Direct Action Day”


4. ……………… is popularly known as Rajaji.

Answer

Answer: C. Rajagopalachari


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 11 The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The Making of the National Movement 1870s-1947 CBSE Class 8 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Probability Class 10 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Probability Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Probability Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
If two different dice are rolled together, the probability of getting an even number on both dice is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)


Probability MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
The probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, …, 15 is a multiple of 4 is
(a) \(\frac{4}{15}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{1}{5}\)


Class 10 Probability MCQ Question 3.
An event is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to:
(a) 0.0001
(b) 0.001
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.0001


An event is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to:

MCQ Of Probability Class 10 Question 4.
If the probability of an event is P, the probability of its complementary event will be:
(a) P – 1
(b) P
(c) 1 – p
(d) 1 – \(\frac{1}{p}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 – p


MCQ On Probability Class 10 Question 5.
In a family of 3 children, the probability of having atleast one boy is:
(a) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
(d) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{3}{4}\)


Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 MCQ Question 6.
If P(A) denotes the probability of an event then:
(a) P(A) < 0
(b) P(A) > 0
(c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
(d) -1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1


Ch 15 Maths Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
A card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of its being a red face card is:
(a) \(\frac{3}{26}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{13}\)
(c) \(\frac{2}{13}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{3}{26}\)


Probability Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
The probability than a non-leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(d) \(\frac{5}{7}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{7}\)


MCQ Probability Class 10 Question 9.
When a die is thrown, the probability of getting an odd number less them 3 is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{6}\)


Probability Class 10 MCQs Question 10.
A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is that card is not an ace of hearts. The number of outcomes favourable to E is:
(a) 4
(b) 13
(c) 48
(d) 51

Answer

Answer: (d) 51


Class 10 Maths Ch 15 MCQ Question 11.
The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad eggs in the lot is:
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 28

Answer

Answer: (b) 14


Chapter 15 Maths Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
A girl calculate that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?
(a) 40
(b) 240
(c) 480
(d) 750

Answer

Answer: (c) 480


A girl calculate that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?

MCQs On Probability Class 10 Question 13.
One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered 1 to 40. The probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5 is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{5}\)


Class 10 Maths Probability MCQs Question 14.
Someone is asked to take a number from 1 to 100. The probability that it is a prime is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{6}{25}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(d) \(\frac{13}{50}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{1}{4}\)


Class 10 Maths Probability MCQ Question 15.
A school has five houses A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from house B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student is selected at random to be the class monitor. The probability that the selected student is not from A, B and C is:
(a) \(\frac{4}{23}\)
(b) \(\frac{6}{23}\)
(c) \(\frac{8}{23}\)
(d) \(\frac{17}{23}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{6}{23}\)


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Probability CBSE Class 10 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.