Category: CBSE Class 10

Here we are providing Online Education for Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 11 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-maths/

Online Education Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Constructions with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Constructions with Solutions Answers

Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Construction Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Is construction of a triangle with sides 8 cm, 4 cm, 4 cm possible?
Solution:
No, we know that in a triangle sum of two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side. So the condition is not satisfied.

Construction Class 10 Extra Questions State Syllabus Question 2.
To divide the line segment AB in the ratio 5 : 6, draw a ray AX such that ∠BAX is an acute angle, then draw a ray BY parallel to AX and the point A₁, A₂, A₃… and B₁, B₂, B₃… are located at equal distances on ray AX and BY respectively. Then which points should be joined?
Solution:
A₅ and B₆.

Class 10 Construction Extra Questions Question 3.
To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°, it is required to draw tangents at end points of those two radii of the circle. What should be the angle between them?
Solution:
120°

Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 4.
In Fig. 9.1 by what ratio does P divide AB internally.
Solution:
From Fig. 9.1, it is clear that there are 3 points at equal distances on AX and 4 points at equal distances on BY. Here P divides AB on joining A₃ B₄. So P divides internally by 3 : 4.

Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Given a triangle with side AB = 8 cm. To get a line segment AB’ = 2 of AB, in what ratio will line segment AB be divided?
Solution:

Given AB = 8 cm
AB’ = \(\frac{3}{4}\) of AB
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 8 = 6 cm
BB’ = AB – AB’ = 8 – 6 = 2 cm.
⇒ AB’: BB’ = 6 : 2 = 3 : 1
Hence the required ratio is 3 : 1.

Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type I and II

Construction Extra Questions Class 10 Question 1.
Construct a triangle of sides 4 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm and then a triangle similar to it whose sides are \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the first triangle.
OR
Draw a triangle with sides 4 cm, 5 cm and 6 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of first triangle.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a line segment BC = 6 cm
Step II: Draw an arc with B as centre and radius equal to 5 cm.
Step III: Draw an arc, with C as centre and radius equal to 4 cm intersecting the previous drawn arc at A.
Step IV: Join AB and AC, then ∆ABC is the required triangle.
Step V: Below BC make an acute angle CBX
Step VI: Along BX mark off three points at equal distance: B₁, B₂, B₃, such that BB₁ = B₁B₂, = B₂B₃.
Step VII: Join BC₃.
Step VIII: From B₂, draw B₂, D || B₃,C, meeting BC at D.
Step IX: From D draw ED || AC meeting BA at E. Then we have ∆EDB which is the required triangle.

Justification:
Since DE || CA

Hence, we have the new AEBD similar to the given ∆ABC, whose sides are equal to \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Extra Questions Of Construction Class 10 Question 2.
Draw a line segment of length 7.6 cm and divide it in the ratio 5 : 8. Measure the two parts.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a line segment AB = 7.6 cm
Step II: Draw any ray AX making an acute angle ∠BAX with AB.
Step III: On ray AX starting from A, mark 5 + 8 = 13 equal arcs. AA₁, A₁A₂, A₂A₃, A₃A₄, … A₁₁A₁₂, and A₁₂A₁₃.
Step IV: Join A₁₃B.
Step V: From A₅, draw A₅P || A₁₃B, meeting AB at P. Thus, P divides AB in the ratio 5 : 8. On measuring the two parts. We find AP = 2.9 cm and PB = 4.7 cm (approx).

Justification:
In ∆ABA₁₃, PA₅ || BA₁₃ .
∴ By Basic Proportionality Theorem

Construction Class 10 Important Questions Question 3.
Construct an isosceles triangle whose base is 8 cm and altitude 4 cm and then draw another triangle whose sides are 1\(\frac{1}{2}\) times the corresponding sides of the isosceles triangle.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Draw BC = 8 cm.
Step II: Construct XY, the perpendicular bisector of line segment BC, meeting BC at M.
Step III: Along MP, cut-off MA = 4 cm.
Step IV: Join BA and CA. Then ∆ABC so obtained is the required ∆ABC.
Step V: Extend BC to D, such that BD = 12 cm
Step VI: Draw DE || CA meeting BA produced at E. Then AEBD is the required triangle.

Justification:
Since, DE || CA .

Hence, we have the new triangle similar to the given triangle whose sides are 1 \(\frac{1}{2}\) i.e, \(\frac{3}{2}\) times the corresponding sides of the isosceles ABC.

Constructions Class 10 Important Questions Question 4.
Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Then construct a triangle whose sides of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Construct a ∆ABC in which BC = 6 cm and, AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC = 60°.
Step II: Below BC make an acute ∠CBX.
Step III: Along BX mark off four arcs: B₁, B₂, B₃ such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄.
Step IV: Join B₄C.
Step V: From B₃, draw B₃D || B₄C, meeting BC at D.
Step VI: From D, draw ED || AC, meeting BA at E.
Now, we have AEBD which is the required triangle whose sides are \(\frac{3}{4}\)th of the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Justification:
Here, DE || CA
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆EBD.

Hence, we get the new triangle similar to the given triangle whose sides are equal to \(\frac{3}{4}\)th of the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Construction Class 10 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 5.
Draw a circle of radius 6 cm. From a point 10 cm away from its centre, construct the pair of tangents to the circle and measure their lengths.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Take a point O and draw a circle of radius 6 cm.
Step II: Take a point P at a distance of 10 cm from the centre 0.
Step III: Join OP and bisect it. Let M be the mid-point.
Step IV: With M as centre and MP as radius, draw a circle to intersect the circle at Q and R.
Step V: Join PQ and PR. Then, PQ and PR are the required tangents. On measuring, we find, PQ = PR = 8cm.

Justification:
On joining OQ, we find that ∠PQO = 90°, as ∠PQO is the angle in the Semicircle.
∴ PQ ⊥ OQ
Since OQ is the radius of the given circle, PQ has to be a tangent to the circle. Similarly, PR is
also a tangent to the circle.

Class 10 Constructions Important Questions Question 6.
Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 4 cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6 cm and measure its length. Also, verify the measurement by actual calculation.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Take a point O and draw a circle of radius OA = 4 cm. Also, draw a concentric circle of radius OB = 6 cm
Step II: Find the mid-point C of OB and draw a circle of radius OC = BC. Suppose this circle intersects the circle of radius 4 cm at P and Q.
Step III: Join BP and BQ to get the desired tangents from a point B on the circle of radius 6 cm. By actual measurement, we find BP = BQ = 4.5 cm.

Justification:
In ∆BPO, we have
∠BPO = 90°, OB = 6 cm and OP = 4 cm
∴ OB² = BP² + OP² [Using Pythagoras theorem]

Similarly, BQ = 4.47 cm

Class 10 Maths Constructions Extra Questions Question 7.
Draw a line segment AB of length 8 cm. Taking A as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm and
taking B as centre, draw another circle of radius 3 cm. Construct tangents to each circle from the centre of the other circle.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a line segment AB = 8 cm.
Step II: With A as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm and let it intersect the line segment AB in M.
Step III: With B as centre, draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
Step IV: With M as centre, draw a circle of radius AM and let it intersect the given two circles in P, e and R, S.
Step V: Join AP, AQ, BR and BS.
These are the required tangents.

Justification:
On joining BP, we have ∠BPA = 90°, as ∠BPA is the angle in the semicircle.
∴ AP ⊥ PB
Since BP is the radius of given circle, so AP has to be a tangent to the circle. Similarly, AQ, BR and BS are the tangents.

Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Construction Important Questions Class 10 Question 1.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle ABC with its sides equal to \(\frac{5}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC (i.e., of scale factor ).
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw any ray BX making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to the vertex A.
Step II: From B cut off 5 arcs
B₁, B₂, B₃, B₄ and B₅ on BX so that
BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ = B₄B₅.
Step III: Join B₃ to C and draw a line through B₅, parallel to B₃C intersecting the extended line segment BC at C’.
Step IV: Draw a line through C’ parallel to CA intersecting the
extended line segment BA at A’ (see figure). Then, A’ BC’ is the required triangle.

Justification:
Note that ∆ABC ~ ∆A’BC” (Since AC || A’C’)

Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Important Questions Question 2.
Draw a circle of radius of 3 cm. Take two points P and Q on one of its diameters extended on both sides, each at a distance of 7 cm on opposite sides of its centre. Draw tangents to the circle from these two points P and Q.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Taking a point ( as centre, draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
Step II: Take two points P and Q on one of its extended diameter such that OP = OQ = 7 cm.
Step III: Bisect OP and OQ and let M₁ and M₂ be the mid-points of OP and OQ respectively.
Step IV: Draw a circle with M₁ as centre and M₁ P as radius to intersect the circle at T₁, and T₂.
Step V: Join PT₁ and PT₂.
Then, PT₁ and PT₂ are the required tangents. Similarly, the tangents QT₃ and QT₄ can be obtained

Justification:
On joining OT₁, we find ∠PT₁O = 90°, as it is an angle in the semicircle.
PT₁ ⊥ OT₁
Since OT₁ is a radius of the given circle, so PT₁ has to be a tangent to the circle.
Similarly, PT₂, QT₃ and QT₄ are also tangents to the circle.

Construction Class 10 Important Questions With Solutions Question 3.
Let ABC be a right triangle in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. BD is the perpendicular from B on AC. The circle through B, C, D is drawn. Construct the tangents from A to this circle.
Solution:

Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw ∆ABC and perpendicular BD from B on AC.
Step II: Draw a circle with BC as a diameter. This circle will pass through D.
Step III: Let O be the mid-point of BC. Join A0.
Step IV: Draw a circle with AO as diameter. This circle cuts the circle drawn in step II at B and E.
Step V: Join AE. AE and AB are desired tangents drawn from A to the circle passing through B, C and D.

Important Questions Of Construction Class 10 Question 4.
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{5}{3}\) times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Construct a SABC in which BC = 4 cm, ∠B = 90° and BA = 3 cm.
Step II: Below BC, make an acute ∠CBX.
Step III: Along BX mark off five arcs: B₁, B₂, B₃, B₄ and B₅ such that
BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄ = B₄B₅.
Step IV: Join B₃C.
Step V: From B₅, draw B₅D || B₃C, meeting BC produced at D.
Step VI: From D, draw ED || AC, meeting BA produced at E. Then EBD is the required triangle whose sides are \(\frac{5}{3}\) times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Justification:
Since, DE || CA

Hence, we have the new triangle similar to the given triangle whose sides are equal to \(\frac{5}{3}\) times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Extra Question Of Construction Class 10 Question 5.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle ABC with its sides equal to \(\frac{3}{4}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC ( i.e., of scale factor \(\frac{3}{4}\)).
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw any ray BX making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to the vertex A.
Step II: Locate 4 arcs B₁, B₂, B₃, and B₄ on BX so that
BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₃B₄.
Step III: Join B₄C and draw a line through B₃ parallel to B₄C to intersect BC at C’.
Step VI: Draw a line through C’ parallel to the line CA to intersect BA at A’ (Fig. 9.14).
Then, ∆A’ BC’ is the required triangle.
Let us now see how this construction gives the required triangle.

Justification:

Question 6.
Draw a triangle ABC in which AB = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 9 cm. Construct a triangle similar to ∆ABC with scale factor \(\frac{3}{2}\). Justify the construction. Are the two triangles congruent?
Note that all the three angles and two sides of the two triangles are equal.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a line segment BC = 6 cm.
Step II: With centre B and radius 4 cm draw an arc.
Step III: With centre C and radius 9 cm draw another arc which intersects the previous arc at A.
Step IV: Join BA and CA. ABC is the required triangle.
Step V: Through B, draw an acute angle CBX on the side opposite to vertex A.
Step VI: Locate three arcs B₁, B₂, and B₃ on BX such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃.
Step VII: Join B₂C.
Step VIII: Draw B₃C’ || B₂C intersecting the extended line segment BC at ∠C’.
Step IX: Draw C’A’ || CA intersecting the extended line segment BA to A’.
Thus, ∆A’BC’ is the required triangle (∆A’BC’ ~ ∆ABC).

Justification:
∵ B₂C || B₃C’

Constructions Class 10 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
Draw a circle with the help of a bangle. Take a point outside the circle. Construct the pair of tangents from this point to the circle.
Solution:

Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a circle with the help of a bangle.
Step II: Let P be the external point from where the tangents are to be drawn to the given circle. Through P, draw a secant PAB to intersect the circle at A and B (say).
Step III: Produce AP to a point C, such that AP = PC, i.e., P, is the mid-point of AC.
Step IV: Draw a semicircle with BC as diameter.
Step V: Draw PD ⊥ CB, intersecting the semicircle at D.
Step VI: With P as centre and PD as radius, draw arcs to intersect the given circle at T and T₁.
Step VII: Join PT and PT₁. Then, PT and PT₁ are the required tangents.

Question 2.
Draw a ∆ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠A = 105°. Then, construct a triangle whose sides are \(\frac{3}{4}\) times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step 1: Construct a ∆ABC in which BC = 7 cm,
∠B = 45°, ∠C = 180° – (∠A + ∠B)
= 180° – (105° + 45°) = 180o – 150° = 30°.
Step II: Below BC, make an acute angle ∠CBX.
Step III: Along BX, mark off four arcs: B₁, B₂, B₃, and B₄ such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ =B₃B₄.
Step IV: Join B₄C
Step V: From B₃, draw B₃D || B₄C meeting BC at D.
Step VI: From D, draw ED || AC, meeting BA at E. Then EBD is the required triangle whose sides are \(\frac{3}{4}\) times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Justification:

Hence, we have the new triangle similar to the given triangle whose sides are equal to \(\frac{3}{4}\) times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Question 3.
Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 4 cm which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°
OR
Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Construct a pair of tangents to it, the angle between which is 60°. Also justify the construction. Measure the distance between the centre of the circle and the point of intersection of tangents.
Solution:
Steps of Construction:
Step I: Draw a circle with centre 0 and radius 4 cm.
Step II: Draw any diameter AOB.
Step III: Draw a radius OC such that ∠BOC = 60°.
Step IV: At C, we draw CM ⊥ OC and at A, we draw AN ⊥ OA.
Step V: Let the two perpendiculars intersect each other at P. Then, PA and PC are required tangents.

Justification:
Since OA is the radius, so PA has to be a tangent to the circle. Similarly, PC is also tangent to the circle.
∠APC = 360° – (∠OAP + ∠OCP + ∠AOC)
= 360° – (90° + 90° + 120°) = 360° – 300° = 60°
Hence, tangents PA and PC are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 1

Very Short Extra Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 1 Question 1.
Why was the idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of the first half of the 19th century unable to retain its fervour?
Answer:
The liberal-democratic states, with their extreme nationalism, became intolerant of each other and began moving towards imperialism to further their aims.

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
How were the French armies initially welcomed as they marched into numerous territories of Europe during the Napoleonic expansion?
Answer:
Harbingers of liberty.

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 3.
What did the Vienna Peace Settlement signify?
Answer:
Fall of Napoleon (1814 -15).

Nationalism In Europe Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
Mention the period of the unification of Italy.
Answer:
1859 -1870.

History Class 10 Chapter 1 Extra Question Answer Question 5.
Mention the period of the unification of Germany.
Answer:
1866 -1871.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Extra Questions Question 6.
What do you mean by suffrage?
Answer:
Suffrage means right to vote, also called franchise.

Nationalism In Europe Extra Questions Question 7.
Which European powers attended the Congress of Vienna (1815)?
Answer:
Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria.

Source Based Questions History Class 10 Chapter 1 Question 8.
What was the main intention of the Treaty of Vienna (1815)?
Answer:
To restore the erstwhile monarchies in Europe and create a new conservative order.

Class 10 History Chapter 1 One Mark Questions Question 9.
When was the restored Bourbon dynasty overthrown in France?
Answer:
In July 1830.

Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Extra Questions Question 10.
Who had said that when France sneezes, the rest of Europe catch cold?
Answer:
Metternich.

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 11.
Name the English poet who had participated in the Greek war of Independence.
Answer:
Lord Byron, he died, while participating in the war, of fever in 1824.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 Extra Questions Question 12.
Which German philosopher claimed that the true German culture was to be discovered among the common people?
Answer:
Johann Gottfried Herder (1744 -1803).

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Short Questions And Answers Question 13.
Who was Delacroix?
Answer:
Delacroix was all-important French romantic painter. He depicted the incident of the massacre at Chios.

Extra Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 1 Question 14.
Who was Karol Kurpinski ?
Answer:
Kurpinski, a literary artist of Poland, used operas and music and folk dances in nationalist struggle.

Class 10 History Chapter 1 Very Short Questions And Answers Question 15.
State any two features of the 1848 French Republic.
Answer:

1. It granted suffrage to all adult males;
2. It guaranteed right to work.

Question 16.
Who was Louise Otto-Peters?
Answer:
Louise Otto-Peters (1819 – 1895) was a political activist who founded a women’s journal, and later, a feminist political association.

Question 17.
Who was Victor Emmanuel II?
Answer:
Victor Emmanuel II was the Italian king who sought to unify the Italian states through war in the wake of 1931 and 1848 uprisings.

Question 18.
What was Garibaldi’s contribution?
Answer:
Apart from regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under Garibaldi (1809 – 1882) marched into South Itay. He succeeded in enlisting the support of the local people, the peasants especially.

Question 19.
What did Murianne and Germania Mean?
Answer:
They were allegories representing the French and the German nations.

Question 20.
What did the broken chains symbolise?
Answer:
Broke chains symbolise a state of being free.

Question 21.
Mention the mission of the French revolutionaries they had sought to dream.
Answer:
The revolutionaries further declared it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words, to help other peoples of Europe to become nations. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.

Question 22.
Why the initial enthusiasm in the areas where the French armies marched turned into hostility?
Answer:
Initially, in many places such as Holland and Switzerland and in cities such as Brussel, Mainz, Milan, and Warsaw, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. But the initial enthusiasm soon turned to hostility, as it became clear that the new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies required to conquer the rest of Europe, all seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative changes.

Question 23.
what types of social groups emerged as a result of industrialisation in Europe?
Answer:
industrialisation began in England in the second half of the eighteenth century, but in France and parts of the German states, it occurred only during the nineteenth century. In its wake, new social groups came into being a working-class population, and middle classes made up of industrialists, businessmen, professionals.

In Central and Eastern Europe, these groups were smaller in number till late nineteenth century. It was among the educated, liberal middle classes that ideas of national unity following the abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity.

Question 24.
Can you mention obstacles to economic exchanges which Napoleon’s administrative measure had created?
Answer:
Napoleon’s administrative measures had created countless principalities, each possessing its own currency, weights, and measures. This created a lot of obstacles in exchanges. A merchant travelling in 1833 from Hamburg to Nuremberg to sell his goods would have had to pass through 11 customs barriers and pay a customs duty of about 5 per cent at each one of them.

Duties were often levied according to the weight or measurement of the goods. As each region had its own system of weights measures, this involved time-consuming calculation. The measure of cloth, for example, was the Elle which in each region stood for a different length An Elle of textile material bought in Frankfurt would get you 54.7 cm of cloth, in Mainz 55.1 cm, in Nuremberg 65.6 cm, in Freiburg 53.5 cm.

Question 25.
“The 1830s were years of great economic hardships in Europe.” Elucidate.
Answer:
The 1830s’ were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries, there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England.

Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country. The year 1848 was one such year. Food shortages and widespread unemployment brought the population of Paris out on the roads.

Question 26.
Describe the cause of the Silesian weavers uprising. Comment on the viewpoint of the journalist Wolff.
Answer:
Earlier, in 1845, weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied.

Question 27.
Mention the meaning of the symbols together with their significance.
Answer:
The following are the symbols and their respective Significance.

Attribute	significance
Broken chains	Being freed
Breastplate with eagle	Symbol of the German empire-strength
Crown of oak leases	Heroism
Sword	Readiness to fight
Olive branch around the sword	Willingness to make peace
Black, red arid gold tricolour	Flag of the liberal – nationalists in 1848, banned by the Dukes of the German states
Rays of the rising sun	Beginning of a new era

them raw material and gave them orders for finished textile but drastically reduced their payments. On 4 June at 2 p.m. a large crowd of weavers emerged from the homes and marched in pairs up to the mansion of their contractor demanding higher wages.

They were treated with scorn and threats alternately. Following this, a group of them forced their way into the house, smashed its elegant windowpanes, furniture, porcelain… another group broke into the storehouse and plundered it of supplies of cloth which they tore to shreds… The contractor fled with his family to a neighbouring village which, however, refused to shelter such a person. He returned 24 hours later having requisitioned the army. In the exchange that followed, eleven weavers were shot.

The journalist Wilhelm Wolff described the events in Silesian village as follows:
“In these villages (with 18,000 inhabitants cotton weaving is the most widespread occupation. The misery of the workers is extreme. They desperate need for jobs has been taken advantage of by the contractors to reduce the prices of the goods they order”.

Question 28.
How did the European nationalism lead to imperialism?
Answer:
Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914. But meanwhile, many countries in the world which had been colonised by the European powers in the nineteenth century began to oppose imperial domination. The anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were nationalist, in the sense that they all struggled to form independent nation-states, and were inspired by a sense of collective rational unity, forged in confrontation with imperialism.

European ideas of nationalism were nowhere replicated, for people everywhere developed their own specific variety of nationalism. But the idea that societies should be organised into ‘nation-states’ came to be accepted as natural and universal. Imperialism was the natural outcome of nationalism. Britain, France and other European powers had their colonies in most of Asia and Africa. Their mutual rivalries led to war in 1914.

Question 28.
“The revolution of 1848 paved way for national consciousness in Europe.” Explain.
Answer:
The Revolution of 1848 in Central Europe marked the awakening of various peoples to national consciousness. In that year both the Germans and the Italians began their movements for unification and for the creation of nation-states. Although the attempts at revolution failed in 1848, the movements gathered strength in subsequent years. After much political agitation and several wars, an Italian kingdom was created in 1861 and a German empire in 1871.

Other central European peoples who agitated for national independence in 1848 include the Poles, whose territory was divided among Russia, Germany, and Austria; the Czechs and the Hungarians, subjects of the Austrian monarchy; and the Christian peoples living in the Balkan Peninsula under the rule of the Ottoman Sultan. The events in Europe between 1878 and 1918 were shaped largely by the nationalist aspirations of these peoples and their desire to form nation-state, independent of the empires of which they had been part.

Question 29.
Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity.
Answer:
The emphasis on vernacular and the collection of local folklore carried the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate. This was especially so in the case of Poland, which had been partitioned at the end of the eighteenth century by the Great Powers – Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Even though Poland no longer existed as an independent territory, national feelings were kept alive through music and language. Karol Kurpinski, for example, celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and the Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which as ultimately crushed following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use Language as a weapon of national resistance.

Polish was used for Church gatherings and all religious instruction. As a result, a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail, sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance. The Grimm brothers of Germany, of early 19th country, is another example.

Question 30.
Summarize the contribution of Mazzini in the Italian revolution.
Answer:
During the years following 1815, there rose secret societies to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. One such individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini. Born in Genoa in 1807, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states.

Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small stales and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty.

Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.

Question 31.
‘Nation-state’ was the net result of nationalism”. Explain.
Answer:
During the nineteenth century, nationalism emerged as a force which brought about sweeping changes in the political and mental world of Europe. The end result of these changes was the emergence of the nation-state in place of the multi-national dynastic empires of Europe.

The concept and practices of a modern state, in which a centralised power exercised sovereign control over a dearly defined territory, had been developing over a long period of time in Europe. But a nation-state was one in which the majority of its citizens, and not only its rulers, came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history or descent.

This Commonness did not exist from time immemorial; it was forged through struggles, through the actions of leaders and the common people. This chapter will look at the diverse processes through which nation¬states and nationalism came into being in nineteenth-century Europe.

Map Work

Question 1.
Draw the map of Europe as it appeared after the congress of Vienna (1815).
Answer:
See Map Below :

Question 2.
On the outline map of Europe, draw the map of the unification of Germany.
Answer:
See the Map Below:

Question 3.
On the outline map of Europe, draw the maps of the Italy before and after unification:
Answer:
See The Maps:

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose true (✓) and false (x) in the following:
(i) Plebscite means a direct vote for either accepting or recjecting a proposal
(ii) Civil code of 1804 is known as Bismarckian code.
(iii) Garibaldi was an Italian leader.
(iv) The Club of Thinkers believed in noice-making.
Answer:
(i) ✓,
(ii) x,
(iii) ✓,
(iv) x.

Question 2.
Fill in the blank with appropriate words.
(a) Conservation regime, following 1815, was ……………………..
(b) Bourbon kings ruled in ……………………..
(c) Grimm brothers published a …………………….. volume dictionary of the German language
(d) Nationalism, in Europe led to …………………….. .
Answer:
(a) autocratic,
(b) France,
(c) 33,
(d) imperialism.

Question 3.
Choose the most appropriate alternatives
(i) One of the following helped in German unification.
(a) Mazzine
(b) Cavour
(c) Bismark
(d) Garibaldi
Answer:
(c) Bismark

(ii) One of the following had no interest in the 19th century Balkan.
(a) USA
(b) England
(c) Russia
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

(iii) The symbol “Crown of the Oak leaves” meant
(a) cowardice
(b) defeat
(c) victory
(d) herosim
Answer:
(d) herosim

(iv) Ireland was made part of England in
(a) 1707
(b) 1807
(c) 1801
(d) 1701
Answer:
(c) 1801

(v) The Treaty of Constantinople was signed in
(a) 1831
(b) 1832
(c) 1833
(d) 1834
Answer:
(b) 1832

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

In this page, we are providing Online Education How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-science/

Online Education for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers How do Organisms Reproduce

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is reproduction?  [CBSE 2012, 2016]
Answer:
Reproduction is the process by which an organism produces its young ones for perpetuation of its race.

How Do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions Question 2.
Mention two modes of reproduction.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The two modes of reproduction are-sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.

Reproduction Class 10 Extra Questions Question 3.
Give one example for each of the following.
(а) Plants in which vegetative propagation occurs by grafting
(b) Plants in which vegetative propagation occurs by leaves  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
(a) Rose, grapes can be vegetatively propagated by grafting.
(b) Bryophyllum can be vegetatively propagated by leaves.

Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name a plant that has lost the capacity to produce seed. How can it reproduce?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Banana. It can reproduce by vegetative propagation.

Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions Question 5.
Name any two consequences of unsafe sex.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The two consequences of unsafe sex are:

1. Transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
2. Unwanted pregnancy

Class 10 Reproduction Extra Questions Question 6.
Name the hormone, the secretion of which is responsible for dramatic changes in appearance in girls when they approach 10-12 years of age.  [CBSE 2008]
Answer:
Oestrogen

Extra Questions Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 7.
Mention the modes of reproduction used by
(a) Amoeba
(b) Planaria  [CBSE 2009]
Answer:
(a) Amoeba – Binary fission
(b) Planaria – Regeneration

Extra Questions Of Reproduction Class 10 Question 8.
Name any two types of asexual reproduction.  [CBSE 2009]
Answer:

1. Fission
2. budding

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions Question 9.
State the method used for growing rose plants.  [CBSE 2009]
Answer:
Vegetative propagation

Extra Questions On How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 10.
State which type of method is used for growing Jasmine plant.  [CBSE 2009]
Answer:
Layering.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Short Answer Type I

How Do Organisms Reproduce Questions And Answers Question 1.
Write the full form of DNA. Where is it located? What does it consist of?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
DNA = Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid. It is located in the nucleus of the cell. It consists of nucleotides which make nucleic acids.

Chapter 8 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
Mention the information source for making proteins in the cell. What is the basic event in reproduction?  [CBSE 2008, 2009]
Answer:
The information source for making proteins in the cell is deoxyribo nucleic acid (DNA). The basic event in reproduction is the replication of DNA and cell division.

Extra Question Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 3.
How does the creation of variation in a species promote survival?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Creation of variation increases the probability or chances of survival of some members of the population under adverse conditions. This ensures the survival of the species under unfavourable conditions.

Class 10 Science Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
Protozoans reproduce by binary fission as well as multiple fission. Which process is better and why? Give your opinion.  [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Multiple fission is better than binary fission because it produces many daughter cells inside a protective structure called cyst which ensures their survival under adverse conditions.

Extra Questions Of Chapter How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Question 5.
Name the kind of organisms that reproduce by spore formation. How will an organism be benefitted if it reproduces through spores?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Rhizopus (Fungus) reproduces by spore formation. The organism is benefitted because the spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come in contact with a moist surface and begin to grow.

Class 10 Chapter 8 Science Extra Questions Question 6.
Compare the vegetative propagation in Bryophyllum and money plant.  [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Bryophyllum reproduces by the adventitious buds present on the margins of its leaves.
Money plant reproduces by stem cutting which can produce the whole plant when placed in moist soil.

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 7.
List any two pubertal changes that appear in both boys and girls.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The two pubertal changes which appear in both boys and girls are:

1. The skin becomes oily and pimples appear
2. Pubic hairs appear

Ch 8 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 8.
(a) Specify the events which occur in the reproductive system of a human female.
(i) if egg is fertilised
(ii) if egg is not fertilised.
(b) Mention the changes that take place in uterus in both the above events.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
(a) (i) Pregnancy
(ii) Menstruation

(b) If the egg gets fertilised then the wall of the uterus becomes thick and spongy with a rich supply of blood vessels to receive the fertilised zygote.

If the egg does not get fertilised then the blood vessels in the wall of the uterus along with the spongy uterine tissue is shed in the form of blood and mucus through the vagina.

Reproduction Extra Questions Class 10 Question 9.
Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law, state two reasons.  [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law to:

1. Check the female foeticide
2. Prevent the decline in female sex ratio

Extra Questions Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Question 10.
How can pregnancy be prevented surgically?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The pregnancy can be prevented surgically by:

• Vasectomy: The vas deferens of male is blocked to prevent sperm transfer.
• Tubectomy: The fallopian tube of female is blocked to prevent egg to reach uterus.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Short Answer Type II

Question 1.
Mention any three advantages of variation in individuals.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The advantages of variation are:

1. Forms the basis of evolution
2. Enables survival under adverse conditions
3. Enables the organisms to adapt.

Question 2.
Identify among the following organisms, which reproduce by sexual and which by asexual methods?
Amoeba, Human beings, Whale, Hydra, Spirogyra, Dog  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Sexual reproduction – Human beings, Whale, Dog
Asexual reproduction – Amoefea, Hydra, Spirogyra

Question 3.
How do the following plants reproduce?
(a) Potato
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Ginger  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(a) Potato by tuber
(b) Sweet Potato by root
(c) Ginger by rhizome.

Question 4.
Explain budding in Hydra with the help of diagrams only. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:

Question 5.
Differentiate between reproduction and regeneration. Name any two organisms which grow by regeneration.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Reproduction is the process by which an organism produces its young ones for perpetuation of its race. Some organisms have the ability to form new organisms from the pieces of its body which has been cut into different pieces. This process by which new organisms develop from the parts of an organism is called regeneration. Planaria and Hydra have the ability of regeneration.

Question 6.
Name the female reproductive part of a flower. Which part of a flower develops into a seed and a fruit? Where are the male germ cell and female gamete present in the flower? [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
Female reproductive part of a flower is carpel. Ovule develops into a seed and a fertilised ovary develops into fruit. Male germ cells are present in the pollen grain of a flower. Female gamete are present in the ovules located in ovary of a flower.

Question 7.
(a) Trace the path of sperms from where they are produced in human body to the exterior.
(b) Write the functions of secretions of prostate gland and seminal vesicle in humans.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Sperm comes out from testis into the vas deferens and pass through the urethra before ejaculation. The secretions of seminal vesicle and prostrate glands provide nutrition to the sperms and also facilitate their transport.

Question 8.
Name one sexually transmitted disease each caused due to bacterial infection and viral infection. How can these be prevented? [CBSE 2008]
Answer:

1. Gonorrhoea caused by bacteria
2. AIDS caused by HIV (Human immune deficiency virus)

They can be prevented by using condoms and safe sexual practices.

Question 9.
Name the organ where sperms are produced and name the hormone produced by it. Why do sperms have a tail but ovum does not have it?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Sperms are produced in the testes. The hormone produced by testes is testosterone. The sperms have a tail to enable them to swim and move towards the non-motile female gamete.

Question 10.
What is reproduction? Mention the importance of DNA copying in reproduction.  [CBSE 2008]
Answer:
Reproduction is the process by which organisms produce their own kind. The DNA copying is important because:

• It ensures the transmission of characteristics from parents to their offsprings.
• Variations are created during DNA copying which increase the chances of survival of the species and in the evolution of new life forms.

Question 11.
Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of chromosomes. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer;
The process of cell division called meiosis halves the number of chromosomes present in the cell of an organism. The gametes produced as a result of meiosis, fuse during sexual reproduction and restore the number of chromosomes in the offsprings of the individual.

Question 12.
Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of bread?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Moist slice of bread is able to provide both moisture and nutrients needed for the growth of the hyphae. Dry slice of bread is able to provide only the nutrients but not moisture, so the hyphae do not grow on the dry slice of bread.

Question 13.
Would a Planaria cut vertically into two halves regenerate into two individuals? Complete Figure D and E by indicating the regenerated regions.  [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
Yes, shaded part in Figures D and E represent the regenerated halves.

Question 14.
From the internet, gather information about the chromosome numbers of five animals and five plants. Correlate the number with the size of organism and answer the following questions.
(а) Do larger organisms have more number of chromosomes/cells?
(b) Can organism with fewer chromosomes reproduce more easily than organisms with more number of chromosomes?
(c) More the number of chromosomes/cells greater is the DNA content. Justify.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) No, there is no relationship between size of the organism and its chromosome number.
(b) No, process of reproduction follows a common pattern and is not dependent on the number of chromosomes.
(c) Yes, if there are more chromosomes in a cell, the quantity of DNA will also be more because the major component of the chromosome is DNA.

Question 15.
In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty four chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the female gamete? What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Number of chromosomes in female gamete is 24.
Number of chromosomes in zygote is 48.

Question 16.
How are general growth and sexual maturation different from each other?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
General growth comprises of the different types of developmental process in the body like increase in height, weight gain, changes in shape and size of the body. Sexual maturation refers to the specific changes which occur at puberty like cracking of voice, new hair patterns, development of breast in female, etc.

Question 17.
Trace the path of sperm during ejaculation and mention the gland and their functions associated with the male reproductive system.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Sperm comes out from testis into the vas deferens and pass through the urethra before ejaculation. The secretions of seminal vesicle and prostate glands provide nutrition to the sperms and also facilitate their transport.

Question 18.
What changes are observed in the uterus if fertilisation does not occur?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
If fertilisation does not occur then the thick and spongy lining of the uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina in the form of blood and mucus.

Question 19.
What changes are observed in the uterus subsequent to implantation of young embryo?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
After implantation, a special tissue called placenta develops which connects embryo to the uterine wall. Placenta provides nutrients and oxygen to the embryo which are obtained from the rich blood supply of the uterine wall.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Why are budding, fragmentation and regeneration all considered as asexual types of reproduction? With neat diagrams explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.  [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
They are considered as asexual types of reproduction as all of them involve a single parent and no fusion of gametes take place in them.

Question 2.
Write two points of difference between asexual and sexual types of reproduction. Describe why variations are observed in the offspring formed by sexual reproduction.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction:

1. Single parent is involved.
2. No fusion of gametes occur.
3. Progeny is genetically identical to the parent.
   For example, Fission in Amoeba

Sexual Reproduction:

1. Two parents are involved.
2. Fusion of gametes occurs.
3. Variations occur in the progeny.
   For example, Human beings

Fusion of gametes occurs during sexual reproduction. The gametes contain the same number of chromosomes but their DNA is not identical so variations arise among the offsprings.

Question 3.
Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and product of fertilisation in a flower. Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth and its entry into the ovule.   [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination.
Fertilisation: The process of fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote is called fertilisation.
The site of fertilisation is ovule. The product of fertilisation is zygote.

Question 4.
Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual reproduction.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The sex cell or germ cell in sexual reproduction is called gametes. There are two types of gametes, male and female. A male and a female gamete fuse with each other during fertilisation to form a zygote.

The gametes possess characters of their parents in their DNA and their fusion brings characters of both parents into one zygote cell. Zygote is the first cell of the next generation which divides to form an embryo which subsequently grows into a new individual.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram of a flower and label the four whorls. Write the names of gamete producing organs in the flower. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Male gamete forming part – anther/stamen
Female gamete forming part – pistil/ovary/ovule

Question 6.
What is placenta? Mention its role during pregnancy.  [NCERT Exemplar, CBSE 2017]
Answer:
A disc shaped special tissue connection between embryo and uterine wall is called placenta. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue which are surrounded by blood spaces on the mother’s side. Roles of placenta are:

• It provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from mother to the embryo.
• Removes waste substances produced by the developing embryo.

Question 7.
What are various ways to avoid pregnancy? Elaborate any one method.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Contraceptive methods are used to avoid pregnancy which are of the following types:

• Mechanical
• Drugs (as pills)
• Loop or copper T and
• Surgical method.

(b) Surgical Methods:

• Vasectomy: The vas deferens of male is blocked to prevent sperm transfer.
• Tubectomy: The fallopian tube of female is blocked to prevent egg to reach uterus.
• Copper-T or loop is placed in uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Question 8.
How does fertilisation take place? Fertilisation occurs once in a month. Comment.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

• Sperm enters through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse and moves upwards.
• Egg released from the ovary reaches the fallopian tube (oviduct).
• Sperm encounters egg in the oviduct and fertilisation takes place. Fallopian tube (oviduct) is the site of fertilisation.
• An egg is released once every month by the ovary as usually one ovum (egg) is released by an ovary during each cycle.

Question 9.
Reproduction is essentially a phenomenon that is not for survival of an individual but for the stability of a species. Justify.  [NCERT Exemplar, CBSE 2017]
Answer:

• The energy needed for survival of the organisms is obtained by them from life processes such as nutrition and respiration.
• Reproduction needs a lot of energy.
• Genetic material is transferred from one generation to the next as a result of reproduction through DNA copying.
• DNA copying takes place with high constancy and considerable variations, that is, advantages to the species for stability in the changing environment.

Question 10.
Describe sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them.  [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases are infectious diseases transmitted during sexual contact. Various agents like bacteria and virus cause these diseases. For example, Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and HIV-AIDS are sexually transmitted diseases.

Principles to follow to prevent such infections:

• Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners,
• Always use condoms during coitus.
• Use of mechanical barrier like condom prevents transmission of infection
• In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.

How do Organisms Reproduce HOTS Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Ravi took three bread slices and kept them in the following conditions:
(a) Slice 1 in a dried and dark place
(b) Slice 2 in moist and dark place
(c) Slice 3 in refrigerator under moist conditions
What would he observe in each of the above conditions?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(a) No spores will be formed in Slice 1 as moisture is not there.
(b) Fungal hyphae develop as white cottony mass and bear sporangia having spores in Slice 2 as they get both favourable conditions of moisture and darkness.
(c) No spores will be formed in Slice 3 as lower temperature in refrigerator is not favourable for their formation.

Question 2.
Small piece of root tissue was taken from the rose plant and placed in a nutrient medium. Each root tissue produced a new rose plant. Name the reproductive process involved. What type of genes will be possessed by the new rose plant?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The reproductive process involved is called as tissue culture. The new rose plant has the genes which are identical to the parent rose plant.

Question 3.
A student noticed that an organism by mistake was cut into parts. After sometime, both parts developed into new individuals.
(a) Name the mode of reproduction used by the organism.
(b) State the type of cells which carry this process.
(c) State two examples of organisms which multiply by this process.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(а) The mode of reproduction used by the organism is regeneration.
(b) It is carried out by specialised which can proliferate and make a large number of cells by cell division.
(c) Hydra and Planaria.

Question 4.
Explain why fertilisation is possible only if copulation takes place during the middle of menstrual cycle?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The release of ovum occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle i.e., on 14th day. So, the chances of meeting of sperm and egg are increased during this period. Hence, if copulation takes place during the middle of menstrual cycle, the chances of fertilisation are more.

Question 5.
Name the plant hormones which help/promote
(i) Cell division
(ii) Growth of stem  [CBSE 2009]
Answer:
(i) Cytokinins help in cell division.
(ii) Auxins help in the growth of the stem.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Rohini’s parents received a proposal for her marriage from a boy living in U.K. Before everything could get finalised, Rohini asked her parents to ask the boy to get his blood test report.
(a) Do you think it was right on the part of Rohini’s parents to do so?
(b) What moral values did Rohini showed?
(c) Name two STD’s along with their causative organism.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(a) Yes, it was right on Rohini’s parents to do so because blood reports would be able to indicate whether the person has any disease, any sexually transmitted disease or is free of them.

(b) Rohini is intelligent, cautious, responsible and vigilant.

(c) Two sexually transmitted diseases are:

• AIDS caused by HIV
• Gonorrhoea caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 7

Question 1.
Why do people blame democracy?
Answer:
Sometimes we expect everything and anything from democracy. Our interest in and fascination for democracy often pushes us in taking a position that democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems. If some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Or we start doubting if we are living in a democracy.

Question 2.
What is the most basic outcome of democracy?
Answer:

• The most bs. ,c outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
• The democracy must be responsive to the needs and wishes of the people.

Question 3.
Decision making in a democracy takes time: Why?
Answer:

• Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiations. So, decision-making process is little delayed.
• But the non-democratic governments do not have to think about majority decision and public opinion. So, they take little time in decision making and implementation.

Question 4.
While trying to find out its outcomes, what is expected from democracy?
Answer:
When we are trying to find out the outcomes of democracy, it is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to the people. We can also expect that the democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable and mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think fit.

Question 5.
If you wanted to measure democracies on the basis of their expected outcome, which qualifications would you look for?
Answer:
If we wanted to measure democracies on the basis of its expected outcome, we would look for the following practices and institutions:

• Regular, free and fair elections;
• Open public debate on major policies and legislations; and
• Citizens right to information about the government and its functioning.

Question 6.
Economic development of a country depends on several factors. Name such a few factors:
Answer:
Economic development of a country depends on several factors:

• Country’s population size
• Global situation
• Cooperation from other countries
• Economic priorities adopted by the country.

Question 7.
Is it true that democracies have not been very successful in reducing economic exploitation?
Answer:
It is a fact that democracies do not appear to have been successful in reducing economic inequalities. But it is only possible in a democracy that people can raise their voice against not only economic inequalities but also all types of inequalities. The government has to make sincere efforts to reduce and remove such inequalities.

Question 8.
The table shown below mentions the rates of economic growth for different countries between 1950-2000 Study the table carefully and draw your own conclusion.

Type of regimes and countries	Growth Rate
Alt democratic regimes	3.95
All dictatorial regimes	4.42
Poor countries under dictatorship	4.34
Poor countries under democracy	4.28

Answer:

• Between 1950-2000, on an average dictatorial regime had a slightly better record of economic growth as compared to democratic regimes.
• But if their record is compared to poor countries only, we find negligible difference of 0.06%.

Question 9.
Do democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens?
Answer:
It will be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. Belgium has successfully negotiated among different ethnic populations. Democracies usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.

Question 10.
Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Explain.
Answer:

• Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
• Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect.
• The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.

Question 11.
What should be the prudential thinking about the outcomes of democracy?
or
What is the first step towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy?
Answer:

• The first step towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy is to recognize that democracy is just a form of government.
• It can only create conditions for achieving some things
• The citizens have to take advantage of those conditions and achieve those goals.
• Moreover, democracy is just not related to many other things that we value. Democracy is not a magical remedy for all our social ailments.

Question 12.
“Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that can not be ignored.” Discuss.
Answer:

• There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government
• It may be slow, less efficient not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic government is people’s own government.
• That is why there is a Asian overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.
• As the accompanying evidence from South Asia shows, the support exists in countries with democratic regimes as well as countries without democratic regimes.

Question 13.
The cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it. Explain
Answer:

If we think in terms of costs and imagine a government that may take decisions very fast, we find that it may take decisions that are not accepted by the people and may therefore face problems.

In contrast, the democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.

But because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective

So, the cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it.

Question 14.
Explain the challenges faced by democracy today regarding reduction of inequality and poverty.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities

A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and income. Not only that. Their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.

Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as we would expect them to.

The situation is much worse in some other countries. In Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in poverty.

People in several poor countries are now dependent on the rich countries even for the food supplies.

Question 15.
The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy. Discuss.
Answer:

• The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.
• A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.
• Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to way the government is run and to their own self-interest.

Question 16.
How can you say that democracy has provided an opportunity for women to secure dignity?
Answer:

• Most societies across world were historically male-dominated societies.
• Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today that respect to and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic society.
• That does not mean that women are actually always treated with respect.
• But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally.
• In a non-democratic set-up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the the legal and moral force there.

Question 17.
What conditions are necessary in a democracy for handling social differences, divisions and conflicts?
Answer:
People should understand that democracy is not simply rule of majority. In fact, majority needs to work with minority to represent the general view of the government.

Majority rule does not mean rule by majority community in terms of race, religion or linguistic groups.

It means that different persons and groups may and can form a majority in case of election or every decision.

Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time.

If someone is barred from being in majority on the basis of birth, then the democratic rules ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.

Objective Type Questions

Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What was the rate of economic growth of all dictatorial regimes between 1950 – 2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 4.42
(c) 4.34
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(b) 4.42.

Question 2.
What was the rate of economic growth of all democratic regimes between 1950-2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 4.42
(c) 4.34
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(a) 3.95.

Question 3.
What was the rate of economic growth of poor countries under democracy between 1950-2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 2.9
(c) 4.0
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(d) 4.28.

Question 4.
In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than per cent of national income.
(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 49
Answer:
(a) 60

Question 5.
Democracies are based on:
(a) Economic equality
(b) Political equality
(c) Religions equality
(d) Social equality
Answer:
(b) Political equality

Question 6.
How much population of Bangladesh lives in poverty?
(a) More than 20 per cent
(b) More than 30 per cent
(c) More than 40 per cent
(d) More than 50 per cent
Answer:
(d) More than 50 per cent

Question 7.
What is the position of democracy in comparison to other forms of government?
(a) Superior
(b) Inferior
(c) Equal
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Superior.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

In this page, we are providing Online Education for Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-science/

Online Education for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Heredity and Evolution

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Very Short Answer Type

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions With Answers Question 1.
Define heredity.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Transmission of characters/traits from parents to their offspring is called heredity.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
Write the sex of the baby that inherits Y-chromosome from the father.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The baby that inherits the Y-chromosome from the father will be a male.

Heredity And Evolution Extra Questions Question 3.
Name the scientist who gave the theory of evolution.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Charles Darwin.

Extra Questions Of Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 4.
Define species.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Species is a group of organisms which can interbreed among themselves to produce fertile offsprings.

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 5.
Define natural selection.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The process of evolution of species where the characteristics of the organisms which enable them to survive and reproduce are passed on to their progeny is called natural selection.

Heredity Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Identify the analogous and homologous organs amongst the following – wings of an insect, wings of a bat, forelimbs of lizard, and forelimbs of bird.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Analogous organs: Wings of an insect and wings of a bat.
Homologous organs: Forelimbs of lizard and forelimbs of bird.

Extra Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 7.
Give an example where sex is determined by the environmental factors.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
In some snails and turtles, sex is determined by environmental factors.

Class 10 Heredity And Evolution Extra Questions Question 8.
Write one word for the formation of new species due to gradual change over long period of time.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Speciation.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Short Answer Type I

Heredity Questions And Answers Question 1.
How can we say that change in genes can be brought about by change in DNA?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Segment of DNA on a chromosome which carries information for the appearance of a particular character is called a gene. It helps in the inheritance of the character from one generation to another. So, we can say that changes in gene can be brought about by change in DNA.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 2.
In pea plant, round seed is dominant over wrinkled. If a cross is carried between these two plants, give answer to the following questions.
(a) Mention the genes for the traits of parents.
(b) State the trait of F1 hybrids.
(c) Write the ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross. What is the name of the cross?[CBSE 2011]
Answer:
(a) RR/rr
(b) The F1 hybrid will be Round (Rr).
(c) Phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1; Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1; The cross will be called as Monohybrid cross.

Class 10 Science Ch 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
What do you understand by reproductive isolation?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
If the members of the two species are unable to reproduce themselves due to physical, behavioural, ecological, and temporal or development reasons, then the process is called as reproductive isolation.

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Extra Question Answer Question 4.
Explain with the help of a suitable example where the colour change gives no survival advantage to a species. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
In the illustration shown the colour of the red coloured beetles living in the green coloured bushes changes to blue colour, but still, it offers no advantage in the green colour bushes because the predators can easily spot the beetles. An elephant stumps on the bushes and kills most of the red beetles. The blue beetles survive merely by chance and not due to their body colour.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question Answer Question 5.
Distinguish between acquired and inherited traits with example of each.
Answer:
Inherited traits:

• The traits which are passed on from the parents to their progeny by transfer of genes.
• For example, Eye colour

Acquired traits:

• The traits acquired by individual during its lifetime.
• For example, Riding a bicycle, playing cricket, etc.

Heredity Questions And Answers Class 10 Question 6.
How can it be said that birds are closely related to reptiles?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Reptiles like Dinosaurs had feathers to maintain their body temperature. The birds have adapted the feathers for flight. So, it can be said that the birds have evolved from the reptiles. Archaeopteryx is a fossil which forms a link between the birds and the reptiles.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Short Answer Type II

Heredity Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Can you justify the statement that “Human males are responsible for determining the sex of the baby and not females”?  [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Answer:
The sex in human beings or the sex of the individual is largely genetically determined. A male cell has two types of sex chromosomes i.e., X – chromosome and Y – chromosome because of which male produces two types of sperms with genotype A + X and A + Y. Female cells have two X – chromosomes so the genotype of eggs produced by her is A + X. During fertilisation the chances are:

• If a sperm carrying Y – chromosome fertilises the egg, then the child born will be a male i.e., AA + XY.
• If a sperm carrying X – chromosome fertilises the egg then the child born will be a female i.e., AA + XX.

Thus we can infer that the sperm of the male determines the sex of the child.

Heredity And Evolution Question Answer Question 2.
“Red beetles live in a bush with green beetles. Eventually, the number of green beetles increases as compared to red beetles”.
(a) Give a reason for the increased number of green beetles.
(b) State two advantages of variations.  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
(a) The crows are unable to spot the green coloured beetles in the green coloured bushes, so the number of green coloured beetles increases.

(b) Variations are advantageous as they:

• Enable the survival of the organism under adverse conditions.
• Leads to evolution.

Heredity And Evolution Hots Questions Question 3.
Name the scientist who gave the ‘Theory of Natural Selection’. State and explain the theory briefly.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The theory of evolution by natural selection, first formulated in Darwin’s book “On the Origin of Species” in 1859, is the process by which organisms change over time as a result of changes in heritable physical or behavioural traits. Changes that allow an organism to better adapt to its environment will help it survive and have more offspring.

The four steps in the process can be summarised as:

1. Large numbers: The parent produces more offspring than that can survive.
2. Competition: There is a limited amount of resources, so competition occurs among the offsprings and also with the other members of the population.
3. Survival of the fittest: Only the members who have favourable variations survive the competition.
4. Natural selection: The surviving members reproduce and pass on the variations to their progeny.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘Evolution’. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress”. Justify.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The process by which the new types of organisms are formed from the pre-existing organisms through variations and modifications is called evolution.

Natural selection and genetic drift cause evolution but that does not mean that

• One species is eliminated to form the new one, or
• The new species is better than the older one. So, evolution should not be equated with progress as multiple branches are possible at each and every stage of evolution.

Example: Human beings have not evolved from chimpanzees. Both have evolved in their own separate ways from a common ancestor a long time ago.

Question 5.
“Our teeth and elephant’s tusks are homologous organs”. Justify this statement. What do the analogous organs indicate?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
Our teeth and elephant’s tusks are homologous organs because they have the same basic structure and origin but perform different functions.
Analogous organs are those organs which perform the same function but have different structure.

Question 6.
How and why did human race spread from Africa to other parts of the world? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Earliest members of human species (Homo sapiens) came from Africa. Some of our ancestors stayed back in Africa while others moved and spread across to West Asia, Central Asia, Eurasia, South Asia, and East Asia.

They moved from the islands of Indonesia and the Philippines to Australia, and some crossed the Bering land bridge to reach America. They did not go in a single line but went forwards and backwards, with groups sometimes separating from each other, sometimes coming back to mix with each other, even moving in and out of Africa.

Question 7.
Give reasons why acquired characters are not inherited.
Answer:
No change in the DNA of germ cells is produced by the acquired characters, so they cannot be inherited. Only those characters are inherited which have a gene for them.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Demonstrate with an example that traits may be dominant or recessive. Write down Mendel’s law related to it. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The cross shown below demonstrates that the traits may be dominant or recessive.

The law related to it is the Mendel’s first law of inheritance i.e., Law of dominance, which states that:

• Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
• Factors occur in pairs.
• In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive).

Question 2.
In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants denoted by TT and short pea plants denoted by tt, Preeti obtained only tall plants denoted by Tt in the F1 generation. However, in F2 generation she obtained both tall and short pea plants. Using the above information, explain the law of dominance.  [CBSE 2011]
Answer:
The cross shown below demonstrates that the traits may be dominant or recessive.

The law related to it is the Mendel’s first law of inheritance i.e., Law of dominance, which states that:

• Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
• Factors occur in pairs.
• In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive).

Question 3.
Define speciation. What are the factors which lead to speciation?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
The process of formation of new species from the existing species is called speciation.
The factors which lead to the formation of new species are:

(i) Reproductive Isolation:
(a) Allopatric speciation: Caused by the various types of barriers like mountain ranges, rivers, seas, etc. It leads to reproductive isolation between members of the species and this is also called geographical isolation.
(b) Sympatric speciation: It occurs when populations of a species that share the same habitat become reproductively isolated from each other.

(ii) Genetic Drift: It is caused by change in the frequency of a particular genes by accident or by chance alone.

(iii) Natural Selection: The process by which a group of organisms adopts to fit their environment in a better way.

(iv) Migration: When movement of a section of population to another place and population occurs.

(v) Mutation: Sudden changes in the sequence of DNA.

Question 4.
In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the FI had all white flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100 individuals, 75 of which had white flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(а) What are the genotypes of F2 individual?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation?  [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
W = White.
w – Purple.

(a) Genotypes of F2 individuals are 1(WW) : 2(Ww) : 1(ww)
(b) Ratio of white to purple flowers = 3 : 1, i.e., 3 white : 1 purple

Question 5.
Does geographical isolation of individuals of a species lead to formation of a new species? Provide a suitable explanation.
Answer:
Yes, geographical isolation gradually leads to genetic drift. It leads to productive isolation between members of the species as it imposes limitations to sexual reproduction of the separated population.

Slowly new variations arise as the separated individuals reproduce among themselves. Accumulation of the variations which arise through a few generations may ultimately lead to the formation of a new species.

Question 6.
Bacteria have a similar body plan when compared with human beings. Does it mean that human beings are more evolved than bacteria. provide a suitable explanation.
Answer:
It depends on the perspective which we consider while assessing whether humans are more evolved than the bacteria because, if appearance of complexity is concurrent with evolution, then human beings are certainly more evolved than bacteria.

But if we take the toataliy of life characteristics into account, then it is hard to lable either organisms are evolved.

Question 7.
Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.
Answer:
The basic features of the mechanism of inheritance are:

• Characters are controlled by genes.
• Genes are present on the chromosomes.
• Each gene controls one character.
• There may be two or more forms of the same gene.
• One form of the gene may be dominant over the other.
• Two forms of the gene whether similar or dissimilar are present in an individual.
• The two forms of the gene separate at the time of gamete formation.
• The two forms of the gene are brought together in the zygote.

Heredity and Evolution HOTS Questions With Answers

Question 1.
In a cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers, the F1 had all purple flowers. When F1 generation was self bred, the F2 generation gave rise to 100 individuals, 75 of which had purple flowers. Make a cross and answer.
(a) What are the genotypes of F2 individual?
(b) What is the ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation? [CBSE 2012]
Answer;
The cross is depicted as under:
W = White, w = purple

(a) The genotype of F2 individuals is

(b) Ratio of purple flowered plants in F2 generation is:

Question 2.
An elephant learns a trick at the circus. Will his offsprings also know the trick by birth? Support your answer with reasons.  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Learning a trick at the circus is not an inherited trait. It is an acquired trait which cannot be transferred into the progeny. So, his offsprings will not know the trick by birth.

Question 3.
Do genetic combination of mother’s play a significant role in determining the sex of a new born?
Answer:
No, because mothers have a pair of X-chromosomes. All children will inherit an “X’ chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.

Question 4.
Mention three important features of fossils which help in the study of evolution.
Answer:
The features of fossils which help in the study of evolution are:

1. They are modes of preservation of ancient species.
2. They help in establishing evolutionary relationships among organisms and their ancestors.
3. They help in establishing the time period in which organisms lived.

Question 5.
In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50 : 50. Give a suitable explanation.
Answer:
The type of sex chromosome contributed by the male gamete determines the sex of an infant. Since the ratio of male gametes containing X chromosome and those containing Y chromosome is 50 : 50, the statistical probability of male or a female infant is also 50 : 50.

Question 6.
A very small population of a species faces a greater threat of extinction than a larger population. Provide a suitable genetic explanation.
Answer:
Extensive inbreeding is imposed by fewer individuals in a species. This limits the appearance of variations and the species is put at a disadvantage if there are changes in the environment. Such individuals fail to cope up with the environmental changes and may become extinct.

Question 7.
A man who has four sons and one daughter believes that he produces more of sperms with Y as a chromosome. With suitable reasons, justify whether he is right or wrong in thinking this way.
Answer:
A man produces 50% sperms with Y chromosome and 50% with X chromosome whereas a female produces 100% ovum with X chromosome. So, it’s just a matter of chance which sperm fertilises the ovum. If sperm with Y chromosome fertilises the ovum the progeny will be son and if sperm with X chromosome fertilises the egg, then the progeny will be daughter. So, the man is not right in his thinking that he is producing more sperms having Y chromosome.

Question 8.
Akshat and his wife have attached earlobe (recessive trait) and are professional dancers. They told their colleagues that their offspring would also have attached earlobe and will be a good dancer. Is their notion right? Support your answer with suitable reasons.
Answer:
Attached earlobe or free earlobe is an inherited trait. Also, both parents have attached earlobe which is a recessive trait, so the progeny produced will have attached earlobe. But, the ability to dance or being a good dancer is an acquired trait which an individual acquires during its lifetime. So, there is no certainty that the offspring produced will be a good dancer or not. Therefore, the notion they perceive is not right.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Ashima saw a female being blamed by the family members for producing a girl child. She approached them and told that the genetic basis of sex determination of human beings clearly indicates that only the female should not be blamed for producing a girl child. The family members agreed to her argument and felt sorry for their act.
Based on the above answer the following questions:
(а) What is the basis of sex determination in human beings?
(b) What are the chances of the birth of a boy or a girl during sexual reproduction in human beings?
(c) What values were shown by Ashima in dealing with the situation?
Answer:
(a) Sex in human beings is genetically determined by the sperm of the father. A male cell has two types of sex chromosomes i.e., X-chromosome and Y-chromosome because of which male produces two types of sperms with genotype A + X and A + Y. Female cells have two X-chromosomes so the genotype of eggs produced by her is A + X.

(b) During fertilisation the chances are:

• If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises the egg, then the child born will be a male i.e., AA + XY.
• If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises the egg, then the child born will be a female i.e., AA + XX.

(c) Care for Others, Knowledge, Intelligent, Responsibility, scientific temperament.

Question 2.
Rohit’s father is a wrestler and has a robust body. He was also awarded as Mr. India when he was young. Rohit is the only child. As Rohit grew older, everyone expected him to have the same body built as his father. But he is thin. His friends tease him and he feels depressed by it.
(а) Is it true that a wrestler’s son should also have heavy muscles?
(b) What type of character is it: acquired or inherited?
(c) What are the values shown by Rohit’s friends?  [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
(a) No, it is not true that a wrestler’s son should also have heavy muscles.
(b) It is an acquired character.
(c) Rohit’s friend are careless and ignorant. They lack scientific attitude in relation to the above situation.

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

Question 1.
What do you understand by a political party?
Answer:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree On the some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.

Question 2.
What are the three main components of a political party
Answer:
A political party has three components:

1. The leaders
2. The active members, and
3. The followers.

Question 3.
“Parties play a decisive role in law-making for country. ” Discuss.
Answer:

• Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country Formally, laws are debated and passed in legislature.
• But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.

Question 4.
Explain any four functions of the political parties.
Answer:

• Parties contest elections.
• Parties form and run government.
• Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
• Parties shape public opinion.

Question 5.
How do parties form and run government?
Answer:

• Different political parties take part in elections. A party winning maximum number of seals in the election is invited to form the government.
• The big policy decision are taken by political executive that comes from political parties.
• Parties recruit leaders, trains them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

Question 6.
“Parties shape public opinion. ” How?
Answer:

• Parties shape public opinion. They and highlight issues. Parties have lakhs of members and activities spread all over the country.
• Many of the pressure groups are the extension of political parties among different sections of society.
• Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.

Question 7.
Describe the role of opposition party in a democracy?
Answer:

• Those parties that lose in the election play the opposition to the power, by voicing different views and criticizing government for its failures or wrong policies.
• Opposition parties also mobilize opposition to the government.

Question 8.
Define one-party system.
Answer:
In some countries, only one party is allowed to and run government. These ore called one-party systems. Ex. – China, Cuba, North Korea.

Question 9.
What is meant by two-party?
Answer:
In the two-party system there two major parties in the political sphere There parties also but they partner with the parties. To win the elections winning party has to get the maximum votes This is followed Great Britain and the USA.

Question 10.
Is one-party system good for democracy?
Answer:

• We cannot consider one System as a good option because this is not democratic option.
• Any democratic system must allow at least two parties compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power.

Question 11.
Explain the meaning of an alliance or a front with suitable example.
Answer:
When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose contesting elections and winning power it is called an alliance or front. For example, in India, there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and the left Front.

Question 12.
Give one positive and one negative point about the multi-party system.
Answer:

1. Negative point: The multi-party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.
2. Positive Point: At the same time, this system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.

Question 13.
What is meant by a National Party?
Answer:
A political party that wins at least six per cent of the votes in the Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and win at least four seats in the Lok Sabha, is recognized as a National party.

Question 14.
What is meant by the state party?
Answer:
A political party that secures at least six per cent of votes in an election to legislative assembly of a state and wins at least two seats in recognized as state party.

Question 15.
What kind of political parties are found in a federal democratic system?
Answer:
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kins of polt parties.

• Parties that are present in only one of the federal units and
• Parties that are present in several or all units of the federation.

Question 16.
Name one regional party each from the following states of India: UP, Manipur, Mizoram, Goa, Kerala and Orissa.
Answer:

• UP- Samajwadi Party (SP)
• Manipur- Manipur People’s (MPP)
• Mizoram – Mizo National Front (MNF)
• Goa – United Goans Democratic Party (UGDP)
• Kerala – Indian Federal Democratic Party (IFDP)
• Orissa- Biju Janta Dal (BJD).

Question 17.
What are the major challenges before the political parties?
Answer:
There are four major challenges before the political parties:

• Lack of internal democracy
• Dynastic succession
• Role of money and muscle power and
• No meaningful choice of parties among the voters.

Question 18.
Describe the efforts made by the Election Commission to bring internal democracy in political parties.
Answer:

1. The election commission passed an order making it necessary for political to hold their organizational election and file their income tax returns
2. The parties have starting doing so, sometimes only informality. It is not clear if this step has led to greater internal democracy in political parties.

Question 19.
What do you mean by multi-party system?
Answer:
In this system, there are three or more Parties. Every party has the capacity to win the elections and form the government. Each party competes and contests the elections. Sometimes no party gets the majority and several parties join together to form the government. This system is followed in Denmark and India.

Question 20.
Write a short note on Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis OBCs and religious minorities. It draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Pule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. It stands for the cause of securing the interest and welfare of the Dalits and oppressed people.

It has been its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and -substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Punjab. It formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004, it polled about 5 per cent votes and secured 19 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 21.
Describe the policies and programmes of Communist Party of India- Marxist (CPI-M).
Answer:
Communist party of India – Marxist (CPIM) was founded in 1964. It believes in Marxism Leninism. It supports socialism Secularism and democracy and opposes imperialism and communalism. Its enjoys strong support in West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura, especially among the poor, factory workers, farmers, agricultural labourers and intelligentsia.

This party is critical of the new economic policies that allows free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country. It has been in power in West Bengal without a break for 30 years. In 2004 elections, it won about 6 percent of votes and 43 seats in the Lok Sabha. Currently, it supports the UPA government from outside, without joining the government.

Question 22.
How does dynastic succession affect party and democracy?
OR
Dynastic succession is a great challenge to political parties. Illucidate with suitable example.
Answer:

• Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
• Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members.
• In many parties, the top position are always controlled by members of one family.
• This is unfair to other members of that party. This is also bad for democracy since people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

Question 23.
Discuss the role of money and muscle power in democracy
Answer:

• Nowadays, the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties, especially during the election during the election has increased. It has posed a great challenge to democracy.
• Since parties are focused only on winning election, they tend to use short- cuts to win
  elections. They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Later on such People influence the policies of the party, spread corruption and Damage the image of the party they belong to.
• Some rich people and companies who give funds to the Parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the Party.
• In some cases, parties support criminals who can win Elections. Democrats all over the world are worried about the Increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic Because such trends prove unhealthy both for the party And democracy on the long run.

Question 24.
The quality of the democracy depends on the degree of Public Participation. Justify.
Answer:

• Since the democracy is people’s own government so greater Public participation will strengthen democracy.
• People’s greater participation ensures better quality Politics.
• To choose the right kind of representatives is in the self-interest of the people. For this, they must take active part in politics.
• The degree of public participation. It is difficult to reform Politics if ordinary citizens do not take part in it and simply criticise. lt from outside. The problems of bad policies can be solved by more and better politics.

Question 25.
Parties are necessary conditions for a democracy. Discuss.
OR
What is the necessity of a political party?
Answer:
We can understand the necessity of political party by Imaging a situation without parties.

Every candidate in the election will be independent. So no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any Major policy changes.

The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain.

Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But no one will be responsible for how the country run.

We can also think about it by looking at the non – party-based elections to the panchayat in many states. Although the parties do not contest formally, it is generally noticed that the village gets split into more than one faction, each of which puts up a ‘panel’ of its candidates.

This is exactly what the party does. That is the reason we find political parties in almost all countries of the world, whether these countries are big or small, old or new, developed or developing.

Question 26.
How can you say that the future of popular participation in political parties in India is bright?
Answer:
Generally, it is said that political parties are facing a crisis because they are very unpopular and the citizens are indifferent to political parties. The available evidence, based shows that this belief is only partly true for India.

The evidence-based on a series of large sample surveys conducted over several decades show that:

• Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia. The proportion of those who say their trust in political parties is ‘not much’ or ‘not at all’ is more than those have ‘some’ or ‘great 7 trust.
• The same is true of most other democracies as well. Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
• Yes the level of participation in the activities of political parties was fairly high. The proportion of those who said they were members of any political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan and South Korea.
• Over the last three decades, the proportion of those who report to be members of Political parties in India has gone up steadily.
• The proportion of those who say they feel ‘close to a political party 7 has gone up to in India in this period. So, we certainly say that the future of popular participation in political parties in India is bright.

Question 27.
Describe the rise of Indian National Congress (INC) as one of the most important political party in India.
Answer:
Indian National Congress (INC) is popularly known as the Congress Party. It is one of the oldest parties the world. It was founded in 1885 and has experienced many splits. It played dominant role in Indian politics at the national and state level for several decades after India’s independence. Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modem secular, democratic republic in India. It was a single ruling party at the centre till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989.

After 1989 its support declined, but it continues to be present throughout the country, cutting across social divisions. A centrist party ( neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation, the party espouses secularism and welfare for weaker sections and minorities. This party supports new economic reforms but with a human face. It emerged as the largest party with 145 members in the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004. It currently leads the ruling United Progressive Alliance coalition government at the centre.

Question 28.
Discuss the policies and programmes of Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP).
Answer:
Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP) was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bhartiya Jana Sangh. It wants to build a strong and modem India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’ ) is a important element in its conception of Indian national hood and politics.

It wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu & Kashmir with India, a common civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion, and ban on religious conversion. Its support base increased substantially in the 1990s.

Earlier it was limited to north and west and to urban areas, the party expanded its support in the South, east the northeast and no rural areas n. It came to power in 1998, as the leader the of National Democracy Alliance including several state and regional parties. It lost election in 2004 and is the main opposition party in Lok Sabha.

Question 29.
Explain the contribution of regional parties in strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.
Answer:
Other than six national parties, most of the major parties of India are classified as ‘Statearties’ commonly referred to as regional parties by the election commission.

Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Some of these parties are all – India parties that happen to have succeeded only in some states.

Parties like the Samajwadi Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have national-level political organizations with units in several states. Some of these parties like Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim Democratic Front and Mizo National Front are conscious about their state identify.

At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAs have to accept whatever the party leaders decide.

The Supreme Court has passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.

The new system has made a lot of, information available to the public.

Objective Type Questions
Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
A group of people coming together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called:
(a) Political party
(b) Social group
(c) Cult
(d) Seal.
Answer:
(a) Political party

Question 2.
One of the three components of a political party is:
(a) People
(b) Students
(c) Teachers
(d) Leaders
Answer:
(d) Leaders

Question 3.
In which country, members and supporters of a party choose candidates for contesting elections?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) USA

Question 4.
In which country, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections?
(a) USA
(b) Pakistan
(c) Greenland
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 5.
Which institutions debates and passes laws?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) A and B both
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 6.
Who mobilises opposition to the government?
(a) Political parties
(b) NGO
(c) Opposition parties
(d) B and C both
Answer:
(c) Opposition parties

Question 7.
How many parties are registered with Election Commission of India?
(a) More than 750
(b) more than 650
(c) more than 500
(d) more than 150
Answer:
(a) More than 750

Question 8.
China has:
(a) Two-party system
(b) multi-party system
(c) one-party system
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) one-party system

Question 9.
India has:
(a) Multi-party system
(b) One-party system
(c) Two-party system
(d) b and c both
Answer:
(a) Multi-party system

Question 10.
England has :
(a) One-party system
(b) Two-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Two-party system.

Question 11.
Countrywide political parties known as
(a) Regional parties
(b) National parties
(c) State parties
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) National parties

Question 12.
Which institution registers the party in India?
(a) UPSC
(b) Law commission
(c) Home ministry
(d) Election commission
Answer:
(d) Election commission

Question 13.
How many recognized national parties were there in 2006 in india?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 14.
INC was formed in:
(a) 1885
(b) 1895
(c) 1905
(d) 1982.
Answer:
(a) 1885.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science