MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements with Answers

Human Settlements Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Human Settlements Class 12 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs On Human Settlements

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which types of settlements are found in alluvial plains?
(A) Clustered
(B) Semi-clustered
(C) Hamleted
(D) Dispersed

Answer

Answer: (A) Clustered

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
In which valley were Harappa and Mohanjodaro towns located?
(A) Ganga
(B) Narmada
(C) Indus
(D) Brahmaputra

Answer

Answer: (C) Indus

In which valley were Harappa and Mohanjodaro towns located?

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlement MCQ Question 3.
Which is the most ancient town In India?
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Varanasi
(C) Agra
(D) Chennai

Answer

Answer: (B) Varanasi

Chapter 4 Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Which is a medieval town?
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chandigarh

Answer

Answer: (B) Delhi

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 5.
Which is an administrative town?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Surat
(C) Gandhinagar
(D) Rohtak

Answer

Answer: (C) Gandhinagar

Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Chapter 4 Question 6.
How much percent is the urban population in India?
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 31

Answer

Answer: (D) 31

MCQ Of Human Settlement Class 12 Question 7.
How many times the urban population has increased during the 20th century?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 15

Answer

Answer: (C) 11

Ch 4 Human Settlement Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
How much is the population of a megacity?
(A) 1 Lakh
(B) 5 Lakh
(C) 10 Lakh
(D) 50 Lakh

Answer

Answer: (D) 50 Lakh

Human Settlements MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
The number of towns in India is:
(A) 4161
(B) 5161
(C) 6161
(D) 7161

Answer

Answer: (B) 5161

Class 12 Human Settlement MCQ Question 10.
How many million towns are there in India (as in 2014)?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 55
(D) 40

Answer

Answer: (C) 55

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlements Question 11.
Which one of the following towns is not situated along the bank of a river?
(A) Agra
(B) Bhopal
(C) Patna
(D) Kolkata

Answer

Answer: (B) Bhopal

Human Settlements MCQ Questions Question 12.
Which one of the following is NOT part of the definition of a town as per the census of India?
(A) Population density of 400 persons per sq km.
(B) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
(C) More than 75% of the population engaged in the primary sector
(D) Population size of more than 5,000 persons

Answer

Answer: (C) More than 75% of the population engaged in the primary sector

Class 12 Geography Human Settlement MCQ Question 13.
In which one of the following environments does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?
(A) Alluvial plains of Ganga
(B) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan
(C) Lower valleys of Himalays
(D) Forests and hills in north-east

Answer

Answer: (A) Alluvial plains of Ganga.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Human Settlement MCQ Questions Question 14.
Which one of the following groups of cities has been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e. 1, 2, 3, and 4 in size?
(A) Greater Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Chennai
(B) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata.
(C) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata.
(D) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai.

Answer

Answer: (D) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai

Which one of the following groups of cities has been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e. 1, 2, 3, and 4 in size?

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers

Era of One Party Dominance Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Era of One Party Dominance Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQs On Era of One Party Dominance

Era Of One Party Dominance MCQ Class 12 Question 1.
In which year first general election was held in India?
(a) 1947
(b) 1952
(c) 1955
(d) 1960

Answer

Answer: (b) 1952

Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 MCQs Question 2.
Who became the Prime Minister of India after the first general election?
(a) Pt. JL. Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer

Answer: (a) Pt. JL. Nehru

MCQ Of Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 Question 3.
In 1957, which party formed the government in Kerala?
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) C.P.I
(c) Congress
(d) Socialist Party

Answer

Answer: (b) C.P.I

MCQ On Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 Question 4.
When was the Socialist Party formed in India?
(a) 1948
(b) 1952
(c) 1955
(d) 1960

Answer

Answer: (a) 1948

When was the Socialist Party formed in India?

Era Of One Party Dominance MCQs Class 12 Question 5.
Match the following leaders listed in list A with the parties in list B.

List A List B
(a) S.A. Dange (i) Bharatiya Jan Sangh
(b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (ii) Swatantra Party
(c) Minoo Masani (iii) Praj Social Party
(d) Ashoka Mehta (iv) Communist Party of India
Answer

Answer:

List A List B
(a) S.A. Dange (iv) Communist Party of India
(b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (i) Bharatiya Jan Sangh
(c) Minoo Masani (ii) Swatantra Party
(d) Ashoka Mehta (iii) Praj Social Party

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 6.
The first general election in 1952 involved simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and _________ (The President of India/State Assemblies/Rajya Sabha/The Prime Minister)

Answer

Answer: (a) State Assemblies

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
The party that won the second-longest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first elections was the _______ (Praja Socialist Party/Bharatiya Jans Sanghl Communist Party of India/Bharatiya Janata Party)

Answer

Answer: Communist Party of India

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Question 8.
One of the guiding principles of the ideology of the Swatantra Party was _______ (Working class interests/Protection of Primary states/economy free from state control/Autonomy of state within the Union.)

Answer

Answer: economy free from state control

Political Science MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
One-party dominance is related to which political party of India?

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In Hindi Question 10.
Who addressed Congress as Umbrella Organisation?

Answer

Answer: Palmer addressed Congress as an ‘Umbrella Organisation’.

Question 11.
Which Indian party is the oldest party in Asia?

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress is the olde9t party in Asia.

Question 12.
Mention the name of four states where Congress failed to get absolute majority in 1962.

Answer

Answer: Madras, PEPSU, Orissa, and Travancore Cochin

Question 13.
Mention the period when Congress dominated Indian politics.

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress dominated Indian politics from Independence until 1967.

Question 14.
The era of one-party dominance began with the year.

Answer

Answer: The era of one-party dominance began in 1952.

Question 15.
Who said, “One party dominance expressed India’s party system more accurately than the term ‘One-party system?’

Answer

Answer: Dr. Rami Kothari.

Question 16.
How many national and state parties were there at the time of the first general election?

Answer

Answer: At the time of the first general election in the year 1952 there were 14 National parties and as many as 39 State parties.

Question 17.
Which of the faction of the Communist Party was pro-Soviet?

Answer

Answer: CPI was pro-Soviet.

Question 18.
How many seats were secured by the Jan Sangh in the first election of Lok Sabha?

Answer

Answer: Jan Sangh secured only three seats in the Lok Sabha.

Mark each of them as True or False.

Question 19.
One-party dominance is rooted in the absence of strong alternative political parties.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
One-party dominance occurs because of weak public opinion.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
One-party dominance is linked to the nation’s colonial past.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 22.
One-party dominance reflects the absence of democratic ideals in a country.

Answer

Answer: True

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers: Perceptions of Society with Answers

Through the Eyes of Travellers Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers: Perceptions of Society with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 History with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Through the Eyes of Travellers Class 12 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 History Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers MCQ With Answers

History Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQs On Through the Eyes of Travellers

Question 1.
Which of these French travellers came to during 17th century?
(a) Al-Biruni
(b) Ibn-Battuta
(c) Abul Fail
(d) Fra ncois Bernier

Answer

Answer: (d) Francois Bernier

Which of these French travellers came to during 17th century?

Question 2.
Who among the following belonged to Morocco?
(a) Ibn Battuta
(b) Al-Biruni
(c) Francois Bernier
(d) Abdul Samarandi

Answer

Answer: (a) Ibn Battuta

Question 3.
Who Wrote ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’?
(a) Callin Mcenzie
(b) Al-Biruni
(c) Abdul Samad Lahori
(d) lbn-Battuta

Answer

Answer: (b) Al-Biruni

Question 4.
Islamic Law is known as ________
(a) Shariya
(b) Samr
(c) Ulema
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Shariya

Question 5.
Ibn Battuta remained in India for ________
years.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(e) 16
(d) 18

Answer

Answer: (a) 12

Question 6.
Which of the following cities, according to Ibn-Battut a, was the largest?
(a) Surat
(b) Delhi
(c) Daulatabad
(d) Agra

Answer

Answer: (b) Delhi

Question 7.
Who wrote the book, “Travells In The Mughal Empire”?
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) John Marshall
(c) Callin Mcenzie
(d) James Princep

Answer

Answer: (a) Francois Bernier

Question 8.
Which among the following was the book written by Al-Biruni?
(a) Rihla
(b) Kitab-ul-Hind
(c) Discovery of India
(d) Arthashastra

Answer

Answer: (d) Kitab-ul-Hind

Question 9.
Choose the correct option:
Who founded Delhi as a city full of exciting opportunities?
(a) Jbn-Battuta
(b) Al-Biruni
(c) Francois Bernier
(d) Karl Marx

Answer

Answer: (a) Ibn-Battuta

Question 10.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Ibn-Battuta travelled extensively in China.
(b) Al-Biruni found the Indian cities quite populated.
(c) Al-Biruni was greatly influenced by the Indian postal system.
(d) According to Ibn-Battuta. crown ownership of land was quite disasterous for farmers.

Answer

Answer: (d) According to Thn-Battuta, crown ownership of land was quite disasterous for farmers.

Choose the correct option:

Question 11.
Consider the following statements.
1. Montesquieu used Bernier’s accounts to develop his idea of oriental despotism.
2. Bernier gave a detailed report on rural society.
3. According to Bernier, crown ownership of land was good for peasants.
4. Bernier onsidered Indian King was the king of beggars.
Which of the given statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 4
(d) 2, 3, 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 4

Question 12.
Consider the following:

1. Al-Biruni i. Rihla
2. Ibn-Battuta ii. Kitab-ul-Hind
3. Francois Bernier iii. Travels in Mughal Empire

Correctly match them.
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii)
(c) I – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii)
(ci) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i)

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii)

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers

Politics of Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Politics of Planned Development Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQs On Politics of Planned Development

Politics Of Planned Development MCQ Question 1.
Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
(a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.
(b) It supported state ownership of industry.
(c) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(d) It supported strongly the idea of plàhning.

Answer

Answer: (a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.

Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?

Planning And Development Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of India’s development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Cooperative Farming
(d) Self-sufficiency

Answer

Answer: (b) Liberalisation

Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
The Idea of Planning in India was drawn from:
(a) The Bombay Plan
(b) Experiences of the Soviet bloc countries
(c) Gandhian Vision of Society
(d) Demand by Peasant Organisation
(I) b and d only
(II) d and e only
(III) a and b only
(IV) all the above

Answer

Answer: (III) (a) and (b) only.

Politics Of Planned Development MCQs Question 4.
Match the following:

(a) Charan Singh (i) Industrialisation
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis (ii) Zoning
(c) Bihar Famine (iii) Farmers
(d) Verghese Kurien (iv) Milk Cooperatives
Answer

Answer:

(a) Charan Singh (iii) Farmers
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis (i) Industrialisation
(c) Bihar Famine (ii) Zoning
(d) Verghese Kurien (iv) Milk Cooperatives

Politics Of Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Who said, “Planning is a way of organizing and utilizing resources to maximum advantage in terms of defined social ends”?
(a) K.T. Shah
(b) Planning commission of India
(c) Dr. Rajinder Prashad
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Planning commission of India

MCQ Of Politics Of Planned Development Question 6.
In India, planning was conceived as the main instrument of:
(a) Political development
(b) Cultural development
(c) Social development
(d) Socio-economic development

Answer

Answer: (d) Socio-economic development

MCQ Of Planning And Development Class 12 Question 7.
How many plans have been completed so far in India?
(a) Twelve
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (a) Twelve

Planning And Development MCQ Question 8.
The Planning Commission in India was set up in:
(a) 1953
(b) 1957
(c) 1960
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (d) 1950

Planning Development Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
The Chairman of the National Development Council is:
(a) President of India
(b) Finance Minister of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Chief Minister of U.P.

Answer

Answer: (c) Prime Minister of India

The Chairman of the National Development Council is:

Politics Of Planned Development Class 12 MCQs Question 10.
What is meant by planned development?

Answer

Answer: Planned development means to develop a design or plan for development.

Planning And Development Class 12 MCQs Question 11.
Which Indian thinker emphasized planning in India and when?

Answer

Answer: M. Visvesarayya in 1934 emphasized the necessity of planning in India.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics Of Planned Development MCQ Question 12.
From where the idea of planning in India was drawn.

Answer

Answer: In India, the idea of planning was drawn from the experiences of the Soviet bloc countries.

MCQ Of Planned Development Class 12 Question 13.
What is Planning?

Answer

Answer: Planning is a conscious effort of a community to achieve preconceived objectives and goals.

Class 12 Planning And Development MCQ Question 14.
When was the Planning Commission set up?

Answer

Answer: Planning Commission was set up in March 1950.

MCQ On Politics Of Planned Development Question 15.
In which year First Five Year Plan was started?

Answer

Answer: The First Five Year Plan was started in 1951.

Question 16.
When Second Five Year Plan was started?

Answer

Answer: Second Five Year Plan was started in 1956.

Question 17.
Mention the main objective of the Second Five Year Plan.

Answer

Answer: The main objective of the Second Five Year Plan was to enhance the growth of Industrial development.

Question 18.
When was NITI Aayog established?

Answer

Answer: NITI Aayog was established in January 2015.

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Doing Sociology: Research Methods with Answers

Doing Sociology: Research Methods Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Doing Sociology: Research Methods with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Doing Sociology: Research Methods Class 11 Sociology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Doing Sociology: Research Methods MCQ With Answers

Sociology Class 11 Chapter 5 MCQs On Doing Sociology: Research Methods

Question 1.
A guided conversation between the researcher and respondent is known as:
(a) Fieldwork
(b) Interview
(c) Questionnaire
(d) Survey

Answer

Answer: (b) Interview

Question 2.
‘A comprehensive survey covering every single member of a population’ is known as
(a) sample survey
(b) census
(c) random sampling
(d) genealogy

Answer

Answer: (b) census

Question 3.
A comprehensive survey covering every single member of the population is known as:
(a) Survey
(b) Participant observation
(c) Census
(d) Case study

Answer

Answer: (c) Census

Question 4.
The term ‘random’ suggests the selection
(a) without any system or design
(b) proper structure
(c) with large population
(d) with small selection

Answer

Answer: (a) without any system or design

Question 5.
‘Genealogy’ of the community was prepared during fieldwork. The word ‘genealogy’ denotes:
(a) making a family tree
(b) list of inherited diseases
(c) tribal community
(d) urban community

Answer

Answer: (a) making a family tree

Question 6.
The issue which can be studied through participant observation is
(a) market policy
(b) infant mortality
(c) divorce rate
(d) the day to day life of the community

Answer

Answer: (d) the day to day life of the community

Question 7.
The feature which is not common between questionnaire and interview is
(a) flexibility of questions
(b) use in a large universe
(c) use in survey method
(d) asking questions

Answer

Answer: (b) use in a large universe

Question 8.
In their principle of sample selection, the respondents are selected purely by chance:
(a) Randomization
(b) Stratification
(c) Probability
(d) Compartmentalization

Answer

Answer: (a) Randomization

Question 9.
In predicting the election results, the appropriate method of research would be
(a) non-participant observation
(b) participant observation
(c) survey
(d) case study

Answer

Answer: (c) survey

Question 10.
The book “The Golden Bough” was written by which famous anthropologist?
(a) James Frazer
(b) Malinowski
(c) William Foot Whyte
(d) Emile Durkheim

Answer

Answer: (a) James Frazer

Question 11.
The introduction of equipment like recorders frequently makes the respondent
(a) happy
(b) comfortable
(c) uneasy
(d) disappointed

Answer

Answer: (c) uneasy

Question 12.
‘Stratified Random Sample’ is more
(a) stratified
(b) representative
(c) purposive
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) representative

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Culture and Socialisation with Answers

Culture and Socialisation Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Culture and Socialisation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Sociology with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Culture and Socialisation Class 11 Sociology MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Culture and Socialisation MCQ With Answers

Sociology Class 11 Chapter 4 MCQs On Culture and Socialisation

Question 1.
The process through which one becomes a member of society is known as
(a) modernization
(b) industrialization
(c) socialization
(d) liberalization

Answer

Answer: (c) socialization

Question 2.
Which rule derives its authority from the state?
(a) Mores
(b) Norms
(c) Laws
(d) Folkways

Answer

Answer: (c) Laws

Question 3.
A way of life in which all members of society participates defined as
(a) plurality
(b) inequality
(c) culture
(d) socialization

Answer

Answer: (c) culture

Question 4.
The most important agent of socialization in early childhood is
(a) The mass media
(b) A peer group
(c) The family
(d) A preschool

Answer

Answer: (c) The family

Question 5.
The rights and responsibilities associated with the person’s social position is known as
(a) social status
(b) social roles
(c) caste
(d) class

Answer

Answer: (b) social roles

Question 6.
A process of interaction which enables us to develop the skills we need to participate in human society is known as
(a) social behaviour
(b) social interaction
(c) socialization
(d) culture

Answer

Answer: (c) socialization

Question 7.
The process whereby the helpless infant gradually becomes a self-aware, knowledgeable person, skilled in the ways of the culture into which he/she is born is known as
(a) social group
(b) socialization
(c) culture
(d) institutions

Answer

Answer: (b) socialization

Question 8.
The tendency to evaluate other cultures according to ones own cultural values is known as:
(a) Cosmopolitanism
(b) Ethnocentrism
(c) Accommodation
(d) Acculturation

Answer

Answer: (b) Ethnocentrism

Question 9.
The process of socialization which takes place in school and other institutions is known as
(a) secondary socialization
(b) primary socialization
(c) education
(d) personality development

Answer

Answer: (a) secondary socialization

Question 10.
Normative aspects of culture include
(a) folkways, mores, and customs
(b) learning and understanding
(c) technologies and machines
(d) identity

Answer

Answer: (a) folkways, mores, and customs

Question 11.
Culture comprises inherited artifacts, goods, technical processes, ideas, habits, and values. Identify the sociologist who stated this
(a) Clifford Geertz
(b) Malinowski
(c) Edward Tylor
(d) Walter Ong

Answer

Answer: (b) Malinowski

Question 12.
A way of thinking, feeling, and believing is known as
(a) sociological imagination
(b) social interaction
(c) social sanction
(d) culture

Answer

Answer: (d) culture

Question 13.
Colonization is an example of
(a) external changes
(b) acculturation
(c) industrialization
(d) westernization

Answer

Answer: (a) external changes

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers

US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQs On US Hegemony in World Politics

Us Hegemony In World Politics MCQs Chapter 3  Question 1.
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on:
(a) 21 April 2003
(b) 19 March 2004
(c) 23 March 2003
(d) 19 March 2003

Answer

Answer: (d) 19 March 2003

Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on:

Us Hegemony In World Politics MCQ Chapter 3 Question 2.
Which one of the following statements related to the Iraq invasion by the US is incorrect?
(a) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion
(b) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq
(c) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction
(d) The US lost over 3000 military personnel in this war

Answer

Answer: (b) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq

Us Hegemony Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 3.
Which one of the following was a part of its global war on terrorism by the US.?
(a) ‘Operation desert storm’
(b) Computer war
(c) ‘Operation enduring freedom’
(d) Videogame war

Answer

Answer: (c) ‘Operation enduring freedom’

MCQ Of Us Hegemony In World Politics Chapter 3 Question 4.
Which among the following statements about hegemony is incorrect?
(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one state.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athena in ancient Greece.
(c) The country has a hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon. always a hegemon.

Answer

Answer: (d) Hegemonic position l.a fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
Which among the following statements is wrong about the Contemporary World Order?
Or
Which of the following statements are incorrect about the contemporary world order?
(a) There is an absence of a world government, which could regulate the state’s behaviour.
(b) The U.S. is the predominant player in world affairs.
(c) States are using force against one another.
(d) States which violate international law, are severely punished by the U.N.

Answer

Answer: (d) States which violate international law, are severely punished by the U.N.

MCQ Of Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 6.
Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi Freedom’?
(a) More than forty countries joined in the U.S.-led coalition of the willing to invade Iraq.
(b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from developing weapons of mass destruction.
(c) The action was taken within the prior approval of the U.N.
(d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces.

Answer

Answer: (c) The action was taken within the prior approval of the U.N.

Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi Freedom’?

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Question 7.
The strategy of staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible is also known as ________

Answer

Answer: The strategy of staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible is also known as to hide.

Us Hegemony In World Politics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 8.
Match the following:

1. Operation Infinite Reach (a) War against Al-Qaeda and Taliban
2. Operation Enduring Freedom (b) Coalition of the willing
3. Operation Desert Storm (c) Missile attack in Sudan
4. Operation Iraqi Freedom (d) First Gulf War
Answer

Answer:

1. Operation Infinite Reach (c) Missile attack in Sudan
2. Operation Enduring Freedom (a) War against Al-Qaeda and Taliban
3. Operation Desert Storm (d) First Gulf War
4. Operation Iraqi Freedom (b) Coalition of the willing

Chapter 3 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
Who won the U.S. presidential election in 1992 and in 1996?

Answer

Answer: William Jefferson (Bill) Clinton of the Democratic Party

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 10.
What do you understand by ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’?

Answer

Answer: On 19 March 2003, the U.S. launched its invasion of Iraq under the code name ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’. Saddam Hussain was defeated in the war.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Questions Question 11.
Write one constraint on American Power.

Answer

Answer: The first constraint is the institutional architecture of the American state itself.

Us Hegemony MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 12.
In which year Iraq invaded Kuwait?

Answer

Answer: August 1990

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 In Hindi Question 13.
Which American President ordered ‘Operation Infinite Reach’?

Answer

Answer: President Bill Clinton

Ch 3 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 14.
Which American President launched ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’?

Answer

Answer: President George W.Bush

Us Hegemony Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 15.
Who was the President of the U.S.A. during ‘First Gulf War’?

Answer

Answer: George H.W. Bush

Question 16.
In which year U.S. Military research project began?

Answer

Answer: 1950

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Class 12 Political Science with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power with Answers

Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Alternative Centres of Power Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 4 MCQs On Alternative Centres of Power

Alternative Centres Of Power MCQs Question 1.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
(a) China’s accession to WTO 2001
(b) Establishment of the E.E.C. 1957
(c) Establishment of the E.U. 1992
(d) Birth of A.R.F. 1994

Answer

Answer: (b) 1957
(c) 1992
(d) 1994
(a) 2001

Alternative Centres Of Power MCQ Question 2.
The ‘ASEAN Way’
(a) Reflects the lifestyle of ASEAN members
(b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and co-operative.
(c) The defence policy followed by the ASEAN members.
(d) The road that connects all the ASEAN members.

Answer

Answer: (b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and co-operative.

The ‘ASEAN Way’

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 MCQ Question 3.
Who among the following adopted the ‘Open door’ policy?
(a) China
(b) E.U.
(c) Japan
(d) U.S.A.

Answer

Answer: (a) China

Alternative Centres Of Power Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
The border conflict between China and India in 1962 was principally over the _____ and _____ region.

Answer

Answer: Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Question 5.
ARF was established in the year ________

Answer

Answer: 1994

MCQ Of Alternative Centres Of Power Question 6.
China entered into bilateral relations with _______ (a major country) in 1972.

Answer

Answer: U.S.A.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 In Hindi Question 7.
________ plan influenced the establishment of the organization for European Economic Cooperation in 1948.

Answer

Answer: Marshall

Chapter 4 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
_______ is an organization of ASEAN that deals with security.

Answer

Answer: Security Community

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 4 Question Answers Question 9.
The Council of Europe was established
(a) 1948
(b) 1949
(c) 1970
(d) 1994

Answer

Answer: (b) 1949

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 10.
In January 2007 which of the following countries joined E.U.?
(a) Finland and Sweden
(b) Denmark and Ireland
(c) Bulgaria and Romania
(d) Germany and England

Answer

Answer: (c) Bulgaria and Romania

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In Hindi Question 11.
In which year Unification of Germany took place?
(a) October 1990
(b) January 1990
(c) October 2000
(d) January 1995

Answer

Answer: (a) October 1990

In which year Unification of Germany took place?

Class 12 Political Science MCQ Question 12.
Informal, non-confrontationist, and cooperative interaction among members of South East Asian Nations is also called ________

Answer

Answer: ASEAN WAY

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 MCQ In Hindi Question 13.
What is the main objective of ASEAN?

Answer

Answer: The main objective of ASEAN is to accelerate economic growth.

Alternative Centres Of Power Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 14.
Which organisation was established under the ‘Marshall Plan’?

Answer

Answer: Under ‘Marshall Plan’, the organisation for European Economic Co-operation was established in 1948.

MCQ On Alternative Centres Of Power Question 15.
In which year did the Unification of Germany take place?

Answer

Answer: The unification of Germany took place in October 1990.

Alternative Centers Of Power MCQ Question 16.
In which year China adopted the ‘Open Door policy in the economy?

Answer

Answer: 1978

Question 17.
When China became a member of the World Trade Organisation?

Answer

Answer: 2001

Question 18.
When was European Union established?

Answer

Answer: On 7 February 1992 Treaty of Maastricht was signed establishing the European Union.

Question 19.
In which year Council of Europe was established?

Answer

Answer: 1949

Question 20.
When did China attack India?

Answer

Answer: China attacked both the Western and Eastern sectors of the Indian border on 20th Oct. 1962.

Question 21.
Mention two countries who are the members of the E.U.?

Answer

Answer: France, Germany

Question 22.
In which year China adopted privatisation of agriculture?

Answer

Answer: 1988

Question 23.
What is the currency of the European Union?

Answer

Answer: Euro

Question 24.
When was Referendum taken place in England for it exit from European Union, commonly known as ‘BREXIT?

Answer

Answer: 23 June 2016 and 62% voters favoured BREXIT’.

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Class 12 Political Science with Answers MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia with Answers

Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Contemporary South Asia Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia MCQ With Answers

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 5 MCQs On Contemporary South Asia

Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQs Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:
Which of the following country is a South Asian country?
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) China
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (d) Pakistan

Contemporary South Asia MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following country is not a South Asian country?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Russia

Answer

Answer: (d) Russia

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false?
(a) Politics in Sri Lanka openly favoured the Sinhalas.
(b) Interests of Tamils were neglected.
(c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by the SAARC countries.
(d) There was no political equality in Sri Lanka.

Answer

Answer: (c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by the SAARC countries.

Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false?

MCQ On Contemporary South Asia Question 4.
Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from the year ______ to _______

Answer

Answer: Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from the year 1947 to 1971.

Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Identify the country:
Where the Monarch worked to weed out militants and querrillas from north-eastern India that operated in his country with a view to helping India.

Answer

Answer: Bhutan

Contemporary South Asia Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 6.
Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from the year ____ to ____

Answer

Answer: 1947 to 1971

MCQ Of Contemporary South Asia Question 7.
Name the countries which signed the Shimla agreement.

Answer

Answer: India and Pakistan

Political Science Class 12 Chapter 5 Question Answers Question 7.
At which place 18th SAARC Summit was held?

Answer

Answer: November 2014

MCQ Of Chapter Contemporary South Asia Question 8.
Where was the first SAARC Summit held?

Answer

Answer: Dhaka in December 1985

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Question 9.
When SAARC was established?

Answer

Answer: December 1985

Contemporary South Asia MCQs Question 10.
Mention the names of the countries which entered into the Free Trade Agreement in Dec. 1998.

Answer

Answer: India and Sri Lanka

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 11.
In which year multi-party system was introduced in the Maldives?

Answer

Answer: June 2005

Class 12 Political Science MCQ Question 12.
Which countries signed the Farakka Treaty?

Answer

Answer: India and Bangladesh.

Class 12 MCQ Political Science Question 13.
Which Indian Prime Minister undertook a bus journey to Lahore?

Answer

Answer: Mr. Atal Behari Vajpayee in Feb. 1999.

Class 12 Political Science MCQ Questions Question 14.
Write the name of two observer states of SAARC.

Answer

Answer: China and Japan

MCQ Questions Of Political Science Class 12 Question 15.
In which year India and Pakistan conducted nuclear tests?

Answer

Answer: May 1998.

Question 16.
In which year Pakistan and Bangladesh established diplomatic relations?

Answer

Answer: 1976

Question 17.
In which year India sent a peace-keeping force to Sri Lanka?

Answer

Answer: 1987

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On Minerals and Energy Resources

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following minerals are not found in the toothpaste?
(a) Limestone
(b) Aluminium Oxide
(c) Fluoride
(d) Chlorides
Answer:
(d) Chtorides

Explanation: Abrasive minerals like silica, limestone, aluminium oxide and various phosphate minerals do the cleaning in toothpaste.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Where does the shine in toothpaste come from?
(a) Fluoride
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Titanium oxide
Answer:
(b) Mica

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following is a soft mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Iron
(c) Bauxite
(d) Talc
Answer:
(d) Talc

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
A ………….. is interested in the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical composition.
(a) Geographer
(b) Oceanology
(c) Geologist
(d) Environmentalist
Answer:
(c) Geologist

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Tin
(d) Mica
Answer:
(d) Mica

Explanation: Mica is a non-metallic mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Class 10 Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 6.
Which one of the following states is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is a feature of Mica?
(a) It is a rock mineral made up of a series of blocks.
(b) It is a milky and unclear non-metallic.
(c) It is used in the electric and electronic industry due to the excellent di-electric strength.
(d) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets.
Answer:

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Question 8.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Uranium and Thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Gariga Basin
(b) Gulf of Khambhat and Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan
Answer:
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan

Explanation: Uranium and Thorium are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is an offshore oil field?
(a) Ankleshwar
(b) Digboi
(c) Kalol
(d) Mumbai High
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 10.
Which one of the following non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Geothermal Energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Hydel Energy
Answer:
(a) Geothermal Energy

Explanation: To harness geothermal energy, two projects have been set up. One is located in the Parvati valley near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh and the other is located in the Puga Valley, Ladakh.

MCQ Minerals And Energy Resources Question 11.
Which of the following states have most of the petroleum deposits?
(a) Rajasthan and Kerala
(b) Assam and Gujarat
(c) Gujarat and Goa
(d) Odisha and Punjab
Answer:
(b) Assam and Gujarat

Explanation: Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.

Chapter 5 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The Kaiga Nuclear Energy Plant is located in which of the following states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Gondwana coal deposits are found in
(a) Krishna valley
(b) Damodar valley
(c) Brahmaputra delta
(d) Tapi valley
Answer:
(b) Damodar valley

Explanation: The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 14.
Which of the following parts or states do the Tertiary Coal deposits occur in?
(a) Coastal and Seaside states
(b) the Northern States
(c) North-eastern states
(d) Eastern states
Answer:
(c) North-eastern states

Which of the following parts or states do the Tertiary Coal deposits occur in?

Explanation: Tertiary coals occur in the north-eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
What are the large occurrences of minerals in cracks, crevices, faults in igneous and metamorphic rocks called?
(a) Layers
(b) Veins
(c) Lodes
(d) Chamber
Answer:
(c) Lodes

Explanation: In igneous and metamorphic . rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

Question 16.
Where are the Neyveli lignite mines located?
(a) Goa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.

Question 17.
Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous
Answer:
(a) Peat

Question 18.
Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum
Answer:
(d) Gypsum

Explanation: Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 19.
In which of the following states is Khetri Copper Mines located ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Question 20.
In which of the following state is the Narora Nuclear Power Plant located ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 21.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Most of India’s mineral reserves are found in
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Coastal region
(c) Peninsular rocks
(d) Plain region
Answer:
(c) Peninsular rocks

Explanation: Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals.

Question 22.
Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from ocean water?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Magnesium

Question 23.
In which of the following state is Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 24.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Kalol Oil Fields
(b) Bauxite Mines
(c) Chandrapur Thermal Power Plant
(d) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 25.
Identify the process:
(1) This type of mining is done in Jowai and Cherrapunji.
(2) Mining is carried out by family members in the form of a long narrow tunneL
(3) The National Green Tribunal has declared this activity illegal.
Answer:
Rat Hole Mining

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 26.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
(2) India has fairly abundant resources of this mineraL
(3) Magnetite is one type of this mineraL
Answer:

Question 27.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is a clay-like substance that alumina and later aluminium is obtained from.
(2) These deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
(3) They are found in Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The geological processes of mineral formation are so fast and rates of replenishment are quick in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
Answer:
True

The geological processes of mineral formation are slow and rates of replenishment are lesser in comparison to the present rates of consumption.

Question 29.
Aluminium splits easily into thin sheets.
Answer:
False
Mica splits easily into thin sheets.

Explanation: Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Question 30.
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks of most geological formations.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Every sector of the national economy except for agriculture needs inputs of energy.
Answer:

Question 32.
Hot springs in India could be used to generate petroleum.
Answer:
False

Hot springs in India could be used to generate electricity,

Explanation: Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot. Later, it rises to the earth’s surface and turns into steam. This steam is used to drive turbines and generate electricity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 33.
Gangetic delta in Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
Hydel energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
False

Geothermal energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.

Question 35.
India does not have enough reserves of sunlight, water, wind and biomass.
Answer:

Question 36.
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of urban households on firewood and dung cakes.
Answer:
False
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes.

Explanation: Rural households use dung cakes, firewood and other resources of energy which become harmful for nature upon overuse since they are dependent upon forests. Solar power plants help reduce this pressure.

Question 37.
Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 38.
Lignite is the highest grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 39.
Some minerals like limestone consist of a single mineral
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 40.
…………. Is well known for effective use of wind energy ¡n Rojasthan.
Answer:
Jaisalmer/Nagercoil

Question 41.
Coal and petroLeum are …………. sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable sources

Question 42.
Titanium oxide comes from minerals called Rutile, ilmenite and ……………………….
Answer:
Anatase

Question 43.
The toothbrush and tube containing the paste are made of plastics from ……………………
Answer:

Question 44.
……………… study minerals for o better understanding of Landforms.
Answer:

Question 45.
In …………. rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints
Answer:
Igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 46.
In ………………. there are large deposits of coat which are mined by the process of Rat Hole mining.
Answer:
Meghalaya

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 47.
……………………… ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used.
Answer:

Question 48.
Rajasthan has reserves of……………………….
Answer:
Non-ferrous minerals

Question 49.
Kudre of the Kudremukh ValLey in Kannada means
Answer:
Horse

Explanation: The highest peak of the Kudremukh ValLey in the western ghats of Karnotaka resembles the face of a horse.

Question 50.
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of …………….and ferro-manganese alloy.
Answer:
Steel

Question 51.
……………… was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016-17.
Answer:
Odisha

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 52.
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into………………….
Answer:
Electricity

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 53.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite (I) KrishnaGodavari basin
(B) Natural energy (II) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Petroleum (III) Panchpotmali deposits
(D) Electricity (IV) Ankleshwar

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite (III) Panchpotmali deposits
(B) Natural energy (I) Krishna-Godavari basin
(C) Petroleum (IV) Ankleshwar
(D) Electricity (II) Damodar Valley Corporation

Question 54.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas (I) Monozite Sands
(B) Tidal Energy (II) Rural areas of the country
(C) Atomic Energy (III) Nagercoil
(D) Wind power (IV) Nagercoil

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas (II) Rural areas of the country
(B) Tidal Energy (IV) Nagercoil
(C) Atomic Energy (I) Monozite Sands
(D) Wind power (III) Nagercoil

Question 55.
Match the items In Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Belt) Column B (areas)
(A) Odisha-Jharkhand belt (I) Karnatako
(B) Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt (II) Ratnagiri
(C) Bailan-Chitradurga-Chikkomagoluru-Tumakuru belt (III) Mayurbhanj
(D) Maharashtra-Goa belt (IV) Chhattisgarh

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 56.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Source) Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley (I) Natural Gas
(B) Balaghat mines (II) Iron Ore
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy (III) Geothermal
(D) Parvati Valley (IV) Copper

Answer:

Column A (Source) Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley (II) Iron Ore
(B) Balaghat mines (IV) Copper
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy (I) Natural Gas
(D) Parvati Valley (III) Geothermal

Question 57.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (Resource)

Column B (Category)
(A) Potash (I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(B) Tin (II) Energy Resource
(C) Manganese (III) Non-metallic Mineral
(D) Coal (IV) Metallic Mineral

Answer:

Column A (Resource)

Column B (Category)
(A) Potash (III) Non-metallic Mineral
(B) Tin (I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(C) Manganese (IV) Metallic Mineral
(D) Coal (II) Energy Resource

Question 58.
Match the items of Column A to that of Column B. Choose the correct option.

Column A

Column B
(A) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines (I) Maharashtra
(B) Chandrapura Thermal Power Plant (II) Odisha
(C) Bauxite Mines (III) Gujarat
(D) Kolot Oil Fields (IV) Amarkantok Plateau

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(IIl), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 5

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given betow
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 59.
Assertion (A): The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.
Reason (R): Cost of extraction is determined by the type of formation or structure which mineral ores may be mined.
Answer:

Question 60.
Assertion (A): Biogas is the most efficient use of cattle dung.
Reason (R): It reduces the quality of manure.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: It improves the quality of manure.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 61.
Assertion (A): Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Reason (R): It is necessary to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Question 62.
Assertion (A): Oceanic tides cannot be used to generate electricity.
Reason (R): Tidal energy can be used to run turbines and thereafter generate electricity.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built across inlets. During high tide, water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed. After the tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea via a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine.

Question 63.
Assertion (A): Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
Reason (R): Geothermal energy exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. This heat warms the water.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 64.
Assertion (A): Energy saved is energy produced.
Reason (R): Judicious use of our limited energy resources helps in the development of future generations.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc are obtained from veins and lodes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following minerals are found in veins and lodes?
(a) Copper
(b) Limestone
(c) Zinc
(d) Lead
Answer:
(b) Limestone

Which of the following minerals are found in veins and lodes?

(B) Which of the following forms do the igneous and metamorphic minerals occur in?
(a) Beds
(b) Cracks
(c) Lodes
(d) Faults
Answer:
(a) Beds
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks occur in beds or layers.

(C) Which of the following statements are not true for Igneous and Metamorphic rocks?
(a) Igneous rocks are found in joints of rocks.
(b) They are found in their solidified forms.
(c) They are pushed out of earth in their liquid/molten and gaseous forms.
(d) They are formed as a result into deposition.
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
Lodes are occurrences.
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Huge
(d) Negligible
Answer:
(b) Larger
Explanation: The smaller occurrences of minerals are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed. Broadly speaking, peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula. have
most of the petroleum deposits. Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The vast alluvial plains of north India are almost devoid of economic minerals.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is not a metallic mineral?
(a) Mica
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Answer:

(B) Which of the following states in India have the largest petroleum reserves?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements stand true with respect to the geographical distribution of minerals?
(a) These variations exist because of the differences in the economic condition of the area.
(b) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.
(c) These variations exist because of differences in temperature ranges of dag and night.
(d) These variations exist because of different population density.
Answer:
(c) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.

(D) Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Bauxite

Explanation: Alumina and aluminium is obtained from bauxite. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The total volume of workable mineral deposits is an insignificant fraction i.e. one per cent of the earth’s crust. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite and non-renewable. Rich mineral deposits are our country’s extremely valuable but short-lived possessions. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to continuous extraction of ores?
(a) Continuous extraction of resources is good.
(b) Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing profits.
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.
(d) Continued extraction of ores causes better quality products to be brought up.
Answer:
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.

Explanation: Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

(B) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to mineral formation?
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.
(b) Rate of replenishment is faster when compared to rate of usage.
(c) Rate of replenishment is equal to rate of usage.
(d) Rate of replenishment is not dependent on the rate of usage.
Answer:
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.

(C) Which of the following resources are finite?
(I) Freshwater
(II) Coal
(III) Petroleum
(IV) Wind Energy
(V) Tidal energy
(VI) Sunlight
(a) (I) & (VI)
(b) (I), (II) & (III)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(b)(I), (II) & (III)

(D) Resources which can not be replenished easily are considered:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources
(c) Replenishable Resources
(d) Infinite resources
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, Lustre and density found ¡n minerals?
Answer:
Formation of a particular mineral, depends upon a combination of elements which in turn depends upon the physical and chemical conditions during formation.

Related Theory:
Geologists classify minerals based on the formation of the minerals, their age and their physical and chemical composition.

Question 2.
How is iron-ore transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangalore?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 3.
Why are minerals important for us ?
Answer:
Everything we use, from a safety pin to a building to an aeroplane is made up of minerals. Any life processes cannot occur without minerals.

Question 4.
How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Answer:

Question 5.
Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Suggest any one way to popularize its maximum use.
Answer:
By encouraging the use of resources/use of rooftop solar panels/solar street lighting systems.

Question 6.
A concerted effort has to be made for sustainable development. Suggest any one step in conserving our mineral resources for the future.
Answer:
Improved technologies and recycling of metals can help in conserving our resources.

Question 7.
Which type of minerals are mainly obtained from veins and lodes?
Answer:
Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 8.
Why is energy needed ? Write one reason.
Answer:
Energy is required for all kinds of activities like cooking, lighting and heating, propelling vehicles and enabling smooth working of machinery in industries.

Question 9.
Differentiate between veins and lodes.
Answer:
The smaller occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called veins. The larger occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called lodes.

Related Theory
In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface.

Question 10.
What are the two types of occurrences of minerals in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks in these forms:
(1) The smaller occurrence called veins.
(2) The larger occurrence called lodes.

Question 11.
What is minerals?
Answer:

Question 12.
Why does aluminium metal have great importance?
Answer:
Aluminium is capable of combining the strength of metals such as iron with qualities like extreme lightness and with good conductivity and great malleability.

Question 13.
Which mineral is used to harden steel during its manufacturing?
Answer:
Manganese is used to harden steel during its manufacturing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 14.
Suggest any one to enhance the use of natural gas in India.
Answer:
Using natural gas for cooking is one way to enhance the use of natural gas in India.

Question 15.
Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?
Answer:

Question 16.
How are Gobar Gas Plants beneficial to the farmers?
Answer:
The residue from Gobar Gas Plants is known to be extremely beneficial for the strength and productivity of soil which benefits the farmers.

Question 17.
Name four bauxite-producing states.
Answer:
Bauxite producing states are:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Orissa
  3. Gujarat
  4. Maharashtra.

Question 18.
Name three states which are known for the production of mica.
Answer:
Mica producing states are:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Bihar
  3. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 19.
What are commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The commercial sources of energy are: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Hydro-electricity and Nuclear energy.

Question 20.
What are conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The conventional sources of energy are Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas and Electricity.

Question 21.
Name six non-commercial sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 22.
Name three most important coal producing states of India.
Answer:
Three important coal producing states are

  1. Jharkhand,
  2. Orissa
  3. West Bengal.

Question 23.
Mention three areas where petroleum is found in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Mumbai High and Assam are three areas of petroleum.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 24.
What is Anthracite?
Answer:
Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.

Question 25.
List four non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:

Question 26.
Suggest two ways of conserving minerals.
Answer:
Recycling of metals and discovering new substitutes for metals are ways of conserving minerals.

Question 27.
Name two non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Mica and marble are non-metallic minerals.

Question 28.
How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger ones are called lodes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation with Answers

Natural Vegetation Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Natural Vegetation Class 11 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 11 Chapter 5 MCQs On Natural Vegetation

Question 1.
Vegetation cover is very scanty in parts of Rajasthan due to
(a) Overpopulation
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Overgrazing

Answer

Answer: (d) Overgrazing

Question 2.
Farm forestry refers to the
(a) raising and management of trees on public property
(b) raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land
(c) promotion of agro-forestry
(d) farmers who grow trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes

Answer

Answer: (d) farmers who grow trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes

Question 3.
How much part of the total geographical area of India is under forests?
(a) 20 percent
(b) 21 percent
(c) 22 percent
(d) 23 percent

Answer

Answer: (c) 22 percent

Question 4.
State the annual rainfall required for deciduous monsoon forests.
(a) 100 – 200 cm
(b) 100 – 150 cm
(c) 150 – 200 cm
(d) 200 – 250 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 150 – 200 cm

Question 5.
The world’s richest region from marine biodiversity is
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Gulf of Myanmar
(d) Gulf of Mannar biosphere Reserve

Answer

Answer: (d) Gulf of Mannar biosphere Reserve

Question 6.
The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is situated in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttarakhand

Answer

Answer: (d) Uttarakhand

Question 7.
Bamboos are the important raw material for making
(a) A match stick
(b) Books
(c) Musical instrument
(d) Boxes

Answer

Answer: (c) Musical instrument

Question 8.
Monsoon or Tropical Deciduous forests are found in areas with rainfall between
(a) 50 and 100 cm
(b) 70 and 200 cm
(c) 100 and 200 cm
(d) 200 and 250 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 70 and 200 cm

Question 9.
Plants remain leafless for most of the year in
(a) Moist deciduous forest
(b) Littoral and swamp forest
(c) Montane forest
(d) Tropical thorn forest

Answer

Answer: (d) Tropical thorn forest

Question 10.
Which of the following was the purpose of Project Tiger?
(a) To kill tigers
(b) To protect tigers from illegal hunting
(c) To put tigers in the zoo
(d) To make films on tiger

Answer

Answer: (b) To protect tigers from illegal hunting

Question 11.
Bamboos are grown most commonly at
(a) Great height from sea level
(b) Medium height from sea level
(c) A very low height from sea level
(d) At any condition

Answer

Answer: (c) A very low height from sea level

Question 12.
Khar, Neem, Khejri, Palas are:
(a) Tropical Thorn forests
(b) Tropical forests
(c) Evergreen forests
(d) Mangroves

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropical Thorn forests

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Class 11 Geography with Answers MCQ: