MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries was not a united nation-state when Frederic Sorrieu painted “Democratic and Social Republics”?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Sicily
(c) Ireland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(d) Germany

Explanation: In Sorrieu’s painting, nations were represented through a group of citizens bearing their respective nation’s symbols. Germany was shown reaching towards the Statue of Liberty as a nation but the country was comprised of a group of divided German¬speaking principalities in 1848.

She attained the status of a united nation¬state in 1871.

Related Theory
Switzerland was already a liberal nation-state and led the procession of states along with the USA. Ireland and Sicily were behind Germany in the procession. They were united as a nation but had not attained liberty by 1848.

Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true about nation-states?
(a) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity or history.
(b) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute ruler.
(c) Commonness is forged through linguistic factors only.
(d) Nation-States are directly ruled by people and based on the heterogenization of society.
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi – Britain
(b) Otto Von Bismarck – Italy
(c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV – Germany
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy
Answer:
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy

Explanation: Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary who struggled to unify Italy and set up secret societies in order to achieve that His efforts were however in vain.

Related Theory
Correctly matched pairs: Giuseppe Garibaldi was one of the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He led his volunteers to win several wars in order to unify Italy.

Otto Von Bismarck was the Prussian chief minister who took up the task of unifying Italy along with his bureaucracy and army.

Friedrich Wilhelm IV was the King of Prussia who opposed the elected assembly after Frankfurt Parliament.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the right answer from the options given below:
Bohemia: German, Galicia:
(a) Magyar
(b) French
(c) Polish
(d) Russian
Answer:
(c) Polish

Explanation: Eastern and Central Europe was divided into multipLe autocratic monarchies where ethnically and culturally diverse people resided. They spoke different languages and did not share a sense of collective identity.

The aristocratic class of Bohemia spoke German predominantly. The aristocratic class of Galicia was majorly Polish-speaking.

Related Theory
Magyar was spoken in Hungary.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) The Revolution of Liberals
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
A custom union that was formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states was called:
(a) Zollverein
(b) Plebiscite
(c) Utopian
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Zollverein

Related Theory
Plebiscite means a direct vote which gives power to the people of a region to accept or reject a proposal. Utopian means an imaginary ideal society that principally does not exist.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 1 Question 7.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany
(b) Napoleon – Spain
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi – France
(d) Bourbon Kings – Italy
Answer:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany

Explanation: Otto Von Bismarck, was the Chief Minister of Prussia Germany. He was the architect of the process of unification of Germany, which was carried out with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Related Theory

  • Corrected pairs:
  • Napoleon – France
  • Guissepe Garibaldi – Italy
  • Bourbon Kings – Spain

History Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Which one of the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people-das volk?
(a) Karol Karpinski
(b) Louis Philippe
(c) CarlWelcker
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
Answer:
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Explanation: Johann Gottfried Herder was a German Philosopher.

Related Theory
Louis Philippe was the constitutional monarch of France and his reign was known as July monarchy as he came in power after the July Revolution of 1830. Karol Karpinski was a polish music composer.

Carl Welcker was a liberal politician and an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament which convened in the Church of St. Paul on 18 May 1848.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Ch 1 History Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of nineteenth-century Europe?
(a) Emphasis on social justice
(b) State planned socio-economic system
(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(d) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism.
Answer:

History Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
In 1789, France was a full-fledged territorial state under the rule of which of the following:
(a) A Federal Republic
(b) An Absolute Monarch
(c) A Democratic Ruler
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) An Absolute Monarch

Explanation: Louis XVI, a Bourbon King was an absolute monarch in France in 1789.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 1 Question 11.
“When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”. Who among the following said this popular line ?
(a) Giseppe Mazzini
(b) Metternich
(c) Otto Von Bismarck
(d) Guiseppe Garibaldi
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 12.
Who among the following was proclaimed as the first German Emperor in 1871?
(a) William I
(b) William II
(c) Friendrich William I
(d) Friedrich William II
Answer:
(a) William I

Explanation: In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the first German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

MCQ For Class 10 History Chapter 1 With Answers Question 13.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania?
(a) Heroism and Justice
(b) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(c) Austerity and Asceticism
(d) Revenge and Vengeance
MCQ Of Chapter 1 History Class 10 With Answers
Answer:
(a) Heroism and Justice

MCQ Of Chapter 1 History Class 10 With Answers Question 14.
Which of the following reform/s was/were introduced by Napoleon?
(a) Standardized system of weights and measures
(b) A common national currency
(c) Abolition of the feudal system
(d) All of the above
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Download Question 15.
Which one of the following attributes stands for ‘Willingness to make peace’?
(a) Breastplate with eagle
(b) Olive branch around the sword
(c) Broken chain
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Olive branch around the sword

Explanation: An olive branch symbolises peace and the sword symbolises readiness to light but together an olive branch around the sword symbolises willingness to make peace.

Related Theory
Breastplate with eagle stands for ‘symbol of German empire-strength’ while broken chain refers to ‘Being freed’

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 16.
which of the following was NOT visualized by Frederic Sorrieu in his first print of series of four prints made up of ‘Democratic and the Social Republic’?
(a) The people of America and Europe-men and women of all ages
(b) Social classes marching in a long train
(c) Offering homage to the Statue of Unity
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 17.
He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich. Who was he?
(a) Lord Byron
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Napoleon
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich. Who was he?

Explanation: Mozzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives in Europe and so was described as the ‘most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich-chancellor of Austria who himself was a conservative.

Question 18.
Which one of the following was NOT among the symbols of the new Britain when a new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture?
(a) Union Jack
(b) God Save Our Noble King
(c) English Language
(d) Irish Language
Answer:
(d) Irish Language

Explanation: Union Jack-the British flag. God Save Our Noble King-the national anthem and the English language were actively promoted after the United Kingdom was formed. Whereas scotland and Ireland became subordinate partners of the united kingdom.

Question 19.
The French Revolution artists used the female allegory to portray which of the following ideas?
(a) Liberty
(b) Justice
(c) Republic
(d) ALL of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 20.
In visual representations, who wears a crown of oak Leaves?
(a) Marianne
(b) Germania
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Germania

Explanation: Germania wearing a crown of oak [earns symbolizing heroism became the allegory of the German nation white Marianne was of France.

Question 21.
A government or system of rute that has no restraints on the powers exercised is called:
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Democratic
(d) Conservatist
Answer:

Question 22.
Sorrieus vision of society which is so idealistic that it is unLikeLy to exist is called
(a) Utopian
(b) Democratic
(c) AbsoLutist
(d) Conservatist
Answer:
(a) Utopian

Explanation: Utopian Vision of French Artists was so ¡deal- so perfect and unadulterated that it was impossible to find such a vision to materialise in reality.

Related Theory
Absolutism is a type of governance or system of rute that has no restraints on the power exercised.
Democracy is the supremacy of will of common people, government ¡s run by representatives chosen by common people.

Conservatism is a patitical philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development to quick change.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 23.
Arrange the following events of world history in increasing order of their date of occurrence
(i) Unification of Italy
(ii) Vienna Peace Settlement
(iii) Napoleonic wars begin
(iv) Unification of Germany
Options:
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
(c) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)
(d) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
Answer:

Question 24.
Choose the INCORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A Column B
(a) Frederic Sorrieu (i) A British Artist
(b) Bismarck (ii) Unification of Germany
(c) Lord Byron (iii) An English poet
(d) Karol Karpinski (iv) A Polish music composer

Answer:
(a) Frederic Sorrieu-(i) A British Artist

Explanation: Frederic Sorrieu was a French Artist.

Related Theory:
In 1848, Frederic Sameu prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a world made up of Democratic and Social Republics

Question 25.
Choose the CORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A Column B
(a) Absolutist (i) A vision of society
(b) Utopian (ii) A form of government
(c) Plebiscite (iii) A system of direct vote
(d) Suffrage (iv) A system of holding election

Answer:
(c) Plebiscite – (iii) A system of direct vote

Explanation: (a, b, and d are incorrect)
A plebiscite is a system of direct voting by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Related Theory
Absolutist refers to a form of monarchial government or system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised
Utopian means a vision of society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist.
Suffrage refers to the right to vote.

Question 26.
Which one of the following statements if asle regarding the Act of Union 1707 ?
(a) It was an agreement between England and Scotland.
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.
(c) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Gret Britain’.
(d) It gave England control over Scotland.
Answer:
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.

Explanation: England was unified through an Act called the Act of Union 1707 passed by the English Parliament. This Act forged a union between England and Scotland. England gained supremacy and suppressed Scottish identity through its political, economic and diplomatic power. Ireland was joined later in 1801, after revolts from Irish Catholics.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 27.
Which among the following was the main reason for the weavers to revolt against contractors in Silesia, in 1845 ?
(a) Contractors reduced their payments drastically.
(b) They stopped the supply of raw materials to them.
(c) They refused to place orders for finished textiles.
(d) Condition of weavers was very pitiable.
Answer:

Question 28.
Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy ?
(a) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

Explanation: Italy was divided into seven states/principalities. Sardinia-Piedmont was the only one ruled by an Italian princely house.

Related Theory
Venetia and Lombardy located in the north were under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions (the two kingdoms of Sicily were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of France ?
(a) She was named Marianne.
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(d) Her characteristic were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic.
Answer:
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.

Explanation: French Allegory Marianne was a symbolical figure which represented the country of France. She was not a human but a symbol and hence she did not take part in the French Revolution.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 30.
Identify the personalities:
(1) They were two brothers who studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales.
(2) They spent six years traveling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales.
(3) They also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
Answer:
Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm

Explanation: They were born in Germany and published Grimm’s Fairy Tales for Children.

Question 31.
Identify the personality :
(1) He was an Austrian Chancellor.
(2) He hosted the Congress of Vienna.
(3) He said “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Answer:
Duke Metternich

Explanation: He was the Austrian Chancellor and believed that conservative order was the best type of government to rule and unify the state.

Question 32.
Identify the class:
(1) They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses.
(2) They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society.
(3) Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 33.
Germania wears red cap, the tricolour, the cockade.
Answer:
False

Germania became the allegory of the German nation and wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Explanation: Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries personified nations and basic values of liberty, truth, justice through female figures. These were called female allegories. Germania was the allegory of Germany. She wears crown of German Oak leaves which stands for Heroism.

Question 34.
Napoleon abolished the feudal system in various parts of Europe.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 35.
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently a feminist social union.
Answer:
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a woman’s journal and subsequently a feminist political association.

Question 36.
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by radical conservatives.
Answer:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries.

Question 37.
The 1830s were years of great political uprising in Europe.
Answer:
The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 38.
The most serious source of nationalist tension in South-eastern Europe after 1871 was in the area called…………………
Answer:

Question 39.
The German philosopher ……….. claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people-das volk.
Answer:
Johann Gottfried Herder

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 40.
Name the term used for the countries to the east of the Mediterranean, usually referring to Asia.
Answer:
Orient

Explanation: Western countries see this region as pre-modern, traditional and mysterious. The name Orient also means the same.

Question 41.
Giuseppe Mazzini was a revolutionary from
Answer:
Italy

Question 42.
……………….. mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe.
Answer:

Question 43.
Read the source given:
The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

Answer the question.
Vienna Peace Settlement was signed in ……………………

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following symbols from column A with their meanings from column B.

Column A (Symbols) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains (i) Heroism
(b) Sword (ii) Being freed
(c) Crown of oak leaves (iii) Symbol of the German empire strength
(d) Breastplate with eagle (iv) Readiness to fight

Answer:

Column A (Symbols) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains (ii) Being freed
(b) Sword (iv) Readiness to fight
(c) Crown of oak leaves (i) Heroism
(d) Breastplate with eagle (iii) Symbol of the German empire strength

Question 45.
Match the following famous personalities from column A with their actions from column B.

Column A (Personalities) Column B (Their Actions)
(a) Friedrich Wilhelm IV (i) Organised funds and went to fight in the war
(b) Louise Otto-Peters (ii) Proclaimed man-the stronger and woman-the weaker
(c) Carl Weicker (iii) Founded a women’s journal
(d) Lord Byron (iv) Joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly

Answer:

Question 46.
Match the following years from column A with important events from column B.

Column A (Years) Column B (important Events)
(a) 1707 (i) Ireland was incorporated into the UK
(b) 1801 (ii) The Act of Union
(c) 1821 (iii) William-I The Prussian King
(d) 1871 (iv) Greek struggle for independence begins

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded Labour were aboLished in Habsburg dominion and Russia.
Reason (R): Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting concessions to liberal- nationalist rebels.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: To curb repression and threats of revolution, autocratic monarchies of Europe (central and eastern) began to introduce changes and concessions to lure the rebels. Thus, both serfdom and bonded labour were abolished and they were treated better.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the Liberal movement.
Reason (R): Women were considered inferior and dependent upon men by the society, despite their enthusiastic performance in Liberal Movement.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 49.
Assertion (A): In the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
Reason(R): Napoleon won over Europe once again.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.
Reason(R): Many countries in the world which had been colonized by the European powers in the nineteenth century began to oppose imperial domination.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The aspirations of Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary about extending their own control over more area led to the first World War in 1914 which was the disaster being mentioned in the assertion. Though the imperial domination of Britain was opposed, it gained momentum after the First World War ended.

Question 51.
Assertion (A): The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason(R): Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Which of the following statements stands true about the Statue of Liberty?
(I) The Statue of Liberty holds the torch of Enlightenment and bears the Charter of Rights of Man in her hand.
(II) Frederic Sorrieu painted the statue of Liberty and Statue of Republic in his “Democratic and Social Republics.”
(III) The Statue of Liberty is situated in France.
(IV) The Statue of Liberty is allegorical representation of value of Liberty.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) & (IV) only

Explanation: Statue of Liberty is situated in Liberty Island, USA and was painted in Sorrieu’s painting titled “Democratic and Social Republics” of 1848 as an allegorical representation of Liberty. She holds the torch of Enlightenment and the Charter of the Rights of Man in her hands.

Nations were shown marching towards it with aspirations of attaining liberty and a status of nation-state.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Identify the class mentioned in the source given above:
(a) Aristocratic Class
(b) Peasant Class
(c) Nobility
(d) Capitalist class
Answer:
(a) Aristocratic Class
Explanation: Landed aristocracy was a dominant class in Europe and were rich since they owned their fields and others cultivated these fields for them. They were numerically small.

Related Theory:
Nobility or the ruler class did not own farmlands and the peasant class cultivated the fields of aristocrats. They were tenants and did not own the lands upon which they worked hard.

Question 3.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A

Column B

(A) Tready of Constantinople  (I) 1815
(B) Vienna Peace Settlement  (II) 1832
(C) Ceremony at Versailles  (III) 1707
(D) Act of Union  (IV) 1871

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers 2
Explain as to what does this image of‘The courier of Rhineland’ say about Napoleon?
Answer:
This picture shows the loss of territories under Napoleon after his defeat at Battle of Leipzig in 1813.

Explanation: Napoleon in this picture is shown as a postman on his way back to France after he lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813. Each letter dropping out of his bag shows the names of the territories he lost after this battle.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 5.
Which of the following statements stand true for the nation of Poland?
(I) Poland was partitioned in eighteenth century.
(II) With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people ended as well.
(III) Karl Kurpinski was a polish artist.
(IV) Poland was ruled over by Russia and Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle against Russian Dominance.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only

Explanation: Polish nationalism was preserved and continuously promoted through music and language by its artists and revolutionaries. Poland was given to Russia after Vienna Peace Settlement.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744¬1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volt It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation¬building. The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
(A) Which of the following statement best describes the Romantic Movement?
(a) It was about the emotions of patriotism towards one’s state.
(b) It was a cultural movement which sought to develop nationalist sentiments.
(c) It was a literary movement to focus on vernacular languages.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:

(B) Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Grimm Brothers
(c) Karol Kurpinski
(d) Mazzini
Answer:
(c) Karol Kurpinski

Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music?

(C) Define Volksgeist.
Answer:
Volksgeist is the spirit of nation a set of intellectual, moral and cultural traits that define nations.

(D) Assertion (A): It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.
Reason(R): Recording these forms of foIk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following revolutions were caused due to economic reasons?
(a) The Liberal Revolution
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers
(c) Greek War of Independence
(d) Germany’s war with Austria
Answer:
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers

Explanation: Silesian weavers in 1845, revolted against their contractors because despite ordering them and supplying them with raw materials, they had reduced their payments drastically.

(B) Who ruled France in 1830s and was forced to flee after unemployment caused workers to revolt on roads?
(a) King Emmanuel II
(b) King William I
(c) King Louis Philippe
(d) King Wilhelm (2)
Answer:
(c) King Louis Philippe

Explanation: King Louis Philippe had to flee when the revolutions started getting more frequent and violent. He ruled France up till 1848.

(C) Which right was guaranteed after the people came out on roads to revolt in France in 1830s?
(a) Right to work and vote
(b) Right to strike
(c) Right to elect their king
(d) Right to choose their profession
Answer:

(D) Why were the 1830s years of great economic hardship in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution had created less economic opportunities than expected.
(b) Workers were on a strike hence industries were closed.
(c) Population had risen exponentially and job opportunities were less.
(d) Aristocratic class had snatched the jobs of worker class.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is Great Britain. In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the result of a long-drawn- out process. There was no British nation prior to the eighteenth century. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. All of these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements stands true about the process of unification of Britain:
(a) The process was a result of thirty year long war between people of different ethnicities in which only the English remained unscathed.
(b) The process was a political struggle.
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.
(d) The unification was based on attack and conquer plan by the king of England.
Answer:
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.

Explanation: English suppressed the Irish and Scottish ethnic identities through its political, social and territorial supremacy and forced them in a union.

(B) which of the following statements stands true for England?
(I) England was a powerful nation and its world domination was on the basis of the nation’s pride.
(II) England was economically very strong and brought Scotland under its debt.
(III) The United Kingdom of Great Britain was forged through an act in 1807 and it joined England and Scotland.
(IV) England and Scotland together suppressed Ireland to bring it under their union.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) 0) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(C) England was a kingdom before the English Parliament snatched powers in 1688. Fill in the blank choosing the most appropriate answer:
(a) Republican
(b) Monarchical
(c) Democratic
(d) Directly ruled
Answer:

(D) Who was the allegory of Britain?
(a) Britannica
(b) Alexandria
(c) Britannia
(d) Melania
Answer:
(c) Britannia

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
In 1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French garrison was stationed. The Red Shirts proved to be no match for the combined French and Papal troops. It was only in 1870 when, during the war with Prussia, France withdrew its troops from Rome that the Papal States were finally joined to Italy.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Who was Garibaldi?
(a) Chief Minister of Italy
(b) King of Sardinia-Piedmont
(c) A Revolutionary who established Young Italy and Young Europe secret Societies.
(d) A freedom fighter who helped Cavour to unify Italy.
Answer:

(B) What was the Young Italy Movement related to?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of the Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educated the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.
Answer:
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

Explanation: Italy was divided into various principalities and each was ruled by a different ruler. To unify it. the Young Italy Movement was instituted by Giuseppe Mazzini and joined by Garibaldi.

(C) Match the items given in Column A to that of Column B and choose the correct option:

Column A

Column B

(A) Sardinia Piedmont  (I) Pope
(B) North Italy  (II) Spanish Rulers
(C) South Italy  (III) Italian Rulers
(D) Central Italy  (IV) Austrian Rulers

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

(D) Who was proclaimed the ruler of united Italy?
(a) Cavour
(b) Kaiser William I
(c) Victor Emmanuel II
(d) King Wilhelm IV
Answer:
(c) Victor Emmanuel II

Related Theory
Camillo de Cavour was the chief minister of Sardinia- Piedmont.
Kaiser William I was proclaimed the king of united Germany in 1871.
King Frederich Wilhelm IV was the ruler of Prussia.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
‘When France sneezes,’ Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold.’ The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did Duke Metternich say “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
(a) France was situated in a colder weather zone than the rest of Europe.
(b) French flu was highly contagious.
(c) France was the forbearer of any revolution or movement that took place in Europe.
(d) France was situated on the gateway of Europe.
Answer:

(B) Where did the Bourbon Kings belong to?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Austria
Answer:
(c) Spain

(C) The July Revolution took place in
(a) 1815
(b) 1845
(c) 1871
(d) 1830
Answer:
(d) 1830

(D) which of the following stands true about the conservative order?
(a) Conservatives did not accept the changed brought by Napoleon.
(b) Conservatives believed in dissent and conversation.
(c) Conservatives abolished serfdom to rule in peace.
(d) Conservatives wanted to abolish the bureaucracy.
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth- century. Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes. Napoleon had created a confederation of 39 states. Each of them had their own currency, weights and measures. A customer travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg in 1833 to sell his goods had to pass through 11 customs barrier and pay a customs duty of about 5 percent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the weight or measurement of the goods. The measure of cloth, was the elle which in each region stood for a different length. An elle of textile in Frankfurt got a person 54.7 cm of cloth, in Mainz 55.1 cm, in Nuremberg 65.6 cm, in Freiburg 53.5 cm.
(A) Who was Napoleon?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte was a famous French statesman and military leader who led several successful campaigns during the French Revolutionary Wars and conquered various countries in Europe. Fie incorporated Napoleonic Code establishing equality before Law.

(B) Explain what do you mean by Liberalism in your own words.
Answer:
According to me, Liberalism stands for easing of implied restrictions. The restrictions might be political, social or even economical. To be liberal means to be more accommodative of new emerging practices. In economic sphere, it stood for freedom of markets and the abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

(C) Why was trading in nineteenth-century a tedious process?
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the significance of the Statue of Liberty in Frederic Sorrieu’s paintings, ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics’.
Answer:
The Statue of Liberty has been used as an allegory to signify liberty.

The painting shows independent nations marching towards the Statue of Liberty, therefore symbolising fraternity among the nations of the world.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 2.
Why was Otto Von Bismarck considered as the architect of the unified Germany ?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismark as the architect of the unified Germany:
He carried out unification with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Question 3.
What major issues were taken up by liberal nationalists?
Answer:
The freedom for the individual and equality of all before the Law were some of the issues taken by the liberal nationalists.

Question 4.
Name the Act which resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Answer:
The Act Of Union 1707 resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. Explanation: The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. England imposed its rule on Scotland.

Question 5.
Explain the aim to form Zollverein, a customs union, in 1834 in Germany.
Answer:

Question 6.
Who became the allegory of the German nation?
Answer:
Germania became the allegory of the German nation.

Related Theory
In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Question 7.
when did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:

Question 8.
Why did most ‘conservative regimes’ impose censorship laws to control printed material associated with the French Revolution in 1815?
Answer:

Question 9.
Which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong?
Answer:
Frederic Sorrieu belonged to France.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 10.
Which nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision?
Answer:
The French nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision.

Related Theory
In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social republics’. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the people of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume, marchling towards the statue of Liberty.

Question 11.
What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830?
Answer:
The Bourbon dynasty that had been ruling the region was deposed.

Related Theory
In its place, constitutional monarchy was set up with Louis Philippe at its head. Belgium was freed of United Kingdom of Netherlands through an uprising.

Question 12.
Who was called as the architect of Germany’s unification?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismarck.

Question 13.
Why big European powers met in Berlin in 1885?
Answer:
European powers met in Berlin in 1885 to complete the carving up of Africa among them.

Related Theory
It was incepted with the aim of abolishing tariff and trade barriers among the German states. It helped in strengthening the nationalistic sentiments among the citizens who were already boiling with vigour and patriotism during those times.

Question 14.
Who implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France.

Related Theory
The Civil Code of 1804 was also known as the ‘Napoleonic Code’. It was passed by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1804 in many parts of Europe which he had conquered after rising to power in France. It was passed by him to maintain control in his territory.

Question 15.
Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Answer:
The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Question 16.
What was the meaning of liberalism in the early nineteenth century in Europe?
OR
Explain the meaning of ‘liberalism’.
Answer:
In the early nineteenth century in Europe, liberalism stood for freedom of the individual and equality of all before the law.

Related Theory
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Question 17.
Why did Slavic nationalist struggle in the 19th century? Give one reason.
Answer:

Question 18.
What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?
Answer:
The main aim of French revolutionaries was:
To create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.

Question 19.
What is the meaning of concentration camps?
Answer:
A prison where people are detained without due process of law.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Inside our Earth with Answers

Inside our Earth Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Inside our Earth with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Inside our Earth Class 7 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-social-science-with-answers/

Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 7 Chapter 2 MCQs On Inside our Earth

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 1.
Where is the deepest mine in the world located?
(a) South America
(b) South Africa
(c) South India
(d) South Australia

Answer

Answer: (b) South Africa


Inside Our Earth Class 7 MCQ Question 2.
The depth of the deepest mine in South Africa is
(a) one km
(b) two km
(c) three km
(d) four km

Answer

Answer: (d) four km


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Question 3.
The upper most layer of the earth’s surface is called
(a) the crust
(b) the brust
(c) the roads
(d) the forest

Answer

Answer: (a) the crust


Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
What is the radius of the earth?
(a) 3671 km
(b) 7163 km
(c) 6371 km
(d) 1736 km

Answer

Answer: (c) 6371 km


Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 5.
Any natural mass of mineral matter that makes up the earth’s crust is called a
(a) rock
(b) road
(c) sediment
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) rock


Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
The sediments are transported and deposited by
(a) wind
(b) water
(c) wind and water
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) wind and water


Class 7th Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Question 7.
The process of transformation of the rock from one form to another is known as
(a) road cycle
(b) food cycle
(c) rock cycle
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) rock cycle


Geography Chapter 2 Class 7 MCQ Question 8.
Which rock is the molten magma made up of?
(a) Igneous
(b) Metamorphic
(c) Sedimentary
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Igneous


Class 7 Geography Ch 2 MCQ Question 9.
What is the latin term of Igneous?
(a) Ignis
(b) Sedimentum
(c) Metamorphose
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Ignis


Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 MCQ Online Test Question 10.
Rocks which contain fossils are called
(a) metamorphic rocks
(b) igneous rocks
(c) core
(d) sedimentary rocks

Answer

Answer: (d) sedimentary rocks


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B.

Column A Column B
1. Sial (a) Extrusive igneous rocks
2. Sima (b) Intrusive igneous rocks
3. Nife (c) Metamorphic rocks
4. Basalt (d) Silica and Alumina
5. Granite (e) Silica and Magnesium
6. Slate and Marble (f) Nickel and Ferrous
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Sial (d) Silica and Alumina
2. Sima (e) Silica and Magnesium
3. Nife (f) Nickel and Ferrous
4. Basalt (a) Extrusive igneous rocks
5. Granite (b) Intrusive igneous rocks
6. Slate and Marble (c) Metamorphic rocks

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Lava is the molten magma from ……….. of the earth’s surface.

Answer

Answer: interior


2. Like a …………. the earth is made up of …………. layers.

Answer

Answer: onion, concentric


3. Crust is about ………….. km on the continental mass and ………….. km on the ocean floor.

Answer

Answer: 35 and 5


4. The mantle makes up _______ % of the Earth by volume.

Answer

Answer: 57%


5. Core has a radius of about ………….. km and has very high temperature and ………..

Answer

Answer: 3500, pressure


6. Limestone under excessive heat and pressure changes into ………….

Answer

Answer: marble


State whether the given statements are true or false:

1. Crust is the thickest of all the layers.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Core is the innermost layer of the earth.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Mantle extends up to the depth of 2900 km.

Answer

Answer: True


4. The loose sediments are hardened to form metamorphic rocks.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Deccan plateau is made up of basalt.

Answer

Answer: True


6. Fossils are remains of dead plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 Inside our Earth with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Inside our Earth CBSE Class 7 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? with Answers

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQs On What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Choose the correct option:

What Is Democracy Why Democracy MCQ Question 1.
The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –
(a) Democracia
(b) Demokratia
(c) Demos
(d) Kratia

Answer

Answer: (b) Demokratia


The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –

What Is Democracy Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
The head of the government in Nepal is the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) King
(d) Vice President

Answer

Answer: (a) President


Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka
(b) US in Iraq
(c) USSR in Communist Poland
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


What Is Democracy Why Democracy For Class 9 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 4.
How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (b) 3000


Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 5.
Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party
(b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party
(d) Institutional Party

Answer

Answer: (c) Institutional Revolutionary Party


What Is Democracy Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule
(b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans
(d) 1980, from White minority rule

Answer

Answer: (d) 1980, from White minority rule


Class 9 What Is Democracy Why Democracy MCQ Question 7.
which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think
(b) should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution
(b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Provisions given in the Constitution


Ch 2 Civics Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
Some of the drawbacks of democracy is
(a) Instability and delays
(b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) Politicians fighting among themselves
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Civics Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36
(b) 1958-61
(c) 2001-2002
(d) 2004-2007

Answer

Answer: (b) 1958-61


Civics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 11.
Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because
(a) Decisions are taken by educated people
(b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time
(d) All decisions are approved by judiciary

Answer

Answer: (b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 Question 12.
The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) Limited democracy
(b) representative democracy
(c) Maximum democracy
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) representative democracy


Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ What Is Democracy Why Democracy Question 13.
Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?

Read the Cartoon (From the NCERT Textbook)

MCQ Of What Is Democracy Why Democracy Question 1.
Look at the Cartoon (From the NCERT textbook on page 25) given below:
Class 9 Civics Ch 2 MCQ
This cartoon was drawn when elections were held in Iraq with the presence of US and other foreign powers. What do you think this cartoon is saying? Why is ‘democracy’ written the way it is?

Answer

Answer:
The cartoon is saying that democracy is being set up in Iraq with the help of the US and other foreign powers.

Democracy is being ridiculed in this cartoon. The way the word is written shows that it is not a true democracy because the real power is with some external powers and not with locally elected representatives. This cannot be called people’s rule.


Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
Look at the cartoon (From the NCERT textbook on page 27) given below:
What Is Democracy Class 9 MCQ
This cartoon was drawn in the context of Latin America. Do you think it applies to the Pakistani situation as well? Think of other countries where this would apply? Does this happen sometimes in our country as well?

Answer

Answer:
The cartoon suggests the scene of booth capturing at gunpoint during elections. Yes, it applies to the Pakistani situation as well. Here, General Pervez Musharraf established army rule and controlled the elected representatives.

This could be applied in countries like China, Iraq, etc. Booth capturing remained an important feature of the Indian elections sometimes ago. But nowadays this rarely happens.


Civics Ch 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 3.
Look at the cartoon (From the NCERT Textbook on page 28) given below:
Democracy Class 9 MCQ
This cartoon was titled ‘Building Democracy’ and was first published in a Latin American publication. What do moneybags signify here? Could this cartoon be applied to India?

Answer

Answer:
This cartoon suggests that elections cannot be held without money. Different political parties spend a lot of money during election period to win the election. The government also spend money profusely to conduct free and fair election.

Moneybags signify here that money is the real strength in democracy. Without it, it is difficult for a political party to exist or win in the election.

This cartoon can could be applied to India also. Whenever there is an election in the country, money is spent recklessly inspite of EC’s warnings.


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Class 9 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Nationalism in India

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The growth of modern nationalism in India is intimately connected to which of the following events:
(a) Anti-Racial Movement
(b) Religious Reform Movements
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement
(d) Secessionist movements of Sikhs
Answer:
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement

Explanation: India was facing the despotic rule of Britain and its repercussions on its economy, society and polity. Its people were struggling for independence. They were mistreated and repressed in their own country. This led to the birth of Anti-Imperial sentiments and gave birth to modern nationalism in the country.

Nationalism In India MCQ Question 2.
What was the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 related to?
(a) Peasants and agricultural workers
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation
(c) Cotton Mill Workers
(d) Civil Services Officers
Answer:
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation

Explanation: Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers working on tea plantations in Assam were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission which was not given readily when asked.

MCQ On Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 3.
Martial law was imposed after the Rowlatt Act Hartal and took command.
(a) General Dyer
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) John Simon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 3 Question 4.
Which of the following leaders were two radical leaders and members of Congress?
(a) Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta
(b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation: Congress was divided among the two factions- moderates and radicals. Moderates Like C.R Das supported the reformation of British institutions through constitutional ways, they believed British were good for India’s progress. While Radicals like Nehru and Bose were of the opinion that only peaceful mass agitation and movements could drive British out of India.

Related Theory
Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta were hardcore revolutionaries. They tried to kill British Lords and used violent methods to protest.

Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla were industrialists and supported the Civil Disobedience movement.

Caution
Jawaharlal Nehru was a radical leader while his father Motilal Nehru was a moderate leader. Both were members of the Indian National Congress.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the correct answer from the options given below:
Hind Swaraj: Gandhiji, Anand Math:
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Identify the appropriate reason from the following options, for the non¬participation of industrial workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Industrialists were close to the Congress
(b) British offered them good salaries
(c) They were reluctant to boycott foreign goods
(d) Growth of socialism.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following organisation/s was/ were formed by industrialists in colonial India? [Diksha]
(a) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920
(b) Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanations: Indian merchants and industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla formed the FICCI in 1927 and IICC in 1920 to organise their business interests.

Related Theory
These industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla attacked colonial rule over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched by giving financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.

Class 10 Nationalism In India MCQ Question 8.
which of the following session of Congress, the non-cooperation programmed was adopted?
(a) Calcutta Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(c) Madras Session
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 9.
Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following options:
(a) To control the campaign against the British in cities
(b) To look into the functioning of the British
(c) To initiate salt law in India
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
Answer:
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.

Related Theory
However, not a single Indian was consulted to make changes in the constitutional system of India. Both the Congress and the Muslim League demonstrated against the commission.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 10.
Which of the following event happened on 31 January, 1930?
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin

Explanation: In his letter to Lord Irwin, Gandhi ji included 11 demands and one of them was to abolish the salt tax.

Related Theory
Lord Irwin did not negotiate with Gandhi ji and so Gandhi ji launched the Salt March on 11 March, 1930 along with his 78 volunteers from Sabarmati Ashram, covering 240 miles in 24 days Gandhi ji reached Dandi on 6 April, 1930 where he violated the salt law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Question 11.
Who among the following wrote ‘Vande Mata rami
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer:
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Explanation: In the 1870s, he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.

Related Theory
Abanindranath Tagore painted a portrait of Bharat Mata, while Rabindranath Tagore was a great Bengali poet who wrote ‘Geetanjali.’ Dwarkanath Tagore was an industrialist.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQs Question 12.
Who of the following leaders headed the Oudh Khan Sabha?
(a) Gandhi ji and Baba Ramchandra
(b) Gandhi ji and Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Explanation: In October 1920 during the peasant movement in Oudh (now known as Awadh) Kisan Sabha was set up and within a month, it had over 300 branches in the villages around the region.

Related Theory
Baba Ramachandra had began a movement against landlords who demanded high rents from peasants in Oudh. The peasants had to work without payment or even permanent employment. Jawaharlal Nehru and a few others joined this movement in 1920.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Nationalism In India MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
In which congress session the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was formalized in 1929?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Lahore
(d) Nagpur
Answer:

Nationalism In India MCQs Question 14.
What were the main demands of the peasant movement led by Baba Ramchandra in Awadh?
(a) Reduction of revenue
(b) Abolition of begar
(c) Social boycott of oppressive landlords
(d) AU of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: The peasants in Awadh were Landless laborers working in farms of rich Landlords. Most of the time, the Landlords would not pay the peasants demanding high rent and cess. Sometimes, the peasants were evicted without warning. The peasant movement started by Baba Ramachandra decided to resolve these problems for the peasants.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
Read the given source and answer the following:
The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

To protest against the salt tax, Gandhiji undertook:
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Civil disobedience
(c) Dandi March
(d) Protests against Simon Commission
Answer:
(c) Dandi March

Explanation: To express his displeasure against the salt tax, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Related Theory
Civil Disobedience Movement followed Dandi March. It openly encouraged people to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor shops were picketed.

Question 16.
Which of the following incident happened on 6 January 1921?
(a) Gandhiji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) The police fired at peasants
Answer:

Question 17.
Which one of the following statements is not related to Gandilrwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in a Round table conference
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience movement
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil disobedience movement and entered into a pact with Lord Irwin on 5 March 1931. Under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners. Gandhiji returned from the conference disappointed and re¬launched the movement but in its second phase, it lost its momentum and came to end by 1934.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 18.
Which of the following community chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogan demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat’ during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) The tribals
(b) The Dalits
(c) The women
(d) Plantation workers
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following options is incorrect related to Dandi March organized by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram
(b) Dandi March is also known as salt march
(c) Dandi March was started on 11 March 1930
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi demanded the abolition of the salt tax and served an ultimatum. When there was no reply from the British Government, on 11th March, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.

Question 20.
Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
Answer:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.

Question 21.
In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi organize Satyagraha for the first time in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Dandi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kheda
(d) Champaran
Answer:
(d) Champaran

In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi organize Satyagraha for the first time in India? [CBSE 2014]

Explanation: He travelled to Champaran in 1916 to organise a satyagraha there with the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Question 22.
Who among the following was associated with the formation of ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(b) Motilal Nehru

Explanation: Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das organized Swaraj Party within Congress to contest council elections which had been boycotted by the Indian National Congress due to the ongoing National Movement.

Question 23.
Which one of the following agreements gave reserved seats to the ‘Depressed Classes’ in Provincial and Central legislative Councils?
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) Poona Pact
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Poona Pact

Explanation: It gave the Depressed Classes (or Scheduled Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils in return of being voted in by the general electorate.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 24.
Which one of the following statements is not related to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mas agitations against the British.
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners.
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations against the British. Explanation: Gandhiji did not promise anything related to future national movements. He only wanted British to give more independence and remove repressive colonial laws.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the movement:
(1) The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely,
(2) Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha.
(3) The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.
Answer:
Quit India Movement

Explanation: In Wardha on 14 July, 1942, the Congress Working Committee passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8 August, 1942 in Bo?v’uay, the

All India Congress Committee called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country.

Question 26.
Identify the leader:
(1) He served as the president of the Indian National Congress
(2) He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha
(3) He was a radical leader.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru played a momentous role in the Indian Independence movement and supported the cause of non-violence agitations of mass wholeheartedly. He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha in 1920 with Baba Ramchandra’s help.

Question 27.
Identify the incident:
(1) This march was a part of Civil Disobedience Movement
(2) March was accompanied by 78 of Gandhiji’s trusted volunteers.
(3) It began at his ashram in Sabarmati.
Answer:
Salt March or Dandi March

Explanation: Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement beginning with the Dandi March which was a 240 mile march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal town in Gujarat, to ceremonially break the Salt Law by producing some of his own. He was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. He reached Dandi on 6th April, 1930.

Correct and Rewrite/True-False

Question 28.
Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das had formed the Swaraj Party. State whether the statement is True or False. If False, correct the Statement.
Answer:
True

Explanation: After the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation movement, some Congress Leaders felt it was important to oppose British policies within the councils, argue for reform and also to demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. Swaraj Party was formed for this purpose in 1923.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 29.
After the ………….. incident, Gandhiji was forced to halt the Non-Cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chauri Chaura

Explanation: At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police. With this, the Non-Cooperation movement became violent and a police station was set on fire by the protesters and Gandhiji realized that India was not ready for a pan-India movement. Hence he called off the movement.

Question 30.
………… meant labour in return of no compensation.
Answer:
Begar

Explanation: Begar was a system which forced the labourers to contribute or to work at the farms of their landlords without any payments. Baba Ramchandra led the peasants in a protest against this system of begar and demanded social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question 31.
During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses, representing the eight provinces of British India. It also had a crescent moon,……………
Answer:

Question 32.
Oudh Kisan Sabha was setup and headed by…………… and
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra

Explanation: The movement in Awadh was against talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without any paymentln June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to the villagers, and trying to understand their grievances. By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 33.
Match the important years from Column A with related events given in column B:

Column A (Important Years) Column B (Related Events)
(a) 1918 (i) Simon Commission arrived in India
(b) 1922 (ii) First Independence Day
(c) 1928 (iii) Satyagrqha for cotton mill workers
(d) 1930 (iv) NCM was called off

Answer:

Question 34.
Match the keywords from Column A with (heir meanings given in Column B:

Column A (Keywords) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment (i) Labour without any payment
(b) Boycott (ii) A form of demonstration
(c) Picket (iii) A form of protest
(d) Begar (iv) A process of making people to join the army

Answer:

Column A (Keywords) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment (iv) A process of making people join the army
(b) Boycott (iii) A form of protest
(c) Picket (ii) A form of demonstration
(d) Begar (i) Labour without any payment

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 3

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in the Madras Congress session in 1919.
Reason (R): Chauri Chaura was the place where the non-cooperation movement was called off.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): A growing anger against the colonial government was thus bringing together various groups and classes of Indians into a common struggle for freedom in the first half of the twentieth century.
Reason(R): Diverse groups were all tortured by British in one way or the other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Industrialists, workers, farmers, cultivators, etc were all tortured due to their race and called barbaric and corrupt to justify the despotic rule over them, even though with different intensities.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves.
Reason(R): Indians were inefficient workers.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: British believed Indians were backward and portrayed the same to justify their ill-behavior with Indians. They also beLieved this because Indian history was heavily misinterpreted by them. Indians were hard workers even in the toughest situations.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Arrange the following events in the correct chronoLogicaL order by choosing the correct options:
(I) Satyagraha at Kheda
(II) Hartal due to Rowtatt Act
(III) Mahatma Gandhi comes back to Indio
(IV) Congress adopts Non-Cooperation Movement
(a) (IV)-(I)-(III)-(II)
(b) (IV)-(I)-(II)-(III)
(c) (III)-(I)-(IV)-(II)
(d) (III)-(I)-(II)-(IV)
Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A

Column B

(A) 1930  (I) Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata
(B) 1919  (II) All Parties Conference
(C) 1928  (III) Rowlatt Act
(D) 1905  (IV) Depressed Class Association was formed

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
Answer:
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Explanation: Depressed Class Association was formed by Ambedkar in 1930.
Rowlatt Act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council in 1919.
All Parties Conference took place in 1928 where M.R. Jayakar of Hindu Mahasabha clashed with Jinnah on the questions of reservation of seats of Muslims.
Image of Bharat Mata- Allegory of India was painted by Tagore in 1905.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement, each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of Swaraj, but the term meant different things to different people.
Which of the following statements stand true for the Non-cooperation Movement?
(I) Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods was a program.
(II) It showcased Hindu-Muslim Movement.
(III) It was adopted in one of the sessions of All India Conference of Parties
(IV) lt was suggested by Gandhiji.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Explanation: It was adopted at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 4.
Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:
(1) Coming of Simon Commission to India
(2) Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Sesson of INC
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct sequence:
(a) (3)-(2)-(4)-(1)
(b) (1)-(2)-(4)-(3)
(c) (2)-(3)-(1)-(4)
(d) (4)-(3)-(1)-(2)
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source: The Movement in the Towns
The movement started with the participation of the middleclass participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmas had access to.

The effects of Non-cooperation movement on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
(A) Explain the role of the Justice Party in boycotting council elections.
Answer:
The Justice Party in Madras (Chennai) wanted to contest the council elections to gain power which was only available to Brahmans till then.

(B) How were the effects of ‘Non-coope-ration movement on the economic front’ dramatic?
Answer:
Merchants burnt foreign clothes in huge bonfires, refusing to buy foreign goods
completely and even picketed liquor shops. Import of foreign goods reduced to half due to their dramatic reaction.

(C) Explain the effect of the ‘boycott’ move-ment on ‘foreign textile trade’.
Answer:
The boycott movement affected foreign trade negatively. Imports of clothes were reduced to half in initial value. Businessmen refused to finance foreign trade or wear foreign goods. People began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian made fabrics, from mills and handlooms.

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). This Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6 April.

Rallies were organised in various cities, workers went on strike in railway workshops, and shops closed down. Alarmed by the popular upsurge, and scared that lines of communication such as the railway and telegraph would be disrupted, the British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
In Hind Swaraj, Mahatama Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages.
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement On 31 January 1930, Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The idea was to make the demarjds wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act
(A) Which famous incident followed protests after the hartal on April 6th?
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
Answer:
After the hartal against Rowlatt Act on 6th April, the infamous Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place on 13th April where General Dyer open fired on a large crowd assembled for annual Baisakhi fair to spread terror among Satyagrahis. Hundreds of people died in this incident.

(B) List two methods that Gandhiji proposed to adopt to launch the non-cooperation movement
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
Gandhiji proposed that to convert non-cooperation into a movement, people should first surrender the titles, awards, rewards or any favours awarded to them by the government and boycott all services under government control such as educational, legal, political, military etc. This meant leaving schools, courts, colleges and offices.

(C) Why was Salt chosen as a symbol of national unity?
Answer:
Gandhiji chose salt to represent national unity because it was the only item used by all-rich or poor, Hindus or Muslims etc. and could be used successfully to unite them against their common enemy-the British.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow;
It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements.
(A) Why was the flag mentioned in the source?
(a) The flag represented Britain as a nation.
(b) The flag wanted to spread the idea of self-help among people.
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.
(d) The flag was created to decorate the image of Bharat Mata.
Answer:
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.

Why was the flag mentioned in the source?

Explanation: The flag represented Gandhian idea of self help and was also a symbol of independence a self-rule. ^ Hence it represented Indian aspirations of nationhood, independence and self-rule. It was a manifestation of the dreams of millions of Indians.

(B) Which of the following symbols were not used to unify people?
(a) Literature
(b) Rivers and Mountains
(c) History of India
(d) FolkSongs
Answer:
(b) Rivers and Mountains

(C) Who created the flag mentioned in the source?
Answer:

(D) Assertion (A): Indian history had to be thought about differently.
Reason(R): Facts were written wrong.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the N questions that follow:
If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the . most appropriate option.
(A) Which movement was Kickstarted by Dandi March?
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Protest against Simon Commission
Answer:
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement

(B) Which of the following statements are true with respect to the demands as mentioned in the source?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi wrote a letter to Lord Curzon.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Gandhi-lrwin Pact and hence he sent the demands.
(d) Irwin fulfilled all of those demands afterwards.
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians. Explanation: Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Second round table conference and hence gave an ultimatum to Lord Irwin to accept his demands regarding the welfare of Indians else a full blown Civil disobedience Movement.

(C) Where did Mahatma Gandhi go to attend a Round Table Conference before sending his 11 demands?
(a) New York
(b) Delhi
(c) London
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) London

(D) The demands that Mahatma Gandhi sent were about ….
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.
(b) Specific demands from the Non Residential Indians
(c) Demands about independence of the country
(d) Demands about abolishing custom duties.
Answer:
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.

Explanation: Gandhi presented Irwin with his wide ranging demands, general to all the communities and specific demands of social groups to promote equality and welfare of all.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports. To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. Led by prominent industrialists like Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla, the industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy, and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following class/social group is mentioned in the given source?
(a) Industrial workers
(b) Farmers and rich landlords
(c) Industrialists
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

(B) What was the reaction of the given class when this movement was called off?
(a) They encouraged re-launching of this movement.
(b) They were happy because they could no longer financially support the movement.
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.
(d) They were sad because their interests had not been achieved.
Answer:
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.

Explanation: Supporting the movement meant the business was stalled for days and Industrialists were worried about their profit. Hence when the movement could not achieve realisation of their interest, they were at least content that it would not disrupt business anymore.

(C) Why was the given class interested in supporting the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if British industries were closed
(b) They wanted to open more industries in India.
(c) They wanted to stop exporting Indian materials
(d) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if Indian exports were encouraged.
Answer:

(D) When was this movement adopted?
(a) 1920
(b) 1921
(c) 1930
(d) 1931
Answer:
(c) 1930
Explanation: The Civil Disobedience movement began in 1930 with the Dandi March.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society: ‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birth right of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society… To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders supported Bhagat Singh in organising this revolution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C.R. Das
(d) Ajay Ghosh
Answer:

(B) Which organisation did Bhagat Singh organised to support the cause of his revolution?
(a) FICCI
(b) INA
(c) HSRA
(d) INC
Answer:
(c) HSRA

Explanation: In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Feroze Shah Kotla ground in Delhi by Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh.

(C) Which of the following statements was said by Bhagat Singh?
(a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisaan
(b) Inquilab Zindabad
(c) Simon Go Back
(d) Do or Die
Answer:
(b) Inquitab Zindabad

Explanation: This translates to “Long live the revolution”. This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and socialist Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921 and used heavily by Bhagat Singh.

Related Theory
Lai Bahadur Shastri, India’s second Prime Minister used “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan”

(D) Which of the following term clearly described the tendencies of Bhagat Singh?
(a) Moderate nationalist
(b) Radical Nationalist
(c) Internationalist
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations. In an effort to win them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose, became more assertive.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did the Simon Commission arrive in India?
(a) They were to analyse the working of Indian Constitution and suggest reforms.
(b) He was elected as the viceroy and came to take charge.
(c) He wanted to change the name of Hindustan to British India.
(d) He came to arrest Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following leaders rejected the invitation to First Round Table Conference?
(a) Jinnah
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) J. Nehru
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: First Round Table Conference was rejected by Congress.

(C) What was the offer of Dominion Status for India?
(a) India was to be an independent country.
(b) India was to change its status from a colonised country to a dominated country.
(c) India was to continue to be colonised country but with more participation of Indians in the administration.
(d) India was to become part of another country called Scotland.
Answer:

(D) Who was Lord Irwin?
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.
(b) He was the Secretary of state for India.
(c) He was the King of Britain.
(d) He was the Prime Minister of Britain.
Answer:
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. How was this movement different from the Non-Cooperation Movement? People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of country broke salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many places forest people violated forest laws, going to collect wood and graze cattle.
(A) When did the Civil Disobedience Movement start?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched in April 1930.

(B) Who launched Civil Disobedience Movement and how?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched by Gandhiji by breaking Salt law after he carried out Dandi March in March with 78 of his followers. He drove the point of breaking laws in this movement home by breaking the salt law.

(C) Was the Civil Disobedience Movement different from Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The Chauri Chaura incident happened where general public violently clashed with the police in Gorakhpur, United Provinces in 1922. This made Gandhiji realise that Indians were not yet ready for a peaceful agitation and hence he called the movement off.

Question 2.
The Resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which Congress session?
Answer:
Lahore Session, 1929

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 3.
Who announced a vague offer of Dominion Status for India in 1929?
Answer:
Lord Irwin, the then viceroy of India.

Question 4.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi organise, Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in 1917? Give the main reason.
Answer:
Peasants affected from crop failure and plague epidemic wanted relaxation in revenue collection. Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha with these peasants against revenue collectors for the same in 1917.

Question 5.
What happened to the workers in plantations of Assam?
Answer:

Question 6.
Who wrote the song ‘Vande Matram’?
Answer:
‘Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’ wrote the song Vande Matram’.

Related Theory
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Matram’ as a hymn to the motherland in, 1870s. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal

Question 7.
Name the author of the novel ‘Anandmath’.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay is the author of ‘Anandmath’.

Related Theory
The image of Bharat Mata was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland which was later included in his novel ‘Anandamath’.

Question 8.
State the slogan with which Simon Commission was greeted in 1928 in India.
Answer:
Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan ‘Simon Go back’ in 1928 in India.
Related Theory
Simon Commission was constituted by the Tory government in Britain as a response to the nationalist movement. It had no Indian member and when it arrived in India, all parties like the Congress and Muslim League opposed it.

Question 9.
Why did Indians oppose the ‘Simon Commission’?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Question 10.
Read the source given below and name the pact of compromise signed later between Gandhiji and Dr B.R Amdbedkar on the position of Dalits in India in future.
Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930, clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the second Round Table Conference by demanding separate electorates for dalits. When the British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand, Gandhiji began a fast unto death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into society.
Answer:
Poona Pact

Explanation: The Poona Pact signed in September 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar. This pact gave the Depressed Classes (later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Question 11.
Who was the author of ‘Hind Swaraf ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was the author of ‘Hind Sawaraj.

Question 12.
When did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur?
Answer:
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on 13th April, 1919.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Environment with Answers

Environment Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Environment with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Environment Class 7 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-social-science-with-answers/

Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 7 Chapter 1 MCQs On Environment

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is a basic life support system?
(a) Music system
(b) Environment
(c) Transportation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Environment


Environment Class 7 MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is created by nature?
(a) Cars, scooters and buses
(b) Mountains, rivers and trees
(c) Roads, books, pen and copies
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Mountains, rivers and trees


Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
The domain of water is referred to
(a) hydrosphere
(b) lithosphere
(c) atmosphere
(d) biosphere

Answer

Answer: (a) hydrosphere


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Question 4.
What do plant and animal kingdom make together?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Biosphere


Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the fallowing animals is called the ship of the desert?
(a) Camel
(b) Goat
(c) Cow
(d) Dogs

Answer

Answer: (a) Camel


Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
When is the World Environment Day celebrated every year?
(a) 25th December
(b) 23rd June
(c) 26th January
(d) 5th June

Answer

Answer: (d) 5th June


Class 7th Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
Who interact with the environment and modify it according to their needs?
(a) Human beings
(b) Animals
(c) Rivers
(d) Mountains

Answer

Answer: (a) Human beings


Geography Class 7 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
Which one of the following is not a threat to environment?
(a) Growing population
(b) Growing plants
(c) Growing industries
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Growing plants


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B.

Column A Column B
1. Land (a) lithosphere
2. Animals, plants (b) atmosphere
3. Mountain, plateau and plains (c) abiotic
4. Gases, water vapour, dust (d) biotic
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Land (c) abiotic
2. Animals, plants (d) biotic
3. Mountain, plateau and plains (a) lithosphere
4. Gases, water vapour, dust (b) atmosphere

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Hydrosphere is a part of …………….

Answer

Answer: biosphere


2. Two main constituents of environment are …………. and …………..

Answer

Answer: natural, man-made


3. …………. is the hard top layer of the earth.

Answer

Answer: Lithosphere


4. …………. modify the natural environment.

Answer

Answer: Human beings


Write whether the given statements are true or false:

1. Landforms are found only over continents.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Trade in which goods are exchanged without the use of money is called barter system.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it.

Answer

Answer: True


4. No life can exist in biosphere.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Abiotic environment consists of living organism.

Answer

Answer: False


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Environment with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Environment CBSE Class 7 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers

People as Resource Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided People as Resource Class 9 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQs On People as Resource

Choose the correct option:

People As Resource Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Primary sector


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication

Answer

Answer: (c) Forestry


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health

Answer

Answer: (d) Health


Economics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following is included in the secondary sector?
(a) Poultry farming
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Quarrying

Answer

Answer: (b) Manufacturing


Class 9 People As Resource MCQ Question 5.
Investment in human capital can be made through
(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three

Answer

Answer: (d) All the three


Economics Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 6.
The literacy rate during 2010-11 was
(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (b) 74%


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Online Test Question 7.
Which of the following sectors faces the problem of seasonal unemployment?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Service sector
(c) Trade
(d) IT sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 Question 8.
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under
(a) One year
(b) Three, year
(c) Two year
(d) Four year

Answer

Answer: (a) One year


Ch 2 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
The workforce population includes people from 15 years to
(a) 59 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 59 years


People As A Resource Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?
(a) 6 to 10 years
(b) 5 to 3 years
(c) 6 to 14 years
(d) 7 to 12 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 to 14 years


Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?

Chapter 2 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Birth Rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Sex Ratio


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQs Question 12.
Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in life expectancy


Class 9 Eco Ch 2 MCQ Question 13.
What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years
(b) 53 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 80 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 64 years


Economics Ch 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school
(b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Answer

Answer: (d) To take care of the health and education of their children


Class 9th Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fisheries
(c) Poultry farming
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


Question 16.
What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Answer

Answer: (c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years


Question 17.
What is the expended form of PHC
(a) Public Health Club
(b) Private Health Club
(c) Primary Health Centre
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Primary Health Centre


Question 18.
What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census, :
(a) 921 females per 1000
(b) 930 females per 1000
(c) 928 females per 1000
(d) 933 females per 1000

Answer

Answer: (b) 930 females per 1000


Question 19.
If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Cyclical unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Seasonal unemployment


Question 20.
The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under
(a) seasonal unemployment
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 21.
Where is Seasonal unemployment found
(a) urban areas
(b) rural areas
(c) in remote areas
(d) both in rural and urban areas

Answer

Answer: (b) rural areas


Question 22.
The quality of population depends on
(a) literacy rate
(b) health
(c) skill
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 23.
Which one from the following is the primary sector activities
(i) Forestry
(ii) Poultry farming
(iii) Animal husbandry
(iv) Manufacturing
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) (i), (ii), (iii)


Question 24.
Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 year


Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of

Question 25.
The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is
(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas
(b) Navodaya Vidyalayas
(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas
(d) None of the aboves

Answer

Answer: (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas


Question 26.
What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) third


Question 27.
Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes
(a) trade
(b) marketing
(c) manufacturing
(d) education

Answer

Answer: (c) manufacturing


Question 28.
Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of
(a) good quality of life
(b) improvement in health sector
(c) better HDI (Human Development Index)
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (a) good quality of life


Question 29.
Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
(b) Adult Education Programme
(c) Mid-day meal
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan


Question 30.
Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities
(b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure
(d) lack of income

Answer

Answer: (a) lack of equal education opportunities


Intext Activity Questions

Question 1.
Visit a village or colony near to your residential area and note down the various activities undertaken by the people of that village or colony.
If this is not possible, ask your neighbour what is their profession? In which of the three sectors will you categorise their work?
Say whether these activities are economic or non-economic activities:

  1. Vilas sells fish in the village market.
  2. Vilas cooks food for his family.
  3. Sakai works in the private firm.
  4. Sakai looks after his younger brother and sister.
Answer

Answer:

  1. Economic activity
  2. Non-economic activity
  3. Economic activity
  4. Non-economic activity

Question 2.
Visit a nearby hospital, either government or private and note down the following details.
(i) How many beds are there in the hospital you have visited?
(ii) How many doctors are there in the hospital?
(iii) How many nurses work in that hospital?
Besides, try to gather the following additional information:
(i) How many hospitals are there in your locality?
(ii) How many dispensaries are there in your locality?

Answer

Answer: Do it yourself.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding People as Resource CBSE Class 9 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife with Answers

India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 6 Chapter 8 MCQs On India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

Choose the correct answer:

India Climate Vegetation And Wildlife Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Day to day changes in the atmosphere are known as?
(a) Weather
(b) Vegetation
(c) Mausium
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Weather


Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 MCQ Question 2.
What is the duration of cold season in India?
(a) March to May
(b) October to November
(c) December to February
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) December to February


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Question 3.
During the winter season the sun rays
(a) fall directly
(b) don’t fall directly
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) don’t fall directly


Ncert Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
During the summer season
(a) temperature becomes very low
(b) temperature becomes very high
(c) heavy rainfalls
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) temperature becomes very high


India Climate Vegetation And Wildlife MCQ Class 6 Question 5.
What do moisture laden winds strike to cause rainfall?
(a) River
(b) Sea
(c) Mountain
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Mountain


Question 6.
Agriculture in India is dependent on
(a) rains
(b) drought
(c) winds
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) rains


Question 7.
From which language is the word monsoon taken?
(a) Latin
(b) Arabic
(c) English
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Arabic


Question 8.
What would happen if the monsoons are weak in a year?
(a) Water level will go-down
(b) Crops will be affected
(c) Summer will be longer
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 9.
Which state has freezing cold during the winter season in India?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (d) Jammu and Kashmir


Question 10.
Which of the following is flowering plant?
(a) Tulsi
(b) Rose
(c) Cactus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Rose


Question 11.
Due to which condition India has a wide range of natural vegetation?
(a) Climatic condition
(b) Rainy condition
(c) Summer condition
(d) Winter condition

Answer

Answer: (a) Climatic condition


Question 12.
Which of the following has Tropical Rain Forest?
(a) Western ghats forest
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Jaisalmer
(d) Bikaner

Answer

Answer: (a) Western ghats forest


Question 13.
In which direction does the wind blow during south west monsoon season?
(a) Land to sea
(b) Sea to land
(c) Both (a) and (6)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Sea to land


Question 14.
In which state are the cactus, khair, Babool, Keekar etc. found?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajasthan


Question 15.
What are natural habitat of wildlife?
(a) Forests
(b) Rivers
(c) Plains
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Forests


Question 16.
During the night time, which gas is released by the plants?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(e) Hydrogen
(d) Lithium

Answer

Answer: (b) Carbon dioxide


Question 17.
What important programmes can we have to improve greenery of our earth?
(a) Annual day of a school
(b) Sport day of a school
(c) Van Mahotsava
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Van Mahotsava


Question 18.
Forests are responsible for
(a) high temperature
(b) low temperature
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) low temperature


Question 19.
Mangrove forests are found in
(a) West Bengal
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) West Bengal


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife CBSE Class 6 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resource with Answers

Mineral and Power Resource Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resource with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Mineral and Power Resource Class 8 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 8 Chapter 3 MCQs On Mineral and Power Resource

Choose the correct answer:

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 1.
Why has quarrying become a major environmental concern?
(a) Because minerals are pollutants
(b) Due to dust raised from the quarrying activities
(c) Because it is done by displacing people
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Due to dust raised from the quarrying activities


Mineral And Power Resources Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the surface of the earth is named as
(a) mining
(b) pumping
(c) extracting
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) mining


Minerals And Power Resources Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
Give an example of shafts.
(a) Surface mining
(b) Deep bores
(c) Qff-shore drilling
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Deep bores


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Question 4.
What is the process in which minerals lying near the surface are dug?
(a) Drilling
(b) Off-shore drilling
(c) Quarrying
(d) Extraction

Answer

Answer: (c) Quarrying


What is the process in which minerals lying near the surface are dug?

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Name the process in which deep wells are bored to take out petroleum and natural gas.
(a) Quarrying
(b) Drilling
(c) Shaft mining
(d) Open cast mining

Answer

Answer: (d) Open cast mining


Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 6.
Gold is an example of minerals.
(a) ferrous
(b) non-ferrous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) non-ferrous


MCQ For Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Question 7.
Which continent is the largest producer of iron?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (b) Europe


Mineral And Power Resources MCQ Question 8.
Which one of the following countries in Europe has the largest deposits of iron?
(a) Portugal
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) Hungary

Answer

Answer: (b) Russia


Class 8 Chapter 3 Geography MCQ Question 9.
Which is one of the deepest gold mine of the world?
(a) Kolar
(b) Jharia
(c) Raniganj
(d) Bikaner

Answer

Answer: (a) Kolar


Class 8 Geo Ch 3 MCQ Question 10.
From which mineral is silicon obtained?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Thorium
(d) Quartz

Answer

Answer: (d) Quartz


Class 8 Geography Ch 3 MCQ Question 11.
Suggest ways to conserve minerals.
(a) Reducing waste in the process of mining
(b) Recycling of minerals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Geography Chapter 3 Class 8 MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the followings is not the way of saving energy at home?
(a) Switching off lights when not in use
(b) Keeping gas off when not in use
(c) Cooking food in an open pan on low flame
(d) Switching on lights during daytime

Answer

Answer: (c) Cooking food in an open pan on low flame


Chapter 3 Geography Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
Petrbleum is referred to as ‘black gold’ because
(a) it’is black in colour
(b) it is yellow in colour
(c) it is valuable
(d) it is used in making jewellery

Answer

Answer: (c) it is valuable


Geography Class 8 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 14.
Where do we find natural gas resources in India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Mumbai High
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: (c) Mumbai High


Ch 3 Geography Class 8 MCQ Question 15.
Mineral fuel is found in:
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 16.
Which of the following are non-conventional resources?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Tidal energy
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Which of the following are non-conventional resources?

Question 17.
Energy obtained from the earth is known as:
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Bio gas
(c) Geothermal
(d) Thermal

Answer

Answer: (c) Geothermal


Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Ferrous minerals (a) Coal, petroleum, natural gas
(ii) Non-ferrous minerals (b) Limestone, potash, nitrate
(iii) Metallic minerals (c) Fully evaporated, solid, hard and blackest form of coal
(iv) Noh-metallic minerals (d) Iron, manganese
(v) Foss’il fuels (e) Zinc, lead, copper, gold
(vi) Coke (f) Iron ore, bauxite, copper, gold, etc.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Ferrous minerals (a) Coal, petroleum, natural gas
(ii) Non-ferrous minerals (b) Limestone, potash, nitrate
(iii) Metallic minerals (c) Fully evaporated, solid, hard and blackest form of coal
(iv) Noh-metallic minerals (d) Iron, manganese
(v) Foss’il fuels (e) Zinc, lead, copper, gold
(vi) Coke (f) Iron ore, bauxite, copper, gold, etc.

State whether true or false:

1. Petroleum is also termed as black gold.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Kerala is the producer of mica.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Dams leads to environmental pollution.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Solar energy is a good source of energy in western part of Rajasthan.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

(i) Russia is rich in …………….. resource.

Answer

Answer: Natural gas


(ii) Processing of digging out of minerals is known as ……………..

Answer

Answer: quarrying


(iii) Biogas is produced in …………….. areas.

Answer

Answer: rural


(iv) India …………….. in ferrous minerals.

Answer

Answer: is rich


(v) Australia is the largest producer of …………….. in the world.

Answer

Answer: bauxite


(vi) China and India have large …………….. ore deposits.

Answer

Answer: iron


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Class 8 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On The Age of Industrialisation

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true about the album cover “Dawn of the century”?
(a) The painting appeared on the cover of a music book published by E.T. Pauli in 1900.
(b) The centre of the picture represents the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century.
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.
(d) Her flight is taking her into the future.
Answer:
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.

Explanation: The wheel with wings symbolises time not scientific inventions. The painting appeared as the cover of a music book by publisher E.T. Pauli in the 1900s.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following fictional characters was featured in the painting, Two Magicians?
(a) Popeye
(b) Romeo and Juliet
(c) Touchstone
(d) Aladdin
Answer:
(d) Aladdin

Explanation: Two Magicians, published on 26 January, 1901 appeared as a trade magazine over a hundred years ago. It featured Aladdin from the orient who built a beautiful palace with his magic lamp. The other was a modern mechanic, who with his modern tools weaves a new magic builds bridges, ships, towers and high-rise buildings. Aladdin is shown as representing the East and the past, the mechanic stands for the West and modernity.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of trade guiLds?
(a) They trained craftspeopte.
(b) They maintained control over production.
(c) They reguLated competition and prices.
(d) They produced metal goods.
Answer:
(d) They produced metaL goods.

Explanation: Trade guilds were not producers and manufacturers. They did not produce any goods, they were just professional guilds and other interest groups. They regulated competition, production and trained craftspeople.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Question 4.
Who was a Stapler?
(a) He spun the final clothes.
(b) He sorts wooL according to its fibre
(c) He gathers wool by pleating
(d) He dyes clothes.
Answer:

Class 10 Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 5.
………………. was the textiLe finishing centre.
(a) London
(b) Shanghai
(c) Delhi
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) London

The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 6.
The symbol of the new era was ………..
(a) Steel
(b) Cotton
(c) Silk
(d) Iron
Answer:
(b) Cotton

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
Invented the Steam Engine- Newcomen:
Improved upon the steam engine and patented it: ………..
(a) James Watt
(b) Richard Arkwright
(c) James Fuller
(d) James Hargreaves
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Related Theory
Richard Arkwnght created the Cotton Mill. James Hargreaves devised the spinning Jenny.

Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following reasons correctly describes the probLem that the American Civil War caused for Indian weavers?
(a) Indian weavers couLd not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.
(b) The Americans stopped suppLying raw cotton to India.
(c) America decreased their prices drastically and hence Indian goods were not in demand.
(d) American oversupplied raw cotton to Britain.
Answer:
(a) Indian weavers could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. Explanation: Weavers could not get sufficient suppLy of raw cotton of good quality.

When the American Civil War broke out, cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain began heavily importing from India. This led to a severe rise in the price of raw cotton. Weavers were starved of supplies and had to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices.

MCQ Of Chapter Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following was a label used by producers to advertise their products in India?
(a) Made in Delhi
(b) Made in Manchester
(c) Made in Vienna
(d) Made in London
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

MCQ On The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Choose the most appropriate option:
First Jute Mill- Bengal; First Cotton Mill-
(a) Surat
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Explanation: The first cotton mill was set up in Bombay (Mumbai) in 1854. Around the same time jute mills were set in Bengal.

MCQ Of The Age Of Industrialisation Question 11.
The pattern of industrial change in India was conditioned by
(a) Colonial rule of Britain
(b) Weakness of the rulers of India
(c) Rampant Poverty in India
(d) Diverse provinces and their disjointed administrations
Answer:
(a) Colonial rule of Britain

MCQ Of History Chapter The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 12.
Richard Arkwright is associated with which of the following mills:
(a) Elgin Mill
(b) Iron and Steel Factory
(c) Jute Mill
(d) Cotton Mill
Answer:
(d) Cotton Mill

Explanation: Sir Richard Arkwright was an English inventor and a leading entrepreneur during the early Industrial Revolution.

He created the Cotton Mill which revolutionised cloth production.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is not a European Managing agency?
(a) Bird Heiglers & Co.
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.
(c) Andrew Yule
(d) Jardine Skinner & Co.
Answer:
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.

Explanation: Peter Mcguire & Co is an American company.

The Age Of Industrialization Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The sale of sarees was not affected by famines in India.
(a) Kanjeevaram Sarees
(b) Baluchari sarees
(c) Cotton Sarees
(d) Khadi Sarees
Answer:
(b) Baluchari Sarees

Explanation: Famines affected the demand of goods made from coarser fabrics. Fine fabrics like Baluchari silk were bought by the rich who could afford to buy it at any time of the year.

Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following reasons correctly explains the increased Indian industrial growth after the First World War?
(a) Britishers had begun opening new factories in India
(b) New technology was introduced
(c) India gained control of its mills and production houses
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins
Answer:
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins.

Explanation: British economy crumbled after the war. It could not recapture its position. In the meantime, Indian industries had started producing weLl and above for its home market. Local industrialists gradually consolidated their position.

Question 16.
When was the first weaving and spinning mill set up?
(a) 1878
(b) 1874
(c) 1873
(d) 1879
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 17.
Which of the following countries could the term Occident refer to?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) America
(c) Iran
(d) India
Answer:
(b) America

Explanation: The term Occident refers to the countries west of Mediterranean Sea. Iran, India and Sri Lanka are all located east of Mediterranean Sea.

Question 18.
In 1911, 67 percent of Indian large industries were located in which of the following areas?
(a) Bengal and Bombay
(b) Surat and Bharuch
(c) Masulipatnam and Bengal
(d) Ahmedabad and Nagpur jute mill in Kolkata?
Answer:

Question 19.
…… was the first industrialised nation in the worLd.
(a) Britain
(b) India
(c) Finland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 20.
Who among the following set up the first jute mitt in Kotkata?
(a) J. N Tata
(b) Seth Hukumchand
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Dinshaw Petit
Answer:
(b) Seth Hukumchand

Who among the following set up the first jute mitt in Kotkata?

Explanation: Fie was a Marwari businessman who traded with China and set up this mill in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1917.

Question 21.
The spinning jenny was devised by
(a) TE Nicholson
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) William Bell Scott
(d) Will Thome
Answer:
(b) James Hargreaves

Explanation: Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny in 1764. This machine speeded up the spinning process and reduced labour demand.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 22.
Which one of the following alternatives is associated with the gomasthas?
(a) Traders
(b) Landlords
(c) Unpaid servants
(d) Paid supervisors
Answer:
(d) Paid Supervisors

Explanation: Gomasthas were paid servants employed by the British to supervise weavers, collect suppLies, and examine the quality of cloth.

Question 23.
Who among the following improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
(a) James Watt
(b) Matthew Boulton
(c) Henry Ford
(d) Graham Bell
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following groups of industries was the dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialisation?
(a) Cotton and metals
(b) Cotton and silk
(c) Silk and footwears
(d) Footwears and glass
Answer:
(a) Cotton and metals

Explanation: Cotton and metals which were developed as a result of the Industrial Revolution were the most important dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialization.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the object:
(1) It was devised by James Hargreaves
(2) It reduced labour demand
(3) It speeded up the spinning process.
Answer:
The Spinning Jenny

Explanation: The Spinning Jenny worked by turning one single wheel a worker could set in motion a number of spindles and spin several threads at the same time.

Question 26.
Identify the object:
(1) They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(2) Today we live in a world where they surround us.
(3) They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens.
Answer:
Advertisement

Explanation: Advertisements are used by the producers to promote their product, impress the customers and lure them into buying more. Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.

Question 27.
Identify the personality:
(1) He was generally an old and trusted worker.
(2) He got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in the city and provided them money in times of crisis.
(3) He therefore became a person with some authority and power.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are true or false. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of spiritual progress.
Answer:
False
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of technological progress.

Explanation: The modern world is associated with rapid technological change and innovations, machines and factories, railways and steamships.

Question 29.
The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries in the 18th century.
Answer:
False.

The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries.

Explanation: Despite these tremendous inventions, ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non- mechanised sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements.

Question 30.
The new industries replaced traditional industries easily in Britain.
Answer:

Question 31.
British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England.
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Technological changes did not spread dramatically across the industrial landscape.
Answer:
True

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 33.
The term orient refers to
Answer:
countries east to the Mediterranean Sea

Question 34.
Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of
Answer:
Swadeshi

Explanation: Indian manufacturers advertised the nationalist message of promoting the culture of the region. They wanted to imply that if an Indian cared for the nation, they should buy products that Indians produced.

Question 35.
In the 20th century, the coarser cloth was bought by the ………….. and its demand fluctuated violently.
Answer:
poor

Explanation: The demand of the cloth fluctuated because the poor people often did not have any money to buy these clothes regularly, especially during famines. They were finding it diffcult to even make their ends meet.

Question 36.
Machine-made goods were produced mainly for ………. in Victorian Britain.
Answer:
export to colonies

Explanation: The rich classes of Britain preferred handmade goods. To earn a stronghold over their colonies, the majority of the goods produced in Britain were exported to its colonies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 37.
The first cotton mill in Bombay (Mumbai) came up in …………….
Answer:
1854

Question 38.
The port of ………………. lost its importance during Colonial rule in India.
Answer:

Question 39.
Surat on the coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea ports.
Answer:
Gujarat

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 5

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles.
Reason (R): The labels were used to make the customers feel positive and confident about buying these clothes. They were marks of quality.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: These labels were used to make the customers familiar with the name and place of production.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.
Reason (R): Iron and steel were used in making various parts of the trains and trams.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The most dynamic industries in Britain were cotton and metals.
Reason (R): There was no other material requirement at that time.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: These were the two most important industries in Britain. There were other industries like food processing, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements as well. Hence there was material requirement for other industries as well.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 43.
Assertion (A): The typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century was not a machine operator but the traditional craftsperson and labourer.
Reason (R): The new technology was very expensive and was accepted very slowly.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Labour was available in abundance and it was less expensive to work with traditional tools. SeasonaL employment saved a lot of money during off season. With machines, a lot of capital had to be invested.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Wages were low in Victorian Britain.
Reason (R): Labour was in abundance.
Answer:

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The export of Indian yarn to China declined in 1906.
Reason (R): India began exporting more to Japan.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The export declined because Japanese goods had filled the Chinese markets.

Question 48.
Assertion (A): Advertisements make products appear less desirable and unnecessary.
Reason (R): They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Advertisements help to make the products appear more desirable and necessary among the users.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money to peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing. But merchants could not expand production within towns.
Why could the new merchants not set up business in the towns in Europe? Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Rules forbade them.
(b) They were restricted by the monopoly of guilds and lack of demand of products.
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.
(d) The merchants did not want to trade with towns.
Answer:
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.

Explanation: Trade guilds did not allow the new merchants to set up their businesses in towns and cities. They had monopolised the markets of the towns.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following statements was true about European Managing Agencies?
(I) They established tea and coffee plantations
(II) They invested in mining, indigo and jute.
(III) They produced goods primarily for export trade and not for sale in India.
(IV) Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies controlled a large sector of Indian industries.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Explanation: European Managing Agencies dominated Indian production and markets for a long time. Three of them were Bird Heilgers & Co., Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These agencies mobilised capital, set up joint- stock companies and managed them.

Question 3.
Which of the following causes led to the decline and collapse of the weaving industry in India?
(I) Export markets collapsed, local markets shrank in 1850s
(II) Indian products could not compete with cheap, machine-produced goods of Manchester
(III) Indian weavers did not have access to enough raw cotton supply
(IV) Factories in India began mass production of machine-goods and thus weavers lost their livelihoods
(a) (I) only
(b) (IV) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs.
What items did Indian factories supply during the First World War?
(a) Guns and weapons
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles
(c) Medicines for war patients
(d) Nuclear weapons
Answer:
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles

Explanation: India was a leading textile producer during 18th and 19th centuries and hence had to fulfill textile related needs during war in Britain. Nuclear power had not been discovered by then.

Question 5.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B:

Column A

Column B

(A) Elgin Mill  (I) Madras
(B) Jute Mill  (II) Kanpur
(C) Cotton Mill  (III) Bengal
(D) Spinning and Weaving Mill  (IV) Bombay

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:
(c) (A)-(II),(B)-(III),(C)-(IV),(D)-(I)

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is true about the building industry?
(I) After the 1840s, building activity intensified in the cities.
(II) After the 1840s, building activity diminished in the cities.
(III) The number of workers employed in the transport industry doubled in the 1840s.
(IV) The number of workers employed in the transport industry halved in the 1840s.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (I) & (III) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) II & IV only
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
By the turn of the nineteenth century, cotton weavers faced a new set of problems.
In 1772, Henry Patullo, a Company official, had ventured to say that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce, since no other nation produced goods of the same quality. Yet by the beginning of the nineteenth century we see the beginning of a long decline of textile exports from India. In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent. Why did this happen? What were its implications?

As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following problems was not faced by cotton weavers in India?
(a) Their export market had collapsed due to high import duties levied by Britain.
(b) They did not have good quality cotton to produce goods due to civil war.
(c) Imported goods from Manchester were cheap.
(d) There were frequent strikes in Indian industries
Answer:

(B) Which of the following was appointed by British to supervise weavers?
(a) Jobber
(b) Gomastha
(c) Sepoys
(d) Munshis
Answer:

(C) …………….. was one of the main products exported by India to Britain among textiles.
(a) Silk
(b) Wool
(c) Khadi
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(d) Cotton

................. was one of the main products exported by India to Britain among textiles.

(D) What was the main reason behind the following incident?
In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent.
(a) There was a famine in India.
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods.
(c) To export their own products, British stopped the mills from producing in India.
(d) Britain stopped using cotton textiles.
Answer:
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods. Explanation: British imposed tariffs on Indian goods to promote their own goods. This made Indian goods very expensive.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two industrialists of Bombay who built huge industrial empires during the nineteenth century.
Answer:
Dinshaw Petit, Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 2.
Define the term ‘Carding.
Answer:
Carding is the process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared prior to spinning. This disentangles, cleans and intermixes fibres such as cotton or wool in order to produce a continuous web suitable for subsequent processing like spinning.

Question 3.
What is a ‘fly shuttle’?
Answer:

Question 4.
Why were the calendars used by Indian producers to popularise Indian products?
Answer:
Calendars were used by people of all classes regions and castes. They were even more popular than newspapers.

Question 5.
Name the four steps in production of yarn?
Answer:
Carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling

Question 6.
Why did silk and cotton goods from India dominate the international market in textiles?
Answer:
They were very fine in quality. Other countries produced coarser cotton.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 7.
When were the factories first established in Britain?
Answer:
1730s

Question 8.
Which Indian movement led to the boycott of foreign goods?
Answer:
Swadeshi movement

Question 9.
Why did the East India Company appoint ‘Gomasthas’?
Answer:
The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India to establish a more direct control over the weavers, free of the existing traders and brokers in the cloth trade.

Related Theory
The Gomasthas were the paid servants who supervised the weavers, collected supplies and examined the quality of cloth.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Agriculture Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Agriculture Class 8 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 8 Chapter 4 MCQs On Agriculture

Choose the correct answer:

Agriculture Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Which Of the following are primary activities?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Mining
(c) Fishing
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.
What is cultivation of grapes called’?
(a) Sericulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Floriculture
(d) Horiculture

Answer

Answer: (b) Viticulture


What is cultivation of grapes called'?

Class 8 Agriculture MCQ Question 3.
The important inputs like seeds, fertilisers, machinery etc form a system called as?
(a) Barter system
(b) Water system
(c) Farm system
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Farm system


Agriculture MCQ Class 8 Question 4.
Type of farming to meet family needs is known as:
(a) Subsistense
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Subsistense


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Question 5.
Which of these is not commercial farming?
(a) Commercial Grain
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) Plantation

Answer

Answer: (c) Organic


MCQ Of Agriculture Class 8 Question 6.
…………….. is also knowh as a paddy
(a) Wheat
(b) Jowar
(c) Rice
(d) Bajra

Answer

Answer: (c) Rice


MCQ On Agriculture Class 8 Question 7.
Which of the following crops are raised in commercial grain farming?
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of these


Class 8 Geo Ch 4 MCQ Question 8.
Rubber plantation is famous in:
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Brazil
(c) Malaysia
(d) USA

Answer

Answer: (c) Malaysia


Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
Which of the following are coarse grains?
(a) Jowar
(b) Bajra
(c) Ragi
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Class 8 Chapter 4 Geography MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following country is a leading producer of rice?
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Malaysia
(d) Egypt

Answer

Answer: (a) China


Class 8 Geography Ch 4 MCQ Question 11.
Which type of soil is good for growing wheat?
(a) Desert
(b) Loamy
(c) Sandy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Loamy


Class 8 Sst Geography Chapter 4 MCQ Question 12.
Which of these are Millets?
(a) Jowar
(b) Ragi
(c) Both of these
(d) Maize

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of these


Geography Chapter 4 Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
Which fibre requires frost free days to grow?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Nylon
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cotton


Chapter 4 Geography Class 8 MCQ Question 14.
Which of the following countries usually practice Commercial agriculture?
(a) U.S.A
(b) Bangladesh
(c) India
(d) Bhutan

Answer

Answer: (a) U.S.A


Which of the following countries usually practice Commercial agriculture?

Match the following

Column A Column B
(i) Organic farming (a) The practice of ploughing against the slopes on the hill
(ii) Mixed farming (b) In which organic materials and natural pesticides are used
(iii) Contour ploughing (c) In which herdsmen move place to place with their livestock
(iv) Nomadic herding (d) Farms, farms animals and farmers together
(v) Farming ecosystem (e) in which crops are raised and livestock are kept on the farm to have animal products
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Organic farming (b) In which organic materials and natural pesticides are used
(ii) Mixed farming (e) in which crops are raised and livestock are kept on the farm to have animal products
(iii) Contour ploughing (a) The practice of ploughing against the slopes on the hill
(iv) Nomadic herding (c) In which herdsmen move place to place with their livestock
(v) Farming ecosystem (d) Farms, farms animals and farmers together

State whether true or false:

1. Extraction is an example of tertiary activity.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Cash crops are grown in subsistence farming.

Answer

Answer: False


3. Gathering is a primary activity.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Beverages are labour intensive crops.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Shifting agriculture is shifting of crops after a few years.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Mixed farming is a type of commercial farming.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

1. Shifting agriculture is also known as

Answer

Answer: Slash and bum


2. soil and climate are vital factors for agricultural activities.

Answer

Answer: Topography


3. Advertising is an example of activities.

Answer

Answer: Tertiary


4. Jute is grown intensively in and

Answer

Answer: India, Bangladesh


5. Coarse grains are also called

Answer

Answer: Millets


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Agriculture CBSE Class 8 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Major Landforms of the Earth with Answers

Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Major Landforms of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 6 Chapter 6 MCQs On Major Landforms of the Earth

Choose the correct answer:

Major Landforms Of The Earth Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
The wearing away of the earth’s surface is called
(a) mountains
(b) plateau
(c) erosion
(d) deposition

Answer

Answer: (c) erosion


Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 2.
In some mountains there are permanently frozen rivers of ice known as
(a) river valley
(b) glaciers
(c) plateaus
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) glaciers


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Question 3.
The lower blocks in Block Mountains are
(a) graben
(b) horsts
(c) glaciers
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) graben


Major Landforms Of The Earth MCQ Question 4.
Mountains may be arranged in a line known as
(a) horsts
(b) range
(c) glacier
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) range


MCQ On Major Landforms Of The Earth Question 5.
Where are glaciers found?
(a) In plains
(b) In mountains
(c) In plateaus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In mountains


Ncert Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 6.
Tibet is a
(a) plateau
(b) mountain range
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) plateau


Class 6 Major Landforms Of The Earth MCQ Question 7.
Which is the important mountain range of Europe?
(a) Alps
(b) Rockies
(c) Andes
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Alps


Class 6 Chapter 6 Geography MCQ Question 8.
Which area is the most useful for human habitation?
(a) Plain
(b) Mountain
(c) River
(d) Glacier

Answer

Answer: (a) Plain


MCQ Of Major Landforms Of The Earth Question 9.
Where is it easy to grow crops, build a house and a road?
(a) Mountain
(b) Plain
(c) River
(d) Glacier

Answer

Answer: (b) Plain


Class 6th Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 10.
The available land is not only for our use but also for
(a) future generation
(b) past generation
(c) present generation
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) future generation


Class 6 Geography Ch 6 MCQ Question 11.
Where does river Yangtze flow?
(a) India
(b) Kenya
(c) China
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (c) China


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Major Landforms of the Earth with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Major Landforms of the Earth CBSE Class 6 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Social Science Geography MCQ: