Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 14 MCQs On Sources of Energy

Sources Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Wood
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Wind
Answer:
(c) Fossil fuels

Explanation: Non-renewable sources are those sources that are present in a limited amount and once finished cannot be renewed again for millions of years.

Wood comes from trees, so it is a renewable source of energy. The Sun and wind are also renewable sources of energy but fossil fuels are non-renewable (conventional sources). Once they are used up, they can’t be renewed again, so we need to conserve them.

Towards Green Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
In a hydropower plant:
(a) the potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) the kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) electricity is extracted from water
(d) water is converted into steam to produce electricity
Answer:

MCQ On Sources Of Energy Question 3.
Ocean thermal energy is due to:
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising in the ocean
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Source Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The major probLem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to:
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 5.
Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(a) Coating with black coLour inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker
Answer:
(c) Gloss sheet

Explanation: Sotar cookers are covered with a glass plate which traps infrared radiations (heat) from sunlight and does not allow them to escape. In other words, we can say that it provides a greenhouse effect. Solar cookers achieve a higher temperature by using mirrors to focus the rays of the Sun.

Related Theory

The trapping of heat in the environment due to the presence of greenhouse gases like CO2, methane, water vapour etc. causes the greenhouse effect. This raises the temperature of Earth.

MCQs On Sources Of Energy Question 6.
The main constituent of biogas is:
(a) methane
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen
(d) hydrogen sulfide
Answer:
(a) methane

Explanation: Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood. charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high. It is also used for lighting.

Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 7.
The power generated in a windmill:
(a) is more in the rainy season, since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
Answer:

Source Of Energy MCQ Question 8.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside Earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting sources of energy
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

MCQ Of Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 9.
In a hydroelectric power plant, more electrical power can be generated if waterfalls from a greater height because:
(a) its temperature increases
(b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
(c) the electricity content of water increases with height
(d) more water molecules dissociate into ions
Answer:

Ch 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
The biggest source of energy on Earth’s surface is:
(A) Biomass
(B) Solar radiations
(C) Tides
(D) Winds
Answer:

Sources Of Energy MCQ Class 10 Question 11.
Which is the type of system where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on the surface of the water?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Wave energy
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(d) Solar energy
Answer:
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion

Explanation: Absorption of heat from the sun by the seas and oceans, solar radiation causes ocean currents and moderate temperature gradients from the water surface downward especially in tropical waters.

MCQ Of Chapter 14 Science Class 10 Question 12.
The correct energy conversion taking place in a hydroelectric power plant is:
(a) Potential energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(b) Potential energy of turbine → Kinetic Energy of water → Electrical energy
(c) Heat energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(d) Potential energy of water → Heat Energy → Electrical energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

MCQ Questions On Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following are non-conventional sources of energy:
(I) Wind energy
(II) Water
(III) Solar energy
(IV) Geothermal energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Chapter 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Approximately what percentage of energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants?
(a) 10 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 50 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %

Explanation: A quarter or 25 % of the energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants. But we are still largely dependent upon coal and petroleum for meeting our energy requirements.

Class 10 Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 15.
The table below lists the sources of energy and whether they are exhaustible or non-exhaustible. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Source of energy Whether exhaustible or non- exhaustible
(a) Fossil fuel Exhaustible
(b) Wind Non-exhaustible
(c) Water Exhaustible
(d) Solar Non-exhaustible

Question 16.
Two fuels obtained from biomass are:
(a) Coal and biogas
(b) Petroleum and natural gas
(c) Charcoal and biogas
(d) Charcoal and natural gas
Answer:
(c) Charcoal and biogas

Two fuels obtained from biomass are:

Explanation: When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, water and volatile materials present in it get removed and charcoal is left behind as the residue. Charcoal burns without flames is comparatively smokeless and has a higher heat generation efficiency. Similarly, cow-dung, various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in the absence of oxygen to give biogas.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 14

For the following questions, two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the Other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): In a wind energy farm, a number of windmills are erected over a large area.
Reason (R): The output of a single windmill is quite small and cannot be used for commercial purposes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 18.
Assertion (A): All exhaustible sources of energy are non-renewable.
Reason (R): Energy sources that cannot be regenerated are called renewable sources of energy.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Geothermal energy is the energy produced by the heat of molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust. This energy is harnessed to generate electricity. When water is made to flow deep underground in the rocks it returns as steam (or hot water, which is later converted to steam) to drive a turbine on an electric power generator.
In India, exploration and study of geothermal fields started in 1970. The Geological Survey in India has identified 350 geothermal energy locations, in the country. The most promising of these is in Puga Valley of Ladakh. The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is about 10000 MW. There are seven geothermal provinces in India namely the Himalayas, Sohna, West coast, Cambay, Son- Narmada-Tapi; Godavari and Mahanadi. Most power stations in India produce Alternating Current (A.C).
(A) What are geothermal energy hot-spots?
Answer:
Though the total energy stored in the earth is very vast, but geothermal energy can be harnessed only in particular areas. The particular areas where geothermal energy can be harnessed are called geothermal hot spots.

(B) Name two countries, other than India, where power plants based on geothermal energy are operational.
Answer:

(C) Name the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.
Answer:
Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.

Explanation: An electric generator is a machine which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction can be seen as:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 1
The phenomenon of generation of an electric current in a circuit from magnetic effects is called electromagnetic induction.

(D) State an important advantage of using AC over DC.
Answer:
An important advantage of using AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.

Related Theory
The frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz. DC always flows in one direction, whereas AC reverses its direction periodically. AC can also be changed to DC whenever required

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 2.
Acid rain as the name suggests can be said to be the precipitation of acid in the form of rain in the simplest manner. Taj Mahal, one of the 7 wonders of the world, is Largely affected by acid rain.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 2
Acid rain happens because:
(a) the Sun causes the heating of the upper layer of atmosphere
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
(c) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds
(d) Earth atmosphere contains acids
Answer:
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere

Explanation: The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic oxides. These lead to acid rain, which affects our water and soil resources.

Related Theory
The activities (polluting the atmosphere by industrial exhausts), as well as natural phenomena (emission of volcanos), cause acid rain due to the above mentioned oxides that are released.

Question 3.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. The country’s solar installed capacity reached 30.071 GW as of 31 July, 2019. India has the lowest capital cost per MW to install solar power plants. Solar electricity generation recorded nearly 3.4% of total utility electricity generation in January 2019. The following table shows Annual Solar Power Generation of the last six years.

Year

Solar Power Generation(TWh)

2013-14  3.35
2014-15  4.60
2015-16  7.45
2017-18  25.87
2018-19  39.27

Our country is lucky to receive solar energy for the greater part of the year. It is estimated that during a year India receives the energy equivalent to more than 5000 trillion kWh from the Sun.
(A) What are solar cells?
Answer:
Solar cells are devices which convert Solar energy (Sun’s energy) directly into electricity. A solar cell is also known as a solar photovoltaic (SPV) cell.

Related Theory
A solar cell is made of element silicon. It consists of square piece of silicon. The electric power generated by a single solar cell is very small. So a number of cells are joined together to form a solar panel.

(B) How much voltage can be developed and how much electricity can be produced by one typical solar cell when exposed to the Sun?.
Answer:
One typical cell produces a voltage of 0.5V-1V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the sun.

Related Theory
Solar devices like solar cooker, solar geyser etc. also use solar energy but can be used only at certain times during the days. This limitation was overcome by combining solar cells in an arrangement called solar cell panel

(C) The future of power generation by solar energy is bright in India. Give reason.
Answer:

(D) List two advantages of solar cells.
Answer:
Advantages of solar cells: The solar cells

  1. have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work satisfactorily without the use of any focusing device.
  2. can be set up in remote and inaccessible area or very sparsely inhabited arons

Question 4.
Thermal power plants have been in operation since quite some time. Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) has commenced civil works at 660 MW Sagardighi supercritical thermal power project in the state of West Bengal. BHEL is a manufacturer of power generation equipment with an installed base of over 1,90,000 MW power plant equipment globally.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 3
The fuel used in thermal power plants is:
(a) water
(b) uranium
(c) biomass
(d) fossil fuels
Answer:

Question 5.
Renewable energy sources such as wind energy are vital for the Indian economy, not only from the point of view of supply, but also from the perspective of environmental and social benefits. India is the world’s fifth largest wind-power producer and the largest windmill facilities in India are installed in Tamil Nadu. Muppandal is a small village of Tamil Nadu and one of the most important sites of wind-farm in the state. It uses wind from the Arabian Sea to produce renewable energy. The suitability of Muppandal as a site for wind farms stems from its geographical location as it has access to the seasonal monsoon winds.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 4
The electrical generators used on wind turbines in sites like Muppandal, produce an output AC of 240 V and a frequency of 50 Hz even when the wind speed is fluctuating. A transformer may be required to increase or decrease the voltage so it is compatible with the end usage, distribution or transmission voltage, depending on the type of interconnection.
(A) State the principle behind electric generator.
Answer:
The principle behind electric generator is Electromagnetic Induction- the pheno¬menon of producing current in a coil by changing the magnetic field associated with it.

(B) The output frequency of wind turbine is 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement?
Answer:
The polarity of the output alternating current changes every \(\frac{1}{100}\) seconds.

Alternately:
In 1 second the output (AC) completes 50 cycles.

(C) Why do you think Muppandal is at an advantageous position for this project?
Answer:

(D) Based on the data represented in the graph below, which of the two cities A or B would be an ideal location for establishing a wind-farm and why?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 5
Answer:
City A

It is more suitable for a wind-farm as there is consistently high wind-speed in that city throughout the year.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 6.
A nuclear power plant is a thermal power station in which the heat source is a nuclear reactor. As is typical of thermal power stations, heat is used to generate steam that drives a steam turbine connected to a generator that produces electricity. As of 2018, the International Atomic Energy Agency reported there were 450 nuclear power reactors in operation in 30 countries around the world.

Nuclear power is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity and wind power. As of November 2020, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants, with a total installed capacity of 6,780 MW.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 6
Which one of the following statements is not true about nuclear energy generation in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Energy is obtained by a process called nuclear fission.
(b) The nucleus of Uranium is bombarded with high energy neutrons.
(c) A chain reaction is set in the process
(d) In this process a tremendous amount of energy is released at a controlled rate.
Answer:
(b) The nucleus of uranium is bombarded in the high energy neutrons.
Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fission of nuclear fuel takes place to generate nuclear energy. Nuclear energy is released when nueleus of uranium is bombarded with low energy neutrons. Hence, this statement (b) is incorrect. All other three statements are correct.

Nuclear fission is the phenomenon of splitting of Uranium (heavy atom) into two medium weight nuclei. When it is bombarded with a slow neutron. A large amount of energy is released. In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fuel is a part of a self sustaining fission chain reaction that releases energy at a controlled rate.

Chain reaction:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 7
The fission of an atom of uranium produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal.

Question 7.
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the World. The Tehri dam withholds a reservior of capacity 4.0 km3 and surface area 52 km2. It is used for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 MW of hydro electricity.
The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests. Environment activist Shri Sunder Lai Bahuguna led the ‘Anti Tehri Dam Movement” from 1980s to 2014. The protest was against the displacement of town inhabitants and environmental consequences of the weak ecosystem. The relocation of more than 1,00,000 people from the area has led to protracted legal bat over resettlement rights and ultimately resulted in the delayed completion of the project.
(A) How is hydropower harnessed?
Answer:

(B) Define 1 MW.
Answer:
1 mW is a unit for measuring power (megawatt)
1 mW = 1000 kW 1 kW = 1000 W 1 mW = 106 W

(C) Mention two disadvantages of constructing Tehri Dam.
Answer:
Disadvantages of constructing Tehri Dam:

  1. Large ecosystems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
  2. The vegetation which is submerged rots under anaerobic conditions and release a large amount of methane gas which is a green-house gas.
  3. Large areas of agricultural land is used.
  4. It creates a problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of displaced people

(D) What happens when water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine?
Answer:
When water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine, the potential energy of the water changes into kinetic energy which is transferred to the turbine. Moving turbine rotates the armature of a generator and kinetic energy of water changes to electricity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 8.
Take two conical flasks and paint one white and the other black. Fill both with water. Place the conical flasks in direct sunlight for half an hour to one hour. Touch the conical flasks. You could also measure the temperature of the water in the two conical flasks with a thermometer.

Next, study the structure and working of a solar cooker and/or a solar water-heater, particularly with regard to how it is insulated and maximum heat absorption is ensured. Design and build a solar cooker or water- heater using low-cost material available and check what temperatures are achieved in your system.
(A) In the first activity, two conical flasks, one painted white and the other black, are filled with water and then placed in direct sunlight, for half an hour. Select the correct observation regarding their temperature:
(a) Both the conical flasks will be equally hot.
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.
(c) The conical flask painted white will be hotter.
(d) The conical flask painted white will absorb more heat
Answer:
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.

Explanation: The conical flask painted black will be hotter as compared to the flask painted white as a black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(B) The parts of a box – type solar cooker is given below. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Part

Description

(a) Black box  An insulated metal, or wooden box which is painted white from the inside to radiate more heat.
(b) Glass cover  Made of two sheets of toughened glass held together in an aluminium frame.
(c) Plane Mirror  Plane mirror is fixed to the box with the help of hinges and it acts as a reflector
(d) Cooking Containers  A set of aluminium containers blackened from the outside are kept in the box

Answer:

(C) The property used by solar cookers and solar water heaters is:
(a) A reflector absorbs more heat as compared to a white surface under identical conditions.
(b) Black surface reduces loss of heat by radiation.
(c) White surface absorbs more heat as compared to a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
Answer:
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(D) The purpose of a glass sheet fixed on the box of the solar cooker is:
(a) To focus sun’s radiations at one point.
(b) To absorb maximum heat of the sun’s rays.
(c) To prevent heat from escaping escape from the cooker box.
(d) To reflect sun’s rays towards the cooker box.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a limitation of solar cooker?
(a) Some solar cookers take longer to cook food than a conventional stove or an oven.
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.
(c) It can be used only at certain time of the day.
(d) It cannot be used during nights and rainy days.
Answer:
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.

Explanation: As solar cooker uses only solar energy, there is no pollution caused as it does not use carbon dioxide based fuels and hence carbon footprint is reduced.

Question 9.
When Poorva visited Bengaluru along with her parents, she noticed that most houses had solar panels installed on their roof top. However, despite their ability to generate clean, green electricity, solar panels aren’t as commonplace as the could be. The main sticking point, of course, is price. Due to their need for relatively expensive semiconductor materials, conventional solar cells don’t yet have a price-efficiency combination that can compete with other sources of electricity. A conventional solar cell is made of a thin wafer of a semiconductor with a metallic electrode deposited on its rear side.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
The values of voltage developed in a solar cell and power of a solar cell when exposed to electricity are given in the following table. Select the row containing the correct values:

Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell

Power Produced in a Solar Cell

(a) 0.7 V  0.5-1.0 kW
(b) 0.5-1.0 V  0.7 W
(c) 5-10 V  0.7 kW
(d) 1.5-2.0 V  7 W

Answer:
(b) Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell: 0.5 -1.0 V; Power Produced in a Solar Cell: 0.7 W
Explanation: A typical solar cell develops a voltage of 0.5-1 V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the Sun.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 10.
Discuss in class the question of what is the ultimate source of energy for bio-mass, wind and ocean thermal energy.
Gather information about various energy sources and how each one affects the environment.
Debate the merits and demerits of each source and select the best source of energy on this basis.
(A) The ultimate source of energy for bio¬mass is:
(a) Living organisms
(b) Sun
(c) Water
(d) Earth
Answer:
(b)sun

Explanation: The ultimate source of energy for bio-mass is the sun as these fuels are plant and animal products and plants and animals ultimately depend on sun for their energy needs.

(B) Following statements are given below regarding wind energy and nuclear energy.
Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Wind energy does not contaminate the environment but nuclear energy may contaminate the environment.
(II) Efficiency of wind energy farms is less than that of nuclear plants.
(III) Wind energy farms can be set up anywhere whereas nuclear power plants can be set up only at specific locations.
(IV) Both are non-conventional sources of energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The wind energy farms can be set up only at specific locations where wind blows for the greater part of a year and the wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/

(C) Select the correct statement regarding different sources of energy:
(a) Geothermal energy makes use of steam trapped in rocks due to geological changes.
(b) Nuclear energy makes use of chemical reactions between different atoms to produce energy.
(c) Hydroelectricity makes use of gravitational pull of the moon on the spinning earth.
(d) Wave energy makes use of potential energy possessed by the waves.
Answer:

(D) Out of coal, petroleum, solar energy and wind, minimum pollution is caused by:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
Answer:

(E) Which of the following factor does not affect the?
(a) Ease of extracting energy from that source.
(b) Economics of extracting energy from the source and efficiency of the technology available.
(c) Environmental damage that will be caused by using that source.
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value
Answer:
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value

Explanation: All the above factors affect the choice of a particular source of energy.

Question 11.
Shaurya visited her paternal village after quite some time. She was pleasantly surprised to see that most of the houses had biogas chulhas at their place as a biogas plant was built by an NGO at the village.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 9
Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 12.
Wind power is one of the fastest-growing renewable energy technologies. Usage is on the rise worldwide, because costs are falling. Global installed wind-generation capacity onshore and offshore has increased by a factor of almost 75 in the past two decades, jumping from 7.5 gigawatts (GW) in 1997 to some 564 GW by 2018. Production of wind electricity doubled between 2009 and 2013, and in 2016 wind energy accounted for 16% of the electricity generated by renewables. Many parts of the world have strong wind speeds, but the best locations for generating wind power are sometimes remote ones. Offshore wind power offers tremendous potential.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 10
The power curve of a wind turbine is a graph that indicates how large the electrical power output will be for the turbine at different wind speeds. At very low wind speeds, the torque exerted by the wind on the blades is insufficient to bring the turbine to rotate. The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is typically between 3 and 4 m/s. Above the cut-in wind speed, there is sufficient torque for rotation, and power production increases before reaching a threshold. The lowest wind speed at which the nominal power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is typically between 12 and 17 m/s. The cut-off wind speed corresponds to the maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power and is usually about 25 m/s.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 11
(A) Study the above power graph and select the row containing the correct information:

Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safety Support while Generating Power
(a) 12 m/s  3 m/s  22 m/s
(b) 3 m/s  12 m/s  22 m/s
(c) 3 m/s  22 m/s  12 m/s
(d) 22 m/s  3 m/s  12 m/s

Answer:
(a) Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached: 12 m/s ;
Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity : 3 m/s ;
Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safely Support while Generating Power: 22 m/s

Explanation: The lowest wind speed at which the nominaL power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is about 12 m/s.
The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is about 3 m/s.
The maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power is the cut-off speed and is about 22 m/s.

(B) In a water-lifting pump:
(a) The up and down motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(b) The horizontal motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(c) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to horizontal motion.
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.
Answer:
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.

Explanation: A water pumping windmill is simple, and efficient. The blades of the windmill wheel catch the wind, which turns the rotor. The wheel assembly is attached to a hub assembly, which drives a geared mechanism that converts the rotary motion to an up-and-down motion. This motion drives a pump rod, up and down inside of a pipe in the well. A cylinder with a sealed plunger going up and down inside forces the water up the pipe.

(C) Select the correct statements regarding wind mills:
(I) The rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the turbine of the electric generator.
(II) The output of a single windmill is quite large and can be used for commercial purposes.
(III) A wind energy farm is a large area where a number of windmills are erected.
(IV) The energy output of each windmill in a farm is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of these processes explains the extraction of energy from wind to do work?
(a) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into kinetic energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy
(c) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into potential energy
(d) conversion of potential energy of wind into mechanical energy
Answer:

(E) The minimum wind speed to maintain the required speed of the turbine is:
(a) 15 km/h
(b) 18 km/h
(c) 20 km/h
(d) 25 km/h
Answer:

Question 13.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. India is endowed with vast solar energy potential. About 5,000 trillion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day. Solar photovoltaics power can effectively be harnessed providing huge scalability in India. Solar also provides the ability to generate power on a distributed basis and enables rapid capacity addition with short lead times. Off-grid decentralized and low- temperature applications will be advantageous from a rural electrification perspective and meeting other energy needs for power and heating and cooling in both rural and urban areas. Solar energy has taken a central place in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change with National Solar Mission as one of the key Missions. Recently, India achieved 5th global position in solar power deployment by surpassing Italy. Solar power capacity has increased by more than 11 times in the last five years from 2.6 GW in March,2014 to 30 GW in July, 2019.

The following graph shows annual solar power generation of the last seven years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 12
(A) ApproximateLy what percentage of solar energy incident on earth’s outer atmosphere reaches the earth’s surface?
(a)20%
(c)30%
(c)50%
(d)80%
Answer:
(c) 50 %

Explanation: Only a small part of soLar energy reaches the outer layer of the earth’s atmosphere. Nearly half of it is absorbed while passing through the atmosphere and the rest reaches the earth’s surface.

(B) The average solar energy incident over India’s Land area is given in tabLe beLow.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Solar Energy Incident over India’s Land Area per Year Average Solar Energy Incident per sq. m per Doy
(a) 2500 billion kWh  40-70 Wh
(b) 5000 trillion kWh  4-7 kWh
(c) 500 trilLion kWh  4-7 Wh
(d) 5000 billion kWh  0.4-0.7 kWh

Answer:
(b) Solar energy incictent over India’s land Area per year: 5000 trillion kWh: Average solar Energy incident Sq.m per Days 4-7 kWh ”

Explanation: About 5,000 triLlion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day.

(C) Energy conversion taking place in solar cell is:
(a) Solar energy is converted to Chemical energy
(b) Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy
(c) Heat energy is converted to Light energy
(d) Solar energy is converted to electrical energy
Answer:

(D) The advantages of using solar cells are given below. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) They have no moving parts.
(II) They make use of focusing devices for satisfactory performance.
(III) They can be set up in remote areas where laying of a power transmission line may be expensive.
(IV) Special grade silicon used in making solar cells are abundantly available
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Solar cells work quite satisfactorily without the use of any focusing devices. Silicon, which is used for making solar cells, is abundant in nature but availability of the special grade silicon for making solar cells is limited.

(E) The substance used for interconnection of cells in solar panel is:
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Platinum
(d) Copper
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 14.
Sardar Sarovar Dam (SSD), on the Narmada river, is located in the village of Kevadia in the state of Gujarat. It is one of the largest and most controversial interstate, multipurpose river valley infrastructure development projects in the country. The Sardar Sarovar Project (SSP) also consists of auxiliary works and a 1,450 MW power complex.
SSP was estimated to have cost INR 400bn ($8bn) in 2010-2011, revised from the initial estimate of INR 64bn ($1.25bn) in 1988. It is part of the Narmada Valley Development Project, a major plan to generate power and supply water for drinking and irrigation to states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. The scheme was conceived by the late Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1946¬1947. It envisages the construction of 30 major dams, 135 medium and 3,000 smaller dams along the river, with SSD being the largest of them all. They are expected to generate about 4,000 MW of power in total.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
(A) In hydroelectric power plants:
(a) Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
(b) Wind energy is converted to solar energy
(c) Solar energy is converted to wind energy
(d) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
Answer:

(B) Hydroelectric power plant uses :
(a) Non-renewable source of energy
(b) Non-conventional source of energy
(c) Conventional source of energy
(d) Exhaustible source of energy
Answer:
(c) Conventional source of energy

Explanation: Hydroelectric power plant uses water, which is a conventional source of energy and Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. It is a non-exhaustible source of energy as water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains.

(C) Given below are statements regarding problems associated with constructions of big dams.
Select the correct statements.
(I) The dams can be constructed only along the river course in plain areas.
(II) Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation are to be sacrificed as they get submerged.
(III) Large eco-systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
(IV) The submerged vegetation rots and produces large amounts of carbon dioxide, a green house gas.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:
(a) 1.450 MW
(b) 1450 kW
(c) 1450 MW
(d) 4000 MW
Answer:
(c) 1450 MW

The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:

(E) The table below lists the comparison between thermal power plant and hydro power plant. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Thermal Power Plant Hydropower Plant
(a) Fossil fuels are burned to produce steam which runs turbine  The kinetic energy of water is used to run turbine
(b) Set up near coal or oil fields  Set up near oceans
(c) Causes pollution  Is pollution free
(d) Does not affect ecosystem  Affects ecosystem

Answer:
(b) Thermal Power Plant: Set up near coal or oil fields; Hydropower Plant: Set up near oceans

Explanation: Thermal power plants are usually set up near coal or oil fields to reduce the cost of transportation of coal or petroleum. In order to produce hydel electricity, high-rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 15.
Nuclear energy can be used to create electricity, but it must first be released from the atom. In the process of nuclear fission, atoms are split to release that energy. A nuclear reactor, or power plant, is a series of machines that can control nuclear fission to produce electricity. The fuel that nuclear reactors use to produce nuclear fission is pellets of the element uranium. Nuclear energy produces electricity that can be used to power homes, schools, businesses, and hospitals. The first nuclear reactor to produce electricity was located near Area, Idaho. The Experimental Breeder Reactor began powering itself in 1951. The first nuclear power plant designed to provide energy to a community was established in Obninsk, Russia, in 1954.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 14
(A) The table below lists the fuel, process involved and principle used for generating nuclear energy. Select the row containing the correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 15
Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements regarding nuclear reactors designed for electric power generation are incorrect?
(I) In a nuclear reactor designed for electric power generation the nuclear fuel undergoes fusion.
(II) A self sustaining chain reaction takes place.
(III) Energy is released at an uncontrolled rate.
(IV) The released energy is used to produce steam and further generate electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:

(C) In nuclear fission, a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with:
(a) A slow moving neutron
(b) A fast moving neutron
(c) A slow moving proton
(d) A fast moving electron
Answer:
(a) A slow moving neutron
Explanation: In nuclear fission, when a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with a slow moving neutron, the nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei.

(D) The major hazard of nuclear power generation is:
(a) It produces lot of smoke
(b) Storage and disposal of spent fuels
(c) Limited availability of uranium
(d) Uncontrolled chain reaction
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a reason for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive?
(a) Risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.
(b) High cost of installation of a nuclear power plant.
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination
(d) Limited availability of uranium.
Answer:
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination

Explanation: Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal result in environmental contamination which is one of the reasons for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive.

Question 16.
Koyal was reading about harnessing the energy from the ocean. She read about the OTEC technology which generates electricity from turbines turned by steam produced from heating the warmer surface waters of the sea into steam. The steam is then condensed by the deeper colder waters which are pumped up from depths of around 1000 metres.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 16
What is the operating principal in OTEC systems?
Answer:
The OTEC or Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion systems work on the principle that there is a temperature difference between the water at the surface of the ocean is about 20 k warmer than the water at depths up to 2 km which is used to boil a volatile liquid whose vapours are then used to run the turbine of a generator.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 17.
Wind power is arguably one of the oldest human technologies. Today, wind power is symbolized in most people’s minds by a big, white, monolithic wind turbine. As we try to move into the post-carbon era, it’s worth remembering that only wind, nuclear, and solar have the same technical potential to provide energy as fossil fuels do today. Perhaps the face of future power generation won’t be huge smokestacks, but fields of wind turbines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 17
What are the factors which limit the use of wind energy?
Answer:
The factors which limit the use of wind energy are that the wind energy farms can be established only at places where wind blows for the greater part of the year and wind speed should also be greater than 15 km/h.

Question 18.
Geothermal energy, form of energy conversion in which heat energy from within the earth is captured and harnessed for cooking, bathing, space heating, electrical power generation, and other uses.Heat from Eorths interior generates surface phenomena such as lava flows, geysers, fumaroles, hot spíings, and mud pots. The heat is produced mainly by the radioactive decay of potassium, thorium, and uranium ¡n Earth’s crust and mantle and also by friction generated along the margins of continental plates.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 18
What are hot spots? How are they different from hot springs?
Answer:
Hot spots are the regions in the earth’s crust where molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust are pushed and trapped. Hot springs are the outlets on the surface of the earth from where hot water comes out.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two constituents of biogas.
Answer:
The two constituents of biogas are:
(1) Methane
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Hydrogen sulphide

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions 2020-21

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions 2020-21 Edition

Learninsta.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics. You can download the Selina Concise Mathematics ICSE Solutions for Class 10 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Books of Concise Mathematics for Class 10 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert mathematic teachers as per ICSE board guidelines. By studying these Selina ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Maths you can easily get good marks in ICSE Class 10 Board Examinations.

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IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE Set 4 for Practice

Students can access the IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE with Solutions and marking scheme Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Computer IT Sample Paper Class 10 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 hrs
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. Please read the instructions carefully.
  2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
  3. Section A has Objective Type Questions whereas Section B contains Subjective Type Questions.
  4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
  5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
  6. Section A : Objective Type Questions (24 Marks)
    1. This section has 5 questions.
    2. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
    3. There is no negative marking.
    4. Do as per the instructions given.
  7. Section B : Subjective Type Questions (26 Marks)
    1. This section has 16 questions.
    2. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
    3. Do as per the instructions given.
    4. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

SECTION A: Objective Type Questions

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions based on Employability Skills (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) _______ skills are essential for working in an organisation.
(a) Stress
(b) Communication
(c) Good communication
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Good communication

(ii) Awareness about our _______ is not a kind of self-awareness.
(a) Biases
(b) Yoga
(c) Mediation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Biases

(iii) The shortcut key for printing the presentation is _______
(a) Alt + P
(b) Ctrl + P
(c) Shift+ P
(d) Ctrl + A
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + P

(iv) A/An _____ has a good vision towards the achievement of his goals.
(a) entrepreneur
(b) self-confident
(c) goal-oriented
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) entrepreneur

(v) ______ is a word for a person, place, thing or idea.
(a) Pronoun
(b) Noun
(c) Article
(d) Paragraph
Answer:
(b) 20th and 21th

(vi) Sustainable Forest Management which were developed in Europe during the ______ centuries.
(a) 18th and 16th
(b) 20th and 21th
(c) 17th and 18th
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 17th and 18th

2. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Which is the descriptive text aimed at helping user to identify the chart?
(a) Chart title
(b) Plot area
(c) Chart area
(d) Gridlines
Answer:
(a) Chart title

(ii) A document is a paper with written contents and the process of preparing a document is called _______
(a) Page break
(b) Work area
(c) Documentation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Documentation

(iii) The processed form of data is known as ______
(a) value
(b) information
(c) knowledge
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) information

(iv) Quemana works with a variety of ______ platforms.
(a) Blog
(b) WordPress
(c) Hub
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Blog

(v) The backbone of the www is made up of files called ______
(a) web browser
(b) web pages
(c) server
(d) client
Answer:
(b) web pages

(vi) To insert a ______ page break, select the row below where you want to insert the page break.
(a) vertical
(b) ruler
(c) horizontal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) horizontal

3. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Full form of OLE is _______
(a) Object Link and Embed
(b) Object Linking and Embedding
(c) Object Linker and Embedding
(d) Objective Linking and Embedding
Answer:
(b) Object Linking and Embedding

(ii) HTML is used to create
(a) browser
(b) server
(c) webpages
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) webpages

(iii) ______ option allows a user to edit picture.
(a) Edit
(b) Crop
(c) Paste
(d) Format
Answer:
(b) Crop

(iv) Each worksheet contains
(a) 1048576 rows
(b) 16384 columns
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(v) Multiple mismatching copies of the same data is known as _______
(a) data inconsistency
(b) data redundancy
(c) data integrity
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) data inconsistency

(vi) With most LAN’s cables, ______ is used for their connectivity.
(a PIC
(b) NIC
(c) NIP
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) NIC

4. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) _______ is a section of the document that appears at the bottom margin of the page.
(a) Footer
(b) Header
(c) Top
(d) Center
Answer:
(a) Footer

(ii) _______ is located on left of the formula bar.
(a) Formula bar
(b) Name box
(c) Active cell
(d) Ruler
Answer:
(b) Name box

(iii) A/An _______ language is a portion of a DML involving information retrieval only.
(a) DCL
(b) TCL
(c) Query
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Query

(iv) Internet security prevents attacks targeted at ________
(a) browsers
(b) operating system
(c) network
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(v) A field or a set of fields that uniquely identify each record in a table is known as a ________
(a) primary key
(b) alternate key
(c) candidate key
(d) foreign key
Answer:
(a) primary key

(vi) ______ are web based instant messaging softwares.
(a) WeChat
(b) Skype
(c) Viber
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

5. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) _______ displays worksheets as they would appear if you printed them out.
(a) Layout
(b) Page layout
(c) Page break
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Page layout

(ii) Alignments buttons are available on the ______ tab.
(a) Home
(b) Insert
(c) Format
(d) File
Answer:
(a) Home

(iii) Out of the following, which one is the most appropriate data field in context of employee table, if only one of these is required?
(a) Age in years
(b) Date of birth
(c) Age in days
(d) Age in months
Answer:
(b) Date of birth

(iv) The main advantage of circuit switching is ________
(a) delivery
(b) guaranteed delivery
(c) power band
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) guaranteed delivery

(v) The contents of a cell can be changed by pressing _______ key on keyboard.
(a) F5
(b) F3
(c) F2
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) F5

(vi) MAN provides communication services upto _______
(a) 100 m
(b) 100 km
(c) 10 km
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 100 km

SECTION B: Subjective Type Questions

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions based on Employability Skills. Answer each question in 20-30 words (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 6.
What do you mean by non-verbal communication?
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the term self-motivation.
Answer:

Question 8.
How can you create new worksheet in MS-Excel?
Answer:

Question 9.
What do you mean by entrepreneur?
Answer:

Question 10.
What are the importance of sustainable development?
Answer:

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20-30 words each (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
How to create a new blank document in MS-Word?
Answer:

Question 12.
What do you mean by paragraph alignment?
Answer:

Question 13.
How to unfreeze the rows and columns in workbook?
Answer:

Question 14.
Explain the term table used in database.
Answer:

Question 15.
Distinguish between repeater and switch.
Answer:

Question 16.
Define the following:
(i) AutoSum function
(ii) Full screen workbook view
Answer:

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50-80 words each (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
What is absolute cell referencing?
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain the following :
(i) Modem
(ii) Web page
Answer:

Question 19.
Describe three data manipulation language commands.
Answer:

Question 20.
What is header and footer? How to insert Date/Time into Header/Footer?
Answer:

Question 21.
(i) Create the table SummerCamp with the following fields:

Column Name

Data Type

ChildID Varchar(5)
FirstName Char(20)
LastName Char(20)
DOB Date
Gender Char(2)
Group Varchar(5)

(ii) Consider the following table APPLICANTS and write the queries (a) and (b).

TABLE:APPLICANTS

No. NAME FEE GENDER C_ID JOINYEAR
1012 Amandeep 30000 M A01 2012
1102 Avisha 25000 F A02 2009
1103 Ekant 30000 M A02 2011
1049 Arun 30000 M A03 2009
1025 Amber 40000 M A02 2011

(a) To display NAME, FEE, GENDER, JOINYEAR about the APPLICANTS, who have joined before 2010.
(b) To display the names of all applicants in ascending order of their JOINYEAR.
Answer:

IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE Set 5 for Practice

Students can access the IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Computer IT Sample Paper Class 10 Set 5 for Practice

Time: 2 hrs
Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. Please read the instructions carefully.
  2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
  3. Section A has Objective Type Questions whereas Section B contains Subjective Type Questions.
  4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
  5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
  6. Section A : Objective Type Questions (24 Marks)
    1. This section has 5 questions.
    2. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
    3. There is no negative marking.
    4. Do as per the instructions given.
  7. Section B : Subjective Type Questions (26 Marks)
    1. This section has 16 questions.
    2. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
    3. Do as per the instructions given.
    4. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

SECTION A: Objective Type Questions

1. Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions based on Employability Skills (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) …… allow you to communicate your message clearly and easily to a large audience.
(a) Good writing skills
(b) Communication
(c) Document
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Good writing skills

(ii) The feeling of self-awareness enhances our ……..
(a) mediation
(b) stress
(c) self-confidence
(d) clarity
Answer:
(c) self-confidence

(iii) In …. filter, detailed rules are specified as a part of spreadsheet cells.
(a) Normal
(b) Advanced
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Advanced

(iv) …… is the process of identifying opportunities in the market place.
(a) Decisionmaker
(b) Management
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneurship

(v) The ecology can be protected through imposition of ……. and afforestation.
(a) forestation
(b) deforestation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) deforestation

(vi) consists of a main clause and sometimes one or more subordinate clauses. (1)
(a) Paragraph
(b) Noun
(c) Sentence
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Sentence

2. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Which of the following run horizontally in a worksheet and are identified by a number in the row header?
(a) Column letter
(b) Row number
(c) Name box
(d) Formula bar
Answer:
(b) Row number

(ii) Picture Shape option comes under ….. tab.
(a) Picture Format
(b) Tools Format
(c) Picture Tools Format
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Picture Tools Format

(iii) Table is also known as ….
(a) file
(b) record
(c) field
(d) sheet
Answer:
(a) file

(iv) Web based type of software is accessed using ……
(a) web server
(b) web browsers
(c) web client
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) web browsers

(v) In ….. topology, each node is connected to two and only too neighbouring nodes.
(a) ring
(b) tree
(c) mesh
(d) star
Answer:
(a) ring

(vi) Which of the following is a boundary that specifies that cell is active at particular moment?
(a) Formula
(b) Cell pointer
(c) Cell address
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cell pointer

3. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Which of the following options are available in Office button?
(a) New
(b) Open
(c) Save
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ii) Which of the following offers a blog services?
(a) Drupal
(b) Joomla
(c) WordPress
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(iii) shortcut key is used to make the selected text underline.
(a) Alt + I
(b) Ctrl + I
(c) Ctrl + U
(d) Alt + U
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + U

(iv) Which of the following is the oldest spreadsheet package?
(a) MS-Excel
(b) Quattro-Pro
(c) VisiCalc
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) VisiCalc

(v) …. view is a simple view of data arranged in rows and columns.
(a) Datasheet
(b) Design
(c) Table
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Datasheet

(vi) … is a multi-port network device, that provides access to computers.
(a) Switch
(b) Hub
(c) Gateway
(d) Bridge
Answer:
(b) Hub

4. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) After selecting the text you need to click the … in the font group to make the font size larger than the current font size.
(a) size
(b) font size
(c) font
(d) font-style
Answer:
(b) font size

(ii) Hide and Unhide option is available in …. tab in MS-Excel.
(a) Edit
(b) Format
(c) Home
(d) Insert
Answer:
(c) Home

(iii) Database is a combination of …….
(a) hardware
(b) software
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

(iv) A computer connected to a network is known as …..
(a) host
(b) data
(c) node
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

(v) Database is made up of all the following components except ….
(a) tables
(b) queries
(c) forms
(d) formula bar
Answer:
(d) formula bar

(vi) The ….. establishes an intelligent connection between a local network and external networks.
(a) bridge
(b) router
(c) gateway
(d) hub
Answer:
(c) gateway

5. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) While entering a formula, cell address B $ 5 represents ……
(a) relative referencing
(b) mixed referencing
(c) absolute referencing
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) mixed referencing

(ii) are the tools which are used to produce own drawings.
(a) Drawings tools
(b) Picture tools
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Drawings tools

(iii) Facilities offered by database are
(a) the ability to store a large amount of data in a structured format, easy update, sort query, production of reports
(b) easy edition, spell check, perform calculations, library of mathematical functions, replication
(c) the ability to rotate images, copy and paste, fill scale
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) the ability to store a large amount of data in a structured format, easy update, sort query, production of reports

(iv) web browser supports only graphics information.
(a) Text-based
(b) Graphical
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Graphical

(v) Formula for adding values of cell A1 to A5 would be …..
(a) SUM (A1 : A5)
(b) = SUM (A1 : A5)
(c) = TOTAL (A 1 : A 5)
(d) = SUM (A 1 + A 5)
Answer:
(b) = SUM (A1 : A5)

(vi) Computers connected to a LAN can share information through a common …..
(a) printer
(b) data
(c) network
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) printer

SECTION B: Subjective Type Questions

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions based on Employability Skills. Answer each question in 20-30 words (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 6.
Explain the types of barriers to communicate.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the four kinds of self-awareness.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write the steps to save a document.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the advantages of entrepreneurship?
Answer:

Question 10.
Define the solutions for sustainable development.

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20-30 words each (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
Write the steps to modify a style in a document.
Answer:

Question 12.
How to change the layout of the chart?
Answer:

Question 13.
What do you mean by filtering data?
Answer:

Question 14.
Explain the term report in a database.
Answer:

Question 15.
Distinguish between circuit switching and packet switching.
Answer:

Question 16.
Describe the following in a document:
(i) Ruler
(ii) Scroll bar
Answer:

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50-80 words each (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Describe all methods for saving a document in MS-Word.
Answer:

Question 18.
Define the following
(i) Blog
(ii) Mesh topology
Answer:

Question 19.
What do you mean by mixed referencing?
Answer:

Question 20.
How to rename a field into a table in a database?
Answer:

Question 21.
(i) Create the table SHOP with the following fields:

Column Name Data Type
S_No Varchar(5)
P_Name Char(20)
S_Name Char(20)
Qty Int
Cost Float
City Char(20)

(ii) Consider the following table CUSTOMER and write the queries (a) and (b).

CID CNAME GENDER SID AREA
1001 R SHARMA FEMALE 101 NORTH
1002 M R TIWARY MALE 102 SOUTH
1003 M K KHAN MALE 103 EAST
1004 A K SINGH MALE 102 EAST
1005 S SEN FEMALE 101 WEST
1006 R DUBEY MALE 104 NORTH

(a) To display CNAME, AREA of all female customers from CUSTOMER table.
(b) To display the details of all the CUSTOMER in ascending order of CNAME within SID.
Answer:

IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Computer IT Sample Paper Class 10 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 hrs
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. Please read the instructions carefully.
  2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
  3. Section A has Objective Type Questions whereas Section B contains Subjective Type Questions.
  4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
  5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
  6. Section A : Objective Type Questions (24 Marks)
    1. This section has 5 questions.
    2. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
    3. There is no negative marking.
    4. Do as per the instructions given.
  7. Section B : Subjective Type Questions (26 Marks)
    1. This section has 16 questions.
    2. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
    3. Do as per the instructions given.
    4. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

SECTION A: Objective Type Questions

1. Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions based on Employability Skills (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) _________ is the means by which message is sent.
(a) Data
(b) Channel
(c) Receiver
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Channel

(ii) _______ stress is a result of unexpressed worries.
(a) Internal
(b) Environmental
(c) External
(d) Survival
Answer:
(a) Internal

You are advised to attempt this sample paper without referring the answers given here. However, cross check your answers once you complete the paper.

(iii) ______ can be used for adding pictures in the presentation.
(a) Gallery
(b) Slide
(c) ClipArt Gallery
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) ClipArt Gallery

(iv) An entrepreneur must form contacts with the ______ to analyse the market.
(a) Planning
(b) Competitors
(c) Self-confident
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) competitors

(v) ______ brings about changes in people’s knowledge, attitude and skills.
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Natural resources
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sustainable development

(vi) ______ plays a major role in reaction to stress.
(a) Personality
(b) Positive attitude
(c) Behaviour
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Personality

2. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Page margins are the ________
(a) cell
(b) horizontal space
(c) blank spaces
(d) Vertical space
Answer:
(c) blank spaces

(ii) _______ is the rectangular area of the document window, where you can type the text.
(a) Work area
(b) Notes area
(c) Data area
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Work area

(iii) The default data type for a field is _______
(a) char
(b) int
(c) text
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) text

(iv) The term _______ is derived from the words interconnection and networks.
(a) connection
(b) Internet
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Internet

(v) A/An _______ that identifies a specific computer on the Internet.
(a) user name
(b) domain name
(c) E-mail
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) domain name

(vi) AutoSum option is available in ________
(a) Home tab
(b) View tab
(c) Insert tab
(d) Layout tab
Answer:
(a) Home tab

3. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) The status of your document like current page number and number of pages are given by ______
(a) formatting toolbar
(b) status bar
(c) standard toolbar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) status bar

(ii) The first network was ______
(a) ARPANET
(b) Internet
(c)NSFnet
(d) NET
Answer:
(a) ARPANET

(iii) _______ object includes effects such as shadows, outlines, colors, gradients and 3D effects.
(a) WordArt
(b) ClipArt
(c) DataArt
(d) Clip
Answer:
(b) ClipArt

(iv) A worksheet is a _______
(a) collection of workbooks
(b) processing software
(c) combination of rows and columns
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) combination of rows and columns

(v) ________ is a set of programs that lies between the stored data and the users of database.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Network
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Software

(vi) Satellite which are orbiting around the ______, provide necessary links for telephone and television service.
(a) wire
(b) earth
(c) station
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) earth

4. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Linked data is stored in the ________
(a) destination file
(b) web file
(c) source file
(d) domain file
Answer:
(c) source file

(ii) _______ shortcut key is used to enter current time in a cell.
(a) Ctrl + Shift +;
(b) Ctrl + Shift + :
(c) Shift + Ctrl + :
(d) Ctrl + ;
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Shift + ;

(iii) Field is the individual sub component of one _______
(a) record
(b) column
(c) data
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) record

(iv) In www, a client is called _______
(a) web server
(b) webpage
(c) web browser
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) web browser

(v) Duplication of data is known as _______
(a) data security
(b) data incomplete
(c) data redundancy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) data redundancy

(iv) Internet is a network of _______
(a) networks
(b) value
(c) data
(d) pages
Answer:
(a) networks

5. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) The workbook views options allow user to view or see the _______ differently.
(a) data
(b) cell
(c) spreadsheet
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) spreadsheet

(ii) Template includes _______ text that is surrounded by brackets.
(a) margin
(b) placeholder
(c) data source
(d) track changes
Answer:
(b) placeholder

(iii) For what, memo data type is used?
(a) To add table
(b) To store objects created in other programs
(c) For long text entries
(d) For short text entries
Answer:
(c) For long text entries

(iv) A router passes data packets from one network to another network based on their ______ not MAC address.
(a) IP address
(b) URL
(c) Web address
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) IP address

(v) _______ is the main region of the chart in which your data is plotted.
(a) Chart area
(b) Plot area
(c) Data label
(d) Data series
Answer:
(b) Plot area

(vi) The LAN stands for _______
(a) Large Area Network
(b) Local Area Network
(c) Local Area Networking
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Local Area Network

SECTION B: Subjective Type Questions

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions based on Employability Skills. Answer each question in 20-30 words (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 6.
What do you mean by verbal communication?
Answer:
Verbal communication means communication through spoken oral and written words. It implies use of words which make up a language. It is the ability to communicate using words in understandable language i.e. English, Hindi, French, Urdu etc. Language play a significant role in verbal communication. The effectiveness of the verbal communication depends on the tone of the speaker, clarity of speech, volume, speed, body language and the quality of words used in conversation.

Question 7.
Explain the term fatigue related stress.
Answer:
Fatigue related kind of stress builds up over a long time like by working too long or too hard at our job, school or home. It can also be caused by exercising too much or too long.

If you do not know how to manage your time well or how to take time out for rest and relaxation, you will become a victim of fatigue related stress. This can be one of the hardest kinds of stresses to avoid because many people feel that it is out of their control.

Question 8.
What is Auto Correct feature in document? How to use it?
Answer:
AutoCorrect is an automatic data validation function commonly found in Word processors and text editing interfaces. It is a useful tool in Word for applying specific formatting or spelling for certain phrases often in your text. This feature will quickly fix the mis-spelling words and punctuation marks. To use AutoCorrect, follow the below steps:

  • Click on Review tab -> Proofing group.
  • Click on Spelling & Grammar option. Spelling and Grammar dialog box will appear.
  • When a possible spelling error is encountered, the spell check dialog opens and Word processor offers some suggested corrections.
  • Select any one of the suggested word and click on Auto Correct button.

Question 9.
What are the disadvantages of entrepreneurship?
Answer:
Some of the disadvantages of entrepreneurship are as follows :

  • Huge Amount of Time You have to dedicate a huge amount of time to your own business. Entrepreneurship is not easy and for it to be successful, you have to take a level of time commitment.
  • Risk An entrepreneurship involves high risk of loss. If the business fails then it will wipe away all the personal savings.
  • Hard Work An entrepreneur has to work very hard to make the new business very successful.
  • Uncertain Income There is no regular or fixed income available to an entrepreneur. So, there is uncertain kind of income received by an entrepreneur.

Question 10.
Describe any two problems related to sustainable development.
Answer:
Two problems related to sustainable development are as follows:

  • Poor management of natural resources combined with growing economic activities will continue to pose serious challenges to environment.
  • The most significant environmental problems are associated with resources that are renewable such as air and water. They have finite capacity to assimilate emissions and wastes but if pollution exceeds this capacity ecosystem can deteriorate rapidly.

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20-30 words each (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
Write the steps to insert text wrapping.
Answer:
To insert text wrapping, follow the given steps:

  • Click where you want to text wrapping.
  • Click Page Layout tab -> Page Setup group -4 Breaks. A drop-down menu will appear.
  • Select Text Wrapping from Page Breaks section.

Question 12.
What do you mean by conditional formatting in Excel?
Answer:
Conditional formatting is a feature in Excel and other spreadsheet programs that allows to change the appearance (font, color, border, shading) of a cell, depending on certain conditions. When a conditional format is applied on a cell, it means the formatting of the cell is based on a condition.

Question 13.
Describe the term wireless fidelity.
Answer:
Wireless Fidelity (Wi-Fi) is a universal wireless networking technology that utilises radio frequencies to transfer data. Wi-Fi allows high speed Internet connections without the use of cables or wires. Wi-Fi networks can be designed for private access within a home or business. It can be used for public Internet access at ‘hotspots’ that offers Wi-Fi access such as restaurants, coffee shops, hotels, airports, convention centres and city parks.

Question 14.
How to remove header or footer from the document?
Answer:
Steps to remove header or footer are as follows:

  • Click Insert tab.
  • Select Header or Footer option from the Header & Footer group.
  • Click Remove Header or Remove Footer.
    Now, header or footer gets removed from the document.

Question 15.
How to apply a custom view in workbook?
Answer:
To apply a custom view, follow the given steps:

  • On the View tab, in the Workbook Views group, select the Custom Views.
  • The Custom Views dialog box will appear, in the Views box, select the name of the view that you want to apply and then click Show button.

Question 16.
Define the following:
(i) Delete command
(ii) DCL command
Answer:
(i) Delete Command To discard unwanted data from a database, the delete command is used,

(ii) DCL Command These commands are used to assign security levels in database which involves multiple user setups. They are used to grant defined role and access privileges to the users.

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50-80 words each (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Write the steps to wrap text around a picture in a document.
Answer:
Steps to wrap text around a picture in a document are as follows:

  • Select the picture.
  • Select the Picture Tools Format tab. (This tab appears only after insertion of a picture).
  • Click the Text Wrapping in the Arrange group.
  • Select any one option from the drop-down list. In this example, we will select Tight.
  • Move the picture around to see how the text wraps for each setting.
  • The Position button has pre-defined text wrapping settings. The Position button is placed to the left of the Text Wrapping button.
  • Click the Position button and a drop-down list of Text Wrapping options will appear. Move your cursor over the various text wrapping styles. A live preview of text wrapping will appear in the document.
  • If you cannot get your text wrapped the way you wish, select More Layout Options… from the Position menu. You can make more precise changes from the Advanced Layout dialog box that appears.

Question 18.
Define the following:
(i) Web address
(ii) Benefit of networking
Answer:
(i) Web is a collection of documents (web pages) stored on computers around the world. Each
web page has an address describing where it can be found. This address is known as Web Address or URL (Uniform Resource Locator).
A web address identifies the location of a specific web page on the Internet, such as http://www.1earnyoga.com
On the web, web addresses are called URLs. It is the web address for a website or a web page. The URL specifies the internet address of a file stored on a host computer connected to the internet.

(ii) Computer network is very useful in modern environment, so some of the benefits of networking are discussed here:

  • File Sharing Networking of computers helps the users to share data files.
  • Hardware Sharing Users can share devices such as printers, scanners, CD-ROM drives, hard drives, etc.
  • Application Sharing Applications can be shared over the network and this allows to implement client/server applications.
  • User Communication This allows users to communicate using e-mail, newsgroups, video conferencing within the network.
  • Access to Remote Database By networking, we are able to access to the remote database. It is easy for any person using his PC to make reservations for aeroplanes, trains, hotels, etc., anywhere in the world with instant confirmation within the network.

Question 19.
How to save the workbook in MS-Excel?
Answer:
Steps to save the workbook are as follows:

  • Click at Microsoft Office button.
  • Do one of the following:
  • Choose Save As, if you would like to save the file for the first time or save the file by different name.
  • Choose Save, if the file has already been named.
  • Press Ctrl+S from keyboard.
  • Save As dialog box will appear.
  • Type the file name in File name box and choose Excel Workbook from the Save As type list box.
  • Click at Save button.
    The default extension of excel workbook is .xlsx.

Question 20.
How to open existing table in a database? Give two ways to do this.
Answer:
Existing table can be opened by two ways which are as follows:

  1. In Datasheet View To open a table in a Datasheet View, follow these steps:
    • Find a table in the All Access Objects list (the left hand window).
    • Right click on a table and select Datasheet View. Datasheet View represents the data in a table.

or
Select Home tab and click the View drop-down arrow from Views and select the Datasheet View.

2. In Design View To open a table in a Design View, follow these steps:

  • Find a table in the All Access Objects list (the left hand window).
  • Right click on the table and select Design View. Design View represents the structure of the table.

or
Select the Home tab and click the View drop-down arrow from Views group and select the Design View.

Question 21.
(i) Create a table SHOP with the following fields:

Column Name Data Type
Code Varchar(5)
Name Char(50)
Type Varchar(3)
Cost Int
Margin Float
Qty Int

(ii) Consider the following table EmployeeSalary and write the queries (a) and (b).
Table: Employee Salary

LastName FirstName Dept PayrollNumber Salary (?) Job Title
Shen James Finance A621 19500 Payroll Clerk
Gupta Shruthi Finance M502 35000 Accountant
Bedi Reeta Fluman Resource M421 18500 Secretary
Walker Tia Sales W815 24000 Sales Represen-tative
Shafia Ahmed Factory H219 39000 Factory Manager
Mittal Chavi Purchasing M134 20000 Purchasing Clerk

(a) Write a command to update the salary of the employee to 25000, whose job title is secretary.
(b) List all data of table EmployeeSalary.
Answer:
(i) CREATE TABLE SHOP (Code Varchar(5), Name Char(50), Type Varchar(3), Cost Int,
Margin Float, Qty Int);

(ii) (a) UPDATE EmployeeSalary SET Salary = 25000 WHERE JobTitle = ‘Secretary’;
(b) SELECT * FROM EmployeeSalary;

IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Computer IT Sample Paper Class 10 Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 2 hrs
Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. Please read the instructions carefully.
  2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
  3. Section A has Objective Type Questions whereas Section B contains Subjective Type Questions.
  4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
  5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
  6. Section A : Objective Type Questions (24 Marks)
    1. This section has 5 questions.
    2. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
    3. There is no negative marking.
    4. Do as per the instructions given.
  7. Section B : Subjective Type Questions (26 Marks)
    1. This section has 16 questions.
    2. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
    3. Do as per the instructions given.
    4. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

SECTION A: Objective Type Questions

1. Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions based on Employability Skills (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) Karan lives at a hostel in Shimla. He calls his mother who lives in Delhi, to get her approval for the robotics class which is going to start in his school next week onwards. However, due to disruption in the phone line, his mother could not understand and reply to him. He got very upset. Which another medium can he use to get immediate approval of his mother?
(a) E-mail
(b) Letter
(c) Message through friend
(d) Fax
Answer:
(a) E-mail

(ii) Trisha is always tense during exam time. She is a sincere and studious student, but the thought of exams creates anxiety in her. Which stress management technique that you would suggest to help her?
(a) Yoga
(b) Exercise
(c) Vacation with family
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(iii) …. ability of a person to do the things that need to be done without someone or something influencing us.
(a) Self-motivation
(b) Self-discipline
(c) Self-awareness
(d) Self-regulation
Answer:
(a) Self-motivation

(iv) According to the concept of sustainable development, the environment and development are issues.
(a) inseparable
(b) separate
(c) independent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) inseparable

(v) The cleaning of software installed in the computer cannot be achieved by
(a) disk cleanup
(b) backup
(c) cleaning CPU cabinet
(d) installing antivirus software
Answer:
(c) cleaning CPU cabinet

(vi) Entrepreneurship has a crucial role in the of the society.
(a) evolution
(b) planning
(c) functioning
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) functioning

2. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions

(i) …… is not an instant messaging service.
(a) Skype
(b) Yahoo! Messenger
(c) Firefox
(d) Whatsapp
Answer:
(c) Firefox

(ii) …… is the process of emptying a place in case of an emergency, disaster.
(a) Accident
(b) Evacuation
(c) Hazards
(d) Exiting
Answer:
(b) Evacuation

(iii) Richard needs to set up a network for his office where he wants to save all the data in a centralized system and other computers will take the services from the centralized system. Which architecture will be the best suitable for him?
(a) Peer-to-Peer
(b) Client-Server
(c) Point-to-Point
(d) Ring
Answer:
(b) Client-Server

(iv) A …… is a device that converts digital computer signals into a form (analog signals) that can travel over phone lines and vice-versa.
(a) repeater
(b) switch
(c) router
(d) modem
Answer:
(d) modem

(v) ….. is specifically designed to minimize or maximize the result according to a set of rules that you define in a spreadsheet.
(a) Goal Seek
(b) Scenario
(c) Solver
(d) Subtotal
Answer:
(c) Solver

(vi) ……. refers to the vertical or horizontal placement of a graphic in relation to the chosen anchor point.
(a) Alignment
(b) Footer
(c) Margin
(d) Headings
Answer:
(a) Alignment

3. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Krishna wants to make a flowchart for his programs in a Word document. Which option should he use to accomplish this task efficiently?
(a) Drawing / Shapes
(b) Symbols
(c) Pictures
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Drawing / Shapes

(ii) Fatima has inserted a picture in a document. But she wants to cut-off a part of the picture. Which option she should use to accomplish the task?
(a) Cut
(b) Copy
(c) Crop
(d) Layout
Answer:
(c) Crop

(iii) The intersection point between a row and column is called ….
(a) row
(b) column
(c) table
(d) cell
Answer:
(d) cell

(iv) Amrita is celebrating her 14th birthday. She wants to invite her friends and family members to the party. Which feature will she use to send the same invite to many people with different addresses without typing it again and again?
(a) Mail Merge
(b) Letter Wizard
(c) Document Type
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Mail Merge

(v) A …… is a model that you use to create other documents.
(a) Styles
(b) Template
(c) Wizard
(d) Sample
Answer:
(b) Template

(vi) Formulas in a spreadsheet must begin with a ….. sign.
(a) $
(b) @
(c) #
(d) =
Answer:
(d) =

4. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) …… is a tool to test “what-if” questions.
(a) Scenario
(b) Solver
(c) Macro
(d) Average
Answer:
(a) Scenario

(ii) Rohit scored 25 out of 30 in English, 22 out of 30 in Maths. He wants to calculate the score in IT he needs to achieve 85 percent in aggregate. Suggest him the suitable option out of the following to do so.
(a) Macro
(b) Solver
(c) Goal Seek
(d) Sub Total
Answer:
(c) Goal Seek

(iii) …. can be used in a spreadsheet software to jump to a different location from within a spreadsheet and can lead to other parts of the current file, to different files or even to websites.
(a) Illustrations
(b) Hyperlinks
(c) Links
(d) Filter
Answer:
(b) Hyperlinks

(iv) ….. uses the keyboard as a pointing device instead of a mouse.
(a) Mouse key
(b) Toggle key
(c) Filter key
(d) Sticky key
Answer:
(a) Mouse key

(v) Krish and Kritika have done a survey of age wise literacy rates of their locality as a school project, which they have created in a spreadsheet. They both want to work simultaneously to complete it on time. Which option they should use to access the same spreadsheet to speed up their work.
(a) Consolidate worksheet
(b) Shared worksheet
(c) Link worksheet
(d) Lock worksheet
Answer:
(b) Shared worksheet

(vi) database is a type of database that stores data in several tables.
(a) Flat
(b) Relational
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Relational

5. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) In database …. helps us to retrieve the filtered data based upon some conditions.
(a) forms
(b) reports
(c) queries
(d) table
Answer:
(c) queries

(ii) A ….. is one which connects computers and devices in a limited geographical area such as home, school, computer laboratory, office building, or closely positioned group of buildings.
(a) LAN
(b) WAN
(c) MAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(a) LAN

(iii) Rudrakshh wants that the name column of a table must not be left blank. Help him to identify the field property for this purpose.
(a) Length
(b) Default
(c) Entry required
(d) Format
Answer:
(b) Default

(iv) …. can be set for a field if the user doesn’t provide any value while entering the values in the table.
(a) Required
(b) Default
(c) Primary key
(d) Format
Answer:
(b) Default

(v) Aadya wants to create a connection between two or more tables. Suggest her the option to accomplish the task.
(a) Table
(b) Form
(c) Relationships
(d) Sorting
Answer:
(c) Relationships

(vi) data type takes the values in the form of 0 and 1 in the database.
(a) Integer
(b) Text
(c) Boolean
(d) Memo
Answer:
(c) Boolean

SECTION B: Subjective Type Questions

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions based on Employability Skills. Answer each question in 20-30 words (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 6.
Communication skills are very important for any business. Explain any two elements of a communication process.
Answer:

  1. Sender The person beginning the communication.
  2. Message The information that the sender wants to convey.

Queries 7.
Mention any two misconceptions about the entrepreneurship.
Answer:

  1. The misconception is that every business idea needs to be unique or special
  2. A misconception we have is that only a person having a big business is an entrepreneur.

Question 8.
Goal setting is a very essential factor in your personal life. List all the SMART methods to set the goals. Explain A’ in brief.
Answer:
SMART goals are:
S – Specific
M – Measurable
A – Achievable
R – Realistic
T – Time bound
Achievable breaking down big goals into smaller parts will make the goal achievable.

Question 9.
What are the measures to increase the performance of a computer system?
Answer:
The performance of a computer system can be increased by removing any extra files such as temporary files and images. We can use some disk cleaner software, which helps us clean up the unnecessay files.

Question 10.
How can an individual contribute to Sustainable Development Goals?
Answer:
Sustainable development can actually happen only when each one of us works towards it. One has to become a responsible environment citizen who can protect the environment through our own efforts, who can help others to get quality education by reducing inequalities in the society etc.

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20-30 words each (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
Differentiate between relative and absolute hyperlinks with the help of an example.
Answer:
Differences between relative hyperlink and absolute hyperlink are as follows:
• Relative hyperlink/URL The relative URL, on the other hand, does not use the full web address and only contains the location following the domain. It assumes that the link you add is on the same site and is part of the same root domain. The relative path starts with the forward slash and leads the browser to stay within the current site.
e.g. <a href=“/xyz.html””>
• Absolute hyperlink/URL An absolute URL is the entire address from the protocol to the domain name and includes the location within your websites in your folder system names within the URL. Basically, it is the full URL of the page that you link to.
e.g. <a href=//www.example.com/xyz.html””>

Question 12.
What is the utility of text wrapping in a document?
Answer:
Text wrapping refers to the relation of graphics to the surrounding text, which may wrap around the graphics on one or both sides, be overprinted behind or in front of the graphics, as separate paragraph or character.

Question 13.
What is the use of macros in a spreadsheet?
Answer:
Macros help in saving time in cases when the same set of tasks are to be dew repeatedly like formatting or applying a similar formula in a similar range of data. It can be used to name and record a set of actions.

Question 14.
Write any two advantages of online shopping.
Answer:

  1. Customers can purchase items from the comfort of their own homes or work place.
  2. Customers do not have to stand in queues in cash counters to pay for the products that have been purchased by them.

Question 15.
Differentiate between primary key and foreign key.
Answer:

Primary key Foreign key
It is used to uniquely identify data in the table. It is used to maintain relationship between tables.
Two or more rows can’t have same primary key. It can carry duplicate value for a foreign key attribute.

Question 16.
Define the following Hotspots:

  1. WiMAX
  2. Wi-Fi

Answer:

  1. WiMAX It is a wireless communications standard designed for creating Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs). It is similar to the wi-fi standard, but supports for greater range of coverage.
  2. Wi-FI It stands for wireless fidelity. It is a wireless networking technology that allows devices such as computers, mobile devices and other equipment to interface with the Internet.

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50-80 words each (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Elaborate four different types of styles which can be provided in a Word Processor.
Answer:
Different types of styles in Word Processor are:

  1. Paragraph The paragraph style contains both paragraph and text formatting attributes: indents, tabs, font, text size.
  2. Character The character style formats only characters, not paragraph.
  3. Linked The linked style is a combination style that can be applied to both paragraphs and individual characters. The difference depends on which text is selected, when you apply the style.
  4. Table The table style is applied to tables, to add lines and shading to the table cells contents.
  5. List The list style is customized for presenting lists of information. The styles can include bullets, numbers, indentation and other formats typical for the parts of a document that present lists of information.

Question 18.
Define the following:

  1. Subtotals
  2. Consolidating Data

Answer:

  1. Subtotals This function returns the subtotal of the number in a column in a list or database. The subtotal function is a built-in function in Excel, that is categorized as a Math function. It can be used as a worksheet function in Excel. As a worksheet function, the SUBTOTAL function can be entered as part of a formula in a cell of a worksheet.
  2. Consolidating data It provides a graphical interface for copying data from one range of cells to another, then running one of a dozen functions on the data. During consolidating, the contents of cells from several streets can be combined in one place.

Question 19.
What precautions must be taken to improve online security?
Answer:

  1. Antivirus and antispyware programs offer real time protection monitoring your computer for any
    changes by malware software.
  2. Use strong passwords a combination of alphanumeric and special characters could be used for creating a password that is not a easy to crack or guessed by other users.
  3. Secure transactions because information, such as credit card details or personal information is sent over the network.
  4. Use encryption software to protect your data from unauthorized users.

Question 20.
What is DBMS? Explain any two advantages of DBMS.
Answer:
Database Management System (DBMS) It is a collection of programs that enables users to create, maintain database and control all the access to the database. It is a computer based record keeping system. The primary goal of the DBMS is to provide an environment that is convenient and efficient for user to retrieve and store information. It acts as an interface between the application program and the data stored in the database. DBMS is a software package that manages database, e.g. MySQL, INGRES, MS-ACCESS etc.
DBMS is actually a tool that is used to perform any kind of operation on data in database. It also maintains data consistency in case of multiple users. The purpose of a DBMS is to bridge the gap between information and data.
Advantages of DBMS are as follows:

  1. The DBMS helps create an environment in which end users have better access to more and better managed data.
  2. Such access makes it possible for end users to respond quickly to changes in their environment.

Question 21.
(i) The structure of a table “ITEM” is given below. Suggest suitable data type and size of each column.

Column Name Data Type Size
Itemno …….. …………
Iname …….. …………
Price …….. …………
Quantity …….. …………

(ii) Consider the following table “ITEM”.

Itemno Iname Price Quantity
11 Soap 40 80
22 Powder 80 80
33 Face Cream 250 25
44 Shampoo 120 100
55 Soap Box 20 50

Write queries to
(a) Display the total amount of each item. The amount must be calculated as the Price multiplied by Quantity for each item.
(b) Display the details of items whose Price is less than 50.
Answer:

Column Name

Data Type

Size

Itemno Integer 2
Iname Varchar 15
Price Integer 3
Quantity Integer 3

IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the IT Sample Papers Class 10 CBSE with Solutions and marking scheme Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Computer IT Sample Paper Class 10 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 hrs
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. Please read the instructions carefully.
  2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
  3. Section A has Objective Type Questions whereas Section B contains Subjective Type Questions.
  4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
  5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
  6. Section A : Objective Type Questions (24 Marks)
    1. This section has 5 questions.
    2. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
    3. There is no negative marking.
    4. Do as per the instructions given.
  7. Section B : Subjective Type Questions (26 Marks)
    1. This section has 16 questions.
    2. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
    3. Do as per the instructions given.
    4. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

SECTION A: Objective Type Questions

1.  Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions based on Employability Skills (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) ______ is essential to complete the cycle of communication.
(a) Encoding
(b) Decoding
(c) Feedback
(d) Sender
Answer:
(c) Feedback

(ii) The good stress is called _______
(a) eustress
(b) emstress
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) eustress

(iii) _______ means to make a duplicate of a file.
(a) Deleting
(b) Editing
(c) Pasting
(d) Copying
Answer:
(d) copying

You are advised to attempt this sample paper without referring the answers given here. However, cross check your answers once you complete the paper.

(iv) _____ describes entrepreneurs as innovators.
(a) Howard W. Johnson
(b) Joseph Schumpter
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Joseph Schumpter

(v) Sustainable development requires the judicious use of ________
(a) resources
(b) natural resources
(c) verbal resources
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) natural resources

(vi) _______ conveys a statement, question, exclamation or command.
(a) Sentence
(b) Equation
(c) Formula
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Sentence

2. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) If you want to locate a range of cells by its name, then you will enter its name in _______
(a) formula bar
(b) name box
(c) cell
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) name box

(ii) We can italic the text by ______
(a) Ctrl + IT
(b) Shift + I
(c) Ctrl + I
(d) Alt + I
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + I

(iii) _______ command is used to restore database to original since the last COMMIT.
(a) REVIEW
(b) SELECT
(c) ROLLBACK
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) ROLLBACK

(iv) ______ provides the physical connection between the network and computer workstation.
(a) LIC
(b) NIC
(c) NC
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) NIC

(v) URL is the ______ for a website or a web page.
(a) web address
(b) website
(c) web page
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) web address

(vi) How many types of views are available in the spreadsheet?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 5

3. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions   (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) Which tab of MS-Word contains the Shapes option?
(a) Home
(b) Review
(c) Insert
(d) Mailings
Answer:
(c) Insert

(ii) Digital information is converted into analog information by the modem at
(a) destination computer
(b) source computer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) source computer

(iii) ______ is the indent, the paragraph except first line.
(a) Left indent
(b) Hanging indent
(c) Right indent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hanging indent

(iv) The default page orientation in spreadsheet is _______
(a) landscape
(b) horizontal
(c) portrait
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) portrait

(v) The key field is a unique identifier for _______
(a) each column
(b) each record
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) each record

(vi) Every computer is protected by a ________
(a) firewall
(b) software
(c) server
(d) network
Answer:
(a) firewall

4. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) ______ is a GUI based software used in the windows environment.
(a) Word processor
(b) DOS
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Word processor

(ii) ______ is referenced by a combination of row number and column letter.
(a) Data
(b) Work cell
(c) Cell
(d) Document
Answer:
(c) Cell

(iii) ______ leads to data inconsistency.
(a) Data integrity
(b) Data redundancy
(c) Data sharing
(d) Data recovery
Answer:
(b) Data redundancy

(iv) _______ is a computer program that provides services to other computer programs.
(a) Server
(b) Client
(c) Network
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Server

(v) Which of the following is not the main building block of a database?
(a) Lists
(b) Queries
(c) Reports
(d) Forms
Answer:
(a) Lists

(vi) Blog Desk is an offline blog editor which is used for _______ operating system.
(a) Linux
(b) Unix
(c) Windows
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Windows

5. Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) _______ preview displays the page breaks as blue line.
(a) Break
(b) Page break
(c) Page
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Page break

(ii) The ________ alignment makes sure that none of the edges of text appear ragged.
(a) left
(b) right
(c) center
(d) justify
Answer:
(d) justify

(iii) Key field is a unique identifier for each record. It is defined in the form of
(a) rows
(b) columns
(c) tree
(d) query
Answer:
(b) columns

(iv) abc@mnc.co.in represents an ________
(a) MAC address
(b) URL
(c) E-mail address
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) E-mail address

(v) The bar located at the top of the application window is called ________
(a) title bar
(b) status bar
(c) menu bar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) title bar

(vi) A web page is located using a
(a) Universal Record Linking
(b) Uniform Resource Locator
(c) Universal Record Locator
(d) Uniformly Reachable Links
Answer:
(b) Uniform Resource Locator

SECTION B: Subjective Type Questions

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions based on Employability Skills. Answer each question in 20-30 words (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 6.
What are the basic principles of an effective communication?
Answer:
The most basic principle for a communication to be effective is that the intended message of the sender and the interpreted message of the receiver are one and the same. Although this should be the goal in any communication, it is not always achieved. Thus, a set of principles needs to be followed to ensure it. The most popular name of these basic principles is known as 7C’s of Effective Communication.

Question 7.
How nature walk does help to manage stress?
Answer:
Nature Walks means walking in the local park or similar such activity. These walks may be done more than once a day for short periods of time during which we indulge in ‘thought-stopping’, i.e. not to think about our day-to-day activities. Such an activity will help us to avoid ‘burn out’, promote adequate sleep, ease muscle tension and decrease mental worries.

Question 8.
Write the steps to insert header and footer.
Answer:
To insert a header or footer, follow these steps :

  • Select the Insert button.
  • Click either Header & Footer command. A drop-down menu will appear.
  • From the drop-down menu, select Blank to insert a blank header & footer, or choose one of the built-in options.
  • The Design tab will appear on the ribbon and the Header & Footer will appear in the document.

Question 9.
Define the following functions of an entrepreneur:
(i) Establishing relations with Government
(ii) Establishing contacts with Competitors
Answer:
(i) Establishing Relations with Government An entrepreneur must establish good relations with government and its functionaries. His functions are to obtain licences, payment of taxes, selling the product to government, provision for export-import etc.

(ii) Establishing Contacts with Competitors An entrepreneur must form contacts with the competitors to analyse the market. He must be in a position to make opportunities out of the given situation.

Question 10.
What are the long term solutions for sustainable development?
Answer:
Following are the long term solutions for sustainable development:

  • Government should make policies against illegal activities.
  • Awareness campaigns should be launched for farmers and industrialists.
  • Ecology must be protected through imposition of taxes and fines.
  • Practice of sustainable agriculture must be promoted such as permaculture, agroforestry, mixed farming, multiple cropping and crop rotation.

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20-30 words each (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
How to change the prefilled information?
Answer:
To change the prefilled information, follow the given steps:

  • Select the Microsoft Office button.
  • Click the Word Options button. The Word Options dialog box will appear.
  • Enter the User name and/or Initials in the Personalise your copy of Microsoft Office section from Popular.
  • Click OK button.

Question 12.
What do you mean by chart?
Answer:
A chart is a tool that is used in Excel for representing data graphically. Charts allow anyone to more easily see the meaning behind the numbers in the spreadsheet and to make showing comparisons and trends much easier. It is one of the most impressive features of MS-Excel.
Endless variations are available, allowing you to produce a chart, edit and format it, include titles and many more.

Question 13.
Write the steps to format the font size.
Answer:
Steps to format the font size of text are as follows:

  • Select the text that you want to modify.
  • Click the drop-down arrow next to the Font Size box in the Font group on the Home tab. The Font Size drop-down menu will appear.
  • Move your cursor over the various font sizes. A live preview of the font size will appear in the document.
  • Choose the Font Size that you want to use.

Question 14.
How to change the type of chart?
Answer:
To change the chart type, follow the given steps:

  • Select the chart and click on the Design tab.
  • In the Type group, click on the Change Chart Type command.
  • Change Chart Type dialog box will appear. Select the type of chart, you want to use.
  • Click on the OK button.

Question 15.
Explain the term modulator/demodulator.
Answer:
Modem is a device that converts digital signal to analog signal (modulator) at the sender’s site and converts back analog signal to digital signal (demodulator) at the receiver’s end, in order to make communication possible via telephone lines.

Question 16.
Define the following:
(i) Text data type
(ii) Memo data type
Answer:
(i) Text data type It allows to store text or combination of text and numbers as well as numbers that don’t require calculations such as phone number. This data type allows maximum 255 characters to store.
e.g. If Employee is a table and Emp_No, Name and Description are fields, then name will be a Text field. Because, Name is a character entry field.

(ii) Memo data type It allows long blocks of text that uses text formatting, e.g. In the Employee table, the field Description will be of Memo data type, because the length of description of employee may be large.

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50-80 words each (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
How to apply a picture style in a document?
Answer:
Steps to apply a picture style in a document are as follows:

  • Select the picture.
  • Click the Picture Tools Format tab.
  • Click More drop-down arrow in Picture Styles group to display all the Picture Styles.
  • However, when a cursor moves over different picture styles, the live preview of the style will be displayed on the picture in a document.
  • Choose any style as per the requirement.

Question 18.
Define the following:
(i) Star topology
(ii) Web browser
Answer:
(i) In star topology, there persists a central node called server or hub, which is connected to the
nodes directly. If a node has to take information from other node, then the data is taken from that node through the central node or server.

(ii) Web browser is a software application that is used to locate, retrieve and display some content on the World Wide Web, including web pages. These are programs used to explore the Internet. It is an interface that helps a computer user to gain access over all the content on the Internet. We can install more than one web browsers on a single computer. The user can navigate files, folders and websites with the help of a browser.

Question 19.
Write the steps to sort more than one columns.
Answer:
To sorting more than one columns, follow the given steps:

  • Select those cells, which you want to sort.
  • Click on Sort & Filter option from Editing group in Home tab. By this, you will get a drop-down menu.
  • From this menu, select Custom Sort option and then Sort dialog box will appear.
  • Click on Add Level button and then select next column (which you want to sort).
  • Click on OK button.

Question 20.
What are the disadvantages of DBMS?
Answer:
There are many advantages of database, but database also have some minor disadvantages. These disadvantages are as follows:

  1. Cost of Hardware and Software Through the use of a database system, new costs are generated due to additional hardware and software requirements.
  2. Complexity A database system creates additional complexity and requirements.
  3. Database Failures If database is corrupted due to power failure or it is corrupted on the storage media, then our valuable data may be lost or the system will stop working.
  4. Lower Efficiency A database system is a multi-user software, which is less efficient.

Question 21.
(i) Create a table CUSTOMER with following details:

Column Name Data Type
CustNo Varchar(5)
Name Char(20)
Address Char(50)

(ii) Consider the following table SummerCamp and write the queries (a) and (b).
Table: SummerCamp

Child ID First Name Last Name DOB Gender Group
109 Vedansh Gupta 30/06/10 M 2A
214 Mack Tyagi 09/12/08 M 1B
115 Aditi Thakur 13/04/09 F 1A
108 Vikrant Chauhan 02/02/09 M 2A
141 Swati Saini 06/05/10 F 2B
233 Vishakha Tyagi 01/08/10 F 3A
274 Madhur Gupta 06/03/10 M 3B

(a) Write a command to insert a new record with the following values:
(105, ‘Shyam’, ‘Sharma’, 07/09/10, ‘M’, ‘1A’)
(b) Write a query to display all the record of table SummerCamp whose DOB between 02/02/09 and 06/03/10.
Answer:
(i) CREATE TABLE CUSTOMER (CustNo Varchar(5), Name Char(20), Address Char(50));

(ii) (a) INSERT INTO SummerCamp VALUES (105, ‘Shyam’, ‘Sharma’, 07/09/10, ‘M’, ‘1 A’);
(b) SELECT * FROM SummerCamp WHERE DOB BETWEEN 02/02/09 AND 06/03/10;

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 5 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 hrs
Max. Marks : 50

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
  2. Part A carries 20 marks while Part B carries 30 marks.
  3. Part A consists very short answer and case based MCQ Questions and Part B is Descriptive Paper.
  4. Both Part A and Part B have choices.

Part-A

  1. It consists two sections-I and II.
  2. Section I has 13 questions of Very Short Answer Type. An examinee is to attempt any 10 out of 13 questions.
  3. Section II has two Case Studies. Each Case Study has 7 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 5 out of 7 sub-parts.

Part-B

  1. Question numbers 16 to 20 are Short Answer Type (SA-I) Questions of 2 marks each, Question numbers
    21 to 25 are Short Answer Type (SA-II) questions of 3 marks each and Question numbers 26 is Long Answer Type Question of 5 marks.
  2. Internal choice is provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part-A
Section I

This section consists of 13 questions of very short answer type. Question numbers 4 to 8 are of ‘fill in the blank’ type. Fill the blank with the most appropriate answer. Attempt any 10 questions from Question numbers 1 to 13.

Question 1.
Which terms is used as a service that allows users to send multimedia messages to each other?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write any two advantages of video conferencing.
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the use of modem?
Answer:

Question 4.
An element that only has a starting tag and no ending tag is ….. element.
Answer:
empty

Question 5.
The alt attribute provides …… for an image.
Answer:
alternative information

Question 6.
To insert a table on a web page, we use tag.
Answer:
<TABLE>

Question 7.
By default, color of a table is ……
Answer:
white

Question 8.
The id selector uses the …….. of an HTML element to select a specific element.
Answer:
id attribute

Question 9.
Which attribute helps you to display a text message instead of an image in <IMG> tag?

Question 10.
Give an example of plagiarism.
Answer:

Question 11.
Which type of E-commerce applies to any consumer that sells a product or service to a business over the Internet?
Answer:

Question 12.
Which extension is used to save the CSS file?
Answer:

Question 13.
Which tag is used to create a title for a table?
Answer:

Section II

Both the case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 5 questions (out of 7 questions) from each case study. Each question carries 7 mark.

Question 14.
IP Address
IP addresses are in aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa format, where each aaa is a number from 0 to 255. The length of IP address is 4 bytes. IP addresses identify the host computers, so that packets of information reached to the correct computer.
e.g. 162.192.1.89
The IP address has the following characteristics:

  • IP addresses are unique.
  • No two machines can have the same IP address.
  • IP addresses are also global and standardised.
  • All machines connected to the Internet agree to use the same scheme for establishing an address.

(i) Each computer connected to the Internet must
(a) be a pentium machine
(b) have a unique IP address
(c) have a web browser
(d) have a modem connection
Answer:
(b) have a unique IP address

(ii) An IP address is a string of numbers separated by periods.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

(iii) IP addresses are converted into
(a) a binary string
(b) alphanumeric string
(c) a hierarchy of domain names
(d) a hexadecimal string
Answer:
(c) a hierarchy of domain names

(iv) Which of the following translates domain names into IP addresses?
(a) URL
(b) Web address
(c) Domain abbreviation
(d) Domain name system
Answer:
(d) Domain name system

(v) Identify the IP address from the following URL:
http ://www. micros oft. com/ athome/ default, aspx
(a) microsoft.com
(b) http
(c) athome
(d) default, aspx
Answer:
(a) microsoft.com

(vi) The minimum value of IP address string is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

(vii) The maximum value of IP address string is
(a) 256
(b) 128
(c) 255
(d) 512
Answer:
(c)

Question 15.
HTML Structure
HTML document is a combination of various tags, which define the structure and appearance of the web page.
Following four basic elements are always present in every HTML document:

  • The <HTML> tag tells the browser that this is an HTML document. You must begin your html files with this tag and must end your HTML file with matching closing tag.
  • The <HEAD > tag is used for text and tags that do not appear directly on the web page. It acts as a header of file and contains some information like setting the title of the web page.
  • The <TITLE> tag contains the document title. This tag lies between <HEAD> and </HEAD > tags. The title specified inside this tag appears on the browser’s title bar.
  • The <BODY> tag is used for text and tags that appears directly on the web page. It helps us to create a look and feel of the web page. It holds all your content words, pictures and other stuff.

(i) An example of HTML editor is
(a) Notepad (b) Dreamweaver
(c) Microsoft frontpage
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ii) The meaning of M in HTML is
(a) Management
(b) Markup
(c) Modified
(d) Machine
Answer:
(b) Markup

(iii) Which of the following is the correct code of HTML page?
(a) <HTML>
(b) <HTML>
<TITLE> Hello <HEAD>
</TITLE> <TITLE> Hello
</HTML> </TITLE>
</HEAD>
</HTML>
(c) <HTML>
<BODY> Hello
</HTML>
(d) <HTML>
<HEAD> Hello
<BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
<HTML>
<TITLE> Hello <HEAD>
</TITLE> <TITLE> Hello
</HTML> </TITLE>
</HEAD>
</HTML>

(iv) Tags and text that do not display directly on the web page are placed in
(a) BODY
(b) TABLE
(c) HEAD
(d) TITLE
Answer:
(c) HEAD

(v) A web page normally consists of
(a) head and body
(b) top and bottom
(c) body and font
(d) body and title
Answer:
(a) head and body

(vi) Where do you place the <TITLE> tag in a HTML?
(a) BODY
(b) HEAD
(c) TITLE
(d) FONT
Answer:
(b) HEAD

(vii) Which section is used for text and tags that are shown directly on your web pages?
(a) Meta
(b) Head
(c) Body
(d) Table
Answer:
(c)

Part-B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.

Question 16.
Indian railway has a website dedicated to the E-reservation. Its URL is

  1. What does ‘in’ symbolise here?
  2. Suggest names of two more websites dedicated for E-reservation.

Answer:

Question 17.
Give the disadvantages of E-shopping. (2)

Question 18.
Explain the violation of intellectual property rights. (2)

Question 19.
Define consumer-to-consumer as a type of E-commerce. (2)

Question 20.
Sumit has to create, following list through HTML as a part of his social science project. Help hint in writing HTML code for the same. (2)
ASIAN COUNTRIES AND THEIR CAPITALS
1. INDIA
• New Delhi
2. PAKISTAN
• Islamabad
3. THAILAND
• Bangkok
Or
Write HTML code to generate the web page as shown below having list in the given style:
Career Options
• Medical
1. Medicine
2. Research
• Engineering
• Marketing
Answer:

Question 21.
Write the HTML code to generate the following table on a web page with the contents and alignments exactly shown below: (3)

StudentId Studentname Address
101 Neha Delhi

Answer:

Question 22.
Explain the HTML tables with tags. (3)
Answer:

Question 23.
What do you mean by trademark? How does it used to stop software piracy? (3)
Answer:

Question 24.
How the following factors that contribute to digital divide? (3)

  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Relevant content

Answer:

Question 25.
Describe the history of Internet in brief.
Or
Explain the Broadband over Power Line (BPL).
Answer:

Question 26.
Write the code to generate the following web page:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 5 for Practice 1
Note the following points while generating web page:
(i) Title of the page is “IIT”.
(ii) Font face of heading is “Cambria”.
(iii) The color of the heading of the page is “Red”.
(iv) Image used as “HT.png”.
(v) Table border is “3 px”.
(vi) Use link as:
For IIT Bombay as bombay.html
For IIT Kanpur as kanpur.html
For IIT Madras as madras.html
For IIT Delhi as delhi.html
For IIT Roorkee as roorkee.html
Or
Answer the following: (5)
(i) What is header cell?
(ii) Name the <TABLE> tag which is used as header cell.
(iii) Write the syntax to show the use of mailto function.
(iv) What is inline style of CSS in HTML?
(v) Write the code to insert an image that is right aligned, with height is 200 pixels, width is 250 pixels and image name is “image.jpg”.
Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 4 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 hrs
Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
  2. Part A carries 20 marks while Part B carries 30 marks.
  3. Part A consists very short answer and case based MCQ Questions and Part B is Descriptive Paper.
  4. Both Part A and Part B have choices.

Part-A

1. It consists two sections-I and II.
2. Section I has 13 questions of Very Short Answer Type. An examinee is to attempt any 10 out of 13 questions.
3. Section II has two Case Studies. Each Case Study has 7 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 5 out of 7 sub-parts.

Part-B

1. Question numbers 16 to 20 are Short Answer Type (SA-I) Questions of 2 marks each, Question numbers 21 to 25 are Short Answer Type (SA-II) questions of 3 marks each and Question numbers 26 is Long Answer Type Question of 5 marks.
2. Internal choice is provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part-A
Section I

This section consists of 13 questions of very short answer type. Question numbers 4 to 8 are of‘fill in the blank’ type. Fill the blank with the most appropriate answer. Attempt any 10 questions from Question numbers 1 to 13.

Question 1.
Expand the term HTTP.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are two factors that you should consider while selecting the means to connect to the Internet?
Answer:

Question 3.
Which HTML attribute is used alongwith <TD> tag to merge two cells horizontally?
Answer:

Question 4.
The ….. tag is used to define basic font size for the HTML page.
Answer:
<BASEFONT>

Question 5.
<IMG> tag is used for …. images.
Answer:
displaying

Question 6.
….. is a word or an image that when clicked take us to another web page.
Answer:
Hyperlink

Question 7.
To set an image as background in HTML table, you can use ……. attribute.
Answer:
background

Question 8.
….. property of CSS sets the style of an element border.
Answer:
border-style

Question 9.
Which softwares help you to send or receive E-mail?
Answer:

Question 10.
Write about any law that is used to stop software piracy.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write the name of the protocols that are used to ensure secured online transaction.
Answer:

Question 12.
Write syntax for italic tag.
Answer:

Question 13.
With the help of which tag of HTML, you can display (a2 + b2) in the web page ?
Answer:

Section II

Both the case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 5 questions (out of 7 questions) from each case study. Each question carries 1 mark.

Question 14.
SMTP
It is the standard protocol for E-mail services on a TCP/IP network. SMTP provides the ability to send and receive E-mail messages.
SMTP is an application-layer protocol that enables the transmission and delivery of E-mail over the Internet.
The SMTP standard defines the conversation between the sender of an E-mail and the SMTP mail server that delivers the mail. In a SMTP conversation, the sender issues a certain sequence of commands to the receiving SMTP server. Generally, if the sender issues valid commands and the intended recipients of the E-mail are valid accounts on the receiving server, the receiving server will accept the message and attempt to deliver it.

(i) The full form of SMTP is
(a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
(c) Simple Mail Temporary Protocol
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

(ii) SMTP protocol is
(a) used for composing an email message
(b) used in receiving incoming emails by pulling the message from server to client
(c) used in sending outgoing emails by pushing the message from client to server
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) used in sending outgoing emails by pushing the message from client to server

(iii) Which of the following protocol is used for delivering data from the source to the destination?
(a) TCP
(b) IP
(c) SMTP
(d) ARPANET
Answer:
(b) IP

(iv) The meaning of C in TCP is
(a) Client
(b) Consume
(c) Control
(d) Controls
Answer:
(c) Control

(v) Which protocol provides E-mail facility among different hosts?
(a) SMTP
(b) FTP
(c) TELNET
(d) SNMT
Answer:
(a) SMTP

(vi) The standard protocol of the Internet is
(a) TCD/IT
(b) TCP/IP
(c) TCP/IT
(d) TCT/IP
Answer:
(b) TCP/IP

(vii) In computing, IP means
(a) International Pin
(b) Internet Pin
(c) Invalid Pin
(d) Internet Protocol
Answer:
(d) Internet Protocol

Question 15.
Image in HTML

HTML can be used to insert images in the following formats:

  1. GIF (Graphics Interchange Format)
  2. XBM (X Bitmap)
  3. JPG or JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group)
  4. PNG (Portable Network Graphics)

The <IMG> tag is used to insert an image in a web page. It is very important to know that images are not technical part of the web page file, they are separate files which are inserted into the web page, when it is viewed by a browser.
So, a simple web page with one image is actually two files. When an HTML file is displayed in a browser, it requests the image file and places it on the web page where the tag appears.

(i) Web browsers display images in the following format
(a) XBM
(b) JPEG
(c) GIF
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ii) Which tag is used to insert an image in web page?
(a) <A>
(b) <TABLE>
(c) <IMG>
(d) <P>
Answer:
(c) <IMG>

(iii) The correct HTML code for inserting an image is
(a) <IMG href=”image.gif”>
(b) <IMG> image.gif</gif>
(c) < IMG src = “image.gif”>
(d) <IMAGE src = “image.gif”>
Answer:
(c) < IMG src = “image.gif”>

(iv) src attribute used with <IMG> tag stands for
(a) screen
(b) screen resolution count
(c) source
(d) structure
Answer:
(c) source

(v) …… attribute is used to specify the location of an image file.
(a) alt
(b) src
(c) align
(d) name
Answer:
(b) src

(vi) The alternate text of an image can be displayed by using the <IMG> tag.
(a) src
(b) alt
(c) align
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) alt

(vii) alt attribute allows
(a) addition of an alternate hyperlink
(b) addition of a border to image
(c) use of an alternate image in place of the specified image
(d) addition of alternate text about an image
Answer:
(d) addition of alternate text about an image

Part-B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.

Question 16.
Expl ain the following terms : (2)

  1. Dial-up connection
  2. e-Governance
    Answer:

Question 17.
Explain the wireless fidelity. (2)
Answer:

Question 18.
List the guidelines to avoid plagiarism. (2)
Answer:

Question 19.
Define the copyright in brief. (2)
Answer:

Question 20.
Which tag(s) do we use to change the size and style (face) of the text of an HTML file viewed on a web browser? Also, explain any two attributes used with this tag. (2)
Or
Explain the HTML Forms.
Answer:

Question 21.
Mr. Ayush, Captain of the school, has to display sequence of events of the upcoming Annual Function Day on the school website. Help him in writing HTML code to create a table in HTML as shown in the given screenshot: (3)

ANNUAL FUNCTION DAY-SEQUENCE OF EVENTS
8:00 AM-9:00 AM 9:00 AM to 1:00 PM 1:00 PM-2:00 PM
SINGING DANCING ACTING

Answer:

Question 22.
Explain the various attributes of <INPUT> tag. (3)
Answer:

Question 23.
What is the role of piracy in ethical issue? (3)
Answer:

Question 24.
Write the patent as a law to stop software piracy. (3)
Answer:

Question 25.
What do you mean by multimedia messaging service? (3)
Or
What are the uses of Internet?
Answer:

Question 26.
Write the code to generate following web page :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 4 for Practice 1

Note the following point while generating the web page :

  1. Link color is “blue”.
  2. Font face of heading is “lucida handwriting”.
  3. The color of the heading of the page is “green”.
  4. The images used as “par.jpg” and “prog.jpg”.
  5. Use link as “programming.html” for Programming.

Or
Answer the following: (5)

  1. What is the need of linking between web pages?
  2. What is inline sheet?
  3. Name the attribute used for visited link.
  4. Name any two values specified in frame attribute.
  5. Why bordercolor attribute is used?

Answer:

 

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 2 hrs
Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
  2. Part A carries 20 marks while Part B carries 30 marks.
  3. Part A consists very short answer and case based MCQ Questions and Part B is Descriptive Paper.
  4. Both Part A and Part B have choices.

Part-A

  1. It consists two sections-I and II.
  2. Section I has 13 questions of Very Short Answer Type. An examinee is to attempt any 10 out of 13 questions.
  3. Section II has two Case Studies. Each Case Study has 7 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 5 out of 7 sub-parts.

Part-B

  1. Question numbers 16 to 20 are Short Answer Type (SA-I) Questions of 2 marks each, Question numbers 21 to 25 are Short Answer Type (SA-II) questions of 3 marks each and Question numbers 26 is Long Answer Type Question of 5 marks.
  2. Internal choice is provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part-A
Section I

This section consists of 13 questions of very short answer type. Question numbers 4 to 8 are of ‘fill in the blank’ type. Fill the blank with the most appropriate answer. Attempt any 10 questions from Question numbers 1 to 13.

Question 1.
What is a home page?
Answer:
The home page is the name of the main or first page of a website where visitors can find hyperlinks to other pages on the site.

Question 2.
Which heading element gives the most prominent headings?
Answer:
<H1 >

Question 3.
Give one use of Anchor tag.
Answer:
Anchor tag <A> is used to define the beginning and end of a hypertext link.

Question 4.
….. tag is used for a horizontal line.
Answer:
<HR>

Question 5.
An empty HTML element has a …. tag but no ….. tag.
Answer:
opening, closing

Question 6.
…… tag creates a bulleted list.
Answer:
<UL>

Question 7.
The code for inserting an image in an HTML page is <img src=” ” alt= ” “>. The alt attribute is used for …..
Answer:
alternate text

Question 8.
Ravi was trying to log-in to his net-banking account. He noticed that the URL of the net banking starts with ‘https’. The ‘s’ in ‘https’ stands for …..
Answer:
secure

Question 9.
Sarita is designing a webpage and wants to change the name of the font (font-type) for certain text. Which attribute of the FONT tag she should use?
Answer:
face attribute

Question 10.
What is the use of <BR> tag in HTML code?
Answer:
< BR > tag is used to insert a line break.

Question 11.
What is the significance of the URL?
Answer:
URL (Uniform Resource Locator) specifies unique address of each document on the Internet

Question 12.
What is the importance of vlink attribute of <BODY> tag?
Answer:
vlink attribute of <BODY> tag specifies the color of visited links in a document.

Question 13.
What is the method of using comment line in the HTML code?
Answer:
<!-….-> tag

Section II

Both the Case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 5 questions (out of 7 questions) from each case study. Each question carries 7 mark.

Question 14.
Internet Protocols For communication over the Internet, the communicating devices must follow certain rules. These rules are called Internet protocols. For email communication, we use SMTP and POP. For communication between browser and server HTTP and HTTPS protocols are used. We can use TELNET to access services available on a remote computer.

(i) Which of the following is an Internet Protocol?
(a) HTTP
(b) FTP
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(ii) SMTP protocol is
(a) used for composing an email message
(b) used in receiving incoming emails by pulling the message from server to client
(c) used in sending outgoing emails by pushing the message from client to server
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Used in sending outgoing emails by pushing the message from client to server

(iii) POP protocol is
(a) used for composing an email message
(b) used in receiving incoming emails by pulling the message from server to client
(c) used in sending outgoing emails by pushing the message from client to server
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Used in receiving incoming emails by pulling the message from server to client

(iv) Which of the following Internet Protocols (IPs) provides secure data transmission between server and browser with the help of encryption?
(a) HTTP
(b) HTTPS
(c) TELNET
(d) ARPANET
Answer:
(b) HTTPS

(v) The full form of POP (email protocol) is
(a) Post Order Protocol
(b) Push Order Protocol
(c) Post Office Protocol
(d) Pull Over Protocol
Answer:
(c) Post Office Protocol

(vi) Which of the following protocol is used for delivering data from the source to the destination? (1)
(a) TCP
(b) IP
(c) SMTP
(d) ARPANET
Answer:
(b) IP

(vii) The full form of SMTP is
(a) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Secure Mail Transmit Protocol
(c) Simple Mail Transmit Protocol
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Question 15.
Secure Data Transmission It means that data/information is not being received or modified by an unauthorised person, over a network, from source to destination. For secure data transmission, we can convert an actual message (which is in readable form) into an unreadable message (called an encrypted message) with the help of the concept of encryption. This unreadable message is sent through the network to the destination. If a hacker tries to read this message, he/she receives an unreadable message that cannot be easily converted into the actual message. The unreadable message can be converted to the original message by the receiver at the destination.

Caesar cipher is one of the common encryption techniques. In this technique, each letter of the word is replaced by a letter some fixed number of positions (usually called as key) down the alphabet.
e.g. if the key is 3, each A will be replaced by ‘D’ (Letter ‘D’ is 3 positions down Letter A’ in the alphabet), each ‘B’ will be replaced by ‘E’ and similarly, each ‘Z’ will be replaced by ‘C’. The receiver can identify the original message by using the reverse technique of encryption. This reverse technique is called decryption.

(i) Secure data transmission means
(a) data can be accessed by any unauthorised person during transmission
(b) data cannot be accessed by any unauthorised person during transmission
(c) transmission of data
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Data cannot be accessed by any unauthorised person during transmission

(ii) Which of the following techniques can be used for security of data?
(a) Authentication
(b) Authorisation
(c) Encryption
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

(iii) Caesar cipher is
(a) used for conversion of the actual message into an encrypted message
(b) an encryption technique
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(iv) Person ‘X’ has received an encrypted message and wants to convert this message into the actual message (message before encryption). The technique he should use is called
(a) conversion
(b) encryption
(c) decryption
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Decryption

(v) A sender wants to send a message having the text as ‘COMPUTER’ to a receiver using 4 as the key. What will be the encrypted message?
(a) GSQTZXIV
(b) GSQTYXIV
(c) GSXTYXIV
(d) GSQSYXIV
Answer:
(b) GSQTYXIV

(vi) An encryption algorithm is used to transform a readable message into
(a) text message
(b) simple message
(c) converted message
(d) encrypted message
Answer:
(d) Encrypted message

(vii) In Caesar cipher, for which of the following values of key, the encrypted message will be the same as original message?
(a) 0 (b) 26
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Part-B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.

Question 16.
Sarvesh, a student of Class X, is not able to understand the difference between web client and web server. Help him in understanding the same by explaining their role and giving suitable example of each. (2)
Answer:
Differences between web client and web server are as follows:

Web client Web server
It is an application that communicates with a web server, using HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP). It is a piece of software designed to serve web pages/websites/web services.
e.g. web browser e.g. IIS, Apache and many more.

Question 17.
Write the full form of Cc and Bcc (used in email communication). Explain the difference between them. (2)
Answer:
Cc stands for Carbon copy and Bcc stands for Blind carbon copy.
The difference between Cc and Bcc is that Carbon copy (Cc) recipients are visible to all other recipients whereas those who are Bcc are not visible to anyone.

Question 18.
What is the use of <SUB> and <SUP>tag? Explain with suitable example. (2)
Answer:
<SUB> tag defines the subscripted text while <SUP> tag defines the superscripted text, e.g. To write a2 + b2,
a< SUP> 2< /SUP>+ b< SUP > 2 < /SUP >
To write H2O
H <SUB> 2 </SUB> + O

Question 19.
Sunil wants to insert an image ‘elearning.jpg’ into a web page. Write the name and the syntax of the HTML tag she should use. The alternate text for the image should be ‘E-learning Image’. (2)
Answer:
Sunil should use <IMG> tag.
<HTML>
<B0DY>
<IMG src = “elearning.jpg” alt = “E-learning Image”>
</ BOD Y >
</HTML>

Question 20.
Define the following: (2)

  1. Intellectual Property Rights
  2. Plagiarism

Or

What is E-commerce? Write any two preventive measures to be taken for secure online transaction.
Answer:

  1. Intellectual Property Rights reserves all the rights of the owner to the information to decide, how much information is to be exchanged, shared and distributed.
  2. Plagiarism is an act of copying another person’s idea, words or work and pretend that they are our own.

Or

E-commerce (Electronic commerce) is the buying and selling of goods and services on the Internet. Two preventive measures to be taken for secure online transaction as:

  1. Never share OTP with anyone.
  2. Before making an online payment, ensure that connection is secure.

Question 21.
Shalini, a web designer, wants to create a web page to display a list where each item is listed by a number, which type of list she should use? Explain the role of start and type attributes. (3)
Answer:
Shalini should use ordered list.
start attribute This attribute is used to change the beginning value of an ordered list.
type attribute The numbering of an HTML list can be changed to letters or roman numerals by the type attribute.

Question 22.
What are the roles of rowspan and colspan attribute? Explain with suitable HTML example. (3)
Answer:
colspan attribute allows the user to stretch a cell to span multiple columns (merge two or more columns).
rowspan attribute is used to span multiple rows-(merge two or more rows),
e.g. <TABLE border = ‘ 1’>
<TR>
<TD> Row-1 Column-1 </TD>
<TD colspan = “2”> Row-1 Column-2 and 3 </TD>
<TD rowspan = “2”> Row-1 and 2 Column-4 </TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD> Row-2 Column-1 </TD>
<TD> Row- 2 Column-2 </TD>
<TD> Row-2 Column-3 </TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>

Question 23.
Saroj, a student of Class X, wants to represent a table in web page but she is unaware about the table tag. Explain her the role of <TH>, <TR> and <TD> tags. Write HTML code of a table and show the use of <TH>, <TR> and <TD> tags. (3)
Answer:
<TR> tag defines the table row which is used to create a new row of data in a table.
<TH> tag defines the table header which is used for specifying a table’s header.
<TD> tag defines the table data which is used to specify a cell or table data within a table,
e.g. <TABLE>
<TR>
<TH>Name</TH>
<TH>Subject</TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>Rahul</TD>
<TD>Mathematics</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>Muskan</TD>
<TD>Science</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>

Question 24.
What is the digital divide? Write any two reasons for digital divide in India. (3)
Answer:
Digital divide is a term that describes the uneven distribution of Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs) in society. In other words, digital divide refers to the differing amount of information between those who have access to ICT and those who don’t have access.
Two reasons for digital divide in India are :

  1. Due to the unequal distribution of wealth, poverty is higher in rural areas.
  2. Less literacy rate in rural India.

Question 25.
Define Internet and write its two uses in our daily life. How is it different from the World Wide Web (www). (3)
Or
What is E-learning? Explain any two merits of E-learning.
Answer:
Internet is a world wide system of computer networks, i.e. network of networks. Through Internet, computers become able to exchange information with each other and find diverse perspective on issues from a global audience.
Two uses of Internet are:

  1. E-commerce (auction, buying and selling products).
  2. Social networking sites (facebook, twitter, etc).

Difference between www and Internet is
www It is just a common point of connectivity for information sharing that is facilitated by a global network of computers.
Internet It is a connection between computers and countless other devices that form a huge network of systems.
Or
E-learning refers to an electronic mode of delivering learning, training or educational programs to users. It is the mode of acquiring knowledge by means of Internet and computer based training programs. E-learning can be done anywhere and at anytime.
Two merits of E-learning are:

  1.  Reduces travel time and travel costs for off-campus students.
  2. Develops knowledge of an Internet and computer skills that will help learners throughout their lives and careers.

Question 26.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 3 with Solutions 1 (5)

Write the HTML code to design the above shown web page considering the
specifications as given below:

  • Background color of the page should be yellow.
  • Heading ‘Our Country: India’ should be the first level of heading.
  • The image named lndia.jpg’ should be placed at the center.
  • Formatting style for the paragraph
  • Font Size : 5
  • Font Name : Times New Roman
  • Color : Red
  • Superscript and subscript tags should be used wherever required.
  • Facts (as shown in the above web page) should be written with the help of the unordered list.

Or
Answer the following:
(i) What is a hypertext link?
(ii) Give the name and the syntax of the HTML tag which is used for creating a hypertext link.
(iii) Neha wants to display a ‘Click Here’ message on her web page which, when clicked, opens a new web page ‘Chapter2.html’. Write the syntax of the HTML command she should use.
(iv) On the same web page, Neha whose email is neha@xyz.com, wants to display a ‘Contact us’ message which when clicked open the email program and allows the user to send a mail to Neha. Write the syntax of the HTML command she should use.
(v) Explain the use of the target attribute in the hypertext link tag.
Answer:
<HTML>
<BODY bgcolor = “yellow”>
<CENTER>
<H1> Our Country : India </H1>
<IMG src = “India.jpg” height = “250” width = “200”>
</CENTER>
<P>
<FONT color=“red” size=“5” face=“Times New Roman”>
India is spread over a large geographical area. In terms of area, it is the 7<SUP>th</SUP> largest country while in terms of population, it is the 2<SUP>nd</SUP> largest country in the world. Some facts about India are as fol lows</FONT></P>
<UL>
<LI>Area :Approx 3.28 million sq. km </LI>
<LI>North to South extension :Approx 3,200 km </LI>
<LI>East to West extension : Approx 2900 km</LI>
</UL>
</BODY >
</HTML>

Or

(i) A hyperlink is an element in HTML document that links to either another portion of the document or to another document altogether. On web pages, hyperlinks are usually colored purple or blue and are sometimes underlined.

Hyperlinks can assume any of the following appearances:

  • Text
  • Images
  • URLs
  • Controls (e.g. button)

(ii) Name : Anchor tag
Syntax
<A href = “link address”) Hyperlink Text </A>
(iii) <A href=”Chapter2. html “> Click Here </A>
(iv) <A href=”mail to:neha@xyz.com”) Contact us </A>
(v) target attribute specifies where to open the linked document when the link is clicked.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions

  1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
  2. Part A carries 20 marks while Part B carries 30 marks.
  3. Part A consists very short answer and case based MCQ Questions and Part B is Descriptive Paper.
  4. Both Part A and Part B have choices.

Part-A

  1. It consists two sections-Iand II.
  2. Section I has 13 questions of Very Short Answer Type. An examinee is to attempt any 10 out of 13 questions.
  3. Section II has two Case Studies. Each Case Study has 7 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any
    5 out of 7 sub-parts. –

Part-B

  1. Question numbers 16 to 20 are Short Answer Type (SA-I) Questions of 2 marks each, Question numbers 21 to 25 are Short Answer Type (SA-II) questions of 3 marks each and Question numbers 26 is Long Answer Type Question of 5 marks.
  2. Internal choice is provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part-A
Section I

This section consists of 13 questions of very short answer type. Question numbers 4 to 8 are of ‘fill in the blank’ type. Fill the blank with the most appropriate answer. Attempt any 10 questions from Question numbers 1 to 13.

Question 1.
Copying a file from a host system to your computer is known as what?
Answer:
Downloading

Question 2.
What is the full form of SSH protocol?
Answer:
Secure Shell

Question 3.
Write a short note on <P> tag.
Answer:
<P> tag is used to make the paragraph. By default, alignment of paragraph text is left.

Question 4.
The is used to make the text bold.
Answer:
<B>

You are advised to attempt this sample paper without referring the answers given here. However, cross check your answers once you complete the paper.

Question 5.
<LI > tag is an/a tag.
Answer:
empty

Question 6
_______ attribute is used to give border to an image.
Answer:
border

Question 7.
There are total values for rules attribute in <TABLE> tag.
Answer:
5

Question 8.
______ gives the ability to select only one item from the list.
Answer:
Combo box

Question 9.
Explain the term mobile technology.
Answer:
Mobile technology is a form of technology that is mostly used in cellular communication and other related aspects. It includes General Packet Radio Service (GPRS), Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS), bluetooth, 3G, Wi-Fi etc.

Question 10.
Which term describes the uneven distribution of Information and Communication Technology (ICT)?
Answer:
Digital divide

Question 11.
Rahul wants to buy something over Internet for which his friend suggest him that E-commerce is the process of buying and selling goods over Internet. But Rahul is concern about privacy in E-commerce. What is the mean of privacy in E-commerce?
Answer:
The privacy in E-commerce means the protection, of privacy of the parties involved in trading through E-commerce.

Question 12.
Which attribute is used to specify the location of an image file?
Answer:
src attribute

Question 13.
Which attribute of <TD > tag is used to merge two or more columns to form a single column?
Answer:
colspan attribute

Section-II

Both the case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 5 questions (out of 7 questions) from each case study. Each question carries 1 mark.

Question 14.
Chat
It is the online textual or multimedia conversation. It is a real-time communication between two users via computer. It is widely interactive text-based communication process that takes place over the Internet.
Chatting is a virtual means of communication that involves the sending and receiving of messages, share audios and videos between users located in any part of the world.
In chatting, you type a message in your chat box, which is immediately received by the recipient, then the recipient types a message in response to your message, which is instantly received by you.
(i) Which of the following is/are popular chat application(s)?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) WeChat
(c) Tango
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ii) It enables communication through sending and receiving text messages.
(a) Text based chat
(b) Multimedia chat
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Text based chat

(iii) A/An ______ is the hub of Internet chatting.
(a) chat space
(b) chat place
(c) chat room
(d) chat group
Answer:
(c) Chat room

(iv) Chat rooms are also known as
(a) talking rooms
(b) virtual rooms
(c) special rooms
(d) gossip rooms
Answer:
(b) Virtual rooms

(v) Chat is the online ______ conversation.
(a) Textual
(b) Multimedia
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(vi) You can share ______ using chat.
(a) Messages
(b) Audio
(c) Video
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(vii) Chatting is defined as
(a) web service
(b) browser service
(c) server service
(d) E-mail service
Answer:
(a) web service

Question 15.
CSS
It is a style sheet language used for describing the presentation of a document written in a markup language. CSS is designed primarily to enable the separation of document content from document presentation, including aspects such as the layout, colors and fonts.

This separation can improve content accessibility, provide more flexibility and control in the specification of presentation characteristics, enable multiple HTML pages to share formatting by specifying the relevant CSS in a separate css file, and reduce complexity and repetition in the structural content such as semantically insignificance tables that were widely used to format pages before consistent CSS rendering was available in all major browsers. CSS makes it possible to separate presentation instructions from the HTML content in a separate file or style section of the HTML file. For each matching HTML element, it provides , a list of formatting instructions.
(i) The full form of CSS is
(a) Cascading Style Sheet
(b) Cascading Sheet Style
(c) Cascade Style Sheet
(d) Cascadation Style Sheet
Answer:
(a) Cascading Style Sheet

(ii) CSS rule set consists of
(a) selector
(b) declaration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(iii) The full form of HTML is
(a) Hyper Transfer Markup Language
(b) Hyper Text Markup Language
(c) Hyper Text Makeup Language
(d) Hyper Transmission Markup Language
Answer:
(b) Hyper Text Markup Language

(iv) _______ points to the HTML element that you want to style.
(a) Selector
(b) Declaration
(c) ID
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Selector

(v) A CSS declaration always ends with a
(a) dot
(b) colon
(c) semicolon
(d) hash
Answer:
(c) Semicolon

(vi) A CSS declaration blocks are surrounded by
(a) small braces
(b) curly braces
(c) big braces
(d) angular braces
Answer:
(b) Curly braces

(vii) Which of the following is/are property value of CSS?
(a) Color
(b) Margin
(c) Height
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Part-B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.

Question 16.
Karan uses a search engine to get detail regarding India struggle for freedom. (2)
(i) Define the word “search engine”.
(ii) Name any five common search engines.
Answer:
(i) Search engine is a bottom-up approach for finding your way around the web. You give to a search engine, a list of keywords or phrase (called a query) and it returns to you a list of web pages that contain those words or phrases.
(ii) Google, AltaVista, Excite, Web Crawler and Lycos.

Question 17.
Write the advantages of E-banking. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of E-banking are as follows:

  1. There are no geographical barriers and the services that can be offered at a minimum cost.
  2. Through Internet banking, you can check your transactions at any time and as many times as you want to.
  3. If the fund transfer has to be made outstation, where the bank does not have a branch, the bank would demand outstation charges, whereas with the help of online banking, it will be absolutely free for you.
  4. Internet banking deploys the Internet as a medium for financial transaction.

Question 18.
Explain the challenges and barriers to the digital divide. (2)
Answer:
There are various challenges and barriers to the digital divide:

  1. High Cost Due to higher cost of Internet connection and modern technology, most of the people of developing country unable to use computer and Internet connection.
  2. Language Barriers Today a large percentage of information content on the Internet is in English, which is a barrier for the people whose primary language is not English.
  3. Technology Barrier People who live in village cannot get the touch of modern technology. So it is also a barrier of the digital divide.

Question 19.
What do you mean by digital property rights? (2)
Answer:
Digital property includes data, Internet accounts, and other rights in the digital world, including contractual rights and intellectual property rights. Data are the files and information stored and used by computers (such as E-mails, Word processing documents, spreadsheets, pictures, audio files and movies). This data may be stored locally on a computer’s hard drive or on removable media or data may be stored remotely and accessed over the Internet.
Digital property rights disputes arise when some form of counterfeiting or piracy occurs between companies.

Question 20.
Find the error(s) in the following code and underline those errors. (2)
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Example
</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<B0DY>………. </HTML>
</BODY >
Or
Why rowspan and colspan attributes are used?
Answer:
</BODY> should be placed before </HTML>
The correct code is
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Example </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<B0DY> ………..</B0DY>
</HTML>
Or
Sometimes, a table cell is bigger than other. Its span is spread to more rows or columns. Such cells can be created with the help of rowspan and colspan attributes.

Question 21.
Observe the following table and write the HTML code to generate it: (3)

I

N

D

I

A

N

Available Paintings
NAME QTV PRIZE
Oil Painting 4 3000
Glass Painting 2 5000
Canvas 2 1000

Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Table</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<B0DY>
<TABLE border=”3″ align=”center” bordercolor=”blue”>
<CAPTI0N color=”red”> Available Paintings </CAPTI0N>
<TR>
<TD rowspan=”5″> I <BR> N <BR> D <BR> I <BR> A <BR> N </TD>
<TD colspan=”3″> PAINTING </TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH> NAME </TH>
<TH> QTY </TH>
<TH> PRIZE </TH> .
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>Oil Painting </TD>
<TD> 4 </TD>
<TD>3000</TD>
</TR>
<TR>Glass Painting</TD>
<TD>2</TD>
<TD>5000</TD>
</TR>
<TR>Canvas</TD>
<TD>2</TD>
<TD>1000</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
</ BODY>
</HTML>

Question 22.
Explain the <VIDEO> element in HTML. (3)
Answer:
The <VIDEO > element allows us to embed video files into an HTML document, very similar to the way images are embedded. The HTML does not specify which video formats browser should support in the <VIDEO> tag, but most commonly used video formats are ogg, mpeg4.
Attributes of <VIDEO> tag are as follows :

Attributes Descriptions
autoplay This boolean attribute if specified, the video will automatically begin to play back as soon as it can do so without stopping to finish loading the data.
autobuffer This boolean attribute if specified, the video automatically begin buffering even if it’s not set to automatically play.
controls If this attribute is present, it will allow the user to control video playback, including volume, seeking and pause/resume playback.
height This attribute specifies the height of the video display area in pixels.
width This attribute specifies the width of the video display area in pixels.
src The URL of the video to embed. This is optional, you may instead use the <SOURCE> element within the video block to specify the video to embed.
type This attribute specifies the video file standard type.

Question 23.
Give any three effects of digital divide. (3)
Answer:
There are various effects of digital divide as given below:

  1. Economic Inequality Digital divide create economic inequality, because those who have access to modern technology can easily collect valuable economical information.
  2. Effect on Education It has an impact on education. Because student who have Internet access and computer, can acquire more valuable knowledge from Internet.
  3. Economic Growth It is effected by digital divide because productivity improvements tend to be associated with the use of information technologies and companies.

Question 24.
Define the following fraud (3)
(i) Refund fraud
(ii) Merchant fraud
(iii) Fraud via identity theft
Answer:
(i) Refund Fraud In this case, fraudster using a stolen credit card makes an overpayment on
purpose. He will ask to refund of the excess amount, claiming his credit card is closed so they need to send the money using an alternative method. This means that the original charge of the credit card is not refunded.

(ii) Merchant Fraud It is another method, which must be mentioned. It is very simple; goods are offered as cheap prices, but are never shipped of course, the payments are kept. This method of fraud also exists in wholesale.

(iii) Fraud via Identity Theft In this case, the fraudsters assumes another person’s identity, creates credit cards in the victim’s name and goes on a shopping. This type of fraud is increasing rapidly as the number and scope of data breaches increase. It is also the most difficult to identity as the fraudsters behind identity theft are quite sophisticated.

Question 25.
What is domain name? Also, write about domain abbreviation. (3)
Or
Define the term web client. (3)
Answer:
Domain name is the text name corresponding to the numeric IP address of a computer on the Internet. Internet users access your Website using your domain name. It is a way to identify and locate computers connected to the Internet. It must be unique. Domain name always have two or more parts, separated by periods (dots).
e.g. google.com, yahoo.com etc

Domain Abbreviation Domain are organised by the type of organisation and by the country. A three letter abbreviation indicating the organisation and usually two letter abbreviation indicating the country name.
Or
Web client is a computing term which describes a special program designed as a user interface, through which messages are sent to a ‘web server’. Web clients usually operate within a web browser window, although some are installed to a mobile or computer as downloadable software.

A web client contains two parts: dynamic Web pages and the Web browser. Dynamic Web pages are produced by components that run in the Web tier, and a Web browser delivers Web pages received from the server.
Web client is also known as a thin client because it does not execute heavy-duty operations such as querying databases, performing complex business tasks or connecting legacy applications.

Question 26.
Write the code to generate the following web page : (5)
Educational Psychology
It is the branch of psychology concerned with die scientific study of human learning. It can in part be understood through its relationship with other disciplines.
The field of educational psychology involves the study of memory, conceptual processes, and individual differences (via cognitive psychology) in conceptualizing new strategies for learning processes in human.

List of Technological Resources a Educational Psychology
Intelligent Tutoring System
Educational Technology
Cooperative Learning
Applications of Educational Psychology

Teaching Counseling
Training Employment Outlook
Research on classroom is conducted to guide teaching practice and Ram a foundation for education programs. Educational psychologists works as consultant in designing and creating materials, programs and online courses. Employment for psychologists in the US is expected to grow fester with anticipated growth of 18-26%.

Note The following points while generating the web page:

  1. Title of the page is “Educational Psychology”.
  2. Link color is green.
  3. Font face for the page is “antiqua”.
  4. Heading of the page should be right align.
  5. Image used as eppic.jpg.
  6. Table border is 2px and border color is purple.
  7. Use link as

For Intelligent Tutoring System as Psychol.htm
For Educational Technology as Psycho2.htm
For Cooperative Learning as Psycho3.htm
(viii) E-mail id for bottom message as edupsvcho@science.com.
Or
Answer the following: (5)
(i) Mention the suitable HTML tag and attribute to insert an image named globe.jpg in the background of a web page.
(ii) Name the attribute that are used to merge two or more rows.
(iii) Name the attribute to change the background color of the cells in a table.
(iv) What is the use of id selector in CSS?
(v) Give any two attributes used with <BASEFONT> tag.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD><TITLE> Educational Psychology </TITLE></HEAD>
<BODY link=”green”>
<IMG src=”eppic.jpg” alfgn=”left” height=”120″ width=”150”>
<FONT face=”antiqua” color=”blue”>
<H1 align=”right”> Educational Psychology </H1>
<HR align=”right” width=”60%” color=”blue”> </HR>
</FONT>
<FONT size=”4″ face=”antiqua”>
It is the branch of psychology concerned with the scientific study of human learning.
It can in part be understood through its relationship with other disciplines.
<BR>The field of educational psychology involves the study of memory, conceptual processes, and individual differences (<I>via</I> cognitive psychology) in conceptualizing new strategies for learning processes in humans .
</FONT>
<BR><B> List of Technological Resources in Educational Psychology </B>
<BR><A href=”Psychol.htm”> Intelligent Tutoring System </A>
<BR><A href=”Psycho2.htmn> Educational Technology </A>
<BR><A href=”Psycho3.htm”> Cooperative Learning </A>
<TABLE border=”2″ borderedor=”purple” cellpadding=”3” align=”center”>
<CAPTION><B> Applications of Educational Psychology </B></CAPTION>
<TR>
<TH rowspan=”2″> Teaching </TH>
<TH colspan=”2″> Counseling </TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH> Training </TH>
<TH> Employment Outlook </TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD> Research on classroom is conducted to guide teaching practice and form a foundation for education programs.</TD> <TD> Educational psychologists works as consultant in designing and creating materials, programs and online courses.</TD>
<TD> Employment for psychologists in the US is expected to grow faster with anticipated growth of 18-26%.</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
<BR><FONT color=”blue” size=”2″> For more details contact us:
<A href=”edupsycho@science.com”> edupsycho@science.com
</AX></FONT>
</BODY>
</HTML>
Or
(i) <BODY background = “globe.jpg”>
(ii) rowspan
(iii) bgcolor
(iv) id selector is used to apply the style to an element based on the id of an element.
(v) color, face