MCQ Questions – Page 47

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Students can also read MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 16 MCQs On Management of Natural Resources

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is responsible for the ……………… water?
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following are water-intensive crops?
(a) Wheat and rice
(b) Wheat and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane and rice
(d) Wheat and gram
Answer:
(c) Sugarcane and rice.

Related Theory:
The construction of large dams leads to some problems.
People close to the source grow water-intensive crops like sugarcane and rice whereas people farther downstream do not get sufficient water to grow these crops. This causes social problems resulting due to unequal distribution of water. Other problems related to the construction of dams are economic and environmental problems.

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Consider the following criticisms that are generally addressed when a new project is launched:
(I) Displacement of peasants and local tribals without compensation.
(II) Swallowing up large amount of public money without any benefits.
(Ill) Deforestation and loss of biodiversity. The criticisms about large dams in particular are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for:
(a) Monoculturesofpine,teakand eucalyptus.
(b) Chipko Movement.
(c) Extensive biodiversity.
(d) Participation of local people inefficient management of forests.
Answer:

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?
(a) People who live in or around the forest
(b) The forest department of the government
(c) The wildlife and native enthusiasts
(d) The industrialists
Answer:
(d) The Industrialist

Ch 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are:
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near A.
Answer:

Chapter 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is given below:
The statement which defines the system and its parts is:

(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dug well:
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dug well system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Khadin.
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area, and C = Shallow dug well.
(d) This is showing the Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dug well.
Answer:
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and:
A = catchment area
B = Saline area
C = Shallow dug well

Explanation: Khadin is a traditional rainwater haversting system in Rajasthan. The main feature of Khadin system of rainwater harvesting is a very long earthen embankment called ‘bund’ built across the lower edge of the sloping farmland. The rainwater from catchment area flows down the slopes and stopped by the bund to form a reservoir the excess water flows through pathwalls (made for this purpose) and filLs the shallow well dug behind the bund. This area is subsequently used for growing crops.

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 8.
The major ill effect of monoculture practice in forests is on the:
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department
Answer:

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
Which of the following are not responsible for failure to sustain water availability underground:
(I) Afforestation
(II) Loss of vegetation cover
(III) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(IV) Pollution from industrial effluents and urban wastes.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Question 10.
Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?
(I) Measurement of pH of river water
(II) Existence of diverse life forms in river water
(III) Presence of chlorine in river water
(IV) Presence of coliform bacteria in river water
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)

Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 11.
Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams
(I) Deforestation and the loss of biological diversity.
(II) Displacement of large number of peasantsand tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation
(III) Loss of valuable agricultural land.
(IV) Generation of permanent employment for local people
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 Question 12.
Which of these practices can be adopted to save the environment?
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags
(b) Reduce the use of paper bags
(c) Recycle single-use bags
(d) Reuse waste food
Answer:
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags Explanation: The 5R’s to save the environment are: Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, repurpose and Recycle. The best way to save the environment is by refusing to use products that may harm the environment.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Management Of Natural Resources Question 13.
How does switching off unnecessary electrical appliances help the environment?
(a) It generates electricity when switched off
(b) It reduces wastage of energy
(c) It recycles the amount of energy used
(d) It increases the efficiency of the electrical appliances
Answer:

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Question 14.
Which of these is an example of sustainable development in order to conserve natural resources for the future generation?
(a) Cleaning water resources
(b) Finding additional fuel reserves
(c) Clearing forests to set up new industries
(d) Planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining
Answer:

Class 10 Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following industries would be identified as a stakeholder involved in a forest?
(a) That manufacture ceramic products using clay
(b) That make papers using wood products
(c) That make clothes using synthetic materials
(d) That manufacture device that generate electricity using solar energy
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 16 MCQ Question 16.
Which of the following practices will help to conserve the forest?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Banning deforestation
(c) Increased use of firewood by local people
(d) Increased use of timber by industries
Answer:

MCQ On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 17.
Which of these explains the use of dams?
(a) To replenish underground water resources
(b) To produce steady supply of water in hilly regions
(c) To provide irrigation and generate electricity
(d) To provide water for conservation of biological diversity
Answer:

Natural Resources MCQ Class 10 Question 18.
Which of the following steps should be adopted in order to save the environment?
(a) Replace coal to firewood for cooking food
(b) Replace petroleum to coal in vehicles for transportation
(c) Replace thermal power with solar power to generate electricity
(d) Replace the use of coal to petroleum for melting metals in a furnace
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 16

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labeled Assertion (A) and other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 19.
Assertion (A): Sustainable development implies a change in all aspects of life.
Reason (R): Economic development is linked to environmental conservation.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Find out about the international norms to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide. Have a discussion in class about how we can contribute towards meeting those norms.
There are a number of organisations that seek to spread awareness about our environment and promote activities and attitudes that lead to the conservation of our environment and natural resources. Find out about the organizations) active in your neighbourhood/ village/town/city.
(A) Which of the following greenhouses gas is present in very large quantities?
(a) Ozone
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Propane
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
(b) Life on earth is possible due to presence of greenhouse gases.
(c) Greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains earth’s temperature.
(d) More is the emission of greenhouse gases, more is the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and some artificial chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) The absorbed energy warms the atmosphere and the surface of the Earth. This process maintains the Earth’s temperature at around 33 degrees Celsius warmer than it would otherwise be, allowing life on Earth to exist.

The problem we now face is that human activities – particularly burning fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), agriculture and land clearing – are increasing the concentrations of greenhouse gases. This is the enhanced greenhouse effect, which is contributing to warming of the Earth.

(C) Which of the following are the causes of increased emission of carbon dioxide in India?
(I) Burning of coal for power generation
(II) Increased vegetation cover during monsoon.
(III) Burning of agricultural wastes
(IV) Burning of fossil fuels for transportation
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which one of the following cannot be a goal or an international norm to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide:
(a) To limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets.
(b) To monitor actual emission of greenhouse gases.
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.
(d) To assist countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change.
Answer:
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.

Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring and (part two) that human-made CO₂ emissions are driving it. Although it has scope of assisting countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change, it does not have scope for investing in technological development in the developing countries.

(E) One of the ways individuals can contribute towards conservation of environment and natural resources is:
(a) Recycling, reusing, and composting
(b) Making better transport choices
(c) Reducing your electricity usage
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Individuals can contribute towards conservation of the environment and natural resources by reusing, recycling of waste materials, composting of organic wastes, making better transport choices and using public transport as much as possible and reducing electricity usage.

Question 2.
Make a list of forest produce that you use. What do you think a person living near a forest would use? What do you think a person living in a forest would use? Discuss with your classmates how these needs differ or do not differ and the reasons for the same. Find out about any two forest produce that are the basis for an industry. Discuss whether this industry is sustainable in the long run. Or do we need to control our consumption of these products?
(A) Which of the following are not products derived directly or indirectly from forest produce used by most urban people?
(a) Paper
(b) Natural gas
(c) Timber
(d) Dyes
Answer:
(b) Natural gas
Explanation: Forests give us a lot of useful products such as paper, timber, dyes, medicines, fruits, spices, dyes and oils.

Natural gas on the other hand is a fossil fuel formed from the plants, animals, and microorganisms that lived millions of years ago.

(B) The table below lists the various stakeholders in forests. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Stakeholders	Justification
(a) People who live in or around forests	Dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life
(b) Forest Department of the Government	Owns land and controls the resources from forest
(c) Industrialists	Dependent on forests In any one area as they use various forest produce
(d) wild life and nature enthusiasts forests.	Want to conserve nature in its pristine form

Answer:

(C) Which of the following forest produce are used by the persons Living in a forest?
(I) Firewood and small. timber
(II) Bamboo
(III) Various agricuLtural. Implements made of Iron and steel.
(IV) Fruits, nuts and medicines
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) For which of the following needs are people Living near forests dependent on forests?
(a) Fodder fruit and agricultural implements
(b) Fuel, fodder and monoculture
(c) Fuel, fodder and cuLtivation
(d) Minerals, fodder and fuel
Answer:

(E) We should conserve forests because:
(a) Forest provide us with oxygen and they cause rainfall.
(b) Forest prevents soil erosion.
(c) Various forest products are used as raw materials in industries.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Explanation: Conservation of forests is the need of the jour as forests provide us with oxygen, they prevent soil erosion, various industries are dependent upon forests for their raw materials and medicines.

Question 3.
Usually we put recycling on top of everything, but today on the 5 R process, it comes in last. Five actions should respectively be taken if possible before recycling any products. These R’s include: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and finally, recycle. This is an important methodology for businesses to follow to ensure they can reduce waste and boost their recycling efforts. This ultimately lessens the amount of waste that will end up in landfill and will optimise your recycling programs.

(A) The main items that can be recycled are:
(I) Lead-Acid Batteries
(II) Plastic (PET) bottles
(III) Egg cartons
(IV) Steel cans
Select the correct options from below:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (1), (U) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Among the items that can be recycled are lead acid batteries, plastic bottles, steel and aluminium cans, glass bottles, paper, cardboard boxes. Among the items that cannot be recycled are egg cartons, plastic shopping bags, drinking cups, plastic utensils and broken or sharp glass.

(B) The table below gives the meaning of the terms Reuse, reduce and reuse.
Select the row containing the correct meaning of the three terms

Refuse	Reduce	Reuse
(a) Use less of something	Use something over and over again	Make something into something new
(b) Make something into something new	Use less of something	Use something over and over again
(c) Say no to things that can harm environment	Use less of something	Use something over and over again.
(d) Say no to things that can harm environment	Use something over and over again.	Use less of something

Answer:

(D) Look at the figure below and suggest which out of the five ‘R’s is represented below:

(a) Reuse, as plastic bottle is being used again.
(b) Repurpose, as the plastic bottle is being used for a different purpose.
(c) Reduce, as less of the thing is being used.
(d) Recycle, as plastic bottle is being recycled.
Answer:

(E) The doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles is an example of:
(a) Reduce
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Recycle
Answer:
(b) Reuse

Explanation: Reuse is the action or practice of using an item by taking, but not reprocessing, previously used items and it helps save time, money, energy and resources. In the doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles, the delivery person gives a bottle containing fresh milk and the empty bottle is returned to him the next day. In this way, the glass bottles are reused.

Question 4.
Fossil fuels Like coal, oil, and natural gas present environmental problems starting with their extraction and going all the wag through to their use. They are all different in their properties and uses, but they have some similarities.We use fossil fuels for most of our energy needs today. Coal, natural gas, and oil accounted for 87 percent of global primary energy consumption. Burning coal for electricity is in decline, while the use of natural gas, solar and wind power are on the rise.

Complete combustion of coal and petroleum:
(I) increases air pollution
(II) increases effciency of machines.
(III) reduces global warming.
(IV) produce poisonous gases.
The correct option is:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (IV)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 5.
Half of Delhi’s school-going population (some 2.2 million children) suffers from some or the other form of irreversible lung damage from poor air quality in the city. Research is now showing that pollution can weaken a child’s immune system and increase the risk of cancer, epilepsy, diabetes and even adult- onset diseases like multiple sclerosis. In adults, poor air quality causes one’s lung capacity to decrease, more headaches, sore throats, coughs, fatigue, even lung cancer.

In 2017, air pollution was the fifth-highest mortality risk factor globally – linked to 4.9 million deaths and 147 million years of healthy life otherwise lost. Reducing global air pollution to levels recommended by the WHO would increase life expectancy worldwide as much as eradicating breast and lung cancer would, according to a Quartz report from earlier this year. Going by National Health Profile of India 2015 report, there were 3.5 million reported cases of acute respiratory infection nationwide last year – a 1,40,000 increase on the previous year, and a 30 percent increase since 2010. The pie chart below shows the average levels of fine particulate matter having diameter less than 2.5 micrometers (PM2.5) in Delhi in the month of Nov 2020.

(A) According to the pie chart shown, the major contributors responsible for more than 80% of PM2.5 in air are:
(a) Road dust, Construction and demolition, hotels and restaurants, Industrial point sources
(b) Road dust, domestic sources, Diesel gensets, Industrial point sources
(c) Road dust, vehicles, Construction and demolition and Industrial point sources
(d) Road dust, vehicles, domestic sources and Industrial point sources
Answer:

(B) The major air pollutants are:
(I) Nitrogen dioxide
(II) Sulphur
(III) Particulate matter
(IV) Ozone
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The major air pollutants are: Ozone (O₃), Nitrogen dioxide, Carbon Monoxide (CO), Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) and Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)

(C) Which of the following element is not present in coal and petroleum:
(a) Silicon
(b) Carbon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Explanation: Coal and petroleum have been formed from biomass and contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.

(D) The number of years our known petroleum and coal reserves will last as per the present estimates is given in the table below.
Select the row containing the correct values:

Number of years our known petroleum reserves will last	Number of years our known coal reserves will last
(a) 100	300
(b) 40	200
(c) 400	300
(d) 200	40

Answer:
(b) Number of years our known petroleum reserve will last: 40; Number of years our known coal reserves will last: 200.

Explanation: As per the present estimates, the number of years our known petroleum and coaL reserves will Last are 40 years and 200 years respectively. This estimate is based on the present rate of usage of these fuels.

(E) Select the incorrect option:
The main reason for using coal and petroleum judiciously is:
(a) These lead to global warming
(b) These pollute our environment
(c) These are not limited
(d) These are not inexhaustible
Answer:

Question 6.
When Sukanya visited her maternal grandparents during her school vacations, she observed that both her grandparents would switch off lights and fans when not in use. They would in fact encourage them also to use natural light as much as possible.

Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which term of 5R’s?
(a) Recycle
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(d) Reduce

Explanation: We can reduce the voltage of electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and We can reduce the voltage of water by repairing the leaking taps.

We can collect plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things.
Reuse means to use the same things again eq. Plastic bottles of same or pickles can be used for storing things in the kitchen.
Repurpose: The object which can no more be used for the original purpose e.g. cups with broken handles can be used to grow small plants and as feeding vessels for birds.
Refuse to take the things people offer you that you don’t need or are harmful to the environment, e.g., take your own cloth or jute bag for shopping and refuse to accept plastic bag.

Question 7.
Poachers, traffickers and highly-organised criminal gangs decimate already endangered wildlife species, reaping a deadly harvest in the pursuit of profits. To address the problem, in 1973 the United Nations General Assembly signed the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), aimed at stemming the illegal trade in wild animals and rare commodities. UN World Wildlife Day is held each year on the anniversary of the signing. The day helps raise awareness of the many challenges facing the world’s wild animals and plants and the efforts to stamp out illegal trading.

(A) The main objective of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is that it:
(I) Ensures that some species entering into international trade is threatened with extinction.
(II) Promotes the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity
(III) Contributes to tangible benefits for poachers
(IV) Stops over exploitation of many endangered species
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a step taken by the government to protect the wildlife?
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest
(b) Proper food facilities to the animals in forest
(c) Deforestation to provide space for urbanization
(d) Control the population of animals in forest
Answer:
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest

Explanation: The Government of India has taken various steps to conserve the wildlife. The major among them is establishing of various projects in order to protect the wildlife. Some of the projects are Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many more.

(C) Which of the following is the most important human activity Leading to the extinction of wildlife?
(a) Increased pollution of air, water and land
(b) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats.
(c) Hunting of wild animals for valuable wildlife products
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

(D) Which of the following will not be a result of uncovering half of the forest covering of the earth?
(a) Some wildlife species will become extinct
(b) Soil erosion will increase
(c) It will lead to climatic changes
(d) Forest dwelling people will be benefited.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is the name given to a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Bio-reserve
(d) Bio-ecology
Answer:
(c) Bio-reserve

Explanation: Bio-reserve is a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity. The central area preserves the flora and fauna. The surrounding zone is utilized for research and experiments regarding conservation of bio-diversity.

Question 8.
The first phase of the Ganga action plan was inaugurated by late Rajiv Gandhi at Rajendra prasad ghat of Banaras. The National Protection Agency was constituted for its implementation. During the first phase of Ganga Action Plan 256 schemes of 462 crores were undertaken in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. Special stations have been created to check the quality of water. The experts from Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and National Environment Engineering Research Institute were appointed to check the quality of the water.

The main purpose of the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project launched by the government in 1985 was to:
(a) Build new dams over the Ganga river
(b) Make its water pollution free
(c) Utilize the river water for irrigation purposes
(d) Promote the growth of water sports in the river
Answer:

Question 9.
India’s water situation is dire. There are no two ways around it. Around 2,00,000 people die every year due to inadequate access to safe water, 21 major cities will run out of groundwater by 2020, 75% of households do not have access to drinking water at home and 70% of India’s water is contaminated. Plus the problem is only going to get more severe, as the population grows, while water becomes even more scarce. It should be evident, then that India is facing a water crisis, one that whoever comes to power would be expected to help resolve.

(A) The main causes of contamination of water are:
(I) Burning of fossil fuels
(II) Dissolved oxygen
(III) Untreated sewage
(IV) Agricultural runoff
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Canals, rivers and lakes in India often serve as dumping grounds for sewage, solid and liquid wastes. Water pollution is a major environmental issue in India. The largest source of water pollution in India is untreated sewage. Other sources is of pollution include agricultural runoff and unregulated small-scale industry. Burning of fossil fuels releases harmful gases like carbon dioxide, oxides of suLphur and nitrogen which cause acid rain and pollute the water bodies. Dissolved oxygen, when released in water, helps aquatic plants and animals for respiration. So it does not cause pollution, but the removal of dissolved oxygen causes pollution.

(B) Which of the following is not the main cause of water scarcity in India?
(a) Climate change
(b) River pollution
(c) Natural disasters
(d) Groundwater extraction and irrigation
Answer:

(C) The main purpose of water harvesting is to:
(a) Use surface water for irrigation.
(b) Recharge ground water.
(c) Collect water directly for domestic use
(d) Refill lake water and other water bodies.
Answer:

(D) The aims of Watershed management is:
(a) To increase the biomass production.
(b) To develop primary resources of land and water
(c) To produce secondary resources of plants and animals.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Through watershed manage¬ment, one can implement plans, projects that sustain and enhance watershed functions. Watershed functions include capturing, storing and recharging groundwater, filtering out water pollutants, and secure release of rainwater to avoid floods during heavy rainfalls. Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. The aim is to develop primary resources of land and water, to produce secondary resources of plants and animals for use in a manner which will not cause ecological imbalance.

(E) Some of the ancient water harvesting alongwith states where these were built are listed in the table below. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Ancient water harvesting	State where built
(a) Khadins	Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bandharas	Maharashtra
(c) Bundhis	Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ahars	Bihar

Answer:
(a) Ancient water hervesting: Khadins State where buiLt: Utter Pradesh

Explanation: Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India. Khadins, tanks and nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas and tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, ahars and pynes in Bihar, kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu region, and eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu, surangams in Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka are some of the ancient water harvestings, including water conveyance, structures still in use today.

Question 10.
Groundwater, which can be used by people, constitutes only 0.8% of total water voLume while the rest Lies in the form of oceans and snow on mountains and glaciers. A growing population combined with huge demand of water for development purposes has put excessive stress on available water resources. The uneven distribution of water resources, artificial modification of natural flow of rivers and human abuse are the main reasons for the looming water crisis in India.The situation of groundwater is critical in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. These states need urgent attention from the government and the implementation of proper water management techniques to prevent severe water crises.

In addition to low rainfall, what are the other reasons for non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country?
Answer:
The reasons for the non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country are:

No proper rain water harvesting systems in these areas.
Pollution of water due to mixing of industrial and domestic waste making it unfit for drinking purposes.

Question 11.
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in the state of Telangana. It is India’s largest Masonry Dams built till date. It is the largest manmade lake in the world. It has 26 gates and is 1.55 km in length. It is situated on the river Krishna.

Construction of a dam on a river often results in the reduction of fish catch. Why is it so?
Answer:
Fish populations are highly dependent upon the characteristics of their aquatic habitat which supports all their biological functions. The water stored by constructing dams is stagnant water whereas fishes breed in clean and running water due to which their population decreases and fish catch also reduces.

Question 12.
Sanjay visited a National park with his parents to observe wild life. As they were entered the forest area, they observed logs of teak wood being transported from the forest in big trucks by a contractor.

Will the local people also behave in a similar manner? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the local people will not behave in this manner. The reason is that the local people are dependent on the forest for their day to day sustenance since generations whereas for the contractor it is just a means of earning his livelihood. Once all the trees of a particular forest have been cut, the contractor will simply move on to a new forest.

Question 13.
You must be aware that the Indus valley civilization had been famous for its irrigation and water harvesting techniques and thus when it comes to Rain Water Harvesting, India has its pride. But why is it that despite having such an elaborate system and knowledge, the country is facing such extreme water shortage conditions? Bavaria are unique stepwells that were once a part of the ancient networks of water storage in the cities of Rajasthan. The irtle rain that the region received would be diverted to man-made tanks through canals built on the hilly outskirts of cities.The water would then percolate into the ground. raising the water table and recharging a deep and intricate network of aquifers. To minimise water loss through evaporation, a series of layered steps were built around the reservoirs to narrow and deepen the wells.

What are the advantages of water harvesting techniques?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the process of accumulating and storing rainwater for on-site use instead of allowing it to run off Rainwater provides an independent and free water supply that offers several ways the water can be used. It reduces soil erosion arid flooding, reduces demand an ground warer. makes water available for non-drinking purposes and helps in plant growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Make a list of few industries that are dependent on forest products.
Answer:
Forest product-dependent industries are: Timber, paper, lac and sports equipment industries.

Question 2.
Is Water conservation necessary? Give reason.
Answer:
Water conservation is necessary as availability of water on Earth is more than enough for all but due to its uneven distribution, wide seasonal fluctuations in rainfall and majority of available water being saline, conservation is highly important for future generations.

Question 3.
How is the increase in demand for energy affecting atmosphere?
Answer:
Overconsumption and increase in demand of fossil fuels releases a huge amount of polluting gases into the atmosphere, which in turn causes global warming and also produces acid rain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 14 MCQs On Sources of Energy

Sources Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Wood
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Wind
Answer:
(c) Fossil fuels

Explanation: Non-renewable sources are those sources that are present in a limited amount and once finished cannot be renewed again for millions of years.

Wood comes from trees, so it is a renewable source of energy. The Sun and wind are also renewable sources of energy but fossil fuels are non-renewable (conventional sources). Once they are used up, they can’t be renewed again, so we need to conserve them.

Towards Green Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
In a hydropower plant:
(a) the potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) the kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) electricity is extracted from water
(d) water is converted into steam to produce electricity
Answer:

MCQ On Sources Of Energy Question 3.
Ocean thermal energy is due to:
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising in the ocean
Answer:

Source Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The major probLem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to:
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 5.
Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(a) Coating with black coLour inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker
Answer:
(c) Gloss sheet

Explanation: Sotar cookers are covered with a glass plate which traps infrared radiations (heat) from sunlight and does not allow them to escape. In other words, we can say that it provides a greenhouse effect. Solar cookers achieve a higher temperature by using mirrors to focus the rays of the Sun.

Related Theory

The trapping of heat in the environment due to the presence of greenhouse gases like CO₂, methane, water vapour etc. causes the greenhouse effect. This raises the temperature of Earth.

MCQs On Sources Of Energy Question 6.
The main constituent of biogas is:
(a) methane
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen
(d) hydrogen sulfide
Answer:
(a) methane

Explanation: Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood. charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high. It is also used for lighting.

Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 7.
The power generated in a windmill:
(a) is more in the rainy season, since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
Answer:

Source Of Energy MCQ Question 8.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside Earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting sources of energy
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off
Answer:

MCQ Of Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 9.
In a hydroelectric power plant, more electrical power can be generated if waterfalls from a greater height because:
(a) its temperature increases
(b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
(c) the electricity content of water increases with height
(d) more water molecules dissociate into ions
Answer:

Ch 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
The biggest source of energy on Earth’s surface is:
(A) Biomass
(B) Solar radiations
(C) Tides
(D) Winds
Answer:

Sources Of Energy MCQ Class 10 Question 11.
Which is the type of system where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on the surface of the water?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Wave energy
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(d) Solar energy
Answer:
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion

Explanation: Absorption of heat from the sun by the seas and oceans, solar radiation causes ocean currents and moderate temperature gradients from the water surface downward especially in tropical waters.

MCQ Of Chapter 14 Science Class 10 Question 12.
The correct energy conversion taking place in a hydroelectric power plant is:
(a) Potential energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(b) Potential energy of turbine → Kinetic Energy of water → Electrical energy
(c) Heat energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(d) Potential energy of water → Heat Energy → Electrical energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions On Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following are non-conventional sources of energy:
(I) Wind energy
(II) Water
(III) Solar energy
(IV) Geothermal energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Chapter 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Approximately what percentage of energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants?
(a) 10 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 50 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %

Explanation: A quarter or 25 % of the energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants. But we are still largely dependent upon coal and petroleum for meeting our energy requirements.

Class 10 Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 15.
The table below lists the sources of energy and whether they are exhaustible or non-exhaustible. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Source of energy	Whether exhaustible or non- exhaustible
(a) Fossil fuel	Exhaustible
(b) Wind	Non-exhaustible
(c) Water	Exhaustible
(d) Solar	Non-exhaustible

Question 16.
Two fuels obtained from biomass are:
(a) Coal and biogas
(b) Petroleum and natural gas
(c) Charcoal and biogas
(d) Charcoal and natural gas
Answer:
(c) Charcoal and biogas

Two fuels obtained from biomass are:

Explanation: When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, water and volatile materials present in it get removed and charcoal is left behind as the residue. Charcoal burns without flames is comparatively smokeless and has a higher heat generation efficiency. Similarly, cow-dung, various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in the absence of oxygen to give biogas.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 14

For the following questions, two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the Other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): In a wind energy farm, a number of windmills are erected over a large area.
Reason (R): The output of a single windmill is quite small and cannot be used for commercial purposes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): All exhaustible sources of energy are non-renewable.
Reason (R): Energy sources that cannot be regenerated are called renewable sources of energy.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Geothermal energy is the energy produced by the heat of molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust. This energy is harnessed to generate electricity. When water is made to flow deep underground in the rocks it returns as steam (or hot water, which is later converted to steam) to drive a turbine on an electric power generator.
In India, exploration and study of geothermal fields started in 1970. The Geological Survey in India has identified 350 geothermal energy locations, in the country. The most promising of these is in Puga Valley of Ladakh. The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is about 10000 MW. There are seven geothermal provinces in India namely the Himalayas, Sohna, West coast, Cambay, Son- Narmada-Tapi; Godavari and Mahanadi. Most power stations in India produce Alternating Current (A.C).
(A) What are geothermal energy hot-spots?
Answer:
Though the total energy stored in the earth is very vast, but geothermal energy can be harnessed only in particular areas. The particular areas where geothermal energy can be harnessed are called geothermal hot spots.

(B) Name two countries, other than India, where power plants based on geothermal energy are operational.
Answer:

(C) Name the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.
Answer:
Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.

Explanation: An electric generator is a machine which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction can be seen as:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 1
The phenomenon of generation of an electric current in a circuit from magnetic effects is called electromagnetic induction.

(D) State an important advantage of using AC over DC.
Answer:
An important advantage of using AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.

Related Theory
The frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz. DC always flows in one direction, whereas AC reverses its direction periodically. AC can also be changed to DC whenever required

Question 2.
Acid rain as the name suggests can be said to be the precipitation of acid in the form of rain in the simplest manner. Taj Mahal, one of the 7 wonders of the world, is Largely affected by acid rain.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 2
Acid rain happens because:
(a) the Sun causes the heating of the upper layer of atmosphere
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
(c) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds
(d) Earth atmosphere contains acids
Answer:
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere

Explanation: The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic oxides. These lead to acid rain, which affects our water and soil resources.

Related Theory
The activities (polluting the atmosphere by industrial exhausts), as well as natural phenomena (emission of volcanos), cause acid rain due to the above mentioned oxides that are released.

Question 3.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. The country’s solar installed capacity reached 30.071 GW as of 31 July, 2019. India has the lowest capital cost per MW to install solar power plants. Solar electricity generation recorded nearly 3.4% of total utility electricity generation in January 2019. The following table shows Annual Solar Power Generation of the last six years.

Year	Solar Power Generation(TWh)
2013-14	3.35
2014-15	4.60
2015-16	7.45
2017-18	25.87
2018-19	39.27

Our country is lucky to receive solar energy for the greater part of the year. It is estimated that during a year India receives the energy equivalent to more than 5000 trillion kWh from the Sun.
(A) What are solar cells?
Answer:
Solar cells are devices which convert Solar energy (Sun’s energy) directly into electricity. A solar cell is also known as a solar photovoltaic (SPV) cell.

Related Theory
A solar cell is made of element silicon. It consists of square piece of silicon. The electric power generated by a single solar cell is very small. So a number of cells are joined together to form a solar panel.

(B) How much voltage can be developed and how much electricity can be produced by one typical solar cell when exposed to the Sun?.
Answer:
One typical cell produces a voltage of 0.5V-1V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the sun.

Related Theory
Solar devices like solar cooker, solar geyser etc. also use solar energy but can be used only at certain times during the days. This limitation was overcome by combining solar cells in an arrangement called solar cell panel

(D) List two advantages of solar cells.
Answer:
Advantages of solar cells: The solar cells

have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work satisfactorily without the use of any focusing device.
can be set up in remote and inaccessible area or very sparsely inhabited arons

Question 4.
Thermal power plants have been in operation since quite some time. Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) has commenced civil works at 660 MW Sagardighi supercritical thermal power project in the state of West Bengal. BHEL is a manufacturer of power generation equipment with an installed base of over 1,90,000 MW power plant equipment globally.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 3
The fuel used in thermal power plants is:
(a) water
(b) uranium
(c) biomass
(d) fossil fuels
Answer:

Question 5.
Renewable energy sources such as wind energy are vital for the Indian economy, not only from the point of view of supply, but also from the perspective of environmental and social benefits. India is the world’s fifth largest wind-power producer and the largest windmill facilities in India are installed in Tamil Nadu. Muppandal is a small village of Tamil Nadu and one of the most important sites of wind-farm in the state. It uses wind from the Arabian Sea to produce renewable energy. The suitability of Muppandal as a site for wind farms stems from its geographical location as it has access to the seasonal monsoon winds.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 4
The electrical generators used on wind turbines in sites like Muppandal, produce an output AC of 240 V and a frequency of 50 Hz even when the wind speed is fluctuating. A transformer may be required to increase or decrease the voltage so it is compatible with the end usage, distribution or transmission voltage, depending on the type of interconnection.
(A) State the principle behind electric generator.
Answer:
The principle behind electric generator is Electromagnetic Induction- the pheno¬menon of producing current in a coil by changing the magnetic field associated with it.

(B) The output frequency of wind turbine is 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement?
Answer:
The polarity of the output alternating current changes every $\frac{1}{100}$ seconds.

Alternately:
In 1 second the output (AC) completes 50 cycles.

(D) Based on the data represented in the graph below, which of the two cities A or B would be an ideal location for establishing a wind-farm and why?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 5
Answer:
City A

It is more suitable for a wind-farm as there is consistently high wind-speed in that city throughout the year.

Question 6.
A nuclear power plant is a thermal power station in which the heat source is a nuclear reactor. As is typical of thermal power stations, heat is used to generate steam that drives a steam turbine connected to a generator that produces electricity. As of 2018, the International Atomic Energy Agency reported there were 450 nuclear power reactors in operation in 30 countries around the world.

Nuclear power is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity and wind power. As of November 2020, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants, with a total installed capacity of 6,780 MW.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 6
Which one of the following statements is not true about nuclear energy generation in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Energy is obtained by a process called nuclear fission.
(b) The nucleus of Uranium is bombarded with high energy neutrons.
(c) A chain reaction is set in the process
(d) In this process a tremendous amount of energy is released at a controlled rate.
Answer:
(b) The nucleus of uranium is bombarded in the high energy neutrons.
Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fission of nuclear fuel takes place to generate nuclear energy. Nuclear energy is released when nueleus of uranium is bombarded with low energy neutrons. Hence, this statement (b) is incorrect. All other three statements are correct.

Nuclear fission is the phenomenon of splitting of Uranium (heavy atom) into two medium weight nuclei. When it is bombarded with a slow neutron. A large amount of energy is released. In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fuel is a part of a self sustaining fission chain reaction that releases energy at a controlled rate.

Chain reaction:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 7
The fission of an atom of uranium produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal.

Question 7.
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the World. The Tehri dam withholds a reservior of capacity 4.0 km3 and surface area 52 km2. It is used for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 MW of hydro electricity.
The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests. Environment activist Shri Sunder Lai Bahuguna led the ‘Anti Tehri Dam Movement” from 1980s to 2014. The protest was against the displacement of town inhabitants and environmental consequences of the weak ecosystem. The relocation of more than 1,00,000 people from the area has led to protracted legal bat over resettlement rights and ultimately resulted in the delayed completion of the project.
(A) How is hydropower harnessed?
Answer:

(B) Define 1 MW.
Answer:
1 mW is a unit for measuring power (megawatt)
1 mW = 1000 kW 1 kW = 1000 W 1 mW = 106 W

Large ecosystems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
The vegetation which is submerged rots under anaerobic conditions and release a large amount of methane gas which is a green-house gas.
Large areas of agricultural land is used.
It creates a problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of displaced people

(D) What happens when water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine?
Answer:
When water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine, the potential energy of the water changes into kinetic energy which is transferred to the turbine. Moving turbine rotates the armature of a generator and kinetic energy of water changes to electricity.

Question 8.
Take two conical flasks and paint one white and the other black. Fill both with water. Place the conical flasks in direct sunlight for half an hour to one hour. Touch the conical flasks. You could also measure the temperature of the water in the two conical flasks with a thermometer.

Next, study the structure and working of a solar cooker and/or a solar water-heater, particularly with regard to how it is insulated and maximum heat absorption is ensured. Design and build a solar cooker or water- heater using low-cost material available and check what temperatures are achieved in your system.
(A) In the first activity, two conical flasks, one painted white and the other black, are filled with water and then placed in direct sunlight, for half an hour. Select the correct observation regarding their temperature:
(a) Both the conical flasks will be equally hot.
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.
(c) The conical flask painted white will be hotter.
(d) The conical flask painted white will absorb more heat
Answer:
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.

Explanation: The conical flask painted black will be hotter as compared to the flask painted white as a black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(B) The parts of a box – type solar cooker is given below. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Part	Description
(a) Black box	An insulated metal, or wooden box which is painted white from the inside to radiate more heat.
(b) Glass cover	Made of two sheets of toughened glass held together in an aluminium frame.
(c) Plane Mirror	Plane mirror is fixed to the box with the help of hinges and it acts as a reflector
(d) Cooking Containers	A set of aluminium containers blackened from the outside are kept in the box

Answer:

(C) The property used by solar cookers and solar water heaters is:
(a) A reflector absorbs more heat as compared to a white surface under identical conditions.
(b) Black surface reduces loss of heat by radiation.
(c) White surface absorbs more heat as compared to a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
Answer:
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(D) The purpose of a glass sheet fixed on the box of the solar cooker is:
(a) To focus sun’s radiations at one point.
(b) To absorb maximum heat of the sun’s rays.
(c) To prevent heat from escaping escape from the cooker box.
(d) To reflect sun’s rays towards the cooker box.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a limitation of solar cooker?
(a) Some solar cookers take longer to cook food than a conventional stove or an oven.
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.
(c) It can be used only at certain time of the day.
(d) It cannot be used during nights and rainy days.
Answer:
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.

Explanation: As solar cooker uses only solar energy, there is no pollution caused as it does not use carbon dioxide based fuels and hence carbon footprint is reduced.

Question 9.
When Poorva visited Bengaluru along with her parents, she noticed that most houses had solar panels installed on their roof top. However, despite their ability to generate clean, green electricity, solar panels aren’t as commonplace as the could be. The main sticking point, of course, is price. Due to their need for relatively expensive semiconductor materials, conventional solar cells don’t yet have a price-efficiency combination that can compete with other sources of electricity. A conventional solar cell is made of a thin wafer of a semiconductor with a metallic electrode deposited on its rear side.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
The values of voltage developed in a solar cell and power of a solar cell when exposed to electricity are given in the following table. Select the row containing the correct values:

Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell	Power Produced in a Solar Cell
(a) 0.7 V	0.5-1.0 kW
(b) 0.5-1.0 V	0.7 W
(c) 5-10 V	0.7 kW
(d) 1.5-2.0 V	7 W

Answer:
(b) Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell: 0.5 -1.0 V; Power Produced in a Solar Cell: 0.7 W
Explanation: A typical solar cell develops a voltage of 0.5-1 V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the Sun.

Question 10.
Discuss in class the question of what is the ultimate source of energy for bio-mass, wind and ocean thermal energy.
Gather information about various energy sources and how each one affects the environment.
Debate the merits and demerits of each source and select the best source of energy on this basis.
(A) The ultimate source of energy for bio¬mass is:
(a) Living organisms
(b) Sun
(c) Water
(d) Earth
Answer:
(b)sun

Explanation: The ultimate source of energy for bio-mass is the sun as these fuels are plant and animal products and plants and animals ultimately depend on sun for their energy needs.

(B) Following statements are given below regarding wind energy and nuclear energy.
Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Wind energy does not contaminate the environment but nuclear energy may contaminate the environment.
(II) Efficiency of wind energy farms is less than that of nuclear plants.
(III) Wind energy farms can be set up anywhere whereas nuclear power plants can be set up only at specific locations.
(IV) Both are non-conventional sources of energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The wind energy farms can be set up only at specific locations where wind blows for the greater part of a year and the wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/

(C) Select the correct statement regarding different sources of energy:
(a) Geothermal energy makes use of steam trapped in rocks due to geological changes.
(b) Nuclear energy makes use of chemical reactions between different atoms to produce energy.
(c) Hydroelectricity makes use of gravitational pull of the moon on the spinning earth.
(d) Wave energy makes use of potential energy possessed by the waves.
Answer:

(D) Out of coal, petroleum, solar energy and wind, minimum pollution is caused by:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
Answer:

(E) Which of the following factor does not affect the?
(a) Ease of extracting energy from that source.
(b) Economics of extracting energy from the source and efficiency of the technology available.
(c) Environmental damage that will be caused by using that source.
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value
Answer:
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value

Explanation: All the above factors affect the choice of a particular source of energy.

Question 11.
Shaurya visited her paternal village after quite some time. She was pleasantly surprised to see that most of the houses had biogas chulhas at their place as a biogas plant was built by an NGO at the village.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 9
Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel?
Answer:

Question 12.
Wind power is one of the fastest-growing renewable energy technologies. Usage is on the rise worldwide, because costs are falling. Global installed wind-generation capacity onshore and offshore has increased by a factor of almost 75 in the past two decades, jumping from 7.5 gigawatts (GW) in 1997 to some 564 GW by 2018. Production of wind electricity doubled between 2009 and 2013, and in 2016 wind energy accounted for 16% of the electricity generated by renewables. Many parts of the world have strong wind speeds, but the best locations for generating wind power are sometimes remote ones. Offshore wind power offers tremendous potential.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 10
The power curve of a wind turbine is a graph that indicates how large the electrical power output will be for the turbine at different wind speeds. At very low wind speeds, the torque exerted by the wind on the blades is insufficient to bring the turbine to rotate. The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is typically between 3 and 4 m/s. Above the cut-in wind speed, there is sufficient torque for rotation, and power production increases before reaching a threshold. The lowest wind speed at which the nominal power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is typically between 12 and 17 m/s. The cut-off wind speed corresponds to the maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power and is usually about 25 m/s.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 11
(A) Study the above power graph and select the row containing the correct information:

Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached	Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity	Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safety Support while Generating Power
(a) 12 m/s	3 m/s	22 m/s
(b) 3 m/s	12 m/s	22 m/s
(c) 3 m/s	22 m/s	12 m/s
(d) 22 m/s	3 m/s	12 m/s

Answer:
(a) Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached: 12 m/s ;
Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity : 3 m/s ;
Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safely Support while Generating Power: 22 m/s

Explanation: The lowest wind speed at which the nominaL power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is about 12 m/s.
The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is about 3 m/s.
The maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power is the cut-off speed and is about 22 m/s.

(B) In a water-lifting pump:
(a) The up and down motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(b) The horizontal motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(c) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to horizontal motion.
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.
Answer:
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.

Explanation: A water pumping windmill is simple, and efficient. The blades of the windmill wheel catch the wind, which turns the rotor. The wheel assembly is attached to a hub assembly, which drives a geared mechanism that converts the rotary motion to an up-and-down motion. This motion drives a pump rod, up and down inside of a pipe in the well. A cylinder with a sealed plunger going up and down inside forces the water up the pipe.

(C) Select the correct statements regarding wind mills:
(I) The rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the turbine of the electric generator.
(II) The output of a single windmill is quite large and can be used for commercial purposes.
(III) A wind energy farm is a large area where a number of windmills are erected.
(IV) The energy output of each windmill in a farm is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of these processes explains the extraction of energy from wind to do work?
(a) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into kinetic energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy
(c) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into potential energy
(d) conversion of potential energy of wind into mechanical energy
Answer:

(E) The minimum wind speed to maintain the required speed of the turbine is:
(a) 15 km/h
(b) 18 km/h
(c) 20 km/h
(d) 25 km/h
Answer:

Question 13.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. India is endowed with vast solar energy potential. About 5,000 trillion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day. Solar photovoltaics power can effectively be harnessed providing huge scalability in India. Solar also provides the ability to generate power on a distributed basis and enables rapid capacity addition with short lead times. Off-grid decentralized and low- temperature applications will be advantageous from a rural electrification perspective and meeting other energy needs for power and heating and cooling in both rural and urban areas. Solar energy has taken a central place in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change with National Solar Mission as one of the key Missions. Recently, India achieved 5th global position in solar power deployment by surpassing Italy. Solar power capacity has increased by more than 11 times in the last five years from 2.6 GW in March,2014 to 30 GW in July, 2019.

The following graph shows annual solar power generation of the last seven years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 12
(A) ApproximateLy what percentage of solar energy incident on earth’s outer atmosphere reaches the earth’s surface?
(a)20%
(c)30%
(c)50%
(d)80%
Answer:
(c) 50 %

Explanation: Only a small part of soLar energy reaches the outer layer of the earth’s atmosphere. Nearly half of it is absorbed while passing through the atmosphere and the rest reaches the earth’s surface.

(B) The average solar energy incident over India’s Land area is given in tabLe beLow.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Solar Energy Incident over India’s Land Area per Year	Average Solar Energy Incident per sq. m per Doy
(a) 2500 billion kWh	40-70 Wh
(b) 5000 trillion kWh	4-7 kWh
(c) 500 trilLion kWh	4-7 Wh
(d) 5000 billion kWh	0.4-0.7 kWh

Answer:
(b) Solar energy incictent over India’s land Area per year: 5000 trillion kWh: Average solar Energy incident Sq.m per Days 4-7 kWh ”

Explanation: About 5,000 triLlion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day.

(C) Energy conversion taking place in solar cell is:
(a) Solar energy is converted to Chemical energy
(b) Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy
(c) Heat energy is converted to Light energy
(d) Solar energy is converted to electrical energy
Answer:

(D) The advantages of using solar cells are given below. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) They have no moving parts.
(II) They make use of focusing devices for satisfactory performance.
(III) They can be set up in remote areas where laying of a power transmission line may be expensive.
(IV) Special grade silicon used in making solar cells are abundantly available
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Solar cells work quite satisfactorily without the use of any focusing devices. Silicon, which is used for making solar cells, is abundant in nature but availability of the special grade silicon for making solar cells is limited.

(E) The substance used for interconnection of cells in solar panel is:
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Platinum
(d) Copper
Answer:

Question 14.
Sardar Sarovar Dam (SSD), on the Narmada river, is located in the village of Kevadia in the state of Gujarat. It is one of the largest and most controversial interstate, multipurpose river valley infrastructure development projects in the country. The Sardar Sarovar Project (SSP) also consists of auxiliary works and a 1,450 MW power complex.
SSP was estimated to have cost INR 400bn ($8bn) in 2010-2011, revised from the initial estimate of INR 64bn ($1.25bn) in 1988. It is part of the Narmada Valley Development Project, a major plan to generate power and supply water for drinking and irrigation to states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. The scheme was conceived by the late Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1946¬1947. It envisages the construction of 30 major dams, 135 medium and 3,000 smaller dams along the river, with SSD being the largest of them all. They are expected to generate about 4,000 MW of power in total.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
(A) In hydroelectric power plants:
(a) Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
(b) Wind energy is converted to solar energy
(c) Solar energy is converted to wind energy
(d) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
Answer:

(B) Hydroelectric power plant uses :
(a) Non-renewable source of energy
(b) Non-conventional source of energy
(c) Conventional source of energy
(d) Exhaustible source of energy
Answer:
(c) Conventional source of energy

Explanation: Hydroelectric power plant uses water, which is a conventional source of energy and Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. It is a non-exhaustible source of energy as water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains.

(C) Given below are statements regarding problems associated with constructions of big dams.
Select the correct statements.
(I) The dams can be constructed only along the river course in plain areas.
(II) Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation are to be sacrificed as they get submerged.
(III) Large eco-systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
(IV) The submerged vegetation rots and produces large amounts of carbon dioxide, a green house gas.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:
(a) 1.450 MW
(b) 1450 kW
(c) 1450 MW
(d) 4000 MW
Answer:
(c) 1450 MW

The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:

(E) The table below lists the comparison between thermal power plant and hydro power plant. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Thermal Power Plant	Hydropower Plant
(a) Fossil fuels are burned to produce steam which runs turbine	The kinetic energy of water is used to run turbine
(b) Set up near coal or oil fields	Set up near oceans
(c) Causes pollution	Is pollution free
(d) Does not affect ecosystem	Affects ecosystem

Answer:
(b) Thermal Power Plant: Set up near coal or oil fields; Hydropower Plant: Set up near oceans

Explanation: Thermal power plants are usually set up near coal or oil fields to reduce the cost of transportation of coal or petroleum. In order to produce hydel electricity, high-rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs.

Question 15.
Nuclear energy can be used to create electricity, but it must first be released from the atom. In the process of nuclear fission, atoms are split to release that energy. A nuclear reactor, or power plant, is a series of machines that can control nuclear fission to produce electricity. The fuel that nuclear reactors use to produce nuclear fission is pellets of the element uranium. Nuclear energy produces electricity that can be used to power homes, schools, businesses, and hospitals. The first nuclear reactor to produce electricity was located near Area, Idaho. The Experimental Breeder Reactor began powering itself in 1951. The first nuclear power plant designed to provide energy to a community was established in Obninsk, Russia, in 1954.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 14
(A) The table below lists the fuel, process involved and principle used for generating nuclear energy. Select the row containing the correct information:

Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements regarding nuclear reactors designed for electric power generation are incorrect?
(I) In a nuclear reactor designed for electric power generation the nuclear fuel undergoes fusion.
(II) A self sustaining chain reaction takes place.
(III) Energy is released at an uncontrolled rate.
(IV) The released energy is used to produce steam and further generate electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:

(C) In nuclear fission, a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with:
(a) A slow moving neutron
(b) A fast moving neutron
(c) A slow moving proton
(d) A fast moving electron
Answer:
(a) A slow moving neutron
Explanation: In nuclear fission, when a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with a slow moving neutron, the nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei.

(D) The major hazard of nuclear power generation is:
(a) It produces lot of smoke
(b) Storage and disposal of spent fuels
(c) Limited availability of uranium
(d) Uncontrolled chain reaction
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a reason for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive?
(a) Risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.
(b) High cost of installation of a nuclear power plant.
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination
(d) Limited availability of uranium.
Answer:
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination

Explanation: Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal result in environmental contamination which is one of the reasons for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive.

Question 16.
Koyal was reading about harnessing the energy from the ocean. She read about the OTEC technology which generates electricity from turbines turned by steam produced from heating the warmer surface waters of the sea into steam. The steam is then condensed by the deeper colder waters which are pumped up from depths of around 1000 metres.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 16
What is the operating principal in OTEC systems?
Answer:
The OTEC or Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion systems work on the principle that there is a temperature difference between the water at the surface of the ocean is about 20 k warmer than the water at depths up to 2 km which is used to boil a volatile liquid whose vapours are then used to run the turbine of a generator.

Question 17.
Wind power is arguably one of the oldest human technologies. Today, wind power is symbolized in most people’s minds by a big, white, monolithic wind turbine. As we try to move into the post-carbon era, it’s worth remembering that only wind, nuclear, and solar have the same technical potential to provide energy as fossil fuels do today. Perhaps the face of future power generation won’t be huge smokestacks, but fields of wind turbines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 17
What are the factors which limit the use of wind energy?
Answer:
The factors which limit the use of wind energy are that the wind energy farms can be established only at places where wind blows for the greater part of the year and wind speed should also be greater than 15 km/h.

Question 18.
Geothermal energy, form of energy conversion in which heat energy from within the earth is captured and harnessed for cooking, bathing, space heating, electrical power generation, and other uses.Heat from Eorths interior generates surface phenomena such as lava flows, geysers, fumaroles, hot spíings, and mud pots. The heat is produced mainly by the radioactive decay of potassium, thorium, and uranium ¡n Earth’s crust and mantle and also by friction generated along the margins of continental plates.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 18
What are hot spots? How are they different from hot springs?
Answer:
Hot spots are the regions in the earth’s crust where molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust are pushed and trapped. Hot springs are the outlets on the surface of the earth from where hot water comes out.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two constituents of biogas.
Answer:
The two constituents of biogas are:
(1) Methane
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Hydrogen sulphide

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management with Answers

Crop Production and Management Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Crop Production and Management Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 1 MCQs On Crop Production and Management

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 1.
The process of loosening of the soil is called
(a) tilling
(b) harvesting
(c) spraying
(d) weeding

Answer

Answer: (a) tilling

Crop Production And Management Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
Which is pesticides?
(a) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(b) Malathion
(c) Metolachlor
(d) Chloroform

Answer

Answer: (b) Malathion

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Question 3.
Seed drill is used for
(a) harvesting
(b) cleaning the seed
(c) sowing
(d) weeding

Answer

Answer: (c) sowing

Class 8 Science Ch 1 MCQ Question 4.
Rabi crop is harvested in
(a) January
(b) March
(c) October
(d) September

Answer

Answer: (b) March

Crop Production And Management MCQ Question 5.
Maize grow well during
(a) June
(b) January
(c) April
(d) September

Answer

Answer: (a) June

Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
The agricultural instrument used for removal of weed is
(a) sickle
(b) khurpi
(c) seed drill
(d) plough

Answer

Answer: (b) khurpi

Class 8 Chapter 1 Science MCQ Question 7.
Transplantation of seedling is done in
(a) coffee
(b) cocoa
(c) rice
(d) mango

Answer

Answer: (c) rice

Science Class 8 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
Compost is a
(a) manure
(b) fertiliser
(c) pesticide
(d) weedicide

Answer

Answer: (a) manure

Chapter 1 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
BHC (Benzene hexachloride) is a
(a) weedicide
(b) fertiliser
(c) fungicide
(d) pesticides

Answer

Answer: (d) pesticides

Ch 1 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
The chemical substances rich in nutrients are called
(a) fertiliser
(b) weedicide
(c) pesticides
(d) herbicides

Answer

Answer: (a) fertiliser

Class 8th Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 11.
The process of separation of grain from the chaff after harvesting is known as
(a) tilling
(b) threshing
(c) spraying
(d) weeding

Answer

Answer: (b) threshing

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Chapter 1 Question 12.
The soil matter formed by decayed organic matter is called
(a) pesticide
(b) fertiliser
(c) humus
(d) biocide

Answer

Answer: (c) humus

MCQ Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Question 13.
Supply of water to crops at appropriate intervals is called
(a) cultivation
(b) irrigation
(c) harvesting
(d) sowing

Answer

Answer: (b) irrigation

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Which simple tool is used to remove weeds?
(a) Sickle
(b) Plough
(c) Hoe
(d) Seed drill

Answer

Answer: (c) Hoe

Science Chapter 1 Class 8 MCQ Question 15.
Which instrument is used for spraying weedicides?
(a) Sprayer
(b) Cultivator
(c) Plough
(d) Combine

Answer

Answer: (a) Sprayer

Match the following items given in Column ‘A with that in Column ‘B’:

Column A	Column B
Plough	Sowing of seeds
Hoe	An irrigation system
Cultivator	Harvesting
Seed drill	Loosening and tilling of soil
Moat	Used for spraying weedicide
Sickle	Removing weeds
Sprayer	Combined harvester and thresher
Combine	Tractor driven tilling device

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Plough	Loosening and tilling of soil
Hoe	Removing weeds
Cultivator	Tractor driven tilling device
Seed drill	Sowing of seeds
Moat	An irrigation system
Sickle	Harvesting
Sprayer	Used for spraying weedicide
Combine	Combined harvester and thresher

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. …………. are the activities used for cultivation of crops.

Answer

Answer: Agricultural practices

2. …………. is a process to loosen soil.

Answer

Answer: Tilling

3. …………. involves putting seeds in soil.

Answer

Answer: Sowing

4. …………. is organic matter obtained from plant or animal wastes.

Answer

Answer: Manure

5. …………. are chemical substances rich in nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium.

Answer

Answer: Fertilisers

6. …………. like paddy, maize grow well during June-October.

Answer

Answer: Kharif crops

7. …………. like wheat, legumes grow well during Nov.-April.

Answer

Answer: Rabi crops

8. …………. include all plants other than the crop.

Answer

Answer: Weeds

9. …………. is removal of weeds.

Answer

Answer: Weeding

10. …………. are chemicals to control growth of weeds.

Answer

Answer: Weedicides

11. …………. are plant products to replace weedicides.

Answer

Answer: Herbicides

12. …………. are chemicals that kill pests which damage crop.

Answer

Answer: Pesticides

13. …………. is cutting off the crop after it has matured.

Answer

Answer: Harvesting

14. …………. is a device to spread seeds in soil.

Answer

Answer: Seed drill.

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Various kinds of plants grown at a place constitute a crop.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Supply of water to crops at appropriate intervals is called irrigation.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Weeding involves removal of weeds (unwanted and uncultivated plants).

Answer

Answer: True

4. Harvesting is the cutting down of the mature crop.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Removal of the grains from the chaff is called threshing.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Proper storage of grain is necessary to protect them from pests and microorganisms.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Sowing of seeds at varying (different) depth and distance gives good yield.

Answer

Answer: True

8. It is better to use fertilisers than organic matiure.

Answer

Answer: False.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Crop Production and Management CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum with Answers

Coal and Petroleum Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Coal and Petroleum Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 5 MCQs On Coal and Petroleum

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Minerals are
(a) natural resources.
(b) inexhaustible natural resources
(c) exhaustible natural resources
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) exhaustible natural resources

Class 8 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
Petroleum is mainly a mixture of which one of the following class?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Carbogens
(c) Hydrocarbons
(d) Alcohols

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrocarbons

Class 8 Science Ch 5 MCQ Question 3.
Which one is not a coal product?
(a) Coal tar
(b) Coal gas
(c) Lime

Answer

Answer: (c) Lime

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Question 4.
Which one of the following is a petrochemical?
(a) Ammonia
(b) Coke
(c) Acetone
(d) Paraffin wax

Answer

Answer: (d) Paraffin wax

Class 8 Chapter 5 Science MCQ Question 5.
Conversion of dead vegetation into coal is called
(a) carbonisation
(b) distillation
(c) coal gas
(d) natural gas

Answer

Answer: (a) carbonisation

Class 8 Coal And Petroleum MCQ Question 6.
Full form of LPG
(a) Light Petroleum Gas
(b) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
(c) Long Pipe of Gas
(d) Long Petroleum Gas

Answer

Answer: (b) Liquefied Petroleum Gas

Ch 5 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
A natural gas stored under high pressure is called
(a) CNG
(b) LPG
(c) KLG
(d) PNP

Answer

Answer: (a) CNG

MCQ For Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Question 8.
Name the petroleum product used for surfacing of road
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous

Answer

Answer: (d) Bituminous

Class 8 Ch 5 Science MCQ Question 9.
Products obtained by the process of destructive distillation are
(a) coke, coal-tar, coal gas
(b) petrol, diesel, kerosene
(c) paraffin wax, bitumen
(d) compressed natural gas

Answer

Answer: (a) coke, coal-tar, coal gas

Chapter 5 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
The mining of oil under sea is termed as
(a) distillation
(b) carbonisation
(c) shore mining
(d) destructive distillation

Answer

Answer: (c) shore mining

Science Class 8 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 11.
Main constituent of LPG is
(a) methane
(b) butane
(c) ethane
(d) propane

Answer

Answer: (b) butane

Class 8 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 12.
Name the petroleum product used for surfacing of roads.
(a) Butane
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bitumen
(d) Hydrocarbon

Answer

Answer: (c) Bitumen

MCQ Of Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Question 13.
Least polluting fuel for vehicles is
(a) coke
(b) kerosene
(c) diesel
(d) CNG

Answer

Answer: (d) CNG

Class 8th Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 14.
Petroleum is found under the
(a) sedimentary rocks
(b) water
(c) sand
(d) coke

Answer

Answer: (a) sedimentary rocks

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Chapter 5 Question 15.
In which of the following places natural gas has not been formed in India?
(a) Tripura
(b) Jaiselmer
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi

Answer

Answer: (d) Delhi

Match the following items given in column ‘A with that in column ‘B’

Column A	Column B
Petroleum	Provide more heat on burning
Coal	Carbon
Oil refinery	Insoluble in water
Good fuels	Wood
Coke	Barauni
Fuels	Produce more energy
CNG	Petroleum product
Bitumen	Non-polluting fuel

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Petroleum	Insoluble in water
Coal	Wood
Oil refinery	Barauni
Good fuels	Produce more energy
Coke	Carbon
Fuels	Provide more heat on burning
CNG	Non-polluting fuel
Bitumen	Petroleum product

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Coke is formed when coal is heated in ………….. of air.

Answer

Answer: absence

2. Pencil lead is made from …………..

Answer

Answer: graphite

3. Coal and petroleum sources are …………..

Answer

Answer: limited

4. Natural gas, petroleum and coal are …………..

Answer

Answer: fossil fuels

5. Kerosene is not a …………..

Answer

Answer: fossil fuel

6. ………….. and ………….. are the crystalline form of carbon.

Answer

Answer: Diamond, graphite

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Coke is harder and denser than charcoal.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Exhaustible sources can’t be exhausted by the human activities.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Fossil fuels are inexhaustible natural resources.

Answer

Answer: False

4. CNG stands for combined natural gas.

Answer

Answer: False

5. We get Naphthalene ball from coal tar.

Answer

Answer: True

6. A good fuel must leave very little ash after burning.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Petroleum is found in pure form under the sedimentary rocks.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Coal and Petroleum CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe with Answers

Microorganisms: Friend and Foe Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Microorganisms: Friend and Foe Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 2 MCQs On Microorganisms: Friend and Foe

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 MCQ Question 1.
Alcohol is produced with the help of
(a) sodium chloride
(b) yeast
(c) nitrogen
(d) carbon dioxide

Answer

Answer: (b) yeast

Microorganisms Friend And Foe Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following drug is an antipyretic?
(a) Insulin
(b) Alcohol
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Paracetamol

Answer

Answer: (d) Paracetamol

Microorganisms Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
What helps in the rise of bread or dosa dough?
(a) Heat
(b) Grinding
(c) Growth of yeast cells
(d) Low pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) Growth of yeast cells

Class 8 Science Ch 2 MCQ Question 4.
The status of algae in the aquatic food chain is
(a) consumers
(b) producers
(c) host
(d) small in size

Answer

Answer: (b) producers

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Question 5.
The rod shaped bacteria are called
(a) Bacillus
(b) Coccus
(c) Vibrio
(d) Spirillum

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacillus

Microorganisms Friend And Foe MCQ Question 6.
Bacteria present in root nodules of pea
(a) Coli
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Penicillin

Answer

Answer: (c) Rhizobium

Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 2 MCQ Question 7.
The microorganism which contains chlorophyll
(a) Virus
(b) Fungus
(c) Algae
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (c) Algae

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Chapter 2 Question 8.
The disease caused by protozoa is
(a) tuberculosis
(b) polio
(c) typhoid
(d) malaria

Answer

Answer: (d) malaria

Class 8 Chapter 2 Science MCQ Question 9.
Which cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Penicillin

Answer

Answer: (d) Penicillin

Ch 2 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
The disease caused by fungi is
(a) measles
(b) chicken pox
(c) polio
(d) ringworm

Answer

Answer: (d) ringworm

Microorganisms MCQ Class 8 Question 11.
Which bacteria helps in settling of curd?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Vibriocholarae
(d) Bacillus

Answer

Answer: (b) Lactobacillus

Science Class 8 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 12.
Which microorganism causes AIDS?
(a) A protozoa
(b) A bacteria
(c) A virus
(d) An algae

Answer

Answer: (c) A virus

Chapter 2 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following disease is spread due to bacteria?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Measles
(c) Chicken pox
(d) Polio

Answer

Answer: (a) Tuberculosis

MCQ For Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Question 14.
Which of the following is not used as food preservatives?
(a) Salt
(b) Sugar
(c) Vinegar
(d) Methane

Answer

Answer: (d) Methane

MCQ Of Microorganisms Class 8 Question 15.
The process by which amount of nitrogen remains the same in the atmosphere is known as
(a) fermentation
(b) carbon cycle
(c) nitrogen cycle
(d) photosynthesis

Answer

Answer: (c) nitrogen cycle

Match the following items given in Column ‘A with that in Column ‘B’:

Column A	Column B
Tuberculosis	Edward Jenner
Chicken pox	Fleming
Malaria	L. Pasteur
Rust of wheat	HIV
Pasteurization	Fungi
Antibiotic	Virus
Vaccination	Bacteria
AIDS	Protozoa

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Tuberculosis	Bacteria
Chicken pox	Virus
Malaria	Protozoa
Rust of wheat	Fungi
Pasteurization	L. Pasteur
Antibiotic	Fleming
Vaccination	Edward Jenner
AIDS	HIV

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. ………….. are the smallest of all microorganisms.

Answer

Answer: Viruses

2. Fungi consist of two main groups of organisms ………….. and moulds.

Answer

Answer: yeast

3. Moulds are aerobic but some yeasts can survive in both aerobic and ………….. conditions.

Answer

Answer: anaerobic

4. The presence of ………….. and the warmth stimulate rapid growth of the yeast cells.

Answer

Answer: sugar

5. Algae are ………….. like organisms and contain chlorophyll.

Answer

Answer: plants

6. Agar is made from a type of red …………..

Answer

Answer: algae

7. Protozoa are ………….. just as algae are plant like.

Answer

Answer: animal like

8. Paramecium is slipper-shaped ………….. and possesses a ………….. for its transport.

Answer

Answer: protozoa, cilia

9. Viruses use the energy of the ………….. cells to reproduce themselves.

Answer

Answer: host

10. Cholera, chicken pox are some well-known examples of ………….. diseases.

Answer

Answer: communicable

11. Carriers of specific microorganisms are called …………..

Answer

Answer: Lactobacillus.

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Microorganisms can be found only in air and water.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Protozoa cause diseases like dysentery and malaria.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Jams, jellies and squashes are preserved by adding salt.

Answer

Answer: False

4. Some bacteria and blue green algae present in the soil fix nitrogen from atmosphere and convert into nitrogenous compounds.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium.

Answer

Answer: True.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Microorganisms: Friend and Foe CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers

Motion and Time Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Motion and Time Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 13 MCQs On Motion

Choose the correct answer:

Motion And Time Class 7 MCQ Question 1.
A bus travels 54 km in 90 minutes. The speed of the bus is
(a) 0.6 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 5.4 m/s
(d) 3.6 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 10 m/s

Class 7 Science Chapter 13 MCQ Question 2.
If we denote speed by S, distance by D and time by T, the relationship between these quantities is
(a) S = D T
(b) T = $\frac{S}{D}$
(c) S = $\frac{1}{T}$ × D
(d) S = $\frac{T}{D}$

Answer

Answer: (c) S = $\frac{1}{T}$ × D

Time And Motion Class 7 MCQ Question 3.
Observe the figure given below:

The time period of a simple pendulum is the time taken by it to travel from
(a) A to B and back to A
(b) O to A, A to B and B to A
(c) B to A, A to B and B to O
(d) A to B

Answer

Answer: (a) A to B and back to A

Class 7 Motion And Time MCQ Question 4.
Nearly all the clocks make use of
(a) straight line motion
(b) periodic motion
(c) random motion
(d) circular motion

Answer

Answer: (b) periodic motion

MCQ On Motion And Time Class 7 Question 5.
A simple pendulum takes 42 sec. to complete 20 oscillations. What is its time period?
(a) 2.1 s
(b) 4.2 s
(c) 21 s
(d) 8.40 s

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.1 s

Class 7 Science Ch 13 MCQ Question 6.
Time period of a simple pendulum depends upon its
(a) weight of bob
(b) length
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) length

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Question 7.
Which of the following cannot be used for measurement of time?
(a) A leaking tap
(b) Simple pendulum
(c) Shadow of an object during the day
(d) Blinking of eyes

Answer

Answer: (d) Blinking of eyes

Motion And Time MCQ Class 7 Question 8.
On which axis is dependent variable represented?
(a) x-axis
(b) y-axis
(c) On any axis
(d) Depends on the data

Answer

Answer: (b) y-axis

Class 7 Science Motion And Time MCQ Question 9.
The correct symbol to represent the speed of an object is:
(a) 5 m/s
(b) 5 mp
(c) 5 m/s^-1
(d) 5 s/m

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 s/m

Motion And Time Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 10.
Boojho walks to his school which is at a distance of 3 km from his home in 30 minutes. On reaching he finds that the school is closed and comes back by a bicycle with his friend and reaches home in 20 minutes. His average speed in km/h is
(a) 8.3
(b) 7.2
(c) 5
(d) 3.6

Answer

Answer: (b) 7.2

Match the following:

Column A	Column B
(i) Years	(a) Rotation period of earth on its axis
(ii) Hour	(b) Time to complete 100 m race
(iii) Minute	(c) Gestation period in humans
(iv) Days	(d) Age of a person
(v) Second	(e) In scientific research
(vi) Month	(f) Age of stars
(vii) Microseconds	(g) Time to reach your school
	(h) Train reaches from one city to other

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Years	(d) Age of a person
(ii) Hour	(h) Train reaches from one city to other
(iii) Minute	(g) Time to reach your school
(iv) Days	(a) Rotation period of earth on its axis
(v) Second	(b) Time to complete 100 m race
(vi) Month	(c) Gestation period in humans
(vii) Microseconds	(e) In scientific research

Fill in the blanks:

1. The distance covered by an object in a ………………… is called its speed.

Answer

Answer: unit time

2. Time between one sunrise and the next sunrise was called a …………………

Answer

Answer: day

3. In a simple pendulum, the metallic ball suspended by thread is called its …………………

Answer

Answer: bob

4. Time period of a pendulum depends on its …………………

Answer

Answer: length

5. The symbols of all units are written in …………………

Answer

Answer: singular

6. A ………………… is one billionth of a second.

Answer

Answer: nanosecond

7. Motion of objects can be presented in pictorial form by their ………………… graph.

Answer

Answer: distance time

8. The distance-time graph for the motion of an object moving with a constant speed is a …………………

Answer

Answer: straight line

Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. Faster vehicle has a higher speed.

Answer

Answer: True

2. All the clocks make use of some periodic motion.

Answer

Answer: True

3. The basic unit of speed is km/h.

Answer

Answer: False

4. The symbols of all units are written in singular.

Answer

Answer: True

5. The basic unit of time is second.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Age of a person is expressed in days.

Answer

Answer: False

7. The distance-time graph of standing vehicle is a straight line parallel to x-axis.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Periodic events are used for the measurement of time.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Motion and Time CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers

Motion Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Motion Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Motion to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 8 MCQs On Motion

This Displacement Calculator finds the displacement (distance traveled) by an object using its initial and final velocities as well as the time traveled.

Motion Class 9 MCQ Chapter 8 Question 1.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
(a) Zero
(b) πr
(c) 2r
(d) 2πr

Answer

Answer: (c) 2r

Motion MCQ Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 2.
A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is,
(a) ulg
(b) u²l2g
(c) u²lg
(d) ul2g

Answer

Answer: (b) u²l2g

Class 9 Motion MCQ Chapter 8 Question 3.
The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is
(a) always less than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1
(d) equal or less than 1

Answer

Answer: (d) equal or less than 1

This is a free online acceleration calculator. enter velocity and time value then click on calculate and the result will be instant displayed

Class 9 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer

Answer: (b) uniform acceleration

MCQ Of Motion Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 5.
From the given υ – t graph, it can be inferred that the object is

(a) in uniform motion
(b) at rest
(c) in non-uniform motion
(d) moving with uniform acceleration

Answer

Answer: (a) in uniform motion

Physics MCQ Questions Class 9 Motion With Answers Question 6.
Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 ms^-1 It implies that the boy is
(a) at rest
(b) moving with no acceleration
(c) in accelerated motion
(d) moving with uniform velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) in accelerated motion

MCQ On Motion Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 7.
Area under a υ -1 graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit
(а) m²
(b) m
(c) m³
(d) ms^-1

Answer

Answer: (b) m

Motion MCQ Chapter 8 Question 8.
Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in the adjacent figure. Choose the correct statement.

(a) Car A is faster than car D.
(b) Car B is the slowest.
(c) Car D is faster than car C.
(d) Car C is the slowest.

Answer

Answer: (b) Car B is the slowest.

Class 9 Science Ch 8 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following figures correctly represents uniform motion of a moving object?

Answer

Answer: (a)

Ch 8 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Slope of a velocity-time graph gives
(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

Answer

Answer: (c) the acceleration

Motion Chapter Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal?
(a) If the car is moving on a straight road
(b) If the car is moving in Circular path
(c) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(d) The earth is revolving around the sun.

Answer

Answer: (a) If the car is moving on a straight road

Class 9 Science Motion MCQ Question 12.
A boy goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/min and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30 m/min. The average velocity of the boy during the whole journey is
(a) 24 m/min
(b) 25 m/s
(c) Zero
(d) 20 m/min

Answer

Answer: (a) 24 m/min

Motion Class 9 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 13.
Velocity-time graph of an object is given below. The object has

(a) Uniform velocity
(b) Uniform speed
(c) Uniform retardation
(d) Variable acceleration

Answer

Answer: (c) Uniform retardation

Class 9 Chapter 8 Science MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following graphs shows the object to be stationary?

Answer

Answer: (b)

Motion Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
A body is projected vertically upward from the ground. Taking vertical upward direction as positive and point of projection as origin, the sign of displacement of the body from the origin when it is at height h during upward and downward journey will be
(a) Positive, positive
(b) Positive, negative
(c) Negative, negative
(d) Negative, positive

Answer

Answer: (a) Positive, positive

Class 9 Physics Motion MCQ Question 16.
According to the given velocity-time graph, the object

(a) is moving with uniform velocity
(b) has some initial velocity
(c) is moving uniformly with some initial velocity
(d) is at rest

Answer

Answer: (b) has some initial velocity

Question 17.
The ratio of speed to the magnitude of velocity when the body is moving in one direction is
(a) Less than one
(b) Greater than one
(c) Equal to one
(d) Greater than or equal to one

Answer

Answer: (c) Equal to one

Question 18.
A car is moving along a straight road with uniform velocity. It is shown in the graph.

Answer

Answer: (d)

Question 19.
Which of the following situations is possible?
(a) An object can have acceleration, but constant velocity.
(b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.
(c) Distance and the magnitude of displacement are equal in circular motion.
(d) Average speed and the magnitude of average velocity are always equal in circular motion.

Answer

Answer: (b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.

Question 20.
Which of the following graphs is not possible?

Answer

Answer: (b)

Fill in the blanks:

1. The total path length travelled by a body in a given interval of time is called …………….

Answer

Answer: distance

2. A body moving in a straight line has a uniform motion if it travels ……………. distance in …………… intervals of time.

Answer

Answer: equal, equal

3. Velocity is defined as ……………. per unit time.

Answer

Answer: displacement

4. Speed is scalar quantity and velocity is ……………… quantity.

Answer

Answer: vector

5. If speed of a body is continuously decreasing, the body is said to ……………

Answer

Answer: retarding

6. Acceleration is vector quantity and its SI unit is ……………..

Answer

Answer: ms^-2

7. A physical quantity that has magnitude as well as …………… is called vector quantity.

Answer

Answer: direction

8. The slope of velocity-time graph gives …………….. and the slope of displacement-time graph gives ……………..

Answer

Answer: acceleration, velocity

III. Match the following columns

Column I	Column II
(a) Straight line parallel to time axis in velocity-time graph	(i) Scalar quantity
(b) Distance	(ii) Body at rest
(c) Displacement	(iii) Motion of object in circular path with uniform speed
(d) Straight line parallel to time axis in position time graph	(iv) Body in uniform motion
(e) Uniform circular motion	(v) Rate of change of velocity with respect to time
(f) Slope of velocity-time graph gives	(vi) Shortest distance between initial and final position
(g) Acceleration	(vii) Acceleration

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Straight line parallel to time axis in velocity-time graph	(i) Scalar quantity
(b) Distance	(ii) Body at rest
(c) Displacement	(iii) Motion of object in circular path with uniform speed
(d) Straight line parallel to time axis in position time graph	(iv) Body in uniform motion
(e) Uniform circular motion	(v) Rate of change of velocity with respect to time
(f) Slope of velocity-time graph gives	(vi) Shortest distance between initial and final position
(g) Acceleration	(vii) Acceleration

Complete the crossword given below:

Across:
3. Displacement per unit time
4. Rate of change of velocity
5. A physical quantity which is described completely by its magnitude only
6. If a body travels equal distance in equal intervals of time in straight line then motion is
Down:
1. Motion of body in circular path
2. Area of speed-time graph gives
7. SI unit of distance and displacement

Answer

Answer:
Across:
3. Velocity
4. Acceleration
5. Scalar quantity
6. Uniform motion

Down:
1. Circular motion
2. Distance
7. Metre

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Motion CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits with Answers

Electricity and Circuits Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Electricity and Circuits Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 12 MCQs On Electricity and Circuits

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Electricity And Circuits Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Cell is a device which
(a) converts chemical energy into electrical energy
(b) electrical energy into light energy
(c) electrical energy into magnetic energy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) converts chemical energy into electrical energy
Explanation:
In a cell, chemicals are used to produce potential difference.

Class 6 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 2.
A bulb has
(a) two terminals and one filament
(b) two terminals and two filaments
(c) multiple terminals and single filament
(d) single terminal and single filament

Answer

Answer: (a) two terminals and one filament
Explanation:
A bulb has a filament which glows and two terminals which are joined to two terminals of the battery.

Electricity And Circuits Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Filament of a bulb is made up of
(a) aluminium
(b) chromium
(c) platinum
(d) tungsten

Answer

Answer: (d) tungsten
Explanation:
Tungsten has high melting point and high resistance.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Question 4.
Bulb glows only in
(a) closed circuit
(b) open circuit
(c) in both circuits
(d) open circuit if bulb is not fused

Answer

Answer: (a) closed circuit
Explanation:
Only a closed circuit is a complete circuit.

MCQ On Electricity And Circuits Class 6 Question 5.
A battery is
(a) a single cell
(b) a combination of cells in which cells are joined (+) to (-)
(c) a combination of cells in which cells are joined (+) to (+)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a combination of cells in which cells are joined (+) to (-)
Explanation:
In a battery two or more cells are combined in such a way that (+) terminal of one cell is joined to (-) terminal of other.

Class 6 Electricity And Circuits MCQ Question 6.
A substance which allows electricity to pass through it is called
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) semiconductor
(d) superconductor

Answer

Answer: (a) a conductor
Explanation:
Substances which allow electric current to pass through them.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 7.
Which is an example of an insulator
(a) bakelite
(b) aluminium
(c) tap water
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) bakelite
Explanation:
Aluminium and tap water are conductors of heat.

Class 6 Science Ch 12 MCQ Question 8.
An example of a conductor is
(a) tap water
(b) salt solution
(c) metal wire
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation:
Tap water, salt solution and metal wire are the examples of conductors.

Class 6 Science Electricity And Circuits MCQ Question 9.
How many terminals are there in a dry cell?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (b) Two
Answer:
Dry cell has two terminals (+ve) and (-ve).

MCQ Of Electricity And Circuits Class 6 Question 10.
To prevent electric shocks, the metallic electrical wires are covered with
(a) paper
(b) cotton
(c) aluminium
(d) plastic

Answer

Answer: (d) plastic
Explanation:
Plastic is an insulator of electricity.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cell	(i) Allows electricity to pass through it
(b) Battery	(ii) Either breaks or completes a circuit
(c) Conductor	(iii) Converts electricity into light
(d) Insulator	(iv) Glows when electricity passes in it
(e) Switch	(v) A device which produces electricity
(f) Bulb	(vi) Is a path of electricity
(g) Filament	(vii) Does not allow electricity to pass
(h) Circuit	(viii) A combination of cells

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cell	(v) A device which produces electricity
(b) Battery	(viii) A combination of cells
(c) Conductor	(i) Allows electricity to pass through it
(d) Insulator	(vii) Does not allow electricity to pass
(e) Switch	(ii) in Either breaks or completes a circuit
(f) Bulb	(iii) Converts electricity into light
(g) Filament	(iv) Glows when electricity passes in it
(h) Circuit	(vi) Is a path of electricity

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. An electrical cell has two terminals, a positive and a ……………

Answer

Answer: negative

2. Materials through which current can pass are called ………………….

Answer

Answer: conductors

3. Materials through which current cannot pass are called …………………….

Answer

Answer: insulators

4. Our body is a …………………. conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: good

5. When a switch is off, the circuit becomes ………………..

Answer

Answer: open

6. We use …………….. to test the conductivity of a material.

Answer

Answer: conduction tester

7. A switch either breaks or …………. a circuit.

Answer

Answer: completes

8. Electricity we use in our homes is supplied from a ………………..

Answer

Answer: power house

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. A bulb has two terminals.

Answer

Answer: True

2. An electric cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Rubber and wood are good conductors of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False

4. A switch is made of an insulator.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Current flows from positive terminal of cell to its negative terminal.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Current flows only through a complete path.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Handles of electrical appliances are made up of insulators.

Answer

Answer: True

8. In a torch, cells are joined in parallel arrangement.

Answer

Answer: False

9. Air is a good conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False

10. We should turn off main switch when there is a short circuit in our home.

Answer

Answer: True

11. We should never join the wires connected to two terminals of a cell.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Electricity and Circuits CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets with Answers

Fun with Magnets Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fun with Magnets Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 13 MCQs On Fun with Magnets

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Fun With Magnets Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Which is an example of a magnetic substance?
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Cobalt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
All of these are attracted towards a magnet.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Question 2.
Magnets have a shape
(a) cylindrical
(b) ball ended
(c) horse shoe
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation:
Magnets may be of various shapes including bar magnets.

Class 6 Science Chapter 13 MCQ Question 3.
When a bar magnet is brought near iron dust, most of the dust sticks
(a) near the middle
(b) equally everywhere
(c) near two ends
(d) at the middle and ends

Answer

Answer: (c) near two ends
Explanation:
Magnetic field intensity is maximum at the poles of a bar magnet.

Fun With Magnets Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
A freely suspended bar magnet rests in
(a) north-south directions
(b) east-west directions
(c) upside down
(d) any direction by chance

Answer

Answer: (a) north-south directions
Explanation:
A bar magnet always rests in N-S directions when suspended freely.

Class 6 Fun With Magnets MCQ Question 5.
Attraction is seen between the poles of two bar magnets in the case of
(a) N-pole of one magnet with N-pole of other
(b) N-pole of one magnet with S-pole of other
(c) S-pole of one magnet with S-pole of other
(d) all of these cases will show attraction

Answer

Answer: (b) N-pole of one magnet with S-pole of other
Explanation:
Unlike poles attract and like poles repel each other.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 13 MCQ Question 6.
Which is a natural magnet?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Haemetite
(c) Bakelite
(d) Copper

Answer

Answer: (a) Magnetite
Explanation:
Magnetite is a natural magnet.

Fun With Magnets Class 6 Quiz Question 7.
Choose the wrong statement
(a) Heat can destroy magnetic properties of a magnet.
(b) Magnets are made up of different materials and different shapes.
(c) There is a maximum attraction in middle of a magnet.
(d) Magnetite does not show magnetic properties.

Answer

Answer: (d) Magnetite does not show magnetic properties.
Explanation:
Magnetite does not show magnetic properties.

MCQ On Fun With Magnets For Class 6 Question 8.
The magnetic properties of a magnet cannot be destroyed by
(a) hammering
(b) heating
(c) dropping on a hard surface
(d) boiling

Answer

Answer: (d) boiling
Explanation:
Magnetic properties of a magnet cannot be destroyed by boiling, because magnetic properties are destroyed by hammering, dropping on hard surface and by heating.

Class 6 Science Fun With Magnets MCQ Question 9.
Which two ends of a magnet are called magnetic poles?
(a) North pole
(b) South pole
(c) North and south pole
(d) Self demagnetisation

Answer

Answer: (c) North and south pole
Explanation:
Magnetic poles (North pole and South pole)

MCQ Of Fun With Magnets Class 6 Question 10.
Magnets attract
(a) wood
(b) plastic
(c) paper
(d) iron

Answer

Answer: (d) iron
Explanation:
Iron is attracted by magnet.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Magnetite	(i) Non-magnetic substances
(b) Iron, nickel, cobalt	(ii) Used to find out N-S directions
(c) Leather, plastic, wax	(iii) Attract each other
(d) Lodestone	(iv) Natural magnet
(e) Compass	(v) Repel each other
(f) Like poles of two magnets	(vi) Discovered magnet incidently
(g) Opposite poles of two magnets	(vii) Magnetic, substances
(h) Magnus	(viii) Name of first magnet

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Magnetite	(iv) Natural magnet
(b) Iron, nickel, cobalt	(vii) Magnetic substances
(c) Leather, plastic, wax	(i) Non-magnetic substances
(d) Lodestone	(viii) Name of first magnet
(e) Compass	(ii) Used to find out N-S directions
(f) Like poles of two magnets	(v) Repel each other
(g) Opposite poles of two magnets	(iii) Attract each other
(h) Magnus	(vi) Discovered magnet incidently

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. When north-pole of one magnet is brought near the …………….. of another magnet, they attract one another.

Answer

Answer: south pole

2. When the north-pole of one magnet is brought close to the …………… of another magnet, they repel each other.

Answer

Answer: north pole

3. Similar poles of two magnets …………………. one another.

Answer

Answer: repel

4. A compass needle always points in a direction …………………….

Answer

Answer: north-south

5. Stickers with pieces of magnet inside them easily stick to ………………… surfaces like the doors of refrigerator.

Answer

Answer: iron

6. Materials which get ……………….. towards magnet are known as magnetic.

Answer

Answer: attracted

7. The ……………………… of magnet where maximum iron filings get clung, ape known as ………………..

Answer

Answer: ends, poles

8. Magnetic effect can pass through …………………………

Answer

Answer: screen

9. We should not drop the magnet, shouldn’t heat it, shouldn’t …………………. it.

Answer

Answer: hammer

10. The south pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographical ………………… pole.

Answer

Answer: north

11. Magnetic poles always …………………….. in pairs.

Answer

Answer: exist

12. Hammering destroys the ………………… of small magnets inside.

Answer

Answer: magnetism

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Lodestone is composed of oxides of iron.

Answer

Answer: True

2. North and south poles are found to exist separately.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Magnetite doesn’t show magnetic properties.

Answer

Answer: False

4. If we cut a bar magnet in two halves we will have two magnets.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Heat can destroy magnetic properties of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Magnets are made up of different materials and in different shapes.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Compass needle is made of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

8. There is a maximum attraction in middle of a bar magnet.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Fun with Magnets CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Air Around Us with Answers

Air Around Us Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Air Around Us with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Air Around Us Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Air Around Us to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 15 MCQs On Air Around Us

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Air Around Us Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Major part of the air is constituted by
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) inert gases

Answer

Answer: (a) nitrogen
Explanation:
3/4^th portion of air is nitrogen.

Class 6 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following gas helps in burning? ,
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen does not bum but supports burning.

Air Around Us Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following gas we use in breathing?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Oxygen
Explanation:
We use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Question 4.
Wind is
(a) air around us
(b) rising hot air
(c) air in motion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) air in motion
Explanation:
Air in motion is called wind.

MCQ On Air Around Us Class 6 Question 5.
Air is present in
(a) atmosphere
(b) soil
(c) water of ponds, lakes and seas
(d) everywhere

Answer

Answer: (d) everywhere
Explanation:
Air is present everywhere.

Class 6 Air Around Us MCQ Question 6.
Air is
(a) a mixture
(b) a pure substance
(c) an element
(d) anything, that depends on the place where it is found

Answer

Answer: (a) a mixture
Explanation:
Air is a mixture of various gases, water vapours and dust particles.

Class 6 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 7.
Envelope of air that surrounds the earth is known as
(a) biosphere
(b) atmosphere
(c) environment
(d) ecosystem

Answer

Answer: (b) atmosphere
Explanation:
Air is all around us, a thick layer of air surrounds the earth, this blanket of air is called atmosphere.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 8.
Which is not a property of air?
(a) It occupies space.
(b) It is transparent,
(c) It is a solution.
(d) It is a compound.

Answer

Answer: (d) It is a compound.
Explanation:
Air is a homogeneous solution, which occupies space and it is transparent. So air is not a compound.

Class 6 Science Air Around Us MCQ Question 9.
The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air is
(a) 1:4
(b) 4:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 1:2

Answer

Answer: (b) 4:1
Explanation:
4:1 is the ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air.

MCQ Of Air Around Us Class 6 Question 10.
The main constituent of the air is.
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) nitrogen
Explanation:
Composition of air (Percentage by volume), nitrogen = 78.03, oxygen = 20.99, carbon dioxide = 0.03, noble gases = 0.95 and some water vapours, dust particles and other impurities.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Air	(i) Thin layer of air surrounding our earth.
(b) Wind	(ii) Released in respiration.
(c) Atmosphere	(iii) Makes three fourth part of total air.
(d) Oxygen	(iv) Is process of burning of food to get energy.
(e) Carbon dioxide	(v) Uses wind power to rotate.
(f) Nitrogen	(vi) Process of preparation of food by green plants.
(g) Respiration	(vii) Allow air to move here and there.
(h) Photosynthesis	(viii) Is a gaseous mixture.
(i) Windmill	(ix) Supports combustion.
(j) Open areas	(x) Is air in motion.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Air	(viii) Is a gaseous mixture.
(b) Wind	(x) Is air in motion.
(c) Atmosphere	(i) Thin layer of air surrounding our earth.
(d) Oxygen	(ix) Supports combustion.
(e) Carbon dioxide	(ii) Released in respiration.
(f) Nitrogen	(iii) Makes three fourth part of total air.
(g) Respiration	(iv) Is process of burning of food to get energy.
(h) Photosynthesis	(vi) Process of preparation of food by green plants.
(i) Windmill	(v) Uses wind power to rotate.
(j) Open areas	(vii) Allow air to move here and there.

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate Words.

1. When air is in ………………. it is called wind.

Answer

Answer: motion

2. Air has no ……………. and one can see through it. It is ………………… .

Answer

Answer: colour, transparent

3. Air is really not one substance but a ……………………. .

Answer

Answer: mixture

4. Air contains ………………… particles.

Answer

Answer: dust

5. The component of air that supports burning is called …………………… .

Answer

Answer: oxygen

6. The oxygen helps in breaking down the digested food in the body to release the …………………….. .

Answer

Answer: energy

7. Our earth is surrounded by ……………………….. .

Answer

Answer: air

8. Initial drops of first rain bring a lot of …………………… along with them.

Answer

Answer: dirt

9. The aquatic animals use dissolved oxygen in water for respiration. This is possible because oxygen is ………………… in water.

Answer

Answer: soluble

10. Nitrogen of the air is used on a large scale to manufacture ………………………. .

Answer

Answer: fertilizers

11. Air is present in, atmosphere, water and ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: soil

12. The method of separating two components of a mixture which is based on the wind is …………………….. .

Answer

Answer: winnowing

13. ……………………. air is used in tyres of vehicles.

Answer

Answer: Compressed

14. …………………. is the place in nature for gaseous exchange.

Answer

Answer: Atmosphere

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. We cannot see air.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Air is a compound and not an element.

Answer

Answer: False

3. A firki rotates only in an open area or in a closed room with the ceiling fan switched on.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Open areas allow air to move here and there.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Air is an opaque material.

Answer

Answer: False

6. All living organisms require air for their survival.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Air contains water vapours.

Answer

Answer: True

8. We breath in CO₂ and breath out O₂.

Answer

Answer: False

9. A policeman, controlling the traffic wears a mask to prevent the dust particles from entering his respiratory system through breathing.

Answer

Answer: True

10. Air is necessary for burning things.

Answer

Answer: True

11. The major part of air is nitrogen.

Answer

Answer: True

12. Air becomes thinner and thinner as we go higher and higher from the surface of earth.

Answer

Answer: True

13. Plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: True

14. Plants do not respire.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Air Around Us with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Air Around Us CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection with Answers

Light Shadows and Reflection Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Light Shadows and Reflection Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 11 MCQs On Light Shadows and Reflection

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Light Shadow And Reflection Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Light travels in
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) zig-zag line
(d) randomly

Answer

Answer: (a) straight line
Explanation:
Light travels in straight line.

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 2.
When an opaque object comes in the path of light it forms
(a) an image with colours
(b) shadow
(c) black and white image
(d) depends on the colour of the light

Answer

Answer: (b) shadow
Explanation:
A shadow is formed when an opaque object comes in the way of light.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Question 3.
Which types of objects do not allow light to pass through them?
(a) Translucent
(b) Opaque
(c) Transparent
(d) Penumbra

Answer

Answer: (b) Opaque
Explanation:
Opaque objects do not allow the light to pass through them while translucent objects allow only a part of light to pass through them.

Light Shadow And Reflection Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Which is an example of a translucent object?
(a) A thin sheet of paper
(b) A thin glass slab
(c) A thin iron sheet
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A thin sheet of paper
Explanation:
A thin sheet of paper is transparent.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 5.
Bouncing back of light from shining surfaces is called
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Bending
(d) Dispersion

Answer

Answer: (a) Reflection
Explanation:
When a ray of light falls on a smooth and polished surface, whole of light is returned back in the same medium. It is called reflection of light.

Class 6 Light Shadow And Reflection MCQ Question 6.
What is lateral inversion?
(a) Image becomes inverted
(b) Image bends laterally
(c) Right of the object appears left of the image
(d) All of these happen

Answer

Answer: (c) Right of the object appears left of the image
Explanation:
Right side of the object appears as left side in the image formed by a plane mirror.

Light Shadows And Reflections Class 6 MCQ Question 7.
Which letters of English alphabet will not show lateral inversion?
(a) I, O, U
(b) N, Z, X
(c) I, X, E
(d) A, E, I

Answer

Answer: (a) I, O, U
Explanation:
I, O, U will not show lateral inversion.

MCQ On Light Shadow And Reflection For Class 6 Question 8.
Which is a device to image the sun?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Pinhole camera
(c) A straight pipe
(d) Glass slab

Answer

Answer: (b) Pinhole camera
Explanation:
Sun can be imaged by using a pinhole camera.

Class 6 Science Ch 11 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is a cold source of light?
(a) Firefly (Jugnu)
(b) Tube light
(c) The sun
(d) Electric bulb

Answer

Answer: (a) Firefly (Jugnu)
Explanation:
Firefly (Jugnu) emits short bursts of light.

Class 6 Science Light Shadow And Reflection MCQ Question 10.
Out of these, which one is not a man-made luminous body?
(a) Electric bulb
(b) Burning candle
(c) Firefly (Jugnu)
(d) Oil lamp

Answer

Answer: (c) Firefly (Jugnu)
Explanation:
Firefly (Jugnu) is a natural luminous body.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Transparent	(i) Region of absence of light
(b) Opaque	(ii) Scattering back of the light by shining surface
(c) Translucent	(iii) Object through which one can see clearly
(d) Luminous body	(iv) Object through which one cannot see at all
(e) Shadow	(v) Formed due to reflection by mirrors
(f) Image	(vi) Object through which we cannot see clearly
(g) Reflection	(vi) Phenomenon of changing left to right
(h) Lateral inversion	(vii) Produces light of its own

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Transparent	(iii) Object through which one can see clearly
(b) Opaque	(iv) Object through which one cannot see at all
(c) Translucent	(vi) Object through which we cannot see clearly
(d) Luminous body	(viii) Produces light of its own
(e) Shadow	(i) Region of absence of light
(f) Image	(v) Formed due to reflection by mirrors
(g) Reflection	(ii) Scattering back of the light by shining surface
(h) Lateral inversion	(vii) Phenomenon of changing left to right

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. An object or material could be opaque, transparent, translucent or ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: luminous

2. This is a …………… on which the shadow is formed.

Answer

Answer: screen

3. A …………….. is a dark outline of an opaque object that blocks light coming from a source.

Answer

Answer: shadow

4. Image formed by a pinhole camera is ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: upside down

5. Image formed by a plane mirror is …………….. .

Answer

Answer: erect

6. In a plane mirror, our left hand looks like right hand. This phenomenon is called ……………………… .

Answer

Answer: lateral inversion

7. ……………… objects cast no shadow.

Answer

Answer: Transparent

8. Opaque objects cast …………………. shadows in morning and evening while ………………… shadows at noon.

Answer

Answer: big, small

9. Light travels in a ………….. .

Answer

Answer: straight line

10. Shadow is …………… .

Answer

Answer: three dimensiona

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. A torch bulb is a luminous object.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Light travels in a straight line.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Image formed by a plane mirror is inverted.

Answer

Answer: False

4. Light gets reflected when strikes a shiny surface.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Transparent substances reflect all the light falling on them.

Answer

Answer: False

6. All the shining bodies in sky have their own light.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Jugnu (Firefly) is a living luminous body.

Answer

Answer: True

8. When screen is far away from the objects, the shadow will have no penumbra.

Answer

Answer: False

9. A reflected image gives us more information about the object than a shadow.

Answer

Answer: True

10. In a mirror, if A is able to see B, B also can see A.

Answer

Answer: True

11. Objects around us seem to have different ways in which they interact with light.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Light Shadows and Reflection CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

Category: MCQ Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 16 MCQs On Management of Natural Resources

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 16

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 14 MCQs On Sources of Energy

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 14

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

Class 8 Science Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 1 MCQs On Crop Production and Management

Class 8 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 5 MCQs On Coal and Petroleum

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 2 MCQs On Microorganisms: Friend and Foe

Class 7 Science Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 13 MCQs On Motion

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 8 MCQs On Motion

Class 6 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 12 MCQs On Electricity and Circuits

Class 6 Science Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 13 MCQs On Fun with Magnets

Class 6 Science Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 15 MCQs On Air Around Us

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 11 MCQs On Light Shadows and Reflection