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The Interview Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 7 The Interview with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Interview Class 12 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 7 The Interview with Answers

The Interview MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 1.
What do Rudyard Kipling and his wife express about interviews?
(a) immoral
(b) not good
(c) very bad
(d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Answer

Answer: (d) immoral and offensive crime against a person

Interviews With Celebrities Can Be MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 2.
Why were the journalists and publishers puzzled by the success of The Name of the Rose?
(a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel
(b) because it was becoming popular
(c) because of its high rated success
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) because readers like trash and it was a serious novel

MCQ On Interview Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 3.
What was Lewis Caroll’s opinion of interviews and autographs?
(a) wonder
(b) terror
(c) horror
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) horror

The Interview Class 12 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
Which period of history do Umberto’s novels deal with?
(a) Renaissance
(b) dark age
(c) modern era
(d) Medieval period

Answer

Answer: (d) Medieval period

Interviews Can Be MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 5.
Why did Umberto start writing novels?
(a) to avail an opportunity
(b) to be in limelight
(c) to share his views
(d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Answer

Answer: (d) to make best use of empty spaces means free time

Interview MCQ Questions Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 6.
What facts are being showcased in the interview held between Eco and Padamanabhan?
(a) he takes pride in being an academician, a university Professor first
(b) Being a novelist is a secondary thing for him
(c) uses his free time for writing novels
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (d) All these

English MCQ Class 12 Chapter 7 Question 7.
How many novels has Umberto written?
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5

MCQ Of English Class 12 Flamingo Chapter 7 Question 8.
What do his works for children speak about ?
(a) his passion for children
(b) children are nuisance
(c) children love to be happy
(d) non-violence and peace

Answer

Answer: (d) non-violence and peace

MCQ Questions For Class 12 English With Answers Chapter 7 Question 9.
Explain ‘Denis Brain’s statement “Almost everything of moment reaches us through one man
asking questions of others.’
(a) The interviewer has the power
(b) The interviewer has status
(c) The interviewer can elicit the truth and has the power to influence
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (d) All these

Interview Are Conversation With MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 10.
Enumerate ‘An Interview is a supremely serviceable medium of communication?
(a) a medium to gossip
(b) a medium to be the talk of the town
(c) a medium to prosper
(d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

Answer

Answer: (d) a noble medium of interaction and introspection

The Interview Class 12 Questions And Answers Chapter 7 Question 11.
What satisfied Umberto’s taste for narration?
(a) stories
(b) children’s works
(c) interviews
(d) Novels

Answer

Answer: (d) Novels

An Interview Reveals The MCQ Chapter 7 Class 12 Question 12.
What do you understand by the expression ‘Thumbprints on his windpipes”?
(a) creating excessive pressure on throat
(b) creating excessive pressure on vocal chords
(c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) creating excessive pressure and tension for someone

Class 12 English Flamingo MCQ Chapter 7 Question 13.
Why do the celebrities feel embarassed most often?
(a) because of question attacks during interviews
(b) because of interviewer’s gestures
(c) because of interviewer’s appearance
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) because of question attacks during interviews

The Interview Class 12 MCQ Chapter 7 Question 14.
At what age did he start writing novels?
(a) at the age of 55
(b) at the age of 52
(c) at the age of 57
(d) at the age of 50

Answer

Answer: (d) at the age of 50

Question 15.
Why do most celebrity writers despise being interviewed?
(a) they don’t like journalists
(b) unwarranted intrusion in their life
(c) their privacy is hurt
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) unwarranted intrusion in their life

Question 16.
What is the reason for huge success of the novel The Name of The Rose?
(a) mystic
(b) metaphysics and medieval history period used
(c) detective style and theology
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (d) All these

Question 17.
How does Umberto Eco find so much time to write so much?
(a) using early morning time
(b) using his office time
(c) using his family time
(d) using empty spaces (free times) like waiting for someone, break time

Answer

Answer: (d) using empty spaces (free times) like waiting for someone, break time

Question 18.
What did he present in this book?
(a) varied opinions of politicians
(b) varied opinions of civilians
(c) varied opinions of armymen
(d) varied opinions of celebrities regarding an interview

Answer

Answer: (d) varied opinions of celebrities regarding an interview

Question 19.
What does Naipaul present in his travel books?
(a) his feelings
(b) his feelings about interviews
(c) impression of the country of his ancestors that is India
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) impression of the country of his ancestors that is India

Question 20.
Who is the author of the lesson ‘The Interview’?
(a) Christopher Priest
(b) Christopher Silvester (1959)
(c) J.B. Priestley
(d) Alfred John Churchley

Answer

Answer: (b) Christopher Silvester (1959)

Question 21.
What kind of a novel was The Name of The Rose?
(a) hilarious
(b) fiction
(c) non-fiction
(d) a serious one

Answer

Answer: (d) a serious one

Question 22.
In what way interviews have become a common place of journalism?
(a) because of its power, influence and medium of communication
(b) because of its pomp
(c) because of its glory
(d) because of its rapport

Answer

Answer: (a) because of its power, influence and medium of communication

Question 23.
Who has written Alice in Wonderland?
(a) Christopher
(b) Mukand
(c) Rudyard Kripling
(d) Lewis Caroll

Answer

Answer: (d) Lewis Caroll

Question 24.
Why does Eco call the success of his book a mystery?
(a) because of its success
(b) because of its popularity
(c) because of many factors
(d) because of many factors and many other books were written on the same medieval period

Answer

Answer: (d) because of many factors and many other books were written on the same medieval period

Question 25.
According to Umberto what will happen to the world if we eliminate empty spaces from the universe?
(a) The world will become beautiful
(b) The world will be completely ours
(c) The world will shrink and will become as big as a fish.
(d) The world will be round

Answer

Answer: (c) The world will shrink and will become as big as a fish.

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

March 2, 2023

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Chemical Reaction And Equation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour.
(b) Melting of ice to give water.
(c) Dissolution of salt in water.
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
Answer:
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).

Explanation: Since the combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) produces new substances, a lot of heat is produced along with carbon dioxide and water vapour. It is also irreversible in nature. So it is a chemical change.

However, boiling of water to give water vapour, melting of ice to give water and dissolution of salt in water are physical changes, as here no new substance is formed, only the physical state of the substance changes.

A physical change does not produce a new substance although the initial and final substances appear different and it is reversible.

During a chemical change, the chemical composition of the substance changes and new substances with new properties are formed. Energy is either released or absorbed during a chemical change and it is irreversible.

Top free images & vectors for Compound chemical formula calculator in png, vector, file, black and white, logo, clipart, cartoon and transparent.

Chemical Reactions And Equations Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is (are) an endothermic process(es)?
(I) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(II) Sublimation of dry ice
(III) Condensation of water vapours
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Strong heating of ferrous sulphate leads to the formation of a brown solid and two gases. This reaction can be categorised as:
(a) displacement and redox.
(b) decomposition and redox.
(c) displacement and endothermic.
(d) decomposition and exothermic.
Answer:
(b) decomposition and redox reaction.

Explanation: When FeSO₄ is heated strong, it decomposes to form a brown solid ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.

In this reaction, FeSO₄ decomposes and forms new products so it is a decomposition reaction. Here FeSO₄ is oxidised to Fe₂O₃ by loss of electrons. So this part of the reaction is oxidation reaction FeSO₄ is also reduced to SO₂ and SO₃ by a gain of electrons.

Hence, the Heating of FeSO₄ is both decomposition and Redox reaction.

Related Theory:
A reaction is called redox when both oxidation and reduction are taking place simultaneously.
The oxidation process involves:

Gain of oxygen
Loss of hydrogen
Loss of electrons

Reduction process involves:

Loss of oxygen,
Gain of hydrogen
Gain of electrons

The substance which loses electrons i.e. gets oxidised, acts as a reducing agent and the substance which gains electrons, i.e. it gets reduced and acts as an oxidising agent.

Alkyne Reactions Cheat Sheet Download.

Class 10 Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 4.
Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?
(I) Pb + CuCl₂ → PbCl₂ + Cu
(II) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
(III) C + O₂ → CO₂
(IV) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) only (II)
Explanation: A double displacement reaction involves the displacement of two ions of two different compounds that results in the formation of new compounds. Here, only in reaction (II), ions of both reactants are exchanged and two entirely different compounds are formed. For example.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO_4(s) (White ppt) + 2NaCl_(aq)

In a double displacement reaction, exchange of ions takes place i.e., SO₄^2- exchange place with Cl^– ion. It is also called a precipitation reaction as BaSO₄ is precipitated as insoluble salt in the solution.

Ch 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of reaction involved?
(I) Displacement reaction
(II) Precipitation reaction
(III) Combination reaction
(IV) Double displacement reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after some time. It is because copper:
(I) Displaces silver from the solution
(II) forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO₃
(III) Is oxidized to Cu²⁺
(IV) ls reduced to Cu²⁺
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)
Explanation: Copper is placed above silver in electrochemical series and thus reaction occurs
Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu²⁺ + 2Ag

Chemical Reaction And Equation MCQ Question 7.
One of the following does not happen during a chemical reaction. This is:
(a) Breaking of old bonds and formation of new bonds
(b) Formation of new substances with entirely different properties
(c) Atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products
(d) A rearrangement of atoms takes place to form new products
Answer:
(c) atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products. Explanation: It is not atoms but the bonds between these atoms break and form during chemical reactions. Atoms of elements can rearrange but cannot change into other elements.

Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 8.
You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix with it a solution of:
(a) potassium chloride
(b) potassium nitride
(c) potassium sulphide
(d) potassium iodide
Answer:
(d) potassium iodide

Explanation: Potassium iodide on reacting with lead nitrate gives yellow precipitate of Lead iodide.
2KI + Pb(NO₃)₂ → Pbl₂ + 2KNO₃

MCQ On Chemical Reactions And Equations Question 9.
In which of the following chemical equations do the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H_2(l) + O₂(l) → 2H₂O_(g)
(b) 2H_2(g) + O₂(l) → 2H₂O_(g)
(c) 2H_2(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O_(l)
(d) 2H_2(g)+ O₂(g) → 2H₂O_(g)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc taken in a test tube. The following observations are recorded. Point out the correct observation:
(a) The surface of metal becomes shiny.
(b) The reaction mixture turns milky.
(c) Odour of a pungent-smelling gas is recorded.
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. Explanation: The chemical reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and granulated zinc is represented as follows:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑
The product, zinc chloride, does not turn the reaction milky. Hydrogen gas evolved is colourless and odourless and released by the formation of bubbles. Hence, option (d) is correct.

MCQ Of Chemical Reaction And Equation Question 11.
On heating, a blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, a black substance X, oxygen gas and a brown gas Y was formed. Select the option which identifies the products correctly:

Answer:
(c) X is Copper Oxide and Y is Nitrogen Dioxide Explanation: When blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate is heated, it decomposes to form black coloured substance which is copper oxide, oxygen gas and brown gas nitrogen dioxide.

The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:

Class 10 Science Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
In the equation:
Cu + XHNO₃ → CU(NO₃)₂ + yNO₂ + 2H₂O
The values of x and y are:
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 4 and 2
(c) 7 and 1
Answer:
(c) Cu + 4HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O
Explanation: In order to find the values of x and y, we need to balance the chemical equation by equating the number of atoms of each element on both sides in the given equation.
Cu + XHNO₃ → CU(NO₃)₂ + yNO₂ + 2H₂O

Equating the number of H atoms on both sides as per the law of conservation of mass, x = 4.
Putting this value in either the no. of atoms of N or O,
x = y + 2 means y = x – 2 = 4 – 2 = 2.
Therefore, x = 4 & y = 2 is the correct answer

Chemical equation balance the equation calculator finds the stoichiometric coefficients to balance chemical equations incl.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Question 13.
In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) AlCl_3(aq) + 3NH₄OH_(aq) → Al(OH)₃(s) + 3NH₄Cl_(aq)
(b) AlCl_3(aq)+ 3NH₄OH_(l) → Al(OH)₃_(aq) + 3NH₄Cl_(s)
(c) AlCl_3(aq) + 3NH₄OH_(aq) → Al(OH)_3(s)+ 3NH₄Cl_(aq)
(d) AlCl_3(aq) + 3NH₄OH_(aq) → Al(OH)₃_(aq) + 3NH₄Cl_(s)
Answer:
(a) AlCl₃_(aq) + 3NH4OH_(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4CL_(aq)

Explanation: When ammonium hydroxide solution is added to aluminium chloride solution, a white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed alongwith ammonium chloride solution.

Chemical Equations And Reactions Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The reaction 2HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O is an example of:
(I) displacement reaction.
(II) double displacement reaction.
(III) neutralisation reaction.
(IV) combination reaction.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Chemical Equation And Reaction Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Consider the following chemical equation:
X_(aq) + sodium chloride_(aq) → Y(white ppt) + Sodium nitrate_(aq)

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 1

For the following questions, two statements are given: one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 16.
Assertion (A): Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
4Fe + 4H₂O_(g) → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Iron (Fe) metal does not react with cold or hot water but it reacts with steam to form a metal oxide and hydrogen.

The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical reaction. The statement is true but it does not explain the equation given in the Assertion.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame.
Reason (R): Magnesium ribbon undergoes physical change on burning and melts.
Answer:

Question 18.
Assertion (A): While equalizing the number of atoms to balance a chemical equation, we alter the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction.
Reason (R): Chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: A chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow without altering the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction. It is balanced by putting coefficients in front of the compounds or elements.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction.
Reason (R): Double displacement reactions are the reactions in which there is an exchange of ions between the reactants.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce sLaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction as the two reactants combine to form a single product.

Whereas, in a double displacement reaction, there will be two reactants and two products which are formed by the exchange of ions between the reactants.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): The decomposition reaction of silver chloride into silver and chlorine is an exothermic process.
Reason (R): Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
Answer:

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Zinc and lead displace copper from their compounds.
Reason (R): Zinc and lead are more reactive than copper.
Answer:

Competency-Based Questions (CBQs)

Question 1.

During a chemical reaction atoms of one element do not change into those of another element. Nor do atoms disappear from the mixture or appear from elsewhere. Actually, chemical reactions involve the breaking and making of bonds between atoms to produce new substances.

To demonstrate a reaction, 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and placed in sunlight.
(A) What will you observe after some time?
(B) What is this reaction known as?
(C) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(D) Give reasons for the observations.
Answer:

Question 2.
Whitewash is a very low-cost type of paint made from slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) and chalk (whiting). Chalk is calcium carbonate. Slaked lime turns into chalk by reacting with carbon dioxide in the air over several days. This causes crystallization, which binds and strengthens the coating. Various other additives can be used.

Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide, accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form a solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?
(I) It is an endothermic reaction.
(II) It is an exothermic reaction.
(III) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
(IV) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II) and (III)

Explanation: Slaking of lime is an exothermic reaction because a large amount of heat is produced during the reaction. The heat can be felt by touching the beaker from the outside. The resulting compound Ca(OH)2, which is also called slaked lime, turns red litmus solution to blue and hence, proves it to be a basic solution. Thus, the pH of this solution will be more than seven.

Question 3.
Shalini was quite interested in observing the changes that take place during chemical reactions but was always afraid of entering the chemistry lab. When she spoke to her chemistry teacher regarding this, the teacher suggested that she should perform a simple experiment under her guidance to overcome her fear and at the same time she could observe the changes that take place during a chemical reaction.

She took about 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals in a dry boiling tube and heated it over the
flame of a burner. She noticed change of colour of the ferrous sulphate crystals and could also smell the characteristic odour of burning sulphur.
(A) What change in colour did Shalini observe?
Answer:
Shalini observed that the green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals changed to white as it loses water when heated.
FeSO₄.7H₂O → FeSO₄ + 7H₂O

(B) Why did Shalini get the characteristic odour of burning sulphur?
Answer:

(C) What type of reaction takes place when ferrous sulphate is heated?
Answer:
The type of reaction taking place is the thermal decomposition reaction. The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:

(D) Give another example of such type of reactions.
Answer:

Question 4.
The production of hydrogen from water via electrolysis is a clean process, resulting in only oxygen being produced as a by-product. If the electricity required to split the water into hydrogen and oxygen is supplied via a renewable energy source then the process is environmentally benign.The water electrolysis hydrogen (oxygen) plant is equipment that electrolyzes water to produce hydrogen and oxygen by using lye as an electrolyte.

Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogenand oxygen gases liberated during the electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(b) 2:1

Explanation: The balanced chemical equation for the electrolysis of water is:

The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases Liberated during electrolysis of water is 2:1 by volume.

In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into its simpler forms. During electrolysis, water is broken down into oxygen gas and hydrogen gas due to the passage of electric current through it.

Question 5.
Redox reactions are an important class of reactions. The oxidation and reduction reactions always occur simultaneously, such class of chemical reactions is named as the redox reaction or Oxidation-Reduction reaction.

The substance getting reduced in a chemical reaction is known as the oxidizing agent, while a substance that is getting oxidized is known as the reducing agent. The activity in which copper powder is taken in a china dish and heated helps in understanding redox reactions.
(A) What happens when copper powder is heated in a china dish? Explain your observation.
Answer:
When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of copper powder is coated with black copper oxide as oxidation of copper takes place by addition of oxygen to copper.
2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO

(B) What will you observe if hydrogen gas is passed over the heated material obtained in (A) above?
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over heated material CuO, the black coating on the surface turns brown as the reverse reaction takes place and copper is formed.
CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O

(D) Identify the correct statement:
In the reaction between lead sulphide and hydrogen peroxide shown by the equation below,
PbS + 2H₂O₂ → PbSO₄ + 4H₂O,
(a) Lead sulphide Is reduced and Hydrogen peroxide is oxidized.
(b) Lead sulphide is oxidized and Hydrogen peroxide is reduced.
(c) Lead sulphate is oxidized and water is reduced.
(d) Lead sulphate is reduced and water is oxidized.
Answer:

Question 6.
Rancidification is the process of complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odor. Specifically, it is the hydrolysis or autoxidation of fats into short-chain aldehydes and ketones, which are objectionable in taste and odor. When these processes occur in food, undesirable odors and flavors can result.

Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
(d) Helium or nitrogen
Answer:
(d) Helium or nitrogen

Explanation: Inert gases like helium or nitrogen both can be used for the storage of fresh sample of oil for a Long time, as they do not react with most elements, including oxygen. Thus these gases create an inert environment for the oil and prevent its reaction (oxidation) with any element in the environment. Hence, stopping it from becoming rancid.

Question 7.
A student takes two test tubes. In the first test tube, he takes lead nitrate solution and in the second he takes a few zinc granules. He adds potassium iodide solution to lead nitrate solution in the first test tube. He adds dilute sulphuric acid in the second test tube containing zinc granules.
(A) What is observed in the first test tube on adding potassium iodide solution?

Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: When potassium iodide solution is added to lead nitrate solution in a test tube, a yellow precipitate of Lead iodide is formed. The equation of the reaction taking place is:

Pb(NO₃)₂(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI₂(s) + 2KNO₃(aq)

(B) Select the correct observations:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to a few zinc granules in the second test tube,
(I) Bubbles of hydrogen gas can be seen around the zinc granules.
(II) Bubbles of carbon dioxide can be seen around zinc granules.
(III) The flask becomes hot
(IV) Colour of solution changes to blue,
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: When diluting sulphuric acid is added to zinc granules in a conical flask, the equation of the reaction taking place is:
Zn(s) + H₂SO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq)+ H₂(g)

(C) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Both the reactions are accompanied by a change in colour.
(II) A precipitate is formed in the first test tube only.
(III) Gas is evolved in the second test tube only.
(IV) Both the reactions are examples of double displacement reactions.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
Answer:

(D) Suppose we add dil hydrochloric acid in place of sulphuric acid in the second test tube. Select the correct observation:
(a) Chlorine gas will be evolved.
(b) The test tube will become cold as heat is absorbed during this reaction.
(c) Hydrogen gas will be evolved.
(d) A precipitate of zinc chloride will be formed
Answer:

(E) The type of reaction taking place when water is added slowly to a small amount of calcium oxide in a beaker is:
(I) Combination Reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Exothermic reaction
(IV) Endothermic reaction
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 8.
You must have seen that your mother stores fried food items such as boondi raita, chips, mixture, banana chips and other such items properly. This is because their smell and taste change due to the oxidation of fried food items and food becomes unfit for human consumption.

Why are anti-oxidants added to fat and oil-containing food items?
Answer:
Anti-oxidants are added to fat and oil-containing food items to prevent their oxidation which is known as rancidity which makes food smell bad and changes its taste.

Question 9.
Chemical reaction, a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants to create different substances as products.

Chemical reactions must be distinguished from physical changes. Physical changes include changes of state, such as ice melting to water and water evaporating to vapour. If a physical change occurs, the physical properties of a substance will change, but its chemical identity will remain the same. However, if water, as ice, liquid, or vapour, encounters sodium metal (Na), the atoms will be redistributed to give the new substances molecular hydrogen (H₂) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH). By this, we know that a chemical change or reaction has occurred.
(A) Which of the following are physical changes?
(I) Melting of wax
(II) Burning of wax
(III) Rusting of iron
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Melting of wax and evaporation of water are physical change as they undergo only change in their physical states without any change in their chemical composition. Whereas, burning of wax is a chemical change as carbon dioxide and water are formed when wax is burned. Rusting of iron is also a chemical change as iron undergoes oxidation in the presence of moisture to form rust or iron oxide.

(B) A chemical reaction does not involve:
(a) Formation of new substances having entirely different properties than that of the reactants
(b) Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds
(c) Rearrangement of the atoms of reactants to form new products
(d) Changing of the atoms of one element into those of another element to form new products
Answer:

(C) Quick lime is used in whitewashing because
(a) It is cheap
(b) It forms limestone with water which has a nice color.
(c) It forms slaked lime with water which reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form limestone.
(d) It is easy to use
Answer:

(D) Which of the following are endothermic processes?
(I) Burning of natural gas
(II) Dilution of an acid
(III) Evaporation of water
(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (IV) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory

Which of the following statement about the reaction is correct?
(a) It is a displacement reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) it is a decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
Answer:
((c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.

Explanation: It is a decomposition reaction as a single reactant splits up into two products, namely, KCl and O₂, by absorbing energy in the form of heat.

It is an endothermic reaction as heat is absorbed in this reaction.

Question 10.
Many materials over time can be prone to corrosion and wear Iron is one such metal. Having a protective later and proper preparation can certainly help materials last longer and have other properties integrated into it.

A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a reddish-brown metal Y. the colour of the solution gets discharged. Identify X and Y and also the type of reaction.
Answer:
We are given that the metal Y is reddish brown in colour. This metal is copper and the blue solution of Y is copper sulphate. Also, zinc is used in protecting iron articles and this process is called galvanisation. As Zinc is more reactive than copper it displaces copper from its salt solution, copper sulphate.
Zn + CUSO₄ → ZnSCO₄ + Cu
So, X is zinc, while Y is copper.

Question 11.
Double displacement reactions may be defined as the chemical reactions in which one component each of both the reacting molecules is exchanged to form the products. During this reaction, the cations and anions of two different compounds switch places, forming two entirely different compounds.

Double displacement reactions generally take place in aqueous solutions in which the ions precipitate and there is an exchange of ions.

Double displacement reactions can be further classified as neutralization and precipitation reactions.
(A) What is the precipitate formed on mixing the solution of barium chloride and sodium sulphate?
(a) Barium sulphate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Barium sulphite
(d) Sodium sulphite
Answer:
(a) Barium Sulphate

Explanation: When a solution of barium chloride is mixed with a solution of sodium sulphate, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride.
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + NaCl(aq)

(B) When Potassium iodide solution is added to lead(II) nitrate solution,
(I) lead (II) iodide precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(II) Potassium nitrate precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(III) Potassium displaces lead from lead nitrate solution.
(IV) Exchange of lead and potassium ions takes place
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) Identify the precipitate obtained by the reaction between lead nitrate and sodium sulphate.
(a) PbS
(b) Pb(SO₄)₂
(c) PbSO₄
(d) NaNO₂
Answer:
(c) PbSO₄
Explanation: Lead nitrate reacts with sodium sulphate solution to form a precipitate of lead sulphate and sodium nitrate.
Pb(NO₃)₂(aq)+ Na₂SO₄(aq) → PbSO₄(s) + 2NaNO₃(aq)

This is a double displacement reaction as the exchange of lead and sodium ions is taking place.

(D) Which one of the following is true about a double displacement reaction?
(I) Electrolysis of water is an example of this reaction.
(II) Two compounds exchange ions to form new compounds.
(III) Only a single product is formed.
(IV) Reaction between magnesium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid is an example for this reaction.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) Identify the incorrect statement regarding double displacement reactions:
(a) All double displacement reactions are precipitation reactions.
(b) All neutralization reactions between acids and bases are double displacement reactions
(c) The reaction between vinegar and baking soda is an example of a double displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between silver nitrate solution and sodium chloride solution is an example of a double displacement reaction.
Answer:

Question 12.
Thermite is a pyrotechnic composition of metal powder fuel and metal oxide. When ignited by heat, thermite undergoes an exothermic oxidation-reduction reaction. Most varieties are not explosive but can create brief bursts of high temperature in a small area. Its form of action is similar to that of other fuel-oxidizer mixtures, such as black powder. Thermites have diverse compositions. Fuels include aluminium, magnesium, titanium, zinc, silicon, and boron. Aluminium is common because of its high boiling point. Oxidizers include boron(III) oxide, silicon(IV) oxide, chromium(III) oxide, manganese(IV) oxide, iron(III) oxide, iron(II, III) oxide, copper(II) oxide, and lead(ll,IV) oxide.

In this reaction mention the substance getting oxidized and the substance getting reduced.
Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
Answer:
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen while packing them as nitrogen is an inert gas and prevents fried food materials from getting rancid.

Question 13.
A synthesis or combination reaction is a reaction in which simple compounds combine to make a more complex one. The opposite of a combination reaction is a decomposition reaction in which a single substance splits into two or more substances. We also have a single displacement reaction (in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound) and a double displacement reaction (in which the exchange of ions takes place between two compounds). Having a thorough understanding of the types of reactions will be useful for predicting the products of an unknown reaction.
(A) A student performed several experiments and then noted down his observations in a tabular form as given below:

S.No. Observation	Conclusion Regarding the type of Reaction Taking Place
(I) When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of the copper powder turns black	Combination Reaction
(II) Hydrogen gas is . evolved when Iron reacts with dil. HCl.	Decomposition Reaction
(III) A black precipitate is formed along with sulphuric acid solution when hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through copper sulphate solution	Double Displacement Reaction
(IV) When electricity is passed through molten aluminium chloride aluminium metal is formed along with a gas.	Displacement Reaction

Select the option that correctly describes the conclusions made by the student regarding type of reaction taking place:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation : When barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate soLution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed alongwith copper chloride solution.

This is an example of precipitation reaction as a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed. It is also a double displacement reaction as the Ba²⁺ and Cu²⁺ ions form new compounds by exchanging their ions. The equation of the reaction talcing place is:
BaCl₂(aq) + CuSO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + CuCl₂(aq)

(B) When a metal X, which is used for coating iron articles, is added to a blue solution of a reddish brown metal Y, the color of the solution gets discharged.
Select the option which correctly identifies the metals X and Y and the type of reaction taking place.

Answer:

(C) The type of reaction taking place when barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate solution is:
(I) Combination reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Double Displacement reaction
(IV) Precipitation reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Burning of natural gas is a decomposition reaction.
(b) Burning of hydrogen gas in air is a combination reaction
(c) Reaction between most metals and dilute hydrochloric acid is a displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between an acid and a base is an example of double displacement reaction.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
(I) The precipitation reactions produce insoluble salts.
(II) Neutralization reactions are single displacement reactions.
(III) Decomposition reactions can be carried out only in presence of heat or light.
(IV) Displacement reactions are opposite of combination reactions.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

Explanation: Precipitation reactions are the reactions in which an insoluble substance or precipitate is formed. Neutralization reactions are the reactions between an acid and a base and are double displacement reactions. Decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat, light or electricity. Decomposition reactions are the opposite of combination reactions.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What happens when sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution?
Answer:
When sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
The equation of the reaction taking place is:
Na₂SO₄((aq) + BaCl₂(aq) →BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

Question 2.
An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to form yellow ppt of compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to sunlight undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in P along with reddish-brown gas. Identify P & Q.
Answer:
As the compound Q is formed by the reaction between P (metal nitrate solution) and sodium bromide solution, Q is silver bromide which is used in photography.

Further, Q undergoes decomposition in the presence of sunlight to form silver and bromine gas. As silver is formed above, the metal nitrate is silver nitrate.

P – silver nitrate (AgNO₃)
Q – silver bromide (AgBr).

Question 3.
What can be seen when a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate?
Answer:
When a strip of copper metals is placed in a solution of silver nitrate, copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution as copper is a more reactive metal than silver. Copper nitrate is formed with a shiny greyish-white deposit of silver on the copper strip.
2AgNO₃ + Cu → Cu(NCO₃)₂ + 2Ag

Question 4.
Name and state the law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations.
Answer:
The law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations is the law of conservation of mass which states that “Matter can neither be created nor be destroyed”. It means that the total mass of atoms of reactants = the total mass of atoms of products, as atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.

Question 5.
Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water, a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
Answer:
The compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is water (H20) which has properties that are different from properties of H₂ and O₂ as it is formed by the chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen gases. While hydrogen and oxygen are gases at room temperature, water is a liquid at room temperature.

Question 6.
If copper metal is heated over a flame, it develops a coating. What is the colour and composition of the coating?
Answer:

Question 7.
Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the following reaction: carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen gas at 340 atm to form methyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and silver nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer:
When silver nitrate solution is added to sodium chloride solution, a white precipitate of silver chloride is formed along with sodium nitrate solution.
AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq)

Question 9.
Complete and balance the following:
Fe₂O₃ + Al →
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

What Is Democracy Why Democracy MCQ Question 1.
The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –
(a) Democracia
(b) Demokratia
(c) Demos
(d) Kratia

Answer

Answer: (b) Demokratia

What Is Democracy Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
The head of the government in Nepal is the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) King
(d) Vice President

Answer

Answer: (a) President

Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka
(b) US in Iraq
(c) USSR in Communist Poland
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

What Is Democracy Why Democracy For Class 9 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 4.
How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (b) 3000

Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 5.
Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party
(b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party
(d) Institutional Party

Answer

Answer: (c) Institutional Revolutionary Party

What Is Democracy Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule
(b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans
(d) 1980, from White minority rule

Answer

Answer: (d) 1980, from White minority rule

Class 9 What Is Democracy Why Democracy MCQ Question 7.
which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think
(b) should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Why Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution
(b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Provisions given in the Constitution

Ch 2 Civics Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
Some of the drawbacks of democracy is
(a) Instability and delays
(b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) Politicians fighting among themselves
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above

Civics Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36
(b) 1958-61
(c) 2001-2002
(d) 2004-2007

Answer

Answer: (b) 1958-61

Civics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 11.
Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because
(a) Decisions are taken by educated people
(b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time
(d) All decisions are approved by judiciary

Answer

Answer: (b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion

MCQ Questions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 Question 12.
The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) Limited democracy
(b) representative democracy
(c) Maximum democracy
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) representative democracy

Class 9 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ What Is Democracy Why Democracy Question 13.
Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

Read the Cartoon (From the NCERT Textbook)

MCQ Of What Is Democracy Why Democracy Question 1.
Look at the Cartoon (From the NCERT textbook on page 25) given below:

This cartoon was drawn when elections were held in Iraq with the presence of US and other foreign powers. What do you think this cartoon is saying? Why is ‘democracy’ written the way it is?

Answer

Answer:
The cartoon is saying that democracy is being set up in Iraq with the help of the US and other foreign powers.

Democracy is being ridiculed in this cartoon. The way the word is written shows that it is not a true democracy because the real power is with some external powers and not with locally elected representatives. This cannot be called people’s rule.

Democracy Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
Look at the cartoon (From the NCERT textbook on page 27) given below:

This cartoon was drawn in the context of Latin America. Do you think it applies to the Pakistani situation as well? Think of other countries where this would apply? Does this happen sometimes in our country as well?

Answer

Answer:
The cartoon suggests the scene of booth capturing at gunpoint during elections. Yes, it applies to the Pakistani situation as well. Here, General Pervez Musharraf established army rule and controlled the elected representatives.

This could be applied in countries like China, Iraq, etc. Booth capturing remained an important feature of the Indian elections sometimes ago. But nowadays this rarely happens.

Civics Ch 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 3.
Look at the cartoon (From the NCERT Textbook on page 28) given below:

This cartoon was titled ‘Building Democracy’ and was first published in a Latin American publication. What do moneybags signify here? Could this cartoon be applied to India?

Answer

Answer:
This cartoon suggests that elections cannot be held without money. Different political parties spend a lot of money during election period to win the election. The government also spend money profusely to conduct free and fair election.

Moneybags signify here that money is the real strength in democracy. Without it, it is difficult for a political party to exist or win in the election.

This cartoon can could be applied to India also. Whenever there is an election in the country, money is spent recklessly inspite of EC’s warnings.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding What is Democracy? Why Democracy? CBSE Class 9 Civics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 16 नौबतखाने में इबादत with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 16 नौबतखाने में इबादत with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided नौबतखाने में इबादत Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 16 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

नौबतखाने में इबादत Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

नौबतखाने में इबादत Extra Question Answer Class 10 Question 1.
बिस्मिल्ला खाँ खुदा से क्या माँगते हैं?
(a) परिवार की सलामती
(b) सच्चे सुर का वरदान
(c) अपनी ख़ुशी
(d) एक शहनाई

Answer

Answer: (b) सच्चे सुर का वरदान

नौबतखाने में इबादत Question Answer Class 10 Question 2.
अवधी पारंपरिक लोकगीतों एवं चैती में किसका उल्लेख बार-बार मिलता है?
(a) शहनाई का
(b) होली का
(c) भक्ति का
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) शहनाई का

Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 16 Question Answer Question 3.
शास्त्रों में काशी किस नाम से प्रतिष्ठित है?
(a) आनंदवन
(b) सोमवन
(c) स्वर्गमार्ग
(d) आनंदकानन

Answer

Answer: (d) आनंदकानन

नौबतखाने में इबादत Pdf Class 10 Question 4.
काशी किसकी पाठशाला है?
(a) संस्कृत की
(b) संस्कृति की
(c) संगीत की
(d) नृत्य की

Answer

Answer: (b) संस्कृति की

Naubatkhane Mein Ibadat Question Answer Class 10 Question 5.
मुसलमान मुहर्रम में कितने दिन का शोक मनाते हैं?
(a) बीस दिन का
(b) पाँच दिन का
(c) दस दिन का
(d) एक दिन का

Answer

Answer: (c) दस दिन का

Class 10 Hindi Chapter 16 Question Answer Question 6.
अमीरूद्दीन का ननिहाल कहाँ है?
(a) काशी
(b) डुमराँव
(c) कानपुर
(d) लखनऊ

Answer

Answer: (a) काशी

Naubat Khane Mein Ibadat Extra Question Answers Class 10 Question 7.
रसलून और बतलून के गाने पर किसे ख़ुशी मिलती है?
(a) बच्चों को
(b) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ को
(c) अमीरूद्दीन को
(d) श्रोताओं को

Answer

Answer: (c) अमीरूद्दीन को

Question 8.
अमीरूद्दीन के शहनाई गुरू कौन थे?
(a) बिस्मिल्लाह खाँ
(b) रसलूनबाई
(c) अलीबख्श खाँ
(d) पिता

Answer

Answer: (c) अलीबख्श खाँ

Question 9.
काशी में किसका आयोजन एक प्राचीन एवं अद्भुत् परंपरा है?
(a) संगीत-आयोजन
(b) नृत्य-आयोजन
(c) कला-आयोजन
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) संगीत-आयोजन

Question 10.
काशी का संगीत-आयोजन किस अवसर पर होता है?
(a) हनुमान-जयंती के अवसर पर
(b) जन्माष्टमी के अवसर पर
(c) रामलीला के अवसर पर
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) हनुमान-जयंती के अवसर पर

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 16 नौबतखाने में इबादत with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding नौबतखाने में इबादत CBSE Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 3 Ruling the Countryside with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 3 Ruling the Countryside with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Ruling the Countryside Class 8 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

Ruling the Countryside Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Class 8 History Chapter 3 MCQ Question 1.
The Champaran movement was against
(a) peasants
(b) East India Company
(c) the oppressive attitude of the planters
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) the oppressive attitude of the planters

Ruling The Countryside Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
The Company was appointed as the Diwan of Bengal in
(a) 1762
(b) 1763
(c) 1764
(d) 1765

Answer

Answer: (d) 1765

Ruling The Countryside MCQ Question 3.
Gandhiji visited Champaran
(a) to see the plight of Indigo planters in Champaran
(b) to see the progress of’Indigo plantation
(c) to see the managing system of company
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) to see the plight of Indigo planters in Champaran

Class 8 History Ch 3 MCQ Question 4.
Who devised the new-system of revenue called Mahalwari?
(a) Queen Elizabeth
(b) Holt Mackenzie
(c) Queen Victoria
(d) Gandhiji

Answer

Answer: (b) Holt Mackenzie

MCQ Questions For Class 8 History Chapter 3 Question 5.
Growers of woad in Europe saw crop as competition to their earnings.
(a) tea
(b) rubber
(c) indigo
(d) coffee

Answer

Answer: (c) indigo

Class 8 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Indigo production came down in Bengal in
(a) 1850
(b) 1852
(c) 1855
(d) 1859

Answer

Answer: (d) 1859

History Class 8 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 7.
Who had developed the Munro system?
(a) Capiain Alexander
(b) Holt Mackenzie
(c) Thomas Munro
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Thomas Munro

Ncert Class 8 History Chapter 3 MCQ Question 8.
How much proportion of Indigo was imported from India by Britain in 1810?
(a) 75%
(b) 95%
(c) 90%
(d) 85%

Answer

Answer: (b) 95%

Ch 3 History Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
H.T. Colebrook describes the conditions of the under-tenant farmers in
(a) 1800
(b) 1805
(c) 1806
(d) 1810

Answer

Answer: (c) 1806

History Chapter 3 Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
After harvest, the indigo plant was taken to the in the indigo factory.
(a) dye
(b) vat
(c) farm
(d) machine

Answer

Answer: (b) vat

Class 8 Chapter 3 History MCQ Question 11.
The international demand of indigo was affected by the discovery of
(a) synthetic dyes
(b) woad
(c) blue colour
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) synthetic dyes

Match the following:

Column A	Column B
(i) Diwan	(a) Villages
(ii) Indigo	(b) Cultivation of planter’s own land
(iii) Vat	(c) Chief finance administrator
(iv) Mahal	(d) A plant producing blue colour
(v) Nij	(e) Storage vessel
(vi) New Munro System	(f) Fixing revenue

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Diwan	(c) Chief finance administrator
(ii) Indigo	(d) A plant producing blue colour
(iii) Vat	(e) Storage vessel
(iv) Mahal	(a) Villages
(v) Nij	(b) Cultivation of planter’s own land
(vi) New Munro System	(f) Fixing revenue

State whether true or false:

1. The demand for indigo increased in late seventeenth century.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Revenues were fixed in the permanent settlement.

Answer

Answer: True

3. The company purchased goods in India before 1865 through gold and silver imports.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Mahalwari system came into existence in 1700.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Very high rate of revenue was the major problem of ryotwari system.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Weekly markets were very flourishing during economic crisis of Bengal.

Answer

Answer: False

7. The company introduced the Permanent Settlement in 1793.

Answer

Answer: True

Fill in the blanks:

1. Gomasthas were the agents of …………………

Answer

Answer: planters

2. The Mughal emperor appointed the ………………… as the Diwan of Bengal.

Answer

Answer: East India Company

3. The painter was commissioned by ………………… to record memorable events of his life.

Answer

Answer: Clive

4. Ryotwari system was also known as …………………

Answer

Answer: Munro System

5. ………………… is cultivation on Ryot’s lands.

Answer

Answer: Ryoti

6. Bigha is the unit of ………………… measurement by the British in Bengal.

Answer

Answer: land

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 3 Ruling the Countryside with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Ruling the Countryside CBSE Class 8 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 क्या निराश हुआ जाए with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 7 क्या निराश हुआ जाए with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided क्या निराश हुआ जाए Class 8 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

क्या निराश हुआ जाए Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 MCQ Question 1.
इस पाठ के लेखक हैं?
(a) हरिशंकर परसाई
(b) भगवती चरण वर्मा
(c) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
(d) हजारी प्रसाद द्विवेदी

Answer

Answer: (d) हजारी प्रसाद द्विवेदी

Kya Nirash Hua Jaye MCQ Class 8 Question 2.
आजकल समाचार पत्रों में क्या छपते हैं?
(a) ठगी एवं डकैती
(b) चोरी और तस्करी
(c) भ्रष्टाचार
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

क्या निराश हुआ जाए MCQ Class 8 Question 3.
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को किस दृष्टि से देखा जा रहा है?
(a) घृणा की दृष्टि से
(b) प्रेम की दृष्टि से
(c) संदेश की दृष्टि से
(d) मित्र की दृष्टि से

Answer

Answer: (c) संदेश की दृष्टि से

Kya Nirash Ho Jaye MCQ Class 8 Question 4.
कानून की त्रुटियों का लाभ उठाने से निम्नलिखित में से कौन लोग संकोच नहीं करते?
(a) अफ़सर
(b) देशभक्त
(c) धर्म भीरू
(d) युद्धवीर

Answer

Answer: (c) धर्म भीरू

Class 8 Hindi Ch 7 MCQ Question 5.
भारतवर्ष में किसके संग्रह को अधिक महत्त्व नहीं दिया जाता?
(a) धन-संपत्ति
(b) लोभ-मोह को
(c) काम-क्रोध को
(d) भौतिक वस्तुओं को

Answer

Answer: (d) भौतिक वस्तुओं को

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
चरम और परम किसे माना जाता है?
(a) अकेला व एक सार
(b) अंग्रेज़ी व प्रधान
(c) अग्र व पीछे
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) अंग्रेज़ी व प्रधान

Kya Nirash Hua Jaye Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
लेखक ने टिकट बाबू को कितने का नोट दिए?
(a) पचास
(b) दस का
(c) सौ का
(d) पाँच सौ का

Answer

Answer: (c) सौ का

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 Question 8.
बस का कंडक्टर अपने साथ बस अड्डे से क्या लाया था? ___
(a) दूध और पानी
(b) चाय बिस्कुट
(c) मिठाईयाँ और फल
(d) टिकट और खुले पैसे

Answer

Answer: (a) दूध और पानी

(1)

क्या यही भारतवर्ष है जिसका सपना तिलक और गांधी ने देखा था? रवींद्रनाथ ठाकर और मदनमोहन मालवीय का महान संस्कृति-सभ्य भारतवर्ष किस अतीत के गह्वर में डूब गया? आर्य और द्रविड़, हिंदू और मुसलमान, यूरोपीय और भारतीय आदर्शों की मिलन-भूमि ‘मानव महा-समुद्र’ क्या सूख ही गया? मेरा मन कहता है ऐसा हो नहीं सकता। हमारे महान मनीषियों के सपनों का भारत है और रहेगा। यह सही है कि इन दिनों कुछ ऐसा माहौल बना है कि ईमानदारी से मेहनत करके जीविका चलानेवाले निरीह और भोले-भाले श्रमजीवी पिस रहे हैं और झूठ तथा फ़रेब का रोज़गार करनेवाले फल-फूल रहे हैं। ईमानदारी को मूर्खता का पर्याय समझा जाने लगा है, सचाई केवल भीरु और बेबस लोगों के हिस्से पड़ी है। ऐसी स्थिति में जीवन के महान मूल्यों के बारे में लोगों की आस्था हिलने लगी है।

Ncert Class 8 Hindi Chapter 7 MCQ Question 1.
भारतवर्ष का सपना किसने देखा था?
(a) तिलक ने
(b) गांधी ने
(c) उपर्युक्त दोनों ने
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) उपर्युक्त दोनों ने

Class 8 Chapter 7 Hindi MCQ Question 2.
भारतवर्ष की महान सभ्य संस्कृति कहाँ डूब गई?
(a) सागर में
(b) पाश्चात्य देशों में
(c) गह्वर में
(d) युद्ध में

Answer

Answer: (c) गह्वर में

Ch 7 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
आज के माहौल में कौन अधिक परेशान है?
(a) ईमानदार लोग
(b) मेहनत करने वाले
(c) निरीह और भोले-भाले लोग
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Hindi Class 8 Chapter 7 MCQ Question 4.
कायर और लाचार लोगों की वस्तु बनकर क्या रह गई है?
(a) धोखाधड़ी
(b) बेईमानी
(c) झूठ
(d) सच्चाई

Answer

Answer: (d) सच्चाई

Question 5.
जीविका में किस प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है?
(a) जीव
(b) विका
(c) इका
(d) का

Answer

Answer: (c) इका

(2)

दोषों का पर्दाफाश करना बूरी बात नहीं है। बुराई यह मालूम होती है कि किसी के आचरण के गलत पक्ष को उद्घाटित करके उसमें रस लिया जाता है और दोषोद्घाटन को एकमात्र कर्तव्य मान लिया जाता है। बुराई में रस लेना बुरी बात है, अच्छाई में उतना ही रस लेकर उजागर न करना और भी बुरी बात है। सैकड़ों घटनाएँ ऐसी घटती हैं जिन्हें उजागर करने से लोक-चित्त में अच्छाई के प्रति अच्छी भावना जगती है।

Question 1.
दोषों का निराकरण कैसे होता है?
(a) दोषों पर परदा डालकर
(b) दोषों को दूसरे के सामने प्रकट कर
(c) दोषों को बढ़ावा देकर
(d) दोषों का साथ देकर

Answer

Answer: (b) दोषों को दूसरे के सामने प्रकट कर

Question 2.
किसी की कमियों को उजागर करने में रस लेने को बुरी बात क्यों कहा गया है?
(a) क्योंकि इससे समाज में बुरी भावनाएँ बढ़ती हैं।
(b) क्योंकि किसी की कमियों को उजागर करने में रस लेने से दोषों का निवारण नहीं हो पाता
(c) क्योंकि इससे लोग शर्मिंदा हो जाते हैं
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) क्योंकि किसी की कमियों को उजागर करने में रस लेने से दोषों का निवारण नहीं हो पाता

Question 3.
किससे रस लिया जाता है?
(a) दूसरों के गलत पक्ष के उद्घाटन में
(b) अपने दोषों के उद्घाटन में
(c) अच्छाई का उद्घाटन करने में
(d) किसी में नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) दूसरों के गलत पक्ष के उद्घाटन में

Question 4.
अच्छाई क्या है?
(a) भाववाचक संज्ञा
(b) विशेषण
(c) क्रिया विशेषण
(d) सर्वनाम

Answer

Answer: (a) भाववाचक संज्ञा

Question 5.
दोषोद्घाटन का उचित संधि-विच्छेद है?
(a) दोष + द्घाटन
(b) दोषोद् + घाटन
(c) दोषो + द्घाटन
(d) दोष + उद्घाटन

Answer

Answer: (d) दोष + उद्घाटन

(3)

मैं भी बहुत भयभीत था पर ड्राइवर को किसी तरह मार-पीट से बचाया। डेढ़-दो घंटे बीत गए। मेरे बच्चे भोजन और पानी के लिए व्याकुल थे। मेरी और पत्नी की हालत बुरी थी। लोगों ने ड्राइवर को मारा तो नहीं पर उसे बस से उतारकर एक जगह घेरकर रखा। कोई भी दुर्घटना होती है तो पहले ड्राइवर को समाप्त कर देना उचित जान पड़ा। मेरे गिड़गिड़ाने का कोई विशेष असर नहीं पड़ा। इसी समय क्या देखता हूँ कि एक खाली बस चली आ रही है और उस पर हमारा बस कंडक्टर भी बैठा हुआ है। उसने आते ही कहा, “अड्डे से नई बस लाया हूँ, इस बस पर बैठिए। वह बस चलाने लायक नहीं है।” फिर मेरे पास एक लोटे में पानी और थोड़ा दूध लेकर आया और बोला, “पंडित जी! बच्चों का रोना मुझसे देखा नहीं गया।”

Question 1.
लोग ड्राइवर के साथ क्यों मारपीट कर रहे थे?
(a) बस खराब होने के कारण
(b) बस न चलाने के कारण
(c) कंडक्टर के चले जाने के कारण
(d) बस गलत जगह खड़ी करने के कारण

Answer

Answer: (c) कंडक्टर के चले जाने के कारण

Question 2.
लेखक ने किसको मार-पीट से बचाया?
(a) कंडक्टर को
(b) ड्राइवर को
(c) यात्रियों को
(d) डाकुओं को

Answer

Answer: (a) कंडक्टर को

Question 3.
बस का कंडक्टर कहाँ गया था?
(a) पैसा जमा करने
(b) डाकुओं को बुलाने
(c) नई बस लाने
(d) पुलिस को बुलाने

Answer

Answer: (c) नई बस लाने

Question 4.
किसकी हालत बुरी हो रही थी?
(a) लेखक की
(b) लेखक की पत्नी की
(c) लेखक के बच्चों की
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी की

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी की

Question 5.
यात्रियों ने ड्राइवर के साथ क्या किया?
(a) उसे बस से उतार दिया
(b) उसे एक जगह घेरकर रखा
(c) पुलिस के हवाले कर दिया
(d) उसे एक कमरे में बंद कर दिया।

Answer

Answer: (b) उसे एक जगह घेरकर रखा

(4)

ठगा भी गया हूँ, धोखा भी खाया है, परंतु बहुत कम स्थलों पर विश्वासघात नाम की चीज़ मिलती है। केवल उन्हीं बातों का हिसाब रखो, जिनमें धोखा खाया है तो जीवन कष्टकर हो जाएगा, परंतु ऐसी घटनाएँ भी बहुत कम नहीं हैं जब लोगों ने अकारण सहायता की है, निराश मन को ढांढ़स दिया है और हिम्मत बँधाई है।

Question 1.
लेखक के निराश न होने का क्या कारण था?
(a) ठगा जाना
(b) धोखा खाना
(c) विश्वासघात
(d) उसके साथ विश्वासघात का न होना

Answer

Answer: (d) उसके साथ विश्वासघात का न होना

Question 2.
छल, कपट की घटनाएँ याद रखने का जीवन पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(a) सुखमय बन जाता है
(b) दुखों से भर जाता है
(c) जब उसके साथ छल किया गया
(d) लापरवाही बढ़ती जाती है।

Answer

Answer: (c) जब उसके साथ छल किया गया

Question 3.
यह गद्यांश किस पाठ से लिया गया है?
(a) विश्वासघात
(b) निराश नहीं होना चाहिए
(c) क्या निराश हुआ जाए
(d) निराश नहीं होना चाहिए

Answer

Answer: (c) क्या निराश हुआ जाए

Question 4.
‘अकारण’ शब्द में ‘अ’ क्या है?
(a) उपसर्ग
(b) प्रत्यय
(c) मूल शब्द
(d) अन्य

Answer

Answer: (a) उपसर्ग

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 7 क्या निराश हुआ जाए with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 8 Hindi क्या निराश हुआ जाए MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it

Answer

Answer: (d) A force is always acting on it

Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 2.
According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other

Answer

Answer: (b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions

Class 9 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 3.
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Answer

Answer: (d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 4.
The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

Answer

Answer: (c) to resist any change in its state of motion

Physics MCQ Questions Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion With Answers Question 5.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks

Answer

Answer: (a) accelerated

Class 9 Science Ch 9 MCQ Question 6.
An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms^-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 0 N
From newton’s Ist law of motion, since there is no external force acting on the object it will remain in its original state of motion. Hence, zero force is required to keep the object moving with constant velocity, correct answer is B.

Ch 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) momentum

MCQ Of Force And Laws Of Motion Question 8.
A water tanker filled up to \(\frac{2}{3}\) of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards

Answer

Answer: (b) move forward

Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Class 9 Question 9.
If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.

Answer

Answer: (a) remain same

Class 9 Chapter 9 Science MCQ Question 10.
When a number of forces acting simultaneously on a body bring about a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, then these forces acting on the body are said to be
(a) balanced forces
(b) equal forces
(c) unbalanced forces
(d) opposite forces

Answer

Answer: (d) opposite forces

MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Question 11.
When a car at high speed makes a sharp turn, the driver in a car tends to get thrown to the side opposite to the turn. This is due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of time
(c) inertia of rest
(d) inertia of direction

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion

MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 Question 12.
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore, then the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) move towards the shore
(c) remain stationary
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) move away from the shore

Class 9 Ch 9 Science MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Mass is measure of inertia of a body.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia.
(c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.
(d) Newton’s third law talks about the direction of the force.

Answer

Answer: (c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.

Chapter 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
A ball is thrown vertically upward in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
(a) fall behind the thrower
(b) fall ahead of the thrower
(c) return back to the thrower
(d) fall on the left of the thrower

Answer

Answer: (c) return back to the thrower

Class 9 Physics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following is not an application of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) While firing a bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder
(b) When a man jumps from a boat to the shore
(c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground
(d) A body suspended from the hook of a spring balanced in a lift which is accelerated downward

Answer

Answer: (c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground

Question 16.
When we stop pedalling, the bicycle begins to slow down. This is because of the
(a) Frictional force acting along the direction of motion of bicycle
(b) Air resistance which is in the direction of motion
(c) Frictional force acting opposite to the direction of motion of bicycle by the road
(d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time

Answer

Answer: (d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time

Question 17.
Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which, it cannot change by itself
(a) its state of rest
(b) its steady state of uniform motion
(c) its direction of motion
(d) all of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 18.
An athlete does not come to rest immediately after crossing the winning line due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of rest
(c) inertia of direction
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion

Question 19.
A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a wooden block of mass C. If the bullet gets embedded in the wooden block, then the magnitude of velocity of the system just after the collision will be
(a) \(\frac{A+B}{AC}\)
(b) \(\frac{A+C}{B+C}\)
(c) \(\frac{AC}{B+C}\)
(d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)

Question 20.
The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 12 : 5
(d) 5 : 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 : 12

Fill in the blanks

1. The momentum of an object is product of its mass and ……………..

Answer

Answer: velocity

2. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to ……………… applied”.

Answer

Answer: force

3. According to law of conservation of momentum “the total momentum of an isolated system is always ……………..

Answer

Answer: conserved

4. Recoiling of gun is an example of ………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: third

5. According to third law of motion “to every action there is an equal and ……………… reaction and they act on two different bodies”.

Answer

Answer: opposite

6. The forces are said to be balanced, if net force is ……………..

Answer

Answer: zero

7. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust particle comes out. This phenomenon is an example of …………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: first

Match the following columns

Column A	Column B
(a) Action and reaction	(i) Balanced forces
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball	(ii) Newton’s first law
(c) Rocket propulsion	(iii) Mass
(d) Resultant force is zero	(iv) Newton’s second law
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower.	(v) Inertia
(f) SI unit of momentum	(vi) Newton’s third law
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest.	(vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it	(viii) kg m/s²

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Action and reaction	(vi) Newton’s third law
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball	(iv) Newton’s second law
(c) Rocket propulsion	(vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(d) Resultant force is zero	(i) Balanced forces
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower.	(ii) Newton’s first law
(f) SI unit of momentum	(viii) kg m/s²
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest.	(v) Inertia
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it	(iii) Mass

Complete the crossword given below:

Across:
2. SI unit of force
3. Force which opposes relative motion
5. Measure of inertia
7. First law is also known as law of

Down:
1. Product of mass and velocity
4. Natural tendency of an object to resist a change in its states of motion or rest
6. Magnitude of resultant if forces are balanced

Answer

Answer:
Across:
2. Newton
3. Friction
5. Mass
7. Inertia

Down:
1. Momentum
4. Inertia
6. Zero

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Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

March 2, 2023

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Online Education for Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The rise of political parties is directly linked to
(a) Emergence of representative democracies
(b) rise of large scale economies
(c) rise of mechanism of restrain and support the government
(d) rise of internet
Answer:
(a) Emergence of representative democracies

MCQ On Political Parties Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a National Political Party”?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

MCQ Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 3.
Which one of the following facilities is offered by the “Election Commission” to a recognised political party?
(a) Party Name
(b) Election Funds
(c) Election Symbol
(d) Manifesto
Answer:
(c) Election Symbol

Class 10 Political Parties MCQ Question 4.
Who among the following recognises “Political parties” in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(a) Election Commission

Related Theory
More than 750 parties are registered with the Election Commission of India.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
……………… in which one of the following states does “Shiv Sena” exist as a regional political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:

Political Parties MCQ Class 10th Question 6.
Who among the following organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930? [CBSE 2012]
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar was known as the father of Indian Constitution and worked extensively for the Depressed classes. He arranged them into an association in 1932. It gave the Depressed Classes (Later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following political parties seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and Adivasis?
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Janata Dal (s)
Answer:

MCQ Political Parties Class 10 Question 8.
The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is:
(a) Nationalist Congress Party
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(b) Communist Party of India

Explanation: It was formed in 1925. The party espouses secularism and democracy.
It is opposed to the forces of secessionism and communalism. It accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Question 9.
Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation: In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems.

MCQ Of Chapter Political Parties Class 10 Question 10.
Which of the following countries have bi-party system?
(a) United Kingdom and Belgium
(b) United States of America and Canada
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America

Political Party Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following political party was founded in 1998?
(a) All India Trinamool Congress
(b) Nationalist Congress Party
(c) Aam Admi Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer:
(a) Alt India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was founded under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee and is currently ruling in West Bengal since 2011.

Related Theory
This party became a national political party in 2016.

Political Parties MCQ Class 10 Question 12.
In this party system, generally power changes between two main parties:
(a) Bi-party system
(b) Single party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQs Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 13.
What does UPA stands for?
(a) United Party Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Unified Political Alliance
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Political Parties Question 14.
Which of the following statements are not associated with a regional political party in India?
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election
(b) It gets 2 seats in the elections for state legislatures
(c) It gets 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election

MCQs On Political Parties Question 15.
Which of the following institutions in India has passed an order for every candidate who contests elections to file an giving details of property and criminal cases?
(a) Supreme court of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Constitution of India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme court of India

Question 16.
The rise of political parties can be linked directly to the emergence of:
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Representative democracy
Answer:
(d) Representative Democracy

Explanation: Political Parties are a symbol of Representative Democracy. Political parties are groups of politically aware citizens who’re interested in running the government/country as representatives of common people.

Related Theory
Large societies/countries need Representative Democracies. In a representative democracy, repre-sentatives are chosen through public support in elections to form a responsible government because direct democracy is not possible or feasible in these countries. Representatives take care of the needs and requirements of the people who’ve voted for him.

In direct democracies, people do not chose any representatives, rather decide everything through methods like referendum where everyone votes in negative or affirmative at the time of decision making.

Dictatorship is the rule of a single person. No Political parties are allowed to rise in Dictatorship because all powers lie in the hands of an individual and the will of the people is not considered important.

In Monarchy, power is vested in the hands of a non- elected ruler. This position is hereditary. The ruler runs the country and there’s no significance attached to the needs of the people.

Question 17.
What does NDA stands for?
(a) Natural Democratic Alliance
(b) Nominative Democratic Alliance
(c) Nautical Democratic Alliance
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Explanation: NDA is led by BJP and is ruling in the centre currently.

Question 18.
Which of the following political party draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Ramaswamy Naicker and Dr. Ambedkar?
(a) BJP
(b) BSP
(c) NCP
(d) CPI
Answer:
(b) BSP

Explanation: BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of late Kanshi Ram.

Related Theory
This party enjoys its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and formed governments in this state several times by taking support of different parties at different times.

Question 19.
Arrange political parties according to their year of formation in increasing order:
(i) BSP
(ii) BJP
(iii) INC
(iv) CPI
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Explanation: INC — 1885 CPI— 1925 BJP— 1980 BSP — 1984

Question 20.
Uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion is the agenda of:
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Nationalist Party of India
(d) Nationalist Congress Party
Answer:
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party

Question 21.
Which one of the following party systems is against the basic principle of democracy?
(a) Multi-party system
(b) Bi-party system
(c) Single party system
(d) None of the above
Answer:

Question 22.
This party was founded in 1964 and believes in Marxism-Leninism. Identify the party:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Community Party of India
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist

Explanation: This party is known as CPI-M and was formed after a spilt in the CPI in 1964.

Question 23.
In India, which of the following alliance is NOT active?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) Right Front
Answer:
(d) Right Front

Explanation: In India, there are three major alliances since the 2004 parliamentary elections-NDA (led by BJP), UPA (led by the Congress Party) and the Left Front.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 24.
Identify the party:
(1) Several parties compete for power
(2) More than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power.
(3) The government is formed by various parties coming together.
Answer:
Multi-party system.

Question 25.
Identify the party:
(1) Launched on 1 January, 1998 under the leadership of Mamata Banerjee.
(2) The party’s symbol is flowers and grass.
(3) Committed to secularism and federalism.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Explanation: It has been in power in West Bengal since 2011. It also has a presence in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura. In the General Elections held in 2019, it got 4.07 per cent votes and won 22 seats, making it the fourth largest party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 26.
Identify the party:
(1) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country.
(2) It was in power in West Bengal without a break for 34 years.
(3) It was founded in 1964.
(4) The party believes in Marxism-Leninism
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
India has evolved a multiparty system because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
‘National parties’ have one unit in one state only.
Answer:
False
‘National parties’ have units in various states all across the country.

Question 29.
Political parties are not crucial for the working of democracy.
Answer:

Question 30.
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati.
Answer:
False

Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

Explanation: Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram, BSP seeks to represent bahujan samaj and secure power for them, which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Mayawati is one of the leaders affiliated to the party.

Question 31.
The election commission is the most visible institution of any Democracy.
Answer:
False

A Political Party is the most visible institution of any Democracy.

Explanation: Political Parties link the lower most unit of the society- Humans to the entire administration and political system. They become a medium through which Democracy is executed at times of elections. They are the most visible institution because they play the most important role in helping people choose their true and correct representatives. They compete to bring up different issues and problems and compete for public support.

Question 32.
The Supreme Court passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.
Answer:
The Election Commission of India passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.

Question 33.
Indian National Congress wants that high in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party wants that high offices in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with regards to information about political parties:

Answer:
(A) 4
(B) 2

Question 35.
The ……….. was leading the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government from 2004 to 2014.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 36.
Any democratic system must allow at least parties to contest elections to provide fair chances.
Answer:

Question 37.
The body which recognizes and registers Political Parties in India is called
Answer:
Election Commission

Explanation: It is a specific body created to conduct elections in India and to check, recognise and moniror political parties. Central Election Commission recognises National Parties. State Election Commissions are subunits of central election commission at the state level.

Question 38.
The Bharatiya Janta Party came into power in 1998 as the leader of the ………….. coalition.
Answer:
NDA

Explanation: Bharatiya Janata Party headed the National Democratic Alliance led Coalition Government in 1998.

Related Theory
Coalition government means when any party is incapable of proving majority, single handedly, multiple parties come together and form a government.

Question 39.
………… was the last party to become a national level party in India.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was formed in 1998 under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee, recognised as a national party in 2016 and in power in West Bengal since 2011.

Question 40.
………….. is the oldest party of India.
Answer:

Question 41.
…………. is a National Political Party in India formed in 1984 by late Kanshi Ram.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj party

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 42.
Match the following political parties from column A with their ideologies given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(c) Indian National Congress	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(d) Communist Party of India	(iv) Uniform civil code

Answer:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(iv) Uniform civil code
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(c) Indian National Congress	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(d) Communist Party of India	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism

Question 43.
Match the following political parties from column A with their years of foundation given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Year of Foundation)
(a) Communist Party of India	(i) 1885
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party	(ii) 1984
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) 1980
(d) Indian National Congress	(iv) 1925

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation.
Reason (R): Public participation brings transparency.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The problem of bad politics can be solved by more and better politics which can be achieved only when people participate more.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): It is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.
Reason (R): It makes the voters more informed.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
Reason (R): The politicians are the same everywhere.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Parties and politicians agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in details on how policies are to be framed and implemented. In India, the differences among all the major parties on the economic policies have reduced. Those who want really different policies have no option available to them.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Party system is something any country can choose.
Reason (R): It evolves over time.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: The party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the society and thus involve PARTISANSHIP. Thus a party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interest it upholds.

Which out of the following is not a feature of ‘Partisanship’?
(a) inability to take a balanced view.
(b) Partiality towards one group.
(c) Representation of only certain interests.
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country.
Answer:
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country. Explanation: Partisanship means inability to hold a balanced view. When one is a partisan, he is biased towards a group.

Question 2.
Observe the table given below and answer the question that follows:

Which area of the world shows maximum political participation through parties?
(a) America
(b) South Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Asia

Explanation: The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party is higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea,

Question 3.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.
Which one of these is NOT a function of a political party?
(a) To reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
(b) To contest elections.
(c) To play a decisive role in making laws.
(d) To form and run governments.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Only a handful of parties are effectively in the race to win elections and form the government. So the question, then is: how many major or effective parties are good for a democracy? In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. China is one such country.
Based on your reading, complete the following statement:
The is the only political party that is allowed to function in China.
Answer:
The Chinese communist party

Explanation: China follows the One party system where only one party is allowed to contest elections. It is a flawed form of Democracy.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. Espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism. Wants that high in government be confined to natural born citizens of the country. Identify this political party.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress party

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as ‘State parties’. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism
and democracy in our country.
(A) What is a State party?
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following parties is active in Punjab?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Akali Dali
(c) Trinamool Congress Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Answer:
(b) Akali Dal
Explanation: Samajwadi Party is active in UP, Trinamool congress and Communist Party of India are national parties.

(C) Which of the following has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country?
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
(b) that every national political party has been a part of state governments through coalitions.
(c) that every national and regional political party has been a part of state and national level coalition governments.
(d) that the national parties have allowed state parties to thrive.
Answer:
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
Explanation: Since 1996, there has been a trend of coalition governments in India in the centre particularly.

(D) Assertion (A): Over the last three decades, the number and strength of regional political parties has expanded.
Reason(R): More people are aware and enthusiastic to participate in the political process and articulate their interests through gaining power.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people. It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. Formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking the support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2019, it polled about 3.63 per cent votes and secured 10 seats in the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the party mentioned in the source.
(a) BJP
(b) AITC
(c) Janata Dal
(d) BSP
Answer:
(d) BSP

Explanation: It was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
AITC – Bengal; NCP- ………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

(C) Categorise the given party as a regional or national party based on the necessary criteria laid by Election Commission.
(a) Regional Party
(b) National Party
(c) Not recognised Party
(d) Recognised party but elects candidates for local self government bodies.
Answer:

(D) Identify the symbol of the party.
(a) Lion
(b) Lotus
(c) Elephant
(d) Grass and Flowers.
Answer:
(c) Elephant

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life.
Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Consider the following statements and mark which of them are true:
(I) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia.
(II) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
(III) The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea.
(IV) Over the last three decades the proportion of those who report to be members of political parties in India has gone up steadily.
(V) Political parties are easily one of the most invisible institutions in a democracy.
(a) (l)&(V)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following can be the right definition of Political parties?
(a) A political party is a group of people who contest elections.
(b) A political party is a group of people who come together for power.
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.
(d) A political party is a group of people who influence decision making.
Answer:
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.

(C) Why do people blame parties?
(a) Because there are no other way to blame anyone.
(b) Because they are undemocratic.
(c) Because they represent democracy the best.
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Answer:
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Explanation: They are the true representatives of democracy across the country. They are blamed due to that connection.

(D) What is the main purpose of a political party?
(a) To look for issues.
(b) To increase political participation.
(c) To change the country territorially.
(d) To bring reformation in political system of the country.
Answer:
(b) To increase political participation Explanation: Political parties incorporate more people through adding them as members, activists etc.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have seen how crucial political parties are for the working of democracy. Since parties are the most visible face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy. All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well. This is the case in our country too. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focussed on four problem areas in the working of political parties. Political parties need to face and overcome these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following challenges affects the internal working of a political party?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.

Explanation: Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. This affects internal working of a party.

(B) Mishra ji, a political party head is not ready to leave his position as the head of a party for any other leader except his son. Which challenge does this situation represent?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:

(C) Following are some suggestions to reform parties. Which of them is helpful to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics?
(I) There should be state funding of elections.
(II) Parties should give one-third of its tickets to women candidates.
(III) Parties should look for leaders from rural areas.
(IV) A body should be set up for regulation of economic affairs of the party.
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III)
(d) (IV) only
Answer:

(D) Berlusconi was the Prime Minister of Italy. He is also one of the top businessmen in Italy. He is the leader of the Forza Italia founded in 1993. His company owns TV channels, the most important publishing company, a football club (AC Milan) and a bank. Identify the challenge posed.
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties

Explanation: He controlled the economic market and could make decisions which forfeited him keeping aside all the interests of the people in his country.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. Allover the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
The second challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Questions:
(A) Name one state and one national political party in India?
Answer:
National Party: Indian National Congress State Party: Janata Dal(U) of Jharkhand

(B) What is the challenge of dynastic succession faced by a party?
Answer:
The challenge of Dynastic Succession in parties is a result of favouritism and nepotism practiced openly. It becomes difficult for an outsider/common man to rise to influential positions in a party regardless of his talent. Most powerful positions are reserved for relatives or friends.

(C) Suggest reforms which can help political parties to face the lack of internal democracy.
Answer:
To face lack of internal democracy, a party should make its functioning more transparent. Regular meetings should be held, communication should be made stronger, favouritism should be removed and everybody should be given an equal chance to contribute to party affairs. Apart from this, selection process or utilisation of funds should be made transparent by setting up a committee-properly represented by all areas of members present in the country

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the reason to accept a multi-party system in India.
Answer:
India is a diverse country and needs to accommodate its diversity to help in better administration. This is possible only through a Multi-party system.

Question 2.
Correct the following statements and rewrite it.
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.

Question 3.
Name any one political party that has National level political organization but not recognized as the National Political Party.
Answer:
Rashtriya Janata Dal or Samajwadi Party

Question 4.
Name an Alliance formed by the Congress Party?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?
Answer:
India’s ancient culture, values and cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutvaj is the guiding philosophy of BJP.

Question 6.
Name any two Regional parties of West Bengal.
Answer:
Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress

Question 7.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer:
The challenge of dynastic succession

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to make political parties more responsive to people’s needs and demands.
Answer:
Political parties can be- made more responsive through organised petitions, agitations and publicity by various groups.

Explanation: This shall make political parties pay more attention to people’s needs to secure their support.

Question 9.
Name any one regional party of Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
The Samajwadi Party is one of the regional parties of Uttar Pradesh.

Related Theory
Regional political party (or state party) is a party that has its presence only in one or some states. Regional parties may not always be regional in their ideology or outlook.

Question 10.
Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?
Answer:
One party political system is not considered a good democratic system because it doesn’t offer a meaningful choice to the citizens of the country as they have no options to choose from.

Related Theory
Because of this, the right to vote given to the citizens of a democracy having one party political system is useless as there is only one party which wins the elections every time.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to promote public participation in political parties for enhancing the quality of democracy.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name any two Indian national political parties.
Answer:
Indian national political parties are:

Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
Indian National Congress (INC)
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Related Theory
A national political party is a party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Which organization recognize ‘political parties in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India is responsible for recognizing and registering ‘political parties in India.

Related Theory
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for organizing and administering election processes in India at national, state and district levels.

Question 14.
What is defection?
Answer:

Question 15.
Name any one political party that is a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.
Answer:
Samajwadi Party is a political party that has a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.

Related Theory
Other examples of such political parties are Rashtriya Janata Dal and Samata Party. Such parties have their units in several states.

Question 16.
In which year did the Communist Party of India split into two parties?
Answer:
1964

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of political party.
Answer:

Question 17.
Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer:
Political parties involve partisanship because The parties are a part of the society and thus they involve partisanship.

Question 18.
Which type of government is formed when two or more political parties come together to form a government?
Answer:
Coalition Government

Explanation: At times, when no single party is able to gather majority votes, two or more parties come together to form a government. This is called Coalition Government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Force and Pressure Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Force and Pressure Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Force And Pressure Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as
(a) force
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) muscular force
(d) friction

Answer

Answer: (b) atmospheric pressure

Class 8 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 2.
Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) pressure

Answer

Answer: (d) pressure

Class 8 Force And Pressure MCQ Question 3.
A ___________ exerted by an object on another is a force.
(a) Push or pull
(b) Contact or non-contact force
(c) Pressure
(d) Magnitude

Answer

Answer: (a) Push or pull

MCQ On Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 4.
The force exerted by the earth to pull the object towards itself is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) gravitational force

Class 8 Science Ch 11 MCQ Question 5.
Muscular force is also called ___________ force.
(a) non-contact
(b) contact
(c) gravitational
(d) magnetic

Answer

Answer: (b) contact

MCQ Of Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 6.
The force exerted by a charged body on another char
(a) gravitational force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) non-contact force
(d) contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) electrostatic force

Ch 11 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
Force changes the
(a) motion of body
(b) speed of body
(c) shape of body
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Question 8.
The force exerted by our muscle is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) muscular force
(c) gravitational force
(d) non-contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) muscular force

Force And Pressure MCQ Class 8 Question 9.
1 kilogram weight is equal to
(a) 98 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.098 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 9.8 N

Class 8 Chapter 11 Science MCQ Question 10.
A spring balance is used for measuring
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) pressure
(d) speed

Answer

Answer: (b) weight

Class 8 Science Force And Pressure MCQ Question 11.
Two boys A and B are applying force on a block. If the block moves towards the boy A, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(c) Net force on the block is towards B.
(d) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.

Answer

Answer: (b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.

Force And Pressure Class 8 MCQ With Answers Question 12.
When two forces act in opposite directions, then net force acting is the
(a) sum of two forces
(b) difference between two forces
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) difference between two forces

Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 13.
The strength of force is expressed by its
(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) magnitude
(d) longitudinal force

Answer

Answer: (c) magnitude

MCQ Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 14.
Leaves fall down on the ground due to
(a) electrostatic force
(b) magnetic force
(c) gravitational force
(d) muscular force

Answer

Answer: (c) gravitational force

Class 8 Ch 11 Science MCQ Question 15.
State of motion is described by
(a) Position of rest
(b) Position of motion
(c) Both by the state of rest or motion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both by the state of rest or motion

Question 16.
When the hammer strikes the gong of an electric bell, which of the following force is responsible for the movement of hammer?
(a) Gravitational force alone
(b) Magnetic force alone
(c) Electrostatic force alone
(d) Frictional force alone

Answer

Answer: (c) Electrostatic force alone

Question 17.
During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience hair flying apart. The force respon¬sible for this is
(a) force of gravity
(b) force of friction
(c) electrostatic force
(d) magnetic force

Answer

Answer: (c) electrostatic force

Question 18.
A container is filled with water as shown in the given figure. Which of the following statements is correct about pressure of water?

(a) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(b) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C
(c) Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C

Answer

Answer: (d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C

Question 19.
Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to
(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force

Question 20.
Which one of the following forces is a contact force?
(a) Force of gravity
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Force of friction
(d) Electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (c) Force of friction

Question 21.
A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as shown in given figure. The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be

(a) maximum in position A
(b) maximum in position C
(c) maximum in position B
(d) equal in all cases

Answer

Answer: (a) maximum in position A

Question 22.
A push or pull on an object is called
(a) Pressure
(b) Push-pull
(c) Force
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Force

Question 23.
If two forces act in the opposite directions on an object, the net force acting on it is the
(a) Sum of the two forces
(b) difference between the two forces
(c) Multiplication of the two forces
(d) Division of the two forces

Answer

Answer: (b) difference between the two forces

Question 24.
Which of the following is proper example(s) to explain that force on an object may change its shape
(a) A ball of dough rolled into chapati
(b) Pressing a rubber ball kept on table
(c) Making model using clay
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 25.
A ball rolling on the ground slows down and finally stops. This is because of
(a) Force
(b) Less force applied
(c) Friction
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Friction

Question 26.
Force of friction always acts on moving objects and its direction shall be ____
(a) On any direction
(b) Along the direction of motion
(c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion
(d) Opposite to the direction of motion

Answer

Answer: (c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion

Question 27.
If In a tug-o-war, when two teams are pulling a rope, and the rope does not move towards any team, it implies that
(a) Equal force is being applied in the same direction
(b) Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction
(c) No force is applied in any direction
(d) Cannot be explained

Answer

Answer: (b) Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction

Question 28.
An example of a non- contact force is
(a) Force exerted by us to lift a bucket
(b) Push a stationary car
(c) Force exerted by magnet
(d) Hit a cricket ball for a 6 run

Answer

Answer: (c) Force exerted by magnet

Question 29.
Pressure =
(a) Area / force on which it acts
(b) force / area on which it acts
(c) Volume / force on which it acts
(d) Force / volume on which it acts

Answer

Answer: (b) force / area on which it acts

Question 30.
Gravity is
(a) Repulsive
(b) Attraction + Repulsive force
(c) Attractive force
(d) Not a force

Answer

Answer: (c) Attractive force

Question 31.
A batsman hits the ball for a boundary past the bowler i.e. four runs. The batsman thus
(a) Changes the direction & speed of the ball
(b) Does not change the direction but speed only
(c) Does not change the speed but direction only
(d) Does not change either direction or speed

Answer

Answer: (a) Changes the direction & speed of the ball

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Pressure	(a) Fluid pressure
2. Barometer	(b) Unit of pressure
3. Newton	(c) Non-contact force
4. Manometer	(d) Force/Area
5. Pascal	(e) Unit of force
6. Magnetic force	(f) Net force acting on a body
7. 1 kilogram	(g) Atmospheric pressure
8. Resultant force	(h) 9.8 N
9. Frictional force	(i) Down the column
10. Pressure increases	(j) Contact force

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Pressure	(d) Force/Area
2. Barometer	(g) Atmospheric pressure
3. Newton	(e) Unit of force
4. Manometer	(a) Fluid pressure
5. Pascal	(b) Unit of pressure
6. Magnetic force	(c) Non-contact force
7. 1 kilogram	(h) 9.8 N
8. Resultant force	(f) Net force acting on a body
9. Frictional force	(j) Contact force
10. Pressure increases	(i) Down the column

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. We ___________ the bucket to take out water from well.

Answer

Answer: pull

2. The strength of a force is usually expressed by its ___________.

Answer

Answer: magnitude

3. ___________ force is the force resulting due to the action of muscles.

Answer

Answer: Muscular

4. The envelop of air all around us is called ___________.

Answer

Answer: atmosphere

5. To open a door we or ___________ the door.

Answer

Answer: push, pull

6. Force of friction is an example of ___________ force.

Answer

Answer: contact

7. Force ___________ is called pressure.

Answer

Answer: per unit area

8. Force has ___________ as well as direction.

Answer

Answer: magnitude

9. Fruits fall ___________ due to the force of gravity.

Answer

Answer: downward

10. The body at rest is called ___________ body.

Answer

Answer: stationary

11. ___________ and ___________ forces are the two kinds of forces.

Answer

Answer: Contact, non-contact

12. Force exerted by magnet is called ___________ force.

Answer

Answer: magnetic

13. We apply force on ___________ while walking.

Answer

Answer: ground

14. Force is ___________ to pressure.

Answer

Answer: directly proportional

15. The ___________ is measured by an instrument called barometer.

Answer

Answer: atmospheric pressure

State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Force applied on an object in opposite directions add to one another.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Pressure does not depend on area of contact.

Answer

Answer: False

3. A force can change the state of motion of an object.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Force cannot change the speed of an object.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Atmospheric pressure is less at higher altitudes.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Force of gravity is a contact force.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Muscular force is also known as contact force.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Pascal is the unit of force.

Answer

Answer: False

9. To move an object faster it has to be pushed or pulled repeatedly.

Answer

Answer: True

10. Magnitude is the strength of force.

Answer

Answer: True

11. Force can change the shape of an object.

Answer

Answer: True

12. At least two objects must interact for a force to come into play.

Answer

Answer: True

13. Magnetic force is a non-contact force.

Answer

Answer: True

14. An apple from a tree falls on the ground due to the force of gravity.

Answer

Answer: True

15. Newton is the unit of force.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Force and Pressure CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development with Answers

March 2, 2023

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Resource and Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Resources And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The burial ground is a …………………..
(a) community-owned resource
(b) national resource
(c) individual resource
(d) international resource
Answer:
(a) community-owned resource

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following elements/minerals is the black soil deficient in?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium
(c) Potash
(d) Phosphoric contents
Answer:
(d) Phosphoric contents

Class 10 Resources And Development MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following soils are formed by intense leaching?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Desert soil
Answer:
(c) Laterite Soil

Explanation: Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH < 6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients and occur mostly in southern states, the Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West Bengal, and the North-east region.

Resources And Development MCQ Question 4.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B.

Column A	Column B
(A) Potential	(I) Solar Energy
(B) Stock	(II) Ponds
(C) Individual	(III) Wind energy in Rajasthan
(D) Renewable	(IV) Hydrogen

Answer:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Resource And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?
(a) Soil Composition
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Soil Profile
(d) Soil Texture
Answer:
(c) Soil Profile

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Which of the following is a name given to an area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area?
(a) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Wasteland
(d) Gross cropped area
Answer:
(d) Gross cropped area

Geography Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following contexts was advocated on the international level for the first time the conservation of the resource?
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.
(b) The Brundtland Committee Report published it.
(c) It was discussed in an Indian Affairs with America Discussion.
(d) It was discussed through a book called Small is Beautiful.
Answer:
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.

Resource And Development MCQ Question 8.
The soil has a self-aeration capacity.
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Ch 1 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of :
(a) 22.5 Nautical Miles
(b) 12 Nautical miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles
Answer:

MCQ On Resources And Development Class 10 Question 10.
Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats
Answer:
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats

Explanation: Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain, and along the piedmont of the Western Ghats.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Question 11.
Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief
(b) Parent rock
(c) Climate
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day
Answer:
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day

Geography Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
In which of the following state is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Gujarat

Explanation: Black soil is mainly found in Gujarat and Maharashtra states of India. This soil is considered good for the cotton crop and so is known as ‘black cotton soil’ or ‘regur soil’.

Related theory
Black soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. Black soils are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.

MCQ Of Resources And Development Question 13.
Which of the following is not a measure to reduce soil erosion?
(a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
(b) Contour plowing
(c) Strip cropping
(d) Planting of shelterbelts
Answer:

MCQ Of Resources And Development Class 10 Question 14.
Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Abiotic
(c) Human-made
(d) Non-recyclable
Answer:
(a) Replenishable

Explanation: Replenishable resources are also known as renewable resources. Solar energy, wind energy, water, thermal and tidal energy are the examples of replenishable resources.

Related Theory
Abiotic: These are the type of resources that are derived from nonliving things in the environment such as sunlight, air, etc.

Human-made: These are also known as capital resources which are created by humans such as money, infrastructure etc.

Non-recyclable: These resources are those substances which cannot be used again in any form.

Class 10 Geo Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
The Rio Convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted which of the following for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century?
(a) Agenda 21
(b) Agenda 22
(c) Agenda 20
(d) Agenda 25
Answer:
(a) Agenda 21

Explanation: Agenda 21 aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.

Related Theory
One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

Question 16.
Which of the following book includes ‘Gandhian Philosophy’ on conservation of resources?
(a) Small is Beautiful
(b) Our Common Future
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Small is Beautiful

Explanation: In 1974, Gandhian philosophy was presented by Schumacher in his book ‘Small is Beautiful.’

Related Theory
Gandhi ji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in his words:”There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with production by the masses.

Question 17.
In which of the following states is the terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: In hilly areas, steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces on which terrace cultivation is practiced. Terrace cultivation restricts soil erosion in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand.

Question 18.
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised are called
(a) Potential
(b) Developed
(c) Stock
(d) Reserve
Answer:
(a) Potential

Explanation: Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised to their full capacity are called potential resources. For example, Rajasthan and Gujarat have huge potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed properly.

Related Theory
Resources surveyed and determined for utilisation are called Developed Resources. Development of resources depends upon the technology being used to determine and exhaust their quantity and quality. Useful resources which are not being used to their complete capacity due to lack of technology are called Stock. For example, hydet energy in most countries.

Reserves are subsets of the stock: which can be used with the help of existing technical know-how’. Their use has not yet begun. For example, energy of water stored in dams.

Question 19.
The village of Sukhomajri and the district of Jhabua have shown that it is possible:
(a) To reverse land degradation
(b) To reverse economic prosperity
(c) To reserve water
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) To reverse land degradation

Explanation: People’s management is essentiaL for ecological restoration. For example, tree density in Sukhomajri increased from 13 per hectare in 1976 to 1272 per hectare in 1992.

Related Theory
Sukhomajri village is located in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 20.
Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai?
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Alluvial Soil

Question 21.
In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Odisha
(c) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 22.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises. Which of the following is NOT associated to this statement?
(a) Global warming
(b) Ozone layer maintenance
(c) Environmental pollution
(d) Land degradation
Answer:

Question 23.
Choose the feature which is NOT associated with Arid soils:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks
(b) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils
(c) The lower horizon of the soil is occupied by Kankar nodules
(d) These soils become cultivable after proper irrigation.
Answer:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?
(a) Gross cropped Area
(b) Uncultivable Land
(c) Barren Wasteland
(d) Current fallow Land
Answer:
(b) Uncultivable Land.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 25.
Identify the soil:
(1) It develops under tropical and subtropical climates with an alternate wet and dry season.
(2) Mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients
(3) It is humus rich, but under sparse vegetation and in a semi-arid environment, it is generally humus poor.
(4) They are prone to erosion.
Answer:

Question 26.
Identify the soil:
(1) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(2) Soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size when we move closer to the river valley.
(3) Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Correct & Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Resources that are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called potential resources.
Answer:
False.

Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called developed resources.

Related Theory
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utitised are called Potential Resources.

Question 28.
Forest area in the country is far better than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.
Answer:
Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.

Question 29.
The black soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 30.
Laterite soil is very useful for growing …………….among other beverage crops.
Answer:
tea

Explanation: After adopting appropriate soil conservation techniques particularly in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, tea can be grown.

Question 31.
The ………………….. soils texture varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed.
Answer:
Forest

Question 32.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is called ………………
Answer:
Badland

Question 33.
With people being made the decision-makers by the Madhya Pradesh government, 2.9 million hectares or about 1 per cent of India’s land area, are being greened across the state through ……………….
Answer:
Watershed management

Question 34.
Resource on the basis of exhaustibility

Resource	Examples/Type
(a) ____________	Solar and wind energy
(b) ____________	Mineral and fossil fuels

Answer:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources

Explanation: The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources. For example, solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc.

Resources which get exhausted with use, can not be reproduced or rejuvenated and take millions of years to form are called non-renewable resources. For example, minerals and fossil fuels.

Question 35.
Sustainable development encourages usage of…………… energy resources.
Answer:

Question 36.
The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels. This is called……………..
Answer:
Gully erosion

Question 37.
Complete the following table with the correct information with regards to types of resources:

Resource	Examples
Biotic	(A) ?
(B) ?	Water

Answer:
(A) Forests
(B) Abiotic

Explanation: Biotic Resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock, etc. All those things which are composed of non-living things are called abiotic resources. For example, rocks and metals.

Question 38.
………………… soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Explanation: This is the most widely spread and fertile soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra, all of which flow towards the eastern coast of the country.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 39.
Match the following terms from column A with their explanation from column B:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Explanation)
(a) Bangar	(i) New alluvial
(b) Khadar	(ii) Old alluvial
(c) Regur	(iii) Arable land left without cultivation for a year or more
(d) Fallow Land	(iv) Cotton soil

Answer:

Question 40.
Match the following efforts of resource conservation from column A with years from column B:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(i) 1992
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(ii) 1987
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(iii) 1974
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(iv) 1968

Answer:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(iv) 1968
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(iii) 1974
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(ii) 1987
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(i) 1992

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R): Resources are essential for human development.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Resources help us develop economically. All economic activities are dependent on resources. Hence, it is through institutions like factories, organizations etc that humans are able to exploit and use natural resources.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are community-owned resources.
Reason (R): They are accessible to all the people living there.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R): They promote equality among classes.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): We cannot breathe without them.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: We can breathe without resources but they are essential for survival because they help us develop and attain new avenues.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): Rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders.
Reason (R): Foreign invaders exploited these resources through better technologies and earned wealth through this drain.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.
Reason (R): The land under permanent pasture has decreased.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Different states have different net sown area. Over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and 10 percent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the following source and answer the question that follows:
Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq km. Land use data, however, is available only for 93 per cent of the total geographical area because the land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not been done fully.
The land use in which of the following states has not been conducted properly?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Explanation: Land use has not been properly carried out in North western states.

Question 2.
Read the details given in the source below and identify the kind of soil whose features have been mentioned.
This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. They are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material.
Answer:
Black Soil

Explanation: Black soil is also known as ‘Regur Soil’ or ‘Cotton Soil’ as it is good for the cultivation of cotton crop in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat in India.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.

The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and Local levels.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following states are rich in mineral resources?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) UP
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Chhattisgarh

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Cold Desert – Ladakh; Warm Desert- …………..
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:

(C) Which of the following resources are potential resources?
(a) Mineral
(b) Wind energy
(c) Coal
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(b) Wind energy

Explanation: Other resources have been put to use.

(D) Why is resource planning necessary?
(a) Resources will be completely used up if they are planned well.
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.
(c) Resources will be used better if planned.
(d) Resources are supposed to be planned all along.
Answer:
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems- the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following crops will the alluvial soil support?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Rice
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(c) Rice

(B) The Alluvial Soil is deposited by
(a) Lava
(b) Rivers
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Snowfall
Answer:
(b) Rivers

(C) Which of the states is the alluvial soil not found at all?
(a) UP
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Explanation: Alluvial Soils are spread in the northern and north western parts of the country through river basins.

(D) Which of the following characteristics is true about the Bangar soil?
(a) Bangar is the most fertile alluvial soil.
(b) Bangar is a new alluvial.
(c) The Bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar nodules.
(d) Bangar soil has smaller particles than Khadar soil.
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and . water lead to soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following erosions destroy the subsoil?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Wind erosion
(d) Tree erosion
Answer:
(a) Gully erosion
Explanation: Other types of erosion basically affect the topsoil sheet and not the subsoil directly.

(B) Which of the following statements about soil erosion is not true?
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.
(b) Soil erosion can be caused by glaciers.
(c) Ravines are caused due to soil erosion.
(d) Soil formation and soil erosion go hand in hand.
Answer:
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.

(D) Where are the ravines found?
(a) Mahanadi Basin
(b) Chambal Basin
(c) Ganga Basin
(d) Yamuna Basin
Answer:
(b) Chambal Basin

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not correct about Land degradation?
(a) Land Degradation affects the soiL
(b) Quarrying leads to Land Degradation.
(c) Land degradation is caused due to waterlogging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Answer:
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Explanation: It is severely bad for the environment and our resources.

(B) The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer:
(b) Over irrigation

(C) which one of the following does not check land degradation:
(a) control on overgrazing
(b) creating shelter belts
(c) deforestation
(d) afforestation
Answer:

(D) what is common between the land degradation caused in Jharkhand and Odisha?
(a) In both places, it is caused due to afforestation.
(b) It is caused by mining in both places.
(c) The subsoil in these areas is very thin.
(d) Their resources are completely exhausted due to land degradation.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow.
Natural resources are the things that exist freely in nature human beings use for survival. These things include the water, land, forests, animals, rocks, fossil fuels, and minerals inside the Earth. Human beings did not create natural resources. They have always been a part of the Earth before humans appeared. Most of the natural resources are connected to each other in some way. For example, water is a natural resource, and there was a limited supply, then other resources such as animal and plants would be affected. Natural resources are consumed directly or indirectly. For example, when animals eat plants they are consuming a natural resource directly.

However, the many trees of rain forest act as climate control, food control, and storm protection. The trees of a forest can also be used as raw materials for making houses, furniture, paper, or other items. Natural resources can be a solid, liquid, or gas. They can also be organic, coming from living things, or inorganic, coming from a non-living source. They can also be made out of metal or be non- metallic.
(A) What are resources?
Answer:
Anything available in nature which could be brought to human use by human-made technology is called a resource.

(B) Mention one other way of classifying a resource apart from the mentioned classification.
Answer:

(C) Mention two characteristics of a natural resource?
Answer:
Natural resources are found freely in nature and have been present on earth even before human beings appeared.
They are closely connected to each other and can be both organic or inorganic in nature.

Very Short Answer “Type Questions

Question 1.
Which soil has a self-aeration capacity?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 2.
What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
Answer:
43% of the total Land in the country are plains.

Question 3.
Classify resources based on origin.
Answer:
Based on origin of resources- resources can be classified as biotic and abiotic resources.

Question 4.
What are the resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised called?
Answer:
These are Potential Resources.

Question 5.
How is the cement industry responsible for land degradation?
Answer:

Question 6.
In which state has mining called land degradation?
Answer:
Chhattisgarh

Question 7.
Which soil type is made up of lava flows?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 8.
Mention the factors on which the land-use pattern of India depends upon. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The use of land is determined by physical as well as human factors.
(1) Physical factors: Topography, climate and soil types.
(2) Human factors: Population density, technological capability, culture and traditions.

Question 9.
Give one example of the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil.
Answer:
Tea/coffee.

Question 10.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, resources can be classified as:
(1) Renewable/ Non-exhaustible resources
(2) Non-renewable/ Exhaustible resources.

Related Theory
Renewable resources: These are resources which can be replenished over a period of time. Example: solar energy.
Non-renewable resources: These are resources that cannot be renewed and are available in limited quantities. Example: coal.

Question 11.
Highlight the importance of contour ploughing.
Answer:
Contour ploughing helps in the prevention of soil erosion caused by wind and water.

Related Theory
Contour ploughing is a method of tilling and ploughing hillsides or sloping lands along the contour lines.

Question 12.
Read the features of a soiL and name the related soil
(1) This soiL ranges from red to brown in colour.
(2) It is generally sandy in texture and is saline.
(3) It Lacks humus and moisture.
Answer:

Question 13.
“Degradation of Land is a cause of word.”
Give one reason to support the statement.
Answer:
Degradation of Land is a cause of worry because it can cause ecological imbalance.

Question 14.
Give one example of community owned resources.
Answer:
Village grazing grounds, public parks and picnic spots.

Explanation: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of a community.

Question 15.
How is overgrazing responsible for land degradation in Gujarat?
Answer:

Question 16.
“Conservation of resource is vital for development.” Give one example regarding the statement.
Answer:
Conservation of resources: afforestation, water treatment.

Question 17.
How are mining activities responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand?
Answer:
Mining activities are responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand because mining sites are abandoned after the excavation work is complete, leaving deep scars on the land.

Related Theory
To get rid of this land degradation, proper management of wastelands and control of mining activities needs to be initiated.

Question 18.
Water is a compound of two inflammable gases, hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich source of energy. However, we do not have the required technical ‘knowhow’ to use them for this purpose. What kind of resources can these gases be put in?
Answer:
The gases can be put in: The Stock Resources.

Question 19.
Which soil is most retentive of moisture?
Answer:
Black Soil retains the most moisture.
Explanation: Black Soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material which helps them absorb more water.

Question 20.
Highlight the reason for land being known as the utmost important natural resource.
Answer;

Question 21.
Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of cashew nut?
Answer:
Soil for the growth of Cashew nuts: Red Laterite soil.

Question 22.
Favorable conditions for wind energy exist in Western Rajasthan and Gujarat, but they have not been utilized and developed to the maximum, it falls in which category of resources?
Answer:
Wind energy received in Western Rajasthan exist as:
Potential Resources

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform with Answers

March 2, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Women Caste And Reform MCQ Question 1.
Who supported the idea of self-respect movement?
(a) Mumtaz Ali
(b) Rammohun Roy
(c) Periyar
(d) Pandita Ramabai

Answer

Answer: (c) Periyar

Women Caste And Reform Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
The idea of widow remarriage was advocated by
(a) Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Jyotirao Phule
(c) Periyar
(d) Pandita Ramabai

Answer

Answer: (a) Dayanand Saraswati

Class 8 History Chapter 9 MCQ Question 3.
The Satyashodhak Samaj association was founded by
(a) Mumtaz Ali
(b) Periyar
(c) Jyotirao Phule
(d) B.R. Ambedkar

Answer

Answer: (c) Jyotirao Phule

MCQ For Class 8 History Chapter 9 With Answers Question 4.
Widow Remarriage Act was passed in the year
(a) 1826
(b) 1856
(c) 1876
(d) 1886

Answer

Answer: (b) 1856

MCQ Questions For Class 8 History Chapter 9 Question 5.
What is coolie ship?
(a) Luggage lifter at railway platform
(b) A ship that carried many Indians to Mauritius
(c) Association of Coolies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A ship that carried many Indians to Mauritius

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Extra Questions And Answers MCQ Question 6.
E.V. Ramaswamy was known by the name
(a) Phule
(b) Periyar
(c) Vidyasagar
(d) Dayanand Saraswati

Answer

Answer: (b) Periyar

Women, Caste And Reform Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
During which period did Ambedkar lead three temple entry movement?
(a) Between 1900 to 1927
(b) Between 1927 to 1935
(c) Between 1935 to 1940
(d) Between 1940 to 1945

Answer

Answer: (b) Between 1927 to 1935

Class 8 History Ch 9 MCQ Question 8.
Prarathana Samaj was founded by
(a) H.L.V. Derozio
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) R.G. Bhandarkar
(d) Raja Rammohun Roy

Answer

Answer: (c) R.G. Bhandarkar

Ncert Class 8 History Chapter 9 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the reforms movement was founded by H.L.V. Derozio?
(a) Young Bengal
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Veda Samaj
(d) Aligarh Movement

Answer

Answer: (a) Young Bengal

Women, Caste And Reform MCQ Question 10.
Who started schools for Muslim girls in Patna and Calcutta?
(a) Mumtaz Ali
(b) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
(c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Class 8 Sst History Chapter 9 MCQ Question 11.
The first Urdu novels began to be written from
(a) the late sixteenth century
(b) the late seventeenth century
(c) the late eighteenth century
(d) the late nineteeth century

Answer

Answer: (d) the late nineteeth century

Match the following:

Column A	Column B
(i) Orthodox	(a) Peasants, artisans like weavers and potters
(ii) Suffrage	(b) An important untouchable caste of Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Vaishyas	(c) The women who died on the funeral of her dead husband
(iv) Shudras	(d) Fanatic, fundamentalists
(v) Sati	(e) Right to vote
(vi) Madigas	(f) Traders and moneylenders

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(i) Orthodox	(d) Fanatic, fundamentalists
(ii) Suffrage	(e) Right to vote
(iii) Vaishyas	(f) Traders and moneylenders
(iv) Shudras	(a) Peasants, artisans like weavers and potters
(v) Sati	(c) The women who died on the funeral of her dead husband
(vi) Madigas	(b) An important untouchable caste of Andhra Pradesh

State whether true or false:

1. Pandita Ramabai supported economic independence of women, set up widow homes,

Answer

Answer: True

2. Reformers got full support from all sections of the people of the country.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Jyotirao Phule set up schools for girls in Punjab.

Answer

Answer: False

4. Raja Rammohun Roy was the founder of Braham Samaj.

Answer

Answer: True

5. People were dissatisfied with British rule in the 1870s and 1880s.

Answer

Answer: True

Fill in the blanks:

1. The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in …………………..

Answer

Answer: 1929

2. In 1873, Phule wrote …………………..

Answer

Answer: Gulamgiri

3. In ………………….. the Muslim league demanded ‘Independent State’ for Muslims.

Answer

Answer: 1940

4. ………………….. was observed on 26th January 1930 all over the country.

Answer

Answer: Republic Day

5. The knowledge of ………………….. texts help the reformers promote new laws.

Answer

Answer: ancient

6. Ambedkar was born into a ………………….. family.

Answer

Answer: Mahar

7. Periyar was an outspoken critic of …………………..

Answer

Answer: Hindu scriptures

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