MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers

Tissues Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Tissues Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Biology Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 9 Chapter 6 MCQs On Tissues

Tissues Class 9 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 1.
Which of the following tissues has dead cells?
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Epithelial tissue

Answer

Answer: (b) Sclerenchyma

Tissue Class 9 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 2.
Find out incorrect sentence.
(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.

Answer

Answer: (c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues.

Class 9 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 3.
Girth of stem increases due to
(a) apical meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) vertical meristem

Answer

Answer: (b) lateral meristem

Class 9 Tissue MCQ Chapter 6 Question 4.
Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?
(a) Tracheids
(b) Companion cells
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Vessels

Answer

Answer: (b) Companion cells

Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?

Tissue MCQ Class 9 Chapter 6 Question 5.
Intestine absorbs the digested food materials. What type of epithelial cells are responsible for that?
(a) Stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Spindle fibres
(d) Cuboidal epithelium

Answer

Answer: (b) Columnar epithelium

Tissues Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
A person met with an accident in which two long bones of the hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Break of skeletal muscle
(c) Ligament break
(d) Areolar tissue break

Answer

Answer: (c) Ligament break

MCQ Of Tissue Class 9 Chapter 6 Question 7.
While doing work and running, you move your organs Like hands, legs etc. Which among the following is correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

Answer

Answer: (d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

Class 9 Science Ch 6 MCQ  Question 8.
Which muscles act involuntarily?
(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muscles
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)

Class 9 Tissues MCQ Chapter 6 Question 9.
Meristematic tissues in plants are
(a) localised and permanent
(b) not limited Lo certain regions
(c) localised and dividing cells
(d) growing in volume

Answer

Answer: (c) localised and dividing cells

Tissue MCQ Chapter 6 Question 10.
Which is not a function of epidermis?
(a) Protection from adverse condition
(b) Gaseous exchange
(c) Conduction of water
(d) Transpiration

Answer

Answer: (c) Conduction of water

Ch 6 Science Class 9 MCQ  Question 11.
Select the incorrect sentence.
(a) Blood has a matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones
(b) Two bones are connected by ligament
(c) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
(d) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

Answer

Answer: (c) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile

MCQ On Tissue Class 9 Chapter 6 Question 12.
Cartilage is not found in
(a) nose
(b) ear
(c) kidney
(d) larynx

Answer

Answer: (c) kidney

Tissues MCQs Class 9 Chapter 6 Question 13.
Fats are stored in human body as
(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Bones
(d) Cartilage

Answer

Answer: (b) Adipose tissue

Class 9 Science Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 14.
Bone matrix is rich in
(a) Fluoride and calcium
(b) Calcium and phosphorus
(c) Calcium and potassium
(d) Phosphorus and potassium

Answer

Answer: (b) Calcium and phosphorus

Class 9 Chapter 6 Science MCQ Question 15.
Contractile proteins are found in
(a) bones
(b) blood
(c) muscles
(d) cartilage

Answer

Answer: (c) muscles

Question 16.
Voluntary muscles are found in
(a) alimentary canal
(b) limbo
(c) iris of the eye
(d) bronchi of lungs

Answer

Answer: (b) limbo

Question 17.
Nervous tissue is not found in
(a) brain
(b) spinal cord
(c) tendons
(d) nerves

Answer

Answer: (c) tendons

Question 18.
Nerve cell does not contain
(a) axon
(b) nerve endings
(c) tendons
(d) dendrites

Answer

Answer: (c) tendons

Question 19.
Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ?
(a) Tendon
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Areolar
(d) Cartilage

Answer

Answer: (c) Areolar

Question 20.
The muscular tissue which function throughout life continuously without fatigue is
(a) skeletal muscle
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) smooth muscle
(d) voluntary muscle

Answer

Answer: (b) cardiac muscle

Question 21.
Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body?
(a) Mast cells
(b) Basophils
(c) Osteocytes
(d) Chondrocytes

Answer

Answer: (d) Chondrocytes

Question 22.
The dead element present in the phloem is
(a) companion cells
(b) phloem fibres
(c) phloem parenchyma
(d) sieve tubes

Answer

Answer: (b) phloem fibres

Question 23.
Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?
(a) Companion cells
(b) Red blood cells
(c) Vessel
(d) Sieve tube cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Companion cells

Question 24.
In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to the presence of
(a) cuticle
(b) stomata
(c) lignin
(d) suberin

Answer

Answer: (a) cuticle

Question 25.
A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of water in the branches is
(a) collenchyma
(b) xylem parenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) xylem vessels

Answer

Answer: (d) xylem vessels

Question 26.
¡f the tip of sugar cane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of
(a) cambium
(b) apical meristem
(c) lateral meristem
(d) intercalary meristem

Answer

Answer: (d) intercalary meristem

Question 27.
A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will
(a) move downwards
(b) move upwards
(c) remain at the same position
(d) move sideways

Answer

Answer: (c) remain at the same position

Question 28.
Parenchyma cells are
(a) relatively unspecified and thin-walled
(b) thick walled and specialised
(c) lignified
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) relatively unspecified and thin-walled

Question 29.
Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) collenchyma
(b) scierenchyma
(c) parenchyma
(d) chiorenchyma

Answer

Answer: (a) collenchyma

Question 30.
Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of
(a) cellulose
(b) lipids
(c) suberin
(d) lignin

Answer

Answer: (c) suberin

Question 31.
Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
(a) intercalary meristem
(b) conducting tissue
(c) apical meristem
(d) parenchymatous tissue

Answer

Answer: (b) conducting tissue

Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of

Question 32.
Choose the wrong statement.
(a) The nature of matrix differs according to the function of the tissue
(b) Fats are stored below the skin and in between the internal organs
(c) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them
(d) Cells of striated muscles are multinucle ate and unbranched

Answer

Answer: (c) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them

Question 33.
The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is
(a) vessels
(b) sieve tube
(c) tracheids
(d) xylem fibres

Answer

Answer: (c) tracheids

Fill in the blanks:

1. Apical meristem is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the ……………. of the stem and the root.

Answer

Answer: Length

2. The ………….. meristem helps to increase the girth of the stem or root.

Answer

Answer: lateral

3. The process by which cells take up a permanent shape, size, and a function is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: specialisation

4. Large air cavities present in parenchyma of aquatic plants give ……………. to the plants to help them float.

Answer

Answer: buoyancy

5. Collenchyma is a …………… tissue present in plants which provides flexibility in plants.

Answer

Answer: simple permanent

6. The husk of a coconut is composed of …………… tissue.

Answer

Answer: sclerenchyrna

7. Two kidney-shaped cells called ……………… cells enclose the stomata.

Answer

Answer: guard

8. Cells of cork are dead and have a chemical called ……………. in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and water.

Answer

Answer: suberin

9. The ……………. parenchyma stores food and helps in the sideways conduction of water.

Answer

Answer: xylem

10. An extracellular fibrous ……………. membrane separates all epithelium from the underlying tissue.

Answer

Answer: basement

11. The oesophagus and the lining of the mouth are covered with ……………… epithelium.

Answer

Answer: squamous

12. The …………….. epithelium is formed when the epithelial tissue folds inward and form a multicellular gland.

Answer

Answer: glandular

13. Blood has a fluid (liquid) matrix called …………….. in which red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs) and are suspended.

Answer

Answer: plasma, platelets

14. Bone cells are embedded in a hard matrix that is composed of …………….. and ……………. compounds.

Answer

Answer: calcium and phosphorus

15. Tendon is a connective tissue which connects …………….. to bones.

Answer

Answer: muscles

16. Cartilage ……………. bone surfaces at joints and is also present in the nose, ear, trachea and larynx.

Answer

Answer: smoothens

17. The connective tissue found between the skin and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves and in the bone marrow is called as ……………. tissue.

Answer

Answer: aerolar

18. The cells of ……………. muscular tissue are long, cylindrical, unbranched and multinucleate (having many nuclei).

Answer

Answer: striated

19. Heart muscle cells are cylindrical, …………… and uninucleate.

Answer

Answer: branched

20. Each neuron has a single long part, called the ……………. and many short, branched parts called ………………

Answer

Answer: axon, dendrites

II. Match the following columns

Column A Column B
(a) Adipocytes (i) Blood
(b) Cartilage (ii) Join bone to bone
(c) Tendon (iii) Cambium
(d) Skin (iv) Platelets
(e) Veins of leaves (v) Fat containing cell
(f) Clotting of blood (vi) Joins muscle to bones
(g) Fluid connective tissue (vii) Stratified squamous epithelium
(h) Increases girth of stem (viii) Composed of proteins and sugars
(i) Ligament (ix) Sclerenchyma
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Adipocytes (v) Fat containing cell
(b) Cartilage (viii) Composed of proteins and sugars
(c) Tendon (vi) Joins muscle to bones
(d) Skin (vii) Stratified squamous epithelium
(e) Veins of leaves (ix) Sclerenchyma
(f) Clotting of blood (iv) Platelets
(g) Fluid connective tissue (i) Blood
(h) Increases girth of stem (iii) Cambium
(i) Ligament (ii) Join bone to bone

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Tissues CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Biology MCQ:

Control and Coordination Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Control and Coordination

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The electrical impulse travels in a neuron from:
(a) Dendrite Axon → Axonal end → Cell body
(b) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon → Axonal end
(c) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axonal end
(d) Axonal end → Axon → Cell body Dendrite
Answer:
(c) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axonal end

Explanation: The electrical impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its axonal end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.

Control And Coordination MCQ Question 2.
In a synapse, a chemical signal is transmitted from:
(a) The dendritic end of one neuron to the axonal end of another neuron.
(b) Axon to cell body of the same neuron.
(c) Cell body to the axonal end of the same neuron.
(d) The axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another neuron.
Answer:
(d) The axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another neuron.

Explanation: The chemical signal is transmitted from axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another nueron. This microscopic gap is called synapse.

MCQ On Control And Coordination Question 3.
In a neuron, the conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in:
(a) Cell body
(b) Axonal end
(c) Dendritic end
(d) Axon
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 4.
Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?
(a) Receptors Muscles → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Spinal cord
(b) Receptors → Motor neuron → Spinal cord Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
Answer:
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle

Explanation: A stimulus received by the receptors present on skin, is transmitted to the sensory neuron, which carries it to the central nervous system (the spinal cord and brain).

A motor neuron carries the message from the central nervous system to the effector which could be a muscle, a gland or both.

Related Theory
Nerve based pathway performed by an impulse from the receptor of stimulus to the effector organ is called the reflex arc. A reflex action is a nerve mediated automatic and spontaneous response to a certain stimulus without sonsulting the wilt of the individual coughing, sneezing, etc.

MCQ Of Control And Coordination Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true?
(I) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is called a reflex action.
(II) Sensory neurons carry signals from the spinal cord to muscles.
(III) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to the spinal cord.
(IV) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to muscle or a gland is called reflex arc.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (I) (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Reflex action is a sudden action in response to some stimuli in the environment. Reflex arc is the path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a gland.

Class 10 Control And Coordination MCQ Question 6.
Which of the following statements are true about the brain?
(I) The main thinking part of bi in is the hindbrain.
(II) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc. are located in the fore-brain.
(III) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting and blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.
(IV) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) (II) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Control And Coordination MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 7.
The spinal cord originates from:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Medulla
(c) Pons
(d) Cerebellum
Answer:

MCQ Of Control And Coordination Class 10 Question 8.
The movement of shoot towards light is:
(a) Geotropism
(b) Hydrotropism
(c) Chemotropism
(d) Phototropism

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to:
(a) Increase the length of cells
(b) Promote cell division
(c) Inhibit growth
(d) Promote growth of stem
Answer:
(c) Inhibit growth

Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves.

Related Theory
Auxin is synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light.

Gibberellin helps in the growth of the stem.

Cytokinin promotes cell division, and it is natural then that they are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, as in fruits and seeds.

Abscisic acid inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves. It is also responsible for falling of senescent leaves.

Class 10 Chapter 7 Science MCQ Question 10.
Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Auxin
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(b) Thyroxin

Explanation: Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make the thyroxin hormone. Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the best balance for growth. Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin. In case iodine is deficient in our diet, there is a possibility that we might suffer from goitre. One of the symptoms in this disease is a swollen neck.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Question 11.
Choose the incorrect statement about insulin:
(a) It is produced from pancreas.
(b) It regulates growth and development of the body.
(c) It regulates blood sugar levels.
(d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.
Answer:

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQs Question 12.
Select the mismatched pair:
(a) Adrenaline – Pituitary gland
(b) Testosterone – Testes
(c) Oestrogen – Ovary
(d) Thyroxin – Thyroid gland
Answer:
(a) Adrenaline – Pituitary gland

Explanation: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal gland, whereas growth hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland.

Control And Coordination MCQ With Answers Question 13.
The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to:
(a) The effect of light.
(b) The effect of gravity.
(c) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
(d) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support.
Answer:

Control And Coordination MCQ Class 10 Question 14.
The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to:
(a) Hydrotropism
(b) Chemotropism
(c) Geotropism
(d) Phototropism
Answer:

MCQs On Control And Coordination Question 15.
The movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of the sun is due to:
(a) Phototropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Chemotropism
(d) Hydrotropism
Answer:

Question 16.
Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by:
(a) Medulla in the forebrain
(b) Medulla in the midbrain
(c) Medulla in the hindbrain
(d) Medulla in the spinal cord
Answer:
(c) Medulla in the hindbrain

Explanation: Medulla is a part of the hindbrain and controls involuntary action.

Question 17.
Which of the following is not an involuntary action?
(a) Vomiting
(b) Salivation
(c) Heartbeat
(d) Chewing
Answer:
(d) Chewing

Explanation: The actions that are not under our direct control are known as involuntary actions. Vomiting, salivation and heartbeat are examples of involuntary action. These involuntary actions are controlled by the medulla in the hindbrain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 18.
A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because:
(a) His blood pressure was low.
(b) His heart was beating slowly.
(c) He was suffering from goitre.
(d) His sugar level in blood was high.
Answer:
(d) His sugar level in blood was high.

Explanation: A person taking injections of insulin is suffering from diabetes. Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas. It helps in regulating blood sugar levels. If not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises, causing many harmful effects.

Question 19.
The hormone which increases fertility in males is called:
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Growth hormone
Answer:
(b) Testosterone

The hormone which increases fertility in males is called:

Explanation: Testosterone is the male sex hormone necessary for sperm production. In addition to regulating the formation of sperms, testosterone brings changes in appearance seen in boys, at the time of puberty.

Question 20.
Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Testes
(c) Pituitary
(d) Ovary
Answer:

Question 21.
The junction between two neurons is called:
(a) Cell junction
(b) Neuromuscular junction
(c) Neural joint
(d) Synapse
Answer:
(d) Synapse

Related Theory

  • Synapse is the junction between two neurons.
  • Cell junction is junction between neighboring cells.
  • Neuromuscular junction allows delivery of impulses from neurons to other cells, like muscles cells/gland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 22.
In humans, life processes are controlled and regulated by:
(a) Reproductive and endocrine systems.
(b) Respiratory and nervous systems.
(c) Endocrine and digestive systems.
(d) Nervous and endocrine systems.
Answer:

Question 23.
Select the row containing incorrect information:

Endocrine Gland The function of hormone secreted
(a) Thyroid Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism
(b) Pituitary Regulates growth and development of the body
(c) Pancreas Increasing blood sugar levels
(d) Adrenal Increasing heart rate

Answer:
(c) Endocrine Gland: Pancreas; Function of hormone – Increasing blood sugar levels

Question 24.
Look at the figure below and identify the structure labelled incorrectly:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 1
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 2
Answer:
(d) D-Dendrite

Explanation: Part labelled D is capillary and not dendrite, as dendrites receive nerve impulses.

Question 25.
Given below are four statements regarding endocrine glands and hoimones. Select the correct statements:
(I) Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands.
(II) Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to other hormones.
(III) Hormones are required in large quantities.
(IV) Many hormones are controlled by some form of a feedback mechanism.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (II), and (III)
(d) (I), (II), and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), and (IV)

Explanation: Hormones are very potent substances, which means that very small amounts of a hormone may have profound effects on metabolic processes. Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to other hormones. The hormones that cause the secretion of other hormones are called tropic hormones. A hormone from gland A causes gland B to secrete its hormone. Many hormones are controlled by some form of a negative feedback mechanism, in this type of system, a gland is sensitive to the concentration of a substance that it regulates. A negative feedback system causes a reversal of increases and decreases in body conditions in order to maintain a state of stability.

Question 26.
Given below are four statements regarding the movement in plants.
Select the incorrect statements.
(I) Movement in plants happens at a point as the point of touch.
(II) The plants use electrical-chemical means to convey information from cell to cell.
(III) There are specialised tissues in plants for the conduction of information.
(IV) Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 27.
The junction between two nerves is known as:
(a) Synapse
(b) Axon
(c) Dendrite
(d) Capillary
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Explanation: The junction between two neurons is known as synapse. It is the site of transmission of nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector). A synaptic connection between a neuron and a muscle cell is called a neuromuscular junction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 28.
The plant hormone that promotes dormancy m seeds and buds is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves and promoting dormancy in seeds and buds.

Question 29.
The secretion of which hormone leads to physical changes in the body when you are 10-12 years of age?
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary.
(b) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland.
(c) Testosterone from testes and Oestrogen from ovary.
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and Oestrogen from pituitary gland.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 7

For the following questions, two statements are given: one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R) Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): A growing plant appears to bend towards the direction of light.
Reason (R): The plant hormone auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Plants convey the acquired information from cell to cell.
Reason (R): Plants have specialized tissues for the conduction of information.
Select the correct answer to the above question from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): In animals, the brain is the main controlling center for responding to changes in their environment.
Reason (R): The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough in animals.
Answer: (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation: Reflex arcs have evolved in animals as the thinking process of the brain is not fast enough. Reflex action is any spontaneous, involuntary, and automatic response to a stimulus due to a change in our environment. For e.g. when a person touches a hot plate a sudden action leading to the withdrawal of hand occurs in a certain manner, this path of manner determines the reflex arc.

Reflex arcs have evolved in animals in order to take sudden and involuntary actions which are required in certain circumstances where emergency response is required to save the body from situations that may lead to danger.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The thyroid gland is a bibbed structure situated in our neck region. It secretes a hormone called thyroxine. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine. Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body. It promotes the growth of body tissues also. When there ¡s an excess of thyroxine ¡n the body, a person suffers from hyperthyroidism and if this gland Is underactive it results in hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is diagnosed by blood tests that measure the levels of thyroxine and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH). Hypothyroidism ¡s caused due to the deficiency of iodine in our diet resulting in a disease called goitre. Iodised salt can be included in our diet ro control it.
(A) Where is the thyroid gland situated in our body?
Answer:

(B) State the function of thyroxine in human body.
Answer:
Thyroxine hormone is secreted by thyroid glands. Thyroxine plays vital roles in: increasing the basal metabolic rate regulating long bone growth. Increasing body’s seasitivity to hormone adrenaline, digestive function.

(C) What is hyperthyroidism?
Answer:
Hyperthyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland produces excessive amount of hormone thyroxine

Related Theory
Hyperthyroidism means the thyroid gland is overactive and Overactive thyroid can sized up metabolism nervousness, anxiety, loss of mood swings etc.

(D) How can we control hypothyroidism?
Answer:
We can control hypothyroidism by including iodised salt in our diet. Deficiency of iodine in our diet reduces the levels of ISH and a disease called goitre

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 2.
While watching the TV show Master Chef Australia, Rima observed that the contestants were blindfolded and then asked to identify cubes of different fruits or food items by smelling and then by tasting them.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 3
Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell.
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell.
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste.
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors detect smell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroxine. Study the table given below.
Table: TSH Levels During Pregnancy
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 4
It is important to monitor TSH levels during pregnancy. High TSH levels and hypothyroidism can especially affect chances of miscarriage. Therefore, proper medication in consultation with a doctor is required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.
(A) Give the full form of TSH.
Answer:
Full form of TSH: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone.

(B) State the main function of TSH.
Answer:
Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by pituitary gland. Its main function is to regulate the production of hormones by the thyroid gland.)

Related Theory
A TSH test is a blood test that measures TSH i.e. how much of this hormone is present in blood. Thyroid gland is the largest gland endocrine gland, which is H-shaped present in the neck region. Thyroxine produced by thyroid gland regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

(C) Why do TSH levels in pregnant women need to be monitored?
Answer:

(D) A pregnant woman has TSH level of 8.95 mU/L. What care is needed for her?
Answer:
A pregnant woman has TSH levels 8.95 m U/L which is very high in any of the three trimesters. A care is needed for her on regular basis to reduce the levels of TSH.

A regular test of TSH levels every 6-8 weeks should be done.
Proper medication in consultation with a doctor is required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland

Question 4.
Veer accidentally touched a thorn but quickly withdrew his hand. He later realized that he did this without even thinking about it! So, his reflexes were quite quick.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 5
Reflex action is controlled by:
(a) Brain
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Peripheral Nervous System
(d) Autonomic Nervous System
Answer:
(b) Spinal cord

Explanation: Reflex action is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus. A reflex action involves a very simple nervous pathway called a reflex arc. A reflex arc starts off with receptors being excited on sensing a stimulus. They then send signals along a sensory neuron to the spinal cord, where the signals are passed on to a motor neuron. Invertebrates, most sensory neurons do not pass directly into the brain, but synapse in the spinal cord. The spinal cord acts as the main centre for reflex actions. The spinal cord acts as a link between spinal nerves and the brain.

Question 5.
When Sanket went to a nearby farm with his friend, he found lots of mature fruits and Leaves lying on the ground. He tried to find out the reason behind this.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 6

The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves and fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 6.
Study are table in which the levels of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) in men are given and answer the questions that follow on the basis of understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 7
men are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during instruction, white giving birth and after going through menopause. Found 5% of women in the United States have some kind of thyroid problem compared to 3% of men. Despite claims that high TSH increases risk for heart disease, a 2013 study found no link between high. TSH heart diseases. But a 2017 study showed that older women are specially at risk for developing thyroid cancer if they have high TSH calls along with thyroid nodules.
(A) A 35-year-old woman has TSH level 6.03 mll/L. What change should she bring in her diet to control this level?
Answer:
The normal range of TSH level falls between 0.4 -4.0 m U/L. A 35 year old woman has TSH level 6.03 m U/L. 21 means she has higher level of TSH. Chance are that she may have an underactive thyroid. She should follow iodine rich diet.

Explanation: The deficiency of iodine in the diet of a person produces less thyroxine hormone. When a person will start taking iodine rich diet lies iodised salt, the thyroid gland will work actively to produce more thyroxine hormone.

(B) When do women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level?
Answer:
Women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level during menstruation, while giving birth and after going through menopause.

(C) State the consequence of low TSH level.
Answer:
The consequences of low TSH level:
(1) Body metabolism slows down
(2) Weight gain
(3) Forgetfulness
(4) Lack of concentration
(5) Faligne
(6) Depression etc. (Any two)

(D) Name the mineral that is responsible for synthesis of hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
Answer:

Question 7.
Pranay’s father was suffering from diabetes since a long time. Apart from several dietary restrictions, he was given injections of insulin regularly.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 8
Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Answer:
Patients of diabetes have insufficient levels of insulin produced by pancreas and are therefore treated by giving injections of insulin. Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas and helps in regulating blood sugar levels. If it is not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises causing many harmful effects.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 8.
A student was interested in knowing about various endocrine glands in human body, the hormones secreted by them and their functions. The figure below shows the endrocine glands in human males and females.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 9
(A) The table below gives the names of some endocrine glands and their functions. Identify the row containing incorrect information:

Name of Endocrine Gland Function
(a) Thyroid Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body
(b) Pituitary Regulates growth and development of the body
(c) Pancreas Regulates levels of uric acid in blood
(d) Testis Changes associated with puberty in males

Answer:
(c) Name of Endocrine Gland : Pancreas;
Function : Regulates levels of uric acid in blood.

Explanation: Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas and helps in regulating blood sugar levels.

(B) The endocrine gland known as the master gland in human beings is:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Hypothalamus gland
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Thymus glands
Answer:

(C) Identify which of the following state¬ments about thyroid gland is incorrect?
(I) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize thyroxin.
(II) Deficiency of iodine in our diet may cause dwarfism.
(III) Thyroxin regulates protein, carbohydrates and fat metabolism in the body.
(IV) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Name the gland which secretes the growth hormone:
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Adrenal
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

Explanation: Growth hormone is one of the hormones secreted by the pituitary and it regulates growth and development of the body. If there is a deficiency of this hormone in childhood, it leads to dwarfism.

(E) The dramatic changes in body features associated with puberty are mainly be¬cause of the secretions of:
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testos¬terone from ovary
(b) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
(c) Testosterone from testes and oes¬trogen from ovary
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and ostrogen from pituitary gland
Answer:
(c) Testosterone from testes and ostrogen from ovary

Question 9.
Akriti’s grandfather complained of giddiness since past several days. Her father took her to the physician who checked his blood pressure and immediately prescribed medicines for hypertension.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 10
Which part of the brain is responsible for involuntary actions?
Answer:
The involuntary actions such as blood pressure, vomiting and salivation are controlled by the medulla in the hind-brain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 10.
The neurons are cells with some special abilities. These cells get excited, because of the membranes that are in a polarised state. Each neuron has a charged cellular membrane, which means there is a voltage difference between the inside and the outside membrane.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 11
Membrane potential is the difference in the total charge between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell. Action potential is a short-term change in the electrical potential that travels across the neuron cell.

A nerve impulse is generated when the stimulus is strong. This stimulus triggers the electrical and chemical changes in the neuron. When a nerve impulse is generated, there is a change in the permeability of the cell membrane. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow outside, causing a reversal of charges. The cell is now depolarised. This depolarization results in an action potential which causes the nerve impulse to move along the length of the axon. This depolarization of the membrane occurs along the nerve. A series of reactions occur where the potassium ions flow back into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. This whole process again results in the cell getting polarised, with the charges being restored.

When the nerve impulse reaches the end of the axon, there are some chemicals released from the neurotransmitters. They diffuse across the synaptic gap, which is the small space present between the axon and the receptors. Nerve impulses can be transmitted either by the electrical synapse or the chemical synapse.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 12
(A) From the statements given below regarding polarization and depolarization of neurons, select the row containing the correct information.

Polarization of Neuron Depolarization of Neuron
(a) The sodium ions flow into the cell and potassium ions move out of the cell. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow out-side
(b) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow out-side
(c) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow out-side
(d) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow out-side

Answer:
(b) Polarization of Neuron: The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the ceil.
Depolarization of Neuron: The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow outside.

Explanation: When a nerve impulse is generated, there is a change in the permeability of the cell membrane. The cell gets depolarized when the sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow outside, causing a reversal of charges. The cell gets polarized when the potassium ion’s flow back into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell.

(B) Four statements are given below. Select the incorrect statements.
(I) Nerve impulse is generated by the stimulus when a neuron is depolarized.
(II) Nerve impulse is generated by the stimulus when a neuron is polarized.
(III) The polarization of neuron results in an action potential.
(IV) The action potential causes the nerve impulse to move along the axon.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

(C) The part of a neuron which receives information from other neurons is/are :
(a) Cell body
(b) Axon
(c) Dendrites
(d) Myelin sheath
Answer:

(D) The part of the neuron through which the impulse travels is:
(a) Axon
(b) Soma
(c) Dendrites
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Axon

Explanation: Axon is a singLe prominent extension that emerges from the cell body and is responsible for conducting outgoing impulses away from the cell and towards other cells.

(E) Control and coordination in animals is provided by:
(a) Nervous tissues only
(b) Muscular tissues only
(c) Receptors
(d) Both nervous and muscular tissues
Answer:

Question 11.
Sujay was watching a program when he found that several people of a particular region had swollen neck. He tried to gather more information regarding the probable cause of this disease.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 13
Identify the disease they were suffering from and a possible cause.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 12.
Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurologic disorder that causes the brain to shrink (atrophy) and brain cells to die. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia – a continuous decline in thinking, behavioral and social skills that affects a person’s ability to function independently. The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations. As the disease progresses, a person with Alzheimer’s disease will develop severe memory impairment and lose the ability to carry out everyday tasks. Common symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease include memory loss, language problems, and impulsive or unpredictable behavior. This happens because of a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain which means that information cannot pass easily between different areas of the brain or between the brain and the muscles or organs.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 14
(A) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Alzheimer’s is a type of dementia that causes memory loss.
(b) It occurs only in elderly people.
(c) The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations.
(d) As the disease progresses, a person develops severe memory impairment and loses the ability to carry out everyday tasks.
Answer:
(b) It occurs only in elderly people.

Explanation: Alzheimer’s disease can affect people of any age group and does not occur only in the elderly.

(B) In Alzheimer’s disease there is a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain because of which:
(I) Information cannot pass easily be-tween different areas of the brain.
(II) Information cannot pass easily be-tween the brain and the muscles or organs.
(III) Information cannot be acquired by the dendrite.
(IV) Gustatory and olfactory receptors stop working.
Select the correct statements:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: In Alzheimer’s disease there is a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain because of which Information cannot pass easily between different areas of the brain and between the brain and the muscles or organs.

(C) Given below are some parts of the brain and their functions.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Part of Human Brain Function
(a) Hindbrain The sensation of feeling full during eating a meal
(b) Cerebrum Controls involuntary actions such as salivation and vomitting
(c) Medulla Controls intelligence and memory
(d) Cerebellum Precision of voluntary actions

Answer:
(d) Part of Human Brain: Cerebellum: Function: Precision of voluntary actions. Explanation: Sensation of feeling full during eating a meal is due to forebrain. Cerebrum controls intelligence and memory whereas the medulla controls involuntary actions such as salivation and vomiting.

(D) The part of human brain that is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body is:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Medulla
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Pons
Answer:

(E) The main thinking part of the human brain is:
(a) Fore brain
(b) Mid brain
(c) Hind brain
(d) Cerebellum
Answer:

Question 13.
Motor neuron disease (MND) is the name for a group of diseases that affects particular nerves known as motor nerves, or motor neurons. In MND, those neurons generate and die and slowly the muscles become weaker. This eventually leads to paralysis. It is also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis or ALS. MND is a progressive disease that usually starts slowly and gets worse over time. Symptoms sometimes starting on one side of the body and then spreading. Usually, the first things people notice are:
(1) weakness in the hands and grip
(2) slurred speech
(3) weakness in the legs, and a tendency to trip
(4) weakness of the shoulder, making lifting diffcult
(5) cramps and muscles twitching
The graph below shows the age wise incidence of MND per 1 lakh of population for men and women.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 15
This information, acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a nerve cell, sets off a chemi¬cal reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. This is a general scheme of how nervous impulses travel in the body. A similar synapse finally allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cells, such as muscles cells or glands.
(A) Based on the passage above, select the correct statements regarding Motor Neuron Diseases (MND):
(I) MND incidence is higher in men than women.
(II) MND affect sensory neurons.
(III) MND is a progressive disease that usually starts slowly and gets worse over time.
(IV) MND may eventually lead to paral¬ysis as muscles become weaker.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Motor Neuron Diseases (MND) affects motor neurons and not sensory neurons.

(B) Select the row containing the incorrect information:

Type or Part of Neuron Function
(a) Dendrites These carry signals in the form of electrical impulses away from the cell body
(b) Sensory Neuron These are found in receptors such as the eyes, ears, tongue and skin, and carry nerve im¬pulses to the spinal cord and brain.
(c) Motor neuron These are found in the central nervous system (CNS) and control muscle movements.
(d) Relay neuron Relay neurons are found in the brain and spinal cord and allow sensory and motor neurons to communicate.

Answer:
(a) Type or Part of Neuron: Dendrites: function: These are found in receptors such as the eyes, ears, tangue and skin and cavry nerve in pulses to the spinal cord and brain.

Explanation: The dendrites receive signals from other neurons or from sensory receptor ceLls. The dendrites are typically connected to the cell body, which is often referred to as the ‘control centre’ of the neuron, as it contains the nucleus. The axon is a long slender fibre that carries nerve impulses, in the form of an electrical signal known as action potential, away from the cell body towards the axon terminals, where the neuron ends. Most axons are surrounded by a myelin sheath (except for relay neurons) which insulates the axon so that the electrical impulses travel faster along the axon.

(C) The motor neurons:
(a) Are found in receptors
(b) Are found in the brain and spinal cord
(c) Are found in the Central nervous system
(d) Carry impulses to the spinal cord and brain
Answer:

(D) In the diagram above, the parts marked A and B are:
(a) Sensory neuron and motor neuron respectively
(b) Sensory neuron and relay neuron respectively
(c) Motor neuron and relay neuron respectively
(d) Motor neuron and sensory neuron respectively
Answer:

(E) In the diagram above, the motor neuron is labelled as:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(c) C

Explanation: The motor neuron carries response from the spinal cord to the effector organs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 14.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is one of two components that make up the nervous system of bilateral animals, with the other part being the central nervous system (CNS). The PNS consists of the nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord. The main function of the PNS is to connect the CNS to the limbs and organs, essentially serving as a relay between the brain and spinal cord and the rest of the body.

In its simplest form, a reflex is viewed as a function of an idealized mechanism called the reflex arc. The primary components of the reflex arc are the sensory-nerve cells (or receptors) that receive stimulation, in turn connecting to other nerve cells that activate muscle cells (or effectors), which perform the reflex action.

A reflex arc is a neural pathway that controls a reflex. In vertebrates, most sensory neurons do not pass directly into the brain, but synapse in the spinal cord. This allows for faster reflex actions to occur by activating spinal motor neurons without the delay of routing signals through the brain. The brain will receive the sensory input while the reflex is being carried out and the analysis of the signal takes place after the reflex action.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 16
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 17
(A) Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from
(a) CNS to muscles
(b) CNS to receptors
(c) receptors to CNS
(d) effector organs to CNS
Answer:
(c) receptors to CNS

Explanation: The afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system, whereas the efferent neurons carry impulses from the CNS to the effector organs.

(B) A neuron that carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system is
(a) afferent neuron
(b) efferent neuron
(c) both
(d) none
Answer:

(C) Which of these illustrate a reflex arc?
(a) Brain → Spinal cord → Muscles
(b) Muscles → Receptor → Brain
(c) Muscles → Spinal cord → Brain
(d) Receptor → Spinal cord → Muscles
Answer:
(d) Receptor → Spinal cord → Muscles

Which of these illustrate a reflex arc?

Explanation: Reflex arc does not involve the brain. Infact it has evolved in higher animals as the thinking process of brain is not fast enough.

(D) Given below are the parts of the nervous system and their functions. Iden¬tify the row containing incorrect information:

Part Function
Peripheral Nervous System Consists of sensory organs
Central Nervous System To organize and analyze information received
Afferent Neurons Carry signals to the brain and spinal cord
Efferent Neurons Carry neural impulses away from the central nervous system and toward muscles

Answer:

(E) Select the correct statements:
(I) The PNS facilitates communication between the CNS and other parts of the body.
(II) The PNS consists of cranial nerves and spinal nerves
(III) The cranial nerves arise from the spinal cord.
(IV) The CNS carries signals to the brain and spinal cord.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the body is facilitated by the peripheral nervous system consisting of cranial nerves arising from the brain and spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 15.
Plant hormones are among the most important biochemicals affecting plant growth and yield production under different conditions, including stress. Plant hormones include auxin, abscisic acid, ethylene, gibberellins, cytokinins, salicylic acid, strigolactones, brassinosteroids, and nitrous (nitric) oxide. Plant functioning under stress is affected by plant hormones, which can help the plant to tolerate the environmental stresses. Tropism is the type of plant movement, that is achieved by growth and responsible to directional light The movement is due to the action of auxin inside the plant part. Normally, phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism and thigmotropism can be identified.
Within the above tropisms, the response of shoot tips are quite different from that of root tips. The basic difference is in the concentration they secreted. The level of auxin secreted from shoot tips is always on the ascending arm of the graph of response. But for the root tips, on the descending arm. Then, their responses become the opposite. The following graph shows the fact.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 18
Auxin Concentration (Parts Per Milion)
Nb Logarithmic Scale For Auxin Concentration

(A) Observe the graph above and select the correct statements.
(I) Lower concentration of auxins decrease the growth of roots.
(II) Shoot growth requires greater concentrations of auxins as compared to the growth of roots.
(III) The application of very high concentration of auxin inhibits the growth of shoots directly.
(IV) The response of roots to auxin can thus be represented by an optimum curve with the peak at very low concentration.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Explanation: Lower concentrations of auxins increases the growth of roots.

(B) The table below lists few plant hormones and their functions. However, one row contains incorrect information. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Name of the plant hormone Function
(a) Auxin Promotes cell elongation
(b) Gibberellin Promotes seed germination and stem growth
(c) Cytokinin Inhibits cell division
(d) Abscisic acid Maintains seed dormancy

Answer:
(c) Name of plant hormone: Cytokinin: Function: Inhibits cell division

Explanation: Cytokinin is a plant hormone that promotes cell division, and they are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, such as in fruits and seeds.

(C) Plant roots exhibit:
(a) Positive geotropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Positive chemotropism
(d) Negative hydrotropism
Answer:

(D) Which of the following plant hormone is responsible for seed germination?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:

(E) The hormone that is a growth inhibitor is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(b) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone that inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which one appears more accurate and why?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 19
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 20
Answer:
(A) is more appropriate as shoots are negatively geotropic and roots are positively geotropic. Hence, shoots grow upwards and roots grow downwards.

Related Theory
The roots of a plant always grow downwards while the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This upward and downward growth in response to the gravity pull is known as geotropism.

Question 2.
Name the two components of central nervous systems in humans.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 3.
How is the spinal cord protected in the human body?
Answer:
Spinal cord is enclosed in a bony cage called the vertebral column.

Question 4.
A potted plant is made to lie horizontally on the ground. Which part of the plant will show (a) positive geotropism?
Answer:

Question 5.
Name any two types of tropism.
Answer:
Phototropism and geotropism.

Question 6.
Name the hormone that helps in regulating level of sugar is our blood. Name the gland that is secreted.
Answer:
Insulin helps in regulating blood sugar level. This hormone is secreted by the pancreas gland.

Question 7.
Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where it is synthesized?
Answer:

Question 8.
Mention the function of adrenaline hormone.
Answer:
The function of adrenaline hormone is to regulate blood pressure, heartbeat breathing rate, carbohydrate metabolism and mineral balance in the body.

Question 9.
State the function of:
(A) gustatory receptors, and
(B) olfactory receptors
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 10.
Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
Answer:
Gustatory receptors are located in Cerebrum of fore-brain. Olfactory receptors are located in the Olfactory lobe of fore-brain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 10 MCQs On Light Reflection and Refraction

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively, as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
Light Class 10 MCQ
(a) A rectangular glass slab
(b) A convex lens
(c) A concave less
(d) A prism
Answer:

Light Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other face of the box as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
Light MCQ Class 10
(a) Concave lens
(b) Rectangular, glass slab
(c) Prism
(d) Convex lens
Answer:
(d) Convex lens

Explanation: In the given diagram, parallel rays converge at a point and emerge from face B. So, there will be a convex lens inside the box.
Class 10 Light MCQ

Class 10 Light MCQ Question 3.
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the mirror. This image is:
(a) real
(b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted
(d) virtual and erect
Answer:

MCQ Of Light Class 10 Question 4.
A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using:
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Class 10 Light Reflection And Refraction MCQ Question 5.
Your school laboratory has one large window. To find the focal length of a concave mirror using one of the walls as screen, the experiment may be performed:
(a) on the same wall as the window.
(b) on the wall adjacent to the window.
(c) on the wall opposite to the window.
(d) only on the table as per laboratory arrangement.
Answer:
(d) only on the table as per laboratory arrangement.

Class 10 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 6.
The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab is traced by four students shown as A, B, C and D in the figure. Which one of them is correct?
Class 10 Science Chapter 10 MCQ
Answer:

MCQ On Light Class 10 Question 7.
In order to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the Image of a distant object on screen, the position of the screen should be:
(a) parallel to the pLane of concave mirror
(b) perpendicular to the plane of concave mirror
(c) IncLined at an angle 600 to the plane of mirror
(d) in any direction with respect to the plane of concave mirror [Dikshaj
Answer:
(a) parallel to the plane of concave mirror

Explanation: AD the refLected light rays converge and pass through the focus (F) of a concave mirror. Since the focus of a concave mirror is in front of the mirror, the screen has to be placed parallel in front of the mirror.

Light Reflection And Refraction MCQ Question 8.
A student carries out the experiment of tracing the path of a ray of Light through a rectangular glass slab for two different values of angLe of incidence ∠i = 300 and ∠i = 45° In the two coses the student is likely to observe the set of vaLues of angle of refraction and angLe of emergence as
(a) ∠r =30, ∠e = 20° and ∠r = 45’, ∠e = 28°
(b) ∠r =30°. ∠e = 30° and ∠r=45°, ∠e= 450
(c) ∠r =200, ∠e = 30° and ∠r = 28°, ∠e=45°
(d) ∠r =20°, ∠e = 20° and ∠r = 28°, ∠e = 28°
Answer:
(c) ∠r=20° ∠e=30° and ∠r= 28 ∠e=45°

Related Theory:
The angle of refraction must be less than the angle of incidence. White angle of emergence is equal to angle of incidence.
for ∠i = 300. ∠r = 20° and ∠e = 30
for ∠i = 450e ∠r = 28° and ∠e = 45°

Reflection Of Light Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
If you focus a distant object of the shape using a concave mirror, the Image obtained must be of the shape
Reflection Of Light Class 10 MCQ
Answer:

Light Chapter Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
In which of the following diagrams has the protractor (D) been correctly placed to measure the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence?
Light Chapter Class 10 MCQ
a) I, III
(b) I, IV
(c) II, III
(d) II, IV
Answer:
(a) I, III

Explanation: The angle of incidence is the angle between the incident ray and the normal at the point of incidence. The angle of emergence is the angLe between the emergent ray and the normal at the point of emergence.

Moreover, the protractor should always be placed in such a way that its base is always along the normal of the incident ray or the emergent ray.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Ch 10 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
An optical device has been given to a student and he determines its focal Length by focusing the image of the sun on a screen placed 24 cm from the device on the same side as the sun. Select the correct statement about the device.
(a) Convex mirror of Focal Length 12 cm
(b) Convex Lens of focal Length 24 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
(d) Convex tens of Focal Length 12 cm
Answer:

MCQ Of Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 Question 12.
A student is performing the experiment of determining the Focal Length of a given concave mirror by focussing a distant tree on a screen. Which one of the following kinds of images he is likely to obtain on the screen?
MCQ Of Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10
(a) (I)
(c) (III)
(b) (II)
(d) (IV)
Answer:
Light Chapter MCQ Class 10

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a real and inverted image of a distant object, such as tree, at its focus.

Class 10 Science Ch 10 MCQ Question 13.
A student has focussed on the screen a distant building using a convex lens. If he has selected a blue coloured building as object, select from the following options the one which gives the correct characteristics of the image formed on the screen.
(a) Virtual, erect, diminished and green shade
(b) Real, inverted, diminished and in violet shade
(c) Real, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
(d) Virtual, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
Answer:
(c) Real, inverted, diminished and in blue shade

Explanation: As the student has focussed a distant blue coloured building on the screen using a convex lens, a real inverted and diminished image is formed at the principal focus of the convex lens.

As object is quite far, a diminished image will be formed at the principal focus.

The colour of image will be same as colour of the object because no change in colour takes place during refraction.

MCQ Questions On Light Class 10 Question 14.
Study the following four experimental setups by four students A, B, C and D showing the incident ray to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass slab. Which of these will get the best result?
MCQ Questions On Light Class 10
(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
Answer:

Light And Reflection Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
The focal length of the concave mirror in the following experimental set-up is:
Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ
Answer:
(d) 6.6 cm

Explanation: The least count of optical bench \(\frac{1}{5}\)cm = 0.2 cm
Position of the concave mirror = 12.8 cm
Position of the screen = 6.2 cm
Focal length of the concave mirror = distance of the screen from the pole of the concave mirror = 12.8 – 6.2 cm = 6.6 cm

Light Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 16.
Three students A, B and C focussed a distant building on a screen with the help of a concave mirror. To determine focal length of the concave mirror they measured the distances as given below:
Student A: From mirror to the screen
Student B: From building to the screen
Student C: From building to the mirror
Who measured the focal length correctly:
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
Answer:
(a) Only A

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a distinct image of a distant object at its focus. As student ‘A’ measures the distance between mirror to the screen to find the focal length, he measured the focal length correctly.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Question 17.
A student has traced the path of a ray of light through a glass slab as follows. If you are asked to label 1, 2, 3 and 4, the correct sequencing of labelling Zi, Ze, Zr and lateral displacement respectively is
Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ With Answers
(a) 2,1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer:
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4

Related Theory
Angle of emergence (e): The angle of the light coming out of a medium.
Lateral displacement: The perpendicular distance between the incident ray and the emergent ray.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 18.
A student determines the focal length of a device X by focusing the image of a distant object on a screen placed 20 cm from the device on the same side as the object.
The device X is
(a) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(b) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Answer:

Chapter 10 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 19.
A student obtained a sharp image of a candle flame placed at the distant end of the laboratory table on a screen using a concave mirror to determine its focal length. The teacher suggested him to focus a distant building about 1 km far from the laboratory, for getting more correct value of the focal length. In order to focus the distant building on the same screen the student should slightly move the:
(a) mirror away from the screen
(b) screen away from the mirror
(c) screen towards the mirror
(d) screen towards the building
Answer:
(c) screen towards the mirror

Question 20.
A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 12
(a) MW
(b) MS
(c) SW
(d) MW – MS
Answer:

Question 21.
The image formed by a plane mirror is:
(a) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged
(b) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
(c) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged
(d) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
Answer:
(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object

Question 22.
When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed will be
(a) away from the lens on the other side of lens.
(b) towards the lens.
(c) away from the lens on the same side of an object.
(d) first towards and then away from the lens.
Answer:

Question 23.
Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 13
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 14
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 14

Explanation: Ray of light parallel to the principal axis towards the mirror after reflection from the mirror will pass through the focus.

Question 24.
The refractive index of four substances P, Q, R and S are 1.50, 1.36, 1.77 and 1.31 respectively. The speed of light is the maximum in the substance:
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 25.
Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
Answer:
(d) Clay

Explanation: Clay is opaque and does not let light to pass through it.

Question 26.
A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens produces:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a patch of coloured light
Answer:
(c) A parallel beam of light

Explanation: When an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, the convex lens convert the diverging rays of light coming from the object into a parallel beam of light rays which form an image at infinity.

A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens produces:

Question 27.
In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed:
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
Answer:

Question 28.
You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media, a ray of light incident obliquely at some angle would bend the most? (Refractive index of water = 1.33, Mustard oil = 1.46, Glycerine = 1.473, Kerosene = 1.44)
(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Mustard oil
(d) Glycerine
Answer:
(d) Glycerine

Explanation: Out of the given four materials, the refractive index of glycerine is highest. So, greatest deviation of incident light ray is observed in case of glycerine.

Related Theory
A substance having higher refractive index is optically denser than another substance having lower refractive index. We can conclude, the higher the refractive index of a substance, more it will change the direction of a beam of light passing through it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 29.
A student obtained a sharp inverted image of a distant tree on the screen placed behind a convex lens. He then removed the screen and tried to look through the lens in the direction of the object. He would now observe:
(a) a blurred image on the wall of the laboratory
(b) an erect image of the tree on the lens
(c) no image as the screen has been removed
(d) an inverted image of the tree at the focus of the lens
Answer:

Question 30.
Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
Answer:
(a) is less than one

Explanation: Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles. It forms virtual, erect and diminished images of the objects.

As magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, hence, magnification produced by a rearview

Question 31.
You are provided four convex lenses of focal length 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm and 40 cm. Which out of the four lenses will converge light the most and the least?
Select the row containing the correct answer and reason:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 15
Answer:

Question 32.
A student-focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the position of the candle screen and the lens as under
Position of candle = 26.0 cm
Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm
Position of the screen = 90.0 cm
Students noted down the values of object distance (u), image distance (v) and also calculated the focal length (f) of the convex lens used.

Select the row containing the correct values as per the sign convention:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 16

Question 33.
Select the correct statements from the statements given below regarding refraction of light when light is incident from a medium A having refractive index 1.85 on a glass slab having refractive index 1.50.
(I) Light will bend towards the normal in the glass slab.
(II) Emergent ray will be parallel to the refracted ray.
(III) Speed of light will be more in glass slab as compared to medium A.
(IV) Angle of refraction will be more than angle of incidence.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: As light is incident from the medium A having higher refractive index than glass, speed of light will be less in medium A as compared to glass. When light traveLs from a denser to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal. Therefore, angle of refraction will be greater than the angle of incidence.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 17

Question 34.
Four statements are written below which are the general rules for drawing ray diagrams in case of lenses. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) A ray of light from the object, parallel to the principal axis, after refraction from a concave lens, passes through the principal focus on the other side of the lens.
(II) A ray of light appearing to meet at the principal focus of a convex lens, after refraction, will emerge parallel to the principal axis.
(III) A ray of light passing through a principal focus, after refraction from a convex lens, will emerge parallel to the principal axis.
(IV) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens will emerge without any deviation.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 35.
Given below are statements regarding sign conventions for reflection by spherical mirrors. Select the correct statements.
(I) All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the pole of the mirror.
(II) All the distances measured to the left of the origin (along – x-axis) are taken as positive while those measured to the right of the origin (along + x-axis) are taken as negative.
(III) Distances measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis (along + y-axis) are taken as positive.
(IV) Distances measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis (along +y-axis) are taken as negative.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 36.
Refractive indices of turpentine oil, sapphire, water and crown glass are 1.47, 1.77, 1.33 and 1.52 respectively. In which of these media will a ray of light incident obliquely at the same angle from air would bend the least?
(a) Turpentine oil
(b) Sapphire
(c) Water
(d) Crown glass
Answer:
(c) Water

Explanation: The speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive index of the medium. And the amount of bending is also inversely proportional to the refractive index of the medium. As the refractive index of water is the least out of the given media, it is optically rarer as compared to the other media. So, light will bend the least in water.

Question 37.
Kaashvi performed an activity using a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. She placed the object 30 cm in front of the mirror. Where is the image likely to be formed?
(a) At 10 cm behind the mirror
(b) At 10 cm in front of the mirror
(c) At 60 cm in front of the mirror
(d) At 60 cm behind the mirror
Answer:

Question 38.
The angle between the incident and reflected rays is 90° as shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 18
If the plane mirror is rotated by 10° about O in the anti-clockwise direction, then the angle between the incident and reflected rays will be:
(a) 55°
(b) 90°
(c) 100°
(d) 110°
Answer;

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 39.
Two lenses, a convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 25 cm, are held close to each other. The focal length of the combination of the lenses is:
(a) + 45 cm
(b) – 5 cm
(c) – 45 cm
(d) + 100 cm
Answer:
(d) + 100 cm

Explanation: The power of combination of two lenses is P = P1 + P2, where P1 is the power of the convex lens of focal length 20 cm and P2 is power of the concave lens of focal length 25 cm.

As Power (in Dioptre) = P = \(\frac{1}{f(\text { inm })}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}=+\frac{100}{20}-\frac{100}{25}\) = +1
Thus, focal length of combination = +100 cm

Question 40.
Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
Answer:
(a) is Less than one

Explanation: Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles. It forms virtual, erect and diminished images of the objects.

As magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, hence, magnification produced by a rear view mirror, fitted in vehicles is less than one.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 10

For the following questions, two statements are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the Other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answers to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): A convex mirror is used as a rearview/driver’s mirror.
Reasoning (R): Convex mirrors have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. They also give an erect, although diminished image. [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion. Explanation: Since the image formed is highly diminished in convex mirror, we can see the full image of far away objects, which is otherwise not possible in concave and plane mirrors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror image as AMBULANCE in inverted form.
Reason (R): The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the object.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: The word AMBULANCE is written backwards (inverted) as when it is seen through a mirror in the vehicles ahead the drivers see it as AMBULANCE without inversion and give way to it on priority.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R): Glass is denser than air.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): A convex lens has a real focus.
Reason (R): All light rays pass through the focus of a convex lens after refraction.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: A convex lens has a real focus as all the light rays parallel to the principal axis actuaLly pass through the focus of the convex lens after refraction. However, rays which are not parallel to the principal axis do not pass through the focus of the convex lens.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R): The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie on the same plane.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion. Explanation: A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same path because the rays are incident normally on the mirror. Therefore, angle of incidence = 0° and so, angle of reflection is also 0°. The law of reflection, namely, angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection is being followed here.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The power of a concave lens is negative.
Reason (R): A concave lens has a virtual focus.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Sushma went with her mother to purchase some gold jewelry for her sister’s marriage. The salesman asked them to check the hallmark and gold purity to ascertain the genuineness of the gold article. As the hallmark was too small to be seen by the naked eye, the salesman gave them a magnifying glass to see the hallmark.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 19
Which type of lens is used as a magnifying glass and why?
Answer:
A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass as it forms an enlarged or magnified image of an object when it is held close to the object to be seen.

Question 2.
Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:

S.NO Object-Distance u (cm) Image-Distance v (cm)
1. -60 – +12
2. -30 – +15
3. -20 – +20
4. -15 – +30
5. -12 – +60
6. -9 – +90

(A) What is the focal length of the convex lens? State reason for your answer.
Answer:
From S.No. 3, we can say that the radius of curvature of the lens is 20 cm because when an object is placed at the centre of the curvature of a convex lens its image is formed on the other side of the lens at the same distance from the lens. And, we also know that focal length is half of the radius of curvature. Thus, focal length of the lens is + 10 cm.

(B) For what object-distance (u) is the corresponding image-distance (v) not correct? How did you arrive at this conclusion?
Answer:
S.No. 6 is not correct as for this observation the object distance is between focus and pole, and for such cases the image formed is always virtual but in this case, a real image is forming as the image distance is positive.

(C) A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
(a) At focus
(b) At infinity
(c) At C i.e. centre of curvature
(d) Beyond centre of curvature
Answer:
(c) At C i.e. centre of curvature

(D) Focal length of plane mirror is:
(a) At infinity
(b) Zero
(c) Negative
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 3.
While sipping some Lemonade with a straw, Ronit observed that the straw Looked bent when seen from the side. He could guess that it was due to the bending of Light or refraction.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 20
The figure shows a ray of Light as it travels from medium A to medium B. The refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 21
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Explanation: Here, angle of incidence, i = 60° Angle of refraction, r = 45°
The refraction index of the medium B relative to medium A,
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 22

Question 4.
Analyze the following table showing refractive indices of four media A, B, C and D and answer the questions that follow:
The refractive indices of four media A, B, C and D are given in the following table:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 23
(A) If light, travels from one medium to another in which case the change in speed will be minimum.
Answer:
Minimum change is seen as light moves between 1.50 and 1.52, i.e. B and C.

(B) If Light, travels from one medium to another, in which case the change in speed will be maximum.
Answer:
Maximum change when light moves between 1.33 and 2.40, i.e. A and D.

(C) A Light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 24
(a) Greater than unity
(b) Less than unity
(c) Equal to unity
(d) Zero
Answer:
(a) Greater than unity

Explanation: Since light rays in medium B goes towards normal. So it has greater refractive index and lesser velocity, of light with respect to medium A. So refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A is greater than unity.

(D) The laws of reflection hold good for
(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 5.
Parag along with his friends were experimenting with a concave mirror. They tried to focus the sun’s rays at a piece of paper and observed that the paper started to burn after some time.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 25
Rays from the sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that the size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror.
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(d) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror.
Answer:
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror.

Explanation: The sun is at an infinite distance from the surface of the Earth. Now, light rays from the sun rays i.e., from infinity, are parallel to the principal axis. After reflection from the concave mirror, the light rays will converge at focus. It is given that the sun rays converge at 15 cm.

So, the focal length of the mirror, f = 15 cm. We know that in case of a concave mirror, the same size, real and inverted image is formed when object is placed at 2F or the centre of curvature.
Hence, in this case, object must be place at 2F i.e., 2 x 15 = 30 cm.

Question 6.
First, hold a convex lens in your hand and direct it towards the Sun. Focus the light from the Sun on a sheet of paper. Obtain a sharp bright image of the Sun. Hold the paper and the lens in the same position for a while. Keep observing the paper. While performing this activity, do not look at the Sun directly or through a lens or otherwise you may damage your eyes if you do so.
Next, take a convex lens. Find its approximate focal length in a way described in Activity above. Draw five parallel straight lines, using chalk, on a long Table such that the distance between the successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens. Place the lens on a lens stand. Place it on the central line such that the optical centre of the lens lies just over the line. Place a burning candle, far beyond 2F1 – to the left. Obtain a clear sharp image on a screen on the opposite side of the lens. Repeat this Activity by placing object just behind 2F1, between F1 and 2F1, F1 at 1, between F1 and O. Note down and tabulate your observations.
(A) Following observations were recorded by the student after performing the first activity:
(I) A large and bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper when light from sun is focused.
(II) A sharp and bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper when light from sun is focused.
(III) The paper begins to burn immediately when both the paper and lens are held in the same position.
(IV) The paper begins to burn after some time when both the paper and lens are held in the same position.
Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: Convex lens is a converging lens. So, it converges the light rays from the sun and a sharp bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper as sun is very very far from us. When the lens and paper are held in the same position for some time, it is observed that the paper begins to burn after some time as all the sun’s rays converge at the bright spot, which is the focus of the lens, causing the paper to burn.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 27

(B) Two students performed the second activity for which as per directions mentioned above.
They drew five lines and marked the line numbers from 1 to 5 above the lines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 26
The teacher asked the students to keep a record of the lines marked. The students tabulated the record as given below:

First Student Second Student
(a) Line numbers 1 and 2 are 2F1 and F1 respectively  Line number 1 and 5 are F1 and 2F1 respectively
(b) Line numbers 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively  Line number 2 and 4 are and F2 respectively
(c) The central line (line number 3) contains the focus of the lens  The central line (line number 3) contains the optical center
(d)Distance between two successive lines is equal to twice the focal length of the lens  Distance between two successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens

Select the row containing the correct information by both the students.
Answer:
(b) First student: Line numbers 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively; Second student: Line number 2 and 4 are F1 and F2 respectively

Explanation: The lens has been placed on the central line which contains the optical centre of the lens. Lines 1 and 2 are 2F1 and F1 respectively and lines 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively. Moreover, the distance between successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens, which is OF1.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 28

(C) Select the incorrect statement. In the first activity:
(a) A real image of the sun is obtained on the paper
(b) A virtual image of the sun is obtained on the paper.
(c) The convex lens converges the sun’s rays at the bright spot.
(d) The approximate focal length of the convex lens is the distance between the lens and the paper.
Answer:
(b) A virtual image of the sun is obtained on the paper.

Explanation: Convex lens is a converging lens and converges the parallel rays of light coming from the sun at the bright spot formed on the paper. The image formed is therefore real. Further, the distance between the lens and the paper gives the approximate value of the focal length of the lens.

(D) The image of a burning candle placed beyond 2F1 to the left is:
(a) Real, inverted, diminished and formed on a screen placed at the opposite side of the lens.
(b) Real, inverted and enlarged and formed on the same side as the candle.
(c) Virtual, erect, diminished and formed on the same side as the candle.
(d) Real, inverted, enlarged and formed on a screen placed at the opposite side of the lens.
Answer:

(E) As the candle is brought closer to the focus F-L from the left:
(a) Image becomes smaller in size
(b) Image size first becomes smaller and then enlarges
(c) Image size first becomes larger and then diminishes.
(d) Image becomes Larger in size.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 7.
When Aiysha visited her ENT specialist to consult the doctor as she had some problem in her ear, she saw a circular mirror worn by the doctor around the forehead. She wanted to know the purpose served by the mirror. So, she came home and tried to find out the type of mirror and its applications.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 29
Write two different uses of concave mirrors.
Answer:
Uses of concave mirrors:
(1) It is used in torches, headlights of vehicles and search-lights to get powerful parallel beams of light.
(2) It is used as a shaving mirror to see a larger image of the face when held close to the face.
(3) It is used by dentists and ENT specialists to see larger images of teeth and inner parts of ear and throat.
(4) Large concave mirrors or parabolic mirrors are used in solar furnaces to concentrate sunlight.

Question 8.
There are numerous uses of concave mirrors in daily life. It is used in the aircraft landing to guide the airplane, it is used as a torch to reflect the light rays, it is used during shaving to get an erect and enlarged image of the face, etc.
A student had a concave mirror with him and wanted to know its focal length. So, he performed an activity to find out the focal length of the concave mirror.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 30
(A) The radius of curvature of the concave mirror used by the student in the above activity is:
(a) 60 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 10 cm
Answer:
(a) 60 cm

Explanation: The focal length of the mirror is the distance between the pole of the mirror and the screen where the clear image of the distant object is formed. As the mirror stand is at 10 cm and screen is at 40 cm, therefore, focal length = 40-10 = 30 cm, as the image of a distant object is formed by a concave mirror at its focus. Radius of curvature = 2f = 60 cm.

(B) Select the correct observation :
(I) Image of the distant tree is formed by the concave mirror at its focus.
(II) Image of the distant tree is formed by the concave mirror at its centre of curvature.
(III) Image is virtual and laterally inverted
(IV) Image is real and inverted
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a real and inverted image of a distant object at its focus as shown in the figure above. Image is real as the rays of light intersect at the focus after reflection from the concave mirror.

(C) It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm. Two students gave their ideas in a tabular form as given below:

First Student Second Student
(a) Range of object distance should be from 0 cm to less than 20 cm  Range of object distance should be from 0 cm to less than 40 cm
(b) Image can be obtained at a screen placed at the position of formation of image  Image cannot be obtained on a screen placed at the position of formation of image
(c) Image will be larger than the object  Image will be of same size as the object
(d) Image will be formed behind the mirror.  Image will be formed behind the mirror.

The row containing the correct information by both the students is:
Answer:

(D) In the situation mentioned in question (C) above, if the object is kept at 40 cm, the position and nature of image formed will be:
(a) Real, inverted and enlarged image will be formed 40 cm in front of the mirror.
(b) Real and inverted image will be formed 40 cm in front of the mirror of same size as object.
(c) Virtual, erect and enlarged image will be formed 40 cm behind the mirror.
(d) Virtual and erect image will be formed 40 cm behind the mirror of same size as object.
Answer:

(E) The magnification produced by a concave mirror when object is placed between Pole and Focus is:
(a) m = +1 (b) m = -1
(c) m > +1 (d) m > -1
Answer:
(c) m > + 1

Explanation: The magnification produced by a mirror is the ratio of height of image to the height of object. As the image formed by a concave mirror when object is placed between pole and focus is virtual, erect and magnified, m > + 1.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 9.
While brushing her teeth one morning, Reema noticed that while she was holding the tooth brush in her left hand, it was just the opposite in her image formed by the plane mirror. She was amused but knew why it was so!
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 31
What is the name of the phenomenon in which the right side of an object appears to be the left side of the image in a plane mirror?
Answer:
Lateral inversion is the phenomenon in which the right side of an object appears to be the left side in its image in a plane mirror.

Question 10.
One of the most common uses for the convex mirror is the passenger-side mirror on your car. Convex mirrors are also often found in the hallway of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools, stores and apartment buildings.
Usually, these mirrors are mounted to a wall or ceiling at points where hallways cross each other or make a sharp turn. This eliminates blind spots and provides people with a good overview of their surroundings. The convex mirror is also used to provide safety for motorists on roads, driveways and in alleys where there is a lack of visibility.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 32
A convex mirror is also a simple way of improving the safety in your warehouse or production environment. In a work environment or warehouse, convex mirrors can be placed at crossings or blind spots to enable workers to see approaching forklifts, other vehicles or approaching colleagues. This provides your employees with the necessary overview of their work environment and therefore increases the safety in your workplace.

Another use of the convex mirror in this work environment is during the production process, such as on the conveyor belt to view your product from different angles. This can increase the quality of your products by becoming aware of any faults in the production and increase the efficiency of the production process by eliminating the necessity to check your products by picking them up from the conveyor belt.
(A) Select the characteristics of convex mirror due to which it is used as rear view mirrors.
(I) Convex mirror always forms a virtual and erect image
(II) Convex mirrors may form real or virtual image depending upon the position of object
(III) Convex mirrors provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
(IV) Images formed by convex mirrors are usually larger than the object.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: Convex mirrors are used as rearview mirrors in cars because they always form virtual and erect image and provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 33

(B) As the object is moved away from the focus of the convex mirror:
(a) size of image does not change
(b) size of image increase
(c) size of image decreases
(d) cannot be ascertained as size of image depends upon the focal length of the convex mirror.
Answer:

(C) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always:
(a) Equal to +1
(b) Equal to -1
(c) Greater than +1
(d) Smaller than +1
Answer:

(D) The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the object. The object distance and image distance, along with the sign convention, are tabulated below. Select the row containing the correct values of object and image distance:

Object Distance (u) Image Distance (v)
(a) – 90 cm  + 22.5 cm
(b) – 22.5 cm  + 90 cm
(c) – 90 cm  – 22.5 cm
(d) – 90 cm  + 90 cm

Answer:
(a) Object Distance : -90 cm ; Image Distance: +22.5cm

Explanation: it is given that focal Length, f = + 30 cm and size of image = VA times size of object.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 34

(E) Consider an object 7.0 cm in length which is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. The size and position of image formed is:
(a) size of image = -3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm
(b) size of image = +3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm
(c) size of image = +3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{7}{60}\) cm
(d) size of image = -3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{7}{60}\) cm
Answer:
(b) size of image = + 3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm

Explanation: Here, height of object = h1 = 7 cm; u = – 20 cm, f= + 30/2cm = + 15cm.
Applying the mirror formula, we get.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 35

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 11.
When we look down into a pool of water from above, the pool looks less deep than it really is. Similarly, an object kept at the bottom of a pond or pool of water appears to be raised.

This great blue heron finally catches a meal after seeking the waters. To be a successful hunter, the heron must use the refraction principle to determine where the fish are located before making a strike. The heron can accurately determine where to strike by recognizing that the fish are located at a spot that is different from what its eyes tell it.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 36
(A) The apparent depth of the fish in water
(a) Less than the actuaL depth because Light travels from a rarer medium to denser medium.
(b) Less than the actuaL depth because Light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.
(c) More than the actual. depth because of total internat reflection of Light.
(d) More than the actual depth because Light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.
Answer:
(b) Less than the actual depth because light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.

Explanation: As light travels from a denser medium (water) to a rarer medium (air), the light rays undergo refraction and bend away from the normal. To an observer, the position of fish in water appears to be raised as shown in the figure above. Therefore, the apparent depth of the fish in water is less than the actual depth due to refraction of light.

(B) A student was thinking what would happen if the medium is changed from water (refractive index of water = 1.33) to a new medium A having refractive index 1.5. He listed all possibilities in a tabular form.

Select the row containing the correct observation and reason.

Observation Reason
(a) Speed of light will be more in the new medium  A Speed of light in a medium is directly proportional to the refractive index of the medium.
(b) Light rays will bend more in water as compared to  A Bending of light is more in a rarer medium as compared to a denser medium
(c) Apparent depth of fish will be more in water as compared to medium  A Light rays will bend when coming from medium A.
(d) Apparent depth of fish will be less in water as compared to medium  Light rays will bend less when coming from medium A.

Answer:
(c) Observation – Apparent depth of fish will be more in water as compared to medium A;
Reason: Light rays will bend when coming from medium A.

Explanation: When the fish is kept in medium A, light rays will bend more as compared to water because of which fish will appear to be raised more in A as compared to water.

(C) Select the incorrect statement from the statements below regarding refractive index of a medium:
(a) The refractive index can be (inked to the relative speed of propagation of
tight in different media.
(b) Light propagates with different speeds in different media.
(c) Refractive index of air is approximately equal to 1 as speed of tight is fastest In vacuum.
(d) The refractive index of glass is less than that of water as speed of tight in glass is 2 × 108 m/s and in water is 2.25 × 108 m/s.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following are not examples of the phenomena of refraction of light?
(I) Spectacles worn by people to correct their defect of vision
(II) Formation of rainbow
(III) Solar furnaces
(IV) SatelLite dishes
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Solar furnaces and satellite dishes use parabolic or concave mirrors and make use of the phenomenon of reflection of light, whereas spectacles worn by people having defective vision and formation of rainbow are based on the phenomenon of refraction of light.

(E) A ray of light continues moving along the same path while passing through air- water interface. The angle of refraction for the ray is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) Greater than 90°
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 12.
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to see those distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 37
So, she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2 out of which L1 was bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light, while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens is very heavy.

Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.
(A) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
(a) Concave lenses
(b) Convex lenses
(c) Bifocal lenses
(d) Flat lenses
Answer:
(a) Concave lenses

(B) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4 : 1, what would be the ratio of the focal length of L1 and L2?
(a) 4 :1
(b) 1: 4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:1
Answer:

(C) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(b) Double the focal length
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature
(d) Inverse of the object distance
Answer:

(D) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at what distance did she put the object?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 6 cm
Answer:
(c) 8 cm

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 38

Sumati did some preliminary experiment

(E) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What advantages, if any, would she have with her choice of lenses?
(a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable amount of light to pass through them.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Answer:
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and they will also allow considerable amount of light to pass through them.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of mirror should a student use if he wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of the school laboratory?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 2.
If a magnification of -1 is to be obtained using a concave mirror of focal length 6 cm, then what should be the position of the object?
Answer:
Magnification of -1 means that the image is real and size of image is equal to the size of the object. This is possible when the object is placed at C of a concave mirror. Therefore, position of object = C = 2f = 12 cm in front of the concave mirror.

Question 3.
A man stands 10 m away in front of a large plane mirror. How far must he walk before he is 5 m away from his image?
Answer:
As the distance between the man and the mirror is 10 m, the distance between man and his image is 10 + 10 or 20 m, as image distance and object distance are equal. Distance between the man and his image is 5 m when the man is 2.5 m away from the mirror. Therefore, the man has to walk 10 m- 2.5m = 7.5 m towards the mirror.

Question 4.
Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Answer:

Question 5.
Observe the given figure. What is the angle of reflection?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 39
Answer:
The angle of reflection is the angle between the normal and the reflected ray.
Therefore: 900 70° = 200

Question 6.
An object O is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown beLow.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 40
At which point is the image of the object ‘O’ formed?
Answer:
At point R, the image of object ‘O’ is formed.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 41

Question 7.
Define power of a lens.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 8.
Both a spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have a focal length of (-) 15 cm. What type of mirror and lens are these?
Answer:
Both are concave
Alternative answer that should be given credit: Plano-concave lens

Explanation: Focal length of a concave mirror is the distnace of principal focus F of the mirror from the pole P of the mirror. In concave lens – Focal length is the distnace of principal focus of the lens from the optical centre C. All the distances parallel to the principal axis of the spherical mirror, are measured from the pole of the mirror and in lens this distance is measured from the optical centre of the lens.

In mirror or lens the distances measured in a direction opposite to the direction of incident light are taken as negative.

Concave mirror:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 42
Concave lens:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 43

Question 9.
The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be real, inverted and larger than the object. Where is the object placed?
Answer:
Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 44
Explanation: In figure, object AB is placed between F and C of a concave mirror MN in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror. A ray of the light starting from A falls on the mirror along AD parallel to the principal axis. On reflection at D, it passes through F. Another ray of light starting A and falling on the mirror along AE passes through centre of curveture C. On reflection at E, it retraces its path. The two reflected rays, DFA’ and EAC. meet at A’. Draw A’B’ perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror. Therefore A’B1 is the image of mirror which is formed beyond C and is real, inverted and larger in size than the object.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 10.
Name the part of a lens through which a ray of light passes without suffering any deviation.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers

Sound Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Sound Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 12 MCQs On Sound

Sound Class 9 MCQ Chapter 12 Question 1.
Note is a sound
(a) of mixture of several frequencies
(b) of mixture of two frequencies only
(c) of a single frequency
(d) always unpleasant to listen

Answer

Answer: (c) of a single frequency

Note is a sound

Sound MCQ Class 9 Chapter 12 Question 2.
A key of a mechanical piano struck gently and then struck again but mush harder this time. In the second case
(a) sound will be louder but pitch will not be different
(b) sound will be louder and pitch will also be higher
(c) sound will be louder but pitch will be lower
(d) both loudness and pitch will remain unaffected

Answer

Answer: (a) sound will be louder but pitch will not be different

MCQ On Sound Class 9 Chapter 12 Question 3.
In SONAR, we use
(a) ultrasonic waves
(b) infrasonic waves
(c) radio waves
(d) audible sound waves

Answer

Answer: (c) radio waves

MCQ Of Sound Class 9 Chapter 12 Question 4.
Sound travels in air if
(а) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another.

Answer

Answer: (d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another.

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 5.
When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Answer

Answer: (b) amplitude

MCQ Questions On Sound Class 9 Chapter 12 Question 6.
In the curve half the wavelength is
MCQ Questions On Sound Class 9 Chapter 12
(a) AB
(b) BD
(c) DE
(d) AE

Answer

Answer: (b) BD

Class 9 Sound MCQ Chapter 12 Question 7.
Earthquake produces which kind of sound before the main shock wave begins
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) ultrasound

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Infrasound can be heard by
(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

Answer

Answer: (c) rhinoceros

MCQ Sound Class 9 Chapter 12 Question 9.
Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting
(a) intensity of sound only
(b) amplitude of sound only
(c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(d) loudness of sound

Answer

Answer: (c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction and speed of underwater bodies.

Answer

Answer: SONAR

2. The technique of obtaining images of internal organs of the body by using ultrasonic waves is called …………….

Answer

Answer: ultrasonography

3. The technique of obtaining images of heart by using reflection of ultrasonic waves from various parts of heart is called …………….

Answer

Answer: echocardiography

4. …………….. is a medical instrument used for listening to sound produced withing the body, chiefly in the heart or lungs.

Answer

Answer: Stethoscope

5. Sound of frequency below …………… is called infrasonic sound.

Answer

Answer: 20 Hz

6. Speed of sound …………… with increase in temperature.

Answer

Answer: increases

7. Greater the amplitude of vibration of source the greater is …………… of sound.

Answer

Answer: loudness

Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Pinna (i) 20 Hz-20 KHz
(b) Cochlea (ii) Frequency above 20 KHz
(c) Audible range of frequency (iii) Shrill in nature
(d) Repetition of sound of a source by reflection (iv) Collects sound from surroundings
(e) Ultrasound (v) Mechanical wave
(f) Sound wave (vi) Image of heart using reflection of ultrasonic waves
(g) High frequency sound (vii) Echo
(h) Electrocardiography (viii) Converts pressure variation into electric signal
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Pinna (iv) Collects sound from surroundings
(b) Cochlea (viii) Converts pressure variation into electric signal
(c) Audible range of frequency (i) 20 Hz-20 KHz
(d) Repetition of sound of a source by reflection (vii) Echo
(e) Ultrasound (ii) Frequency above 20 KHz
(f) Sound wave (v) Mechanical wave
(g) High frequency sound (iii) Shrill in nature
(h) Electrocardiography (vi) Image of heart using reflection of ultrasonic waves

Complete the crossword given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers
Across
1. Medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced within the body, chiefly in the heart and lungs.
4. Thin membrane vibrates when sound reaches inside ear.
6. The wave in which particle of medium vibrates in the direction perpendicular to the direction propagation of the wave.
8. The phenomenon of repetition of sound by reflection from an obstacle.
9. The part of ear which collects sound from surroundings.

Down
2. The technique of obtaining images of the heart by using reflection of ultrasonic waves from various parts of heart.
3. The characteristics which enable us to distinguish one sound from another having same loudness and ptich.
5. Frequency of sound higher than 20 KHz.
7. A device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction and speed of underwater objects.

Answer

Answer:
Across:
1. Stethescope
4. Eardrum
6. Transversal wave
8. Echo
9. Pinna

Down:
2. Echocardiography
3. Timber
5. Ultrasound
7. Sonar

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Sound CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms with Answers

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 10MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 10 MCQs On Respiration in Organisms

Choose the correct answer:

Respiration In Organisms Class 7 MCQ Question 1.
Sometimes when we do heavy exercise, anaerobic respiration takes place in our muscle cells. What is produced during this process?
(a) alcohol and lactic acid
(b) alcohol and CO2
(c) lactic acid and CO2
(d) lactic acid only

Answer

Answer: (d) lactic acid only

Class 7 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 2.
Yeast is used in wine and beer industries because it respires.
(a) aerobically producing oxygen
(b) aerobically producing alcohol
(c) anaerobically producing alcohol
(d) anaerobically producing CO2

Answer

Answer: (c) anaerobically producing alcohol

Yeast is used in wine and beer industries because it respires.

Class 7 Science Ch 10 MCQ Question 3.
During the process of exhalation, the ribs move
(a) down and inwards
(b) up and inwards
(c) down and outwards
(d) up and outward

Answer

Answer: (a) down and inwards

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Question 4.
Breathing is a process that
(i) provides O2 to the body.
(ii) breaks down food to release energy.
(iii) helps the body to get rid of CO2
(iv) produces water in the cells.
Which of the following gives the correct combination of functions of breathing?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (i) and (iii)

Class 7 Respiration In Organisms MCQ Question 5.
Which are the gases involved in breathing?
(a) O2 and NO2
(b) O2 and SO2
(c) O2 and O3
(d) O2 and CO2

Answer

Answer: (d) O2 and CO2

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 6.
Name the organ of the body in which the blood is oxygenated.
(a) Heart
(b) Lungs
(c) Lever
(d) Pancreas

Answer

Answer: (b) Lungs

MCQ On Respiration In Organisms Class 7 Question 7.
After heavy exercise, due to the accumulation of which substance we get muscle cramps ?
(a) Malaic acid
(b) Fumaric acid
(c) Lipoic acid
(d) Lactic acid

Answer

Answer: (d) Lactic acid

Respiration In Organisms Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Yeasts are used in
(a) wine and beer industry
(b) bakery
(c) in both
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) wine and beer industry

Respiration Class 7 MCQ Question 9.
In the following figure of respiratory system organs labelled by 1 and 2 are respectively:
Respiration Class 7 MCQ
(a) Tracheae, Lungs
(b) Lungs, Tracheae
(c) Nasal cavity, Lungs
(d) Lungs, Nasal cavity

Answer

Answer: (a) Tracheae, Lungs

Class 7 Chapter 10 Science MCQ Question 10.
Breathing rate in human beings in normal condition is
(a) 12-15 times in a minute
(b) 15-18 times in a minute
(c) 18-22 times in a minute
(d) 22-25 times in a minute

Answer

Answer: (b) 15-18 times in a minute

Breathing rate in human beings in normal condition is

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Unicellular organisms (a) Skin
(ii) Plants (b) Spiracles
(iii) Earthworm, Leech (c) Cell membrane
(iv) Insects (d) Lungs, skin
(v) Frog (e) Stomata
(vi) Mammals (f) Gills
(vii) Fish (g) Lungs
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Unicellular organisms (c) Cell membrane
(ii) Plants (e) Stomata
(iii) Earthworm, Leech (a) Skin
(iv) Insects (b) Spiracles
(v) Frog (d) Lungs, skin
(vi) Mammals (g) Lungs
(vii) Fish (f) Gills

Fill in the blanks

1. In higher animals, respiration occurs through ……………….

Answer

Answer: lungs

2. The food has ………………. which is released during ……………….

Answer

Answer: stored energy, respiration

3. Yeasts can survive in the absence of air. They are called ……………….

Answer

Answer: anaerobes

4. The accumulation of ………………. causes muscle cramps.

Answer

Answer: lactic acid

5. The taking in of air rich in oxygen into body is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: inhalation

6. Breathing involves the movement of the ………………. and the ……………….

Answer

Answer: diaphragm, rib-cage

Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. All living organisms respire to get energy from food.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Cellular respiration takes place in the cells of all organisms.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Muscles can also respire anaerobically.

Answer

Answer: True

4. During heavy exercise the breathing rate declines.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Breathing involves the upward movement of the diaphragm.

Answer

Answer: False

6. The percentage of carbon dioxide is higher in exhaled air in comparison to inhaled air.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Roots take up air from the air spaces present between the soil particles.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Respiration in Organisms CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light with Answers

Light Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Light Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 15 MCQs On Light

Choose the correct answer:

Light Class 7 MCQ Chapter 15 Question 1.
The path of the light is
(a) always a straight line
(b) a curved line
(c) a zig-zag line
(d) depends on the medium

Answer

Answer: (a) always a straight line

The path of the light is

Light MCQ Class 7 Chapter 15 Question 2.
Which one shows lateral inversion?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Concave mirror
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Plane mirror

Light Class 7 MCQ With Answers Chapter 15 Question 3.
Image formed by a plane mirror is
(a) virtual and erect
(b) real and erect
(c) virtual and inverted
(d) real and inverted

Answer

Answer: (a) virtual and erect

Class 7 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 4.
Boojho and Paheli were given one mirror each by their teacher. Boojho found his image to be erect and of the same size whereas Paheli found her image erect and smaller in size. This means that the mirrors of Boojho and Paheli are, respectively
(a) plane mirror and concave mirror
(b) concave mirror and convex mirror
(c) plane mirror and convex mirror
(d) convex mirror and plane mirror

Answer

Answer: (c) plane mirror and convex mirror

Class 7 Light MCQ Chapter 15 Question 5.
Which of the following can be used to form a real image?
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Plane mirror only
(c) Convex mirror only
(d) Both concave and convex mirrors

Answer

Answer: (a) Concave mirror only

MCQ On Light Class 7 Chapter 15 Question 6.
If an object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror, the distance between the object and the image formed by the mirror will be
(a) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.25 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 m

MCQ Of Light Class 7 Chapter 15 Question 7.
You are provided with a concave mirror, a convex mirror, a concave lens and a convex lens. To obtain an enlarged image of an object you can use either
(a) concave mirror or convex mirror
(b) concave mirror or convex lens
(c) concave mirror or concave lens
(d) concave lens or convex lens

Answer

Answer: (b) concave mirror or convex lens

MCQ On Light For Class 7 With Answers Chapter 15 Question 8.
An erect and enlarged image can be formed by
(a) only a convex mirror
(b) only a concave mirror
(c) only a plane mirror
(d) both convex and concave mirror

Answer

Answer: (b) only a concave mirror

Class 7 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 9.
You are provided with a convex mirror, a concave mirror, a convex lens and a concave lens. You can get an inverted image from
(a) both concave lens and convex lens
(b) both concave mirror and convex mirror
(c) both convex mirror and convex lens
(d) both convex mirror and concave lens

Answer

Answer: (c) both convex mirror and convex lens

Light Chapter Class 7 MCQ Chapter 15 Question 10.
An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be formed by a
(a) convex lens provided the image is smaller than object.
(b) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object.
(c) concave lens provided the image is larger than object.
(d) concave lens provided the image is of the same size.

Answer

Answer: (b) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object.

An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be formed by a

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Concave lens (a) Lateral inversion
(ii) Always virtual image (b) Reflecting surface is bulged out
(iii) Changing position of image (c) Concave mirror
(iv) Wax paper (d) Seven colours
(v) Image obtained on screen (e) Real image
(vi) Convex mirror (f) Translucent
(vii) Used by dentists (g) Thinner in the middle
(viii) White light composed (h) Concave lens
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Concave lens (g) Thinner in the middle
(ii) Always virtual image (h) Concave lens
(iii) Changing position of image (a) Lateral inversion
(iv) Wax paper (f) Translucent
(v) Image obtained on screen (e) Real image
(vi) Convex mirror (b) Reflecting surface is bulged out
(vii) Used by dentists (c) Concave mirror
(viii) White light composed (d) Seven colours

Fill in the blanks:

1. Uneven surfaces show ………………….. reflection.

Answer

Answer: irregular

2. Incident ray, the reflected ray ………………….. and lie in the same …………………..

Answer

Answer: normal,plane

3. Laws of ………………….. is applicable in playing back shots in the carroms.

Answer

Answer: reflection

4. Changing of right side to left is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: lateral inversion

5. The inner surface of a steel spoon acts as a ………………….. mirror.

Answer

Answer: concave

6. The outer surface of a flat steel plate acts as a ………………….. mirror.

Answer

Answer: plane

7. The outer shining surface of a round bottom steel bowl acts as a ………………….. mirror.

Answer

Answer: convex

8. The inner surface of the reflector of a torch acts as a ………………….. mirror.

Answer

Answer: concave

Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. Concave mirror is converging in nature.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Convex mirror is diverging in nature.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Plane mirror forms virtual image.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Concave mirror has a virtual focus.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Spherical mirrors do not obey laws of reflection.

Answer

Answer: False

6. During lateral inversion, the image becomes inverted.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Angle between incident ray and reflected ray is double that of the angle of incidence.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 15 Light with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Light CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Friction with Answers

Friction Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Friction with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Friction Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Friction to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 12 MCQs On Friction

Choose the correct option.

Friction Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Friction is a
(a) non-contact force
(b) contact force
(c) magnetic force
(d) electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (b) contact force

Class 8 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following produces least friction?
(a) Sliding friction
(b) Rolling friction
(c) Composite friction
(d) Static friction

Answer

Answer: (b) Rolling friction

Friction MCQ Class 8 Question 3.
Friction always
(a) opposes the motion
(b) helps the motion
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) opposes the motion

Class 8 Friction MCQ Question 4.
Friction can be reduced by using
(a) oil
(b) grease
(c) powder
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

MCQ On Friction Class 8 Question 5.
Static friction is less than
(a) sliding friction
(b) rolling friction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these

MCQ Of Friction Class 8 Question 6.
Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with respect to each other, the force of friction comes into play
(a) only if the objects are solid.
(b) only if one of the two objects is liquid.
(c) only if one of the two objects is gaseous.
(d) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.

Answer

Answer: (d) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Question 7.
To sharpen the blade of a knife by rubbing it against a surface, which of the following will be most suitable?
(a) Stone
(b) Plastic block
(c) Wooden block
(d) Glass block

Answer

Answer: (a) Stone

To sharpen the blade of a knife by rubbing it against a surface, which of the following will be most suitable?

Class 8 Science Ch 12 MCQ Question 8.
The shape of an aeroplane is like a
(a) dog
(b) bird
(c) car
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) bird

Class 8 Science Friction MCQ Question 9.
Friction is
(a) foe
(b) friend
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)

Force And Friction Class 8 MCQ Question 10.
Friction due to fluids is called
(a) force
(b) pressure
(c) friction
(d) drag

Answer

Answer: (d) drag

MCQ Friction Class 8 Question 11.
Which of the following is not a smooth surface?
(a) Surface of wet soap
(b) Surface of tyres
(c) Glazed tiles
(d) Surface of mirror

Answer

Answer: (b) Surface of tyres

Ch 12 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 12.
A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on
(a) muddy surface
(b) polished marble surface
(c) cemented surface
(d) brick surface

Answer

Answer: (b) polished marble surface

Class 8 Science Chapter Friction MCQ Question 13.
If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) disappear altogether
(d) will remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease

Class 8 Chapter 12 Science MCQ Question 14.
Lubricant
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) reduce friction

MCQs On Friction Class 8 Question 15.
Force of friction depends on
(a) roughness of surface
(b) smoothness of surface
(c) inclination of surface
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

Class 8 Ch 12 Science MCQ Question 16.
Force of friction depends on
(a) roughness of surface
(b) weight
(c) size
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

Chapter 12 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 17.
Fluids are
(a) liquids
(b) gases
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
Which is a streamlined object?
(a) Boats
(b) Aeroplanes
(c) Ships
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 19.
Smooth surface has
(a) less friction
(b) more friction
(c) sometimes less and sometimes more
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) less friction

Question 20.
Which of the following is responsible for wearing out of bicycle tyres?
(a) Muscular force
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Frictional force
(d) Electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (c) Frictional force

Question 21.
It is difficult to walk on an oily floor because
(a) Floor gets spoiled
(b) There is more resistance
(c) Force of friction is high
(d) Force of friction is very less

Answer

Answer: (d) Force of friction is very less

Question 22.
Spring balance is a device used for measuring the _____________ acting on an object.
(a) mass
(b) pressure
(c) force
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) force

Question 23.
A matchstick struck on a matchbox catches fire easily because
(a) Friction may cause fire
(b) Of chemical reaction
(c) Force heated the match stick
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Friction may cause fire

Question 24.
Tyres are treaded to
(a) look good
(b) Increase friction
(c) increase its longivity
(d) increase weight of the tyre

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase friction

Question 25.
Lubricants are substances which
(a) Increase friction
(b) Are used to light fire
(c) Reduce friction
(d) Are used to put out a fire

Answer

Answer: (c) Reduce friction

Question 26.
Sliding friction is _________ than / to rolling friction
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) equal
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) greater

Question 27.
The frictional force exerted by fluids is also called ______
(a) drug
(b) drag
(c) drop
(d) drown

Answer

Answer: (b) drag

Question 28.
Four children were asked to arrange forces due to rolling, static and sliding frictions in an increasing order. Their arrangements are given below. Choose the correct arrangement.
(a) Rolling, Static, Sliding
(b) Static, Rolling, Sliding
(c) Rolling, sliding, static
(d) Sliding, Static, Rolling

Answer

Answer: (c) Rolling, sliding, static

Question 29.
A boat or an aeroplane has a pointed or tapering front / head. Why?
(a) To increase the friction of fluid
(b) To reduce the friction of fluid
(c) To look good
(d) For no reason

Answer

Answer: (b) To reduce the friction of fluid

Question 30.
The sole of the shoes becomes plain after wearing it for several months. The reason is
(a) Wearing out due to friction
(b) Wearing out due to no friction
(c) Sole is of bad quality
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Wearing out due to friction

The sole of the shoes becomes plain after wearing it for several months. The reason is

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I Column II
1. Fluid friction (a) Due to friction
2. Lubricants (b) Streamlined
3. Wheels (c) Increases friction
4. Spring balance (d) Drag
5. Shape of aeroplane (e) Rolling friction
6. Rough surface (f) Reduce friction
7. Heat generation (g) Measures force
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Fluid friction (d) Drag
2. Lubricants (f) Reduce friction
3. Wheels (e) Rolling friction
4. Spring balance (g) Measures force
5. Shape of aeroplane (b) Streamlined
6. Rough surface (c) Increases friction
7. Heat generation (a) Due to friction

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. Sliding friction is ___________ than static friction.

Answer

Answer: less

2. Friction can be reduced by using ___________.

Answer

Answer: oil or powder or grease

3. Friction can be increased by making surface ___________.

Answer

Answer: rough

4. Rolling friction is ___________ than sliding and static friction.

Answer

Answer: less

5. Friction due to fluid is also called ___________.

Answer

Answer: drag

6. Bodies of birds, fishes and ships are ___________.

Answer

Answer: streamlined

7. Friction can also produce ___________.

Answer

Answer: heat

8. All objects moving in fluids have ___________ shape to reduce ___________.

Answer

Answer: streamlined, friction

9. Rough surfaces produce ___________ friction than smooth surfaces.

Answer

Answer: more

10. In many machines, friction is reduced by using ___________.

Answer

Answer: ball bearing

11. Friction depends on the ___________ of substances in contact.

Answer

Answer: nature

12. Static friction comes into play when we try to move an object at ___________.

Answer

Answer: rest

13. ___________ force is responsible for downward movement of a parachutist when he jumps from an aircraft

Answer

Answer: Gravitational

14. The sole of shoes and the tyres of vehicles are treaded to _________ friction.

Answer

Answer: increase

15. Friction is sometimes _________ .

Answer

Answer: undesirable

State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Friction is always useful to us.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Fluids are only liquids.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Friction is less for smooth surfaces.

Answer

Answer: True

4. A soapy floor is slippery due to increased friction.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Friction always works in opposite direction to the relative motion.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Friction is dependent on area of contact.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Sliding friction is less than rolling friction.

Answer

Answer: False

8. Friction decreases with increase in the smoothness of the surface.

Answer

Answer: True

9. It is easier to move a heavy object than a light object.

Answer

Answer: False

10. Friction can be reduced by using lubricants.

Answer

Answer: True

11. Friction is independent of the nature of surfaces in contact.

Answer

Answer: False

12. A spring balance measures force.

Answer

Answer: True

13. Friction can be reduced by using ball bearings in some machines.

Answer

Answer: True

14. Friction can never be eliminated.

Answer

Answer: True

15. Friction do not produce heat.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Friction with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Friction CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers

Kinetic Theory Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Kinetic Theory Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 13 MCQs On Kinetic Theory

Kinetic Theory Of Gases Class 11 MCQ Chapter 13 Question 1.
Real gases show mark able deviation from that of ideal gas behavior at
(a) High temperature and low pressure
(b) Low temperature and high pressure
(c) High temperature and high pressure
(d) Low temperature and low pressure

Answer

Answer: (b) Low temperature and high pressure

MCQ On Kinetic Theory Of Gases Chapter 13 Question 2.
One mole of mono atomic gas (g = 5/3) is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas (g = 7/5) what will be the value of g for the mixture?
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.5

Kinetic Theory Of Gases MCQ Chapter 13 Question 3.
A room temperature the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/sec. the gas is
(a) H²
(b) F²
(c) O²
(d) Cl²

Answer

Answer: (a) H²

MCQ On Kinetic Theory Of Gases Class 11 Physics Chapter 13  Question 4.
The temperature at which the r.m.s. velocity of H² becomes escape velocity from the earth is,
(a) 10059°C
(b) 10059 K
(c) 10332°C
(d) 10332 K

Answer

Answer: (b) 10059 K

Kinetic Theory Of Gases MCQ With Answers Chapter 13  Question 5.
Moon has no atmosphere because
(a) It is far away form the surface of the earth
(b) Its surface temperature is 10°C
(c) The r.m.s. velocity of all the gas molecules is more then the escape velocity of the moons surface
(d) The escape velocity of the moons surface is more than the r.m.s velocity of all molecules

Answer

Answer: (c) The r.m.s. velocity of all the gas molecules is more then the escape velocity of the moons surface

Kinetic Theory Of Gases MCQs Chapter 13 Question 6.
At a certain temperature, hydrogen molecules have r.m.s. velocity of 3 km/s. what is the r.m.s velocity of the oxygen molecules at the same temperature?
(a) 0.25 km/s
(b) 0.5 km/s
(c) 0.75 km/s
(d) 6 km/s

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.75 km/s

Kinetic Theory Of Gases MCQ Pdf Download Chapter 13 Question 7.
Latent heat of ice is
(a) Less than external latent heat of fusion
(b) Equal to external latent heat of fusion
(c) More then external latent heat of fusion
(d) Twice the external latent heat of fusion

Answer

Answer: (c) More then external latent heat of fusion

Class 11 Physics Kinetic Theory Important Questions Chapter 13 Question 8.
Energy supplied to convert unit mass of substance from solid to liquid state at its melting point is called
(a) Latent heat of fusion
(b) Evaporation
(c) Solidification
(d) Latent heat of fission

Answer

Answer: (a) Latent heat of fusion

Kinetic Theory Of Gases Class 11 Questions And Answers Chapter 13 Question 9.
Which of the following is the unit of specific
(a) J kg/°c
(b) J/kg°c
(c) kg°c/J
(d) J kg/°c²

Answer

Answer: (b) J/kg°c

Question 10.
An ideal gas is that which can
(a) Be solidified
(b) Liquefied
(c) Not be liquefied
(d) Not be solidified

Answer

Answer: (c) Not be liquefied

Question 11.
One mole of an ideal gas requires 207 J heat to raise the temperature by 10 K, when heated at constant pressure. If the same gas is heated at constant volume to raise the temperature by 10K, then heat required is
(a) 96.6 J
(b) 124 J
(c) 198.8 J
(d) 215.4 J

Answer

Answer: (b) 124 J

Question 12.
If 2 kcal, of heat is supplied to a system cause to change the internal energy of a gas is 5030 J, and external work done is 3350 J, then what is mechanical equivalent of heat?
(a) 41.90 J/kcal
(b) 4190 J/cal
(c) 4.19 J/kcal
(d) 4.19 J/cal

Answer

Answer: (d) 4.19 J/cal

Question 13.
For a gas, the r.m.s. speed at 800K is
(a) Half the value at 200 K
(b) Double the value at 200 K
(c) Same as at 200 K
(d) Four times the value at 200 K

Answer

Answer: (b) Double the value at 200 K

Question 14.
The specific heat of a gas
(a) Has only one value
(b) Has two values CP and CV
(c) Is proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature
(d) Can have any value between 0 and infinity

Answer

Answer: (d) Can have any value between 0 and infinity

Question 15.
Average kinetic energy of molecules is
(a) Directly proportional to square root of temperature
(b) Directly proportional to absolute temperature
(c) Independent of absolute temperature
(d) Inversely proportional to absolute temperature

Answer

Answer: (b) Directly proportional to absolute temperature

Question 16.
The temperature of a gas is -68°C. to what temperature should it be heated, so that the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules be doubled?
(a) 357°C
(b) 457°C
(c) 547°C
(d) 820°C

Answer

Answer: (c) 547°C

Question 17.
Following gases are kept at the same temperature. Which gas possesses maximum r.m.s. speed?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen

Question 18.
Which of the following is the unit of specific
(a) J kg/°c
(b) J/kg°c
(c) kg°c/J
(d) J kg/°c²

Answer

Answer: (b) J/kg°c

Question 19.
According to kinetic theory of gases, at absolute zero of temperature
(a) Water freezes
(b) Liquid helium freezes
(c) Molecular motion stops
(d) Liquid hydrogen freezes

Answer

Answer: (c) Molecular motion stops

Question 20.
The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas at 27°C is 9 10-20 J. what is its average K.E. at 227°C?
(a) 5 10-20 J
(b) 10 10-20 J
(c) 15 10-20 J
(d) 20 10-20 J

Answer

Answer: (c) 15 10-20 J

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Kinetic Theory MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers

Natural Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Natural Resources Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Biology Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 9 Chapter 14 MCQs On Natural Resources

Natural Resources Class 9 MCQ Chapter 14 Question 1.
The atmosphere of the Earth is heated by radiations which are mainly
(a) radiated by the Sun
(b) re-radiated by land
(c) re-radiated by water
(d) re-radiated by land and water

Answer

Answer: (d) re-radiated by land and water

Natural Resources MCQ Class 9 Chapter 14 Question 2.
If there were no atmosphere around the Earth, the temperature of the Earth will
(a) increase
(b) go on decreasing
(c) increase during day and decrease during night
(d) be unaffected

Answer

Answer: (c) increase during day and decrease during night

Class 9 Science Chapter 14 MCQ  Question 3.
What would happen, if all the oxygen present in the environment is converted to ozone?
(a) We will be protected more
(b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms
(c) Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
(d) It will help harmful Sun radiations to reach Earth and damage many life forms.

Answer

Answer: (b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms

Class 9 Natural Resources MCQ Chapter 14 Question 4.
One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature
(a) the Sun
(b) water
(c) wind
(d) polythene bags

Answer

Answer: (d) polythene bags

Natural Resources Class 9 MCQ With Answers Chapter 14 Question 5.
The two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere are
(a) water and ozone
(b) water and oxygen
(c) ozone and oxygen
(d) water and carbon dioxide

Answer

Answer: (c) ozone and oxygen

The two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere are

MCQ Of Natural Resources Class 9 Chapter 14 Question 6.
The process of nitrogen-fixation by bacteria does not take place in the presence of
(a) molecular form of hydrogen
(b) elemental form of oxygen
(c) water
(d) elemental form of nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (b) elemental form of oxygen

MCQ On Natural Resources Class 9 Chapter 14 Question 7.
Rainfall patterns depend on
(a) the underground water table
(b) the number of water bodies in an area
(c) the density pattern of human population in an area
(d) the prevailing season in an area

Answer

Answer: (b) elemental form of oxygen

MCQ Natural Resources Class 9 Chapter 14 Question 8.
Among the given options, which one is not correct for the use of large amount of fertilisers and pesticides?
(a) They are eco-friendly
(b) They turn the fields barren after some time
(c) They adversely affect the useful component from the soil
(d) They destroy the soil fertility

Answer

Answer: (a) They are eco-friendly

MCQ On Natural Resources With Answers Pdf Chapter 14 Question 9.
The nitrogen molecules present in air can be converted into nitrates and nitrites by
(а) a biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil
(b) a biological process of carbon fixing factor present in soil
(c) any of the industries manufacturing nitrogenous compounds
(d) the plants used as cereal crops in field

Answer

Answer: (а) a biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in soil

Class 9 Science Ch 14 MCQ Question 10.
One of the following processes is not a step involved in the water-cycle operating in nature
(a) evaporation
(b) transpiration
(c) precipitation
(d) photosynthesis

Answer

Answer: (d) photosynthesis

Ch 14 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
The term “water-pollution” can be defined in several ways. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition?
(a) The addition of undesirable substances to water bodies
(b) The removal of desirable substances from water bodies
(c) A change in pressure of the water bodies
(d) A change in temperature of the water bodies

Answer

Answer: (c) A change in pressure of the water bodies

Class 9 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Questions Question 12.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia

Answer

Answer: (d) Ammonia

Natural Resources MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 14 Question 13.
Which step is not involved in the carbon-cycle?
(o) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

Answer

Answer: (b) Transpiration

MCQs On Natural Resources Class 9 Chapter 14 Question 14.
‘Ozone-hole’ means
(a) a large sized hole in the ozone layer
(b) thinning of the ozone layer
(c) small holes scattered in the ozone layer
(d) thickening of ozone in the ozone layer

Answer

Answer: (b) thinning of the ozone layer

Class 9 Science Natural Resources MCQ Chapter 14 Question 15.
Ozone-layer is getting depleted because of
(a) excessive use of automobiles
(b) excessive formation of industrial Units
(c) excessive use of man-made compounds containing both fluorine and chlorine
(d) excessive deforestation.

Answer

Answer: (c) excessive use of man-made compounds containing both fluorine and chlorine

Question 16.
Which of the following is a recently originated problem of environment?
(a) Ozone layer depletion
(b) Greenhouse effect
(c) Global warming
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 17.
When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside along with oxygen. What is the fate of this nitrogen?
(a) It moves along with oxygen into the cells
(b) It comes out with the CO2 during exhalation
(c) It is absorbed only by the nasal cells
(d) Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells so it is not at all absorbed.

Answer

Answer: (b) It comes out with the CO2 during exhalation

Question 18.
Top-soil contains the following
(а) Humus and living organisms only
(b) Humus and soil particles only
(c) Humus, living organisms and plants
(d) Humus, living organisms and soil particles.

Answer

Answer: (d) Humus, living organisms and soil particles.

Question 19.
Choose the correct sequences
(a) CO2 in atmosphere → decomposers → organic carbon in animals → organic carbon in plants
(b) CO2 in atmosphere → organic carbon in plants → organic carbon in animals → inorganic carbon in soil
(c) Inorganic carbonates in water organic carbon in plants → organic carbon in animals → scavengers
(d) Organic carbon in animals → decomposers → CO2 in atmosphere → organic carbon in plants

Answer

Answer: (b) CO2 in atmosphere → organic carbon in plants → organic carbon in animals → inorganic carbon in soil

Question 20.
Major source of mineral in soil is the
(a) parent rock from which soil is formed
(b) plants
(c) animals
(d) bacteria

Answer

Answer: (a) parent rock from which soil is formed

Question 21.
Total Earth’s surface covered by water is
(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 85%
(d) 50%

Answer

Answer: (a) 75%

Question 22.
Biotic component of the biosphere is not constituted by
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) decomposer
(d) air

Answer

Answer: (d) air

Question 23.
An increase in carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere would not cause
(a) more heat to be retained by the environment
(b) increase in photosynthesis in plants
(c) global warming
(d) abundance of desert plants

Answer

Answer: (d) abundance of desert plants

Question 24.
Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere mainly by
(a) burning of fossil fuel
(b) respiration
(c) photosynthesis
(d) fungi

Answer

Answer: (c) photosynthesis

Question 25.
Low visibility during cold weather is due to
(a) formation of fossil fuel
(b) unbumt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended in air
(c) lack of adequate power supply
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) unbumt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended in air

Question 26.
Growth of lichens on barren rocks is followed by the growth of
(a) moss
(b) ferns
(c) gymnosperms
(d) algae

Answer

Answer: (a) moss

Question 27.
Marked temperature changes in an aquatic environment can affect
(a) breeding of animals
(b) more growth of aquatic plants
(c) process of digestion in animals
(d) availability of nutrients.

Answer

Answer: (a) breeding of animals

Question 28.
Soil erosion can be prevented by
(a) raising forests
(b) deforestation
(c) excessive use of fertiliser
(d) overgrazing by animals

Answer

Answer: (a) raising forests

Question 29.
What happens when rain falls on soil without vegetational cover?
(a) Rain water percolates in soil efficiently
(b) Rain water causes loss of surface soil
(c) Rain water leads to fertility of the soil
(d) Rain water does not cause any change in soil

Answer

Answer: (b) Rain water causes loss of surface soil

Question 30.
Oxygen is harmful for
(a) ferns
(b) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(c) chara
(d) mango tree

Answer

Answer: (b) nitrogen fixing bacteria

Oxygen is harmful for

Fill in the blanks

1. The outer crust of the Earth is called …………….

Answer

Answer: lithosphere

2. The life-supporting zone of the Earth where the atmosphere, the hydrosphere and the lithosphere interact and make life possible, is known as the ……………

Answer

Answer: biosphere

3. Eukaryotic cells and many prokaryotic cells, need ……………. to break down …………….. molecules and get energy for their activities.

Answer

Answer: oxygen, glucose

4. The temperature ranges from …………… to …………… on the moon as it does not have atmosphere.

Answer

Answer: -190° C, 110° C

5. The atmosphere can be heated from below by the …………….. that is reflected back or re-radiated by the land or water bodies.

Answer

Answer: radiation

6. The condensation of water is facilitated if some particles could act as ………………. for drops to form around.

Answer

Answer: nucleus

7. Rainfall patterns are decided by the prevailing ……………..

Answer

Answer: wind patterns

8. The suspended particles released on burning fossil fuels could be unburnt carbon particles or substances called ……………

Answer

Answer: hydrocarbons

9. Fresh water is found frozen in the …………….. at the two poles and on snow covered mountains.

Answer

Answer: Ice caps

10. …………….. grows on the surface of rocks, release certain substances that cause the rock surface to powder down and form a thin layer of soil.

Answer

Answer: Lichens

11. …………….. is a major factor in deciding the soil structure because it causes the soil to become more porous.

Answer

Answer: Humus

12. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are found in the roots of ……………. in special structures called root nodules.

Answer

Answer: legumes

13. During ……………. the high temperatures and pressures created in the air convert nitrogen into oxides of nitrogen.

Answer

Answer: lightning

14. An increase in the carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere would cause more heat to be retained by the atmosphere and lead to ……………..

Answer

Answer: global warming

15. Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in three processes, namely …………….. respiration and in the formation of ……………….

Answer

Answer: combustion, oxides of nitrogen

Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Ozone hole (i) Soil structure
(b) Lithosphere (ii) Root nodules of legumes
(c) Lichen (iii) Acid rain
(d) Humus (iv) Greenhouse gas
(e) Carbon dioxide (v) Outer crust
(f) Soil erosion (vi) Formation of soil
(g) Frozen fresh water (vii) CFCs
(h) Oxides of nitrogen (viii) Ice caps at poles
(i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (ix) Deforestation
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Ozone hole (vii) CFCs
(b) Lithosphere (v) Outer crust
(c) Lichen (vi) Formation of soil
(d) Humus (i) Soil structure
(e) Carbon dioxide (iv) Greenhouse gas
(f) Soil erosion (ix) Deforestation
(g) Frozen fresh water (viii) Ice caps at poles
(h) Oxides of nitrogen (iii) Acid rain
(i) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (ii) Root nodules of legumes

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Natural Resources CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms with Answers

Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Biology Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 9 Chapter 7 MCQs On Diversity in Living Organisms

Diversity In Living Organisms Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Find out incorrect sentence:
(a) Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(b) Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition classifying the organisms in five kingdoms
(c) Both Monera and Protista may be autotrophic and heterotrophic
(d) Monerans have well defined nucleus

Answer

Answer: (d) Monerans have well defined nucleus

Class 9 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
Which among the following has specialised tissue for conduction of water?
(i) Thallophyta
(ii) Bryophyta
(iii) Pteridophyta
(iv) Gymnosperms
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (c) (iii) and (iv)

Class 9 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which among the following produce seeds?
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms

Answer

Answer: (d) Gymnosperms

Which among the following produce seeds?

Diversity In Living Organisms MCQ Question 4.
Which one is a true fish?
(a) Jellyfish
(b) Starfish
(c) Dogfish
(d) Silverfish

Answer

Answer: (c) Dogfish

Class 9 Diversity In Living Organisms MCQ Question 5.
Which among the following is exclusively marine?
(a) Porifera
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Mollusca
(d) Pisces

Answer

Answer: (b) Echinodermata

Class 9 Science Ch 7 MCQ Question 6.
Which among the following have open circulatory system?
(i) Arthropoda
(ii) Mollusca
(iii) Annelida
(iv) Coelenterata
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

MCQ On Diversity In Living Organisms Class 9 Question 7.
In which group of animals, coelom is filled with blood?
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Annelida
(c) Nematoda
(d) Echinodermata

Answer

Answer: (a) Arthropoda

Chapter 7 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
Elephantiasis is caused by
(a) Wuchereria
(b) Pinworm
(c) Planarians
(d) Liver flukes

Answer

Answer: (a) Wuchereria

Diversity In Living Organisms Class 9 MCQ Pdf Question 9.
Which one is the most striking or (common) character of the vertebrates?
(a) Presence of notochord
(b) Presence of triploblastic condition
(c) Presence of gill pouches
(d) Presence of coelom

Answer

Answer: (a) Presence of notochord

Diversity In Living Organisms Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 10.
Which among the following have scales?
(i) Amphibians
(ii) Pisces
(iii) Reptiles
(iv) Mammals
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer

Answer: (c) (ii) and (iii)

Diversity In Living Organisms MCQ Class 9 Question 11.
Find out the false statement.
(a) Aves are warm-blooded, egg laying and have four-chambered heart.
(b) Aves have feather covered body, forelimbs are modified as wing and breathe through lungs.
(c) Most of the mammals are viviparous.
(d) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Answer

Answer: (d) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

MCQ Of Chapter 7 Science Class 9 Question 12.
Pteridophyta do not have
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) flowers
(d) leaves

Answer

Answer: (c) flowers

Class 9 Chapter 7 Science MCQ Question 13.
Identify a member of porifera
(a) Spongilla
(b) Euglena
(c) Penicillium
(d) Hydra

Answer

Answer: (a) Spongilla

MCQ Questions On Diversity In Living Organisms Class 9 Question 14.
Which is not an aquatic animal?
(a) Hydra
(b) Jelly fish
(c) Corals
(d) Filaria

Answer

Answer: (d) Filaria

MCQ Questions For Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Question 15.
Amphibians do not have the following
(a) Three-chambered heart
(b) Gills of lungs
(c) Scales
(d) Mucus glands

Answer

Answer: (c) Scales

Question 16.
Organisms without nucleus and cell organelles belong to
(i) fungi
(ii) protista
(iii) cyano bacteria
(iv) archae bacteria
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (b) (iii) and (iv)

Question 17.
Which of the following is not a criterion for classification of living organisms?
(a) Body design of the organism
(b) Ability to produce one’s own food
(c) Membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles
(d) Height of the plant

Answer

Answer: (d) Height of the plant

Question 18.
The feature that is not a characteristic of protochordata?
(a) Presence of notochord
(b) Bilateral symmetry and coelom
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Presence of circulatory system

Answer

Answer: (c) Jointed legs

Question 19.
The locomotory organs of Echinodermata are
(a) tube feet
(b) muscular feet
(c) jointed legs
(d) parapodia

Answer

Answer: (a) tube feet

Question 20.
Corals are
(a) Poriferans attached to some solid support
(b) Cnidarians, that are solitary living
(c) Poriferans present at the sea bed
(d) Cnidarians that live in colonies

Answer

Answer: (d) Cnidarians that live in colonies

Question 21.
Who introduced the sytem of scientific nomenclature of organisms?
(a) Robert Whittaker
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Ernst Haeckel

Answer

Answer: (b) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 22.
Two chambered heart occurs in
(a) crocodiles
(b) fish
(c) aves
(d) amphibians

Answer

Answer: (b) fish

Question 23.
Skeleton is made entirely of cartilage in
(a) Sharks
(b) Tuna
(c) Rohu
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sharks

Question 24.
One of the following is not an Annelid?
(a) Nereis
(b) Earthworm
(c) Leech
(d) Urchins

Answer

Answer: (d) Urchins

Question 25.
The book Systema Naturae was written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Haeckel
(c) Whittaker
(d) Robert Brown

Answer

Answer: (a) Linnaeus

Question 26.
Karl Von Linne was involved with which branch of science?
(a) Morphology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology
(d) Medicine

Answer

Answer: (b) Taxonomy

Question 27.
Real organs are absent in
(a) Mollusca
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Echinodermata

Answer

Answer: (b) Coelenterata

Question 28.
Hard calcium carbonate structures are used as skeleton by
(a) Echinodermata
(b) Protochordata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Nematoda

Answer

Answer: (a) Echinodermata

Question 29.
Differentiation in segmental fashion occurs in
(a) Leech
(b) Starfish
(c) Snails
(d) Ascaris

Answer

Answer: (a) Leech

Question 30.
In taxonomic hierarchy family comes between
(a) Class and Order
(b) Order and Genus
(c) Genus and Species
(d) Division and Class

Answer

Answer: (b) Order and Genus

Question 31.
5-Kingdom classification has given by
(a) Morgan
(b) R. Whittaker
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Haeckel

Answer

Answer: (b) R. Whittaker

Question 32.
Well defined nucleus is absent in
(a) blue green algae
(b) diatoms
(b) algae
(d) yeast

Answer

Answer: (a) blue green algae

Question 33.
The ‘Origin of Species’ is written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
(c) Hackel
(d) Whittaker

Answer

Answer: (b) Darwin

The ‘Origin of Species’ is written by

Question 34.
Meena and Han observed an animal in their garden. Hari called it an insect while Meena said it was an
earthworm. Choose the character from the owing which confirms that it is an insect.
(a) Bilateral symmetrical body
(b) Body with jointed legs
(c) Cylindrical body
(d) Body with little segmentation

Answer

Answer: (b) Body with jointed legs

Write true (T) or false (F)

1. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Starting from Class, Species comes before the Genus.

Answer

Answer: False

4. Anabaena belongs to the kingdom Monera.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Blue-green algae belongs to the kingdom Protista.

Answer

Answer: False

6. All prokaryotes are classified under Monera.

Answer

Answer: True

Fill in the blanks

1. The naming of organisms is done according to ……………. nomenclature proposed by Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer

Answer: binomial

2. The phylum …………… consists of organisms which have a pseudocoelom.

Answer

Answer: nematoda

3. The spiny skinned organisms belong to phylum …………….

Answer

Answer: echinodermata

4. The presence of hollow and light bones is a characteristic feature of class ……………

Answer

Answer: aves

5. The unicellular eukaryotes are kept in Kingdom ……………..

Answer

Answer: Protista

6. The phylum ………….. is the second largest phylum of the kingdom Animalia.

Answer

Answer: mollusca

7. The protist which lacks cell wall and can have autotrophic as well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition is ……………

Answer

Answer: algae

8. Presence of dry scales on their body is a characteristic feature of class ……………

Answer

Answer: pisces

9. The presence of internal metameric segmentation as well as external segmentation is a feature of phylum …………….

Answer

Answer: annelida

10. The vascular cryptogams are the members of the group called ……………….

Answer

Answer: pteridophytes

Match the following

Column A Column B
(a) Coelom (i) Monera
(b) Taxonomy (ii) Echinodermata
(c) Pseudocoelom (iii) Arthropoda
(d) Pneumatic bones (iv) Body cavity
(e) Notochord in entire length of body (v) Protista
(f) Unicellular prokaryote (vi) Protochordata
(g) Jointed legs (vii) Carolus Linnaeus
(h) Water vascular system (viii) Aves
(i) Unicellular eukaryote (ix) Nematoda
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Coelom (iv) Body cavity
(b) Taxonomy (vii) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Pseudocoelom (ix) Nematoda
(d) Pneumatic bones (viii) Aves
(e) Notochord in entire length of body (vi) Protochordata
(f) Unicellular prokaryote (i) Monera
(g) Jointed legs (iii) Arthropoda
(h) Water vascular system (ii) Echinodermata
(i) Unicellular eukaryote (v) Protista

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Diversity in Living Organisms CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Biology MCQ:

How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 8 MCQs On How do Organisms Reproduce?

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fertilisation is the process of:
(a) transfer of male gamete to female gamete.
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.
(c) adhesion of male and female reproductive organs.
(d) the formation of gametes by a reproductive organ.
Answer:
(b) Fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.

Explanation: Fertilization is the fusion of nucleus of male and female garnets to form a single cell called as zygote. Fertilization occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.

Related Theory:
During sexual mode of reproduction germ cells (gametes) of two individuals need to fuse together. It can happen by either of the following:

External release of germ cells from body of an individual as seen in angiospermic plants, frog, fish etc. This is known as external fertilization.

Internal transfer of germ cells by physical contact between male and female organisms as in mammals. This is called internal fertilization.

Reproduction Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Characters that are transmitted from parents to offsprings during reproduction show:
(a) OnLy similarities with parents
(b) Only variations with parents
(c) Both similarities and variations with parents
(d) Neither similarities nor variations
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correct statement(s) on budding in yeast from the following:
(I) A parent cell divides into two or more daughter ceLLs and here the parent identity is Lost.
(II) In this the elongated nucleus divides to form two or more daughter nucLei.
(III)A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(IV)After detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (III) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
Answer:
(d) (III) and (IV) only

Explanation: Yeast reproduces asexually by the process of budding in which a bud arises from a particular region on a parent body. And after detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
Statements I and II are for binary and multiple fission respectively.

Class 10 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant due to:
(a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
Answer:

Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 5.
In the following figure, different stages of binary fission in amoeba are depicted, which are not in the proper sequence
Answer:
Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ
The correct sequence is
(a) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (b) (I), (II), (IV), (III)
(c) (III), (IV), (II), (I) (d) (I), (III), (IV), (II)
[CBSE 2017]
Ans. (a) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the different stages of binary fission in amoeba is:
(II) Parent amoeba cell.
(III) Duplication of the genetic material and elongation of the nucleus.
(IV) Nuclear division and constriction in cytoplasm
(I) Formation of two daughter amoeba cells.

MCQ Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 6.
In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called:
(a) Filaments
(b) Hyphae
(c) Rhizoids
(d) Roots
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:
(I) A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(II) A parent cell divides into two daughter cells, here the parent identity is lost.
(III) Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.
(IV) A bud when detaches from the parent body grows into a new individual.
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) and (I)
(d) (IV), (I) and (II)
Answer:

Reproduction MCQs Class 10 Question 8.
Slides of binary fission in Amoeba and budding in yeast were given for observation to a group of students. Some of the observations reported by the group are given below:
(I) Cytokinesis was observed in the yeast cell.
(II) A chain of buds were observed in Amoeba.
(III) Single cell of Amoeba and single cell of yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
(IV) Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in Amoeba.
The correctly reported observations are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Reproduction In Organisms Pdf Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(I) Flowers are always bisexual
(II) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(III) They are produced in all groups of plants
(IV) After fertilization they give rise to fruits
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II) and (IV) i.e. they are the sexual reproductive organs and after fertilization they give rise to fruits

Explanation: Flowers are the sexually reproductive organs of a plant and a fertilized flower give rise to fruit.

Class 10 Reproduction MCQ Question 10.
During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change from the following associated with sexual maturation in boys:
(a) loss of milk teeth
(b) increase in height
(c) cracking of voice
(d) weight gain
Answer:

MCQ Reproduction Class 10 Question 11.
Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(I) It requires two types of gametes.
(II) Fertilisation is a compulsory event.
(III) It always results in the formation of zygote.
(IV) Offsprings formed are clones.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Question 12.
Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Ribosome
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Genes
Answer:
(d) Genes

Explanation: Genes are the unit of heredity DNA that determine genetic characters in an organism.

Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 13.
Semen which contains millions of sperms also contains secretions of seminal vesicle and prostrate gland (accessory glands). It makes the tranport of sperms easier and provide nutrition to sperms.
Correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra
(b) Testis → ureter → urethra
(c) Testis → urethra → ureter
(d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter
Answer:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra

Explanation: Testis produces sperms or germ cells. The sperms formed are delivered through the vas deferens which unites with a tube coming from the urinary bladder. The urethra thus forms a common passage for both the sperms and urine.

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Reproduction is essential for living organisms to order to:
(a) Keep the individual organism alive
(b) Fulfill their energy requirements
(c) Maintain growth
(d) Continue the species generation after generation
Answer:

Ch 8 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which one of the following permanently marks the end of menstrual cycle in females?
(a) Menarche
(b) Menopause
(c) Ovulation
(d) Pregnacy
Answer:

Question 16.
Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphillis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea
Answer:
(b) Hepatitis

Explanation: Hepatitis is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is a water-borne viral disease.

Question 17.
The sketch of a dicotyledonous seed is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 2
The correct labelling for parts A, B, C and D iri proper sequence is
(a) radicle, plumule, cotyledon, seed coat.
(b) radicle, plumule, seed coat, cotyledon.
(c) plumule, radicle, cotyledon, seed coat.
(d) plumule, radicle, seed coat, cotyledon
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following is not the part of female reproductive system?
(a) ovary
(b) fallopian tube
(c) uterus
(d) vas deferens
Answer:
(d) vas deferens
Explanation: Vas deferens is part of male reproductive system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 19.
Select the statements that are incorrect about reproduction in human beings.
(I) When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of mature eggs.
(II) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
(III) The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through oviduct.
(IV) The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as the cervix.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Study the diagram given below of male reproductive organ and select the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 3

Name of Part Function
(a) P is Vas deferens Transport sperms
(b) Q is Seminal vesicle Provide fluid medium to sperms
(c) R is ureter Passage for sperms
(d) S is Testis Formation of sperms

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the figure below and identify the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 4

Part Name Function
(a) A is Cotyledon It is the future plant
(b) B is Plumule It is the future shoot
(c) C is Seed coat It is the outer covering of the ovule
(d) D is Radicle It is the future root

Answer:
(a) Part Name: A is cotyledon; Function: It is the future plant

Explanation: A is cotyledon and is the food store of the future plant.

Question 22.
Study the figure showing parts of a flower and identify the correct statements.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 5
(I) Part labeled 1 is the pollen grain and contains the male germ cell.
(II) Part labelled 3 is the stigma on which the pollen grains land.
(III) The male germ cell travels through the pollen tube (part labelled 3) after fertilization.
(IV) Part labelled 4 is the ovary which contains the female germ cells.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 23.
Identify the incorrect statement from among the following statements for unisexual flowers.
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil
(b) They possess either stamen or pistil
(c) They show cross pollination
(d) Unisexualflowers posessing only stamens cannot produce fruits
Answer:
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil

Explanation: Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. Bisexual flowers contain both male and female reproductive organs stamen and carpel.

Question 24.
The part where fertilization occurs in human females is:
(a) cervix
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 25.
The table below lists the organs/parts of human reproductive system and their functions. Identify the row containing incorrect information.

Part/ Organ of Reproductive system Function
(a) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles Production of fluid to provide a medium for sperms.
(b) Testis Secretes the hormone that regulates formation of sperms.
(c) Uterus Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.
(d) Fallopian tube Carries egg from ovaries to the womb

Answer:
(c) Part/Organ of Reproductive system: Uterus; Function: Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.

Explanation: The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta which is a disc embedded in the uterine wall and contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 8

For the following questions two statements are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 26.
Assertion (A): Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
Reason (R): Populations of organisms fill well-defined places in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: Although populations of organisms fill well-defined pLaces in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce, the consistency of DNA copying during reproduction. Reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design features. Reproduction is linked to the stability of populations of species.

However, variation is useful for the survival of species over time as niches can change drastically but only those organisms will be able to survive which have some variations in them.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): All multi-cellular organisms can divide cell by cell.
Reason (R): Many multi-cellular organisms are not simply a random collection of cells.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All multi-cellular organisms cannot simply multiply cell by cell as they are not just a random collection of cells. Specialized cells are organized as tissues and tissues are organized into organs, which occupy definite positions in the body. Multi-cellular organisms, therefore, need to use more complex ways of reproduction.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation makes possible propagation of plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
Reason (R): New plants are developed from seeds in vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are produced by all flowers.
Reason (R): Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All flowers do not produce pollen grains as flowers may be unisexual when it contains either stamens or pistil or bisexual when it contains both stamens and pistil. Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum.
Reason (R): Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)

Explanation: The testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum as sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of sperms and brings about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The human embryo gets implanted in the fallopian tube.
Reason (R): Embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of special tissue called the Placenta.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy.
Reason (R): The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Rahul left a slice of bread in his tiffin box by mistake. As his schools had closed for Diwali vacations, he forgot to take the tiffb ox out. When he opened his tiffin box after about 6 to 7 days, he observed black growth on the bread slice and also that the slice smelt very bad.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 6
Identify the organism, the thread like structures seen on the bread and the mode of reproduction of the organism.
Answer:
The organism seen on the bread is Rhizopus and the thread like structures are the hyphae of the bread mould. The mode of reproduction in Rhizopus is by spore formation.

Question 2.
The reproductive parts of angiosperms are located in the flower. The different parts of a flower are sepals, petals, stamens and carpels. Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain the germ-cells.
The flower may be unisexual (papaya, watermelon) when it contains either stamens or carpels or bisexual (Hibiscus, mustard) when it contains both stamens and carpels. Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Carpet is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 7
(A) Where are the plant’s sex organs located?
Answer:
Plant’s sex organs are located in the flower.

(B) What is the function of a flower?
Answer:
The function of a flower is to produce male and female gametes and to ensure that fertilisation will takes place to make new seeds for the reproduction of plant.

(C) Where is the male and female gametes formed in flowering plants?
Answer:

(D) What changes take place in the flower after fertilisation which lead to the formation of seeds and fruit?
Answer:
The fertilised egg divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule which develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary of the flower develops and becomes a fruit with seeds inside it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Asexual reproduction in starfish takes place by fission or through autotomy of arms. In fission, the central disc breaks into two pieces and each portion then regenerates the missing parts. In autotomy, an arm is shed with part of the central disc attached, which continues to live independently as a “comet”, eventually growing a new set of arms. Although almost all sea stars can regenerate their limbs, only a select few sea star species are able to reproduce in these ways.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 8
Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves because:
(I) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(II) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(III) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(IV) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 4.
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their population.

The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children.

Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
(A) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls.
Answer:
Common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls: Hair growth in armpits and the genital area between the thighs, which also becomes dark in colour.
Thinner hair appear on legs and arms as well as on the face.
Pimples begin to develop as skin becomes oily.
Become conscious and aware of their own bodies and those of others in new ways.

Related Theory
Prenatal sex determination is misused by people who do not want a particular child. Pre-conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC PNDT) Act, 1994 is an act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India.

(B) What is the result of reckless female foeticide?
Answer:

(C) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
Answer:
The contraceptive method is chemical method (Taking Pills orally) changes the hormonal balance of the body.
Explanation: By taking oral pills, the hormonal balance of the body changes and eggs are not released and fertilization does not occur. Since they cause change in hormonal balance can cause side effects like nausea, headache, weight gain, mood changes etc.

Related Theory
The population size is actually population density, the number of individuals per unit area. The size of human population is a cause for concern for many people because increase in population size makes is harder to improve everybody’s standard of living.

(D) Write two factors that determine the size of a population.
Answer:

Question 5.
Bees are one of the most important animals which help in the pollination process. Bees hit plants because they give them an essential source called nectar. There are many flowering plants which are fertilized by insects like bees, and without them, many of our plant population of the planet would decline as there would be no pollination, so it’s clearly known the relevance of these pollinators.Bees transport seeds from one flower to another, pollinating these plants so that it can develop and provide food. The pollen grains travel through the pollen tube to the ovary.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 9
The length of pollen tube depends on the distance between:
(a) Pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) Pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) Upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
Answer:
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule

Explanation: After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ-cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary.

Hence, length of the pollen tube depends on the distance between the pollen grain on the upper surface of stigma and ovule.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 6.
Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India. The act banned prenatal sex determination. This process began in the early 1990 when ultrasound techniques gained widespread use in India. There was a tendency for families to continuously produce children until a male child was bom. Social discrimination against women and a preference for sons have promoted female foeticide in various forms skewing the sex ratio of the country towards men.
(A) Why is child sex-ratio declining at an alarming rate in India?
Answer:
The child-sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate because of preference in Indian societies for a male child and reckless female foeticides.

(B) How can unwanted pregnancies be terminated?
Answer:
Unwanted pregnancies can be terminated by surgery.

(C) What is contraception?
Answer:

(D) Write names of any two contraceptive methods.
Answer:

Question 7.
When Sunidhi’s niece was born, she observed that something resembling a cord was tied near the baby’s naval. Her uncle explained to her that it was the umbilical cord, which is a tube that connects the baby to her mother during pregnancy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 10
Which one of the following best describes the function of the umbilical cord?
(a) feeds the embryo with digested substances
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo respectively
(c) removes waste matter from the embryo to the mother’s blood
(d) supplies oxygenated blood from the mother to the embryo
Answer:
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo, respectively.
Explanation: The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother’s body takes place through the umbilical cord.

Related Theory
Umbilical cord is connected to a special tissue called placenta which is a disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall.
It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue and blood spaces are present on mother’s side, which surround the villi.
Villi provide large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 8.
(A) Observe the above graph and select the correct statements.
(I) The mean fitness of asexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(II) The mean fitness of sexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(III) Asexual progeny may survive when niche changes.
(IV) Sexual progeny have a higher chance of survival when niche changes.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: The mean fitness of an asexual clone of organisms is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche. They are perfect in the current environment, but, once the condition changes, the entire population may suddenly become extinct. Sexual reproduction can produce a wider range of sub-optimally adapted types. Some may not be able to survive under the current environment (an example is the genetic diseases in humans). However, an ecological disaster that eliminates the asexual progeny will not have as severe an impact on the sexual progeny, because of the diversity of genotypes.

(B) Reason, why paramecium decides for sexual reproduction, is:
(a) It can produce more number of progenies.
(b) Progenies can be considered to be clones of their parents
(c) It leads to genetic variations
(d) Asexual reproduction is unreliable.
Answer:
(c) It leads to genetic variations

Explanation: The reason why the paramecia decide to sexual reproduction is that they need to create “genetic variations” to increase their chance of survival under a harsh condition. In order to do so, two paramecia of compatible mating types exchange parts of their genetic materials and rearrange their DNA to create genetic variations. As a result, the offsprings of sexual reproduction have different genetic DNA sequences compared to their parents. On the other hand, the daughter cells generated from binary fission have identical genome like their parent cell. We call them “clones”.

(C) Select the row containing incorrect information.

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
(a) Only one parent is involved Involves two parents
(b) No production and hence no fusion of gametes Involves production of gametes and their fusion
(c) Requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division Requires only mitotic division.
(d) Low genetic variability High genetic variability

Answer:
(c) Asexual Reproduction: Requires Meiotic division followed by Mitotic division; Sexual Reproduction: Requires only Nitotic division.

Explanation: Asexual Reproduction requires only mitotic cell division as no gametes are produced. Sexual reproduction requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division as first gametes are formed and then their fusion takes place.

(D) Which of the following organisms divide by binary fission?
(a) Amoeba and Plasmodium
(b) Paramecium and Plasmodium
(c) Paramecium and Amoeba
(d) Plasmodium and Leishmania
Answer:

(E) Four statements are given below on sexual reproduction. Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Each new variation is made in a DNA copy that already has variations accumulated from previous generations.
(b) Two different individuals in a population would have quite different patterns of accumulated variations.
(c) Combining variations from two or more individuals would create new combinations of variants.
(d) Each new generation will end up having twice the amount of DNA that the previous generation had.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 9.
Puberty is the time when boys and girls move through a series of significant, natural and healthy changes. These physical, psychological and emotional changes signal that they are moving from childhood to adolescence. Puberty starts when changes in their brain cause sex hormones to start being released in girls’ ovaries and boys’ testes. This usually happens around 10-11 years for girls and around 11-13 years for boys. But it’s normal for the start of puberty to range from 8-13 years in girls and 9-14 years in boys.
The graph below shows the average height of girls and boys up to the age of 18 years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 11
(A) Select the correct observations:
(I) During 8-12 gears, girls experience a sudden growth.
(II) During 12-16 gears, bogs experience sudden grown
(III) Bogs are alwags taller than girls of their age.
(IV) Growth in both bogs and girls stops after 16 gears.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: We note that during 8-12 years, girls experience a sudden growth and have more height as compared to boys. This is because puberty occurs earlier in girls (10-12 years), so they grow rapidly during this phase.
During 12-16 years, boys experience sudden grown and their height becomes the same as girls. This is because puberty occurs later in boys (12-13 years) and they grow rapidly during puberty.

(B) The table below lists some changes observed in girls and bogs during pubertg. Select the row containing incorrect observation.

Changes in Girls Changes in Bogs
(a) Height increases verg quickly and earlier than in bogs Height increases very quickly and Later than girls
(b) Voice pitch becomes higher Voice pitch becomes Lower
(c) Shoulders become broad Hips become broad
(d) Menstruation starts Nocturnal emissions occur

Answer:
(c) changes in Girls: Shoulders become broad;
Changes in Boys: Hips become broad

Explanation: Changes are seen in both boys and girls during puberty due to the secretion of testosterone hormone in boys and oestrogen in girls. The hips become broad in girls, whereas shoulders become broad in boys.

(C) The most rapid growth in girls takes place during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 4 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:
(a) 0 – 4 years

Explanation: The most rapid growth in girls takes place in 0-4 years as after that the rate of growth slows down. It again becomes fast from 8-12 years, when girls attain puberty.

(D) Significant spurt in height of bogs is seen during:
(a) 4 – 6 gears
(b) 6 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:

(E) The slowest growth in height of girls is seen during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 12 – 16 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 4 – 8 gears
Answer:

Question 10.
Family planning is about deciding how many children you choose to have and when you want to have them (timing of pregnancies and birth spacing). Spacing births allows the mother to recover physically and emotionally before she gets pregnant again, and faces the demands of pregnancy, birth and breast feeding. STIs including HIV/AIDS can also be prevented with correct and consistent use of condoms. Younger women (adolescents) can delay pregnancy until their bodies are mature and they are ready in terms of their life course. Older women (over 35) can prevent unwanted pregnancies that are often risky for their health and can lead to complications for both mothers and infants.
India’s 2011 census revealed a growing imbalance between the numbers of girls and boys aged 0-6 years, which may be due to increased prenatal sex determination with subsequent selective abortion of female fetuses. The sex ratio from the years 1961 to 2011 shows a very disturbing trend.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 12
Distribution of the total population living in states with varying child sex ratios (girls per 1000 boys at ages 0-6 years), 1991, 2001, and 2011 is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 13
Mean national values for each of the censuses are shown. The vertical grey bar represents a natural sex ratio at birth of 950 – 975 girls per 1000 boys, where the distribution of child sex ratios at ages 0 – 6 years would be centred in the hypothetical absence of selective abortion of girls and equal girl and boy child mortality rates.
(A) Observe the graphs above and select the correct statements.
(I) The sex ratio from 1961 to 1981 was almost equal to the natural sex ratio at birth shown by vertical grey bar.
(II) Sex ratio in 2001 was less than the sex ratio in 2011.
(III) Sex ratio in 1991 was greater than the sex ratio in 2011.
(IV) The number of girls per 1000 boys of population has increased from 1991 to 2001.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The main reason for the sex ratio as seen in the graph above is:
(a) Male foeticide
(b) Child labour
(c) Female Foeticide
(d) Child trafFcking
Answer:
(c) Female Foeticide

Explanation: Female foeticide is the illegal sex- selective abortion of female foetuses due to which child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate.

(C) Which of the following are surgical methods for avoiding pregnancies?
(a) Oral pills
(b) Copper-T
(c) Blocking fallopian tube in females
(d) Blocking urethra in males.
Answer:

(D) The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?
(a) Condoms
(b) Oral pills
(c) Copper-T
(d) Surgical methods
Answer:
(a) Condoms

The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?

Explanation: As condoms are the only contraceptives that create a mechanical barrier between the partners sex organs during sexual intercourse, they can prevent sexually transmitted disesases.

(E) A list of few sexually transmitted diseases are given below along with their cause. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Sexually Transmitted Disease Name Cause
(a) Syphilis Bacteria
(b) Gonorrhea Bacteria
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Warts Bacteria

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 11.
Fluman reproduction is a form of sexual reproduction resulting in human fertilization. It typically involves sexual intercourse between a man and a woman. During sexual intercourse, the interaction between the male and female reproductive systems results in fertilization of the woman’s ovum by the man’s sperm. Offspring are produced by the fusion of gametes (sex cells) from each parent. Hence, the newly formed individual will be different from parents, both genetically and physically.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 14
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
(A) Study the graphs above showing the levels of ovarian hormones and pituitary hormones in human females and select the correct statements.
(I) The level of oestrogen hormone increases in the first 12 days of the menstrual cycle.
(II) The level of LH secreted by the pituitary gland reaches a peak when ovulation takes place.
(III) The level of progesterone hormone decreases when ovulation takes place.
(IV) The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is minimum when ovulation takes place.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: The level of progesterone
hormone increases when ovulation takes place. The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is maximum when ovulation takes place.

(B) The table below gives the differences between menopause and menarche.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Menopause Menorche
(a) It is the end of menstruation in human females It is the start of menstruation in humon females
(b) It occurs at around 45-50 years of age It occurs at around 11-16 years of age
(c) It marks the end of reproductive phase of a female It marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of a female
(d) There is an elevated level of oestrogen. There is a decline in the Level of oestrogen

Answer:
(d) Menopause : There is an elevated level of oestrogen; Menarche: There is a decline in the level of Oestrogen.
Explanation: During menopause, there is a decline in the level of oestrogen hormone as it indicates the end of reproductive phase of a women. Whereas, during menarche, which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of women, there is an elevated level of oestrogen hormone

(C) Refer to the diagram of female reproductive system of humans given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
The correct labelling of parts A, B, C and D is:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C Uterus, D: Cervix
(b) A: Oviduct, B: Fallopian Tube, C: Ovary, D: Uterus
(c) A: Fallopian Tube, B: Uterus, C: Ovary, D: Cervix
(d) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Cervix, D: Uterus
Answer:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Uterus, D: Cervix

(D) The part of female reproductive system through which the uterus opens into the vagina is:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Cervix
(c) Scrotum
(d) Abdomen
Answer:

(E) The onset of reproductive age in human females is known as:
(a) Menstruation
(b) Menopause
(c) Menarche
(d) Ovulation
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 12.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that does not involve the fusion of gametes or change in the number of chromosomes. The offspring that arise by asexual reproduction from either unicellular or multicellular organisms inherit the full set of genes of their single parent. Asexual reproduction is the primary form of reproduction for single-celled organisms such as archaea and bacteria. Many eukaryotic organisms including plants, animals, and fungi can also reproduce asexually. In vertebrates, the most common form of asexual reproduction is parthenogenesis, which is typically used as an alternative to sexual reproduction in times when reproductive opportunities are limited.
(A) Which of the following observations are incorrect?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 17
(I) The population of yeast grows slowly in the first 6 hours.
(II) The growth rate of yeast is fastest from t = 6 hours to t = 9 hours.
(III) The growth rate increases further from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours.
(IV) The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The growth rate decreases and levels off from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours. The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Name of Organism Method of reproduction
Plasmodium Fission
spirogyra Regeneration
Rhizopus Spore formation
Bryophyllum Vegetative propagation

Answer:

(C) The graph b.elow gives the observations of growth of bread mould (or mold) under different conditions:
A: Bread slices kept at normal room temperature
B: Bread slices kept in refrigerator C: Bread slices kept in freezer.
Select the incorrect statement after observing the graph.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 18
(a) Mould growth is fastest and covers 80% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(c) Mould growth is slowest and covers 12% of the slice in 7 dags when kept in refrigerator.
(d) No mould growth observed for 10 dags when bread slice kept in freezer.
Answer:
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

Explanation: Mould growth is the fastest at room temperature and covers about 80% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

(D) The structures labelled A and B are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 19
(a) A is hyphae and B is Spores
(b) A is root and B is Sporangium
(c) A is hgphae and B is Sporangium
(d) A is root and B is Spores
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statements for the process of budding in geast:
(I) A small bud arises as an outgrowth of the parent bodg.
(II) The parent cell divides into two daughter cells and hence the parental identitg is lost.
(III) The nucleus divides bg meiosis, one daughter nucleus passes into the bud and the other remains in the parent cell.
(IV) The bud either separates off from the parent cell or new bud appears before its separation from the parent cell resulting in the formation of branched or unbranched chain of buds.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilisation?
Answer:
Zygote is Located inside the ovule which is present in the ovary.

Related Theory
After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary. After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Give an example each of unisexual and bisexual flowers.
Answer:
An example of unisexual flower is papaya, water melon (write any one) and of bisexual flower is hibiscus, mustard (write any one).

Related Theory
Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. w Bisexual flowers contain both stamens and carpels. w Majority of the flowers are bisexual.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Name the organs producing sperms and ova respectively in humans.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
The method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions is Fragmentation. This is an asexual mode of reproduction.

Question 5.
Name one organism which reproduces by:
(A) multiple fission
(B) binary fission
Answer:

Question 6.
Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is meant by the term regeneration?
Answer:
Regeneration: The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like Hydra and Planaria shows regeneration, i.e. if Hydra or Planaria somehow get cut into a number of pieces, then each body part can grow into a new complete organism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 8.
How is reproduction in leishmania different from that in plasmodium, even though both are unicellular?
Answer:
Leishmania undergoes binary fission, whereas plasmodium reproduces through multiple fission.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ: