MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers

Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 9 MCQs On Mechanical Properties of Solids

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 1.
A body of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a wire and rotated in horizontal circle of diameter 40 cm with a constant speed of 2 m/s. what is the area of cross-section of the wire if the stress developed in the wire is 5 × 106 N/m²?
(a) 2 mm²
(b) 3 mm²
(c) 4 mm²
(d) 5 mm²

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 mm²

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
In a wire, when elongation is 2 cm energy stored is E. if it is stretched by 10 cm, then the energy stored will be
(a) E
(b) 2 E
(c) 4 E
(d) 25 E

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 E

MCQ On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 3.
Two wires A and B are of the same length. The diameters are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the Youngs modulus are in ratio 2 : 1. if they are pulled by the same force, then their elongations will be in ratio
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 : 1

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Pdf Question 4.
Hookes law essentially defines
(a) Stress
(b) Strain
(c) Yield point
(d) Elastic limit

Answer

Answer: (d) Elastic limit

MCQ On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Question 5.
Longitudinal strain is possible in the case of
(a) Gases
(b) Liquid
(c) Only solids
(d) Only gases & liquids

Answer

Answer: (c) Only solids

Engineering Physics MCQ Electrical Engineering.

Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 MCQ Question 6.
Two wires have the same material and length, but their masses are in the ration of 4 : 3. If they are stretched by the same force, their elongations will be in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 3
(d) 9 : 16

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 : 4

Mechanical Properties Of Solid MCQ Question 7.
A rubber cord of cross sectional area 1 mm² and unstretched length 10 cm is stretched to 12 cm and then released to project a stone of mass 5 gram. If Y for rubber = 5 ? 108N/m², then the tension in the rubber cord is
(a) 25 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 200 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 100 N

MCQ Questions On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 8.
Out of the following materials, whose elasticity is independent of temperature?
(a) Copper
(b) Invar steel
(c) Brass
(d) Silver

Answer

Answer: (b) Invar steel

MCQs On Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 9.
An iron bar of length l m and cross section A m² is pulled by a force of F Newton from both ends so as to produce and elongation in meters. Which of the following statement statements is correct
(a) Elongation is inversely proportional to length l
(b) Elongation is directly proportional to cross section A
(c) Elongation is inversely proportional to A
(d) Elongation is directly proportional to Youngs modulus

Answer

Answer: (c) Elongation is inversely proportional to A

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQs Question 10.
The ratio of the change in dimension at right angles to the applied force to the initial dimension is known as
(a) Youngs modulus
(b) Poissons ratio
(c) Lateral strain
(d) Shearing strain

Answer

Answer: (c) Lateral strain

Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 MCQs Question 11.
Four wires whose lengths and diameter respectively are given below are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when same tension is applied?
(a) 0.50 m, 0.50 mm
(b) 1.00 mm, 1.00 mm
(c) 2.00 m, 2.00 mm
(d) 4.00 m, 4.00 mm

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.50 m, 0.50 mm

MCQ On Elasticity Class 11 Question 12.
When the intermolecular distance increases due to tensile force, then
(a) There is no force between the molecules
(b) There is a repulsive force between the molecules
(c) There is an attractive force between the molecules
(d) There is zero resultant force between the molecules

Answer

Answer: (c) There is an attractive force between the molecules

Class 11 Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 13.
A body of mass 1 kg is attached to one end of a wire and rotated in horizontal circle of diameter 40 cm with a constant speed of 2 m/s. what is the area of cross-section of the wire if the stress developed in the wire is 5 × 106 N/m²?
(a) 2 mm²
(b) 3 mm²
(c) 4 mm²
(d) 5 mm²

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 mm²

MCQ Of Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question 14.
One end of a steel wire of area of cross-section 3 mm² is attached to the ceiling of an elevator moving up with an acceleration of 2.2 m/s². if a load of 8 kg is attached at its free end, then the stress developed in the wire will be
(a) 8 × 106 N/m²
(b) 16 × 106 N/m²
(c) 20 × 106 N/m²
(d) 32 × 106 N/m²

Answer

Answer: (d) 32 × 106 N/m²

Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQs Question 15.
The ratio of the change in dimension at right angles to the applied force to the initial dimension is known as
(a) Youngs modulus
(b) Poissons ratio
(c) Lateral strain
(d) Shearing strain

Answer

Answer: (c) Lateral strain

MCQ Questions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Question 16.
The magnitude of the force developed by raising the temperature from 0°C to 100°C of the iron bar of 1.00 m long and 1 cm² cross-section when it is held so that it is not permitted to expand or bend is (a = 10-5/oC and Y = 1011 N/m²)
(a) 103 N
(b) 104 N
(c) 105
(d) 109 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 104 N

Chapter 9 Physics Class 11 MCQs Question 17.
The upper end of wire 1 m long and 2 mm radius is clamped. The lower end is twisted through an angle of 45°. The angle of shear is
(a) 0.09°
(b) 0.9°
(c) 9°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.09°

Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Questions Question 18.
The radii of two wires of a same material are in ratio 2 : 1. if the wires are stretched by equal forces, the stress produced in them will be
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 4

Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties Of Solids MCQ Question 19.
A rubber cord of cross sectional area 1 mm² and unstretched length 10 cm is stretched to 12 cm and then released to project a stone of mass 5 gram. If Y for rubber = 5 ? 108N/m², then the tension in the rubber cord is
(a) 25 N
(b) 50 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 200 N

Answer

Answer: (c) 100 N

Class 11 Physics Ch 9 MCQ Question 20.
In a wire, when elongation is 2 cm energy stored is E. if it is stretched by 10 cm, then the energy stored will be
(a) E
(b) 2 E
(c) 4 E
(d) 25 E

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 E

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers

Getting to Know Plants Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 7 MCQs On Getting to Know Plants

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Getting To Know Plants Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Which is an example of a shrub?
(a) Spinach
(b) Mango tree
(c) Tomato plant
(d) Lemon

Answer

Answer: (d) Lemon
Explanation:
Spinach and tomato are herbs while mango is a tree. So lemon is a shrub.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following type of plants has thick, hard and woody stem?
(a) Tree
(b) Shrub
(c) Herb
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tree
Explanation:
Herb has a soft stem while shrubs have thin stem.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Question 3.
Which is not a part of a leaf?
(a) Petiole
(b) Lamina
(c) Veins
(d) Nodes

Answer

Answer: (d) Nodes
Explanation:
Nodes are found on stem.

Getting To Know Plants MCQ Question 4.
parallel venation is not found in
(a) sugarcane
(b) peepal
(c) maize
(d) wheat

Answer

Answer: (b) peepal
Explanation:
In peepal, reticulate venation.

Getting To Know Plants Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Which one of the following is a function of leaves?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Support fruits

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Leaves perform both functions.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Leaf venation and type of root is correctly paired in
(a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
(b) parallel venation, taproot
(c) no relation exists in leaf venation and type of roots
(d) reticulate venation, fibrous roots

Answer

Answer: (a) parallel venation, fibrous roots
Explanation:
Plants with parallel leaf venation have fibrous roots while plants with reticulate leaf venation have taproots.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 7.
Male reproductive part of flower is
(a) sepals
(b) petals
(c) stamens
(d) pistil

Answer

Answer: (c) stamens
Explanation:
Stamen is male reproductive part.

Class 6 Science Ch 7 MCQ Question 8.
Which is a correct set of parts of a pistil?
(a) Ovary, style and filament
(b) Ovary style and stigma
(c) Ovary, anther and filament
(d) Filament and anther

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovary style and stigma

Class 6 Getting To Know Plants MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following has fibrous root?
(a) Peas
(b) Wheat
(c) Radish
(d) Neem

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat
Explanation:
Wheat roots spread out in the soil.

MCQ On Getting To Know Plants Question 10.
The process of loss of water by a plant through leaves is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) photosynthesis
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
The process of losing water by leaves is called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A Column B
(a) Creeper (i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(b) Herb (ii) Manufacture food.
(c) Shrub (iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(d) Tree (iv) Reproduction.
(e) Root (v) Need support to stand up.
(f) Stem (vi) Hard and thick stem.
(g) Leaf (vii) Green and tender stem.
(h) Flower (viii) Hard but thin stem.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Creeper (v) Need support to stand up.
(b) Herb (vii) Green and tender stem.
(c) Shrub (viii) Hard but thin stem.
(d) Tree (vi) Hard and thick stem.
(e) Root (i) Absorption of mineral and water.
(h) Stem (iii) Transport food, water and mineral.
(g) Leaf (ii) Manufacture food.
(h) Flower (iv) Reproduction.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Water Havels up the stem through …………. inside the stem.

Answer

Answer: narrow tubes

2. Thick vein in the centre of leaf is called ………….. .

Answer

Answer: midrib

3. Design made by ……………. in a leaf is called venation.

Answer

Answer: veins

4. Leaves Bicchu (Meltles) give you …………. on touching.

Answer

Answer: rashes and itching

5. Leaves have ……………. shapes, sizes, edges, tips, etc.

Answer

Answer: different

6. Water comes out of leaves in the form of vapour by a process called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: transpiration

7. Green leaves make food from ………………………, air and water by a process called photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: sunlight

8. The fine hair like structures on the lateral roots are ………………… .

Answer

Answer: root hair

9. Potatoes and jams are ………….. .

Answer

Answer: stem

10. Small fine particles present in the anther are called …………………..

Answer

Answer: pollen grains

11. …………………… is the lower most part of a pistil.

Answer

Answer: Ovary

12. After maturation, ovary is converted into a ………………

Answer

Answer: fruit

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Herbs are usually short and sometimes do not have branches.

Answer

Answer: True

2. In shrubs, branches arise from the base of the stem.

Answer

Answer: True

3. In trees, branches arise from the upper part of stem.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Stem absorbs water and minerals from the soil.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Roots hold the plant firmly in the soil.

Answer

Answer: True

6. Leaves manufacture the food in presence of sunlight by the process of transpiration.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Plants having leaves with reticulate venation have fibrous roots.

Answer

Answer: False

8. All plants have colourful flowers.

Answer

Answer: False

9. The parts of a flower are usually present in whorls.

Answer

Answer: True

10. Pistil is female reproductive part of a flower.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Getting to Know Plants CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 12 MCQs On Thermodynamics

MCQ On Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics Question 1.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P1, V1) to (P², V²) by two different processes, the quantity which will remain same is:
(a) ΔQ
(b) ΔW
(c) ΔQ + ΔW
(d) ΔQ – ΔW

Answer

Answer: (d) ΔQ – ΔW

Thermodynamics Physics Class 11 MCQ Question 2.
The temperatures of inside and outside of a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming, that the refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be nearly:
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 J

Thermodynamics Physics Class 11 MCQ Pdf Question 3.
An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is:
(a) 124°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 62°C
(d) 99°C

Answer

Answer: (d) 99°C

Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics MCQ Question 4.
A black body at a temperature of 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 20 cal m-2s-1. When its temperature rises to 727°C, the heat radiated will be
(a) 40 units
(b) 160 units
(c) 320 units
(d) 640 units

Answer

Answer: (c) 320 units

MCQ On Thermodynamics Physics Question 5.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics? A. It is not applicable to any cyclic process B. It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy C. It introduces the concept of the internal energy D. It introduces the concept of the entropy
(a) A and D
(b) B and C
(c) C and A
(d) A and B

Answer

Answer: (a) A and D

Thermodynamics Physics MCQs With Answers Pdf Question 6.
At a given volume and temperature, the pressure of a gas
(a) varies inversely as its mass
(b) varies inversely as the square of its mass
(c) varies linearly as its mass
(d) is independent of its mass

Answer

Answer: (c) varies linearly as its mass

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Question 7.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of the gas is changed in such a manner that the gas molecules give out 30 J of heat. Also, 10 J of work is done on the gas. If the internal energy of the gas was 40 J, what will be the final internal energy?
(a) 20 J
(b) -20 J
(c) 80 J
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 J

Thermodynamics MCQ Class 11 Question 8.
The translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at temperature T for one mole of a gas is
(a) (3/2) RT
(b) (9/2) RT
(c) (1/3) RT
(d) (5/2) RT

Answer

Answer: (a) (3/2) RT

MCQ Of Thermodynamics Class 11 Question 9.
Which of the following parameters dose not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(a) work
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) Temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) work

Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics Questions And Answers Pdf Question 10.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A Carnots engine works as a refrigerator between 250 K and 300 K. If it receives 750 calories of heat from the reservoir at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the higher temperature is __________.
(a) 900 cal
(b) 625 cal
(c) 750 cal
(d) 1000 cal

Answer

Answer: (a) 900 cal

Thermodynamics MCQs With Answers Pdf Class 11 Question 11.
The temperatures of inside and outside of a refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming, that the refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be nearly:
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 J

MCQs On Thermodynamics Physics Question 12.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of the gas is changed in such a manner that the gas molecules give out 30 J of heat. Also, 10 J of work is done on the gas. If the internal energy of the gas was 40 J, what will be the final internal energy?
(a) 20 J
(b) −20 J
(c) 80 J
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 J

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQ Questions Question 13.
A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased, so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency?
(a) 275 K
(b) 325 K
(c) 250 K
(d) 380 K

Answer

Answer: (c) 250 K

Thermodynamics Class 11 Physics Questions Question 14.
For a diatomic gas change in internal energy for a unit change in temperature for constant pressure and constant volume is U1 and U2 respectively. What is the ratio of U1 and U2?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 5 : 7

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1

Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following parameters dose not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(a) work
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) Temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) work

Question 16.
The translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at temperature T for one mole of a gas is
(a) (3/2) RT
(b) (9/2) RT
(c) (1/3) RT
(d) (5/2) RT

Answer

Answer: (a) (3/2) RT

Question 17.
Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature is a statement as a conseqence of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics

Answer

Answer: (d) second law of thermodynamics

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system?
(a) The internal energy changes in all processes.
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.
(c) The change in entropy can never be zero.
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero.

Answer

Answer: (b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.

Question 19.
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv for the gas is
(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 4/3
(d) 5/3

Answer

Answer: (b) 3/2

Question 20.
Directions: The following question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A thermodynamical system is changed from state (P1, V1) to (P², V²) by two different processes, the quantity which will remain same is:
(a) ΔQ
(b) ΔW
(c) ΔQ + ΔW
(d) ΔQ – ΔW

Answer

Answer: (d) ΔQ – ΔW

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 11 Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers

Water Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Water Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 14 MCQs On Water

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 1.
Which one is a process in which water changes into vapours in atmosphere?
(a) Evaporation
(b) transpiration
(c) Precipitation
(d) condensation

Answer

Answer: (a) Evaporation
Explanation:
Changing water into vapours is called evaporation.

Water Class 6 MCQ Question 2.
Potable water is
(a) ocean water
(b) groundwater at selected places
(c) river water
(d) ponds water

Answer

Answer: (b) groundwater at selected places
Explanation:
Potable water is groundwater at specific area.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Question 3.
Which is not a part of water cycle?
(a) Cloud formation
(b) Rain
(c) Drinking by animals
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (c) Drinking by animals
Explanation:
Drinking by animals is not a part of water cycle.

Water MCQs With Answers Chapter 14 Question 4.
Which is a result of condensation of water vapours?
(a) Rain
(b) Snowfall
(c) Hail
(d) Tiny water droplets

Answer

Answer: (d) Tiny water droplets
Explanation:
Water vapour, being brighter, rises up in the atmosphere and cools down. It further condenses to form tiny droplets.

MCQ On Water Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Question 5.
Which one is the purest form of water?
(a) River water
(b) Groundwater
(c) Rainwater
(d) Ocean water

Answer

Answer: (c) Rainwater
Explanation:
Rainwater is the purest form of water.

Water Class 6 MCQ With Answers Chapter 14 Question 6.
Circulation of water between ocean and land is known as
(a) water cycle
(b) rain cycle
(c) water management
(d) water harvesting

Answer

Answer: (a) water cycle
Explanation:
Constant flow of water from the earth to the atmosphere and back to the earth is known as water cycle if

MCQ On Water Class 6 Chapter 14 Question 7.
The percentage of water in potato is
(a) 88
(b) 75
(c) 90
(d) 95

Answer

Answer: (b) 75
Explanation:
75% of potato is water.

Class 6 Water MCQ Chapter 14 Question 8.
Out of these, which is not a source of surface water?
(a) rain water
(b) river and lake water
(c) Spring water
(d) sea water

Answer

Answer: (c) Spring water
Explanation:
Rainwater, river water and sea water are the examples of surface water.

Water MCQ Class 6 Chapter 14 Question 9.
Boiling point of water is
(a) 100°C
(c) 101°C
(b) 99°C
(d) 102°C

Answer

Answer: (a) 100°C
Explanation:
Boiling point of water is 100°C.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 10.
Plants release large amount of water vapour into the atmosphere by the process called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) precipitation
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (d) transpiration
Explanation:
Plants release large amount of water vapour into the atmosphere by the process called transpiration.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A Column B
(i) Oceans (a) Are covered with ice
(ii) Lakes (b) Water drawn from tube well, hand pump and wells
(iii) Rivers (c) Sources of saline water
(iv) Poles (d) Results due to excess and continuous rains
(v) Groundwater (e) Are of both types sweet water and saline water
(vi) Drought (f) Meant to make up of the water level
(vii) Flooding (g) The solid form of water
(viii) Water harvesting (h) Results due to no rain for prolonged time
(ix) Snow (i) Are sources of sweet water
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Water cycle (v) Interconversion of water in various forms B
(ii) lakes (i) conversion of water into steam
(iii) poles (x) water loss by plants
(v) Ground water (viii) usually results in rain
(vi) Drought (ii) feeds nearly all others water sources
(vii) Flooding (iii) formed during winters due to cooling of atmospheric moisture
(viii) Water Harvesting (iv) suspend water droplets in atmosphere
(ix) Snow (vi) ice, water and stream

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. ………………. is needed for drinking, bathing, washing our clothes and many more functions.

Answer

Answer: Water

2. Large part of the earth is covered by……………………

Answer

Answer: Ocean and seas

3. The water in the oceans is very ……………. in taste.

Answer

Answer: salty

4. Ice, water and ………………….. are the three states of same material.

Answer

Answer: salty

5. Water vapours get continuously added to atmosphere due to evaporation and ………………

Answer

Answer: transpiration

6. The process of conversion of vapours into liuid is known as ………………………

Answer

Answer: transpiration

7. Falling of …………….. is called precipitation.

Answer

Answer: water drops

8. If water during precipitation remains liquid till it reaches the surface of earth we have …………………………

Answer

Answer: rains

9. Precipitation in frozen, form is called ……………………

Answer

Answer: hail/snow

10. Water drops present on grass during winter morning is called ………………………

Answer

Answer: dew

11. ………………………. carry the water which mainly serves the purpose of drinking.

Answer

Answer: Rivers

12. Nearly all the trains in winters run late because of a natural phenomenon known as ………………………

Answer

Answer: fog

13. ……………… is the basis of life.

Answer

Answer: Water

14. Most of the water that human beings use come from …………………

Answer

Answer: rivers

15. Oceans act as a ……………………. for large number of plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: habitat

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Water is needed in producing almost all materials and goods that we use in our everyday life.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Oceans are the major sources of sweet water.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Water from wet roads, rooftops and other places disappears some time after the rains.

Answer

Answer: True

4. The process of condensation is opposite to evaporation.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Clouds are the mixture of opaque gases.

Answer

Answer: False

6. Condensation near the surface of earth results in fog.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Vapourisation takes place only in presence of sunlight.

Answer

Answer: False

8. Cloud formation occurs only at higher temperatures.

Answer

Answer: False

9. Rains feed almost all other sources of water.

Answer

Answer: True

10. We should take bath by as much water as we can.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Conversion of water into ice, water into vapours and vapours into water, all are chemical processes.

Answer

Answer: False

12. Distribution of water is similar in all cold countries.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Our body contains about 98% of water.

Answer

Answer: False

14. In cold countries, people use water to warm their houses.

Answer

Answer: True

15. The groundwater is actually the rainwater.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Water CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers

Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 7 MCQs On Conservation of Plants and Animals

Choose the correct option.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The clearing of forests is referred to as
(a) reforestation
(b) desertification
(c) deforestation
(d) sanitation

Answer

Answer: (c) deforestation

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 2.
Deforestation leads to
(a) an increase in the temperature of the earth
(b) imbalance of O2 and CO2
(c) increase in rainfall
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Question 3.
Which of the following gases is needed by plants for photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

Conservation Of Plants And Animals MCQ Question 4.
Name the process undertaken by plants for preparing their own food.
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Stealing
(d) Sterilisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Photosynthesis

Name the process undertaken by plants for preparing their own food.

Class 8 Science Ch 7 MCQ Question 5.
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide results in
(a) winter season
(b) global warming
(c) rainfall
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) global warming

Class 8 Chapter 7 Science MCQ Question 6.
The reduction in rainfall could cause
(a) droughts
(b) cold
(c) greenery
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) droughts

Chapter 7 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
The removal of top layer of soil leads to
(a) desertification
(b) rainfall
(c) snowfall
(d) deforestation

Answer

Answer: (a) desertification

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 MCQs Question 8.
Name the sphere that supports life, and where living organisms exist.
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Biosphere
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Biosphere

Ch 7 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
The variety of organisms living on the earth, is referred to as
(a) biodiversity
(b) food chain
(c) lithosphere
(d) relationship

Answer

Answer: (a) biodiversity

Class 8 Ch 7 Science MCQ Question 10.
Name a biosphere reserve where the plants and animals are similar to those of the upper Himalayan ranges and lower western ghats.
(a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(b) Kaziranga Biosphere Reserve
(c) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
(d) Dudhwa National Park

Answer

Answer: (c) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

Class 8 Conservation Of Plants And Animals MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following activities are prohibited in national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves?
(a) Poaching
(b) Hunting
(c) Felling trees
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Science Class 8 Chapter 7 MCQ Question 12.
Name the areas where animals are protected from any disturbance to them and their habitat.
(a) Sanctuary
(b) Biodiversity
(c) Palaces
(d) Beach

Answer

Answer: (a) Sanctuary

Chapter 7 Class 8 Science MCQ Question 13.
Name the areas reserved for wildlife where they can freely use the habitats and national resources.
(a) National parks
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Oceans
(d) Homes

Answer

Answer: (a) National parks

Class 8th Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 14.
Large areas of protected land for conservation of wildlife, plant and animal resources and traditional life of the tribals living in the area are referred to as
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) sanctuaries
(c) national parks
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) biosphere reserves

MCQ On Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 15.
The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists one national park named
(a) bori
(b) satpura
(c) anand
(d) dudhwa

Answer

Answer: (b) satpura

Question 16.
The Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists two wildlife sanctuaries named
(a) Bori and Pachmarhi
(b) Pachmarhi and Satpura
(c) Satpura and Bori
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bori and Pachmarhi

Question 17.
The plants found in a particular area are termed as
(a) flora
(b) fauna
(c) species
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) flora

Question 18.
The animal found in a particular area are termed as
(a) flora
(b) fauna
(c) dogs
(d) humans

Answer

Answer: (b) fauna

Question 19.
Those species of plants and animals that are found exclusively in a particular area are termed as
(a) endemic species
(b) exclusive species
(c) particular species
(d) significant species

Answer

Answer: (a) endemic species

Question 20.
The killing of animals illegally is referred to as
(a) assassinating
(b) poaching
(c) killing
(d) hunting

Answer

Answer: (b) poaching

The killing of animals illegally is referred to as

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I Column II
1. Giant squirrel (a) Food chain
2. Cutting of forests (b) Endemic species
3. Eating and being eaten (c) Red Data Book
4. Wildlife sanctuaries (d) Deforestation
5. Record of endangered plants and animals (e) Pachmarhi
6. Satpura (f) Surkhab
7. Bird Sanctuary (g) National Park
8. Migratory Bird (h) Extinct species
9. Conversion of fertile land into desert (i) Bharatpur
10. Woolly mammoth (j) Desertification
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Giant squirrel (b) Endemic species
2. Cutting of forests (d) Deforestation
3. Eating and being eaten (a) Food chain
4. Wildlife sanctuaries (e) Pachmarhi
5. Record of endangered plants and animals (c) Red Data Book
6. Satpura (g) National Park
7. Bird Sanctuary (i) Bharatpur
8. Migratory Bird (f) Surkhab
9. Conversion of fertile land into desert (j) Desertification
10. Woolly mammoth (h) Extinct species

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. _________ is an endemic flora of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Answer

Answer: 1. Wild mango

2. _________ is a group of population which are capable of interbreeding.

Answer

Answer: Species

3. _________ is also a place where animals receive protection.

Answer

Answer: Zoo

4. _________ is the first Reserve Forest of India.

Answer

Answer: Satpura National Park

5. _________ was launched by the government to protect the tigers in India.

Answer

Answer: Project Tiger

6. Animals whose numbers are diminishing to such a level that they might face extinction are called _________ animals.

Answer

Answer: endangered

7. A/an _________ is made of all the plants, animals and microbes in an area with non-living components such as climate, soil, river, deltas, etc.

Answer

Answer: ecosystem

8. _________ is a source book which keeps records of all the endangered plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: Red Data Book

9. _________ birds fly to far away areas every year during a particular time because of climatic changes.

Answer

Answer: Migratory

10. The restocking of destroyed forests by planting new trees is known as _________.

Answer

Answer: reforestation

11. We should save, reuse and _________ paper to save trees, energy and water.

Answer

Answer: recycle

12. Paper can be recycled _________ to _________ times.

Answer

Answer: 5,7

13. Revised Forest Policy of 1952 is called _________.

Answer

Answer: Forest Act, 1980

14. Kaziranga is a _________.

Answer

Answer: National Park

15. Passenger pigeon is one of the _________ species.

Answer

Answer: extinct

16. The main example of Biosphere Reserve is _________.

Answer

Answer: Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve

17. The cutting of trees is called _________.

Answer

Answer: deforestation

18. Satpura National Park is a part of _________ Biosphere Reserve.

Answer

Answer: Pachmarhi

19. Corbett National Park is located at _________.

Answer

Answer: Uttarakhand

20. The causes of deforestation have been _________ and _________.

Answer

Answer: Forest fires, severe drought

State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Kaziranga National Park is situated in Bihar.

Answer

Answer: False

2. Reforestation increases the temperature and pollution level on earth.

Answer

Answer: False

3. Global warming is caused due to the increase in the level of oxygen.

Answer

Answer: False

4. The reduction in rainfall could cause droughts.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Red Data Book keeps a record of all endangered plants and animals.

Answer

Answer: True

6. The project Tiger was launched on December 2, 2004.

Answer

Answer: False

7. Dodo is an extinct species.

Answer

Answer: True

8. In a wildlife sanctuary, a limited human activity is allowed.

Answer

Answer: True

9. IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Answer

Answer: True

10. In India, protected forests cover about 25% of the total forest area.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Wildlife sanctuary and national park are protected areas.

Answer

Answer: True

12. Those species which no longer exist on the earth are known as endemic species.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Private ownership is not allowed in the national parks.

Answer

Answer: True

14. There can be a wildlife sanctuary within a biosphere reserve.

Answer

Answer: True

15. A famous wildlife sanctuary situated in Kerala is Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.

Answer

Answer: True

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Conservation of Plants and Animals CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers

Separation of Substances Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Separation of Substances Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 5 MCQs On Separation of Substances

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Butter is separated from milk by
(a) sedimentation
(b) filtration
(c) churning
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (c) churning
Explanation:
Butter is separated by churning.

Butter is separated from milk by

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
Filtration is a method to separate the components of a
(a) solution
(b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) pure substance

Answer

Answer: (b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
Explanation:
Components of solution cannot be separated by this method.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
Threshing is done by
(a) beating
(b) bullocks
(c) machines
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these
Explanation:
All the three methods can be used for threshing.

MCQ On Separation Of Substances Class 6 Question 4.
Which method is used to separate pebbles and stones from sand?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Sieving
(d) Any of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Sieving
Explanation:
Handpicking will require more time while winnowing is not fit at all.

Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 5.
The components of a solution (say sugar in water) can be separated by
(a) filtration
(b) evaporation
(c) sedimentation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) evaporation
Explanation:
By evaporation, the volatile component is evaporated which is then condensed.

Separation Of Substances Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Sand from water is separated by
(a) sieving
(b) evaporation
(c) filtration
(d) sedimentation and decantation

Answer

Answer: (d) sedimentation and decantation
Explanation:
It can be done by evaporation and filtration also but sedimentation and decantation are easier ways.

Separation Of Substances Class 6 Worksheets With Answers MCQ Question 7.
The process of conversion of water vapours into liquid is called
(a) condensation
(b) decantation
(c) sedimentation
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (a) condensation
Explanation:
Water vapours changing into liquid is called condensation.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 8.
The process of conversion of water into its vapours is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) guttation
(d) transpiration

Answer

Answer: (a) evaporation
Explanation:
The conversion of water into vapours is called evaporation.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
A mixture of ammonium chloride and sand is separated by
(a) evaporation
(b) decantation
(c) sublimation
(d) filtration

Answer

Answer: (c) sublimation
Explanation:
Ammonium chloride is separated by sublimation process.

Class 6 Separation Of Substances MCQ Question 10.
The property which forms the basis of sieving
(a) difference in weight
(b) difference in colour
(c) difference in shape
(d) difference in size

Answer

Answer: (d) difference in size
Explanation:
Sieving method is used for separating solid constituents of a mixture which differ in their size.

The property which forms the basis of sieving

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B:

Column A Column B
(a) Handpicking (i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(b) Threshing (ii) Separating bran from flour
(c) Winnowing (iii) Separating larger size impurities
(d) Sieving (iv) Separating butter from milk
(e) Sedimentation (v) Conversion of water into Us vapours
(f) Evaporation (vi) Separating grains from its stalks
(g) Condensation (vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(h) Churning (viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Handpicking (iii) Separating larger size impurities
(b) Threshing (iv) Separating grains from its stalks
(c) Winnowing (viii) Separation by wind or by blowing air
(d) Sieving (ii) Separating bran from flour
(e) Sedimentation (vii) Settling of heavier components at bottom
(f) Evaporation (v) Conversion of water into its vapours
(g) Condensation (i) Conversion of water vapours into liquids
(h) Churning  (iv) Separating butter from milk

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Peanuts are separated from a mixture of wheat and peanut by …………… .

Answer

Answer: handpicking

2. ………………. is used to separate husk from wheat.

Answer

Answer: Winnowing

3. Fine sand can be separated from larger particles by ……………. .

Answer

Answer: sieving

4. Glass is a ………….. .

Answer

Answer: mixture

5. Compounds have ……………….. melting points.

Answer

Answer: fixed

6. Milk has a ……………………….. boiling point.

Answer

Answer: variable

7. Boiling point of pure water is …………………. than that of impure water.

Answer

Answer: less

8. Mixture may be solid, liquid or …………… .

Answer

Answer: gas

9. Butter is a component of …………….. .

Answer

Answer: butter milk

10. Sugarcane juice is a mixture of …………………………, water and many other substances.

Answer

Answer: sugar

11. Separation of components is done to obtain a …………………….. substance.

Answer

Answer: pure

12. Components retain their properties in a ……………… .

Answer

Answer: mixture

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Butter is separated from butter milk by churning.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Separation of components of a mixture is a useful process.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Ink loses its properties when mixed in water.

Answer

Answer: False

4. ‘Sharbat’ is a mixture of sugar and water.

Answer

Answer: True

5. Rocks are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: False

6. Milk is a mixture.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Common salt is ai pure substance.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Mixture has properties different from its components.

Answer

Answer: False

9. Tap water and pond water are alike.

Answer

Answer: False

10. Elements are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: True

11. A pure substance has a fixed melting and boiling points.

Answer

Answer: True

12. Condensation method is used for separating substances which on heating change directly into vapour.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Separation of Substances CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers

Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Biology Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 9 Chapter 15 MCQs On Improvement in Food Resources

Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?
(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

Answer

Answer: (b) Sunflower

Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 2.
Which one is not a source of carbohydrate?
(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

Answer

Answer: (d) Gram

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 3.
Find out the wrong statement from the following.
(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

Find out the wrong statement from the following.

MCQ Of Improvement In Food Resources Question 4.
To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?
(a) Increased production and storage of food grains
(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Class 9 Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 5.
Find out the correct sentence.
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called as inter specific hybridisation
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridisation
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 Question 6.
Weeds affect the crop plants by
(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients
(d) all of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients

MCQ Questions Of Ch Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following species of honeybee is an Italian species?
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florae
(c) Apis cerana indica
(d) Apis mellifera

Answer

Answer: (d) Apis mellifera

Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Find out the correct sentence about manure.
(i) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and small quantities of nutrients.
(ii) It increases the water holding capacity of sandy soil.
(iii) It helps in draining out of excess of water from clayey soil.
(iv) Its excessive use pollutes environment because it is made of animal excretory waste.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (i) and (ii)

Class 9 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 9.
Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes:
(i) Milk production
(ii) Agricultural work
(iii) Meat production
(iv) Egg production
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Question 10.
Which of the following are Indian cattle?
(i) Bos indicus
(ii) Bos domestica
(iii) Bos bubalis
(iv) Bos vulgaris
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

Class 9 Chapter 15 Science MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following are exotic breeds?
(i) Brawn
(ii) Jersey
(iii) Brown Swiss
(iv) Jersey Swiss
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)

MCQs On Improvement In Food Resources Question 12.
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise following
(i) Egg production
(ii) Feather production
(iii) Chicken meat
(iv) Milk production
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 13.
Poultry fowl are susceptible to the following pathogens
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Food Production Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder?
(a) Rohus
(b) Mrigals
(c) Common carps
(d) Catlas

Answer

Answer: (d) Catlas

MCQ Of Chapter 15 Science Class 9 Question 15.
Animal husbandry is the scientific management of
(i) animal breeding
(ii) culture of animals
(iii) animal livestock
(iv) rearing of animals
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 16.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron

Question 17.
Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include
(a) strict cleaning
(b) proper disjoining
(c) fumigation
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include

Fill in the blanks

1. There are ……………. nutrients essential for growth of crops.

Answer

Answer: 16

2. Manure and …………… are the main sources of nutrient supply to the crop plants.

Answer

Answer: fertilisers

3. Organic farming is a farming system with minimal or no use of …………..

Answer

Answer: chemicals

4. The growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is called ……………

Answer

Answer: crop rotation

5. Poultry farming is done to raise domestic …………….

Answer

Answer: fowl

6. Cross breeding is done between ……………. and …………… breeds for variety improvement.

Answer

Answer: indigenous, exotic

7. Marine fish capture is done by ……………. guided by echo-sounders and satellites.

Answer

Answer: marine fishery

8. Bee-keeping or ……………. is done to get honey and wax.

Answer

Answer: rearing the honeybee

9. The value or …………… of honey depends upon the pasturage available.

Answer

Answer: quality

10. The …………….. bees have high honey collection capacity and sting somewhat less.

Answer

Answer: Apis mellifera

11. Fishing can be done both by ………….. and …………… of fish in marine and freshwater ecosystems.

Answer

Answer: capture, culture

12. Animal feed includes ……………. which is largely fibre, and …………….. which are low in fibre and contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients.

Answer

Answer: roughage, concentrates

13. The ……………. stop the rainwater from flowing away and also reduce soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: small check-dams

14. In …………… soils, the large quantities of organic matter help in drainage and in avoiding water logging.

Answer

Answer: clayey

15. Vermicompost is prepared by using …………….. to hasten the process of decomposition of plant and animal refuse.

Answer

Answer: earthworms

Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (i) Oil-seed crop
(b) Wheat (ii) Roughage
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (iii) Fodder crop
(d) Exotic breed (iv) Bio-pesticide
(e) Turmeric (v) Blue revolution
(f) Berseem (vi) Jersey
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (vii) Inter-specific
(h) Sesame (viii) Energy-yielding
(i) Longer lactation period (ix) Leghorn
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (v) Blue revolution
(b) Wheat (viii) Energy-yielding
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (vii) Inter-specific
(d) Exotic breed (ix) Leghorn
(e) Turmeric (iv) Bio-pesticide
(f) Berseem (iii) Fodder crop
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (ii) Roughage
(h) Sesame (i) Oil-seed crop
(i) Longer lactation period (vi) Jersey

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Improvement in Food Resources CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 9 MCQs On Force and Laws of Motion

Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it

Answer

Answer: (d) A force is always acting on it

Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 2.
According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other

Answer

Answer: (b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions

Class 9 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 3.
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Answer

Answer: (d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 4.
The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

Answer

Answer: (c) to resist any change in its state of motion

The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

Physics MCQ Questions Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion With Answers Question 5.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks

Answer

Answer: (a) accelerated

Class 9 Science Ch 9 MCQ Question 6.
An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 0 N
From newton’s Ist law of motion, since there is no external force acting on the object it will remain in its original state of motion. Hence, zero force is required to keep the object moving with constant velocity, correct answer is B.

Ch 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) momentum

MCQ Of Force And Laws Of Motion Question 8.
A water tanker filled up to \(\frac{2}{3}\) of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards

Answer

Answer: (b) move forward

Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Class 9 Question 9.
If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.

Answer

Answer: (a) remain same

Class 9 Chapter 9 Science MCQ Question 10.
When a number of forces acting simultaneously on a body bring about a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, then these forces acting on the body are said to be
(a) balanced forces
(b) equal forces
(c) unbalanced forces
(d) opposite forces

Answer

Answer: (d) opposite forces

MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Question 11.
When a car at high speed makes a sharp turn, the driver in a car tends to get thrown to the side opposite to the turn. This is due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of time
(c) inertia of rest
(d) inertia of direction

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion

MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 Question 12.
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore, then the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) move towards the shore
(c) remain stationary
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) move away from the shore

Class 9 Ch 9 Science MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Mass is measure of inertia of a body.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia.
(c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.
(d) Newton’s third law talks about the direction of the force.

Answer

Answer: (c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.

Chapter 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
A ball is thrown vertically upward in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
(a) fall behind the thrower
(b) fall ahead of the thrower
(c) return back to the thrower
(d) fall on the left of the thrower

Answer

Answer: (c) return back to the thrower

Class 9 Physics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following is not an application of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) While firing a bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder
(b) When a man jumps from a boat to the shore
(c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground
(d) A body suspended from the hook of a spring balanced in a lift which is accelerated downward

Answer

Answer: (c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground

Question 16.
When we stop pedalling, the bicycle begins to slow down. This is because of the
(a) Frictional force acting along the direction of motion of bicycle
(b) Air resistance which is in the direction of motion
(c) Frictional force acting opposite to the direction of motion of bicycle by the road
(d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time

Answer

Answer: (d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time

Question 17.
Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which, it cannot change by itself
(a) its state of rest
(b) its steady state of uniform motion
(c) its direction of motion
(d) all of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 18.
An athlete does not come to rest immediately after crossing the winning line due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of rest
(c) inertia of direction
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion

Question 19.
A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a wooden block of mass C. If the bullet gets embedded in the wooden block, then the magnitude of velocity of the system just after the collision will be
(a) \(\frac{A+B}{AC}\)
(b) \(\frac{A+C}{B+C}\)
(c) \(\frac{AC}{B+C}\)
(d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)

Question 20.
The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 12 : 5
(d) 5 : 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 : 12

The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio

Fill in the blanks

1. The momentum of an object is product of its mass and ……………..

Answer

Answer: velocity

2. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to ……………… applied”.

Answer

Answer: force

3. According to law of conservation of momentum “the total momentum of an isolated system is always ……………..

Answer

Answer: conserved

4. Recoiling of gun is an example of ………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: third

5. According to third law of motion “to every action there is an equal and ……………… reaction and they act on two different bodies”.

Answer

Answer: opposite

6. The forces are said to be balanced, if net force is ……………..

Answer

Answer: zero

7. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust particle comes out. This phenomenon is an example of …………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: first

Match the following columns

Column A Column B
(a) Action and reaction (i) Balanced forces
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball (ii) Newton’s first law
(c) Rocket propulsion (iii) Mass
(d) Resultant force is zero (iv) Newton’s second law
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower. (v) Inertia
(f) SI unit of momentum (vi) Newton’s third law
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest. (vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it (viii) kg m/s²
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Action and reaction (vi) Newton’s third law
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball (iv) Newton’s second law
(c) Rocket propulsion (vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(d) Resultant force is zero (i) Balanced forces
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower. (ii) Newton’s first law
(f) SI unit of momentum (viii) kg m/s²
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest. (v) Inertia
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it (iii) Mass

Complete the crossword given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers
Across:
2. SI unit of force
3. Force which opposes relative motion
5. Measure of inertia
7. First law is also known as law of

Down:
1. Product of mass and velocity
4. Natural tendency of an object to resist a change in its states of motion or rest
6. Magnitude of resultant if forces are balanced

Answer

Answer:
Across:
2. Newton
3. Friction
5. Mass
7. Inertia

Down:
1. Momentum
4. Inertia
6. Zero

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Force and Laws of Motion CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers

Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 16 MCQs On Garbage In Garbage Out

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following will add to garbage?
(a) Wrapper of a biscuit pack
(b) Tin of a cold drink
(c) Syringe used by a doctor
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
Garbage consists of many different types of substances and materials, as wrapper of a biscuit pack, tin of a cold drink, syringe used by a doctor, tea leaves, etc.

Garbage Originates From MCQ Class 6 Question 2.
Which one can be used for making manure?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Houseflies
(c) Eagle
(d) Crow

Answer

Answer: (a) Earthworms
Explanation:
Earthworms are called farmer’s friends because they convert agricultural waste into manure.

Tea Leaves Cotton MCQ Class 6 Question 3.
Leaves falling from trees should be disposed by
(a) burning
(b) making compost by boiling and drying them
(c) making compost by vermicomposting
(d) any of these methods

Answer

Answer: (c) making compost by vermicomposting
Explanation:
leaves falling from trees should be disposed by making compost by vermicomposting.

Class 6 Science Chapter 16 MCQ  Question 4.
Garbage from cities is collected at
(a) landfill areas
(b) riversides
(c) inside the ponds and lakes
(d) near every colony

Answer

Answer: (a) landfill areas
Explanation:
Garbage from cities is collected at landfill areas.

Garbage In Garbage Out MCQ Class 6 Question 5.
Which of the following can be recycled?
(a) Waste paper
(b) Leather shoes
(c) Animal waste
(d) Kitchen waste

Answer

Answer: (a) Waste paper
Explanation:
Waste paper is renewable source which is recycled into 0ther uesful products

Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Out of these, which one is a non-biodegradable waste?
(a) Paper
(b) Faecal matter
(c) Aluminium foil
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (c) Aluminium foil
Explanation:
Non-biodegradable wastes are those that cannot be broke and harmless products by microbes.

Garbage Is MCQ Class 6  Question 7.
3’R’ means
(a) reduce, reuse and recycle
(b) rain, reuse and recycle
(c) rotting, reduce and reuse
(d) recycle, rain and rotting

Answer

Answer: (a) reduce, reuse and recycle
Explanation:
Practicing 3R’s (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle) is a good method of waste management and important for healthy environment.

MCQ On Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 Question 8.
Which among the following will not pollute the soil?
(a) Aluminium foil
(b) Plastic
(c) Thermo Col
(d) Bread

Answer

Answer: (d) Bread
Explanation:
Bread is a biodegradable material.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Question 9.
Rotting is carried out by
(a) microbes
(b) insects
(c) ants
(d) amoeba

Answer

Answer: (a) microbes
Explanation:
Biodegradable wastes are broken down by microorganism (microbes)

Class 6 Garbage In Garbage Out MCQ Question 10.
Materials that can be recycled are collected in
(a) Red bins
(b) Blue bins
(c) Yellow bins
(d) White bins

Answer

Answer: (b) Blue bins
Explanation:
According to government scheme, materials that can be recycled are collected in blue bins. This waste is sent directly for processing

Match the following items given in column A with that in column B:

Column A Column B
(a) Land fill (i) Give out harmful gases on burning
(b) Vermi compositing (ii) Form Compost
(c) Red worms (iii) Making things from waste
(d) Recycling (iv) Land where garbage is thrown
(e) Plastic (v) Method of preparing compost
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Landfill (iv) Land where garbage is thrown
(b) Vermicomposting (v) Method of preparing compost
(c) Redworms (ii) Form compost
(d) Recycling (iii) Making useful things from wastes
(e) Plastic (i) Gives out harmful gases on burning

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. …………………… is an area where the garbage is collected.

Answer

Answer: Landfill

2. Converting plant and animal wastes into manure is called ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: composting

3. We need to generate …………….. waste.

Answer

Answer: less

4. Method of making compost using …………………. is called vermicomposting.

Answer

Answer: redworms

5. Municipal solid waste is commonly called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: garbage

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Paper can be recycled to get useful products.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Drains get choked due to plastics thrown by us.

Answer

Answer: True

3. Plastics give out harmful gases on heating or burning.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Redworms eat upon green leaves on trees and make compost.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Plastics are eco-friendly.

Answer

Answer: False

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Garbage In Garbage Out CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 5 MCQs On Acids, Bases and Salts

Choose the correct answer:

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.
An oxide is acidic and has a pungent odour. It could be
(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) sodium oxide
(d) nitrogen dioxide

Answer

Answer: (d) nitrogen dioxide

Acid Bases And Salts Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Out of these gases which one is used in fire extinguishers
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) H2S

Answer

Answer: (a) CO2

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
The correct way of making a solution of acid in water is to
(a) add water to acid
(b) add acid to water
(c) mix acid and water simultaneously
(d) add water to acid in a shallow container

Answer

Answer: (b) add acid to water

Acids Bases And Salts Class 7 MCQ Question 4.
Products of a neutralisation reaction are always:
(a) an acid and a base
(b) an acid and a salt
(c) a salt and water
(d) a salt and a base

Answer

Answer: (c) a salt and water

Class 7 Science Ch 5 MCQ Question 5.
Turmeric is a natural indicator. On adding its paste to acid and base separately, which colours would be observed.
(a) Yellow in both acid and base
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base
(c) Pink in acid and yellow in base
(d) Red in acid and blue in base

Answer

Answer: (b) Yellow in acid and red in base

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 6.
Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are:
(a) red and blue
(b) blue and red
(c) pink and colourless
(d) colourless and pink

Answer

Answer: (d) colourless and pink

Science Class 7 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to the soil?
(a) Organic matter
(b) Quick lime
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Calamine solution

Answer

Answer: (a) Organic matter

Class 7 Chapter 5 Science MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following set of substances contain acids?
(a) Grapes, lime water
(b) Vinegar, soap
(c) Curd, milk of magnesia
(d) Curd, vinegar

Answer

Answer: (d) Curd, vinegar

Class 7th Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
On adding phenolphthalein indicator to a colourless solution, no change is observed. What is the nature of this solution?
(a) Basic
(b) Either acidic or basic
(c) Either acidic or neutral
(d) Either basic or neutral

Answer

Answer: (c) Either acidic or neutral

Acid Base And Salts Class 7 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is an acid-base indicator?
(a) Vinegar
(b) Lime water
(c) Turmeric
(d) Baking soda

Answer

Answer: (c) Turmeric

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(a) Vinegar (i) changes red litmus blue
(b) Sodium chloride (ii) is sour to taste
(c) Milk of magnesia (iii) major salt of sea
(d) Potassium nitrate (iv) used in fertilizer industry
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Vinegar (ii) is sour to taste
(b) Sodium chloride (iii) major salt of sea
(c) Milk of magnesia (i) changes red litmus blue
(d) Potassium nitrate (iv) used in fertilizer industry

Fill in the blanks:

1. A solution of ammonium chloride turns blue litmus ………………..

Answer

Answer: red

2. A solution of sodium acetate turns red ……………….. blue.

Answer

Answer: litmus

3. Ammonium chloride is an example of ………………..

Answer

Answer: acidic salf

4. Acid + Metal → Salt + ………………..

Answer

Answer: Hydrogen

5. An acid and a base react together forming a new compound, known as ………………..

Answer

Answer: salt

6. Tap water is very ……………….. of electricity.

Answer

Answer: poor conductor

7. Corrosion is a ……………….. process.

Answer

Answer: slow

8. All soluble hydroxides are ………………..

Answer

Answer: alkalies

9. Methyl orange is an ………………..

Answer

Answer: indicator

10. ……………….. is used for manufacturing washing soda and baking soda.

Answer

Answer: Sodium chloride

11. Acetic acid is present in ……………….. while ……………….. is present in lemon.

Answer

Answer: vinegar, citric acid

12. Carbon burns in air to form ……………….. It is ……………….. oxide. Its aqueous solution turns ……………….. litmus ………………..

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide, acidic, blue, red

13. The gas which escapes out from many aerated soft drinks is ………………..

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

14. An aqueous solution of sodium oxide changes ……………….. litm us blue.

Answer

Answer: red

15. The chemical formula of lime water is ………………..

Answer

Answer: Ca (OH)2

16. Neutralisation is the reaction between an acid and a ……………….. to form ………………. and ………………..

Answer

Answer: base, salt, water

17. ……………….. reacts with lime water to produce ……………….. which is milky in appearance because it is ……………….. in water.

Answer

Answer: CO2, calcium carbonate, soluble

Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. Ammonia, dissolved in water, shows acidic properties.

Answer

Answer: False.
Explanation:
Correct Statement – Ammonia dissolved in water shows basic properties.

2. Orange juice turns blue litmus red.

Answer

Answer: True.
Explanation:
Because orange juice acts as acid.

3. Copper does not react with tamarind (imli) water.

Answer

Answer: True.
Explanation:
Due to less reactivity.

4. Alum (phitkari) acts as an antacid.

Answer

Answer: False.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Acids, Bases and Salts CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers

Fibre to Fabric Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fibre to Fabric Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 3 MCQs On Fibre to Fabric

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Fibre To Fabric Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following is a synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
All of these fibres are man-made.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 2.
Which is a natural fibre?
(a) Silk
(b) Nylon
(c) Rayon
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Silk
Explanation:
Only silk is natural.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Question 3.
The clothes are made up of thinner and thinner strands called
(a) yam
(b) thread
(c) fibre
(d) fabric

Answer

Answer: (c) fibre
Explanation:
Fibre is thinnest unit of fabric.

Fibre To Fabric Class 6 MCQ Question 4.
Separation of fibres of cotton from its seeds is known as
(a) weaving
(b) spinning
(c) knitting
(d) ginning

Answer

Answer: (d) ginning
Explanation:
Cotton fibres are separated from seeds by combing and the process is called ginning.

MCQ On Fibre To Fabric Class 6 Question 5.
Jute fibres are obtaine from
(a) stem of jute plant
(b) seeds of jute plant
(c) fruit covering of jute plant
(d) roots of jute plant

Answer

Answer: (a) stem of jute plant
Explanation:
Jute fibres are obtained from the stem of jute plant.

Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 6.
Number of yams used to make fabric by weaving and knitting are
(a) two sets of yams in each case
(b) single yam in each case
(c) two sets of yams in weaving and single in knitting
(d) single yam in weaving and two sets in knitting

Answer

Answer: (c) two sets of yams in weaving and single in knitting
Explanation:
In weaving two sets of yam are arranged while knitting is done by a single yam.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Weaving of fabric is done in
(a) handlooms
(b) power looms
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) takli

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Weaving is done both in handlooms and power looms.

Class 6 Fibre To Fabric MCQ Question 8.
Which one is spinning device?
(a) Takli
(b) Loom
(c) Charkha
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
In looms, fabric is woven; while by takli and charkha, yam is made.

Fiber To Fabric Class 6 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is a plant fibre?
(a) Wool
(b) Silk
(c) Cotton
(d) Nylon

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton
Explanation:
Cotton is a plant fibre.

Class 6 Science Ch 3 MCQ Question 10.
The right time to cut jute plants is
(a) matured stage
(b) before flowering stage
(c) flowering stage
(d) any time after flowering

Answer

Answer: (c) flowering stage
Explanation:
Jute plants are usually cut at the flowering stage.

Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B.

Column A Column B
(a) Jute is obtained from (i) Charkha
(b) Fibre from retted jute are extracted by (ii) Sliver
(c) Separation of fibres from jute stem (iii) Bales
(d) Compressed bundles of cotton (iv) Retting
(e) Cotton is collected from cotton plants by (v) Hand picking
(f) Separation of cotton from seeds (vi) Silk and wool
(g)Loose rope of cotton fibres (vii) Stem of‘putson’
(h) Animal fibres (viii) Hands with jerks and pulls
(i) Suitable for wearing in kitchen (ix) Ginning
(j) Used to spin yams (x) Cotton clothes
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Jute is obtained from (vii) Stem of ‘putson’
(b) Fibre from retted jute is extracted by (viii) Hands with jerks and pulls
(c) Separation of fibres from jute stem (iv) Retting
(d) Compressed bundles of cotton (iii) Bales
(e) Cotton is collected from cotton plants by (v) Hand picking
(f) Separation of cotton from seeds (ix) Ginning
(g) Loose rope of cotton fibres (ii) Sliver
(h) Animal fibres (vi) Silk and wool
(i) Suitable for wearing in kitchen (x) Cotton clothes
(j) Used to spin yams (i) Charkha

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Clothes are made up of …………… .

Answer

Answer: fibres

2. Different clothing materials have ………………. properties.

Answer

Answer: different

3. Cotton plants need…………………. climate.

Answer

Answer: warm

4. Cotton is planted in the ………….. .

Answer

Answer: spring

5. …………… soil is excellent for the cultivation of cotton.

Answer

Answer: Black

6. …………………….. Usually cotton is picked from the plants.

Answer

Answer: hand

7. Separation of cotton fibres from their seeds is called …………….. .

Answer

Answer: ginning

8. A ………………. of cotton is a loose strand of cotton fibres.

Answer

Answer: sliver

9. In villages, the cloth is woven on small scale in …………… .

Answer

Answer: handloom

10. Jute is cultivated in ……………… season.

Answer

Answer: rainy

11. Jute is grown in …………………. soil.

Answer

Answer: alluvial

12. On large scale, cotton clothes are made by machines in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: powerloom

13. Twisting of fibres into yarn increases the ………………. of fibres.

Answer

Answer: cohesion and strength

14. Cotton fibres are obtained from the …………….. of cotton plant.

Answer

Answer: seeds

15. Jute fibre is obtained from the …………………. of jute plant.

Answer

Answer: stem

16. Tightly compressed bundles of cotton are called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: bales

17. The process of getting fibres from the jute stem is called …………… .

Answer

Answer: retting

18. People migrated to colder regions only after the invention of …………… .

Answer

Answer: fire

State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. All the plants have fibres in their body structure.

Answer

Answer: True

2. Cotton is the most important industrial crop.

Answer

Answer: True

3. India was the proud inventor of cotton clothing.

Answer

Answer: True

4. Cotton plants need cold climate.

Answer

Answer: False

5. Alluvial soil is best suited for cotton.

Answer

Answer: False

6. Jute is obtained from the stem of ‘putson’.

Answer

Answer: True

7. Jute fibres are quite strong, 6-8 feet long and have a silky lusture.

Answer

Answer: True

8. Primitive men and women had no idea about clothes.

Answer

Answer: True

9. Type of clothing which we wear is influenced by climate, occupation, culture and daily needs.

Answer

Answer: True

10. Cotton and woollen clothes are smooth to touch.

Answer

Answer: False

11. Clothes are made from threads, and threads, in turn, are spun from fibres,

Answer

Answer: True

12. Coconut fibres are good for making yarn.

Answer

Answer: False

13. Twisting of fibres into yam increases cohesion.

Answer

Answer: True

14. While working in kitchen, we should wear cotton clothes.

Answer

Answer: True

15. Clothes protect us from adverse weather condition.

Answer

Answer: True

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Class 6 Science MCQ: