MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 14 MCQs On Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Choose the correct option.

Chemical Effects Of Electric Current Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity?
(a) Distilled water
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Copper sulphate

Answer

Answer: (a) Distilled water


Class 8 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
(a) Sugar solution
(b) Vinegar solution
(c) Lemon juice solution
(d) Caustic soda solution

Answer

Answer: (a) Sugar solution


Chemical Effect Of Electric Current Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
An electric current can produce
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


An electric current can produce

Chemical Effects Of Electric Current MCQ Question 4.
Pure or distilled water is a
(a) poor conductor
(b) good conductor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) poor conductor


Class 8 Chemical Effects Of Electric Current MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following is a good conductor?
(a) Brick
(b) Steel
(c) Plastic
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (b) Steel


MCQ On Chemical Effects Of Electric Current Question 6.
Polythene is
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) an insulator


Class 8 Science Ch 14 MCQ Question 7.
Electroplating is based on
(a) heating effect of electricity
(b) chemical effect of electricity
(c) physical effect of electricity
(d) magnetic effect of electricity

Answer

Answer: (b) chemical effect of electricity


MCQ Questions On Chemical Effects Of Electric Current Class 8 Question 8.
Copper is
(a) a good conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) a good conductor


Ch 14 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 9.
Waste from an electroplating factory must be disposed off
(a) in the nearby river
(b) in the nearby pond
(c) in the nearby cornfield
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies

Answer

Answer: (d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies


Class 8 Science Chemical Effects Of Electric Current MCQ Question 10.
An electrolyte is
(a) a metal
(b) a liquid that conducts current
(c) a non-metal
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a liquid that conducts current


Chemical Effect Of Electric Current MCQ Question 11.
Flow of electron is called
(a) electrolyte
(b) electroplating
(c) electrodes
(d) electric current

Answer

Answer: (d) electric current


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Question 12.
Which is not a non-electrolyte?
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Urea
(d) Sodium solution

Answer

Answer: (b) Sodium chloride


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chemical Effects Of Electric Current Question 13.
An electric lamp glows due to
(a) heating effect
(b) magnetic effect
(c) chemical effect
(d) physical effect

Answer

Answer: (a) heating effect


Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Extra Questions MCQ Question 14.
Electroplating prevents
(a) corrosion
(b) passing of current
(c) dissociation
(d) shining

Answer

Answer: (a) corrosion


MCQs On Chemical Effects Of Electric Current Class 8 Question 15.
Which of the following is not used for electroplating metal articles?
(a) Nickel
(b) Silver
(c) Chromium
(d) Sodium

Answer

Answer: (d) Sodium


Question 16.
Iron objects can be protected by electroplating them with
(a) chromium
(b) nickel
(c) zinc
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 17.
In LEDs, the longer lead (wire) is always connected to the _______ terminal
(a) negative
(b) neutral
(c) positive
(d) Any terminal

Answer

Answer: (c) positive


Question 18.
Tap water is a good conductor of electricity while distilled water is not because
(a) Tap water contain salts
(b) Distilled water do not contain salt
(c) Only (a) is correct
(d) Both (a) & (b) is correct

Answer

Answer: (b) Distilled water do not contain salt


Question 19.
When electrodes are immersed in water and electricity passed, the bubbles formed on the positive terminal is actually _______ gas.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (c) Oxygen


Question 20.
When electrodes are immersed in water and electricity passed, the bubbles formed on the negative terminal is actually _______ gas.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) Hydrogen


Question 21.
Why do we add little dilute sulphuric acid to copper sulphate solution during electroplating?
(a) To increase acidity
(b) To increase conductivity
(c) So that the colour becomes more prominent
(d) To burn copper sulphate

Answer

Answer: (b) To increase conductivity


Question 22.
A coating of _________is deposited on iron to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) Zinc
(d) silver

Answer

Answer: (c) Zinc


Question 23.
Chromium plating is done on many objects such as car parts, bath taps, kitchen gas stove etc. Why?
(a) It does not corrode but prevents scratches
(b) It looks beautiful
(c) It costs less
(d) Articles can be sold at higher price

Answer

Answer: (a) It does not corrode but prevents scratches


Question 24.
The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called ___________.
(a) Electric plating
(b) Electroplating
(c) Electric depositing
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Electroplating


Question 25.
Some liquids are good conductors of electricity and some are poor conductors. Which one is a poor conductor?
(a) Acidic solution
(b) Alkaline solution
(c) Common Salt solution
(d) Distilled water

Answer

Answer: (d) Distilled water


Question 26.
Tin cans, used for storing food, are made by electroplating tin onto iron. Why?
(a) Tin gives a shiny appearance
(b) To make the vessel cheap
(c) Tin is less reactive than iron.
(d) To make the vessel lighter

Answer

Answer: (c) Tin is less reactive than iron.


Tin cans, used for storing food, are made by electroplating tin onto iron. Why?

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I Column II
1. Closed path (a) Good conductor
2. LED (b) Deflection of compass
3. Carbon rod (c) Positively charged ion
4. Galvanisation (d) Poor conductor of electricity
5. Distilled water (e) Coating with zinc
6. Salt solution (f) Electrodes
7. Cation (g) Light emitting diodes
8. Magnetic effect of current (h) Electric circuit
9. Chromium (i) Negatively charged ion
10. Anion (j) Electroplating
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Closed path (h) Electric circuit
2. LED (g) Light emitting diodes
3. Carbon rod (f) Electrodes
4. Galvanisation (e) Coating with zinc
5. Distilled water (d) Poor conductor of electricity
6. Salt solution (a) Good conductor
7. Cation (c) Positively charged ion
8. Magnetic effect of current (b) Deflection of compass
9. Chromium (j) Electroplating
10. Anion (i) Negatively charged ion

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. Substances that conduct electricity are called ___________.

Answer

Answer: Conductors


2. Substances that do not conduct electricity are called ___________.

Answer

Answer: insulator


3. A cation has ___________ charge.

Answer

Answer: positive


4. Some liquids are ___________ conductors of electricity and some are ___________ conductors of electricity.

Answer

Answer: good, poor


5. Distilled water is an ___________.

Answer

Answer: insulator


6. Distilled water when mixed with salts becomes a ___________ conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: good


7. Light emitting diodes (LED) glow even when a ___________ electric current flows through it.

Answer

Answer: weak


8. The passage of an electric current through a conducting solution causes ___________.

Answer

Answer: chemical reaction


9. Change in colour is an example of the ___________ effect of current.

Answer

Answer: chemical


10. There are ___________ wires attached to an LED.

Answer

Answer: two


11. In an LED, the longer lead is attached to the ___________ terminal of the battery and the shorter lead to the ___________ terminal.

Answer

Answer: positive, negative


12. Chromium has a ___________ appearance.

Answer

Answer: shiny


13. Distilled water is made by removing all ___________.

Answer

Answer: impurities


14. Iron tends to ___________ and ___________.

Answer

Answer: corrode, rust


15. A coating of ___________ is deposited on iron to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.

Answer

Answer: zinc


16. An electric lamp glows due to ___________ effect of electric current.

Answer

Answer: heating


17. Electrodes are ___________.

Answer

Answer: conductors


18. The deflection in ___________ shows that current is passing.

Answer

Answer: magnetic compass


19. ___________does not corrode easily.

Answer

Answer: Chromium


20. An electrolyte is a ___________.

Answer

Answer: liquid


State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Rubber is a good conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Plastics are poor conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


3. All liquids conduct electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Distilled water is free of salt.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Pure water conducts electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Most liquids that conducts electricity are solutions of acids, bases and salts.

Answer

Answer: True


7. Electroplating is based on magnetic effect of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


8. Small amount of some mineral salts are naturally present in water.

Answer

Answer: True


9. Chromium is carcinogenic.

Answer

Answer: True


10. An electric bulb glows due to chemical effect of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


11. Distilled water when mixed with salt conducts electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


12. LED is an electric bulb which is used in a tester.

Answer

Answer: True


13. Deflection in compass needle is due to magnetic effect of current.

Answer

Answer: True


14. When electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution, copper and sulphate ions are dissociated.

Answer

Answer: True


15. In an LED bulb, the shorter lead is connected to the positive terminal of the battery.

Answer

Answer: False


16. Electric current produces a magnetic effect.

Answer

Answer: True


17. Some liquids are good conductors of electricity and some are poor conductors of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


18. Chromium has a shiny appearance.

Answer

Answer: True


19. Jewellery makers electroplate silver and gold on expensive metals.

Answer

Answer: False


20. Electroplating wastes are useful to human health and environment.

Answer

Answer: False


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Chemical Effects of Electric Current CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Chemical Reactions and Equations

Chemical Reaction And Equation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour.
(b) Melting of ice to give water.
(c) Dissolution of salt in water.
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
Answer:
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).

Explanation: Since the combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) produces new substances, a lot of heat is produced along with carbon dioxide and water vapour. It is also irreversible in nature. So it is a chemical change.

However, boiling of water to give water vapour, melting of ice to give water and dissolution of salt in water are physical changes, as here no new substance is formed, only the physical state of the substance changes.

A physical change does not produce a new substance although the initial and final substances appear different and it is reversible.

During a chemical change, the chemical composition of the substance changes and new substances with new properties are formed. Energy is either released or absorbed during a chemical change and it is irreversible.

Top free images & vectors for Compound chemical formula calculator in png, vector, file, black and white, logo, clipart, cartoon and transparent.

Chemical Reactions And Equations Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is (are) an endothermic process(es)?
(I) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(II) Sublimation of dry ice
(III) Condensation of water vapours
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Strong heating of ferrous sulphate leads to the formation of a brown solid and two gases. This reaction can be categorised as:
(a) displacement and redox.
(b) decomposition and redox.
(c) displacement and endothermic.
(d) decomposition and exothermic.
Answer:
(b) decomposition and redox reaction.

Explanation: When FeSO4 is heated strong, it decomposes to form a brown solid ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
Class 10 Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ
In this reaction, FeSO4 decomposes and forms new products so it is a decomposition reaction. Here FeSO4 is oxidised to Fe2O3 by loss of electrons. So this part of the reaction is oxidation reaction FeSO4 is also reduced to SO2 and SO3 by a gain of electrons.

Hence, the Heating of FeSO4 is both decomposition and Redox reaction.

Related Theory:
A reaction is called redox when both oxidation and reduction are taking place simultaneously.
The oxidation process involves:

  1. Gain of oxygen
  2. Loss of hydrogen
  3. Loss of electrons

Reduction process involves:

  1. Loss of oxygen,
  2. Gain of hydrogen
  3. Gain of electrons

The substance which loses electrons i.e. gets oxidised, acts as a reducing agent and the substance which gains electrons, i.e. it gets reduced and acts as an oxidising agent.

Alkyne Reactions Cheat Sheet Download.

Class 10 Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 4.
Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?
(I) Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu
(II) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(III) C + O2 → CO2
(IV) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) only (II)
Explanation: A double displacement reaction involves the displacement of two ions of two different compounds that results in the formation of new compounds. Here, only in reaction (II), ions of both reactants are exchanged and two entirely different compounds are formed. For example.
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4(s) (White ppt) + 2NaCl(aq)

In a double displacement reaction, exchange of ions takes place i.e., SO42- exchange place with Cl ion. It is also called a precipitation reaction as BaSO4 is precipitated as insoluble salt in the solution.

Ch 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of reaction involved?
(I) Displacement reaction
(II) Precipitation reaction
(III) Combination reaction
(IV) Double displacement reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after some time. It is because copper:
(I) Displaces silver from the solution
(II) forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO3
(III) Is oxidized to Cu2+
(IV) ls reduced to Cu2+
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)
Explanation: Copper is placed above silver in electrochemical series and thus reaction occurs
Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu2+ + 2Ag

Chemical Reaction And Equation MCQ Question 7.
One of the following does not happen during a chemical reaction. This is:
(a) Breaking of old bonds and formation of new bonds
(b) Formation of new substances with entirely different properties
(c) Atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products
(d) A rearrangement of atoms takes place to form new products
Answer:
(c) atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products. Explanation: It is not atoms but the bonds between these atoms break and form during chemical reactions. Atoms of elements can rearrange but cannot change into other elements.

Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 8.
You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix with it a solution of:
(a) potassium chloride
(b) potassium nitride
(c) potassium sulphide
(d) potassium iodide
Answer:
(d) potassium iodide

You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix with it a solution of:

Explanation: Potassium iodide on reacting with lead nitrate gives yellow precipitate of Lead iodide.
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → Pbl2 + 2KNO3

MCQ On Chemical Reactions And Equations Question 9.
In which of the following chemical equations do the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc taken in a test tube. The following observations are recorded. Point out the correct observation:
(a) The surface of metal becomes shiny.
(b) The reaction mixture turns milky.
(c) Odour of a pungent-smelling gas is recorded.
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. Explanation: The chemical reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and granulated zinc is represented as follows:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
The product, zinc chloride, does not turn the reaction milky. Hydrogen gas evolved is colourless and odourless and released by the formation of bubbles. Hence, option (d) is correct.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

MCQ Of Chemical Reaction And Equation Question 11.
On heating, a blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, a black substance X, oxygen gas and a brown gas Y was formed. Select the option which identifies the products correctly:
MCQ Of Chemical Reaction And Equation
Class 10 Science Ch 1 MCQ
Answer:
(c) X is Copper Oxide and Y is Nitrogen Dioxide Explanation: When blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate is heated, it decomposes to form black coloured substance which is copper oxide, oxygen gas and brown gas nitrogen dioxide.

The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 4

Class 10 Science Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
In the equation:
Cu + XHNO3 → CU(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are:
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 4 and 2
(c) 7 and 1
Answer:
(c) Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
Explanation: In order to find the values of x and y, we need to balance the chemical equation by equating the number of atoms of each element on both sides in the given equation.
Cu + XHNO3 → CU(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 1
Equating the number of H atoms on both sides as per the law of conservation of mass, x = 4.
Putting this value in either the no. of atoms of N or O,
x = y + 2 means y = x – 2 = 4 – 2 = 2.
Therefore, x = 4 & y = 2 is the correct answer

Chemical equation balance the equation calculator finds the stoichiometric coefficients to balance chemical equations incl.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Question 13.
In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4Cl(aq)
(b) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(l) → Al(OH)3(aq) + 3NH4Cl(s)
(c) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4Cl(aq)
(d) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(aq) + 3NH4Cl(s)
Answer:
(a) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4CL(aq)

Explanation: When ammonium hydroxide solution is added to aluminium chloride solution, a white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed alongwith ammonium chloride solution.

Chemical Equations And Reactions Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The reaction 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O is an example of:
(I) displacement reaction.
(II) double displacement reaction.
(III) neutralisation reaction.
(IV) combination reaction.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Chemical Equation And Reaction Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Consider the following chemical equation:
X(aq) + sodium chloride(aq) → Y(white ppt) + Sodium nitrate(aq)
Chemical Equation And Reaction Class 10 MCQ

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 1

For the following questions, two statements are given: one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 16.
Assertion (A): Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
4Fe + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4 + 4H2
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Iron (Fe) metal does not react with cold or hot water but it reacts with steam to form a metal oxide and hydrogen.

The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical reaction. The statement is true but it does not explain the equation given in the Assertion.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame.
Reason (R): Magnesium ribbon undergoes physical change on burning and melts.
Answer:

Question 18.
Assertion (A): While equalizing the number of atoms to balance a chemical equation, we alter the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction.
Reason (R): Chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: A chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow without altering the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction. It is balanced by putting coefficients in front of the compounds or elements.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction.
Reason (R): Double displacement reactions are the reactions in which there is an exchange of ions between the reactants.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce sLaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction as the two reactants combine to form a single product.

Whereas, in a double displacement reaction, there will be two reactants and two products which are formed by the exchange of ions between the reactants.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 20.
Assertion (A): The decomposition reaction of silver chloride into silver and chlorine is an exothermic process.
Reason (R): Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
Answer:

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Zinc and lead displace copper from their compounds.
Reason (R): Zinc and lead are more reactive than copper.
Answer:

Competency-Based Questions (CBQs)

Question 1.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 7
During a chemical reaction atoms of one element do not change into those of another element. Nor do atoms disappear from the mixture or appear from elsewhere. Actually, chemical reactions involve the breaking and making of bonds between atoms to produce new substances.

To demonstrate a reaction, 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and placed in sunlight.
(A) What will you observe after some time?
(B) What is this reaction known as?
(C) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(D) Give reasons for the observations.
Answer:

Question 2.
Whitewash is a very low-cost type of paint made from slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) and chalk (whiting). Chalk is calcium carbonate. Slaked lime turns into chalk by reacting with carbon dioxide in the air over several days. This causes crystallization, which binds and strengthens the coating. Various other additives can be used.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 8
Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide, accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form a solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?
(I) It is an endothermic reaction.
(II) It is an exothermic reaction.
(III) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
(IV) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II) and (III)

Explanation: Slaking of lime is an exothermic reaction because a large amount of heat is produced during the reaction. The heat can be felt by touching the beaker from the outside. The resulting compound Ca(OH)2, which is also called slaked lime, turns red litmus solution to blue and hence, proves it to be a basic solution. Thus, the pH of this solution will be more than seven.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 9

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 3.
Shalini was quite interested in observing the changes that take place during chemical reactions but was always afraid of entering the chemistry lab. When she spoke to her chemistry teacher regarding this, the teacher suggested that she should perform a simple experiment under her guidance to overcome her fear and at the same time she could observe the changes that take place during a chemical reaction.

She took about 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals in a dry boiling tube and heated it over the
flame of a burner. She noticed change of colour of the ferrous sulphate crystals and could also smell the characteristic odour of burning sulphur.
(A) What change in colour did Shalini observe?
Answer:
Shalini observed that the green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals changed to white as it loses water when heated.
FeSO4.7H2O → FeSO4 + 7H2O

(B) Why did Shalini get the characteristic odour of burning sulphur?
Answer:

(C) What type of reaction takes place when ferrous sulphate is heated?
Answer:
The type of reaction taking place is the thermal decomposition reaction. The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 10

(D) Give another example of such type of reactions.
Answer:

Question 4.
The production of hydrogen from water via electrolysis is a clean process, resulting in only oxygen being produced as a by-product. If the electricity required to split the water into hydrogen and oxygen is supplied via a renewable energy source then the process is environmentally benign.The water electrolysis hydrogen (oxygen) plant is equipment that electrolyzes water to produce hydrogen and oxygen by using lye as an electrolyte.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 11
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogenand oxygen gases liberated during the electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(b) 2:1

Explanation: The balanced chemical equation for the electrolysis of water is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 12
The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases Liberated during electrolysis of water is 2:1 by volume.

In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into its simpler forms. During electrolysis, water is broken down into oxygen gas and hydrogen gas due to the passage of electric current through it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 5.
Redox reactions are an important class of reactions. The oxidation and reduction reactions always occur simultaneously, such class of chemical reactions is named as the redox reaction or Oxidation-Reduction reaction.

The substance getting reduced in a chemical reaction is known as the oxidizing agent, while a substance that is getting oxidized is known as the reducing agent. The activity in which copper powder is taken in a china dish and heated helps in understanding redox reactions.
(A) What happens when copper powder is heated in a china dish? Explain your observation.
Answer:
When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of copper powder is coated with black copper oxide as oxidation of copper takes place by addition of oxygen to copper.
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO

(B) What will you observe if hydrogen gas is passed over the heated material obtained in (A) above?
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over heated material CuO, the black coating on the surface turns brown as the reverse reaction takes place and copper is formed.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

(C) Identify the substance oxidized and substance reduced in the reaction at (B) above.
Answer:

(D) Identify the correct statement:
In the reaction between lead sulphide and hydrogen peroxide shown by the equation below,
PbS + 2H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O,
(a) Lead sulphide Is reduced and Hydrogen peroxide is oxidized.
(b) Lead sulphide is oxidized and Hydrogen peroxide is reduced.
(c) Lead sulphate is oxidized and water is reduced.
(d) Lead sulphate is reduced and water is oxidized.
Answer:

Question 6.
Rancidification is the process of complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odor. Specifically, it is the hydrolysis or autoxidation of fats into short-chain aldehydes and ketones, which are objectionable in taste and odor. When these processes occur in food, undesirable odors and flavors can result.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 13
Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
(d) Helium or nitrogen
Answer:
(d) Helium or nitrogen

Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?

Explanation: Inert gases like helium or nitrogen both can be used for the storage of fresh sample of oil for a Long time, as they do not react with most elements, including oxygen. Thus these gases create an inert environment for the oil and prevent its reaction (oxidation) with any element in the environment. Hence, stopping it from becoming rancid.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 7.
A student takes two test tubes. In the first test tube, he takes lead nitrate solution and in the second he takes a few zinc granules. He adds potassium iodide solution to lead nitrate solution in the first test tube. He adds dilute sulphuric acid in the second test tube containing zinc granules.
(A) What is observed in the first test tube on adding potassium iodide solution?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 14
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: When potassium iodide solution is added to lead nitrate solution in a test tube, a yellow precipitate of Lead iodide is formed. The equation of the reaction taking place is:

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

(B) Select the correct observations:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to a few zinc granules in the second test tube,
(I) Bubbles of hydrogen gas can be seen around the zinc granules.
(II) Bubbles of carbon dioxide can be seen around zinc granules.
(III) The flask becomes hot
(IV) Colour of solution changes to blue,
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: When diluting sulphuric acid is added to zinc granules in a conical flask, the equation of the reaction taking place is:
Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq)+ H2(g)

(C) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Both the reactions are accompanied by a change in colour.
(II) A precipitate is formed in the first test tube only.
(III) Gas is evolved in the second test tube only.
(IV) Both the reactions are examples of double displacement reactions.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
Answer:

(D) Suppose we add dil hydrochloric acid in place of sulphuric acid in the second test tube. Select the correct observation:
(a) Chlorine gas will be evolved.
(b) The test tube will become cold as heat is absorbed during this reaction.
(c) Hydrogen gas will be evolved.
(d) A precipitate of zinc chloride will be formed
Answer:

(E) The type of reaction taking place when water is added slowly to a small amount of calcium oxide in a beaker is:
(I) Combination Reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Exothermic reaction
(IV) Endothermic reaction
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 8.
You must have seen that your mother stores fried food items such as boondi raita, chips, mixture, banana chips and other such items properly. This is because their smell and taste change due to the oxidation of fried food items and food becomes unfit for human consumption.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 15
Why are anti-oxidants added to fat and oil-containing food items?
Answer:
Anti-oxidants are added to fat and oil-containing food items to prevent their oxidation which is known as rancidity which makes food smell bad and changes its taste.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 9.
Chemical reaction, a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants to create different substances as products.

Chemical reactions must be distinguished from physical changes. Physical changes include changes of state, such as ice melting to water and water evaporating to vapour. If a physical change occurs, the physical properties of a substance will change, but its chemical identity will remain the same. However, if water, as ice, liquid, or vapour, encounters sodium metal (Na), the atoms will be redistributed to give the new substances molecular hydrogen (H2) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH). By this, we know that a chemical change or reaction has occurred.
(A) Which of the following are physical changes?
(I) Melting of wax
(II) Burning of wax
(III) Rusting of iron
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Melting of wax and evaporation of water are physical change as they undergo only change in their physical states without any change in their chemical composition. Whereas, burning of wax is a chemical change as carbon dioxide and water are formed when wax is burned. Rusting of iron is also a chemical change as iron undergoes oxidation in the presence of moisture to form rust or iron oxide.

(B) A chemical reaction does not involve:
(a) Formation of new substances having entirely different properties than that of the reactants
(b) Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds
(c) Rearrangement of the atoms of reactants to form new products
(d) Changing of the atoms of one element into those of another element to form new products
Answer:

(C) Quick lime is used in whitewashing because
(a) It is cheap
(b) It forms limestone with water which has a nice color.
(c) It forms slaked lime with water which reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form limestone.
(d) It is easy to use
Answer:

(D) Which of the following are endothermic processes?
(I) Burning of natural gas
(II) Dilution of an acid
(III) Evaporation of water
(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (IV) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 16
Which of the following statement about the reaction is correct?
(a) It is a displacement reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) it is a decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
Answer:
((c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.

Explanation: It is a decomposition reaction as a single reactant splits up into two products, namely, KCl and O2, by absorbing energy in the form of heat.

It is an endothermic reaction as heat is absorbed in this reaction.

Question 10.
Many materials over time can be prone to corrosion and wear Iron is one such metal. Having a protective later and proper preparation can certainly help materials last longer and have other properties integrated into it.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 17
A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a reddish-brown metal Y. the colour of the solution gets discharged. Identify X and Y and also the type of reaction.
Answer:
We are given that the metal Y is reddish brown in colour. This metal is copper and the blue solution of Y is copper sulphate. Also, zinc is used in protecting iron articles and this process is called galvanisation. As Zinc is more reactive than copper it displaces copper from its salt solution, copper sulphate.
Zn + CUSO4 → ZnSCO4 + Cu
So, X is zinc, while Y is copper.

Question 11.
Double displacement reactions may be defined as the chemical reactions in which one component each of both the reacting molecules is exchanged to form the products. During this reaction, the cations and anions of two different compounds switch places, forming two entirely different compounds.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 18
Double displacement reactions generally take place in aqueous solutions in which the ions precipitate and there is an exchange of ions.

Double displacement reactions can be further classified as neutralization and precipitation reactions.
(A) What is the precipitate formed on mixing the solution of barium chloride and sodium sulphate?
(a) Barium sulphate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Barium sulphite
(d) Sodium sulphite
Answer:
(a) Barium Sulphate

Explanation: When a solution of barium chloride is mixed with a solution of sodium sulphate, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride.
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + NaCl(aq)

(B) When Potassium iodide solution is added to lead(II) nitrate solution,
(I) lead (II) iodide precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(II) Potassium nitrate precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(III) Potassium displaces lead from lead nitrate solution.
(IV) Exchange of lead and potassium ions takes place
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) Identify the precipitate obtained by the reaction between lead nitrate and sodium sulphate.
(a) PbS
(b) Pb(SO4)2
(c) PbSO4
(d) NaNO2
Answer:
(c) PbSO4
Explanation: Lead nitrate reacts with sodium sulphate solution to form a precipitate of lead sulphate and sodium nitrate.
Pb(NO3)2(aq)+ Na2SO4(aq) → PbSO4(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)

This is a double displacement reaction as the exchange of lead and sodium ions is taking place.

(D) Which one of the following is true about a double displacement reaction?
(I) Electrolysis of water is an example of this reaction.
(II) Two compounds exchange ions to form new compounds.
(III) Only a single product is formed.
(IV) Reaction between magnesium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid is an example for this reaction.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) Identify the incorrect statement regarding double displacement reactions:
(a) All double displacement reactions are precipitation reactions.
(b) All neutralization reactions between acids and bases are double displacement reactions
(c) The reaction between vinegar and baking soda is an example of a double displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between silver nitrate solution and sodium chloride solution is an example of a double displacement reaction.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 12.
Thermite is a pyrotechnic composition of metal powder fuel and metal oxide. When ignited by heat, thermite undergoes an exothermic oxidation-reduction reaction. Most varieties are not explosive but can create brief bursts of high temperature in a small area. Its form of action is similar to that of other fuel-oxidizer mixtures, such as black powder. Thermites have diverse compositions. Fuels include aluminium, magnesium, titanium, zinc, silicon, and boron. Aluminium is common because of its high boiling point. Oxidizers include boron(III) oxide, silicon(IV) oxide, chromium(III) oxide, manganese(IV) oxide, iron(III) oxide, iron(II, III) oxide, copper(II) oxide, and lead(ll,IV) oxide.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 19

In this reaction mention the substance getting oxidized and the substance getting reduced.
Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
Answer:
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen while packing them as nitrogen is an inert gas and prevents fried food materials from getting rancid.

Question 13.
A synthesis or combination reaction is a reaction in which simple compounds combine to make a more complex one. The opposite of a combination reaction is a decomposition reaction in which a single substance splits into two or more substances. We also have a single displacement reaction (in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound) and a double displacement reaction (in which the exchange of ions takes place between two compounds). Having a thorough understanding of the types of reactions will be useful for predicting the products of an unknown reaction.
(A) A student performed several experiments and then noted down his observations in a tabular form as given below:

S.No. Observation Conclusion Regarding the type of Reaction Taking Place
(I) When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of the copper powder turns black Combination Reaction
(II) Hydrogen gas is . evolved when Iron reacts with dil. HCl. Decomposition Reaction
(III) A black precipitate is formed along with sulphuric acid solution when hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through copper sulphate solution Double Displacement Reaction
(IV) When electricity is passed through molten aluminium chloride aluminium metal is formed along with a gas. Displacement Reaction

Select the option that correctly describes the conclusions made by the student regarding type of reaction taking place:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation : When barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate soLution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed alongwith copper chloride solution.

This is an example of precipitation reaction as a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed. It is also a double displacement reaction as the Ba2+ and Cu2+ ions form new compounds by exchanging their ions. The equation of the reaction talcing place is:
BaCl2(aq) + CuSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + CuCl2(aq)

(B) When a metal X, which is used for coating iron articles, is added to a blue solution of a reddish brown metal Y, the color of the solution gets discharged.
Select the option which correctly identifies the metals X and Y and the type of reaction taking place.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 20
Answer:

(C) The type of reaction taking place when barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate solution is:
(I) Combination reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Double Displacement reaction
(IV) Precipitation reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Burning of natural gas is a decomposition reaction.
(b) Burning of hydrogen gas in air is a combination reaction
(c) Reaction between most metals and dilute hydrochloric acid is a displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between an acid and a base is an example of double displacement reaction.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
(I) The precipitation reactions produce insoluble salts.
(II) Neutralization reactions are single displacement reactions.
(III) Decomposition reactions can be carried out only in presence of heat or light.
(IV) Displacement reactions are opposite of combination reactions.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

Explanation: Precipitation reactions are the reactions in which an insoluble substance or precipitate is formed. Neutralization reactions are the reactions between an acid and a base and are double displacement reactions. Decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat, light or electricity. Decomposition reactions are the opposite of combination reactions.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What happens when sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution?
Answer:
When sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
The equation of the reaction taking place is:
Na2SO4((aq) + BaCl2(aq) →BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 2.
An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to form yellow ppt of compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to sunlight undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in P along with reddish-brown gas. Identify P & Q.
Answer:
As the compound Q is formed by the reaction between P (metal nitrate solution) and sodium bromide solution, Q is silver bromide which is used in photography.

Further, Q undergoes decomposition in the presence of sunlight to form silver and bromine gas. As silver is formed above, the metal nitrate is silver nitrate.

P – silver nitrate (AgNO3)
Q – silver bromide (AgBr).

Question 3.
What can be seen when a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate?
Answer:
When a strip of copper metals is placed in a solution of silver nitrate, copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution as copper is a more reactive metal than silver. Copper nitrate is formed with a shiny greyish-white deposit of silver on the copper strip.
2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NCO3)2 + 2Ag

Question 4.
Name and state the law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations.
Answer:
The law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations is the law of conservation of mass which states that “Matter can neither be created nor be destroyed”. It means that the total mass of atoms of reactants = the total mass of atoms of products, as atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 5.
Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water, a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
Answer:
The compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is water (H20) which has properties that are different from properties of H2 and O2 as it is formed by the chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen gases. While hydrogen and oxygen are gases at room temperature, water is a liquid at room temperature.

Question 6.
If copper metal is heated over a flame, it develops a coating. What is the colour and composition of the coating?
Answer:

Question 7.
Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the following reaction: carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen gas at 340 atm to form methyl alcohol.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 8.
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and silver nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer:
When silver nitrate solution is added to sodium chloride solution, a white precipitate of silver chloride is formed along with sodium nitrate solution.
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

Question 9.
Complete and balance the following:
Fe2O3 + Al →
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers

Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Biology Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 9 Chapter 15 MCQs On Improvement in Food Resources

Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?
(a) Lentil
(b) Sunflower
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Hibiscus

Answer

Answer: (b) Sunflower


Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 2.
Which one is not a source of carbohydrate?
(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

Answer

Answer: (d) Gram


Class 9 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 3.
Find out the wrong statement from the following.
(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Find out the wrong statement from the following.

MCQ Of Improvement In Food Resources Question 4.
To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?
(a) Increased production and storage of food grains
(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Class 9 Improvement In Food Resources MCQ Question 5.
Find out the correct sentence.
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called as inter specific hybridisation
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridisation
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 Question 6.
Weeds affect the crop plants by
(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow
(c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients
(d) all of the above.

Answer

Answer: (c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients


MCQ Questions Of Ch Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following species of honeybee is an Italian species?
(a) Apis dorsata
(b) Apis florae
(c) Apis cerana indica
(d) Apis mellifera

Answer

Answer: (d) Apis mellifera


Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Find out the correct sentence about manure.
(i) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter and small quantities of nutrients.
(ii) It increases the water holding capacity of sandy soil.
(iii) It helps in draining out of excess of water from clayey soil.
(iv) Its excessive use pollutes environment because it is made of animal excretory waste.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (i) and (ii)


Class 9 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 9.
Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes:
(i) Milk production
(ii) Agricultural work
(iii) Meat production
(iv) Egg production
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)


MCQ On Improvement In Food Resources Question 10.
Which of the following are Indian cattle?
(i) Bos indicus
(ii) Bos domestica
(iii) Bos bubalis
(iv) Bos vulgaris
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


Class 9 Chapter 15 Science MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following are exotic breeds?
(i) Brawn
(ii) Jersey
(iii) Brown Swiss
(iv) Jersey Swiss
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)


MCQs On Improvement In Food Resources Question 12.
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise following
(i) Egg production
(ii) Feather production
(iii) Chicken meat
(iv) Milk production
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)


Improvement In Food Resources Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 13.
Poultry fowl are susceptible to the following pathogens
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Food Production Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder?
(a) Rohus
(b) Mrigals
(c) Common carps
(d) Catlas

Answer

Answer: (d) Catlas


MCQ Of Chapter 15 Science Class 9 Question 15.
Animal husbandry is the scientific management of
(i) animal breeding
(ii) culture of animals
(iii) animal livestock
(iv) rearing of animals
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)


Question 16.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 17.
Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include
(a) strict cleaning
(b) proper disjoining
(c) fumigation
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include

Fill in the blanks

1. There are ……………. nutrients essential for growth of crops.

Answer

Answer: 16


2. Manure and …………… are the main sources of nutrient supply to the crop plants.

Answer

Answer: fertilisers


3. Organic farming is a farming system with minimal or no use of …………..

Answer

Answer: chemicals


4. The growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is called ……………

Answer

Answer: crop rotation


5. Poultry farming is done to raise domestic …………….

Answer

Answer: fowl


6. Cross breeding is done between ……………. and …………… breeds for variety improvement.

Answer

Answer: indigenous, exotic


7. Marine fish capture is done by ……………. guided by echo-sounders and satellites.

Answer

Answer: marine fishery


8. Bee-keeping or ……………. is done to get honey and wax.

Answer

Answer: rearing the honeybee


9. The value or …………… of honey depends upon the pasturage available.

Answer

Answer: quality


10. The …………….. bees have high honey collection capacity and sting somewhat less.

Answer

Answer: Apis mellifera


11. Fishing can be done both by ………….. and …………… of fish in marine and freshwater ecosystems.

Answer

Answer: capture, culture


12. Animal feed includes ……………. which is largely fibre, and …………….. which are low in fibre and contain relatively high levels of proteins and other nutrients.

Answer

Answer: roughage, concentrates


13. The ……………. stop the rainwater from flowing away and also reduce soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: small check-dams


14. In …………… soils, the large quantities of organic matter help in drainage and in avoiding water logging.

Answer

Answer: clayey


15. Vermicompost is prepared by using …………….. to hasten the process of decomposition of plant and animal refuse.

Answer

Answer: earthworms


Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (i) Oil-seed crop
(b) Wheat (ii) Roughage
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (iii) Fodder crop
(d) Exotic breed (iv) Bio-pesticide
(e) Turmeric (v) Blue revolution
(f) Berseem (vi) Jersey
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (vii) Inter-specific
(h) Sesame (viii) Energy-yielding
(i) Longer lactation period (ix) Leghorn
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Increase in fish production (v) Blue revolution
(b) Wheat (viii) Energy-yielding
(c) Cross between two different species of the same genus (vii) Inter-specific
(d) Exotic breed (ix) Leghorn
(e) Turmeric (iv) Bio-pesticide
(f) Berseem (iii) Fodder crop
(g) Largely fibre component of feed (ii) Roughage
(h) Sesame (i) Oil-seed crop
(i) Longer lactation period (vi) Jersey

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Improvement in Food Resources CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 9 Science Physics Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 9 Chapter 9 MCQs On Force and Laws of Motion

Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the Earth
(d) A force is always acting on it

Answer

Answer: (d) A force is always acting on it


Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 2.
According to the third law of motion, action and reaction
(a) always act on the same body
(b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions
(c) have same magnitude and directions
(d) act on either body at normal to each other

Answer

Answer: (b) always act on different bodies in opposite directions


Class 9 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 3.
A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to
(a) exert larger force on the ball
(b) reduce the force exerted by the balls on the hands
(c) increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Answer

Answer: (d) decrease the rate of change of momentum


Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Question 4.
The inertia of an object tends to cause the object
(a) to increase its speed
(b) to decrease its speed
(c) to resist any change in its state of motion
(d) to decelerate due to friction

Answer

Answer: (c) to resist any change in its state of motion


The inertia of an object tends to cause the object

Physics MCQ Questions Class 9 Force And Laws Of Motion With Answers Question 5.
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him. It means that motion of the train is
(a) accelerated
(b) uniform
(c) retarded
(d) along circular tracks

Answer

Answer: (a) accelerated


Class 9 Science Ch 9 MCQ Question 6.
An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 ms-1 on a frictionless horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is
(a) 32 N
(b) 0 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 8 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 0 N
From newton’s Ist law of motion, since there is no external force acting on the object it will remain in its original state of motion. Hence, zero force is required to keep the object moving with constant velocity, correct answer is B.


Ch 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) momentum


MCQ Of Force And Laws Of Motion Question 8.
A water tanker filled up to \(\frac{2}{3}\) of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On a sudden application of brakes, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards

Answer

Answer: (b) move forward


Force And Laws Of Motion MCQ Class 9 Question 9.
If the mass of a body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum of the body will
(a) remain same
(b) become double
(c) become half
(d) become four times.

Answer

Answer: (a) remain same


Class 9 Chapter 9 Science MCQ Question 10.
When a number of forces acting simultaneously on a body bring about a change in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, then these forces acting on the body are said to be
(a) balanced forces
(b) equal forces
(c) unbalanced forces
(d) opposite forces

Answer

Answer: (d) opposite forces


MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Question 11.
When a car at high speed makes a sharp turn, the driver in a car tends to get thrown to the side opposite to the turn. This is due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of time
(c) inertia of rest
(d) inertia of direction

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion


MCQ On Force And Laws Of Motion Class 9 Question 12.
A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks towards the shore, then the boat will
(a) move away from the shore
(b) move towards the shore
(c) remain stationary
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) move away from the shore


Class 9 Ch 9 Science MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Mass is measure of inertia of a body.
(b) Newton’s first law of motion is the law of inertia.
(c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.
(d) Newton’s third law talks about the direction of the force.

Answer

Answer: (c) Unbalanced force produces constant velocity.


Chapter 9 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
A ball is thrown vertically upward in a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
(a) fall behind the thrower
(b) fall ahead of the thrower
(c) return back to the thrower
(d) fall on the left of the thrower

Answer

Answer: (c) return back to the thrower


Class 9 Physics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following is not an application of conservation of linear momentum?
(a) While firing a bullet, the gun must be held tight to the shoulder
(b) When a man jumps from a boat to the shore
(c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground
(d) A body suspended from the hook of a spring balanced in a lift which is accelerated downward

Answer

Answer: (c) A rocket explodes on midway from the ground


Question 16.
When we stop pedalling, the bicycle begins to slow down. This is because of the
(a) Frictional force acting along the direction of motion of bicycle
(b) Air resistance which is in the direction of motion
(c) Frictional force acting opposite to the direction of motion of bicycle by the road
(d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time

Answer

Answer: (d) Nature of the bicycle to stop after some time


Question 17.
Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which, it cannot change by itself
(a) its state of rest
(b) its steady state of uniform motion
(c) its direction of motion
(d) all of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these.


Question 18.
An athlete does not come to rest immediately after crossing the winning line due to the
(a) inertia of motion
(b) inertia of rest
(c) inertia of direction
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) inertia of motion


Question 19.
A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a wooden block of mass C. If the bullet gets embedded in the wooden block, then the magnitude of velocity of the system just after the collision will be
(a) \(\frac{A+B}{AC}\)
(b) \(\frac{A+C}{B+C}\)
(c) \(\frac{AC}{B+C}\)
(d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac{AB}{A+C}\)


Question 20.
The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 12 : 5
(d) 5 : 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 : 12


The masses of two bodies are in ratio 5 : 6 and their velocities are in ratio 1 : 2. Then their linear momentum will be in the ratio

Fill in the blanks

1. The momentum of an object is product of its mass and ……………..

Answer

Answer: velocity


2. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to ……………… applied”.

Answer

Answer: force


3. According to law of conservation of momentum “the total momentum of an isolated system is always ……………..

Answer

Answer: conserved


4. Recoiling of gun is an example of ………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: third


5. According to third law of motion “to every action there is an equal and ……………… reaction and they act on two different bodies”.

Answer

Answer: opposite


6. The forces are said to be balanced, if net force is ……………..

Answer

Answer: zero


7. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust particle comes out. This phenomenon is an example of …………….. law of motion.

Answer

Answer: first


Match the following columns

Column A Column B
(a) Action and reaction (i) Balanced forces
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball (ii) Newton’s first law
(c) Rocket propulsion (iii) Mass
(d) Resultant force is zero (iv) Newton’s second law
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower. (v) Inertia
(f) SI unit of momentum (vi) Newton’s third law
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest. (vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it (viii) kg m/s²
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Action and reaction (vi) Newton’s third law
(b) Cricket player lowers his hand while catching the ball (iv) Newton’s second law
(c) Rocket propulsion (vii) Conservation of linear momentum
(d) Resultant force is zero (i) Balanced forces
(e) A ball thrown upward in a train moving with uniform velocity returns to the thrower. (ii) Newton’s first law
(f) SI unit of momentum (viii) kg m/s²
(g) Tendency of a body to resist change in its state of motion or rest. (v) Inertia
(h) Inertia of a body depends on it (iii) Mass

Complete the crossword given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers
Across:
2. SI unit of force
3. Force which opposes relative motion
5. Measure of inertia
7. First law is also known as law of

Down:
1. Product of mass and velocity
4. Natural tendency of an object to resist a change in its states of motion or rest
6. Magnitude of resultant if forces are balanced

Answer

Answer:
Across:
2. Newton
3. Friction
5. Mass
7. Inertia

Down:
1. Momentum
4. Inertia
6. Zero


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Force and Laws of Motion CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 9 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers

Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 16 MCQs On Garbage In Garbage Out

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following will add to garbage?
(a) Wrapper of a biscuit pack
(b) Tin of a cold drink
(c) Syringe used by a doctor
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
Garbage consists of many different types of substances and materials, as wrapper of a biscuit pack, tin of a cold drink, syringe used by a doctor, tea leaves, etc.


Garbage Originates From MCQ Class 6 Question 2.
Which one can be used for making manure?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Houseflies
(c) Eagle
(d) Crow

Answer

Answer: (a) Earthworms
Explanation:
Earthworms are called farmer’s friends because they convert agricultural waste into manure.


Tea Leaves Cotton MCQ Class 6 Question 3.
Leaves falling from trees should be disposed by
(a) burning
(b) making compost by boiling and drying them
(c) making compost by vermicomposting
(d) any of these methods

Answer

Answer: (c) making compost by vermicomposting
Explanation:
leaves falling from trees should be disposed by making compost by vermicomposting.


Class 6 Science Chapter 16 MCQ  Question 4.
Garbage from cities is collected at
(a) landfill areas
(b) riversides
(c) inside the ponds and lakes
(d) near every colony

Answer

Answer: (a) landfill areas
Explanation:
Garbage from cities is collected at landfill areas.


Garbage In Garbage Out MCQ Class 6 Question 5.
Which of the following can be recycled?
(a) Waste paper
(b) Leather shoes
(c) Animal waste
(d) Kitchen waste

Answer

Answer: (a) Waste paper
Explanation:
Waste paper is renewable source which is recycled into 0ther uesful products


Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Out of these, which one is a non-biodegradable waste?
(a) Paper
(b) Faecal matter
(c) Aluminium foil
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (c) Aluminium foil
Explanation:
Non-biodegradable wastes are those that cannot be broke and harmless products by microbes.


Garbage Is MCQ Class 6  Question 7.
3’R’ means
(a) reduce, reuse and recycle
(b) rain, reuse and recycle
(c) rotting, reduce and reuse
(d) recycle, rain and rotting

Answer

Answer: (a) reduce, reuse and recycle
Explanation:
Practicing 3R’s (Reduce, Reuse and Recycle) is a good method of waste management and important for healthy environment.


MCQ On Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 Question 8.
Which among the following will not pollute the soil?
(a) Aluminium foil
(b) Plastic
(c) Thermo Col
(d) Bread

Answer

Answer: (d) Bread
Explanation:
Bread is a biodegradable material.


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Question 9.
Rotting is carried out by
(a) microbes
(b) insects
(c) ants
(d) amoeba

Answer

Answer: (a) microbes
Explanation:
Biodegradable wastes are broken down by microorganism (microbes)


Class 6 Garbage In Garbage Out MCQ Question 10.
Materials that can be recycled are collected in
(a) Red bins
(b) Blue bins
(c) Yellow bins
(d) White bins

Answer

Answer: (b) Blue bins
Explanation:
According to government scheme, materials that can be recycled are collected in blue bins. This waste is sent directly for processing


Match the following items given in column A with that in column B:

Column A Column B
(a) Land fill (i) Give out harmful gases on burning
(b) Vermi compositing (ii) Form Compost
(c) Red worms (iii) Making things from waste
(d) Recycling (iv) Land where garbage is thrown
(e) Plastic (v) Method of preparing compost
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Landfill (iv) Land where garbage is thrown
(b) Vermicomposting (v) Method of preparing compost
(c) Redworms (ii) Form compost
(d) Recycling (iii) Making useful things from wastes
(e) Plastic (i) Gives out harmful gases on burning

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. …………………… is an area where the garbage is collected.

Answer

Answer: Landfill


2. Converting plant and animal wastes into manure is called ……………….. .

Answer

Answer: composting


3. We need to generate …………….. waste.

Answer

Answer: less


4. Method of making compost using …………………. is called vermicomposting.

Answer

Answer: redworms


5. Municipal solid waste is commonly called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: garbage


State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Paper can be recycled to get useful products.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Drains get choked due to plastics thrown by us.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Plastics give out harmful gases on heating or burning.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Redworms eat upon green leaves on trees and make compost.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Plastics are eco-friendly.

Answer

Answer: False


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Garbage In Garbage Out CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 5 MCQs On Acids, Bases and Salts

Choose the correct answer:

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.
An oxide is acidic and has a pungent odour. It could be
(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) sodium oxide
(d) nitrogen dioxide

Answer

Answer: (d) nitrogen dioxide


Acid Bases And Salts Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Out of these gases which one is used in fire extinguishers
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) H2S

Answer

Answer: (a) CO2


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
The correct way of making a solution of acid in water is to
(a) add water to acid
(b) add acid to water
(c) mix acid and water simultaneously
(d) add water to acid in a shallow container

Answer

Answer: (b) add acid to water


Acids Bases And Salts Class 7 MCQ Question 4.
Products of a neutralisation reaction are always:
(a) an acid and a base
(b) an acid and a salt
(c) a salt and water
(d) a salt and a base

Answer

Answer: (c) a salt and water


Class 7 Science Ch 5 MCQ Question 5.
Turmeric is a natural indicator. On adding its paste to acid and base separately, which colours would be observed.
(a) Yellow in both acid and base
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base
(c) Pink in acid and yellow in base
(d) Red in acid and blue in base

Answer

Answer: (b) Yellow in acid and red in base


Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 6.
Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions, respectively are:
(a) red and blue
(b) blue and red
(c) pink and colourless
(d) colourless and pink

Answer

Answer: (d) colourless and pink


Science Class 7 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality what must be added to the soil?
(a) Organic matter
(b) Quick lime
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Calamine solution

Answer

Answer: (a) Organic matter


Class 7 Chapter 5 Science MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following set of substances contain acids?
(a) Grapes, lime water
(b) Vinegar, soap
(c) Curd, milk of magnesia
(d) Curd, vinegar

Answer

Answer: (d) Curd, vinegar


Class 7th Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
On adding phenolphthalein indicator to a colourless solution, no change is observed. What is the nature of this solution?
(a) Basic
(b) Either acidic or basic
(c) Either acidic or neutral
(d) Either basic or neutral

Answer

Answer: (c) Either acidic or neutral


Acid Base And Salts Class 7 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is an acid-base indicator?
(a) Vinegar
(b) Lime water
(c) Turmeric
(d) Baking soda

Answer

Answer: (c) Turmeric


Match the following:

Column A Column B
(a) Vinegar (i) changes red litmus blue
(b) Sodium chloride (ii) is sour to taste
(c) Milk of magnesia (iii) major salt of sea
(d) Potassium nitrate (iv) used in fertilizer industry
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Vinegar (ii) is sour to taste
(b) Sodium chloride (iii) major salt of sea
(c) Milk of magnesia (i) changes red litmus blue
(d) Potassium nitrate (iv) used in fertilizer industry

Fill in the blanks:

1. A solution of ammonium chloride turns blue litmus ………………..

Answer

Answer: red


2. A solution of sodium acetate turns red ……………….. blue.

Answer

Answer: litmus


3. Ammonium chloride is an example of ………………..

Answer

Answer: acidic salf


4. Acid + Metal → Salt + ………………..

Answer

Answer: Hydrogen


5. An acid and a base react together forming a new compound, known as ………………..

Answer

Answer: salt


6. Tap water is very ……………….. of electricity.

Answer

Answer: poor conductor


7. Corrosion is a ……………….. process.

Answer

Answer: slow


8. All soluble hydroxides are ………………..

Answer

Answer: alkalies


9. Methyl orange is an ………………..

Answer

Answer: indicator


10. ……………….. is used for manufacturing washing soda and baking soda.

Answer

Answer: Sodium chloride


11. Acetic acid is present in ……………….. while ……………….. is present in lemon.

Answer

Answer: vinegar, citric acid


12. Carbon burns in air to form ……………….. It is ……………….. oxide. Its aqueous solution turns ……………….. litmus ………………..

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide, acidic, blue, red


13. The gas which escapes out from many aerated soft drinks is ………………..

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide


14. An aqueous solution of sodium oxide changes ……………….. litm us blue.

Answer

Answer: red


15. The chemical formula of lime water is ………………..

Answer

Answer: Ca (OH)2


16. Neutralisation is the reaction between an acid and a ……………….. to form ………………. and ………………..

Answer

Answer: base, salt, water


17. ……………….. reacts with lime water to produce ……………….. which is milky in appearance because it is ……………….. in water.

Answer

Answer: CO2, calcium carbonate, soluble


Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. Ammonia, dissolved in water, shows acidic properties.

Answer

Answer: False.
Explanation:
Correct Statement – Ammonia dissolved in water shows basic properties.


2. Orange juice turns blue litmus red.

Answer

Answer: True.
Explanation:
Because orange juice acts as acid.


3. Copper does not react with tamarind (imli) water.

Answer

Answer: True.
Explanation:
Due to less reactivity.


4. Alum (phitkari) acts as an antacid.

Answer

Answer: False.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Acids, Bases and Salts CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers

Force and Pressure Class 8 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Force and Pressure Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 8 Science Chapter 11 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 8 Chapter 11 MCQs On Force and Pressure

Choose the correct option.

Force And Pressure Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as
(a) force
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) muscular force
(d) friction

Answer

Answer: (b) atmospheric pressure


Class 8 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 2.
Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) pressure

Answer

Answer: (d) pressure


Class 8 Force And Pressure MCQ Question 3.
A ___________ exerted by an object on another is a force.
(a) Push or pull
(b) Contact or non-contact force
(c) Pressure
(d) Magnitude

Answer

Answer: (a) Push or pull


MCQ On Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 4.
The force exerted by the earth to pull the object towards itself is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) gravitational force


Class 8 Science Ch 11 MCQ Question 5.
Muscular force is also called ___________ force.
(a) non-contact
(b) contact
(c) gravitational
(d) magnetic

Answer

Answer: (b) contact


MCQ Of Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 6.
The force exerted by a charged body on another char
(a) gravitational force
(b) electrostatic force
(c) non-contact force
(d) contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) electrostatic force


Ch 11 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 7.
Force changes the
(a) motion of body
(b) speed of body
(c) shape of body
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Question 8.
The force exerted by our muscle is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) muscular force
(c) gravitational force
(d) non-contact force

Answer

Answer: (b) muscular force


Force And Pressure MCQ Class 8 Question 9.
1 kilogram weight is equal to
(a) 98 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 0.98 N
(d) 0.098 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 9.8 N


Class 8 Chapter 11 Science MCQ Question 10.
A spring balance is used for measuring
(a) mass
(b) weight
(c) pressure
(d) speed

Answer

Answer: (b) weight


Class 8 Science Force And Pressure MCQ Question 11.
Two boys A and B are applying force on a block. If the block moves towards the boy A, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(c) Net force on the block is towards B.
(d) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.

Answer

Answer: (b) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.


Force And Pressure Class 8 MCQ With Answers Question 12.
When two forces act in opposite directions, then net force acting is the
(a) sum of two forces
(b) difference between two forces
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) difference between two forces


Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 13.
The strength of force is expressed by its
(a) weight
(b) mass
(c) magnitude
(d) longitudinal force

Answer

Answer: (c) magnitude


The strength of force is expressed by its

MCQ Force And Pressure Class 8 Question 14.
Leaves fall down on the ground due to
(a) electrostatic force
(b) magnetic force
(c) gravitational force
(d) muscular force

Answer

Answer: (c) gravitational force


Class 8 Ch 11 Science MCQ Question 15.
State of motion is described by
(a) Position of rest
(b) Position of motion
(c) Both by the state of rest or motion
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both by the state of rest or motion


Question 16.
When the hammer strikes the gong of an electric bell, which of the following force is responsible for the movement of hammer?
(a) Gravitational force alone
(b) Magnetic force alone
(c) Electrostatic force alone
(d) Frictional force alone

Answer

Answer: (c) Electrostatic force alone


Question 17.
During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience hair flying apart. The force respon¬sible for this is
(a) force of gravity
(b) force of friction
(c) electrostatic force
(d) magnetic force

Answer

Answer: (c) electrostatic force


Question 18.
A container is filled with water as shown in the given figure. Which of the following statements is correct about pressure of water?
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers
(a) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(b) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C
(c) Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C

Answer

Answer: (d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C


Question 19.
Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to
(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force


Question 20.
Which one of the following forces is a contact force?
(a) Force of gravity
(b) Magnetic force
(c) Force of friction
(d) Electrostatic force

Answer

Answer: (c) Force of friction


Question 21.
A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as shown in given figure. The pressure exerted by the brick on the table will be
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers
(a) maximum in position A
(b) maximum in position C
(c) maximum in position B
(d) equal in all cases

Answer

Answer: (a) maximum in position A


Question 22.
A push or pull on an object is called
(a) Pressure
(b) Push-pull
(c) Force
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Force


Question 23.
If two forces act in the opposite directions on an object, the net force acting on it is the
(a) Sum of the two forces
(b) difference between the two forces
(c) Multiplication of the two forces
(d) Division of the two forces

Answer

Answer: (b) difference between the two forces


Question 24.
Which of the following is proper example(s) to explain that force on an object may change its shape
(a) A ball of dough rolled into chapati
(b) Pressing a rubber ball kept on table
(c) Making model using clay
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 25.
A ball rolling on the ground slows down and finally stops. This is because of
(a) Force
(b) Less force applied
(c) Friction
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Friction


Question 26.
Force of friction always acts on moving objects and its direction shall be ____
(a) On any direction
(b) Along the direction of motion
(c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion
(d) Opposite to the direction of motion

Answer

Answer: (c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion


Question 27.
If In a tug-o-war, when two teams are pulling a rope, and the rope does not move towards any team, it implies that
(a) Equal force is being applied in the same direction
(b) Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction
(c) No force is applied in any direction
(d) Cannot be explained

Answer

Answer: (b) Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction


Question 28.
An example of a non- contact force is
(a) Force exerted by us to lift a bucket
(b) Push a stationary car
(c) Force exerted by magnet
(d)  Hit a cricket ball for a 6 run

Answer

Answer: (c) Force exerted by magnet


Question 29.
Pressure =
(a) Area / force on which it acts
(b) force / area on which it acts
(c) Volume / force on which it acts
(d) Force / volume on which it acts

Answer

Answer: (b) force / area on which it acts


Question 30.
Gravity is
(a) Repulsive
(b) Attraction + Repulsive force
(c) Attractive force
(d) Not a force

Answer

Answer: (c) Attractive force


Question 31.
A batsman hits the ball for a boundary past the bowler i.e. four runs. The batsman thus
(a) Changes the direction & speed of the ball
(b) Does not change the direction but speed only
(c) Does not change the speed but direction only
(d) Does not change either direction or speed

Answer

Answer: (a) Changes the direction & speed of the ball


A batsman hits the ball for a boundary past the bowler i.e. four runs. The batsman thus

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I Column II
1. Pressure (a) Fluid pressure
2. Barometer (b) Unit of pressure
3. Newton (c) Non-contact force
4. Manometer (d) Force/Area
5. Pascal (e) Unit of force
6. Magnetic force (f) Net force acting on a body
7. 1 kilogram (g) Atmospheric pressure
8. Resultant force (h) 9.8 N
9. Frictional force (i) Down the column
10. Pressure increases (j) Contact force
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Pressure (d) Force/Area
2. Barometer (g) Atmospheric pressure
3. Newton (e) Unit of force
4. Manometer (a) Fluid pressure
5. Pascal (b) Unit of pressure
6. Magnetic force (c) Non-contact force
7. 1 kilogram (h) 9.8 N
8. Resultant force (f) Net force acting on a body
9. Frictional force (j) Contact force
10. Pressure increases (i) Down the column

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

1. We ___________ the bucket to take out water from well.

Answer

Answer: pull


2. The strength of a force is usually expressed by its ___________.

Answer

Answer: magnitude


3. ___________ force is the force resulting due to the action of muscles.

Answer

Answer: Muscular


4. The envelop of air all around us is called ___________.

Answer

Answer: atmosphere


5. To open a door we or ___________ the door.

Answer

Answer: push, pull


6. Force of friction is an example of ___________ force.

Answer

Answer: contact


7. Force ___________ is called pressure.

Answer

Answer: per unit area


8. Force has ___________ as well as direction.

Answer

Answer: magnitude


9. Fruits fall ___________ due to the force of gravity.

Answer

Answer: downward


10. The body at rest is called ___________ body.

Answer

Answer: stationary


11. ___________ and ___________ forces are the two kinds of forces.

Answer

Answer: Contact, non-contact


12. Force exerted by magnet is called ___________ force.

Answer

Answer: magnetic


13. We apply force on ___________ while walking.

Answer

Answer: ground


14. Force is ___________ to pressure.

Answer

Answer: directly proportional


15. The ___________ is measured by an instrument called barometer.

Answer

Answer: atmospheric pressure


State whether the given statements are true or false.

1. Force applied on an object in opposite directions add to one another.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Pressure does not depend on area of contact.

Answer

Answer: False


3. A force can change the state of motion of an object.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Force cannot change the speed of an object.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Atmospheric pressure is less at higher altitudes.

Answer

Answer: True


6. Force of gravity is a contact force.

Answer

Answer: False


7. Muscular force is also known as contact force.

Answer

Answer: True


8. Pascal is the unit of force.

Answer

Answer: False


9. To move an object faster it has to be pushed or pulled repeatedly.

Answer

Answer: True


10. Magnitude is the strength of force.

Answer

Answer: True


11. Force can change the shape of an object.

Answer

Answer: True


12. At least two objects must interact for a force to come into play.

Answer

Answer: True


13. Magnetic force is a non-contact force.

Answer

Answer: True


14. An apple from a tree falls on the ground due to the force of gravity.

Answer

Answer: True


15. Newton is the unit of force.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Force and Pressure with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Force and Pressure CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 8 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers

Fibre to Fabric Class 6 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fibre to Fabric Class 6 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 6 Chapter 3 MCQs On Fibre to Fabric

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Fibre To Fabric Class 6 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following is a synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
All of these fibres are man-made.


Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 2.
Which is a natural fibre?
(a) Silk
(b) Nylon
(c) Rayon
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Silk
Explanation:
Only silk is natural.


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Question 3.
The clothes are made up of thinner and thinner strands called
(a) yam
(b) thread
(c) fibre
(d) fabric

Answer

Answer: (c) fibre
Explanation:
Fibre is thinnest unit of fabric.


Fibre To Fabric Class 6 MCQ Question 4.
Separation of fibres of cotton from its seeds is known as
(a) weaving
(b) spinning
(c) knitting
(d) ginning

Answer

Answer: (d) ginning
Explanation:
Cotton fibres are separated from seeds by combing and the process is called ginning.


MCQ On Fibre To Fabric Class 6 Question 5.
Jute fibres are obtaine from
(a) stem of jute plant
(b) seeds of jute plant
(c) fruit covering of jute plant
(d) roots of jute plant

Answer

Answer: (a) stem of jute plant
Explanation:
Jute fibres are obtained from the stem of jute plant.


Ncert Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 6.
Number of yams used to make fabric by weaving and knitting are
(a) two sets of yams in each case
(b) single yam in each case
(c) two sets of yams in weaving and single in knitting
(d) single yam in weaving and two sets in knitting

Answer

Answer: (c) two sets of yams in weaving and single in knitting
Explanation:
In weaving two sets of yam are arranged while knitting is done by a single yam.


Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Weaving of fabric is done in
(a) handlooms
(b) power looms
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) takli

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Weaving is done both in handlooms and power looms.


Class 6 Fibre To Fabric MCQ Question 8.
Which one is spinning device?
(a) Takli
(b) Loom
(c) Charkha
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
In looms, fabric is woven; while by takli and charkha, yam is made.


Fiber To Fabric Class 6 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is a plant fibre?
(a) Wool
(b) Silk
(c) Cotton
(d) Nylon

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton
Explanation:
Cotton is a plant fibre.


Class 6 Science Ch 3 MCQ Question 10.
The right time to cut jute plants is
(a) matured stage
(b) before flowering stage
(c) flowering stage
(d) any time after flowering

Answer

Answer: (c) flowering stage
Explanation:
Jute plants are usually cut at the flowering stage.


Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column B.

Column A Column B
(a) Jute is obtained from (i) Charkha
(b) Fibre from retted jute are extracted by (ii) Sliver
(c) Separation of fibres from jute stem (iii) Bales
(d) Compressed bundles of cotton (iv) Retting
(e) Cotton is collected from cotton plants by (v) Hand picking
(f) Separation of cotton from seeds (vi) Silk and wool
(g)Loose rope of cotton fibres (vii) Stem of‘putson’
(h) Animal fibres (viii) Hands with jerks and pulls
(i) Suitable for wearing in kitchen (ix) Ginning
(j) Used to spin yams (x) Cotton clothes
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Jute is obtained from (vii) Stem of ‘putson’
(b) Fibre from retted jute is extracted by (viii) Hands with jerks and pulls
(c) Separation of fibres from jute stem (iv) Retting
(d) Compressed bundles of cotton (iii) Bales
(e) Cotton is collected from cotton plants by (v) Hand picking
(f) Separation of cotton from seeds (ix) Ginning
(g) Loose rope of cotton fibres (ii) Sliver
(h) Animal fibres (vi) Silk and wool
(i) Suitable for wearing in kitchen (x) Cotton clothes
(j) Used to spin yams (i) Charkha

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Clothes are made up of …………… .

Answer

Answer: fibres


2. Different clothing materials have ………………. properties.

Answer

Answer: different


3. Cotton plants need…………………. climate.

Answer

Answer: warm


4. Cotton is planted in the ………….. .

Answer

Answer: spring


5. …………… soil is excellent for the cultivation of cotton.

Answer

Answer: Black


6. …………………….. Usually cotton is picked from the plants.

Answer

Answer: hand


7. Separation of cotton fibres from their seeds is called …………….. .

Answer

Answer: ginning


8. A ………………. of cotton is a loose strand of cotton fibres.

Answer

Answer: sliver


9. In villages, the cloth is woven on small scale in …………… .

Answer

Answer: handloom


10. Jute is cultivated in ……………… season.

Answer

Answer: rainy


11. Jute is grown in …………………. soil.

Answer

Answer: alluvial


12. On large scale, cotton clothes are made by machines in ……………. .

Answer

Answer: powerloom


13. Twisting of fibres into yarn increases the ………………. of fibres.

Answer

Answer: cohesion and strength


14. Cotton fibres are obtained from the …………….. of cotton plant.

Answer

Answer: seeds


15. Jute fibre is obtained from the …………………. of jute plant.

Answer

Answer: stem


16. Tightly compressed bundles of cotton are called ……………. .

Answer

Answer: bales


17. The process of getting fibres from the jute stem is called …………… .

Answer

Answer: retting


18. People migrated to colder regions only after the invention of …………… .

Answer

Answer: fire


State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. All the plants have fibres in their body structure.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Cotton is the most important industrial crop.

Answer

Answer: True


3. India was the proud inventor of cotton clothing.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Cotton plants need cold climate.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Alluvial soil is best suited for cotton.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Jute is obtained from the stem of ‘putson’.

Answer

Answer: True


7. Jute fibres are quite strong, 6-8 feet long and have a silky lusture.

Answer

Answer: True


8. Primitive men and women had no idea about clothes.

Answer

Answer: True


9. Type of clothing which we wear is influenced by climate, occupation, culture and daily needs.

Answer

Answer: True


10. Cotton and woollen clothes are smooth to touch.

Answer

Answer: False


11. Clothes are made from threads, and threads, in turn, are spun from fibres,

Answer

Answer: True


12. Coconut fibres are good for making yarn.

Answer

Answer: False


13. Twisting of fibres into yam increases cohesion.

Answer

Answer: True


14. While working in kitchen, we should wear cotton clothes.

Answer

Answer: True


15. Clothes protect us from adverse weather condition.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Fibre to Fabric CBSE Class 6 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 6 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline with Answers

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 17 MCQs On Forests: Our Lifeline

Choose the correct answer:

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a wild animal?
(a) Bear
(b) Bison
(c) Jackal
(d) Goat

Answer

Answer: (d) Goat


Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 MCQ Chapter 17 Question 2.
Which one of the following is an animal product?
(a) Gum
(b) Catechu
(c) Honey
(d) Rubber

Answer

Answer: (c) Honey


Forests Our Lifeline Class 7 MCQ Chapter 17 Question 3.
Roof of the forest made by the branches of the tall trees is called
(a) canopy
(b) crown
(c) understoreys
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) canopy


Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 MCQs Chapter 17 Question 4.
Understoreys are formed due to
(a) different types of crowns
(b) different sizes of crown
(c) different heights of trees
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Question 5.
Decomposers convert the dead plant and animal tissues into
(a) clay
(b) humus
(c) inorganic debris
(d) soil

Answer

Answer: (b) humus


Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Quiz Chapter 17 Question 6.
Arrange the following components of a food chain in proper sequence – grass, frog, eagle, insects, snake.
(a) Grass → insects → frog → snake → eagle.
(b) Grass → snake → insects → frog → eagle.
(c) Grass → snake → eagle → insects → frog.
(d) All are possible

Answer

Answer: (a) Grass → insects → frog → snake → eagle.


MCQ Of Forest Our Lifeline Class 7 Chapter 17 Question 7.
Sequence that represents the series of eating and being eaten is called
(a) food series
(b) food chain
(c) food web
(d) food hub

Answer

Answer: (b) food chain


Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 MCQ Chapter 17 Question 8.
Which one of the following is a role of forests?
(a) Provide food, shelter, water and medicines
(b) Prevent soil erosion
(c) Prevent flood
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Class 7 Forest Our Lifeline MCQ Chapter 17 Question 9.
Which among the following forest animals is the smallest?
(a) Fox
(b) Boar
(c) Bison
(d) Porcupine

Answer

Answer: (d) Porcupine


Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 17 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is not the name of a tree?
(a) Teak
(b) Sal
(c) Porcupine
(d) Kachnar

Answer

Answer: (c) Porcupine


Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Micro-organisms act upon the dead plant to produce (a) vulture
(ii) Scavenger (b) canopy
(iii) Help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to growing plants (c) food web
(iv) Roof of the forest made by the branches of tall trees (d) forest protect
(v) Number of food chain (e) autotrophs
(vi) Soil erosion (f) purifier of air and water
(vii) Green plants (g) saprotrophs
(viii) A forest acts as (h) humus
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Micro-organisms act upon the dead plant to produce (h) humus
(ii) Scavenger (a) vulture
(iii) Help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to growing plants (g) saprotrophs
(iv) Roof of the forest made by the branches of tall trees (b) canopy
(v) Number of food chain (c) food web
(vi) Soil erosion (d) forest protect
(vii) Green plants (e) autotrophs
(viii) A forest acts as (f) purifier of air and water

Fill in the blanks:

1. In a forest, trees form the uppermost layer, followed by ………………. The ………………. form the lowest layer of vegetation.

Answer

Answer: shrubs, herbs


2. Different layers of vegetation provide ………………. and ………………. for animals.

Answer

Answer: food, shelter


3. The forest keeps on ………………. and ………………. and can ……………….

Answer

Answer: growing, changing, regenerate


4. Forests protect the ………………. from erosion.

Answer

Answer: soil


5. ………………. helps forests to grow and regenerate.

Answer

Answer: Soil


6. Branchy part of a tree above the stem is known as the ………………. of the tree.

Answer

Answer: crown


7. Plants release ………………. through the process of photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: oxygen


8. Microorganisms convert dead animal and plant tissues into a dark-coloured substance called ………………. .

Answer

Answer: humus


Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. We get various useful products from the forests surrounding us.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Forest is a system comprising various plants, animals and microorganisms.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Forests must be cleared to make the human life safe and comfortable.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Different layers of vegetation provide food and shelter for animals, birds and insects.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Plants release carbon dioxide in the process of photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: False


6. The various components of the forest are interdependent on one another.

Answer

Answer: True


7. In the forest there is interaction between soil, water, air, and living organisms.

Answer

Answer: True


8. Forests are the lifeline for the forest-dwelling communities.

Answer

Answer: True


9. Forests are the result of hard working of ancient people who have planted most of the forests.

Answer

Answer: False


10. Forests influence climate, water cycle and air quality.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Forests: Our Lifeline CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects with Answers

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Class 7 Science Chapter 14 MCQ With Answers

Science Class 7 Chapter 14 MCQs On Electric Current and Its Effects

Choose the correct answer:

Electric Current And Its Effects Class 7 MCQ Question 1.
In making a battery
(a) positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell
(b) positive terminal of one cell is connected to the positive terminal of the next cell
(c) negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell


Class 7 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 2.
Where can the key or switch be placed in the circuit?
(a) Left side of the battery
(b) Right side of the battery
(c) Can be placed anywhere in the circuit
(d) Near the positive terminal of the bulb

Answer

Answer: (c) Can be placed anywhere in the circuit


Class 7 Electric Current And Its Effects MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following is based on the heating effect of current?
(a) Geyser
(b) Hair dryer
(c) Immersion rod
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Electric Current And Its Effects Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
The coil of wire contained in an electric heater is known as
(a) component
(b) element
(c) circuit
(d) spring

Answer

Answer: (b) element


MCQ On Electric Current And Its Effects Class 7 Question 5.
The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on
(a) material
(b) length
(c) thickness
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 6.
Which mark is necessary on electric appliances?
(a) AGMARK
(b) ISI
(c) FICCI
(d) KSK

Answer

Answer: (b) ISI


Class 7 Science Ch 14 MCQ Question 7.
When an electric current flows through a copper wire AB as shown in Figure, the wire
Class 7 Science Ch 14 MCQ
(a) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it
(b) becomes red hot
(c) gives electric shock
(d) behaves like a fuse

Answer

Answer: (a) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Question 8.
Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse.
(a) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings.
(b) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the electric circuits.
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits.
(d) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if current exceeds the safe limit.

Answer

Answer: (c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits.


Electricity Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
When a switch is in OFF position.
(i) circuit starting from the positive terminal of the cell stops at the switch.
(ii) circuit is open.
(iii) no current flows through it.
(iv) current flows after some time.
Choose the combination of correct answer from the following:
(a) all are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) only (iv) is correct
(d) only (i) and (ii) are correct

Answer

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii) are correct


Electric Current And Its Effects MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following precautions need not be taken while using electric gadgets / appliances/circuit?
(a) We should never touch a lighted electric bulb connected to the mains.
(b) We should never experiment with the electric supply from the mains or a generator or an inverter.
(c) We should never use just any wire or strip of metal in place of a fuse.
(d) We should never turn the switch in ON position.

Answer

Answer: (d) We should never turn the switch in ON position.


Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Switch (a) Coil of wire which heats up when electricity current is supplied
(ii) Battery (b) Blows off, if the current exceeds safe limit
(iii) Element (c) Consumes less energy than a bulb
(iv) Filament (d) Mark that ensures that the electric appliance is safe to handle
(v) Fuse (e) Supplies current to the circuit
(vi) MCBs (f) Turns the circuit ON and OFF
(vii) CFL (g) Turn OFF if current exceeds safe limit
(viii) ISI (h) Wire in the bulb which glows
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Switch (f) Turns the circuit ON and OFF
(ii) Battery (e) Supplies current to the circuit
(iii) Element (a) Coil of wire which heats up when electricity current is supplied
(iv) Filament (h) Wire in the bulb which glows
(v) Fuse (b) Blows off, if the current exceeds safe limit
(vi) MCBs (g) Turn OFF if current exceeds safe limit
(vii) CFL (c) Consumes less energy than a bulb
(viii) ISI (d) Mark that ensures that the electric appliance is safe to handle

Fill in the blanks:

1. Our body is a ………………….. of electricity.

Answer

Answer: conductor


2. An electric cell produces electricity from the ………………….. in it.

Answer

Answer: chemicals stored


3. In an electric circuit a fuse is a ………………….. to prevent possible fire.

Answer

Answer: safety device


4. A combination of two or more cells is called a ………………….. .

Answer

Answer: battery


5. The coil of wire in an electric heater is called an ………………….. .

Answer

Answer: element


6. A ………………….. is a safety device which prevents damages to electrical circuits and possible fires.

Answer

Answer: fuse


7. The wire gets ………………….. when an electric current passes through it.

Answer

Answer: hot


8. We must look for ………………….. mark on electrical appliances.

Answer

Answer: ISI


9. When electric current passes through a wire, it behaves like a magnet. It is the ………………….. effect of current.

Answer

Answer: magnetic


10. Crane has a strong ………………….. attached to it.

Answer

Answer: electromagnet


Choose the true and false statements from the following:

1. It is convenient to represent electric components by symbols.

Answer

Answer: True


2. A connecting wire is symbolized by a zig-zag line in the circuit diagram.

Answer

Answer: False


3. When an electric current flows through a wire, the wire gets heated.

Answer

Answer: True


4. The key or switch can be placed anywhere in the circuit.

Answer

Answer: True


5. The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on its material, length and thickness.

Answer

Answer: True


6. CFLs consume more electricity than ordinary bulbs.

Answer

Answer: False


7. For different requirements, the wires of different materials, different lengths and thicknesses are used.

Answer

Answer: True


8. A fuse is used to save energy in electrical circuits.

Answer

Answer: False


9. MCBs are the switches which automatically turn off when current in a circuit exceeds the safe limit.

Answer

Answer: True


10. When an electric current flows through a wire, it behaves like a magnet.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 14 Electric Current and Its Effects with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Electric Current and Its Effects CBSE Class 7 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Class 7 Science MCQ:

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Life Processes

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity wilL be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
Answer:
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars

Explanation: The process of digestion begins in the mouth. The mouth contains a digestive enzyme, salivary amylase. This enzyme breaks the starch molecules in the food, into maltose. The absence of amylase in the saliva thus affects the breakdown of starch into simpler sugar molecules.

Class 10 Life Processes MCQ Question 2.
In the excretory system of human beings, some substances in the initial filtrate such as glucose, amino acids, salts and water are selectively reabsorbed in:
(a) Urethra
(b) Nephron
(c) Ureter
(d) Urinary bladder
Answer:
(b) Nephron.

Explanation: A nephron is a filtering unit present in kidney. It has different parts like Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and tubuLar region (Renal tubule). Glucose, amino acids and salts are selectively reabsorbed in tubular region.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Processes MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) Oesophagus
Answer:
(b) Small intestine

Explanation: Bile is secreted by the liver and is stored in the gall bladder from where it enters the small intestine via a common duct.

Related Theory
It performs two functions:

  1. makes the food alkaline.
  2. breaks the fats present in food into small globules by the process of emulsification.

MCQ On Life Processes Class 10 Question 4.
Pseudopodia are:
(a) small hair-like structures present on unicellular organisms.
(b) false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
(c) long, tube-like structures coming out of the mouth.
(d) suckers which are attached to the walls of the intestines.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 5.
A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour. This indicates that the rice water contains:
(a) Complex proteins
(b) Simple proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Starch
Answer:
(d) Starch

Explanation: Iodine solution is often used for testing the presence of starch in the food particles. When iodine is added to starch, it turns blue-black. Rice water contains starch, hence when iodine solution is added to rice water it turns blue-black.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

MCQ Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 6.
which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
Answer:

Class 10 Life Process MCQ Question 7.
Anaerobic process:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.
(b) takes place in the presence of oxygen.
(c) produces only energy in the muscles of human beings.
(d) produces ethanol, oxygen and energy.
Answer:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.

Explanation: (a) Anaerobic respiration (in absence of oxygen) in yeast is known as fermentation as ethanol (alcohol) carbon dioxide and 2 ATP molecules of energy is produced from glucose.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 1
carbon dioxide + 2 ATP molecules of energy
(b) Aerobic respiration takes place in presence of oxygen and anaerobic in absence of oxygen.
(c) In muscles of human beings: Lack of oxygen or absence of oxygen results into the formation of lactic acid and very less amount of energy.
(d) Ethanol and carbon dioxide are produced. Energy is neither produced nor released.

MCQ Life Processes Class 10 Question 8.
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing Lime water, the lime water turns milky due to the presence of
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Water vapour
Answer:

Ch 6 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the:
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) stomach
(d) large intestine
Answer:
(a) small intestine.

Explanation: Small intestine receives juices from liver, pancreas and walls of small intestine. Bite juice from liver emulsifies the fats and makes the medium alkaline. Pancreas and small intestine juices contain amylase, lipase and tryspin.

The function of these enzymes ore:
Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ

Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the foL[owing statement (s) is (are) true about respiration?
(I) During inhalation ribs move inward and the diaphragm is raised.
(II) In the alveoli, the exchange of gases takes place i.e. oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into bLood and carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveolar air.
(III) Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(IV)Atveoti increases surface area for the exchange of gases.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Lungs
(b) Nasal passage → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Alveoli
(c) Larynx → Nostrils → Pharynx → Lungs
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli
Answer:
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Process Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
During respiration, the exchange of gases take place in:
(a) Trachea and Larynx
(b) Alveoli of lungs
(c) Alveoli and throat
(d) Throat and larynx
Answer:

MCQs Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 13.
Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is exhibited by:
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) whale, dolphin, turtle
Answer:
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas

Explanation: Fishes have two-chambered heart and exhibit single circulation, while three-chambered heart of amphibians and reptiles and four-chambered heart of birds and mammals exhibit double circulation.

MCQs On Life Processes Class 10 Question 14.
In which of the following vertebrate group/ groups, does heart not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
Answer:
(d) Pisces only

Explanation: Fishes have only two-chambered heart and the blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to the rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood.

Class 10 Science Life Process MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect:
(a) They synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
Answer:
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight Explanation: Autotrophs obtain the required carbon and energy requirements from carbon dioxide and Sunlight. They combine carbon dioxide and water to form carbohydrates.

Question 16.
Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) Water
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Glucose
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 17.
The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Water
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in carbon dioxide. When the oxygenated blood passes through the capillaries of the tissue, it gives oxygen to the body cells and takes carbon dioxide, produced during cellular respiration. Thus, it becomes richer in carbon dioxide.

Question 18.
The xylem in plants are responsible for:
(a) Transport of water
(b) Transport of food
(c) Transport of amino acids
(d) Transport of oxygen
Answer:
(a) Transport of water
Explanation: Xylem tissues include tracheids, vessels, fibres and parenchyma and serve in the ascent of sap/water and minerals.

Related Theory
Phloem tissues comprised of four elements: sieve, companion cell, phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma. They serve in the translocation of organic nutrients.

Question 19.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Organisms grow with time.
(b) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure.
(c) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells.
(d) Energy is essential for life processes.
Answer:

Question 20.
The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:
(a) Glycogen
(b) Protein
(c) Starch
(d) Fatty acid
Answer:
(c) Starch

Explanation: The food prepared in the plant (autotrophs) by the process of photosynthesis is glucose that gets stored in various plant parts in the form of starch.

The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 21.
Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Answer:

Question 22.
Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen:
(I) Proteins
(II) Nitrates and Nitrites
(III) Urea
(IV) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 23.
The doctor measured Ravi’s blood pressure and said it is normal now. The range of Ravi’s blood pressure (systolic/diastolic) is likely to be:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg
(b) \(\frac{160}{80}\) mm of Hg
(c) \(\frac{120}{60}\) mm of Hg
(d) \(\frac{180}{80}\) mm of Hg
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg

Explanation: Blood pressure is denoted by two values: one value is above and the other value
is below. The value that is above is the systolic pressure and the one that is below is the diastolic pressure. A normal individual should maintain a systolic/diastolic pressure of \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg.

Related Theory
Blood pressure is the force applied by the blood against the walls of the arteries. The blood pressure is of two types – systolic and diastolic. The blood pressure of a normal individual is 120/80 mm ofHg. If a person has less blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have low blood pressure.

If a person has more blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have high blood pressure.

Question 24.
If the structure marked X in the diagram given below is blocked, then which of the processes will not occur?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 3
(a) Transpiration and respiration
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration
(c) Respiration, transpiration and transportation
(d) Respiration and photosynthesis [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration Explanation: Here, the structure marked as X is stomata.
Stomata are responsible for gaseous exchange in the plant. If they are blocked, the gaseous exchange will not take place.

Hence, the two important processes of the plant: photosynthesis and respiration do not take place. Stomata are also responsible for removing extra water present in the plants.

Hence, if blocked, the process of transpiration will also be affected.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 25.
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect about transport in plants:
(I) The transport in the xylem is achieved by utilizing energy.
(II) Transpiration helps in the absorption of water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.
(III) The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis occurs in the phloem.
(IV) Besides water, the xylem also transports amino acids and other substances.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Transport of water and minerals in xylem takes place by the process of osmosis due to difference in ionic concentration in the soil and inside the root. Transpiration pull helps in the absorption of water to the taller parts of a plant during the daytime when the stomata are open. The phloem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis, amino acids and some other substances.

Question 26.
Which of the following statements are incorrect about aerobic respiration?
(I) The first step is the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate.
(II) Glucose is a six-carbon molecule and pyruvate is a three-carbon molecule.
(III) The breakdown of glucose take place in the mitochondria.
(IV) The breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the cytoplasm.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 27.
A student noted the differences between blood and lymph in the following table. Select the row containing correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 4
Answer:
(d) Blood: It flows through blood capillaries: Lymph: It flows through arteries

Explanation: Lymph drains into Lymph capillaries from the intercellular spaces which join to form large lymph vessels that finally open into larger veins.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 28.
Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below.
Waste products in plants:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.
(b) Are stored in leaves that fall off.
(c) Are stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem.
(d) Are excreted into the soil around them.
Answer:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.

Question 29.
Which of the following part of the human excretory system is under nervous control?
(a) Ureters
(b) Urethra
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) Collecting duct
Answer:
(c) Urinary bladder

Explanation: The urinary bladder is a muscular structure that stores the urine until we get the urge to urinate. It is under nervous control.

Question 30.
In humans, the oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the:
(a) Left atrium.
(b) Right atrium
(c) Left ventricle
(d) Right ventricle
Answer:

Question 31.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The arteries have thick, elastic walls
(b) The veins have thin walls
(c) Veins have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
Answer:
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.

Explanation: Arteries do not have any valves as they carry blood away from the heart. They have thick and elastic walls as they bLood is under high pressure. Veins have valves to ensure that the blood flows in one direction only.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 6

For the following questions two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Transpiration cools leaf surface.
Reason (R): Transpiration helps in translocation of sugar in plants. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: Transpiration is the process by which plants lose extra water off their surface with the help of the stomata of the Leaves. The plants usually lose water during very hot season. As a result, the temperature of the plant decreases and it cools down. However, transpiration does not help in translocation of food in the plants. Therefore, the assertion is true but the reason accompanied is false.

Related Theory
Transpiration is an important plant process. The three important tasks that are accomplished due to transpiration are:

  1. Decrease in temperature of the plant: When the plants lose water, the temperature of the plant’s decreases and therefore, the plants cool down.
  2. Transpirational pull: When plants lose water, an empty space is created in the plants. As a result, the minerals and water from the root are pulled up. This process is called transpirational pull.
  3. Plant turgidity: Transpiration helps plants in maintaining the turgidity of the plants.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The leaves which are partly green and partly white are called variegated leaves.
Reason (R): The green part of such a leaf contains chlorophyll but the writing part does not contain chlorophyll.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Human beings have a complex respiratory system.
Reason (R): Human skin is impermeable to gases.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Explanation: Human skin is impermeable to gas to minimise the loss of water from the skin.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason (R): Green plants can absorb the energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves.
Answer:
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: All the green plants are called autotrophs. This is due to the fact that the green plants make their own food from very simple substances like carbon dioxide and water that is present in the surroundings.

The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it to into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Hydrochloric acid secreted in the stomach makes an acidic medium for the action of the enzyme pepsin.
Reason (R): Bile juice from liver will make the medium alkaline in the small intestine for the panereatic juices to act.
Answer:

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R): Stomatal pores are the site for an exchange of gases by diffusion.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Related Theory:
Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves of plants are called stomata. Each stomatal pore is surrounded by a pair of guard cells.

When water flows into the guard cells, they swell, become curved and cause the pore to open. Similarly when the guard cells lose water, they shrink and the stomatal pore closes.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Respiration is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Respiration is processes in which glucose combines with oxygen and decompose to carbon dioxide and water this reaction also release some energy.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The inner lining of the small intestine does not have numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R): The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: The inner lining of the small intestine have numerous finger-like projections called villi and these villi increase the surface area for absorption. Thus A is false, but R is true.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Oxygenated blood flows in the pulmonary artery.
Reason (R): Arteries have a narrow lumen.
Answer:

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.
Reason (R): Maximum absorption of glucose takes place in the large intestine.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.

Explanation: Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules and its maximum absorption takes place in the small intestine. Thus A is true, but R is false

(Competency-Based Questions)

Question 1.
Gargi loved eating sugar candies. So, whenever she went to local melas or school trips, she would have only sugar candies.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 5
Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Cellulase
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Answer:
(c) Amylase

Explanation: Food digestion process begins in the mouth. Mouth contains salivary gLands that secrete saliva. Saliva contains an important enzyme known as salivary amylase that breaks down starch into simple sugars. Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme. Stomach contains gastric glands that secrete mucus, hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 2.
Raima joined aerobics classes in her neighbourhood along with her friend. On the very first day, her instructor told them to always do these exercises in a well-ventilated room. She later found out the reason why her instructor had said so
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 6

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
(a) It takes place In presence oxygen It takes place in of absence of oxygen
(b) end products are carbon dioxide and water and energy End products are carbon dioxide, energy
(c) Large amount of energy is released Less amount of energy is released
(d) It takes Place in muscles cells It takes place in Mitochondria yeast and human

Question 3.
Why do we need carbohydrates in our diet? Carbohydrates are our body’s main source of energy. They help fuel the brain, kidneys, heart muscles, and central nervous system. For instance, fibre is a carbohydrate that aids in digestion, helps one feel full, and keeps blood cholesterol levels in check. Some of the food items rich in carbohydrates are Breads, grains, and pasta, Nuts and Legumes, Starchy Vegetables, Milk and yogurts, Fruits and Snack Foods.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 7
What happens during digestion of carbohydrates?
(a) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(b) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
(c) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(d) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
Answer:
(c) Specific enzymes breakdown carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose. Explanation: The digestion of food is the break down of complex food substances by the enzymes secreted by various parts of the digestive system. Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands and act on specific targets.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
Table A (Blood glucose chart)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 8
Table B (Blood Report of Patient X and Y)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 9
(A) Refer to Table B showing the blood report of the levels of glucose of patients X and Y. Infer the disease which can be diagnosed from the given data.
Answer:
Diabetes

(B) Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the above disease.
Answer:

(C) Which one of the following diets would you recommended to the affected patient?
(a) High sugar and low fat diet.
(b) Low sugar and high protein diet.
(c) High Fat and low fiber diet.
(d) Low sugar and high fiber diet.
Answer:
(d) low sugar high fibre diet

(D) Refer to Table A and suggest the value of the mean blood glucose level beyond which doctor’s advice is necessary:
(a) 180 mg/dL
(b) 115 mg/dL
(c) 50 mg/dL
(d) 80 mg/dL
Answer:
180 mg/dL

Question 5.
Kidneys are vital organs for survival. In case of kidney failure an artificial kidney can be used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
(A) What are the functions of kidneys?
Answer:
The functions of kidneys are:
(1) To remove nitrogenous waste from the blood.
(2) To maintain salt and water balance in the body.

(B) Name the filtration units present in kidneys.
Answer:
The filtration units present in the kidneys are nephrons.

(C) What is the excretory product removed by kidneys from blood?
Answer:

(D) Name two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood.
Answer:
Two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood are glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water. (Any two)

Related Theory:
Bowman’s capsules of nephrons acts as ultra filters. Blood flows inside the glomerular capillaries under pressure and water with dissolved molecules from blood plasma diffuses out into Bowman’s capsule. The fluid collected in the Bowman’s capsule as a result of ultrafiltration is called nephric filtrate.

Question 6.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 10
Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the thin-walled upper chamber of the heart on the left, the left atrium. The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood. It then contracts, while the next chamber, the left ventricle, expands, so that the blood is transferred to it. When the muscular left ventricle contracts in its turn, the blood is pumped out to the body. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the upper chamber on the right, the right atrium, as it expands. As the right atrium contracts, the corresponding lower chamber, the right ventricle, dilates. This transfers blood to the right ventricle, which in turn pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.

Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs, they have thicker muscular walls than the atria do. Valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract.
(A) Name the organs of the circulatory system in human.
Answer:
The various organs of the circulatory system in humans are: heart, arteries, veins and capillaries.

(B) Name the red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood.
Answer:
The red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood is Haemoglobin.

(C) How many chambers are there in the heart of an amphibian?
Answer:

(D) Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
Answer:
It is necessary to separate the oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood as mammals and birds have high energy needs because they constantly require energy to maintain their body temperature.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 7.
The haemoglobin level is expressed as the amount of haemoglobin in grams (g) per deciliter (di) of whole blood, a deciliter being 100 milliliters. The normal ranges for hemoglobin depend on the age and, beginning in adolescence, the gender of the person. The normal ranges are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 11
Based on the above table answer the following questions
(A) What does o Low haemoglobin Level mean?
Answer:
A low haemoglobin level is rererred to as anemia or low red blood count.

Explanation: A lower than normal number of red blood ceLls is referred to as anaemia and hemoglobin evets reflect this number.

(B) How is oxygen transported in human beings?
Answer:
Transport of oxygen: Hoemoglobin present in the red blood corpuscles takes up the oxygen from the oir in the lungs. It carries the oxygen to tissues which are deficient in oxygen before releasing it.

(C) Respiratory pigment in human body is
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Water
(c) Blood
(d) Haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) Haemoglobin

Explanation: Respiratory pigment in human body is haemoglobin.

(D) Which of the following is an important component of haemoglobin?
(a) Iron
(b) Sodium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 8.
Two students performed the following activities to understand the conditions necessary for photosynthesis.
The first student took a potted plant with variegated leaves – for example, money plant or crotons. He first kept the plant in a dark room for three days and then kept it in sunlight for about six hours. He plucked a leaf from the plant and marked the green areas in it and traced them on a sheet of paper. He then dipped the leaf in boiling water for a few minutes. After this, he immersed it in a beaker containing alcohol and carefully placed the above beaker in a water-bath and heated till the alcohol began to boil.

He dipped the leaf in a dilute solution of iodine for a few minutes, then took out the leaf and rinsed off the iodine solution. He based his conclusions by observing the colour of the leaf and comparing this with the tracing of the leaf done in the beginning.

The second student took two healthy potted plants which were nearly the same size and kept them in a dark room for three days. He then placed each plant on separate glass plates. He placed a watch-glass containing potassium hydroxide by the side of one of the plants and covered both plants with separate bell-jars as shown in Fig. below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 12
He used vaseline to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates so that the set-up is air¬tight and kept the plants in sunlight for about two hours. He then plucked a leaf from each plant and checked for the presence of starch as in the first activity.

(A) The first student noted down the following changes in colour of leaf and colour of alcohol solution after dipping
the Ipaf in boiling alcohol. Select the correct observation:

Colour of Leaf Colour of Alcohol Solution
(a) Leaf becomes colourless No change in colour
(b) No change in colour No change in colour
(c) Leaf becomes colourless Alcohol solution turns green
(d) No change in colour Alcohol solution turns green

Answer:
(c) Colour of leaf: Leaf becomes colourless; Colour of alcohol solution: Alcohol solution turns green Explanation: The green leaf becomes colourless because on immersing green leaf in alcohol, chlorophyll responsible for its green colour gets dissolved in alcohol. The colour of the alcohol solution therefore turns green.

(B) The second student placed a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar.
(b) Potassium hydroxide absorbs moisture present in the bell jar.
(c) Potassium hydroxide absorbs oxygen gas present in the hell jar.
(d) Potassium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide gas to form a compound.
Answer:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. Explanation: As the student wants to show that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis, he sealed both the bell jars with vaseline and placed potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. The plant in this bell jar will not be able to perform photosynthesis as carbon dioxide has been removed from the bell jar.

(C) Given below are four statements regarding the conclusions of the activities performed by the two students:
(I) The first student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(II) The first student concluded that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
(III) The second student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(IV) The second student that water is essential for photosynthesis.
Select the correct statement(s):
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Select the incorrect statement:
When the decolorized leaf is dipped in iodine solution by the first student, he observes that:
(a) There are two color regions in the leaf which are reddish brown and blue-black.
(b) The earlier green parts of the leaf turned blue black
(c) The earlier yellow turned reddish brown.
(d) The entire leaf turned blue-black.
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statement:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch
(b) The second student used tape to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates.
(c) Both the students first dipped the leaves in boiling alcohol to kill a leaf and stop chemical reactions occurring in it.
(d) Plants are kept in the dark for three days to remove all the chlorophyll from the leaves.
Answer:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch

Explanation: In the first set up availability of C02 will be less for making starch by the plant leaves, as potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs the CO2. In second plant setup, the leaves will have more amount of starch. So. the amount of starch wilt be different in the two leaves.

Question 9.
In the first activity, a student Rudra took some freshly prepared lime water in two test tubes marked A and & He blew air through the lime water in test tube A. He then used a syringe or pichkari and passed air through the fresh lime water in test tube B.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 13
In the second activity, another student Siya took some fruit juice or sugar solution and took this mixture in a test tube fitted with a one-holed cork and fitted the cork with ci bent glass rube. She dipped the free end of the glass tube into a test tube containing freshly prepared time water.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 14
(A) Ridra recorded his observations below.
Select the correct observation.

Test Tube A Test Tube B
(a) No change observed Lime water turned milky immediately
(b) Lime water turned milky immediately No change observed
(c) Lime water turned milky immediately Lime water turned milky after a Long time
(d) Lime water turned milky after a Long time Lime water turned milky immediately

Answer:
(c) Test Tube A: Lime water turned milky immediately; Test Tube B: Lime water turned milky after a long time

Explanation: Lime water turns milky when carbon dioxide gas is passed through it as a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed when lime water (calcium hydroxide) reacts with carbon dioxide gas. Lime water turns milky in test tube A as the exhaled air is rich in carbon dioxide. Whereas, lime water takes a lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as the amount of carbon dioxide present in atmesphereic air is very less as compared to exhaled air and hence carbon dioxide is produced after a long time.

(B) Select the incorrect observation from the statements given below:
(I) The amount of carbon dioxide in atmospheric oir and exhaled air are equal
(II) Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to atmospheric air.
(III) Atmospheric air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to exhaled air.
(IV)Lime water turned milky immediately in both the test tubes A and B.
(a) Both (I) and (IV)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I), (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The amount of carbon dioxide is more in exhaled air and very less in the atmosphere. The lime water turns milky immediately in test tube A as the exhaled air contains large amount of carbon dioxide gas whereas it takes lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as fermentation by yeast is a very slow process.

(C) In the second activity, Siya observed that:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time
(b) Lime water in the test tube turned milky immediately
(c) No change observed in the coLour of Lime water
(d) Lime water in the test tube turned blue black
Answer:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time

Explanation: The lime water becomes milky after some time as carbon dioxide is produced as a result of fermentation of sugar on mixing yeast. The other product formed is alcohol.

(D) Setect the correct statement:
It can be concluded that:
(a) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of digestion of food in the first activity.
(b) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(c) Oxygen is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(d) Lactic acid is produced as a resuLt of anaerobic respiration in the second activity.
Answer:

(E) The products of fermentation in yeast are:
(a) Carbon dioxide and energy
(b) Lactic acid and energy
(c) Ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy
(d) Water, carbon dioxide and energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 10.
The unfolding COVID-19 pandemic has led to a global crisis which threatens to become a health, economic and humanitarian disaster. COVID-19 or COronaVIrus Disease 2019 is the term used by the WHO to refer to disease caused by this virus. The virus was also called 2019-nCoV (or 2019 novel CoronaVirus) prior to being official named by the WHO. COVID-19 is predominantly a respiratory disease, with severity ranging from mild to fatal, and transmission mostly from the spread of respiratory droplets. SARS-CoV-2 is transmitted person-to-person, predominantly by respiratory droplet spread and contact, similar to the MERS and SARS corona viruses.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 15
(A) Select the incorrect statement about the COVID-19 disease:
(a) COVID-19 disease is caused by a virus.
(b) It is a respiratory disease
(c) It is transmitted mostly by respiratory droplets.
(d) It can be cured by taking antibiotics.
Answer:

(B) From the statements given below, identify the incorrect cause of the disease:

Respiratory Disease Cause
(a) Tuberculosis Infection of trachea
(b) Emphysema Reduction of gas exchange area of the lungs
(c) Asthma constriction of the bronchi and bronchioles
(d) Pneumoria An infection of the alveoli

Answer:
(a) Respiratory Disease: Tuberculosis;
Cause: Infection of trachea.

Explanation: Tuberculosis is a potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs.The bacteria that cause TB are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

(C) In the respiratory system, an extensive network of blood vessels is present in:
(a) Bronchioles
(b) Alveoli
(c) Trachea
(d) Pharynx
Answer:
(b) Alveoli

Explanation: Within the lungs, the
passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon-like structures which are called alveoli. The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The walls of the alveoli contain an extensive network of blood-vessels.

(D) Given below are four statements about respiration. Identify the correct statement (s).
(I) During inhalation, the chest cavity becomes larger.
(II) Exchange of gases takes place in the bronchioles.
(III) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases.
(IV) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and ill
(d) Both II and IV
Answer:
(c) Both I and III

Explanation: During inhalation of air, our chest cavity or thoracic cavity expands. The exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli, which are balloon like structures in our lungs. These have very thin walls which are richly supplied with blood capillaries. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen and isc arried by blood for oxygen and oxygen is carried by the blood to different parts as oxy haemoglobin, whereas carbon dioxide is transported in dissolved form.

(E) Which one of the following statements is false about the trachea?
(a) It has rings of cartilage
(b) it is covered by epiglottis
(c) It splits into the right and left lungs
(d) It is also called windpipe.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 11.
COVID-19 is a respiratory disease, one that especially reaches into your respiratory tract, which includes your lungs. Now, think of your respiratory tract as an upside-down tree. The trunk is your trachea, or windpipe. It splits into smaller and smaller branches in your lungs. At the end of each branch are tiny air sacs called alveoli. The new coronavirus travels down your airways. The lining can become irritated and inflamed. In some cases, the infection can reach all the way down into your alveoli.
(A) What is the function of alveoli?
(a) This is where SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causesCOVID-19 finally affects.
(b) This is where plasma, proteins and blood cells escapes inthe tissues
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comesout.
(d) Alveoli carries fat and drains excessive fluid back into the blood.
Answer:
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comes out.

Explanation: Alveoli act as the passage gateway for the exchange of the gases between the surroundings and the body.

(B) Your blood oxygen level indicates how much oxygen your red blood cells are carrying. High blood oxygenation plays an essential role in ensuring that your muscles, brain and other organs receive the energy they need to function properly. That’s why it is so important to measure your current level and determine whether it is within an acceptable range.
Why is it important to measure your current oxygen level?
(a) To know how much blood is flowing
(b) To know how much oxygen is flowing in the blood.
(c) To know how your brain is working
(d) To know the heart rate
Answer:

(C) The lungs are the organ most commonly affected by COVID-19. If large parts of the lungs are affected, people struggle to absorb enough oxygen and are admitted to hospital. Another severe effect is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) – also known as “wet lung”. This sees severe inflammation spread quickly throughout the lungs. People who develop this may need mechanical ventilation in an intensive care unit, sometimes for a prolonged period. COVID-19 has a further, unusual effect on the body. Compared to other respiratory viruses, it causes marked clotting in the small blood vessels of the lungs and other organs.
How are the lungs affected by COVID-19?
(A) Blood clotting
(B) Lack of oxygen
(C) Severe inflammation
Now choose the correct option.
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) None of these
(d) A, B and C or either of these
Answer:

(D) Haemoglobin is an iron containing respiratory pigment that carries oxygen through red blood cells. Presence of Haemoglobin gives metallic taste to the blood. Haemoglobin is an intracellular protein which acts as a primary vehicle for transporting 97% of oxygen in the blood.
Which is not true about Haemoglobin?
(a) It is a respiratory pigment.
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(c) it is present in RBCs.
(d) Its deficiency causes anaemia.
Answer:
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation: Haemoglobin has high affinity for carbon dioxide since it forms the coordinate complex between the Fe and C leading to resist the ability of the oxygen to carry the oxygen leading to various respiratory disorders.

(E) In the given picture, “A” represents
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.
(b) Diaphragm which contracts and flattens upon inhalation.
(c) Alveoli where the exchange of gases can take place.
(d) Fine hairs for air filtration.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 16
Answer:
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 12.
Multicellular organisms with small surface area to volume ratios need transport systems. Water and mineral salts are transported through a plant in xylem vessels. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems and flowers. Water is necessary for plants but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism.
The pattern of water uptake and loss by sunflower plant during 24 h is shown in the graph below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 17
The movement of sucrose and other substances like amino acids around a plant is called translocation. Translocation of organic solutes such as sucrose occurs through living phloem sieve tubes. Both xylem vessels and phloem sieve tubes show unique structural features which are adaptations to their roles in transport.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 18
(A) Root pressure is maximum when
(a) Transpiration is very high and absorption is very low
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high
(c) Both transpiration and absorption are very high
(d) Both the absorption and transpiration are very low
Answer:
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high

Explanation: At night, when there is no sunlight, transpiration is very low but the absorption of substances by roots is high.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Cell Vascular Tissue
(a) Vessels Xylem
(b) Sieve tube Xylem
(c) Tracheids Xylem
(d) Companion cell Phloem

Answer:
(b) Cell: Sieve tube: Vascular Tissue: Xylem.

Explanation: Xylem is the conducting tissue for water and minerals and consists of vessels, tracheids and xylem parenchyma. Phloem on the other hand transports the dissolved products of photosynthesis and consists of sieve tubes, phloem parenchyma and companion cells.

(C) Given below are some statements about transport in plants:
(I) Xylem transports water, amino acids and other substances in plants.
(II) Phloem transports soluble products of photosynthesis in plants.
(III) Transpiration helps in absorption of water.
(IV) Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP
Select the correct statement (s):
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Xylem transports water and minerals from the soil to different parts of the plant in upward direction.
PhLoem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis from the leaves to different parts of the plant by using energy from ATP. It also transports amino acids and other substances in plants. Transpiration is the loss of water by the aerial parts of the plant during day time which helps in creating a transpiration pull due to which water moves upward in xylem.

(D) The major driving force in the movement of water from ground to the root during day is:
(a) Osmosis
(b) Imbibition
(c) Transpiration pull
(d) Plasmolysis
Answer:

(E) Water will be absorbed by the root hairs when the external medium is
(a) Isotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Hypotonic
(d) Viscous
Answer:

Question 13.
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for various life processes. Diverse organisms do this in different ways – some use oxygen to break-down glucose completely: some use other pathways that do not involve oxygen.
(A) Name the two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.
(a) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
(b) Respiration and breathing
(c) Fermentation and breathing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration

Explanation: The two ways through which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms is through the aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration occurs during the presence of air., whereas the anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of air.

(B) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are
(I) Presence of oxygen
(II) Release of carbon dioxide
(III) Release of energy
(IV) Release of lactic acid
(a) A and B only
(b) A,B,C only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) D only
Answer:

(C) Fatigue in muscles occurs due to
(a) Aerobic respiration
(b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic fermentation
(d) Breathing
Answer:
(b) Anaerobic respiration

Explanation: In the anaerobic respiration the release of the carborl dioxide takes along with the release of the energy and lactic acid thus fatigue in the muscles occur due to this phenomenon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 20

(D) Break-down of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer:

(E) In humans, however, we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose. This causes formation of:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 19
(a) Ethanol
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Lactic acid
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Lactic acid

Explanation: Lactic acid is formed when we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 14.
Diabetes meilitus, usually caiLed diabetes, is a disease in which your body does not make enough insulin or cannot use normal amounts of insulin properly.

The kidneys play an important role in regulating *glucose homeostasis through utilization of glucose, gluconeogenesis, and glucose reabsorption. Glucose is freely filtered by the glomerulus. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) represents the flow of plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman’s space over a specified period and is the chief measure of kidney function. Under normal conditions, ~ 180 g of glucose are filtered by the kidney each day. More than 99% of this glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule, with < 0.5 g/day excreted in the urine of healthy adults. When the filtered glucose load exceeds the tubular maximum glucose reabsorptive capacity, excess glucose is excreted in the urine.

The physiological relationship between plasma glucose concentration and renal glucose flux (ie, filtration, reabsorption, and excretion) is shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 21
(A) The incorrect conclusion from the graph showing amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys is:
(a) The amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys increases in a linear manner with increasing plasma glucose concentration
(b) Under normal conditions in healthy individuals, nearly all filtered glucose is reabsorbed in the renal tubules
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.
(d) There is a distinct deviation (the “splay”) from this linear relationship as the renal capacity to reabsorb glucose nears saturation.
Answer:
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.

Explanation: The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly until a certain concentration of plasma glucose is present. After the saturation limit of glucose is reached, it does not change.

(B) The excretory system of human beings include
(a) A kidney, a ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(b) A pair of kidneys, a ureter, a pair of urinary bladders, and a urethra
(c) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(d) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a pair of urinary bladders and a urethra
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements) is correct about excretion in human beings?
(I) Kidneys are the primary excretory organs.
(II) Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.
(III) The basic filtration unit in the kidneys is a cluster of very thin- walled blood Capillaries.
(IV) Urine is stored in the urethra until the urge of passing it out.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (III)

Explanation: The only incorrect statement is that urine is stored in the urethra, as urine is actually stored in the urinary bladder, which is a muscular organ and under our nervous control.

(D) The correct function of parts labelled ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the figure below is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 22

Part ‘A’ Part ‘B’
(a) Filtration of blood Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids
(b) Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids Filtration of blood
(c) Reabsorption of hormones from blood Filtration of blood
(d) Collection of urine Reabsorption of glucose,salts and amino acids

Answer:
(a) part ‘A’ : Filtration of blood; part ‘B’ : Reabsorbtion of glucose, Salts and amino acids

Explanation: Part labelled A is the Bowman’s capsule which is a cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney. Fluids from blood in the glomerulus are collected in the Bowman’s capsule and further processed along the nephron to form urine.

Part labelled B is the tubular part of the nephron where some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine along the tube.

(E) The part labelled ‘A’ in the figure above is:
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman’s Capsule
(c) Proximal tubule
(d) Distant convoluted tubule
Answer:

Question 15.
Blood being a fluid connective tissue. Blood consists of fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form. Oxygen is carried by the red blood corpuscles. Many other substances like salts are also transported by the blood. l/l/e thus need a pumping organ to push blood around the body, a network of tubes to reach all the tissues and a system in place to ensure that this network can be repaired if damaged. The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is called blood pressure. This pressure is much greater in arteries than in veins. The pressure of blood inside the artery during ventricular systole (contraction) is called systolic pressure and pressure in artery during ventricular diastole (relaxation) is called diastolic pressure. The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
(A) Blood consists of a fluid medium called as:
(a) Plasma
(b) Red blood corpuscles
(c) White blood corpuscles
(d) Lymph
Answer:
(a) Plasma

Explanation: Blood consists of the 90% water in the form of the ions and the dissolved state known as plasma.

(B) Oxygen is transported in the body by combining with:
(a) Haemoglobin and iron only
(b) Haemoglobin only
(c) Plasma, Haemoglobin and iron
(d) None of these
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 23
Answer:

(C) The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:
(a) Arteries
(b) Veins
(c) Heart
(d) Circulatory system
Answer:
(a) Arteries

The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:

Explanation: Arteries carry the oxygenated blood that is the pure blood to the different parts of the body whereas the deoxygenated blood is carried by the veins from the different body parts back to the heart.

(D) In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood are
(a) 2 and 3 chambered respectively
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively
(c) 4 and 2 chambered respectively
(d) 2 and 2 chambered each
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively

Explanation: In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood is 2 and 4 chambered respectively in human’s two auricles and two ventricles are there for the separation of the oxygenated and the deoxygenated blood.

(E) The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is
(a) More in arteries and less in vein
(b) More in veins and less in arteries.
(c) More in blood capillaries
(d) More in heart
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 24
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 16.
The digestion in stomach is taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus. The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin. The mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions. From the stomach, the food now enters the small intestine. The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act Bile juice from the liver accomplishes this in addition to acting on fats.
(A) In which medium Pepsin and trypsin are active:
(a) basic and acidic medium
(b) acidic and basic medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) sometimes acidic sometimes basic medium
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 25
Answer:
(b) acidic and basic medium

Explanation: Pepsin works in the acidic medium and trypsin works in the basic medium to digest the proteins in stomach and in the intestine respectively.

(B) Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of:
(a) starch in mouth
(b) protein in stomach
(c) fat in stomach
(d) protein in pancreas
Answer:
(b) protein in stomach

Explanation: Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of proteins in the stomach.

(C) The inner lining of the stomach is protected by
(a) enzyme pepsin
(b) mucus
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Muscle
Answer:

(D) Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the information in the graph –
(a) The maximum rate of human digestion occurs at about 45°C.
(b) The maximum rate of human respiration occurs at about 57°C.
(c) Temperature can influence the action of an enzyme.
(d) Growth can be controlled by enzyme
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 26
Answer:

(E) Small Intestine receives the secretions from for complete digestion.
(a) Mouth and Stomach
(b) Stomach and liver
(c) Liver and Pancreas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(C) Liver and Pancreas

Explanation: Small Intestine receives the secretions from the liver and pancreas for complete digestion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name an enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
Answer:
Lipase, Trypsin

Question 2.
If human urine is allowed to stand for sometime, it smells of ammonia, why?
Answer:
Urea present in urine gets decomposed into ammonia by the action of bacteria. So it smells strongly of ammonia.

Related Theory
The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from the blood. Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.

Question 3.
Define parasitic nutrition. Name an organism having parasitic mode of nutrition.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
On what factors does the direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen depend in plants?
Answer:
The direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen in plants depends on the environmental conditions and the requirements of the plant. Carbon dioxide elimination is the major exchange activity at night, whereas oxygen release is the main activity at day time.

Question 5.
What is the role of rings of cartilage present in the throat?
Answer:
The rings of cartilage present ;n the throat ensure that the air passage does not collapse.

Question 6.
What is the role of blood plasma?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
Answer:
Fishes respire with the help of gills. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb oxygen dissolved in water. Since fishes cannot absorb gaseous oxygen, they die soon after they are taken out of water.

Question 8.
What will happen to a plant if its xyiem is removed?
Answer:
If the xyiem of a plant is removed, the upward movement of water and minerals will stop leading to wilting of leaves and ultimately the death of the plant as xyiem is a water¬conducting tissue in plants. It transports water and minerals from the roots to the different parts of the plant.

Question 9.
The pancreas of a person suddenly stopped functioning. How will digestion be affected in such a person?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ: