MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China Class 10 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 2 Question 1.
The founder of the Hoa Hao movement is
(a) Phan Boi Chau
(b) Ho Chi Minh
(c) Huynh Phu So
(d) Phan Chu Jrinh

Answer

Answer: (c) Huynh Phu So


Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Who, among the following, was a member of the French team, who explored Mekong river?
(a) Paul Bernard
(b) Liang Qichao
(c) Nuynh Phu So
(d) Francis Garnier

Answer

Answer: (d) Francis Garnier


Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Who, among the following, was the head of the Revolutionary society formed by Phan Boi Chau?
(a) Prince Cuong De
(b) Phan Boi Chau
(c) Pha Chit Trinh
(d) Liang Qichao

Answer

Answer: (a) Prince Cuong De


History Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Who among the following, wrote the ‘History of the Loss of Vietnam’?
(a) Phan Boi Chau
(b) Liang Quichao When was French Indo-China established?
(c) Phan Chu Trinh
(d) Prince Cuong De

Answer

Answer: (a) Phan Boi Chau


MCQ Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 2 Question 5.
When was French indo – China established?
(a) 1947
(b) 1887
(c) 1888
(d) 1889

Answer

Answer: (b) 1887


The Nationalist Movement In Indo-China MCQ Questions Question 6.
On which factor was the economy of Vietnam based on?
(a) Tea and Rubber Plantation
(b) Rice and Rubber plantation
(c) Rice and wheat Farming
(d) Rice and Tea plantation

Answer

Answer: (b) Rice and Rubber plantation


On which factor was the economy of Vietnam based on?

History Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 7.
Who was the founder of the Vietnamese communist party?
(a) Fhan chu Trinh
(b) Huynh Phu so
(c) Ho chi Minh
(d) Phan Boi chau

Answer

Answer: (c) Ho chi Minh


Ch 2 History Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
A branch of the Restorations society was established in Tokyo by whom?
(a) By teachers
(b) By Industrialist
(c) By students
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) By students


History Chapter 2 MCQ Class 10 Question 9.
Which movement started in against the spread of Christianity by the French.
(a) The Hoa Hao moment
(b) The Liberation movement
(c) The scholars Revolt
(d) Go east movement

Answer

Answer: (c) The scholars Revolt


Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 10
Which of the following Vietnamese women organized a large army to resist the Chinese?
(a) Trieu Au
(b) Nguyen Thi xuan
(c) Trung sisters
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Trung sisters


Ncert Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 11.
What was the changes came to the nature of anti-French Independence Movement in Vietnam?
(a) Total Independence in Vietnam with no French presence.
(b) Setting up a Republic like China in Vietnam
(c) Establishing a democratic republic
(d) Establishing a constitutional monarchy in Vietnam

Answer

Answer: (c) Establishing a democratic republic
Explanation:
After the fall of Chinese monarchy in 1911, the nature of anti-French Independence Movement in Vietnam changed to establishing a democratic republic and not a constitutional monarchy in Vietnam.


History Class 10 Ch 2 MCQ Question 12.
When did the ‘Go East Movement’ was started?
(a) 1907-08
(b) 1906-09
(c) 1903-05
(d) 1909-11

Answer

Answer: (a) 1907-08
Explanation:
Go East Movement’ was started by 300 Vietnamese students in 1907-08 in Japan.


Class 10th History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 13.
Who is the writer of “The History of the Loss of Vietnam”?
(a) Phan Boi Chau
(b) Huynh Phu So
(c) Hoa Hao
(d) Mad Monze

Answer

Answer: (a) Phan Boi Chau
Explanation:
Under Liang Qichao, a Chinese reformer influence Phan Boi Chau had wrote “The History of the Loss of Vietnam”


Cbse Class 10 History Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
Who founded the Hoa Hoa movement?
(a) Huynh Phu So
(b) Hoa Hao
(c) Mad Monze
(d) Phan Boi Chau

Answer

Answer: (a) Huynh Phu So
Explanation:
Hoa Hoa movement founded by Huynh Phu So, in 1939, in the fertile Mekong delta area.


Class 10 Chapter 2 History MCQ Question 15.
In which year the war between Vietnam and the US officially end?
(a) 1974
(b) 1980
(c) 1978
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (a) 1974
Explanation:
In January 1974, in Paris, a peace settlement was signed between both. This ended conflict with the US but fighting between the Saigon regime and the NLF continued.


Question 16.
In which year the major protest was erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School.
(a) 1920
(b) 1926
(c) 1987
(d) 1955

Answer

Answer: (b) 1926
Explanation:
In 1926 a major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School as the expulsion of a Vietnamese girl from the school.


Question 17.
What were the provinces of Nghe An and Ha Tinh called in Vietnam?
(a) Electric current
(b) Electric circuit
(c) Electric fuses
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Electric fuses
Explanation:
In the provinces of Nghe An and Ha Tinh, provinces were among the poorest, had an old radical tradition, and have been called the ‘electrical fuses’ of Vietnam.


Question 18.
How was women shown in magazines and journals in the 1960s?
(a) As housewives
(b) As brave dedicated workers
(c) As illiterates
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) As brave dedicated workers
Explanation:
As brave dedicated, fighters, shooting down planes and also as selfless workers with rifle in one hand and a hammer in the other.


Question 19.
What is napalm?
(a) A chemical bomb
(b) An organic compound
(c) A phosphorous bomb
(d) An atomic bomb

Answer

Answer: (b) An organic compound
Explanation:
An organic compound, used to thicken gasoline, burns slowly and sticks to human body and continues to burn.


Question 20.
Under whom was the Democratic Republic of Vietnam formed?
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(b) The Nguyen king
(c) Bao Dai
(d) Ngo Dinh Diem

Answer

Answer: (a) Ho Chi Minh
Explanation:
The Vietminh fought the Japanese occupation, recaptured Hanoi in 1945, and a Democratic Republic was formed under Ho Chi Minh.


Question 21.
The modern part of Hanoi was struck by which disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Malaria
(c) Bubonic Plague
(d) Typhoid

Answer

Answer: (c) Bubonic Plague
Explanation:
In 1903, the modern part of Hanoi was struck by the disease known as Bubonic Plague. In many colonial countries, measures to control the spread of disease created serious social conflicts.


Question 22.
Explain ordinance 10?
(a) A French law that permitted Christianity but outlawed Buddhism
(b) A Chinese law that permitted Confucianism but outlawed local practices.
(c) A Vietnamese law that permitted Buddhism but outlawed Christianity
(d) A Japanese law that permitted Buddhism but outlawed Hinduism.

Answer

Answer: (a) A French law that permitted Christianity but outlawed Buddhism
Explanation:
Ordinance 10, a French law that permitted Christianity but outlawed Buddhism. His dictatorial rule came to be opposed by a broad opposition united under the banner of the National Liberation Front.


Question 23.
Which one of the following parties was established by Ho Chi Minh in 1930?
(a) Vietnamese Communist Party
(b) The League for the Independence of Vietnam
(c) National Liberation Front
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Vietnamese Communist Party
Explanation:
In February 1930, Ho Chi Minh brought together competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese Communist (Vietnam Cong San Dang) Party, later renamed the Indo-Chinese Communist Party.


Question 24.
Which European country colonised Vietnam?
(a) France
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) England

Answer

Answer: (a) France
Explanation:
France was the European countries to bring the benefits of civilisation to backward peoples and colonised Vietnam.


Question 25.
When was the French Indo-China formed?
(a) 1887
(b) 1880
(c) 1889
(d) 1893

Answer

Answer: (a) 1887
Explanation:
After the Franco-Chinese war the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam and, in 1887, French Indo-China was formed.


When was the French Indo-China formed?

Picture-based Questions:

Look at the following figure (NCERT TB Page 20) and answer the questions that follows.
(i) Identify the picture given below. Who founded it?
(ii) Write one sentence about it.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers 1

Answer

Answer:
(i) The Port of Faifo. This port was founded by the Portuguese merchants.
(ii) It was one of the ports used by European trading companies much before the nineteenth century.


Source-based Questions:

Read the following passage (Source B NCERT TB Page 43) and answer the questions that follow:

Declaration of independence

The declaration of the new republic began by reaffirming the principles of the declaration of independence of the United States in 1771 and of the French Revolution in 1791 but added that the French imperialists do not follow these principles for they ‘have violated our fatherland and oppressed our fellow citizens. They have acted contrary to the ideals of humanity and justice.

‘In the field of politics, they have deprived us of all liberties. They have imposed upon us inhuman laws … They have built more prisons than schools. They have mercilessly slain our patriots; they have drowned our uprisings in rivers of blood. ‘They have fettered public opinion; they have practiced obscurantism against our people … ‘For these reasons, we members of the Provisional Government, representing the entire population of Vietnam, declare that we shall henceforth have no connection with imperialist France; that we abolish all the privileges which the French have arrogated to themselves on our territory …

‘We solemnly proclaim to the entire world: Vietnam has the right to be free and independent, and in fact has become free and independent.’

Questions:
(i) How did the French exploit the Vietnamese?
(ii) Which values are associated with the declaration of independence of the USA in 1776 and of the French Revolution in 1791?

Answer

Answer:
(i) The French exploited the Vietnamese in a number of ways-

  • They deprived them of all liberties.
  • They imposed upon them inhuman laws.
  • They distorted their culture and traditions.
  • They mercilessly killed Vietnamese nationalists and patriots.
  • They suppressed the uprisings iron-handed.

(ii) The values associated with the declaration of independence of the USA and of the French Revolution are-

  • Freedom to express independent opinion
  • Right to live in a humane environment
  • Right to be free and independent
  • Humanity and justice.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China CBSE Class 10 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Dust of Snow Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 1

Dust of Snow Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 1

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 1 Dust of Snow with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Dust of Snow Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-english-with-answers/

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 1 Dust of Snow with Answers

Dust Of Snow MCQ Class 10 Question 1.
What is the name of the poet?
(a) Sylvia Plath
(b) W.B Yeats
(c) Robert Frost
(d) Robert Burns

Answer

Answer: (c) Robert Frost


Dust Of Snow Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
How did the dust of snow affect the poet?
(a) It made him energetic
(b) It changed his mood
(c) It made him superior
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) It changed his mood


How did the dust of snow affect the poet?

MCQ Of Dust Of Snow Class 10 Question 3.
What was the mood of the poet in the beginning of the poem?
(a) Sad mood
(b) Happy mood
(c) Confuse mood
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) Sad mood


Dust Of Snow MCQs Class 10 Question 4.
What did crow shake on the poet?
(a) dust of tree
(b) dust of garden
(c) dust of snow
(d) dust of land

Answer

Answer: (c) dust of snow


Class 10 Dust Of Snow MCQ Question 5.
The crow and Hemlock tree symbolize ____
(a) sorrow
(b) happiness
(c) celebration
(d) death

Answer

Answer: (a) sorrow


Dust Of Snow MCQ Questions Class 10 Question 6.
What does “Dust of Snow” represent?
(a) healing power of nature
(b) particles of snow
(c) cool weather
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) healing power of nature


Class 10 English Dust Of Snow MCQ Question 7.
Name the poetic device used in the line “Has given my heart”
(a) alliteration
(b) metaphor
(c) oxymoron
(d) similie

Answer

Answer: (a) alliteration


MCQs Of Dust Of Snow Class 10 Question 8.
What uplifted his mood?
(a) falling of snow on his shoulder
(b) the crow
(c) hemlock tree
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) falling of snow on his shoulder


MCQ On Dust Of Snow Class 10 Question 9.
Why does the poet call it “dust of snow”?
(a) snow particles were too tiny
(b) they came over him like dust
(c) they felt like dust
(d) they looked like dust

Answer

Answer: (a) snow particles were too tiny


Dust Of Snow MCQ Class 10 Poem 1 Question 10.
What are the two negative creatures that Frost used as carriers of positivity?
(a) snow, dust
(b) hemlock tree, snow
(c) snow, crow
(d) hemlock tree, crow

Answer

Answer: (d) hemlock tree, crow


What are the two negative creatures that Frost used as carriers of positivity?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 1 Dust of Snow with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 10 English Poem Dust of Snow MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Challenges to Democracy Class 10 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Challenges To Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following laws was enacted by the Government of India in October 2005?
(a) The Right to Property Act
(b) The Right to Education Act
(c) The Consumer Protection Act
(d) The Right to Information Act

Answer

Answer: (d) The Right to Information Act


MCQ On Challenges To Democracy Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of democracy?
(a) Empowering women
(b) Keeping military away from controlling government
(c) Ensuring greater power to local governments
(d) Empowering minority groups.

Answer

Answer: (b) Keeping military away from controlling government


Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of democracy?

Challenges To Democracy MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following is an indicator of deepening of democracy?
(a) Installation of democratic government
(b) Keeping military away from controlling government
(c) Strengthening of the practices of democracy
(d) Inclusion of women in party politics

Answer

Answer: (c) Strengthening of the practices of democracy


Question 4.
Which legal act is the best to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?
(a) The Right to Information Act
(b) The Right to freedom
(c) The Right to education
(d) The Right to move freely

Answer

Answer: (a) The Right to Information Act


Question 5.
Every established democracy faces
(a) challenge of expansion
(b) challenge of deepening of democracy
(c) foundational challenge
(d) dictatorship

Answer

Answer: (a) challenge of expansion


Question 6.
Looking at the expanded definition, which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
(a) The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
(b) Elections must offer a fair choice to the people to change the current rulers.
(c) The choice should be available to all people on an equal basis.
(d) To exercise this choice government must not be limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizens’ rights.

Answer

Answer: (d) To exercise this choice government must not be limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizens’ rights.


Question 7.
In Nepal, Constituent Assembly about to be elected, unrest in Terai areas, Maoists have not surrendered arms.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: (a) Foundational challenge


Question 8.
In Belgium, one round of constitutional change takes place, but the Dutch speakers, not satisfied, want more autonomy.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: (b) Challenge of expansion


Question 9.
Democracy does not stand for:
(a) Democratic Right
(b) Elections
(c) Violence
(d) Accommodation of diversity

Answer

Answer: (c) Violence


Question 10.
Which one of the following situations represents the success of democracy?
(a) US as the only Super power disregards the UN and takes unilateral action.
(b) General Pinochet government defeated, but army is still under control of many institutions.
(c) The King of Nepal Birendra accepted constitutional Monarchy.
(d) Integration of French speaking and Dutch speaking people in Belgium.

Answer

Answer: (d) Integration of French speaking and Dutch speaking people in Belgium.


Question 11.
Which one of the following is not true regarding ‘Democratic Reforms’?
(a) Legal measures can sometimes prove to be counter-productive.
(b) The media should play an active role.
(c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.
(d) Political empowerment and participation of citizens can help.

Answer

Answer: (c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.


Question 12.
What is the tempting way of reforming politics?
(a) Legal ways
(b) Illegal ways
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Legal ways


Question 13.
How many parts of the globe is not under democratic government?
(a) One-sixth
(b) One-fourth
(c) One-third
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) One-fourth


Question 14.
Which one of the following countries is facing the challenge of expansion of democracy?
(a) India
(b) US
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 15.
What is not true regarding a challenge?
(a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.
(b) A challenge is a difficulty which is significant and which can be overcome.
(c) A challenge is a difficulty that carries within it an opportunity for progress.
(d) Once we overcome a challenge, we go up to a higher level than before.

Answer

Answer: (a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.


Question 16.
Mention reforms that Indian democracy needs?
(a) New laws to ban undesirable things.
(b) It is important to improve quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
(c) Reforms in the administration that will reduce corruption in the political circles.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 17.
Which one of the following statements about democracy is false?
(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Answer

Answer: (d) Democracies are more prosperous than others


Question 18.
In which of the following country, women are not allowed to take part in public activities?
(a) India
(b) South Africa
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Chile

Answer

Answer: (c) Saudi Arabia


Question 19.
Which one of the following is not true regarding how politics can be reformed?
(a) Only legal constitutional changes can reform politics.
(b) There is a need to strengthen democratic practices.
(c) Citizen’s organisations and media should play an active role.
(d) The citizens should be empowered through rights like the Right to Information.

Answer

Answer: (a) Only legal constitutional changes can reform politics.


Question 20.
Which one of the following law is a good example of a law that seeks to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?
(a) Right to Information Act
(b) Law banning sale and purchase of alcoholic drinks in Haryana
(c) Law banning dowry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to Information Act


Which one of the following law is a good example of a law that seeks to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?

Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Each of these cartoons represents a challenge to democracy taken from NCERT textbook pages 103-105. Describe what that challenge is. Also place it in one of the three categories mentioned in the first cartoon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers 1

Answer

Answer:
(i) Mubarak Re-elected: It means that he has used unfair means in the election. This is a case of challenge of expansion of democracy.

(ii) Seeing the Democracy: This cartoon points out the use of muscle power in establishing democracy. This is a case of the foundational challenge.

(iii) Liberal Gender Equality: This cartoon shows that measures have been taken to strengthen democracy by accommodating social diversities. This is a case of the challenge of deepening of democracy.

(iv) Campaign Money: This cartoon shows that money and muscle power can be ignored while making government decisions. This is a case of the challenge of deepening of democracy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers 2


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Challenges to Democracy CBSE Class 10 Civics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Work, Life and Leisure Class 10 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Work, Life and Leisure Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 6 Question 1.
Who wrote The Bitter Cry of Outcast London?
(a) Durgacharan Ray
(b) Andrew Mearns
(c) Thomas Hardy
(d) Charles Dickens

Answer

Answer: (b) Andrew Mearns


Class 10 History Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The name of Baron Haussmann is associated with
(a) London
(b) Tokyo
(c) New York
(d) Paris

Answer

Answer: (d) Paris


Icse Class 10 History Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which one of the following was not a Presidency city?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bhopal
(c) Madras
(d) Bombay

Answer

Answer: (b) Bhopal


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Question 4.
Chartism was a movement for
(a) equal pay for equal work
(b) adult male franchise
(c) limited hours of work
(d) women franchise

Answer

Answer: (b) adult male franchise


Question 5.
The city of Bombay Improvement Trust was established in the year
(a) 1898
(b) 1918
(c) 1921
(d) 1925

Answer

Answer: (a) 1898


The city of Bombay Improvement Trust was established in the year

Question 6.
Bombay was a group of seven islands under the
(a) British control
(b) French control
(c) Portuguese control
(d) Dutch control

Answer

Answer: (c) Portuguese control


Question 7.
The Temperance Movement aimed at
(a) developing new lungs for the city of London
(b) cleaning up London
(c) reducing consumption of alcoholic drinks amongst the working class
(d) recognising the need for housing for the poor.

Answer

Answer: (c) reducing consumption of alcoholic drinks amongst the working class


Question 8.
Dombey and Son was written by
(a) Martin Luther
(b) R.L. Stevenson
(c) Thomas Hardy
(d) Charles Dickens

Answer

Answer: (d) Charles Dickens


Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a city?
(a) Centre of intellectual activities
(b) Centre of Trade and Industry
(c) Homogenous population
(d) Hub of political and economic activities

Answer

Answer: (c) Homogenous population


Question 10.
What does Mayapuri mean to Bombay?
(a) A city of life
(b) A city of dreams
(c) A city of happenings
(d) A city of slums

Answer

Answer: (b) A city of dreams


Question 11.
What were the Presidency cities in India?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
Presidency cities in India in the early 19th century were Bombay, Calcutta and Madras. These were multi-functional cities; they had major ports, warehouses, homes and offices, army camps, as well as educational institutions, museums and libraries.


Question 12.
In the late 18th century, how did the working class people spent their holidays?
(a) Dancing at home
(b) Eating and spending time at home
(c) In visiting museum
(d) Meeting in pubs

Answer

Answer: (d) Meeting in pubs
Explanation:
The working class people spent their holidays and leisure time in the late 18th century by meeting in pubs for a drink, exchanging news and sometimes organising a political action.


Question 13.
When did the first section of the Underground railways in the world opened?
(a) 10 January
(b) 25 march
(c) 15 April
(d) 20 May

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 January
Explanation:
The very first section of the Underground in the world opened on 10 January 1863 between Paddington and Farrington Street in London.


Question 14.
What do you mean by ‘Temperance Movement’?
(a) A movement led by the rich to stop drinking on the streets
(b) A movement in Britain and USA, aimed at reducing alcoholism amongst the working classes
(c) A movement to start alcohol free
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) A movement in Britain and USA, aimed at reducing alcoholism amongst the working classes
Explanation:
A middle-class led social reform movement in Britain and USA, aimed at reducing alcoholism amongst the working classes


Question 15.
Who was Charles Booth?
(a) A Liverpool ship owner
(b) A rich merchant
(c) A philanthropist
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A Liverpool ship owner
Explanation:
Charles Booth was a Liverpool ship owner who conducted the first social survey of low-skilled workers in East End of London, in 1887.


Question 16.
When did the London poor exploded in a riot?
(a) 1889
(b) 1875
(c) 1886
(d) 1879

Answer

Answer: (c) 1886
Explanation:
In the severe winter of 1886, when outdoor work came to a standstill, the London poor exploded in a riot, demanding relief from the terrible conditions of poverty.


Question 17.
The industrial smoke in Calcutta is finally controlled by whom?
(a) Bengal Smoke Nuisance Commission
(b) The factory owners
(c) The Bengal government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bengal Smoke Nuisance Commission
Explanation:
The inspectors of Bengal Smoke Nuisance Commission were finally controlled industrial smoke in Calcutta. Controlling domestic smoke, however, was far more difficult.


Question 18.
What do you means by ‘Akharas’?
(a) A place for exchange of news
(b) Meeting areas for businessman
(c) Traditional wrestling schools
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Traditional wrestling schools
Explanation:
Traditional wrestling schools, located in every neighbourhood, where the young were trained to ensure both physical and moral fitness.


Question 19.
What do you mean by “Reclamation”?
(a) To take back land from the rich
(b) To reclaim marshy or submerged areas
(c) Force to donate haves land
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To reclaim marshy or submerged areas
Explanation:
Reclamation means to reclaim marshy or submerged areas or other wasteland for settlements, cultivation or other use.


Question 20.
When was the Bombay came under the control of the British?
(a) Bombay was given as a part of dowry to England
(b) Bombay was captured by British
(c) Portuguese sold it to the British
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bombay was given as a part of dowry to England
Explanation:
Bombay came under the control of the British when King Charles II, the king of Britain, married the Portuguese princess and Bombay was given as a part of dowry to England in 1661.


Question 21.
How could the problem of scarcity of land in Bombay be solved?
(a) By high-rise buildings
(b) Through massive reclamation projects
(c) By sending migration people to their original homes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Through massive reclamation projects
Explanation:
The problem of scarcity of land in Bombay can be solved through massive reclamation projects. The earliest project began in 1784.


Question 22.
What was Chartism a movement for?
(a) For children below 18
(b) For women
(c) For adult male franchise
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) For adult male franchise
Explanation:
Political movements of the nineteenth century, was Chartism a movement demanding the vote for all adult males and the 10-hour movement.


Question 23.
Which sub-urban of Bombay was the mill village?
(a) Thane
(b) Girangaon
(c) Kalyan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Girangaon
Explanation:
About 90 per cent of millworkers were housed in Girangaon, a ‘mill village’ was not more than 15 minutes’ walk from the mills.


Question 24.
What do you mean by Mayapuri (Bombay)?
(a) A city of businessman
(b) A city of slums
(c) A city of dream
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) A city of dream
Explanation:
Its massive overcrowding and difficult living conditions, Bombay appears to many as a ‘mayapuri’ – a city of dreams.


Question 25.
Name the first movie made by Dada Saheb Phalke?
(a) Bombay
(b) Poorv aur Paschim
(c) C.I.D
(d) Raja Harishchandra

Answer

Answer: (d) Raja Harishchandra
Explanation:
Dadasaheb Phalke made Raja Harishchandra (1913). After this movie, there was no turning back. By 1925, Bombay had become India’s film capital, producing films for a national audience.


Name the first movie made by Dada Saheb Phalke?

Picture-based Questions:

Question 1.
Look at the given picture taken from Textbook Page 148 and then answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers 1
Describe the above picture. Which problem has been highlighted here?

Answer

Answer:
The above picture highlights the problem of air pollution in the mid-nineteenth century London. Smoke from burning of coal, in industries and in homes, covered London in such a way that it was difficult for the inhabitants to breathe air or see the road. The skies looked grey and all vegetation was black.


Question 2.
Look at the given picture taken from Textbook Page 145 and then answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers 2
(i) What is it?
(ii) How was it built? When?

Answer

Answer:
(i) It is the famous Marine Drive of Bombay. It is the landmark of the city.
(ii) It was built on land reclaimed from the sea in the early twentieth century.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Work, Life and Leisure CBSE Class 10 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Novels, Society and History Class 10 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Novels, Society and History Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

History Of Novel MCQ Class 10 Question 1.
Love stories for adolescent girls first became popular in
(a) Britain
(b) the USA
(c) France
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: (b) the USA


Historical Novel MCQ Questions Class 10 Question 2.
Treasure Island was written by
(a) Rudyard Kipling
(b) Thomas Hardy
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) R.L. Stevenson

Answer

Answer: (d) R.L. Stevenson


Class 10 History Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Novels began to be written in Europe in the
(a) sixteenth century
(b) seventeenth century
(c) eighteenth century
(d) nineteenth century

Answer

Answer: (b) seventeenth century


Question 4.
Which one of the following was seriaised in a magazine?
(a) Jane Eyre
(b) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(c) Pickwick Papers
(d) All the Year Round

Answer

Answer: (c) Pickwick Papers


Question 5.
The first proper modern novel was
(a) Chandrakanta
(b) Pariksha-Guru
(c) Indirabai
(d) Indulekha

Answer

Answer: (b) Pariksha-Guru


Question 6.
Who wrote Sultana’s Dream?
(a) Rokeya Hossein
(b) Jarabai Shinde
(c) Pandita Ramabai
(d) Devaki-Nandan Khatri

Answer

Answer: (a) Rokeya Hossein


Who wrote Sultana’s Dream?

Question 7.
Who is known as the pioneer of modern Hindi literature?
(a) Bharatendu Harishchandra
(b) Premchand
(c) Ismat Chugtai
(d) Dharmavir Bharati

Answer

Answer: (a) Bharatendu Harishchandra


Question 8.
The first historical novel written in Bangali was –
(a) Titash Ekti Nadir Naam
(b) Anguriya Binimoy
(c) Padmarag
(d) Saraswativijayam

Answer

Answer: (b) Anguriya Binimoy


Question 9.
What was meant by ‘Vernacular’?
(a) Stylish writing
(b) Classical language
(c) Literary language
(d) Language of the common people

Answer

Answer: (d) Language of the common people


Question 10.
What was expressing in the novel Ramona?
(a) Love stories
(b) Adventure stories
(c) Comedy stories
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Love stories
Explanation:
Ramona express the love stories written for adolescent girls by American women writers. It also first became popular in the period of 1884, especially in the US.


Question 11.
Which was the novels that became a great hit in the late 19th century?
(a) Treasure Island
(b) Jungle Book
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b
Explanation:
Books like R.L. Stevenson’s Treasure Island (1883) or Rudyard Kipling’s Jungle Book (1894) became great hits. They aroused the excitement and adventure of conquering strange lands.


Question 12.
Who was the writer of the novel ‘Mayor of Casterbridge’?
(a) Charles Dickens
(b) Thomas Hardy
(c) Walter Scott
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Thomas Hardy
Explanation:
In his novel Mayor of Caster bridge, Thomas Hardy mourns about the loss of traditional rural communities, loss of a more personalised world and the old rural culture with its independent farmers dying out.


Question 13.
What was the hero of Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe is?
(a) Merchant
(b) Washerman
(c) An adventurer and slave trader
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) An adventurer and slave trader
Explanation:
The hero of Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe (1719) is an adventurer and slave trader. Shipwrecked on an island, Crusoe treats coloured people not as human beings equal to him, but as inferior creatures.


Question 14.
What do you mean by ‘serialised novel’?
(a) A cheap, illustrated novel
(b) A novel published in a magazine
(c) A format in which the story is published in instalments
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) A format in which the story is published in instalments
Explanation:
A format in which the story is published in instalments, each part in a new issue of a journal. In 1836 a notable event took place when Charles Dickens’s Pickwick Papers was serialised in a magazine.


Question 15.
Which was the first major historical novel written in Assamese?
(a) Karuna
(b) Manomati
(c) Phulmoni
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Manomati
Explanation:
Rajanikanta Bardoloi wrote the first major historical novel in Assam called Manomati (1900). It is set in the Burmese invasion stories about old soldiers who had fought in the 1819 campaign.


Question 16.
Which was the Bengali novels translated into Assamese by missionaries?
(a) Phulmoni
(b) Karuna
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both a and b
Explanation:
The first novels in Assam were written by missionaries. Two of them were translations of Bengali including Phulmoni and Karuna.


Question 17.
Who was the writer of ‘Chandrakanta’?
(a) Chandu Menon
(b) Kandukuri Viresalingam
(c) Devaki Nandan Khatri
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Devaki Nandan Khatri
Explanation:
The writings of Devaki Nandan Khatri created a novel reading public in Hindi. His best-seller, Chandrakanta is a romance with dazzling elements of fantasy and is believed to have contributed immensely in popularising the Hindi language.


Question 18.
Which is the first proper modern novel in Hindi?
(a) Pariksha Guru
(b) Bharatendu Harishchandra
(c) Ramayana
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Pariksha Guru
Explanation:
Pariksha Guru, published in 1882, written by Srinivas Das of Delhi is the first proper modern novel in Hindi. It cautioned young men of well-to-do families against the dangerous influences of bad company and consequent loose morals.


Question 19.
Which was the earliest novel in Marathi?
(a) Mochongadh
(b) Muktamala
(c) Yamuna Paryatan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Yamuna Paryatan
Explanation:
The earliest novel in Marathi was Baba Padmanji’s Yamuna Paryatan (1857), which used a simple style of storytelling to speak about the plight of widows.


Question 20.
Who was the writer of ‘Sevasadan’?
(a) Premchand
(b) Bankim Chandra
(c) Sarat Chandra
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Premchand
Explanation:
Premchand in 1916 wrote Sevasadan. Many critics think that his novel Sewasadan (The Abode of Service), lifted the Hindi novel from the realm of fantasy, moralising and simple entertainment.


Question 21.
Who was the writer of Jungle book?
(a) R. L. Stevenson
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(c) R. K. Narayan
(d) Charles Dickens

Answer

Answer: (b) Rudyard Kipling
Explanation:
Rudyard Kipling wrote Jungle Book in 1894 and it became great hit at that time.


Question 22.
Who was the writer of ‘Indulekha’?
(a) Chandu Menon
(b) Srinivas Das
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Chandu Menon
Explanation:
The delightful novel of Chandu Menon was called Indulekha which published in 1889, was the first modern novel in Malayalam.


Question 23.
Who was the writer of the novel ‘Hard Times’?
(a) Thomas Hardy
(b) Jane Austen
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Charles Dickens
Explanation:
Charles Dickens wrote about the terrible effects of industrialisation on people’s lives and characters. His novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coketown, a fictitious industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery and many more.


Who was the writer of the novel ‘Hard Times’?

Question 24.
What do you mean by ‘Meyeli’?
(a) The language associated with women’s speech
(b) The new style used by Bengali novel, a colloquial style associated with urban life
(c) The simple Bengali used by the poor and illiterate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) The language associated with women’s speech
Explanation:
Meyeli is the language associated with women’s speech. This style was quickly replaced by Bankim’s prose which was Sanskritised but also contained a more vernacular style.


Source-based Questions:

Question 1.
Read the extract (Source A) taken from Textbook page 194 and then answer the questions that follow:

Why women should not read novels

From a Tamil essay published in 1927:

‘Dear children, don’t read these novels, don’t even touch them. Your life will be ruined. You will suffer disease and ailments. Why did the good Lord make you – to wither away at a tender age? To suffer in disease? To be despised by your brothers, relatives and those around you? No. No. You must become mothers; you must lead happy lives; this is the divine purpose. You who were born to fulfil this sublime goal, should you ruin your life by going crazy after despicable novels?’

Essay by Thiru. Vi, Ka, Translated by A.R, Venkatachalapathy

(i) What message is given to children in the above extract?
(ii) How are girls seen here?
(iii) Name one woman novelist who did not popularise the domestic role of women? Also name her novel.

Answer

Answer:
(i) Children have been told not to read novels. It will ruin their lives.
(ii) Girls have been told not to read novels but to lead happy lives only. This is the divine purpose of life.
(iii) Rokeya Hossein. Novel ‘Sultana’s Dream’.


Picture Based Questions:

Question 1.
Study the picture (NCERT TB page 184) and answer the question’s that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History with Answers 1
(i) Who is she? Name one of the famous novels written by her.
(ii) How does she portray women in her novels?

Answer

Answer:
(i) She is Jane Austen. “Pride and Prejudice” is one of her famous novels.
(ii) She gives us a glimpse of the world of woman in genteel rural society in early nineteenth century Britain. It makes us think about a society which encouraged woman to look for good marriages and wealthy husbands.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Novels, Society and History CBSE Class 10 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fertilisation is the process of:
(a) transfer of male gamete to female gamete.
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.
(c) adhesion of male and female reproductive organs.
(d) the formation of gametes by a reproductive organ.
Answer:
(b) Fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.

Explanation: Fertilization is the fusion of nucleus of male and female garnets to form a single cell called as zygote. Fertilization occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.

Related Theory:
During sexual mode of reproduction germ cells (gametes) of two individuals need to fuse together. It can happen by either of the following:

External release of germ cells from body of an individual as seen in angiospermic plants, frog, fish etc. This is known as external fertilization.

Internal transfer of germ cells by physical contact between male and female organisms as in mammals. This is called internal fertilization.

Reproduction Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Characters that are transmitted from parents to offsprings during reproduction show:
(a) OnLy similarities with parents
(b) Only variations with parents
(c) Both similarities and variations with parents
(d) Neither similarities nor variations
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correct statement(s) on budding in yeast from the following:
(I) A parent cell divides into two or more daughter ceLLs and here the parent identity is Lost.
(II) In this the elongated nucleus divides to form two or more daughter nucLei.
(III)A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(IV)After detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (III) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
Answer:
(d) (III) and (IV) only

Explanation: Yeast reproduces asexually by the process of budding in which a bud arises from a particular region on a parent body. And after detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
Statements I and II are for binary and multiple fission respectively.

Class 10 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant due to:
(a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
Answer:

Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 5.
In the following figure, different stages of binary fission in amoeba are depicted, which are not in the proper sequence
Answer:
Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ
The correct sequence is
(a) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (b) (I), (II), (IV), (III)
(c) (III), (IV), (II), (I) (d) (I), (III), (IV), (II)
[CBSE 2017]
Ans. (a) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the different stages of binary fission in amoeba is:
(II) Parent amoeba cell.
(III) Duplication of the genetic material and elongation of the nucleus.
(IV) Nuclear division and constriction in cytoplasm
(I) Formation of two daughter amoeba cells.

MCQ Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 6.
In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called:
(a) Filaments
(b) Hyphae
(c) Rhizoids
(d) Roots
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:
(I) A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(II) A parent cell divides into two daughter cells, here the parent identity is lost.
(III) Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.
(IV) A bud when detaches from the parent body grows into a new individual.
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) and (I)
(d) (IV), (I) and (II)
Answer:

Reproduction MCQs Class 10 Question 8.
Slides of binary fission in Amoeba and budding in yeast were given for observation to a group of students. Some of the observations reported by the group are given below:
(I) Cytokinesis was observed in the yeast cell.
(II) A chain of buds were observed in Amoeba.
(III) Single cell of Amoeba and single cell of yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
(IV) Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in Amoeba.
The correctly reported observations are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Reproduction In Organisms Pdf Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(I) Flowers are always bisexual
(II) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(III) They are produced in all groups of plants
(IV) After fertilization they give rise to fruits
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II) and (IV) i.e. they are the sexual reproductive organs and after fertilization they give rise to fruits

Explanation: Flowers are the sexually reproductive organs of a plant and a fertilized flower give rise to fruit.

Class 10 Reproduction MCQ Question 10.
During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change from the following associated with sexual maturation in boys:
(a) loss of milk teeth
(b) increase in height
(c) cracking of voice
(d) weight gain
Answer:

MCQ Reproduction Class 10 Question 11.
Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(I) It requires two types of gametes.
(II) Fertilisation is a compulsory event.
(III) It always results in the formation of zygote.
(IV) Offsprings formed are clones.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Question 12.
Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Ribosome
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Genes
Answer:
(d) Genes

Explanation: Genes are the unit of heredity DNA that determine genetic characters in an organism.

Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 13.
Semen which contains millions of sperms also contains secretions of seminal vesicle and prostrate gland (accessory glands). It makes the tranport of sperms easier and provide nutrition to sperms.
Correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra
(b) Testis → ureter → urethra
(c) Testis → urethra → ureter
(d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter
Answer:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra

Explanation: Testis produces sperms or germ cells. The sperms formed are delivered through the vas deferens which unites with a tube coming from the urinary bladder. The urethra thus forms a common passage for both the sperms and urine.

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Reproduction is essential for living organisms to order to:
(a) Keep the individual organism alive
(b) Fulfill their energy requirements
(c) Maintain growth
(d) Continue the species generation after generation
Answer:

Ch 8 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which one of the following permanently marks the end of menstrual cycle in females?
(a) Menarche
(b) Menopause
(c) Ovulation
(d) Pregnacy
Answer:

Question 16.
Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphillis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea
Answer:
(b) Hepatitis

Explanation: Hepatitis is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is a water-borne viral disease.

Question 17.
The sketch of a dicotyledonous seed is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 2
The correct labelling for parts A, B, C and D iri proper sequence is
(a) radicle, plumule, cotyledon, seed coat.
(b) radicle, plumule, seed coat, cotyledon.
(c) plumule, radicle, cotyledon, seed coat.
(d) plumule, radicle, seed coat, cotyledon
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following is not the part of female reproductive system?
(a) ovary
(b) fallopian tube
(c) uterus
(d) vas deferens
Answer:
(d) vas deferens
Explanation: Vas deferens is part of male reproductive system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 19.
Select the statements that are incorrect about reproduction in human beings.
(I) When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of mature eggs.
(II) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
(III) The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through oviduct.
(IV) The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as the cervix.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Study the diagram given below of male reproductive organ and select the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 3

Name of Part Function
(a) P is Vas deferens Transport sperms
(b) Q is Seminal vesicle Provide fluid medium to sperms
(c) R is ureter Passage for sperms
(d) S is Testis Formation of sperms

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the figure below and identify the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 4

Part Name Function
(a) A is Cotyledon It is the future plant
(b) B is Plumule It is the future shoot
(c) C is Seed coat It is the outer covering of the ovule
(d) D is Radicle It is the future root

Answer:
(a) Part Name: A is cotyledon; Function: It is the future plant

Explanation: A is cotyledon and is the food store of the future plant.

Question 22.
Study the figure showing parts of a flower and identify the correct statements.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 5
(I) Part labeled 1 is the pollen grain and contains the male germ cell.
(II) Part labelled 3 is the stigma on which the pollen grains land.
(III) The male germ cell travels through the pollen tube (part labelled 3) after fertilization.
(IV) Part labelled 4 is the ovary which contains the female germ cells.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 23.
Identify the incorrect statement from among the following statements for unisexual flowers.
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil
(b) They possess either stamen or pistil
(c) They show cross pollination
(d) Unisexualflowers posessing only stamens cannot produce fruits
Answer:
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil

Explanation: Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. Bisexual flowers contain both male and female reproductive organs stamen and carpel.

Question 24.
The part where fertilization occurs in human females is:
(a) cervix
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 25.
The table below lists the organs/parts of human reproductive system and their functions. Identify the row containing incorrect information.

Part/ Organ of Reproductive system Function
(a) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles Production of fluid to provide a medium for sperms.
(b) Testis Secretes the hormone that regulates formation of sperms.
(c) Uterus Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.
(d) Fallopian tube Carries egg from ovaries to the womb

Answer:
(c) Part/Organ of Reproductive system: Uterus; Function: Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.

Explanation: The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta which is a disc embedded in the uterine wall and contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 8

For the following questions two statements are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 26.
Assertion (A): Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
Reason (R): Populations of organisms fill well-defined places in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: Although populations of organisms fill well-defined pLaces in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce, the consistency of DNA copying during reproduction. Reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design features. Reproduction is linked to the stability of populations of species.

However, variation is useful for the survival of species over time as niches can change drastically but only those organisms will be able to survive which have some variations in them.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): All multi-cellular organisms can divide cell by cell.
Reason (R): Many multi-cellular organisms are not simply a random collection of cells.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All multi-cellular organisms cannot simply multiply cell by cell as they are not just a random collection of cells. Specialized cells are organized as tissues and tissues are organized into organs, which occupy definite positions in the body. Multi-cellular organisms, therefore, need to use more complex ways of reproduction.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation makes possible propagation of plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
Reason (R): New plants are developed from seeds in vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are produced by all flowers.
Reason (R): Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All flowers do not produce pollen grains as flowers may be unisexual when it contains either stamens or pistil or bisexual when it contains both stamens and pistil. Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum.
Reason (R): Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)

Explanation: The testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum as sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of sperms and brings about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The human embryo gets implanted in the fallopian tube.
Reason (R): Embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of special tissue called the Placenta.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy.
Reason (R): The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Rahul left a slice of bread in his tiffin box by mistake. As his schools had closed for Diwali vacations, he forgot to take the tiffb ox out. When he opened his tiffin box after about 6 to 7 days, he observed black growth on the bread slice and also that the slice smelt very bad.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 6
Identify the organism, the thread like structures seen on the bread and the mode of reproduction of the organism.
Answer:
The organism seen on the bread is Rhizopus and the thread like structures are the hyphae of the bread mould. The mode of reproduction in Rhizopus is by spore formation.

Question 2.
The reproductive parts of angiosperms are located in the flower. The different parts of a flower are sepals, petals, stamens and carpels. Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain the germ-cells.
The flower may be unisexual (papaya, watermelon) when it contains either stamens or carpels or bisexual (Hibiscus, mustard) when it contains both stamens and carpels. Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Carpet is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 7
(A) Where are the plant’s sex organs located?
Answer:
Plant’s sex organs are located in the flower.

(B) What is the function of a flower?
Answer:
The function of a flower is to produce male and female gametes and to ensure that fertilisation will takes place to make new seeds for the reproduction of plant.

(C) Where is the male and female gametes formed in flowering plants?
Answer:

(D) What changes take place in the flower after fertilisation which lead to the formation of seeds and fruit?
Answer:
The fertilised egg divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule which develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary of the flower develops and becomes a fruit with seeds inside it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Asexual reproduction in starfish takes place by fission or through autotomy of arms. In fission, the central disc breaks into two pieces and each portion then regenerates the missing parts. In autotomy, an arm is shed with part of the central disc attached, which continues to live independently as a “comet”, eventually growing a new set of arms. Although almost all sea stars can regenerate their limbs, only a select few sea star species are able to reproduce in these ways.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 8
Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves because:
(I) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(II) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(III) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(IV) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 4.
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their population.

The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children.

Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
(A) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls.
Answer:
Common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls: Hair growth in armpits and the genital area between the thighs, which also becomes dark in colour.
Thinner hair appear on legs and arms as well as on the face.
Pimples begin to develop as skin becomes oily.
Become conscious and aware of their own bodies and those of others in new ways.

Related Theory
Prenatal sex determination is misused by people who do not want a particular child. Pre-conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC PNDT) Act, 1994 is an act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India.

(B) What is the result of reckless female foeticide?
Answer:

(C) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
Answer:
The contraceptive method is chemical method (Taking Pills orally) changes the hormonal balance of the body.
Explanation: By taking oral pills, the hormonal balance of the body changes and eggs are not released and fertilization does not occur. Since they cause change in hormonal balance can cause side effects like nausea, headache, weight gain, mood changes etc.

Related Theory
The population size is actually population density, the number of individuals per unit area. The size of human population is a cause for concern for many people because increase in population size makes is harder to improve everybody’s standard of living.

(D) Write two factors that determine the size of a population.
Answer:

Question 5.
Bees are one of the most important animals which help in the pollination process. Bees hit plants because they give them an essential source called nectar. There are many flowering plants which are fertilized by insects like bees, and without them, many of our plant population of the planet would decline as there would be no pollination, so it’s clearly known the relevance of these pollinators.Bees transport seeds from one flower to another, pollinating these plants so that it can develop and provide food. The pollen grains travel through the pollen tube to the ovary.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 9
The length of pollen tube depends on the distance between:
(a) Pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) Pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) Upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
Answer:
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule

Explanation: After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ-cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary.

Hence, length of the pollen tube depends on the distance between the pollen grain on the upper surface of stigma and ovule.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 6.
Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India. The act banned prenatal sex determination. This process began in the early 1990 when ultrasound techniques gained widespread use in India. There was a tendency for families to continuously produce children until a male child was bom. Social discrimination against women and a preference for sons have promoted female foeticide in various forms skewing the sex ratio of the country towards men.
(A) Why is child sex-ratio declining at an alarming rate in India?
Answer:
The child-sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate because of preference in Indian societies for a male child and reckless female foeticides.

(B) How can unwanted pregnancies be terminated?
Answer:
Unwanted pregnancies can be terminated by surgery.

(C) What is contraception?
Answer:

(D) Write names of any two contraceptive methods.
Answer:

Question 7.
When Sunidhi’s niece was born, she observed that something resembling a cord was tied near the baby’s naval. Her uncle explained to her that it was the umbilical cord, which is a tube that connects the baby to her mother during pregnancy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 10
Which one of the following best describes the function of the umbilical cord?
(a) feeds the embryo with digested substances
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo respectively
(c) removes waste matter from the embryo to the mother’s blood
(d) supplies oxygenated blood from the mother to the embryo
Answer:
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo, respectively.
Explanation: The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother’s body takes place through the umbilical cord.

Related Theory
Umbilical cord is connected to a special tissue called placenta which is a disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall.
It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue and blood spaces are present on mother’s side, which surround the villi.
Villi provide large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 8.
(A) Observe the above graph and select the correct statements.
(I) The mean fitness of asexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(II) The mean fitness of sexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(III) Asexual progeny may survive when niche changes.
(IV) Sexual progeny have a higher chance of survival when niche changes.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: The mean fitness of an asexual clone of organisms is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche. They are perfect in the current environment, but, once the condition changes, the entire population may suddenly become extinct. Sexual reproduction can produce a wider range of sub-optimally adapted types. Some may not be able to survive under the current environment (an example is the genetic diseases in humans). However, an ecological disaster that eliminates the asexual progeny will not have as severe an impact on the sexual progeny, because of the diversity of genotypes.

(B) Reason, why paramecium decides for sexual reproduction, is:
(a) It can produce more number of progenies.
(b) Progenies can be considered to be clones of their parents
(c) It leads to genetic variations
(d) Asexual reproduction is unreliable.
Answer:
(c) It leads to genetic variations

Explanation: The reason why the paramecia decide to sexual reproduction is that they need to create “genetic variations” to increase their chance of survival under a harsh condition. In order to do so, two paramecia of compatible mating types exchange parts of their genetic materials and rearrange their DNA to create genetic variations. As a result, the offsprings of sexual reproduction have different genetic DNA sequences compared to their parents. On the other hand, the daughter cells generated from binary fission have identical genome like their parent cell. We call them “clones”.

(C) Select the row containing incorrect information.

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
(a) Only one parent is involved Involves two parents
(b) No production and hence no fusion of gametes Involves production of gametes and their fusion
(c) Requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division Requires only mitotic division.
(d) Low genetic variability High genetic variability

Answer:
(c) Asexual Reproduction: Requires Meiotic division followed by Mitotic division; Sexual Reproduction: Requires only Nitotic division.

Explanation: Asexual Reproduction requires only mitotic cell division as no gametes are produced. Sexual reproduction requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division as first gametes are formed and then their fusion takes place.

(D) Which of the following organisms divide by binary fission?
(a) Amoeba and Plasmodium
(b) Paramecium and Plasmodium
(c) Paramecium and Amoeba
(d) Plasmodium and Leishmania
Answer:

(E) Four statements are given below on sexual reproduction. Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Each new variation is made in a DNA copy that already has variations accumulated from previous generations.
(b) Two different individuals in a population would have quite different patterns of accumulated variations.
(c) Combining variations from two or more individuals would create new combinations of variants.
(d) Each new generation will end up having twice the amount of DNA that the previous generation had.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 9.
Puberty is the time when boys and girls move through a series of significant, natural and healthy changes. These physical, psychological and emotional changes signal that they are moving from childhood to adolescence. Puberty starts when changes in their brain cause sex hormones to start being released in girls’ ovaries and boys’ testes. This usually happens around 10-11 years for girls and around 11-13 years for boys. But it’s normal for the start of puberty to range from 8-13 years in girls and 9-14 years in boys.
The graph below shows the average height of girls and boys up to the age of 18 years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 11
(A) Select the correct observations:
(I) During 8-12 gears, girls experience a sudden growth.
(II) During 12-16 gears, bogs experience sudden grown
(III) Bogs are alwags taller than girls of their age.
(IV) Growth in both bogs and girls stops after 16 gears.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: We note that during 8-12 years, girls experience a sudden growth and have more height as compared to boys. This is because puberty occurs earlier in girls (10-12 years), so they grow rapidly during this phase.
During 12-16 years, boys experience sudden grown and their height becomes the same as girls. This is because puberty occurs later in boys (12-13 years) and they grow rapidly during puberty.

(B) The table below lists some changes observed in girls and bogs during pubertg. Select the row containing incorrect observation.

Changes in Girls Changes in Bogs
(a) Height increases verg quickly and earlier than in bogs Height increases very quickly and Later than girls
(b) Voice pitch becomes higher Voice pitch becomes Lower
(c) Shoulders become broad Hips become broad
(d) Menstruation starts Nocturnal emissions occur

Answer:
(c) changes in Girls: Shoulders become broad;
Changes in Boys: Hips become broad

Explanation: Changes are seen in both boys and girls during puberty due to the secretion of testosterone hormone in boys and oestrogen in girls. The hips become broad in girls, whereas shoulders become broad in boys.

(C) The most rapid growth in girls takes place during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 4 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:
(a) 0 – 4 years

Explanation: The most rapid growth in girls takes place in 0-4 years as after that the rate of growth slows down. It again becomes fast from 8-12 years, when girls attain puberty.

(D) Significant spurt in height of bogs is seen during:
(a) 4 – 6 gears
(b) 6 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:

(E) The slowest growth in height of girls is seen during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 12 – 16 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 4 – 8 gears
Answer:

Question 10.
Family planning is about deciding how many children you choose to have and when you want to have them (timing of pregnancies and birth spacing). Spacing births allows the mother to recover physically and emotionally before she gets pregnant again, and faces the demands of pregnancy, birth and breast feeding. STIs including HIV/AIDS can also be prevented with correct and consistent use of condoms. Younger women (adolescents) can delay pregnancy until their bodies are mature and they are ready in terms of their life course. Older women (over 35) can prevent unwanted pregnancies that are often risky for their health and can lead to complications for both mothers and infants.
India’s 2011 census revealed a growing imbalance between the numbers of girls and boys aged 0-6 years, which may be due to increased prenatal sex determination with subsequent selective abortion of female fetuses. The sex ratio from the years 1961 to 2011 shows a very disturbing trend.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 12
Distribution of the total population living in states with varying child sex ratios (girls per 1000 boys at ages 0-6 years), 1991, 2001, and 2011 is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 13
Mean national values for each of the censuses are shown. The vertical grey bar represents a natural sex ratio at birth of 950 – 975 girls per 1000 boys, where the distribution of child sex ratios at ages 0 – 6 years would be centred in the hypothetical absence of selective abortion of girls and equal girl and boy child mortality rates.
(A) Observe the graphs above and select the correct statements.
(I) The sex ratio from 1961 to 1981 was almost equal to the natural sex ratio at birth shown by vertical grey bar.
(II) Sex ratio in 2001 was less than the sex ratio in 2011.
(III) Sex ratio in 1991 was greater than the sex ratio in 2011.
(IV) The number of girls per 1000 boys of population has increased from 1991 to 2001.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The main reason for the sex ratio as seen in the graph above is:
(a) Male foeticide
(b) Child labour
(c) Female Foeticide
(d) Child trafFcking
Answer:
(c) Female Foeticide

Explanation: Female foeticide is the illegal sex- selective abortion of female foetuses due to which child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate.

(C) Which of the following are surgical methods for avoiding pregnancies?
(a) Oral pills
(b) Copper-T
(c) Blocking fallopian tube in females
(d) Blocking urethra in males.
Answer:

(D) The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?
(a) Condoms
(b) Oral pills
(c) Copper-T
(d) Surgical methods
Answer:
(a) Condoms

The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?

Explanation: As condoms are the only contraceptives that create a mechanical barrier between the partners sex organs during sexual intercourse, they can prevent sexually transmitted disesases.

(E) A list of few sexually transmitted diseases are given below along with their cause. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Sexually Transmitted Disease Name Cause
(a) Syphilis Bacteria
(b) Gonorrhea Bacteria
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Warts Bacteria

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 11.
Fluman reproduction is a form of sexual reproduction resulting in human fertilization. It typically involves sexual intercourse between a man and a woman. During sexual intercourse, the interaction between the male and female reproductive systems results in fertilization of the woman’s ovum by the man’s sperm. Offspring are produced by the fusion of gametes (sex cells) from each parent. Hence, the newly formed individual will be different from parents, both genetically and physically.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 14
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
(A) Study the graphs above showing the levels of ovarian hormones and pituitary hormones in human females and select the correct statements.
(I) The level of oestrogen hormone increases in the first 12 days of the menstrual cycle.
(II) The level of LH secreted by the pituitary gland reaches a peak when ovulation takes place.
(III) The level of progesterone hormone decreases when ovulation takes place.
(IV) The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is minimum when ovulation takes place.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: The level of progesterone
hormone increases when ovulation takes place. The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is maximum when ovulation takes place.

(B) The table below gives the differences between menopause and menarche.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Menopause Menorche
(a) It is the end of menstruation in human females It is the start of menstruation in humon females
(b) It occurs at around 45-50 years of age It occurs at around 11-16 years of age
(c) It marks the end of reproductive phase of a female It marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of a female
(d) There is an elevated level of oestrogen. There is a decline in the Level of oestrogen

Answer:
(d) Menopause : There is an elevated level of oestrogen; Menarche: There is a decline in the level of Oestrogen.
Explanation: During menopause, there is a decline in the level of oestrogen hormone as it indicates the end of reproductive phase of a women. Whereas, during menarche, which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of women, there is an elevated level of oestrogen hormone

(C) Refer to the diagram of female reproductive system of humans given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
The correct labelling of parts A, B, C and D is:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C Uterus, D: Cervix
(b) A: Oviduct, B: Fallopian Tube, C: Ovary, D: Uterus
(c) A: Fallopian Tube, B: Uterus, C: Ovary, D: Cervix
(d) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Cervix, D: Uterus
Answer:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Uterus, D: Cervix

(D) The part of female reproductive system through which the uterus opens into the vagina is:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Cervix
(c) Scrotum
(d) Abdomen
Answer:

(E) The onset of reproductive age in human females is known as:
(a) Menstruation
(b) Menopause
(c) Menarche
(d) Ovulation
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 12.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that does not involve the fusion of gametes or change in the number of chromosomes. The offspring that arise by asexual reproduction from either unicellular or multicellular organisms inherit the full set of genes of their single parent. Asexual reproduction is the primary form of reproduction for single-celled organisms such as archaea and bacteria. Many eukaryotic organisms including plants, animals, and fungi can also reproduce asexually. In vertebrates, the most common form of asexual reproduction is parthenogenesis, which is typically used as an alternative to sexual reproduction in times when reproductive opportunities are limited.
(A) Which of the following observations are incorrect?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 17
(I) The population of yeast grows slowly in the first 6 hours.
(II) The growth rate of yeast is fastest from t = 6 hours to t = 9 hours.
(III) The growth rate increases further from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours.
(IV) The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The growth rate decreases and levels off from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours. The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Name of Organism Method of reproduction
Plasmodium Fission
spirogyra Regeneration
Rhizopus Spore formation
Bryophyllum Vegetative propagation

Answer:

(C) The graph b.elow gives the observations of growth of bread mould (or mold) under different conditions:
A: Bread slices kept at normal room temperature
B: Bread slices kept in refrigerator C: Bread slices kept in freezer.
Select the incorrect statement after observing the graph.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 18
(a) Mould growth is fastest and covers 80% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(c) Mould growth is slowest and covers 12% of the slice in 7 dags when kept in refrigerator.
(d) No mould growth observed for 10 dags when bread slice kept in freezer.
Answer:
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

Explanation: Mould growth is the fastest at room temperature and covers about 80% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

(D) The structures labelled A and B are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 19
(a) A is hyphae and B is Spores
(b) A is root and B is Sporangium
(c) A is hgphae and B is Sporangium
(d) A is root and B is Spores
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statements for the process of budding in geast:
(I) A small bud arises as an outgrowth of the parent bodg.
(II) The parent cell divides into two daughter cells and hence the parental identitg is lost.
(III) The nucleus divides bg meiosis, one daughter nucleus passes into the bud and the other remains in the parent cell.
(IV) The bud either separates off from the parent cell or new bud appears before its separation from the parent cell resulting in the formation of branched or unbranched chain of buds.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilisation?
Answer:
Zygote is Located inside the ovule which is present in the ovary.

Related Theory
After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary. After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Give an example each of unisexual and bisexual flowers.
Answer:
An example of unisexual flower is papaya, water melon (write any one) and of bisexual flower is hibiscus, mustard (write any one).

Related Theory
Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. w Bisexual flowers contain both stamens and carpels. w Majority of the flowers are bisexual.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Name the organs producing sperms and ova respectively in humans.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
The method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions is Fragmentation. This is an asexual mode of reproduction.

Question 5.
Name one organism which reproduces by:
(A) multiple fission
(B) binary fission
Answer:

Question 6.
Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is meant by the term regeneration?
Answer:
Regeneration: The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like Hydra and Planaria shows regeneration, i.e. if Hydra or Planaria somehow get cut into a number of pieces, then each body part can grow into a new complete organism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 8.
How is reproduction in leishmania different from that in plasmodium, even though both are unicellular?
Answer:
Leishmania undergoes binary fission, whereas plasmodium reproduces through multiple fission.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Students can also read MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is responsible for the ……………… water?
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following are water-intensive crops?
(a) Wheat and rice
(b) Wheat and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane and rice
(d) Wheat and gram
Answer:
(c) Sugarcane and rice.

Related Theory:
The construction of large dams leads to some problems.
People close to the source grow water-intensive crops like sugarcane and rice whereas people farther downstream do not get sufficient water to grow these crops. This causes social problems resulting due to unequal distribution of water. Other problems related to the construction of dams are economic and environmental problems.

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Consider the following criticisms that are generally addressed when a new project is launched:
(I) Displacement of peasants and local tribals without compensation.
(II) Swallowing up large amount of public money without any benefits.
(Ill) Deforestation and loss of biodiversity. The criticisms about large dams in particular are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for:
(a) Monoculturesofpine,teakand eucalyptus.
(b) Chipko Movement.
(c) Extensive biodiversity.
(d) Participation of local people inefficient management of forests.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?
(a) People who live in or around the forest
(b) The forest department of the government
(c) The wildlife and native enthusiasts
(d) The industrialists
Answer:
(d) The Industrialist

Ch 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are:
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near A.
Answer:

Chapter 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is given below:
The statement which defines the system and its parts is:
Chapter 16 Science Class 10 MCQ
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dug well:
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dug well system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Khadin.
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area, and C = Shallow dug well.
(d) This is showing the Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dug well.
Answer:
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and:
A = catchment area
B = Saline area
C = Shallow dug well

Explanation: Khadin is a traditional rainwater haversting system in Rajasthan. The main feature of Khadin system of rainwater harvesting is a very long earthen embankment called ‘bund’ built across the lower edge of the sloping farmland. The rainwater from catchment area flows down the slopes and stopped by the bund to form a reservoir the excess water flows through pathwalls (made for this purpose) and filLs the shallow well dug behind the bund. This area is subsequently used for growing crops.

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 8.
The major ill effect of monoculture practice in forests is on the:
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
Which of the following are not responsible for failure to sustain water availability underground:
(I) Afforestation
(II) Loss of vegetation cover
(III) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(IV) Pollution from industrial effluents and urban wastes.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Question 10.
Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?
(I) Measurement of pH of river water
(II) Existence of diverse life forms in river water
(III) Presence of chlorine in river water
(IV) Presence of coliform bacteria in river water
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)

Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 11.
Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams
(I) Deforestation and the loss of biological diversity.
(II) Displacement of large number of peasantsand tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation
(III) Loss of valuable agricultural land.
(IV) Generation of permanent employment for local people
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 Question 12.
Which of these practices can be adopted to save the environment?
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags
(b) Reduce the use of paper bags
(c) Recycle single-use bags
(d) Reuse waste food
Answer:
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags Explanation: The 5R’s to save the environment are: Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, repurpose and Recycle. The best way to save the environment is by refusing to use products that may harm the environment.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Management Of Natural Resources Question 13.
How does switching off unnecessary electrical appliances help the environment?
(a) It generates electricity when switched off
(b) It reduces wastage of energy
(c) It recycles the amount of energy used
(d) It increases the efficiency of the electrical appliances
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Question 14.
Which of these is an example of sustainable development in order to conserve natural resources for the future generation?
(a) Cleaning water resources
(b) Finding additional fuel reserves
(c) Clearing forests to set up new industries
(d) Planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining
Answer:

Class 10 Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following industries would be identified as a stakeholder involved in a forest?
(a) That manufacture ceramic products using clay
(b) That make papers using wood products
(c) That make clothes using synthetic materials
(d) That manufacture device that generate electricity using solar energy
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 16 MCQ Question 16.
Which of the following practices will help to conserve the forest?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Banning deforestation
(c) Increased use of firewood by local people
(d) Increased use of timber by industries
Answer:

MCQ On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 17.
Which of these explains the use of dams?
(a) To replenish underground water resources
(b) To produce steady supply of water in hilly regions
(c) To provide irrigation and generate electricity
(d) To provide water for conservation of biological diversity
Answer:

Natural Resources MCQ Class 10 Question 18.
Which of the following steps should be adopted in order to save the environment?
(a) Replace coal to firewood for cooking food
(b) Replace petroleum to coal in vehicles for transportation
(c) Replace thermal power with solar power to generate electricity
(d) Replace the use of coal to petroleum for melting metals in a furnace
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 16

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labeled Assertion (A) and other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 19.
Assertion (A): Sustainable development implies a change in all aspects of life.
Reason (R): Economic development is linked to environmental conservation.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Find out about the international norms to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide. Have a discussion in class about how we can contribute towards meeting those norms.
There are a number of organisations that seek to spread awareness about our environment and promote activities and attitudes that lead to the conservation of our environment and natural resources. Find out about the organizations) active in your neighbourhood/ village/town/city.
(A) Which of the following greenhouses gas is present in very large quantities?
(a) Ozone
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Propane
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
(b) Life on earth is possible due to presence of greenhouse gases.
(c) Greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains earth’s temperature.
(d) More is the emission of greenhouse gases, more is the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below:

Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and some artificial chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) The absorbed energy warms the atmosphere and the surface of the Earth. This process maintains the Earth’s temperature at around 33 degrees Celsius warmer than it would otherwise be, allowing life on Earth to exist.

The problem we now face is that human activities – particularly burning fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), agriculture and land clearing – are increasing the concentrations of greenhouse gases. This is the enhanced greenhouse effect, which is contributing to warming of the Earth.

(C) Which of the following are the causes of increased emission of carbon dioxide in India?
(I) Burning of coal for power generation
(II) Increased vegetation cover during monsoon.
(III) Burning of agricultural wastes
(IV) Burning of fossil fuels for transportation
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which one of the following cannot be a goal or an international norm to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide:
(a) To limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets.
(b) To monitor actual emission of greenhouse gases.
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.
(d) To assist countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change.
Answer:
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.

Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring and (part two) that human-made CO2 emissions are driving it. Although it has scope of assisting countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change, it does not have scope for investing in technological development in the developing countries.

(E) One of the ways individuals can contribute towards conservation of environment and natural resources is:
(a) Recycling, reusing, and composting
(b) Making better transport choices
(c) Reducing your electricity usage
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Individuals can contribute towards conservation of the environment and natural resources by reusing, recycling of waste materials, composting of organic wastes, making better transport choices and using public transport as much as possible and reducing electricity usage.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Make a list of forest produce that you use. What do you think a person living near a forest would use? What do you think a person living in a forest would use? Discuss with your classmates how these needs differ or do not differ and the reasons for the same. Find out about any two forest produce that are the basis for an industry. Discuss whether this industry is sustainable in the long run. Or do we need to control our consumption of these products?
(A) Which of the following are not products derived directly or indirectly from forest produce used by most urban people?
(a) Paper
(b) Natural gas
(c) Timber
(d) Dyes
Answer:
(b) Natural gas
Explanation: Forests give us a lot of useful products such as paper, timber, dyes, medicines, fruits, spices, dyes and oils.

Natural gas on the other hand is a fossil fuel formed from the plants, animals, and microorganisms that lived millions of years ago.

(B) The table below lists the various stakeholders in forests. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Stakeholders Justification
(a) People who live in or around forests  Dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life
(b) Forest Department of the Government  Owns land and controls the resources from forest
(c) Industrialists  Dependent on forests In any one area as they use various forest produce
(d) wild life and nature enthusiasts forests.  Want to conserve nature in its pristine form

Answer:

(C) Which of the following forest produce are used by the persons Living in a forest?
(I) Firewood and small. timber
(II) Bamboo
(III) Various agricuLtural. Implements made of Iron and steel.
(IV) Fruits, nuts and medicines
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) For which of the following needs are people Living near forests dependent on forests?
(a) Fodder fruit and agricultural implements
(b) Fuel, fodder and monoculture
(c) Fuel, fodder and cuLtivation
(d) Minerals, fodder and fuel
Answer:

(E) We should conserve forests because:
(a) Forest provide us with oxygen and they cause rainfall.
(b) Forest prevents soil erosion.
(c) Various forest products are used as raw materials in industries.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Explanation: Conservation of forests is the need of the jour as forests provide us with oxygen, they prevent soil erosion, various industries are dependent upon forests for their raw materials and medicines.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 3.
Usually we put recycling on top of everything, but today on the 5 R process, it comes in last. Five actions should respectively be taken if possible before recycling any products. These R’s include: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and finally, recycle. This is an important methodology for businesses to follow to ensure they can reduce waste and boost their recycling efforts. This ultimately lessens the amount of waste that will end up in landfill and will optimise your recycling programs.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 2
(A) The main items that can be recycled are:
(I) Lead-Acid Batteries
(II) Plastic (PET) bottles
(III) Egg cartons
(IV) Steel cans
Select the correct options from below:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (1), (U) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Among the items that can be recycled are lead acid batteries, plastic bottles, steel and aluminium cans, glass bottles, paper, cardboard boxes. Among the items that cannot be recycled are egg cartons, plastic shopping bags, drinking cups, plastic utensils and broken or sharp glass.

(B) The table below gives the meaning of the terms Reuse, reduce and reuse.
Select the row containing the correct meaning of the three terms

Refuse Reduce Reuse
(a) Use less of something Use something over and over again Make something into something new
(b) Make something into something new Use less of something Use something over and over again
(c) Say no to things that can harm environment Use less of something Use something over and over again.
(d) Say no to things that can harm environment Use something over and over again. Use less of something

Answer:

(C) How can organic waste be appropriately managed?
(a) Composting
(b) Recycling
(c) Burning
(d) Melting
Answer:

(D) Look at the figure below and suggest which out of the five ‘R’s is represented below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 3
(a) Reuse, as plastic bottle is being used again.
(b) Repurpose, as the plastic bottle is being used for a different purpose.
(c) Reduce, as less of the thing is being used.
(d) Recycle, as plastic bottle is being recycled.
Answer:

(E) The doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles is an example of:
(a) Reduce
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Recycle
Answer:
(b) Reuse

Explanation: Reuse is the action or practice of using an item by taking, but not reprocessing, previously used items and it helps save time, money, energy and resources. In the doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles, the delivery person gives a bottle containing fresh milk and the empty bottle is returned to him the next day. In this way, the glass bottles are reused.

Question 4.
Fossil fuels Like coal, oil, and natural gas present environmental problems starting with their extraction and going all the wag through to their use. They are all different in their properties and uses, but they have some similarities.We use fossil fuels for most of our energy needs today. Coal, natural gas, and oil accounted for 87 percent of global primary energy consumption. Burning coal for electricity is in decline, while the use of natural gas, solar and wind power are on the rise.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 4
Complete combustion of coal and petroleum:
(I) increases air pollution
(II) increases effciency of machines.
(III) reduces global warming.
(IV) produce poisonous gases.
The correct option is:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (IV)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 5.
Half of Delhi’s school-going population (some 2.2 million children) suffers from some or the other form of irreversible lung damage from poor air quality in the city. Research is now showing that pollution can weaken a child’s immune system and increase the risk of cancer, epilepsy, diabetes and even adult- onset diseases like multiple sclerosis. In adults, poor air quality causes one’s lung capacity to decrease, more headaches, sore throats, coughs, fatigue, even lung cancer.

In 2017, air pollution was the fifth-highest mortality risk factor globally – linked to 4.9 million deaths and 147 million years of healthy life otherwise lost. Reducing global air pollution to levels recommended by the WHO would increase life expectancy worldwide as much as eradicating breast and lung cancer would, according to a Quartz report from earlier this year. Going by National Health Profile of India 2015 report, there were 3.5 million reported cases of acute respiratory infection nationwide last year – a 1,40,000 increase on the previous year, and a 30 percent increase since 2010. The pie chart below shows the average levels of fine particulate matter having diameter less than 2.5 micrometers (PM2.5) in Delhi in the month of Nov 2020.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 5
(A) According to the pie chart shown, the major contributors responsible for more than 80% of PM2.5 in air are:
(a) Road dust, Construction and demolition, hotels and restaurants, Industrial point sources
(b) Road dust, domestic sources, Diesel gensets, Industrial point sources
(c) Road dust, vehicles, Construction and demolition and Industrial point sources
(d) Road dust, vehicles, domestic sources and Industrial point sources
Answer:

(B) The major air pollutants are:
(I) Nitrogen dioxide
(II) Sulphur
(III) Particulate matter
(IV) Ozone
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The major air pollutants are: Ozone (O3), Nitrogen dioxide, Carbon Monoxide (CO), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)

(C) Which of the following element is not present in coal and petroleum:
(a) Silicon
(b) Carbon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Explanation: Coal and petroleum have been formed from biomass and contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.

(D) The number of years our known petroleum and coal reserves will last as per the present estimates is given in the table below.
Select the row containing the correct values:

Number of years our known petroleum reserves will last Number of years our known coal reserves will last
(a) 100  300
(b) 40  200
(c) 400  300
(d) 200  40

Answer:
(b) Number of years our known petroleum reserve will last: 40; Number of years our known coal reserves will last: 200.

Explanation: As per the present estimates, the number of years our known petroleum and coaL reserves will Last are 40 years and 200 years respectively. This estimate is based on the present rate of usage of these fuels.

(E) Select the incorrect option:
The main reason for using coal and petroleum judiciously is:
(a) These lead to global warming
(b) These pollute our environment
(c) These are not limited
(d) These are not inexhaustible
Answer:

Question 6.
When Sukanya visited her maternal grandparents during her school vacations, she observed that both her grandparents would switch off lights and fans when not in use. They would in fact encourage them also to use natural light as much as possible.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 6
Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which term of 5R’s?
(a) Recycle
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(d) Reduce

Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which term of 5R’s?

Explanation: We can reduce the voltage of electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and We can reduce the voltage of water by repairing the leaking taps.

  1. We can collect plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things.
  2. Reuse means to use the same things again eq. Plastic bottles of same or pickles can be used for storing things in the kitchen.
  3. Repurpose: The object which can no more be used for the original purpose e.g. cups with broken handles can be used to grow small plants and as feeding vessels for birds.
  4. Refuse to take the things people offer you that you don’t need or are harmful to the environment, e.g., take your own cloth or jute bag for shopping and refuse to accept plastic bag.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 7.
Poachers, traffickers and highly-organised criminal gangs decimate already endangered wildlife species, reaping a deadly harvest in the pursuit of profits. To address the problem, in 1973 the United Nations General Assembly signed the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), aimed at stemming the illegal trade in wild animals and rare commodities. UN World Wildlife Day is held each year on the anniversary of the signing. The day helps raise awareness of the many challenges facing the world’s wild animals and plants and the efforts to stamp out illegal trading.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 7
(A) The main objective of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is that it:
(I) Ensures that some species entering into international trade is threatened with extinction.
(II) Promotes the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity
(III) Contributes to tangible benefits for poachers
(IV) Stops over exploitation of many endangered species
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a step taken by the government to protect the wildlife?
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest
(b) Proper food facilities to the animals in forest
(c) Deforestation to provide space for urbanization
(d) Control the population of animals in forest
Answer:
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest

Explanation: The Government of India has taken various steps to conserve the wildlife. The major among them is establishing of various projects in order to protect the wildlife. Some of the projects are Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many more.

(C) Which of the following is the most important human activity Leading to the extinction of wildlife?
(a) Increased pollution of air, water and land
(b) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats.
(c) Hunting of wild animals for valuable wildlife products
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

(D) Which of the following will not be a result of uncovering half of the forest covering of the earth?
(a) Some wildlife species will become extinct
(b) Soil erosion will increase
(c) It will lead to climatic changes
(d) Forest dwelling people will be benefited.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is the name given to a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Bio-reserve
(d) Bio-ecology
Answer:
(c) Bio-reserve

Explanation: Bio-reserve is a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity. The central area preserves the flora and fauna. The surrounding zone is utilized for research and experiments regarding conservation of bio-diversity.

Question 8.
The first phase of the Ganga action plan was inaugurated by late Rajiv Gandhi at Rajendra prasad ghat of Banaras. The National Protection Agency was constituted for its implementation. During the first phase of Ganga Action Plan 256 schemes of 462 crores were undertaken in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. Special stations have been created to check the quality of water. The experts from Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and National Environment Engineering Research Institute were appointed to check the quality of the water.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 8
The main purpose of the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project launched by the government in 1985 was to:
(a) Build new dams over the Ganga river
(b) Make its water pollution free
(c) Utilize the river water for irrigation purposes
(d) Promote the growth of water sports in the river
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 9.
India’s water situation is dire. There are no two ways around it. Around 2,00,000 people die every year due to inadequate access to safe water, 21 major cities will run out of groundwater by 2020, 75% of households do not have access to drinking water at home and 70% of India’s water is contaminated. Plus the problem is only going to get more severe, as the population grows, while water becomes even more scarce. It should be evident, then that India is facing a water crisis, one that whoever comes to power would be expected to help resolve.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 9
(A) The main causes of contamination of water are:
(I) Burning of fossil fuels
(II) Dissolved oxygen
(III) Untreated sewage
(IV) Agricultural runoff
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Canals, rivers and lakes in India often serve as dumping grounds for sewage, solid and liquid wastes. Water pollution is a major environmental issue in India. The largest source of water pollution in India is untreated sewage. Other sources is of pollution include agricultural runoff and unregulated small-scale industry. Burning of fossil fuels releases harmful gases like carbon dioxide, oxides of suLphur and nitrogen which cause acid rain and pollute the water bodies. Dissolved oxygen, when released in water, helps aquatic plants and animals for respiration. So it does not cause pollution, but the removal of dissolved oxygen causes pollution.

(B) Which of the following is not the main cause of water scarcity in India?
(a) Climate change
(b) River pollution
(c) Natural disasters
(d) Groundwater extraction and irrigation
Answer:

(C) The main purpose of water harvesting is to:
(a) Use surface water for irrigation.
(b) Recharge ground water.
(c) Collect water directly for domestic use
(d) Refill lake water and other water bodies.
Answer:

(D) The aims of Watershed management is:
(a) To increase the biomass production.
(b) To develop primary resources of land and water
(c) To produce secondary resources of plants and animals.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Through watershed manage¬ment, one can implement plans, projects that sustain and enhance watershed functions. Watershed functions include capturing, storing and recharging groundwater, filtering out water pollutants, and secure release of rainwater to avoid floods during heavy rainfalls. Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. The aim is to develop primary resources of land and water, to produce secondary resources of plants and animals for use in a manner which will not cause ecological imbalance.

(E) Some of the ancient water harvesting alongwith states where these were built are listed in the table below. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Ancient water harvesting State where built
(a) Khadins  Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bandharas  Maharashtra
(c) Bundhis  Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ahars  Bihar

Answer:
(a) Ancient water hervesting: Khadins State where buiLt: Utter Pradesh

Explanation: Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India. Khadins, tanks and nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas and tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, ahars and pynes in Bihar, kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu region, and eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu, surangams in Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka are some of the ancient water harvestings, including water conveyance, structures still in use today.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 10.
Groundwater, which can be used by people, constitutes only 0.8% of total water voLume while the rest Lies in the form of oceans and snow on mountains and glaciers. A growing population combined with huge demand of water for development purposes has put excessive stress on available water resources. The uneven distribution of water resources, artificial modification of natural flow of rivers and human abuse are the main reasons for the looming water crisis in India.The situation of groundwater is critical in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. These states need urgent attention from the government and the implementation of proper water management techniques to prevent severe water crises.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 10
In addition to low rainfall, what are the other reasons for non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country?
Answer:
The reasons for the non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country are:

  1. No proper rain water harvesting systems in these areas.
  2. Pollution of water due to mixing of industrial and domestic waste making it unfit for drinking purposes.

Question 11.
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in the state of Telangana. It is India’s largest Masonry Dams built till date. It is the largest manmade lake in the world. It has 26 gates and is 1.55 km in length. It is situated on the river Krishna.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 11
Construction of a dam on a river often results in the reduction of fish catch. Why is it so?
Answer:
Fish populations are highly dependent upon the characteristics of their aquatic habitat which supports all their biological functions. The water stored by constructing dams is stagnant water whereas fishes breed in clean and running water due to which their population decreases and fish catch also reduces.

Question 12.
Sanjay visited a National park with his parents to observe wild life. As they were entered the forest area, they observed logs of teak wood being transported from the forest in big trucks by a contractor.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 12
Will the local people also behave in a similar manner? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the local people will not behave in this manner. The reason is that the local people are dependent on the forest for their day to day sustenance since generations whereas for the contractor it is just a means of earning his livelihood. Once all the trees of a particular forest have been cut, the contractor will simply move on to a new forest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 13.
You must be aware that the Indus valley civilization had been famous for its irrigation and water harvesting techniques and thus when it comes to Rain Water Harvesting, India has its pride. But why is it that despite having such an elaborate system and knowledge, the country is facing such extreme water shortage conditions? Bavaria are unique stepwells that were once a part of the ancient networks of water storage in the cities of Rajasthan. The irtle rain that the region received would be diverted to man-made tanks through canals built on the hilly outskirts of cities.The water would then percolate into the ground. raising the water table and recharging a deep and intricate network of aquifers. To minimise water loss through evaporation, a series of layered steps were built around the reservoirs to narrow and deepen the wells.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 13
What are the advantages of water harvesting techniques?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the process of accumulating and storing rainwater for on-site use instead of allowing it to run off Rainwater provides an independent and free water supply that offers several ways the water can be used. It reduces soil erosion arid flooding, reduces demand an ground warer. makes water available for non-drinking purposes and helps in plant growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Make a list of few industries that are dependent on forest products.
Answer:
Forest product-dependent industries are: Timber, paper, lac and sports equipment industries.

Question 2.
Is Water conservation necessary? Give reason.
Answer:
Water conservation is necessary as availability of water on Earth is more than enough for all but due to its uneven distribution, wide seasonal fluctuations in rainfall and majority of available water being saline, conservation is highly important for future generations.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 3.
How is the increase in demand for energy affecting atmosphere?
Answer:
Overconsumption and increase in demand of fossil fuels releases a huge amount of polluting gases into the atmosphere, which in turn causes global warming and also produces acid rain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

The Sermon at Benares Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 10

The Sermon at Benares Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 10

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Sermon at Benares Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-english-with-answers/

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares with Answers

The Sermon At Benares MCQ Class 10 Question 1.
Why was Kisa Gotami sad?
(a) her only son had died.
(b) her all property was snatched.
(c) she was beaten up.
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (a) her only son had died.


Sermon At Benares MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
Where did Buddha preach his first sermon?
(a) Haridwar
(b) Benares
(c) Chennai
(d) Patliputra

Answer

Answer: (b) Benares


The Sermon At Benares Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
What is the world afflicted with?
(a) Love
(b) Diseases
(c) Death and decay
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Death and decay


The Sermon At Benaras MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
What does the ripe fruit fear?
(a) Someone will eat them
(b) They will rot
(c) Falling down
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Falling down


What does the ripe fruit fear?

MCQ Based On The Sermon At Benares Class 10 Question 5.
Where did Budhha sit?
(a) Peepal Tree
(b) Fig Tree
(c) Mango Tree
(d) Deodar cedar

Answer

Answer: (b) Fig Tree


MCQ Of The Sermon At Benares Class 10 Question 6.
According to Buddha, what is an inscrutable kind of suffering?
(a) loss of a loved one
(b) beating
(c) hatred
(d) verbal abuse

Answer

Answer: (a) loss of a loved one


English MCQs 10th Class  Question 7.
Those who do not grieve are _____.
(a) arrogant
(b) proud
(c) happy
(d) wise

Answer

Answer: (d) wise


Question 8.
Who is free from sorrow?
(a) who overcomes sorrow
(b) who does not see sorrow
(c) who remains happy
(d) who gives sorrow to others

Answer

Answer: (a) who overcomes sorrow


Question 9.
What did Kisa ask for to bring her son back to life?
(a) medicine
(c) money
(c) doctor
(d) prayers

Answer

Answer: (a) medicine


Question 10.
He got enlightenment after how many days?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 7
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 7


Question 11.
“The wise do not _____, knowing the terms of the world”
(a) laugh
(b) smile
(c) grieve
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) grieve


Question 12.
What does Kisa search for from house to house in the first place?
(a) mustard seed
(b) a medicine to bring her son back to life
(c) pumpkin seeds
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) a medicine to bring her son back to life


Question 13.
Both young and adults, fools and wise fall into the power of _____
(a) life
(b) death
(c) food
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) death


Question 14.
What did the flickering lights made her realise?
(a) she is being selfish
(b) death is common to all
(c) men are mortals
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 15.
What was the condition imposed upon the source of the seeds?
(a) to be borrowed from a man
(b) to be borrowed from a woman
(c) to be borrowed from a child
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above


Question 16.
What did he name the tree?
(a) Bodhi tree
(b) Buddha tree
(c) Gautama tree
(d) Siddhartha tree

Answer

Answer: (a) Bodhi tree


Question 17.
For how many years did he wander?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 7


Question 18.
What was Gautama Buddha’s early name?
(a) Sidhha
(b) Sadhu
(c) Siddhartha
(d) Sidhanth

Answer

Answer: (c) Siddhartha


What was Gautama Buddha's early name?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 10 English The Sermon at Benares MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Fog Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 9

Fog Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 9

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fog Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-english-with-answers/

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog with Answers

Fog Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
What is the name of the poet?
(a) Sylvia Plath
(b) Carl Sandburg
(c) Robert Frost
(d) Robert Burns

Answer

Answer: (b) Carl Sandburg


Fog Class 10 Pdf Question 2.
What does the fog look over?
(a) Over houses
(b) Over the harbour and the city.
(c) Over offices.
(d) None of the Above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Over the harbour and the city.


What does the fog look over?

Fog Poem Class 10 Pdf Question 3.
How does the fog come?
(a) Slowly and silently.
(b) Faster and silently.
(c) Faster and making noise.
(d) None of the Above.

Answer

Answer: (a) Slowly and silently.


Fog Class 10 Question 4.
What is the rhyme scheme of the poem ‘Fog’?
(a) aabbccdd
(b) abcd
(c) aabc aabc
(d) no rhyme scheme

Answer

Answer: (d) no rhyme scheme


Question 5.
What does the fog do while it looks over the city and the harbour?
(a) sits
(b) moves
(c) stands
(d) dances

Answer

Answer: (a) sits


Question 6.
What has been personified in the poem?
(a) fog
(b) city
(c) cat
(d) harbour

Answer

Answer: (a) fog


Question 7.
How does the fog arrive and depart?
(a) by announcing its arrival
(b) silently
(c) loudly
(d) both1 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b) silently


Question 8.
What has the poet compared the fog with?
(a) dog
(b) cat
(c) woman
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) cat


Question 9.
After sitting, the fog ___
(a) Disappears
(b) sits there only
(c) moves on
(d) gets dense

Answer

Answer: (c) moves on


Question 10.
The feet of the fog are like __ feet.
(a) cat
(b) lion
(c) tiger
(d) dog

Answer

Answer: (a) cat


The feet of the fog are like __ feet.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 9 Fog with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 10 English Poem Fog MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Sources Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Wood
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Wind
Answer:
(c) Fossil fuels

Explanation: Non-renewable sources are those sources that are present in a limited amount and once finished cannot be renewed again for millions of years.

Wood comes from trees, so it is a renewable source of energy. The Sun and wind are also renewable sources of energy but fossil fuels are non-renewable (conventional sources). Once they are used up, they can’t be renewed again, so we need to conserve them.

Towards Green Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
In a hydropower plant:
(a) the potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) the kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) electricity is extracted from water
(d) water is converted into steam to produce electricity
Answer:

MCQ On Sources Of Energy Question 3.
Ocean thermal energy is due to:
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising in the ocean
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Source Of Energy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The major probLem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to:
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 14 MCQ Question 5.
Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(a) Coating with black coLour inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker
Answer:
(c) Gloss sheet

Explanation: Sotar cookers are covered with a glass plate which traps infrared radiations (heat) from sunlight and does not allow them to escape. In other words, we can say that it provides a greenhouse effect. Solar cookers achieve a higher temperature by using mirrors to focus the rays of the Sun.

Related Theory

The trapping of heat in the environment due to the presence of greenhouse gases like CO2, methane, water vapour etc. causes the greenhouse effect. This raises the temperature of Earth.

MCQs On Sources Of Energy Question 6.
The main constituent of biogas is:
(a) methane
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen
(d) hydrogen sulfide
Answer:
(a) methane

Explanation: Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood. charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high. It is also used for lighting.

Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 7.
The power generated in a windmill:
(a) is more in the rainy season, since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
Answer:

Source Of Energy MCQ Question 8.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) The Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside Earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting sources of energy
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

MCQ Of Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 9.
In a hydroelectric power plant, more electrical power can be generated if waterfalls from a greater height because:
(a) its temperature increases
(b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic energy
(c) the electricity content of water increases with height
(d) more water molecules dissociate into ions
Answer:

Ch 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
The biggest source of energy on Earth’s surface is:
(A) Biomass
(B) Solar radiations
(C) Tides
(D) Winds
Answer:

Sources Of Energy MCQ Class 10 Question 11.
Which is the type of system where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on the surface of the water?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Wave energy
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(d) Solar energy
Answer:
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion

Explanation: Absorption of heat from the sun by the seas and oceans, solar radiation causes ocean currents and moderate temperature gradients from the water surface downward especially in tropical waters.

MCQ Of Chapter 14 Science Class 10 Question 12.
The correct energy conversion taking place in a hydroelectric power plant is:
(a) Potential energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(b) Potential energy of turbine → Kinetic Energy of water → Electrical energy
(c) Heat energy of water → Kinetic Energy of turbine → Electrical energy
(d) Potential energy of water → Heat Energy → Electrical energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

MCQ Questions On Sources Of Energy Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following are non-conventional sources of energy:
(I) Wind energy
(II) Water
(III) Solar energy
(IV) Geothermal energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Chapter 14 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Approximately what percentage of energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants?
(a) 10 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 50 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %

Explanation: A quarter or 25 % of the energy requirement in India is met by hydropower plants. But we are still largely dependent upon coal and petroleum for meeting our energy requirements.

Class 10 Sources Of Energy MCQ Question 15.
The table below lists the sources of energy and whether they are exhaustible or non-exhaustible. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Source of energy Whether exhaustible or non- exhaustible
(a) Fossil fuel Exhaustible
(b) Wind Non-exhaustible
(c) Water Exhaustible
(d) Solar Non-exhaustible

Question 16.
Two fuels obtained from biomass are:
(a) Coal and biogas
(b) Petroleum and natural gas
(c) Charcoal and biogas
(d) Charcoal and natural gas
Answer:
(c) Charcoal and biogas

Two fuels obtained from biomass are:

Explanation: When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, water and volatile materials present in it get removed and charcoal is left behind as the residue. Charcoal burns without flames is comparatively smokeless and has a higher heat generation efficiency. Similarly, cow-dung, various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in the absence of oxygen to give biogas.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 14

For the following questions, two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the Other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): In a wind energy farm, a number of windmills are erected over a large area.
Reason (R): The output of a single windmill is quite small and cannot be used for commercial purposes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 18.
Assertion (A): All exhaustible sources of energy are non-renewable.
Reason (R): Energy sources that cannot be regenerated are called renewable sources of energy.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Geothermal energy is the energy produced by the heat of molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust. This energy is harnessed to generate electricity. When water is made to flow deep underground in the rocks it returns as steam (or hot water, which is later converted to steam) to drive a turbine on an electric power generator.
In India, exploration and study of geothermal fields started in 1970. The Geological Survey in India has identified 350 geothermal energy locations, in the country. The most promising of these is in Puga Valley of Ladakh. The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is about 10000 MW. There are seven geothermal provinces in India namely the Himalayas, Sohna, West coast, Cambay, Son- Narmada-Tapi; Godavari and Mahanadi. Most power stations in India produce Alternating Current (A.C).
(A) What are geothermal energy hot-spots?
Answer:
Though the total energy stored in the earth is very vast, but geothermal energy can be harnessed only in particular areas. The particular areas where geothermal energy can be harnessed are called geothermal hot spots.

(B) Name two countries, other than India, where power plants based on geothermal energy are operational.
Answer:

(C) Name the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.
Answer:
Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.

Explanation: An electric generator is a machine which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction can be seen as:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 1
The phenomenon of generation of an electric current in a circuit from magnetic effects is called electromagnetic induction.

(D) State an important advantage of using AC over DC.
Answer:
An important advantage of using AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.

Related Theory
The frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz. DC always flows in one direction, whereas AC reverses its direction periodically. AC can also be changed to DC whenever required

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 2.
Acid rain as the name suggests can be said to be the precipitation of acid in the form of rain in the simplest manner. Taj Mahal, one of the 7 wonders of the world, is Largely affected by acid rain.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 2
Acid rain happens because:
(a) the Sun causes the heating of the upper layer of atmosphere
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
(c) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds
(d) Earth atmosphere contains acids
Answer:
(b) the burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere

Explanation: The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic oxides. These lead to acid rain, which affects our water and soil resources.

Related Theory
The activities (polluting the atmosphere by industrial exhausts), as well as natural phenomena (emission of volcanos), cause acid rain due to the above mentioned oxides that are released.

Question 3.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. The country’s solar installed capacity reached 30.071 GW as of 31 July, 2019. India has the lowest capital cost per MW to install solar power plants. Solar electricity generation recorded nearly 3.4% of total utility electricity generation in January 2019. The following table shows Annual Solar Power Generation of the last six years.

Year

Solar Power Generation(TWh)

2013-14  3.35
2014-15  4.60
2015-16  7.45
2017-18  25.87
2018-19  39.27

Our country is lucky to receive solar energy for the greater part of the year. It is estimated that during a year India receives the energy equivalent to more than 5000 trillion kWh from the Sun.
(A) What are solar cells?
Answer:
Solar cells are devices which convert Solar energy (Sun’s energy) directly into electricity. A solar cell is also known as a solar photovoltaic (SPV) cell.

Related Theory
A solar cell is made of element silicon. It consists of square piece of silicon. The electric power generated by a single solar cell is very small. So a number of cells are joined together to form a solar panel.

(B) How much voltage can be developed and how much electricity can be produced by one typical solar cell when exposed to the Sun?.
Answer:
One typical cell produces a voltage of 0.5V-1V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the sun.

Related Theory
Solar devices like solar cooker, solar geyser etc. also use solar energy but can be used only at certain times during the days. This limitation was overcome by combining solar cells in an arrangement called solar cell panel

(C) The future of power generation by solar energy is bright in India. Give reason.
Answer:

(D) List two advantages of solar cells.
Answer:
Advantages of solar cells: The solar cells

  1. have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work satisfactorily without the use of any focusing device.
  2. can be set up in remote and inaccessible area or very sparsely inhabited arons

Question 4.
Thermal power plants have been in operation since quite some time. Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) has commenced civil works at 660 MW Sagardighi supercritical thermal power project in the state of West Bengal. BHEL is a manufacturer of power generation equipment with an installed base of over 1,90,000 MW power plant equipment globally.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 3
The fuel used in thermal power plants is:
(a) water
(b) uranium
(c) biomass
(d) fossil fuels
Answer:

Question 5.
Renewable energy sources such as wind energy are vital for the Indian economy, not only from the point of view of supply, but also from the perspective of environmental and social benefits. India is the world’s fifth largest wind-power producer and the largest windmill facilities in India are installed in Tamil Nadu. Muppandal is a small village of Tamil Nadu and one of the most important sites of wind-farm in the state. It uses wind from the Arabian Sea to produce renewable energy. The suitability of Muppandal as a site for wind farms stems from its geographical location as it has access to the seasonal monsoon winds.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 4
The electrical generators used on wind turbines in sites like Muppandal, produce an output AC of 240 V and a frequency of 50 Hz even when the wind speed is fluctuating. A transformer may be required to increase or decrease the voltage so it is compatible with the end usage, distribution or transmission voltage, depending on the type of interconnection.
(A) State the principle behind electric generator.
Answer:
The principle behind electric generator is Electromagnetic Induction- the pheno¬menon of producing current in a coil by changing the magnetic field associated with it.

(B) The output frequency of wind turbine is 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement?
Answer:
The polarity of the output alternating current changes every \(\frac{1}{100}\) seconds.

Alternately:
In 1 second the output (AC) completes 50 cycles.

(C) Why do you think Muppandal is at an advantageous position for this project?
Answer:

(D) Based on the data represented in the graph below, which of the two cities A or B would be an ideal location for establishing a wind-farm and why?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 5
Answer:
City A

It is more suitable for a wind-farm as there is consistently high wind-speed in that city throughout the year.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 6.
A nuclear power plant is a thermal power station in which the heat source is a nuclear reactor. As is typical of thermal power stations, heat is used to generate steam that drives a steam turbine connected to a generator that produces electricity. As of 2018, the International Atomic Energy Agency reported there were 450 nuclear power reactors in operation in 30 countries around the world.

Nuclear power is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India after coal, gas, hydroelectricity and wind power. As of November 2020, India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants, with a total installed capacity of 6,780 MW.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 6
Which one of the following statements is not true about nuclear energy generation in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Energy is obtained by a process called nuclear fission.
(b) The nucleus of Uranium is bombarded with high energy neutrons.
(c) A chain reaction is set in the process
(d) In this process a tremendous amount of energy is released at a controlled rate.
Answer:
(b) The nucleus of uranium is bombarded in the high energy neutrons.
Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fission of nuclear fuel takes place to generate nuclear energy. Nuclear energy is released when nueleus of uranium is bombarded with low energy neutrons. Hence, this statement (b) is incorrect. All other three statements are correct.

Nuclear fission is the phenomenon of splitting of Uranium (heavy atom) into two medium weight nuclei. When it is bombarded with a slow neutron. A large amount of energy is released. In a nuclear reactor, nuclear fuel is a part of a self sustaining fission chain reaction that releases energy at a controlled rate.

Chain reaction:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 7
The fission of an atom of uranium produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal.

Question 7.
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the World. The Tehri dam withholds a reservior of capacity 4.0 km3 and surface area 52 km2. It is used for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 MW of hydro electricity.
The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests. Environment activist Shri Sunder Lai Bahuguna led the ‘Anti Tehri Dam Movement” from 1980s to 2014. The protest was against the displacement of town inhabitants and environmental consequences of the weak ecosystem. The relocation of more than 1,00,000 people from the area has led to protracted legal bat over resettlement rights and ultimately resulted in the delayed completion of the project.
(A) How is hydropower harnessed?
Answer:

(B) Define 1 MW.
Answer:
1 mW is a unit for measuring power (megawatt)
1 mW = 1000 kW 1 kW = 1000 W 1 mW = 106 W

(C) Mention two disadvantages of constructing Tehri Dam.
Answer:
Disadvantages of constructing Tehri Dam:

  1. Large ecosystems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
  2. The vegetation which is submerged rots under anaerobic conditions and release a large amount of methane gas which is a green-house gas.
  3. Large areas of agricultural land is used.
  4. It creates a problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of displaced people

(D) What happens when water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine?
Answer:
When water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine, the potential energy of the water changes into kinetic energy which is transferred to the turbine. Moving turbine rotates the armature of a generator and kinetic energy of water changes to electricity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 8.
Take two conical flasks and paint one white and the other black. Fill both with water. Place the conical flasks in direct sunlight for half an hour to one hour. Touch the conical flasks. You could also measure the temperature of the water in the two conical flasks with a thermometer.

Next, study the structure and working of a solar cooker and/or a solar water-heater, particularly with regard to how it is insulated and maximum heat absorption is ensured. Design and build a solar cooker or water- heater using low-cost material available and check what temperatures are achieved in your system.
(A) In the first activity, two conical flasks, one painted white and the other black, are filled with water and then placed in direct sunlight, for half an hour. Select the correct observation regarding their temperature:
(a) Both the conical flasks will be equally hot.
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.
(c) The conical flask painted white will be hotter.
(d) The conical flask painted white will absorb more heat
Answer:
(b) The conical flask painted black will be hotter.

Explanation: The conical flask painted black will be hotter as compared to the flask painted white as a black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(B) The parts of a box – type solar cooker is given below. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Part

Description

(a) Black box  An insulated metal, or wooden box which is painted white from the inside to radiate more heat.
(b) Glass cover  Made of two sheets of toughened glass held together in an aluminium frame.
(c) Plane Mirror  Plane mirror is fixed to the box with the help of hinges and it acts as a reflector
(d) Cooking Containers  A set of aluminium containers blackened from the outside are kept in the box

Answer:

(C) The property used by solar cookers and solar water heaters is:
(a) A reflector absorbs more heat as compared to a white surface under identical conditions.
(b) Black surface reduces loss of heat by radiation.
(c) White surface absorbs more heat as compared to a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.
Answer:
(d) Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to a white or a reflecting surface under identical conditions.

(D) The purpose of a glass sheet fixed on the box of the solar cooker is:
(a) To focus sun’s radiations at one point.
(b) To absorb maximum heat of the sun’s rays.
(c) To prevent heat from escaping escape from the cooker box.
(d) To reflect sun’s rays towards the cooker box.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a limitation of solar cooker?
(a) Some solar cookers take longer to cook food than a conventional stove or an oven.
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.
(c) It can be used only at certain time of the day.
(d) It cannot be used during nights and rainy days.
Answer:
(b) Reduces carbon footprint by cooking without carbon dioxide-based fuels.

Explanation: As solar cooker uses only solar energy, there is no pollution caused as it does not use carbon dioxide based fuels and hence carbon footprint is reduced.

Question 9.
When Poorva visited Bengaluru along with her parents, she noticed that most houses had solar panels installed on their roof top. However, despite their ability to generate clean, green electricity, solar panels aren’t as commonplace as the could be. The main sticking point, of course, is price. Due to their need for relatively expensive semiconductor materials, conventional solar cells don’t yet have a price-efficiency combination that can compete with other sources of electricity. A conventional solar cell is made of a thin wafer of a semiconductor with a metallic electrode deposited on its rear side.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
The values of voltage developed in a solar cell and power of a solar cell when exposed to electricity are given in the following table. Select the row containing the correct values:

Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell

Power Produced in a Solar Cell

(a) 0.7 V  0.5-1.0 kW
(b) 0.5-1.0 V  0.7 W
(c) 5-10 V  0.7 kW
(d) 1.5-2.0 V  7 W

Answer:
(b) Voltage Developed in a Solar Cell: 0.5 -1.0 V; Power Produced in a Solar Cell: 0.7 W
Explanation: A typical solar cell develops a voltage of 0.5-1 V and can produce about 0.7 W of electricity when exposed to the Sun.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 10.
Discuss in class the question of what is the ultimate source of energy for bio-mass, wind and ocean thermal energy.
Gather information about various energy sources and how each one affects the environment.
Debate the merits and demerits of each source and select the best source of energy on this basis.
(A) The ultimate source of energy for bio¬mass is:
(a) Living organisms
(b) Sun
(c) Water
(d) Earth
Answer:
(b)sun

Explanation: The ultimate source of energy for bio-mass is the sun as these fuels are plant and animal products and plants and animals ultimately depend on sun for their energy needs.

(B) Following statements are given below regarding wind energy and nuclear energy.
Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Wind energy does not contaminate the environment but nuclear energy may contaminate the environment.
(II) Efficiency of wind energy farms is less than that of nuclear plants.
(III) Wind energy farms can be set up anywhere whereas nuclear power plants can be set up only at specific locations.
(IV) Both are non-conventional sources of energy
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The wind energy farms can be set up only at specific locations where wind blows for the greater part of a year and the wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/

(C) Select the correct statement regarding different sources of energy:
(a) Geothermal energy makes use of steam trapped in rocks due to geological changes.
(b) Nuclear energy makes use of chemical reactions between different atoms to produce energy.
(c) Hydroelectricity makes use of gravitational pull of the moon on the spinning earth.
(d) Wave energy makes use of potential energy possessed by the waves.
Answer:

(D) Out of coal, petroleum, solar energy and wind, minimum pollution is caused by:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
Answer:

(E) Which of the following factor does not affect the?
(a) Ease of extracting energy from that source.
(b) Economics of extracting energy from the source and efficiency of the technology available.
(c) Environmental damage that will be caused by using that source.
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value
Answer:
(d) Has less energy efficiency and more calorific value

Explanation: All the above factors affect the choice of a particular source of energy.

Question 11.
Shaurya visited her paternal village after quite some time. She was pleasantly surprised to see that most of the houses had biogas chulhas at their place as a biogas plant was built by an NGO at the village.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 9
Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 12.
Wind power is one of the fastest-growing renewable energy technologies. Usage is on the rise worldwide, because costs are falling. Global installed wind-generation capacity onshore and offshore has increased by a factor of almost 75 in the past two decades, jumping from 7.5 gigawatts (GW) in 1997 to some 564 GW by 2018. Production of wind electricity doubled between 2009 and 2013, and in 2016 wind energy accounted for 16% of the electricity generated by renewables. Many parts of the world have strong wind speeds, but the best locations for generating wind power are sometimes remote ones. Offshore wind power offers tremendous potential.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 10
The power curve of a wind turbine is a graph that indicates how large the electrical power output will be for the turbine at different wind speeds. At very low wind speeds, the torque exerted by the wind on the blades is insufficient to bring the turbine to rotate. The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is typically between 3 and 4 m/s. Above the cut-in wind speed, there is sufficient torque for rotation, and power production increases before reaching a threshold. The lowest wind speed at which the nominal power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is typically between 12 and 17 m/s. The cut-off wind speed corresponds to the maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power and is usually about 25 m/s.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 11
(A) Study the above power graph and select the row containing the correct information:

Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safety Support while Generating Power
(a) 12 m/s  3 m/s  22 m/s
(b) 3 m/s  12 m/s  22 m/s
(c) 3 m/s  22 m/s  12 m/s
(d) 22 m/s  3 m/s  12 m/s

Answer:
(a) Lowest Wind Speed at which the Nominal Power is Reached: 12 m/s ;
Wind Speed at which the Turbine Starts to Generate Electricity : 3 m/s ;
Maximum Wind speed a Wind Turbine can Safely Support while Generating Power: 22 m/s

Explanation: The lowest wind speed at which the nominaL power is reached is called the rated (or nominal) wind speed and is about 12 m/s.
The wind speed at which the turbine starts to generate electricity is called cut-in or start up wind speed and is about 3 m/s.
The maximum wind speed a wind turbine can safely support while generating power is the cut-off speed and is about 22 m/s.

(B) In a water-lifting pump:
(a) The up and down motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(b) The horizontal motion of windmill is converted to rotatory motion.
(c) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to horizontal motion.
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.
Answer:
(d) The rotatory motion of windmill is converted to up and down motion.

Explanation: A water pumping windmill is simple, and efficient. The blades of the windmill wheel catch the wind, which turns the rotor. The wheel assembly is attached to a hub assembly, which drives a geared mechanism that converts the rotary motion to an up-and-down motion. This motion drives a pump rod, up and down inside of a pipe in the well. A cylinder with a sealed plunger going up and down inside forces the water up the pipe.

(C) Select the correct statements regarding wind mills:
(I) The rotatory motion of the windmill is used to turn the turbine of the electric generator.
(II) The output of a single windmill is quite large and can be used for commercial purposes.
(III) A wind energy farm is a large area where a number of windmills are erected.
(IV) The energy output of each windmill in a farm is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of these processes explains the extraction of energy from wind to do work?
(a) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into kinetic energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy
(c) conversion of mechanical energy of wind into potential energy
(d) conversion of potential energy of wind into mechanical energy
Answer:

(E) The minimum wind speed to maintain the required speed of the turbine is:
(a) 15 km/h
(b) 18 km/h
(c) 20 km/h
(d) 25 km/h
Answer:

Question 13.
Solar power in India is a fast developing industry. India is endowed with vast solar energy potential. About 5,000 trillion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day. Solar photovoltaics power can effectively be harnessed providing huge scalability in India. Solar also provides the ability to generate power on a distributed basis and enables rapid capacity addition with short lead times. Off-grid decentralized and low- temperature applications will be advantageous from a rural electrification perspective and meeting other energy needs for power and heating and cooling in both rural and urban areas. Solar energy has taken a central place in India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change with National Solar Mission as one of the key Missions. Recently, India achieved 5th global position in solar power deployment by surpassing Italy. Solar power capacity has increased by more than 11 times in the last five years from 2.6 GW in March,2014 to 30 GW in July, 2019.

The following graph shows annual solar power generation of the last seven years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 12
(A) ApproximateLy what percentage of solar energy incident on earth’s outer atmosphere reaches the earth’s surface?
(a)20%
(c)30%
(c)50%
(d)80%
Answer:
(c) 50 %

Explanation: Only a small part of soLar energy reaches the outer layer of the earth’s atmosphere. Nearly half of it is absorbed while passing through the atmosphere and the rest reaches the earth’s surface.

(B) The average solar energy incident over India’s Land area is given in tabLe beLow.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Solar Energy Incident over India’s Land Area per Year Average Solar Energy Incident per sq. m per Doy
(a) 2500 billion kWh  40-70 Wh
(b) 5000 trillion kWh  4-7 kWh
(c) 500 trilLion kWh  4-7 Wh
(d) 5000 billion kWh  0.4-0.7 kWh

Answer:
(b) Solar energy incictent over India’s land Area per year: 5000 trillion kWh: Average solar Energy incident Sq.m per Days 4-7 kWh ”

Explanation: About 5,000 triLlion kWh per year energy is incident over India’s land area with most parts receiving 4-7 kWh per sq. m per day.

(C) Energy conversion taking place in solar cell is:
(a) Solar energy is converted to Chemical energy
(b) Chemical energy is converted to electrical energy
(c) Heat energy is converted to Light energy
(d) Solar energy is converted to electrical energy
Answer:

(D) The advantages of using solar cells are given below. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) They have no moving parts.
(II) They make use of focusing devices for satisfactory performance.
(III) They can be set up in remote areas where laying of a power transmission line may be expensive.
(IV) Special grade silicon used in making solar cells are abundantly available
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Solar cells work quite satisfactorily without the use of any focusing devices. Silicon, which is used for making solar cells, is abundant in nature but availability of the special grade silicon for making solar cells is limited.

(E) The substance used for interconnection of cells in solar panel is:
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Platinum
(d) Copper
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 14.
Sardar Sarovar Dam (SSD), on the Narmada river, is located in the village of Kevadia in the state of Gujarat. It is one of the largest and most controversial interstate, multipurpose river valley infrastructure development projects in the country. The Sardar Sarovar Project (SSP) also consists of auxiliary works and a 1,450 MW power complex.
SSP was estimated to have cost INR 400bn ($8bn) in 2010-2011, revised from the initial estimate of INR 64bn ($1.25bn) in 1988. It is part of the Narmada Valley Development Project, a major plan to generate power and supply water for drinking and irrigation to states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. The scheme was conceived by the late Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1946¬1947. It envisages the construction of 30 major dams, 135 medium and 3,000 smaller dams along the river, with SSD being the largest of them all. They are expected to generate about 4,000 MW of power in total.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 8
(A) In hydroelectric power plants:
(a) Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy
(b) Wind energy is converted to solar energy
(c) Solar energy is converted to wind energy
(d) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy
Answer:

(B) Hydroelectric power plant uses :
(a) Non-renewable source of energy
(b) Non-conventional source of energy
(c) Conventional source of energy
(d) Exhaustible source of energy
Answer:
(c) Conventional source of energy

Explanation: Hydroelectric power plant uses water, which is a conventional source of energy and Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. It is a non-exhaustible source of energy as water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains.

(C) Given below are statements regarding problems associated with constructions of big dams.
Select the correct statements.
(I) The dams can be constructed only along the river course in plain areas.
(II) Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation are to be sacrificed as they get submerged.
(III) Large eco-systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
(IV) The submerged vegetation rots and produces large amounts of carbon dioxide, a green house gas.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:
(a) 1.450 MW
(b) 1450 kW
(c) 1450 MW
(d) 4000 MW
Answer:
(c) 1450 MW

The present installed capacity of the Sardar Sarovar Project is:

(E) The table below lists the comparison between thermal power plant and hydro power plant. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Thermal Power Plant Hydropower Plant
(a) Fossil fuels are burned to produce steam which runs turbine  The kinetic energy of water is used to run turbine
(b) Set up near coal or oil fields  Set up near oceans
(c) Causes pollution  Is pollution free
(d) Does not affect ecosystem  Affects ecosystem

Answer:
(b) Thermal Power Plant: Set up near coal or oil fields; Hydropower Plant: Set up near oceans

Explanation: Thermal power plants are usually set up near coal or oil fields to reduce the cost of transportation of coal or petroleum. In order to produce hydel electricity, high-rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 15.
Nuclear energy can be used to create electricity, but it must first be released from the atom. In the process of nuclear fission, atoms are split to release that energy. A nuclear reactor, or power plant, is a series of machines that can control nuclear fission to produce electricity. The fuel that nuclear reactors use to produce nuclear fission is pellets of the element uranium. Nuclear energy produces electricity that can be used to power homes, schools, businesses, and hospitals. The first nuclear reactor to produce electricity was located near Area, Idaho. The Experimental Breeder Reactor began powering itself in 1951. The first nuclear power plant designed to provide energy to a community was established in Obninsk, Russia, in 1954.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 14
(A) The table below lists the fuel, process involved and principle used for generating nuclear energy. Select the row containing the correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 15
Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements regarding nuclear reactors designed for electric power generation are incorrect?
(I) In a nuclear reactor designed for electric power generation the nuclear fuel undergoes fusion.
(II) A self sustaining chain reaction takes place.
(III) Energy is released at an uncontrolled rate.
(IV) The released energy is used to produce steam and further generate electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:

(C) In nuclear fission, a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with:
(a) A slow moving neutron
(b) A fast moving neutron
(c) A slow moving proton
(d) A fast moving electron
Answer:
(a) A slow moving neutron
Explanation: In nuclear fission, when a heavy nucleus such as Uranium is bombarded with a slow moving neutron, the nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei.

(D) The major hazard of nuclear power generation is:
(a) It produces lot of smoke
(b) Storage and disposal of spent fuels
(c) Limited availability of uranium
(d) Uncontrolled chain reaction
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not a reason for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive?
(a) Risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.
(b) High cost of installation of a nuclear power plant.
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination
(d) Limited availability of uranium.
Answer:
(c) Low risk of environmental contamination

Explanation: Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal result in environmental contamination which is one of the reasons for large scale use of nuclear energy being prohibitive.

Question 16.
Koyal was reading about harnessing the energy from the ocean. She read about the OTEC technology which generates electricity from turbines turned by steam produced from heating the warmer surface waters of the sea into steam. The steam is then condensed by the deeper colder waters which are pumped up from depths of around 1000 metres.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 16
What is the operating principal in OTEC systems?
Answer:
The OTEC or Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion systems work on the principle that there is a temperature difference between the water at the surface of the ocean is about 20 k warmer than the water at depths up to 2 km which is used to boil a volatile liquid whose vapours are then used to run the turbine of a generator.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers

Question 17.
Wind power is arguably one of the oldest human technologies. Today, wind power is symbolized in most people’s minds by a big, white, monolithic wind turbine. As we try to move into the post-carbon era, it’s worth remembering that only wind, nuclear, and solar have the same technical potential to provide energy as fossil fuels do today. Perhaps the face of future power generation won’t be huge smokestacks, but fields of wind turbines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 17
What are the factors which limit the use of wind energy?
Answer:
The factors which limit the use of wind energy are that the wind energy farms can be established only at places where wind blows for the greater part of the year and wind speed should also be greater than 15 km/h.

Question 18.
Geothermal energy, form of energy conversion in which heat energy from within the earth is captured and harnessed for cooking, bathing, space heating, electrical power generation, and other uses.Heat from Eorths interior generates surface phenomena such as lava flows, geysers, fumaroles, hot spíings, and mud pots. The heat is produced mainly by the radioactive decay of potassium, thorium, and uranium ¡n Earth’s crust and mantle and also by friction generated along the margins of continental plates.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers 18
What are hot spots? How are they different from hot springs?
Answer:
Hot spots are the regions in the earth’s crust where molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust are pushed and trapped. Hot springs are the outlets on the surface of the earth from where hot water comes out.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two constituents of biogas.
Answer:
The two constituents of biogas are:
(1) Methane
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Hydrogen sulphide

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Fire and Ice Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

Fire and Ice Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 2 Fire and Ice with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Fire and Ice Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-english-with-answers/

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 2 Fire and Ice with Answers

Question 1.
What is the name of the poet?
(a) Sylvia Plath
(b) W.B Yeats
(c) Robert Frost
(d) Robert Burns

Answer

Answer: (c) Robert Frost


What is the name of the poet?

Question 2.
Why do some people say that the world will end in ice?
(a) because love among people is increasing fast.
(b) because hatred among people is increasing fast.
(c) because lust among people is increasing fast.
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) because hatred among people is increasing fast.


Question 3.
What is ‘Ice’ a symbol of?
(a) Lust
(b) Love
(c) Desire
(d) Hatred

Answer

Answer: (d) Hatred


Question 4.
What is ‘fire’ a symbol of?
(a) love and new desires
(b) lust and endless desires
(c) love and beginning of a new thing.
(d) Revolution

Answer

Answer: (b) lust and endless desires


Question 5.
Where has he used personification?
(a) fire
(b) ice
(c) earth
(d) both 1 and 2

Answer

Answer: (d) both 1 and 2


Question 6.
Name the poetic device used in the line “Some say the world will end in fire”.
(a) Metaphor
(b) Imagery
(c) Alliteration
(d) Oxymoron

Answer

Answer: (b) Imagery


Question 7.
What is the rhyming scheme of the poem?
(a) abaa bcbcb
(b) aaba bcbcb
(c) aaab bcbcb
(d) abab bcbcb

Answer

Answer: (a) abaa bcbcb


Question 8.
What would suffice if the world were to perish twice?
(a) ice
(b) fire
(c) hatred
(d) both 1 and 2

Answer

Answer: (d) both 1 and 2


Question 9.
What does the poet compare fire with?
(a) hatred
(b) desire
(c) hot
(d) both 1 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b) desire


Question 10.
Name the poetic device used in the line “To say that for destruction ice is also great”.
(a) Metaphor
(b) Imagery
(c) Alliteration
(d) Oxymoron

Answer

Answer: (b) Imagery


Name the poetic device used in the line "To say that for destruction ice is also great".

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem 2 Fire and Ice with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 10 English Poem Fire and Ice MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.