Category: MCQ Questions

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Acid Bases And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
What happens when the solution of an acid is mixed with the solution of a base in a test tube?
(I) The temperature of the solution increases
(II) The temperature of the solution decreases
(III) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(IV) Salt formation takes place
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) and (IV)

Explanation: When an acid reacts with a base, a neutral salt is formed by the neutralisation process. As the neutralisation process is an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the solution increases.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water

Acids Bases And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
If 10 mL of H₂SO₄ is mixed with 10 mL of Mg(OH)₂ of the same concentration, the resultant solution will give the following colour with a universal indicator:
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Answer:
(c) Green.
Explanation: If 10 mL of H₂SO₄ is mixed with 10 mL of Mg(OH)₂ of the same concentration, the resultant solution be MgS04 which is a neutral salt and universal indicator will give the green colour in this solution:

Related Theory:
When an acid reacts with a base it forms salt and water. As a result, acidic properties disappear The process is called neutralisation. For a neutral solution. pH is 7. The solution having pH 7 wilL turn green in colour in universal indicator.

This online pH calculator is designed to determine the pH of an aqueous solution of a given chemical compound.

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following saLts does not contain water of crystatUsatlon?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Gypsum
Answer:

Acid Base And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
A visually challenged student has to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given solution. The acid-base indicator preferred by him will be:
(a) Blue litmus
(b) Clove oil
(c) Red cabbage extract
(d) Hibiscus extract
Answer:
(b) Clove oil

Explanation: Clove oil is an olfactory indicator. These are the substances that give one type of odour in an acidic medium so a visually challenged student prefers to use clove oil as an acid-base indicator.

As in basic solutions, the smell of clove oil disappears while the smell is retained when mixed with an acid, on the other hand, blue litmus, red cabbage extract and hibiscus extract wouLd not be used as acid-base indicators because in these indicators there will be a change in the colour.

Class 10 Acids Bases And Salts MCQ Question 5.
Baking soda is a mixture of:
(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Answer:

MCQ Of Acid Base And Salts Class 10 Question 6.
Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acid strength?
(a) Water < acetic acid < hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < hydrochloric acid < acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < water < hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < water < acetic acid
Answer:

Ch 2 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
What is observed when we pour a drop of acetic acid first on red and then on blue litmus papers?
(a) Red litmus paper becomes colourless and blue litmus paper remains blue.
(b) Red litmus paper turns blue and blue litmus paper remains blue.
(c) Red litmus paper remains red and blue litmus paper turns red.
(d) Red litmus paper turns blue and blue litmus paper turns red.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 2 MCQ Question 8.
Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following statements are true about the gas evolved?
(I) It turns lime water milky.
(II) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(III) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(IV) It has a pungent odour.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I), (II) and (III)

Explanation: Reaction of sodium hydrogen carbonate with acetic acid forms sodium acetate and water with carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas.

CO₂ does not have a pungent smell but it shows all the other three properties:

1. turns lime water milky,
2. is a non-supporter of combustion and
3. absorbed by strong alkalis such as NaOH.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 2 Question 9.
Common salt besides being used in the kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making:
(I) Washing soda
(II) Bleaching powder
(III) Baking soda
(IV)Slaked Urne
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Acids Bases And Salts MCQ Question 10.
To protect against tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the toothpaste commonly used is:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive
Answer:
(c) Basic

Explanation: The toothpaste commonly used is alkaline or basic in nature as they contain mild bases such as sodium fluoride or sodium bicarbonate in their composition.

The base reacts with the acid formed during bacterial action in the mouth and neutralises its bad effects. Thus, preventing tooth decay. So, they can neutralize the effect of extra acids being formed in the mouth cavity which are mainly responsible for tooth decay.

Related Theory
When we eat sweet things, the pH of our mouth falls below 5.5 (moderately acidic) as the oral bacteria release acid while acting on sugars present in our food. The acidic conditions are capable of corroding the enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate. This causes the tooth to decay.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Question 11.
Match the chemical substances given in Column I with their appropriate application given in Column II:

Column I	Column II
(A) Bleaching Powder	(1) Preparation of glass
(B) Baking Soda	(2) Production of H2 and Cl2
(C) Washing Soda	(3) Decolourisation
(D) Sodium Chloride	(4) Antacid

Answer:

Chapter 2 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
Which of the following phenomena occur, when a small amount of acid is added to water?
(I) Ionisation
(II) Neutralisation
(III) Dilution
(IV)Salt formation
(a) (I) and (II)
(c) (II) and (III)
(b) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
To protect against tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the toothpaste commonly used is:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive
Answer:
(c) Basic

Explanation: The toothpaste commonly used is alkaline or basic in nature as they contain

Class 10 Acid Base And Salt MCQ Question 13.
A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue:
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Vinegar
(c) Common salt
(d) An antacid
Answer:
(d) An antacid

Explanation: pH paper gives greenish-blue colour in a weak alkaline medium so antacid [Mg(OH)₂] which is an alkaline compound will show greenish-blue color on pH paper.

Related Theory
Lemon fruit contains citric acid, vinegar has acetic acid and common salt is the neutral salt the clear super natant solution turns the pH paper yellowish-orange means the given sample of soil is acidic so it can be neutralised by base/alkaline solution.

MCQ On Acids Bases And Salts Class 10 Question 14.
Which of the following is not a mineral acid?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Nitric acid
Answer:

Class 10 Chapter 2 Science MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following is/are true when HCl_(g) is passed through water?
(I) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(II) It ionises in the solution.
(III) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in the solution.
(IV) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water molecule.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (II) and (IV)

Explanation: HCl, is a polar covalent compound, easily ionises in water to form hydronium (H₃O⁺) and chloride ions (Cl^–). HCl (a strong acid) ionises completely in water to produce H⁺ and Cl^– ions. H⁺ ion combines with water molecules to produce hydronium ions.

Question 16.
Which among the following is not a base?
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NH₄OH
(d) C₂H₅OH
Answer:
(d) C₂HsOH
Explanation: C₂H₅OH is not a base. C₂H₅OH is an organic compound with -OH functional group that is known as alcohol. It cannot give OH^– ions in its solution. It cannot dissociate ions in a solution. Thus, it cannot be a basic compound.

Question 17.
Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during the chloralkali process.
(a) 2NaCl_(l) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(l) + Cl_2(g) + H_2(g)
(b) 2NaCl_(l) + 2H₂O_(aq) → 2NaOH_(aq) + Cl_2(g) + H_2(aq)
(c) 2NaCl_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + Cl_2(aq) + H_2(aq)
(d) 2NaCl_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + Cl_2(g) + H_2(g)
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is true for acids?
(a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue.
(b) Sour and change red litmus to blue.
(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red.
(d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red.

Question 19.
Zinc granules on treating with an acid X, form zinc sulphate (ZnSO₄) salt along with the evolution of a gas Y, which burns with a pop sound when brought near to a burning candle. Identify acid X and gas evolved Y.
(a) X-sulphuric acid and Y-oxygen gas
(b) X-hydrochloric acid and Y-oxygen gas
(c) X-sulphuric acid and Y-hydrogen gas
(d) X-hydrochloric acid and Y-hydrogen gas [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) X-sulphuric acid and Y-hydrogen gas

Explanation: When an acid reacts with a metal, hydrogen gas is liberated. In the given reaction, when dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules, hydrogen gas is liberated and zinc sulphate solution is formed:

The presence of hydrogen gas is tested by bringing a lighted candle near it. When a lighted candle is brought near the test tube containing hydrogen gas, it burns with a ‘pop’ sound making a little explosion.

Hence, acid X is sulphuric acid and gas Y is hydrogen gas.

Question 20.
Which of the following solutions in water does not conduct electricity?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Glucose
(d) Sulphuric acid [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) Glucose

Explanation: The aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity because of the presence of charged particles called ‘ions’ in it. When hydrochloric acid (HCl) is dissolved in water, its aqueous solution contains hydrogen ions (H⁺) and chloride ions (Cl^–). These ions carry electric currents. So, due to the presence of H⁺ and Cl^– ions, a solution of hydrochloric acid conducts electricity.

On the other hand, the hydrogen-containing compound such as glucose is not categorized as acid because it does not produce hydrogen ions or some other ions when dissolved in water and hence does not conduct electricity. Therefore, the answer is glucose.

Question 21.
Which of the following will turn phenolphthalein pink?
(a) NaOH_(aq)
(b) HCl_(aq)
(c) CH₃COOH_(aq)
(d) H₂O
Answer:

Question 22.
Which one of the following is not a use of washing soda:
(a) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
(b) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
(c) Sodium carbonate can be used as a clean¬ing agent for domestic purposes.
(d) It is used for disinfecting water.
Answer:
(d) It is used for disinfecting water.

Explanation: The compound that is used for disinfecting water is bleaching powder. How¬ever, washing soda is used for removing the permanent hardness of water.

Question 23.
The approximate pH values of four salts is given below. Select the row(s) containing the correct information.

Name of Salt	PH
(I) Potassium Sulphate	10
(II) Ammonium nitrate	5
(III) Sodium acetate	3
(IV) Sodium hydrogen carbonate	8

(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 24.
Zinc granules on treating with a substance X, form a salt sodium zincate along with the evolution of a gas Y which burns with a pop sound when brought near a burning candle. Identify the substance X and gas evolved Y.

X	Y
(a) Acetic acid	Hydrogen
(b) Sodium hydroxide	Hydrogen
(c) Sodium hydroxide	Oxygen
(d) Zinc hydroxide	Hydrogen

Answer:
(b) X is Sodium hydroxide and Y is hydrogen.

Explanation: When zinc granules react with sodium hydroxide, salt sodium zincate is formed along with hydrogen gas, which burns with a pop sound.

The equation of the reaction taking place is:
2NaOH_(aq) + Zn(s) → Na₂ZnO_2(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 25.
Which of the following salts belong to the same family of salts?
(I) sodium chloride and sodium acetate
(II) calcium sulphate, magnesium sulphate
(III) sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogen -carbonate
(IV) sodium chloride and magnesium sulphate
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 26.
A student noted his observations regarding the acidic or basic nature of salts as below:
(I) Sodium chloride is a neutral salt
(II) Ammonium chloride is a basic salt
(III) Sodium carbonate is a neutral salt
(IV) Copper sulphate is an acidic salt Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: The salts of strong acids and strong bases give neutral solutions. Therefore, sodium chloride is a neutral salt as it is obtained from sodium hydroxide (a strong base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid).

The salts of strong acids and weak bases give acidic solutions. Therefore, ammonium chloride and copper sulphate are acidic salts as ammonium chloride is obtained from ammonium hydroxide (a weak base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid), and copper sulphate is obtained from copper hydroxide (a weak base) and sulphuric acid (a strong acid).

The salts of weak acids and strong bases give basic solutions. Therefore, sodium carbonate is a basic salt as it is obtained from carbonic acid (a weak acid) and sodium hydroxide(a strong base).

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 2

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 27.
Assertion,(A): HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R): Acids always produce hydrogen ions.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper but changes colour of moist litmus paper as acids produce hydrogen ions only in solution.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Generally, the colour of indicators changes in a particular pH range.
Reason (R): Indicators are weak acids or weak base and exhibit different colours in molecular form and ionic form.
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: Since indicators are weak acids or weak bases, their percentage of existence in molecular state and in ionized state depends on the strength of acidic/basic/neutral solution to which they are added. Hence their colours change at a particular pH range.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide solution and hydrogen gas is evolved.
Reason (R): All metals react with bases to evolve hydrogen gas.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): While diluting an acid, water is slowly added to acid with constant stirring.
Reason (R): The process of dissolving an acid in water is a highly exothermic reaction.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Metal oxides are acidic in nature.
Reason (R): Calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form a salt and water.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation: The reaction of calcium hydroxide with carbon dioxide to form a salt and water is similar to the reaction between an acid and a base. Therefore, non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): When copper sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube, they turn white.
Reason (R): Water of crystallization is the number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Copper sulphate crystals that seem to be dry contain water of crystallisation. When we heat the crystals, this water is removed and the salt turns white.
CUSO₄.5H₂O → CuSO₄ + 5H₂O

Question 33.
Assertion (A): When copper oxide is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, the colour of the solution becomes blue-green.
Reason (R): Copper (II) chloride is formed.
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: When copper oxide is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, the colour of the solution becomes blue-green due to the formation of Copper (II) chloride, which is blue-green in colour.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
A chemistry student pLaced a strip of blue litmus paper and a strip of red litmus paper in a glass dish. Then she added a drop of dilute sulphuric acid to each strip of litmus paper. She observed that the blue litmus paper turned red, but the red litmus paper did not change color. Next, she placed a drop of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) on other strips of blue and red litmus paper. This time, the red litmus paper turned blue, but the blue litmus paper did not change. Finally, she put a drop of distilled water on strips of blue and red litmus paper. Neither strip changed color. She repeated the tests several times with the same results. The student concluded that acids turn blue litmus paper red; bases, such as sodium hydroxide, turn red litmus paper blue. As water did not affect either red or blue litmus paper, she reasoned that water was not an acid or a base, but a neutral substance.

Keeping these results in mind, the student poured a little sodium hydroxide into a beaker containing red and blue litmus paper. Then she added hydrochloric acid (HCl) drop by drop until the solution became neutral. She determined that a new, neutral substance had formed in the beaker. The substance was table salt, or sodium chloride (NaCl), which is one of many salts formed from an acid and a base.
(A) If a drop of an unknown substance turns blue litmus paper red, but does not change red litmus paper, what will be the substance – an acid or a base?
Answer:

(B) When strips of blue and red litmus paper are put in a beaker filled with a clear solution, neither litmus paper changes colour. What can you say about the solution?
Answer:
The solution must be neutral.

(C) Based on the results of this experiment, when would salt be formed?
Answer:

(D) What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell?
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is main component of egg shell so when we add nitric acid to egg shell, it reacts with calcium carbonate to form soluble calcium nitrate and water with brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide gas.
CaCO₃(s) + 2HNO₃(aq) → Ca(NO₃)₂(aq) + CO₂(g) + H₂O

Question 2.
When we smile, our teeth become visible. So, we should ensure that we have a beautiful set of teeth as it makes our smile even more beautiful! Tooth enamel is the thin outer covering of the tooth. This tough shell is the hardest tissue in the human body. Enamel covers the crown which is the part of the tooth that’s visible outside of the gums.

Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is:
(a) Basic
(b) Acidic
(c) Neutral
(d) Amphoteric
Answer:
(a) Basic

Explanation: Calcium phosphate Ca₃(PO₄)₂ is a basic salt, as it is formed by the combination of a weak acid (phosphoric acid) and a slightly stronger base (calcium hydroxide).

Question 3.
Patrick read about an industrial process for the electrolysis of sodium chloride solutions.
It is the technology used to produce chlorine and sodium hydroxide which are commodity chemicals required by industry. 35 million tons of chlorine were prepared by this process in 1987. Industrial-scale production began in 1892. Usually, the process is conducted on a brine (an aqueous solution of NaCl), in which case NaOH, hydrogen, and chlorine are formed. When using calcium chloride or potassium chloride, the products contain calcium or potassium instead of sodium. Related processes are known that use molten NaCl to give chlorine and sodium metal or condensed hydrogen chloride to give hydrogen and chlorine.
(A) Name the process referred to in the above passage.
Answer:
The process referred to in the passage is chlor-alkali process because of the products formed – chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.

(B) Where are the products of the above process produced?
Answer:

(C) Write the chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the process.
Answer:
The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
2NaCl(aq) + 2H₂O → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)

(D) How is bleaching powder prepared from one of the products formed in this industrial process?
Answer:

Question 4.
Neetu’s friend suffered a fracture in her foot while riding her bicycle. She had to be admitted to the nursing home and the doctor plastered her foot.

The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is:
(a) CaSO₄.2H₂O
(b) CaSO₄.H₂O
(c) CaSO₄.\(\frac{1}{2}\)H₂O
(d) 2CaSO₄.H₂O
Answer:
(c) CaSO₄. \(\frac{1}{2}\) H₂O

Explanation: Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. It is written in this form because two formula units of CaSO₄ share one molecule of water.

Related Theory
When gypsum is heated at 373K, it loses water molecules.

It is a white powder used by doctors for supporting fractured bones. It is also used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces smooth.

Question 5.
Sabina studied in history about Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March and came to know that sodium chloride was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom. She started exploring from the internet as she was anxious to know what all we can do with this salt other than using it as a table salt to make food tasty. Table salt is also used to preserve food, facilitates transport of nutrients and oxygen and is used as raw material to form various salts.

Based on the understanding of the given passage and the related studied concepts, answer the following questions:
(A) Name two salts of daily use for which common salt (sodium chloride) is the raw material.
(B) Draw a diagram of chloralkali process and write its equation.
Answer:

Question 6.
While performing experiments in chemistry lab, one should always wear a laboratory coat and be very careful while performing experiments. Some students have the bad habit of creating nuisance for other students which distracts the students and may cause serious accidents such as spilling of acid or can cause burn injuries.

If a few drops of concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(a) Wash the hand with a saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) After washing with plenty of water, apply a solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
Answer:
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate

Explanation: In such an accident, washing the hands with water will dilute the acid and wash it out. Any remaining acid will be neutralized with sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) as it is a base. This will minimize the effect of damage caused by acid to the skin.

Remember, too strong a base (like NaOH) can be corrosive.

Question 7.
Take about 2 mL of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube and a small amount of copper oxide in a beaker. Add two drops of phenolphthalein solution in the test tube. Add dilute HCl solution in both the test tube and the beaker drop by drop while stirring. Now add a few drops of NaOH to the mixture in the test tube.
(A) When two drops of phenolphthalein solution are added to the test tube,
(a) The solution turns pink in colour
(b) The solution turns colourless
(c) The solution turns red
(d) The solution turns yellow
Answer:
(a) The solution turns pink in colour

Explanation: Phenolphthalein is a colourless reagent which is used as an indicator as it changes the colour to pink in a basic solution. As dilute NaOH is a basic solution, its colour changes to pink on adding a few drops of phenolphthalein solution.

(B) @Four students recorded their observations on adding dilute HCL to the beaker containing copper oxide. Select the correct observation:

Student Observation-I	Observation-II
(a) Solution becomes colourless	Copper oxide dissolves
(b) Solution becomes blue-green in colour	Copper oxide dissolves
(c) Solution becomes blue green in colour	Copper oxide is formed as a precipitate
(d) Solution becomes colourless	Copper chloride solution is colourless

Answer:

(C) Select the correct observation(s):
When dilute HCl solution is added to the test tube drop by drop (after adding two drops of phenolphthalein solution) and then a few drops of NaOH solution are added to this mixture:
(I) The solution turns coLourless on adding dilute HCl
(II) The solution turns pink on adding dilute HCl
(III) The solution turns colourless again on adding NaOH to the mixture.
(IV) The solution turns pink again on adding NaOH to the mixture
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Identify the option that correctly describes the products formed in the test tube and beaker on adding dilute HCl:

Test Tube	Beaker
(a) Sodium chloride + hydrogen	Copper chloride + hydrogen
(b) Sodium chloride + water	Copper chloride + hydrogen
(C) Sodium chloride + hydrogen	Copper chloride + water
(d) Sodium chloride + water	Copper chloride + water

Answer:
(d) Test Tube: Sodium chloride + water; Beaker: Copper chloride + water

Explanation: The products formed in the test is sodium chloride and water and that in beaker is copper chloride and water.

When sodium hydroxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, it forms sodium chloride and water:
When copper oxide reacts with HCl, it forms copper chloride and water:
CuO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CuCl₂(aq) + H₂O(l)

(E) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a displacement reaction.
(II) Reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a double displacement reaction.
(III) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction.
(IV) Reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

Explanation: Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction which is also a double displacement reaction as products are formed by the exchange of ions between the reactants.

Similarly, the reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is also a neutralization reaction which is also a double displacement reaction.

Whereas in a displacement reaction, a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive substance from its compound as in the reaction between a metal such as zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

Question 8.
Sumit along with his friend went to a nearby shopping mall. They were standing under a tree when an ant stung his friend on his hands due to which his friend’s hand was painting a lot.

Name the acid along with its chemical formula present in ant sting.
Answer:
The acid present in ant sting is methanoic acid (formic acid). The chemical formula is HCOOH. Explanation: When an ant stings, it leaves formic acid (Methanoic acid) which causes pain and irritation. To get relief from the sting, mild base like baking soda can be applied on the stung.

Question 9.
Take about 1g solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube and set up the apparatus as shown in Figure.

Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube.
(A) The gas produced in the test tube is:
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Hydrogen chloride
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen chioride
Explanation: When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sodium chloride, the following reaction takes place:

2NaCl+ H₂SO₄→ Na₂SO₄ + 2HCl

(B) A student tested the gas coming out of the delivery tube first with dry blue litmus paper and then with wet litmus paper and noted down the following observations. Select the correct observation:

Dry Blue Litmus Paper	Wet Blue Litmus Paper
(a) No change	Turns red
(b) Turns red	No change
(c) Turns red	Turns red
(d) No change	No change

Answer:

(C) If climate is humid, the gas evolved is passed through a guard tube containing:
(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium chloride
Answer:
(d) Calcium chloride

Explanation: During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube containing calcium chloride during humid climate, as calcium chloride is a good drying agent and absorbs moisture from the gas.

(D) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Hydrogen ions in HCl are produced even in absence of water.
(II) Hydrogen ions can exist alone.
(III) Hydrogen ions exist after combining with water molecules.
(IV) Hydrogen ions in HCl are produced only in presence of water
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: The separation of H⁺ ions from HCl molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.
HCl +H₂O → H₃O⁺ + Cl^–
Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone, but they exist after combining with water molecules. Thus hydrogen ions must always be shown as H⁺(aq) or hydronium ion (H30⁺).
H⁺ + H₂O → H₃O⁺

(E) Hydrogen ions must always be shown as H⁺(aq) or hydronium ion (H₃0⁺) as:
(a) Hydrogen ions combine with water to form hydronium ions
(b) Hydrogen gas dissociates into ions.
(c) All acids dissociate into hydrogen ions in presence of a base.
(d) Hydrogen ions separate from acids on passing electricity.
Answer:

Question 10.
Acids and bases represent two important classes of chemical compounds. In every day life, acids and bases play a role in everything from the digestion of the foods you eat to the function of the medicine you take and even the cleaning products you use. Without acids and bases, many of the products in your home today would not have much use. Acids and bases are also important in atmospheric, geological, and physiological processes because they have unique chemical properties. Acids and bases have unique chemical properties because of the atomic composition of these compounds and how these compounds interact with other atoms and molecules.
The pH of some common substances is shown below:
(A) The nature of calcium phosphate present in tooth enamel is:
(a) Basic
(b) Amphoteric
(c) Acidic
(d) Neutral
Answer:

(B) What is the pH value of saliva after meal?
(a) between 0 and 4
(b) between 4 and 5
(c) between 5 and 6
(d) between 6 and 7
Answer:
(c) between 5 and 6

Explanation: The pH of saliva after meals is around 5.8 due to the increased activity of bacteria on the food that we eat.

(C) Given below are four statements. Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Pain and irritation during indigestion is due to the excess acid produced by the stomach.
(II) People use antacids to get rid of this pain which are bases.
(III) Milk of magnesia is an antacid as it is a mild acid.
(IV) Antacids neutralize the excess acid produced in the stomach.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Only (III)

Explanation: Antacids are bases which help in getting rid of the pain and irritation during indigestion by neutralizing the excess acid produced in the stomach. Milk of magnesia or magnesium hydroxide is a mild base that is used as an antacid.

(D) The pH level of the human body is:
(a) Less than 7, acidic
(b) Equal to 7, Neutral
(c) More than 7, basic
(d) None of the above
Answer:

(E) A student tabulated the naturally occurring acidic substances and the acid contained in them.

Natural Source	Acid found
(I) Vinegar	Methanoic acid
(II) Nettle sting	Acetic acid
(III) Tomato	Oxalic acid
(IV) Orange	Citric acid

Select the option containing the correct acid found in them:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:
(b) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Vinegar contains acetic acid, whereas nettle sting contains methanoic acid.

Question 11.
If you think the best way to put out a fire is by dousing it with water, you’d be surprised to know you’re wrong. As it turns out, not all fires are created equal, and there is more than one way to extinguish them safely. There are situations where you should not use water to deal with a fire at all. For example, an electrical fire.

Name the chemicals used in acid fire extinguishers and the gas that evolved from it when it is used?
Answer:
The chemicals used in soda acid fire extinguishers are sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.
The gas evolved when the two reactants react is carbon dioxide which is used for extinguishing electrical fires.
The reaction taking place between the two chemicals is
2NaHCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2CO₂ + 2H₂O

Question 12.
The reaction between MnO₂ with HCl is depicted in the following diagram. It was observed that a gas with bleaching abilities was released.

(A) The chemical reaction between MnO₂ and HCl is an example of:
(a) displacement reaction
(b) combination reaction
(c) redox reaction
(d) decomposition reaction.
Answer:
(c) redox reaction

Explanation: When MnO₂ reacts with HCl, the following reaction takes place in which chlorine gas is also evolved, which has bleaching properties.
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O

In this reaction, Hydrochloric acid is oxidized to chlorine and Manganese dioxide is reduced to manganese dichloride. As both oxidation and reduction are taking place in this reaction, it is a redox reaction.

(B) Chlorine gas reacts with ……………… to form bleaching powder.
(a) dry Ca(OH)₂
(b) dil. solution of Ca(OH)₂
(c) cone, solution of Ca(OH)₂
(d) dry CaO
Answer:
(a) dry Ca(OH)₂
Explanation: Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],
Ca(OH)₂ + Cl₂ → CaOCl₂ + H₂O

(C) Identify the correct statement from the following:
(a) MnO₂ is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized
(b) MnO₂ is getting oxidized whereas HCl is getting reduced.
(c) MnO₂ and HCl both are getting reduced.
(d) MnO₂ and HCl both are getting oxidized.
Answer:
(a) Mn02 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized.
Explanation: In the reaction between
MnO₂ and HCl, MnO₂ is getting reduced to manganese dichloride as it is losing oxygen atoms. Whereas, HCl is getting oxidized to chlorine by the removal of oxygen.

Related Theory
Oxidation is the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of hydrogen from a substance.
Reduction is the addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance.
The oxidising agent is the substance that provides oxygen for oxidation or which removes hydrogen.
Reducing agent is the substance which provides hydrogen for reduction or which removes oxygen.

(D) In the above-discussed reaction, what is the nature of MnO₂?
(a) Acidic oxide
(b) Basic oxide
(c) Neutral oxide
(d) Amphoteric oxide
Answer:
(b) Basic oxide
Explanation: As MnO₂ reacts with HCl to form salt, water and chlorine gas, it is a basic oxide since it reacts with an acid. Moreover, oxides of metals are basic in nature whereas oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.

(E) What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of aqueous solution of HCl?
(a) Reaction will occur faster.
(b) Reaction will not occur.
(c) Reaction rate will be slow
(d) Reaction rate will remain the same.
Answer:
(b) Reaction wiil not occur

Explanation: A substance shows its acidic properties only in presence of water as it is able to dissociate into H+ ions, which is responsible for its acidic properties.

So, if we use dry HCl, then no reaction will take place as HCl will not be able to dissociate into ion$ as shown by the following reaction:
HCl + H₂O H₃O⁺ + Cl^–

Question 13.
Frothing in Yamuna:
The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content in the wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghats and households. Yamuna’s pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled ‘dead’ as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic life to survive.

(A) Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high content of detergents dissolved in it.
(a) 10-11
(b) 5-7
(c) 2-5
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 10-11

Explanation: Detergents are basic in nature having pH value of 10-11. As the froth has a high content of detergents dissolved in it, the pH value of water of river Yamuna will be 10 -11.

(B) Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents dissolved in it?
(a) low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH^–)and high concentration of hydronium ion (H₃O⁺)
(b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH^–) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H₃O⁺)
(c) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH^–) as well as hydronium ion (H₃O⁺)
(d) equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH^–) and hydronium ion (H₃O⁺).
Answer:
(b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH^–) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H₃O⁺)

Explanation: As detergents are basic in nature, the concentration of hydroxide ions will be high and the concentration of hydronium ions will be less.

Related Theory
When bases are dissolved in water, they dissociate into hydroxide ions.
For example, NaOH(aq) → Na⁺(aq) + CH^–(aq)
KOH(aq) → K⁺(aq) + OH^–(aq)

(C) The table provides the pH value of four solutions P, Q, R and S

Solution	PH Value
P	2
Q	9
R	5
S	11

Which of the following correctly represents the solutions in increasing order of their hydronium ion concentration?
(a) P > Q > R> S
(b) P > S > Q > R
(c) S < Q < R< P
(d) S < P < Q < R
Answer:
(c) S < Q < R. < P

Explanation: The pH of a substance is related to the concentration of hydrogen or hydronium ions. An acid has a high concentration of hydronium ions and a low pH value whereas a base has a high pH value and a low concentration of hydronium ions.

So, we can say, lower the pH value, the more is the concentration of hydronium ions. Therefore, the hydronium ion concentration is least in S, followed by Q, R and then P which has the maximum concentration of hydronium ions.

(D) High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:
(a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae
(b) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of the growth of algae
(c) increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae
(d) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased growth of algae
Answer:
(a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae

Explanation: When the amount of phosphate ions in water increases, it leads to decreased level of dissolved oxygen which is harmful for the aquatic organisms. This leads to an increased growth of algae due to presence of nutrients.

Related Theory
Eutrophication is the process in which a water body becomes overly enriched with nutrients, leading to plentiful growth of simple plant life. The excessive growth (or bloom) of algae and plankton in a water body are indicators of this process.

(E) If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the following methods will you adopt to neutralize it?
(a) Treating the water with baking soda
(b) Treating the water with vinegar
(c) Treating the water with caustic soda
(d) Treating the water with washing soda
Answer:
(b) Treating the water with vinegar

Explanation: As detergents are basic in nature, an acid will neutralize it. Out of the substances mentioned, only vinegar is acidic, as it is 5 – 8% solution of ethanoic acid in water.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What types of ions are formed: (a) when an acid is dissolved in water (b) when a base is dissolved in water?
Answer:

Question 2.
‘A’ is a soluble acidic oxide and ‘B’ is a soluble base. Compared to pH of pure water, what will be the pH of (a) solution of A (b) solution of B?
Answer:
pH of pure water is 7. As A is a soluble acid, its pH will be less than that of pure water whereas pH of B will be more than that of pure water as it is a soluble base.

Question 3.
When electricity is passed through a common salt solution, sodium hydroxide is produced along with the liberation of two gases “X” and “Y”. “X” burns with a pop sound whereas “Y” is used for disinfecting drinking water. Identify X and Y.
Answer:
The reaction is chlor-alkali process. As X burns with a pop sound, X is hydrogen gas. Y is chlorine gas which is used for disinfecting drinking water.

Question 4.
Which bases are called alkalis? Give one example of alkali.
Answer:
The bases that are soluble in water are called alkalies. One example of an alkali is sodium hydroxide, NaOH.

Question 5.
Name the acid and base that have com stituted the salt ammonium nitrate
Answer:

Question 6.
Oxides of metals are basic while those of non-metals are acidle, Explain.
Answer:
Oxides of metals are basic as they react with acids to produce salt and water.
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl₂ + H₂O
Oxides of non-metals are acidic as they react with bases to produce salt and water.
CO₂ + Ca(OH)₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

Question 7.
Write a balanced chemical eauatin for the renction between sodium carbonals and hydrochloric acid indicating the physical state of reactions and the products.
Answer:
The balanced equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid is given below:
Na₂CO₃(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l) + CO₂(g)

Question 8.
Give reasons for the following:
(A) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of Plaster of Paris.
(B) Sodium hydrogen carbonates is used as an antacid.
(C) On strong heating, blue coloured copper sulphate crystals turn white.
Answer:

Question 9.
A student prepared solutions of (I) an acid and (II) a base in two separate beakers. She forgot to label the solutions and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since, both the solutions are colourless, how will she distinguish between the two?
Answer:
In the absence of litmus, other natural or synthetic substances can be used to test acid and bases. Such substances are called indicators. Indicators such as methyl orange and phenolphthalein can be used to test the nature of a solution.

These indicators show change in their colour in acidic, neutral and basic solutions. We can also use natural indicators such as turmeric and grape juice. A few indicators with characteristic colour change are shown below:

Question 10.
Fill in the missing data in the given table.


Answer:

1. Acid: HCl
NH₄OH + HCl → NH₄Cl + H₂O

2. Formula: CuSO₄ and base: Cu(OH)₂
H₂SO₄ + Cu(OH)₂ → CuSO₄ + 2H₂O

3. Acid: HCl
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

4. Base: Mg(OH)₂
Mg(OH)₂ + 2HNO₃ → Mg(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O

5. Base: KOH and Acid: H₂SO₄
2KOH + H2SO₄ → K2SO₄ + 2H₂O

6. Acid: HNO₃
Ca(OH)₂ + 2HNO₃ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O

Question 11.
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water that can be removed by it?
Answer:

Question 12.
(A) You are given two solutions A and B and their pH is 6 and 8 respectively. Answer the following:
(i) Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion concentration?
(ii) Which is acidic and which is basic?
Answer:
pH of solution A = 6 pH of solution B = 8
(i) Solution A will have a higher hydrogen ion concentration. Explanation: We know that the pH of any solution is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration. This means that the solution that has lower pH number will have the higher hydrogen ion concentration.

(ii) Also solution A is acidic and solution B is basic because H+ ion concentration is higher in acidic solution.

(B) What is dilution?
Answer:
Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in concentration of ions (H₃O⁺/ OH^–) per unit volume. Such process is called dilution and the acid or base is said to be dituted. The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction.

Question 13.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is added to test tube B. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:

Question 14.
Crystals of a substance changes their color on heating in a closed vessel but regained it after sometime, when they were allowed to cool down.
(A) Name one such substance.
Answer:
One such substance whose crystals changes its colour from blue to white on heating in a closed vessel for some time is hydrated copper sulphate, CuSO₄.5H₂O.

(B) Explaain the phenomenon involved.
Answer:
Hydrated salts contain molecules of water known as water of crystallization. When such crystals are heated in a closed container, they lose their water of crystallization and hence change of colour is observed.

Related Theory:
When a salt which has lost its water of crystallization due to heating is left to cool down, it absorbs moisture from air and regains its water of crystallisation and thus, also its color.

Question 15.
The pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5. What changes will occur in EMB his mouth? How these changes can be controlled? Write any two measures.
Answer:
When the pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5, the acid produced by the action of bacteria on sugar and food particles in mouth corrodes even the tooth enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate. This leads to dental caries and tooth decay.

These changes can be controlled by the following measures:

1. By using tooth pastes, which are generally basic in nature, as they can neutralize the excess acid produced in the mouth and hence help in preventing tooth decay.
2. By regular brushing of teeth twice a day and especially after eating sweets and chocolates.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Environment And Sustainable Development Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is not a biotic element?
(A) Birds
(B) Sunlight
(C) Forests
(D) Animals

Answer

Answer: (B) Sunlight

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Sustainable Development MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 2.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(A) Fish
(B) Coal
(C) Petroleum
(D) Iron-ore

Answer

Answer: (A) Fish

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MCQ On Sustainable Development Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 3.
Which of the following is an impact of global warming?
(A) Deforestation
(B) Rise in sea level
(C) Waste generation
(D) Rapid increase in population

Answer

Answer: (B) Rise in sea level

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Environment And Sustainable Development MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 4.
In which of the following layers of the atmosphere is ozone shield found?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Mesosphere

Answer

Answer: (C) Stratosphere

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MCQ On Environment And Sustainable Development Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 5.
Which of the following is a consequence of ozone layer depletion?
(A) Skin cancer in humans
(B) Lower production of phytoplankton
(C) Hampers growth of terrestrial plants
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (D) All of the above

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MCQ On Sustainable Development In India Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 6.
When was the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) set up?
(A) 1964
(B) 1974
(C) 1984
(D) 1994

Answer

Answer: (B) 1974

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Sustainable Development Means MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 7.
How many industrial categories have been identified as significantly polluting by the CPCB?
(A) 17
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 31

Answer

Answer: (A) 17

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MCQ On Sustainable Development With Answers Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 8.
Which of the following is the modern concept of development?
(A) Economic development
(B) Economic growth
(C) Sustainable development
(D) Human development

Answer

Answer: (C) Sustainable development

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Environmental Economics MCQ Pdf With Answers Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 9.
Use of which of the following has resulted in a significant reduction in Delhi’s pollution?
(A) LPG at homes
(B) Solar cells for electricity
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) CNG in public transport

Answer

Answer: (D) CNG in public transport

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Sustainable Development MCQs Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 10.
Which of the following is a conventional source of energy?
(A) Sun
(B) Wind
(C) Dried dung
(D) Tides

Answer

Answer: (C) Dried dung

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II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQ Questions On Sustainable Development Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 1.
Sunlight is an example of ______ elements.

Answer

Answer: abiotic

---

Sustainable Development MCQ Questions Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 2.
______ resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use.

Answer

Answer: Non-renewable

---

Development Is Sustained By MCQ Chapter 9 Class 12 Question 3.
The absorptive capacity of the environment is the ability to absorb ________

Answer

Answer: degradation

---

Question 4.
Global warming is caused due to increase in greenhouse gases through the burning of fossil fuels and ________

Answer

Answer: deforestation

---

Question 5.
In India, the ________ of the Deccan Plateau is particularly suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

Answer

Answer: black soil

---

Question 6.
The origins of chlorine and bromine compounds in stratosphere are ________

Answer

Answer: chlorofluorocarbons

---

Question 7.
_______ emissions are the major contributors to air pollution in urban areas of India.

Answer

Answer: Vehicular

---

Question 8.
The CPCB has identified _______ categories of industries as significantly polluting.

Answer

Answer: seventeen

---

Question 9.
Thermal power plants emit large quantities of ________ which is a greenhouse gas.

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

---

Question 10.
________ plants use the energy of such streams to move small turbines.

Answer

Answer: Mini-hydel

---

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Fossil fuels can be used without the possibility of these becoming depleted or exhausted.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
The environment is able to perform its functions without any interruption as long as the resource extraction does not exceed the rate of regeneration.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
In the early days of civilisation, the supply of environmental resources and services was much less than their demand.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
India alone accounts for nearly 20 percent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Improper planning and management of irrigation systems are one of the factors responsible for land degradation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Herman Daly defined sustainable development as one which is directly concerned with increasing the material standard of living of the poor at the grass-root level.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Sustainable development is synonymous with the conservation of the environment.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
The products used under a western system of treatment are free from side effects.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Prior to the advent of the green revolution, food products were contaminated and soil, water bodies, and even groundwater were polluted.

Answer

Answer: False

---

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Condition of sustainable development	(A) Industrial machines
2. Reason for noise pollution	(B) Long term increase in real per capita income
3. Cause of environmental degradation	(C) Reduction in level of pollution
4. Non-renewable resources	(D) Rapid industrialisation
5. Economic growth	(E) Exhausted after use

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Condition of sustainable development	(C) Reduction in level of pollution
2. Reason for noise pollution	(A) Industrial machines
3. Cause of environmental degradation	(D) Rapid industrialisation
4. Non-renewable resources	(E) Exhausted after use
5. Economic growth	(B) Long term increase in real per capita income

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We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Environment and Sustainable Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 6 Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Economic Reforms Since 1991 Class 12 MCQs Question 1.
Industrial revolution came first in:
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) America.

Answer

Answer: (c) England

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Economic Reforms Since 1991 MCQ Questions Question 2.
In which year first train ran on rails in India:
(a) 1950
(b) 1953
(c) 1853
(d) 1901.

Answer

Answer: (c) 1853

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New Economic Policy 1991 Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Development plans started in India in which year:
(a) 15 August 1947
(b) 1 April 1951
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 15 July 1969.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 April 1951

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Development Experience (1947-90) And Economic Reforms Since 1991 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following organisation frame 5 year plan:
(a) Yojana Ayog
(b) National development
(c) Finance ministry
(d) Home ministry.

Answer

Answer: (a) Yojana Ayog

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MCQs On Economic Reforms In India Question 5.
In the year 1951 what % of contribution was from agriculture towards national income:
(a) 72%
(b) 65%
(c) 59%
(d) 51%.

Answer

Answer: (c) 59%

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MCQ On Economic Reforms In India Question 6.
In India green revolution was successful for:
(a) Wheat and Potato
(b) Wheat and Rice
(c) Cereals and Rice
(d) Pulses and Com.

Answer

Answer: (b) Wheat and Rice

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Economic Reforms Since 1991 MCQ Questions Class 12 Question 7.
Small scale industry is:
(a) Labour intensive
(b) Capital intensive
(c) Complementary to large scale industries
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Labour intensive

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Fill in the blanks:

1. In India iron production company TISCO was established in the year …………………….

Answer

Answer: 1907

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2. In case of economic immobility industrial structure is ……………………………

Answer

Answer: Weak

---

3. Before British rule condition of cottage industry was ………………………..

Answer

Answer: High

---

4. Indian Poster Act was framed in the year ……………………………

Answer

Answer: 1898

---

5. In India till date use have ……………………… five year plans.

Answer

Answer: 12

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6. In India during independence …………………………… was the area on which population independance was least.

Answer

Answer: Secondary

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7. In planning period rate of savings and investment got ………………………………. times increased.

Answer

Answer: 2

---

8. ………………………….. is the main programme for organisational remedy for agriculture.

Answer

Answer: Land development

---

9. Declaration of National policy for farmers was done in the year …………………………..

Answer

Answer: 2007

---

10. At present only Number of private public sector is ……………………………..

Answer

Answer: 235

---

11. …………………………….. business has fear of Deflation.

Answer

Answer: International

---

12. At present only ………………………. type of industries are reserved.

Answer

Answer: Two

---

State true or false:

1. During independence 90% of working population was engaged in manufacturing unit.

Answer

Answer: False

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2. Main aim of planning in India was to achieve equality.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Fourth plan started in 1969.

Answer

Answer: True

---

4. Indian agriculture is dependant on Monsoon.

Answer

Answer: True

---

5. NABARD is the best bank for agriculture.

Answer

Answer: True

---

6. Raw materials were exported during British rule.

Answer

Answer: False

---

7. In 1951 estimated age was 32 years.

Answer

Answer: True

---

8. First railway train ran in India from Bombay to Thane.

Answer

Answer: True

---

9. Chairman of Planning commission is President.

Answer

Answer: False

---

10. At present Planning commission has been discontinued in India.

Answer

Answer: True

---

11. Zamindari eradication Act was enforced first in Chennai in 1951.

Answer

Answer: True

---

12. Green revolution is related to food grains.

Answer

Answer: True

---

13. India is exporter of petroleum.

Answer

Answer: False

---

14. In 1991 India’s devaluation took place in three phases.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the columns:

Column A	Column B
1. Colonialism	(a) 18.3%
2. Literacy rate in 1951	(b) 50%
3. Year of Bombay plan	(c) Economic exploitation
4. Industrial development Act	(d) Investment in shares
5. Employment in agriculture	(e) 1944
6. Second industrial policy	(f) 1951
7. Privitization	(g) 1956
8. Economic development programme	(h) Economic immobility
9. Destructive effect of British rule	(i) Liberalization, privatisation and globalisation.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Colonialism	(c) Economic exploitation
2. Literacy rate in 1951	(a) 18.3%
3. Year of Bombay plan	(e) 1944
4. Industrial development Act	(f) 1951
5. Employment in agriculture	(b) 50%
6. Second industrial policy	(g) 1956
7. Privitization	(d) Investment in shares
8. Economic development programme	(i) Liberalization, privatisation and globalisation.
9. Destructive effect of British rule	(h) Economic immobility

---

Answer in one word:

1. Main problem arised due to partition of country?

Answer

Answer: Scarcity of raw material

---

2. When did Air transport started in India?

Answer

Answer: 1927

---

3. Who is the chairman of Planning commission?

Answer

Answer: Prime Minister

---

4. Full form of M.R.T.P?

Answer

Answer: Monopoly and restrictional business

---

5. Iron, Coal, Cement are which type of industry?

Answer

Answer: behaviour act

---

6. Which are the main crops of India?

Answer

Answer: Primary industry

---

7. When was New Industrial Policy declared?

Answer

Answer: 1991

---

8. What is selling of goods to other countries called ?

Answer

Answer: Foreign trade

---

9. How are the natural resources utilized in International trade ?

Answer

Answer: Complete

---

10. What is selling of goods at low prices to other nations called ?

Answer

Answer: Deflation

---

11. What was trade balance in 1950-51?

Answer

Answer: -2

---

12. What is called the interaction among economics of the world ?

Answer

Answer: Globalization

---

13. When was new economic policy enforced.

Answer

Answer: 1991

---

Question 14.
Which is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decisive stage?

Answer

Answer: 1921 is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decisive stage.

---

Question 15.
When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?

Answer

Answer: In 1881.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 6 Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 7 Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy MCQ Question 1.
It is found in rural areas of India:
(a) Educated unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) Frictional unemployment.

Answer

Answer: (b) Disguised unemployment

---

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
What is important in organic farming:
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Animal manure
(c) Mechanical agriculture and Natural fertilizer control
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

---

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 Pdf Question 3.
Fair in villages are held:
(a) Weekly
(b) Fortnightly
(c) Daily
(d) On special occasions.

Answer

Answer: (a) Weekly

---

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 Question 4.
In 1951 number of universities in country:
(a) 25
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 53.

Answer

Answer: (b) 27

---

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 Important Questions Question 5.
When was state of Madhya Pradesh established:
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1961
(d) 1856.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1956

---

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Class 12 Notes Question 6.
When price index increases it means:
(a) Value of currency increases
(b) Value of currency decreases
(c) No effect of value of currency
(d) None of the these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Value of currency decreases

---

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Economics Pdf Question 7.
Element of commercial energy:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Gas and electricity
(d) All.

Answer

Answer: (d) All.

---

MCQ On Macroeconomics For Class 12 With Answers Question 8.
Energy from hot spring:
(a) Small hydro power
(b) Biomass
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Hydro – electricity

Answer

Answer: (c) Geothermal energy

---

Economics Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 9.
In India supply of electricity started first:
(a) In Delhi
(b) In Chennai
(c) In Darjeeling
(d) In Bhopal.

Answer

Answer: (c) In Darjeeling

---

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Economics Chapter Wise Question 10.
National literacy mission is related to:
(a) Primary education
(b) High education
(c) Rural
(d) Adult education.

Answer

Answer: (d) Adult education.

---

Fill in the blanks:

1. Economic development is ……………………..

Answer

Answer: Continuous

---

2. Percapita income = ……………………….. /Total population.

Answer

Answer: National income

---

3. Universal indicator of Quality of life is ………………………….

Answer

Answer: Three

---

4. Economic development leads to …………………….. pollution.

Answer

Answer: Environment

---

5. In approx ……………………….. % cities of India amount of sulphur – dioxide and S.P.M. is maximum.

Answer

Answer: 20

---

6. …………………… is a challenge for Indian economy.

Answer

Answer: Unemployment

---

7. For poverty eradication in Aug 1979 ………………………… plan was started.

Answer

Answer: Trisem

---

8. Nehru employment plan was started in …………………………

Answer

Answer: 28 April 1989

---

9. …………………………… % of Indian population lives in villages.

Answer

Answer: 74 – 3%

---

10. Main problems of farmers is …………………….. and ………………………..

Answer

Answer: Agriculture finance

---

11. Duration of ………………………….. loan is 15 months to 5 years.

Answer

Answer: Temporary

---

12. ………………………. is physical capital.

Answer

Answer: Dynamic

---

13. In order to improve quality of school education ……………………….. is the best organisation.

Answer

Answer: NCERT

---

14. In India for every 100 people there are ………………………………

Answer

Answer: 40

---

15. Repo Rate causes increase in consumption expenditure and …………………………… expenditure.

Answer

Answer: Investment

---

State true or false:

1. Poverty line is same for rural and urban areas.

Answer

Answer: False

---

2. Trisem plan is working at present.

Answer

Answer: False

---

3. Bio farming and organic farming are different.

Answer

Answer: False

---

4. Proportion of man in working population is higher to woman.

Answer

Answer: False

---

5. Rate of participation of women in rural areas as compared to urban area is higher.

Answer

Answer: True

---

6. By the end of 11 plan no. of unemployed people will be 480 lakh.

Answer

Answer: True

---

7. Inflation results in favourable settlement.

Answer

Answer: False

---

8. Economic development is a short term process.

Answer

Answer: False

---

9. Indian medical has six recognition system.

Answer

Answer: True

---

10. With the passing time use of electricity is decreasing in agriculture.

Answer

Answer: False

---

11. Life expectancy of women is less as compared to man.

Answer

Answer: False

---

12. Forest destruction is a result of soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

13. Environment includes biological and non – biological elements.

Answer

Answer: True

---

14. Midday meal programme started from 15 August 1995.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the columns:

Column A	Column B
1. Employment Insurance Policy	(a) 69%
2. Reason for poverty in India	(b) 1994
3. Agriculture marketing	(c) Natural reasons
4. Agriculture input	(d) 16
5. According to 2011 least women women literacy rate in India	(e) Biomass
6. According to 2011 Rural literacy rate	(f) Shendi
7. Jawahar employment plan	(g) Hybrid seed
8. Prime minister Gramoday ¥ojna	(h) 64 years
9. Contingent unemployment	(i) 69%
10. Non-conventional energy	(j) Increase in living standard
11. Indicator of good health	(k) High life expectancy
12. Life expectancy of women	(l) 28 April, 1989
13. Sustainable development	(m) Industrialization
14. Non-renewable resources	(n) 2000-2001
15. Reasons for environment degration	(o) Get finished with use.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Employment Insurance Policy	(b) 1994
2. Reason for poverty in India	(d) 16
3. Agriculture marketing	(f) Shendi
4. Agriculture input	(g) Hybrid seed
5. According to 2011 least women women literacy rate in India	(a) 69%
6. According to 2011 Rural literacy rate	(i) 69%
7. Jawahar employment plan	(l) 28 April, 1989
8. Prime minister Gramoday yojna	(n) 2000-2001
9. Contingent unemployment	(c) Natural reasons
10. Non-conventional energy	(e) Biomass
11. Indicator of good health	(k) High life expectancy
12. Life expectancy of women	(h) 64 years
13. Sustainable development	(j) Increase in living standard
14. Non-renewable resources	(o) Get finished with use.
15. Reasons for environment degration	(m) Industrialization

---

Answer in one word:

1. Reason for poverty in India.

Answer

Answer: Increase in population

---

2. Person who is willing to work and have qualification too but could not get job.

Answer

Answer: Unemployed

---

3. Farming were chemical fertilizer and insecticides are not used.

Answer

Answer: Organic farming

---

4. This type of marketing started in 1912 in India.

Answer

Answer: Agriculture

---

5. Reason for rural unemployment.

Answer

Answer: Mechanization of agriculture

---

6. When was NABARD was established.

Answer

Answer: 12 July

---

7. Define Poverty?

Answer

Answer: Poverty refers to a state in which an individual is unable to fulfill even the basic necessities of life.

---

8. What are the two sources of Human capital of a nation?

Answer

Answer: 1. Investment in Education
2. Investment in health.

---

9. Name two indicators of educational achievement of a nation?

Answer

Answer: 1. Primary Education
2. Youth literacy rate
3. Adult literacy rate.

---

10. What is worker?

Answer

Answer: All those persons who are engaged in various economic activities and hence . contribute to gross domestic products, are workers.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 7 Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Accounting for Share Capital Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Accounting for Share Capital Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Share Capital MCQs Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 1.
Reserve share capital means :
(a) Part of authorised capital to be called at the beginning
(b) Portion of uncalled capital to be called only at liquidation
(c) Over subscribed capital
(d) Under subscribed capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Portion of uncalled capital to be called only at liquidation

---

Accounting For Share Capital MCQ Chapter 6 Question 2.
When full amount is due on any call but it is not received, then the short fall is debited to :
(a) Calls-in-advance
(b) Calls-in-arrear
(c) Share Capital
(d) Suspense Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Calls-in-arrear

---

Accounting For Share Capital Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 3.
The difference between subscribed capital and called up capital is called :
(a) Calls-in-arear
(b) Calls-in-advance
(c) Uncalled capital
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Uncalled capital

---

Share Capital Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 4.
Which statement is issued before the issue of shares ?
(a) Prospectus
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Memorandum of Association
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Share Capital Of A Company Means MCQ Chapter 6 Question 5.
Company can utilise securities premium for :
(a) Writing off loss incurred on revaluation of asset
(b) Issuing fully paid bonus shares
(c) Paying divided
(d) Writing off trading loss

Answer

Answer: (b) Issuing fully paid bonus shares

---

MCQ Of Share Capital Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 6.
When a company issues fully paid shares to promoters
for their services, the journal entry will be:
(a) Bank A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c
(b) Good will A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c
(c) Promoters Personal A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c
(d) Promotion Expenses A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Goodwill A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c

---

Accounting For Share Capital MCQs Class 12 Chapter 6  Question 7.
When a company issues shares at a premium, amount of premium may be received by the company :
(a) Along with application money
(b) Along with application money
(c) Along with calls
(d) Along with any of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) Along with any of the above

---

MCQs Of Share Capital Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 8.
Share Application Account is :
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal/ Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Personal Account

---

Issue Of Shares Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 9.
Secrities Premium can not be applied :
(a) For paying dividend to members
(b) For issuing bonus shares to members
(c) For writing off preliminary expenses of company
(d) For writing off discount on issue of debentures

Answer

Answer: (a) For paying dividend to members

---

Accounting For Shares Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 10.
A joint stock company is :
(a) An artificial legal person
(b) Natural person
(c) A general person
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) An artificial legal person

---

Share Capital MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Question 11.
Equity shareholders are :
(a) Customers
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Owners

Answer

Answer: (d) Owners

---

Share Capital Of A Company Means MCQ Answer Chapter 6 Question 12.
Reserve capital means :
(a) A part of subscribed uncalled capital
(b) Reserve Profit
(c) A part of Capital Reserve
(d) A part of Capital Redemption Reserve

Answer

Answer: (a) A part of subscribed uncalled capital

---

Question 13.
Securities Premium is shown under which head in the Balance Sheet ?
(a) Reserve and Surplus
(b) Miscellaneous Expenditure
(c) Current Liabilities
(d) Share Capital

Answer

Answer: (a) Reserve and Surplus

---

Question 14.
Shares may be issued :
(a) At par value
(b) At FYemimum
(c) At Discount
(d) Both (a) & (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) & (b)

---

Question 15.
Capital included in the liabilities of a company is called :
(a) Authorised Capital
(b) Issued Capital
(c) Subscribed Capital
(d) Paid-up Capital

Answer

Answer: (d) Paid-up Capital

---

Question 16.
An issue of shares which is not a public issue but offered to a selected group of persons is called :
(a) Public offer
(b) Private placement of shares
(c) Initial public offer
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

---

Question 17.
If a share of ₹ 10 on which ₹ 8 has been called and ₹ 6 is paid is forfeited, the Share Capital Account should be debited with :
(a) ₹ 8
(b) ₹ 10
(c) ₹ 6
(d) ₹ 2

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 8

---

Question 18.
When shares are forfeited, the Share Capital Account is debited with:
(a) Nominal value of Shares
(b) Market value of Shares
(c) Called-up value of Shares
(d) Paid-up value of Shares

Answer

Answer: (c) Called-up value of Shares

---

Question 19.
If the loss on reissue of shares is less than the amount forfeited, the ‘surplus’ or profit is transferred to :
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) Revenue Reserve
(c) Profit & Loss A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Reserve

---

Question 20.
J. Ltd. re-issue 2,000 shares which where forfeited by crediting share forfeiture account by ₹ 3,000. These shares were re-issued at ₹ 9 per share. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be :
(a) ₹ 3,000
(b) ₹ 2,000
(c) ₹ 1000
(d) Nil

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 1000

---

Question 21.
If a share of ₹ 10 on which ₹ 8 has been paid up is forfeited, it can be reissued at the minimum price of…….
(a) 10 Rs. per share
(b) 8 Rs. per share
(c) 5 Rs. per share
(d) 2 Rs. per share

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 Rs. per share

---

Question 22.
Z & Co. forfeited 100 shares of 10 Rs. each for non-payment of final call of 2 Rs. per share. All the forfeited shares were re-issued at 9 Rs. per share. What amount will be transferred to Capital Reserve A/c ?
(a) 700 Rs.
(b) 800 Rs.
(c) 900 Rs.
(d) 1,000 Rs.

Answer

Answer: (a) 700 Rs.

---

Question 23.
Forfeiture of shares results in the reduction of:
(a) Paid-up Capital
(b) Authorised Capital
(c) Fixed Assets
(d) Reserve Capital

Answer

Answer: (a) Paid-up Capital

---

Question 24.
Amount of calls in Arrear is :
(a) Added to capital
(b) Deducted from share capital
(c) Shown on the assets side
(d) Shown an the equity and liability side

Answer

Answer: (b) Deducted from share capital

---

Question 25.
Discount allowed on reissue of forfeited shares is debited to:
(a) Share Capital A/c
(b) Share Forfeiture A/c
(c) Profit & Loss A/c
(d) General Reserve A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Share Forfeiture A/c

---

Question 26.
A company has…………
(a) Separate Legal Entity
(b) Perpetual Existence
(c) Limited Liability
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 27.
The liability of members in a company is :
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Stable
(d) Fluctuating

Answer

Answer: (a) Limited

---

Question 28.
Equity shareholders are :
(a) Creditors of the company
(b) Owners of the company
(c) Customers of the company
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Owners of the company

---

Question 29.
Balance of Forfeited Shares Account after reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to :
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Capital Reserve Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Reserve Account

---

Question 30.
Under the provisions of Companies Act, company can issue:
(a) Only equity shares
(b) Only preference shares
(c) Preference shares and equity shares
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Preference shares and equity shares

---

Question 31.
Reight shares are the shares, which :
(a) Are issued to the Direction of the company
(b) Are issued to existing shareholders of the company
(c) Are issued to promoters in consideration of their services
(d) Are issued to the vendors for purchasing assets

Answer

Answer: (b) Are issued to existing shareholders of the company

---

Question 32.
Total amount of liabilities side includes :
(a) Authorised Capital
(b) Issued Capital
(c) Subscribed Capital
(d) Paid-up Capital

Answer

Answer: (d) Paid-up Capital

---

Question 33.
A company issues its shares at premium under which Section of Indian Companies Act, 2013 ?
(a) 78
(b) 79
(c) 52
(d) 53

Answer

Answer: (c) 52

---

Question 34.
Shares can be forfeited :
(a) For failure to attend meetings
(b) For non-payment of call money
(c) For failure to repay the loan to the Bank
(d) For which shares are pledged as a security

Answer

Answer: (b) For non-payment of call money

---

Question 35.
Shareholders get:
(a) Interest
(b) Dividend
(c) Commission
(d) Profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Dividend

---

Question 36.
According to Table E of the Companies Act, 2013 interest on calls in arrears charged should not exceed :
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 8%p.a.
(d) 10%p.a.

Answer

Answer: (d) 10%p.a.

---

Question 37.
Premium on issue of shares is a :
(a) Capital Gain
(b) Capital Loss
(c) General Profit
(d) General Loss

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Gain

---

Question 38.
Premium on issue of shares is shown on which side of the Balance sheet.
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Liabilities

---

Question 39.
Share Allotment Account is :
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Personal A/c

---

Question 40.
The portion of the authorised capital which can be called-up only on the liquidation of the company is called:
(a) Issued Capital
(b) Called-up Capital
(c) Uncalled Capital
(d) Reserve Capital

Answer

Answer: (d) Reserve Capital

---

Question 41.
Premium on issue of shares can be used for :
(a) Issue of Bonus shares
(b) Distribution of Profit
(c) Transferring to General Reserve
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (a) Issue of Bonus shares

---

Question 42.
If equity share of ₹ 10 Rs. each is issued at ₹ 12 each, it is called:
(a) Issued at Par
(b) Issued at Premium
(c) Issued at Discount
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Issued at Premium

---

Question 43.
The maximum capital beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds, by issue of shares is called …………..
(a) Issued capital
(b) Reserve capital
(c) Authorised capital
(d) Subscribed capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Reserve capital

---

Question 44.
As per Table F the maximum rate of interest on calls in advance paid is:
(a) 8% p.a.
(b) 12% p.a.
(c) 5 % p.a.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 12% p.a.

---

Question 45.
As per the Companies Act, only preference shares, which are redeemable within …………. can be issued.
(a) 24 years
(b) 22 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 20 years

Answer

Answer: (d) 20 years

---

Question 46.
Which one of the following is the registered capital of the company ?
(a) Paid-up capital
(b) Uncalled capital
(c) Authorised capital
(d) Issued capital

Answer

Answer: (c) Authorised capital

---

Question 47.
Dividends are usually paid on :
(a) Authorised Capital
(b) Issued Capital
(c) Called-up Capital
(d) Paid-up Capital

Answer

Answer: (d) Paid-up Capital

---

Question 48.
If vendors are issued fully paid shares of ₹ 1,00,000 in consideration of net assets of ₹ 1,20,000 the balance of ₹ 20,000 will be credited to :
(a) Goodwill Account
(b) Capital Reserve Account
(c) Vendor’s Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Reserve Account

---

Question 49.
Which account should be debited when shows an issued to promoters:
(a) Share Capital A/c
(b) Assets A/c
(c) Promoter’s A/c
(d) Goodwill A/c

Answer

Answer: (d) Goodwill A/c

---

Question 50.
According to Section 52 of the Compaines Act, the amount in the Securities Premium Account cannot be used for the purpose of:
(a) Issue of fully Paid Bonus Shares
(b) Writing Off Losses of the Company
(c) Writing off Preliminary Expenses
(d) Writing Off Commission or Discount on Issue of Shares

Answer

Answer: (b) Writing Off Losses of the Company

---

Question 51.
10,000 equity shares of 10 Rs. each were issued to public at a premium of ₹ 2 per share payable on allotment.
Applications were received for ₹ 12,000 shares. Amount of securities premium account will be :
(a) ₹ 20,000
(b) ₹ 24,000
(c) ₹ 4,000
(d) ₹ 1,600

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 20,000

---

Question 52.
A Ltd. purchased a machinery for 1,80,000 Rs. for which it is paying by issue of shares of 100 Rs. each at 20% premium. How many shares will be issued as consideration. ?
(a) 2,500
(b) 2,000
(c) 1,500
(d) 3,000

Answer

Answer: (c) 1,500

---

Question 53.
Right Shares are issued to :
(a) Promoters for the Services
(b) Holders of Convertible Debentures
(c) Existing Shareholders
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Existing Shareholders

---

Question 54.
A company is registered with a share capital of ₹ 1,00,000 Rs. divided into ₹ 10,000 shares of ₹ 10 each. Of these shares 9,990 shares are held by Rajeev and 10 Shares are held by Sanjay. In the eye of law it is treated as:
(a) Partnership
(b) Private Company
(c) Public Compancy
(d) Government Company

Answer

Answer: (b) Private Company

---

Question 55.
Which of the following should be deducted from the called-up capital to find out paid-up capital:
(a) Calls-in-advance
(b) Calls-in-arrear
(c) Share forfeiture
(d) Discount on issue of shares

Answer

Answer: (b) Calls-in-arrear

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Accounting for Share Capital MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 India’s External Relations with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided India’s External Relations Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

India’s External Relations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

India’s External Relations Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
“The foreign policy of a country is the outcome of her economic policy” these remarks were made by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Charan Singh

Answer

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

---

India’s Foreign Policy Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Bandung Conference was held in the year:
(a) 1954
(b) 1955
(c) 1956
(d) 1957

Answer

Answer: (b) 1955

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India’s External Relations MCQ Question 3.
Bangladesh emerged as an independent nation in:
(a) January 1972
(b) December 1971
(c) March 1971
(d) November 1971

Answer

Answer: (b) December 1971

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India External Relations Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
China made a sudden attack on India in:
(a) August 1962
(b) September 1962
(c) October 1962
(d) September 1965

Answer

Answer: October 1962

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India Foreign Policy Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
The Architect of Non-alignment is:
(a) Pt. Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Y. B. Chavan
(d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

Answer

Answer: (a) Pt. Nehru

---

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 India’s External Relations MCQ Question 6.
Match the following:

(a) The goal of India’s foreign policy in the period 1950-1964	(I) Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed over to India
(b) Panchsheel	(II) Preservation of territorial integrity, sovereignty, and economic development
(c) Bandung Conference	(III) Five principles of peaceful coexistence
(d) Dalai Lama	(IV) Led to the establishment of NAM

Answer

Answer:

(a) The goal of India’s foreign policy in the period 1950-1964	(II) Preservation of territorial integrity, sovereignty, and economic development
(b) Panchsheel	(III) Five principles of peaceful coexistence
(c) Bandung Conference	(IV) Led to the establishment of NAM
(d) Dalai Lama	(I) Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed over to India

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Indian Foreign Policy Class 12 MCQ Question 7.
In the formulation of foreign policy, what was Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s first priority?

Answer

Answer: National interest was the first priority of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

---

MCQ Of India’s External Relations Question 8.
In which year McMahon Line boundary line was determined between India and China?

Answer

Answer: In 1914, McMahon Line was determined.

---

Indian External Relations MCQ Question 9.
Who proposed the partition of Kashmir?

Answer

Answer: M.C. Naughton.

---

Class 12 India’s External Relations MCQ Question 10.
In which year, who declared the five principles of Panchsheel?

Answer

Answer: In 1954, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru declared five principles of Panchsheel.

---

India’s External Relations MCQs Question 11.
In which year China invaded India?

Answer

Answer: China attacked India in 1962.

---

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 MCQ Question 12.
After the Chinese revolution in 1949, which country was the first to recognize the Communist Government?

Answer

Answer: India was the first country to recognize the Communist Government.

---

Indian Foreign Policy MCQ Class 12 Question 13.
What do you mean by Panchsheel?

Answer

Answer: The word ‘Pancbsheel’ stands for five principles of conduct and behaviour.

---

Class 12 Political Science India’s External Relations MCQ Question 14.
Write one basic principle of India’s foreign policy.

Answer

Answer: The most important basic principle of India’s foreign policy is non-alignment.

---

Indian Foreign Policy MCQ Pdf Class 12 Question 15.
Where the first Non-aligned Summit was held?

Answer

Answer: The first Non-aligned Summit was held in Belgrade in 1961.

---

Question 17.
Which is a major issue of dispute between India and Pakistan?

Answer

Answer: Kashmir is a major issue of dispute between India and Pakistan.

---

Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ against each of these statements.

Question 18.
Non-alignment allowed India to gain assistance both from U.S.A. and U.S.S.R.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
India’s relationship with her neighbours has been strained from the beginning.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
The Cold War has affected the relationship between India and Pakistan.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
The treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971 was the result of India’s closeness to the U.S.A.

Answer

Answer: False

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 India’s External Relations with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science India’s External Relations MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Controlling Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Controlling Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a feature of controlling?
(a) Continuous process
(b) Action-oriented
(c) Keeping employees busy
(d) Pervasive function

Answer

Answer: (c) Keeping employees busy

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Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an importance of controlling?
(a) Better coordination
(b) Better use of resources
(c) Better planning
(d) Better grievance handling

Answer

Answer: (d) Better grievance handling

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Question 3.
Which one of the following is a step of controlling?
(a) Assessing personnel required
(b) Taking corrective action
(c) Assessing environment
(d) Taking disciplinary action

Answer

Answer: (b) Taking corrective action

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Question 4.
___ is the process of ensuring that actual results are in accordance with planned results.
(a) Controlling
(b) Coordinating
(c) Planning
(d) Directing

Answer

Answer: (a) Controlling

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Question 5.
___ is the focus point for a manager while controlling, as controlling at every step is not possible
(a) Controlling
(b) Coordinating
(c) Critical point control
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Critical point control

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Question 6.
Controlling is ___.
(a) Forward looking
(b) Backward looking
(c) Continous process
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

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Question 7.
In a marketing firm, the Financial Manager pays more attention towards an increase of 3% in the marketing cost as compared to a 15% increase in the courier expenses. Identify the concept being used by the manager.
(a) Management by exception
(b) Critical point control
(c) Corrective action
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Critical point control

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Question 8.
Reducing the workers, absenteeism in a factory by 20% is an example of
(a) Quantitative standard
(b) Qualitative standard
(c) Deviation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Quantitative standard

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Question 9.
The need for the controlling function is felt in
(a) Business organisations
(b) Political organisations
(c) Social organisations
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

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Question 10.
When the deviations between the actual performance and the planned performance are within the limits
(a) A limited corrective action is required
(b) No corrective action is required
(c) A major corrective action is required
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) No corrective action is required

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Question 11.
The comparison of actual performance with the planned performance becomes easier if the standards are set in
(a) Qualitative terms
(b) Quantitative terms
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Quantitative terms

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Question 12.
Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the controlling process.
(a) Measurement of actual performance, Taking corrective action, Setting performance standards, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations
(b) Comparison of actual performance with standards, Setting performance standards. Measurement of actual performance, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action
(c) Setting performance standards, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action
(d) Taking corrective action, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Setting performance standards

Answer

Answer: (c) Setting performance standards, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Taking corrective action

---

Question 13.
Deviations are said to be positive in nature when
(a) Planned performance is more than the actual performance
(b) Actual performance is more than the planned performance
(c) Both planned and actual performances are same
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Actual performance is more than the planned performance

---

Question 14.
The controlling function is performed by
(a) Top level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 15.
Om Prakash has set up a small business unit for the manufacturing of detergent. In order to market the detergent in the local residential areas, he has appointed a team of ten salesmen. Each salesman is expected to sell at least 200 units of the detergent within a week’s time. Identify the point of importance of controlling being highlighted in the above case.
(a) Controlling helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(b) It ensures efficient use of resources.
(c) It helps in improving employee motivation.
(d) It facilitates co-ordination in action.

Answer

Answer: (c) It helps in improving employee motivation.
Explanation:
By making employees aware of the expected performance

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Question 16.
Which of the following is not an importance of controlling function?
(a) It ensures order and discipline.
(b) It restricts co-ordination in action.
(c) It helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(d) It improves employee motivation.

Answer

Answer: (b) It restricts co-ordination in action.
Explanation:
It facilitates co-ordination in action

---

Question 17.
Yash runs a logistic company. The Tour Incharges of each trip in the company are expected to submit a report to the Event Manager on the completion of every trip. Identify the step in the controlling process being described in the above lines.
(a) Setting of standards
(b) Measurement of actual performance
(c) Taking corrective action
(d) Analysing the deviations

Answer

Answer: (b) Measurement of actual performance

---

Question 18.
Controlling is known as a backward-looking function because
(a) It relates to future course of action.
(b) It is like a post-mortem of the past activities
(c) To find out deviation, it aims at improving future performance.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) It is like a post-mortem of the past activities

---

Question 19.
In an artificial plants manufacturing unit, the standard output set for a worker is 50 units per day. Dinesh produces 48 units in one day. In the given case, the value of deviation is
(a) -2
(b) + 2
(c) 98
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) -2

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Question 20.
This concept of Control Management is based on the belief that if you try to control everything, you may end up controlling nothing.
(a) Critical point control
(b) Key result areas
(c) Management by exception
(d) Deviations

Answer

Answer: (c) Management by exception

---

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Controlling helps in achieving organisational objectives.

Answer

Answer: True; by suggesting corrective action, if required.

---

2. Control by action involves reporting of exceptional deviation between actual performance and standard performance to top management.

Answer

Answer: False; management by exception involves such reporting.

---

3. Management by exception is controlling performance in key result areas.

Answer

Answer: False; controlling performance in key result areas is critical point control.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 8 Controlling with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Controlling CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Financial Markets Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Financial Markets Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a function of financial market?
(a) Mobilisation of savings
(b) Price determination of securities
(c) Floating of companies
(d) Lowering transaction cost

Answer

Answer: (c) Floating of companies

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Question 2.
Which one of the following is a money market instrument?
(a) Unit of mutual fund
(b) Debenture
(c) Bond
(d) Treasury bill

Answer

Answer: (d) Treasury bill

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Question 3.
Primary and secondary markets develop simultaneously because they
(a) complement each other.
(b) complement with each other
(c) control each other.
(d) function independently.

Answer

Answer: (a) complement each other.

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Question 4.
Secondary market is in the form of
(a) stock exchange.
(b) money market
(c) new issue market.
(d) commercial exchange

Answer

Answer: (a) stock exchange.

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Question 5.
SEBI is a regulator of
(a) capital market.
(b) money market
(c) commodity market.
(d) overseas market

Answer

Answer: (a) capital market.

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Question 6.
___ is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by reputed business organisations at a price lower than its face value and redeemable at par.
(a) Treasury bill
(b) Commercial paper
(c) Certificate of deposit
(d) Promissory note

Answer

Answer: (b) Commercial paper

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Question 7.
___ is a source of financing to meet very short-term fund requirements of commercial banks with a provision of renewal.
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Certificate of Deposit
(d) Call Money

Answer

Answer: (d) Call Money

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Question 8.
___ is the market which helps existing investors to sell their securities.
(a) Primary market
(b) Secondary market
(c) Capital market
(d) Commodity market

Answer

Answer: (b) Secondary market

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Question 9.
___ is the institution which provides a platform for trading of existing securities having long-term maturity.
(a) SEBI
(b) WTO
(c) Stock exchange
(d) RBI

Answer

Answer: (c) Stock exchange

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Question 10.
After the trade has been executed, the broker issues a Contract Note to the investor within
(a) 52 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 12 hours

Answer

Answer: (b) 24 hours

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Question 11.
On this day, the exchange will deliver the share or make payment to the other broker,
(a) Pay-in day
(b) Pay-out day
(c) Transaction day
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Pay-out day

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Question 12.
The mandatory detail that an investor has to provide to the broker at the time of opening a demat account is
(a) Date of birth and address
(b) PAN number
(c) Residential status (Indian/NRI)
(d) Bank account details.

Answer

Answer: (b) PAN number

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Question 13.
It is a number assigned to each transaction by the stock exchange and is printed on the contract note.
(a) PAN number
(b) Unique Order Code
(c) Contract Note
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Unique Order Code

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Question 14.
It acts like a bank and keeps securities in electronic form on behalf of the investor,
(a) Depository Participant
(b) Depository
(c) Stock exchange
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Depository

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Question 15.
The process of holding shares in electronic form is known as
(a) Demutualisation
(b) Dematerialisation
(c) Speculation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Dematerialisation

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Question 16.
Stock Exchange works as a mechanism for valuation of securities through the forces of demand and supply. Identify the related function of performed by the stock exchanges.
(a) Providing liquidity and marketability to existing securities.
(b) Safety of transaction.
(c) Pricing of security.
(d) Spreading of equity cult.

Answer

Answer: (c) Pricing of security.

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Question 17.
PK Enterprises Limited has sold an entire lot of 5,00,000 equity shares @ ₹9 each to Prosperous Bank Private Limited. The bank intum will offer the shares to general public for subscription @ ₹11 per share. Identify the method of floatation being described in the given lines.
(a) Private placement
(b) Offer through prospectus
(c) Offer for sale
(d) Rights issue

Answer

Answer: (c) Offer for sale

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Question 18.
Which of the following participants represent capital market?
(a) Development banks
(b) Commercial banks
(c) Stock exchanges
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 19.
A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of
(a) Equity shares
(b) Preference shares
(c) Debentures
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

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Question 20.
It is a short-term, negotiable, self-liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms.
(a) Commercial bill
(b) Commercial papers
(c) Call money
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial bill

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True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Providing liquidity is an important function of stock exchange.

Answer

Answer: True; providing liquidity to securities is an important function of stock exchange.

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2. Money Market is the market in which financial instruments having long-term maturity are dealt with.

Answer

Answer: False; financial instruments having short-term maturity are dealt with in the money market.

---

3. Stock exchange regulates the capital market.

Answer

Answer: False; SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) regulates the capital market.

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 10 Financial Markets with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Financial Markets CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Security in the Contemporary World Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Question 1.
Which of the following is a source of insecurity?
(a) Human Rights
(b) Balance of Power
(c) Global Poverty
(d) Alliance Building

Answer

Answer: (c) Global Poverty

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Question 2.
Which of the following is a component of traditional security?
(a) Alliance building
(b) Preventing war
(c) Balance of power
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Balance of power

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Question 3.
How many States acceded to Chemical Weapons Conventions?
(a) 102
(b) 155
(c) 192
(d) 181

Answer

Answer: (d) 181

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Question 4.
In which security, force is both the principal threat to security and the principal means of achieving security?
(a) Non-traditional
(b) Traditional
(c) Not a threat
(d) Balance of power

Answer

Answer: (b) Traditional

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Question 5.
Match the terms with their meaning:

I. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs)	(a) Giving up certain types of weapons
II. Arms Control	(b) A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis
III. Alliance	(c) A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against military attacks
IV. Disarmament	(d) Regulates the acquisition or development of weapons

Answer

Answer:

I. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs)	(b) A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis
II. Arms Control	(d) Regulates the acquisition or development of weapons
III. Alliance	(c) A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against military attacks
IV. Disarmament	(a) Giving up certain types of weapons

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Question 6.
Write one international convention passed by the United Nations to eliminate terrorism.

Answer

Answer: The U.N. Convention for the suppression of unlawful seizure of Aircraft (1970).

---

Question 7.
In which year Global Security has emerged?

Answer

Answer: Global Security emerged in 1990.

---

Question 8.
Write one component of Traditional Security Policy.

Answer

Answer: Balance of power is an important component of Traditional Security Policy.

---

Question 9.
What is the basis of Alliance?

Answer

Answer: Alliances are based on national interests and can change when interests change.

---

Question 10.
Give one example of Arms Control.

Answer

Answer: Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty II or SALT II.

---

Question 11.
When Non-Proliferation Treaty was signed?

Answer

Answer: 1968

---

Question 12.
Write one component of India’s Security Strategy.

Answer

Answer: Strengthening its military capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with neighbours.

---

Question 13.
In which year India first tested a nuclear device?

Answer

Answer: 1974

---

Question 14.
In your view, do the terrorists have any value for human rights and democratic means.

Answer

Answer: The terrorists have no value for human rights and democratic means. They believe in the cult of bombs and violence.

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We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Security in the Contemporary World MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 8 Infrastructure with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Infrastructure Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Infrastructure Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Economic Infrastructure Includes MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not correct with regards to infrastructure?
(A) Infrastructure contributes to economic development.
(B) Infrastructure provides support services.
(C) All infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on the production of goods and services.
(D) Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on health.

Answer

Answer: (C) All infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on the production of goods and services.

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MCQ On Infrastructure Class 12 Chapter 8 Question 2.
Which of the following facilities is included in social infrastructure?
(A) Roads and highways
(B) Housing
(C) Internet
(D) Electricity

Answer

Answer: (B) Housing

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Infrastructure Class 12 MCQ Chapter 8 Question 3.
What is morbidity?
(A) Proneness to fall ill
(B) High infant mortality rate
(C) High maternal mortality rate
(D) Low life expectancy

Answer

Answer: (A) Proneness to fall ill

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Infrastructure MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 4.
What percent of rural households use bio-fuels for cooking?
(A) 50 percent
(B) 75 percent
(C) 80 percent
(D) 90 percent

Answer

Answer: (D) 90 percent

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MCQ On Infrastructure Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 5.
Which of the following countries invest almost 50 percent of its GDP in infrastructure?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: (B) China

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Social Infrastructure Refers To MCQ Chapter 8 Class 12 Question 6.
Low-income countries do not invest in which of the given infrastructural services?
(A) Transport
(B) Irrigation
(C) Power
(D) Telecommunication

Answer

Answer: (D) Telecommunication

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Question 7.
Which of the following statements is true for commercial sources of energy?
(A) Commercial sources are bought and sold.
(B) Commercial sources are renewable.
(C) Commercial sources are found in forests.
(D) Dried dung is an example of a commercial source of energy.

Answer

Answer: (A) Commercial sources are bought and sold.

---

Question 8.
Which of the following sector was the largest consumer of commercial energy in 1953-54?
(A) Households
(B) Transport
(C) Industries
(D) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (B) Transport

---

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a function of primary health care?
(A) Spreading education concerning prevailing health problems
(B) Promoting food supply and proper nutrition
(C) Conducting research
(D) Providing essential drugs

Answer

Answer: (C) Conducting research

---

Question 10.
Which of the following systems is not included in the Indian System of Medicines?
(A) Allopathy
(B) Homeopathy
(C) Naturopathy
(D) Ayurveda

Answer

Answer: (A) Allopathy

---

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

Question 1.
Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation, and communication is included in the ______ infrastructure.

Answer

Answer: social

---

Question 2.
______ and safety hazards connected to transportation affect morbidity.

Answer

Answer: Air pollution

---

Question 3.
Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on ________

Answer

Answer: health

---

Question 4.
Agriculture considerably depends on the adequate expansion and development of ______ facilities.

Answer

Answer: irrigation

---

Question 5.
_______ accounts for the largest share in the commercial energy consumption in India.

Answer

Answer: Coal

---

Question 6.
Hydel and wind power do not rely on _________

Answer

Answer: fossil fuel

---

Question 7.
________ sources of energy are found in nature/forests.

Answer

Answer: Non-commercial

---

Question 8.
The hospitals at the village level are known as ________

Answer

Answer: PHCs

---

Question 9.
_________ has huge potential because they are effective, safe, and inexpensive.

Answer

Answer: ISM (Indian System of Medicine)

---

Question 10.
Accessibility and _________ need to be integrated in our basic health infrastructure in order to provide basic healthcare to all.

Answer

Answer: affordability

---

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Both economic and social infrastructures are essential for the development of a country.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
The share of basic infrastructure services such as irrigation, transport, and power is greater in high-income countries.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
The private sector in India has started playing an important role in infrastructure development in joint partnership with the public sector.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
The use of renewable energy sources can ensure an additional supply of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
The growth rate of demand for power is always lower than the GDP growth rate.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Industries are the largest consumer of commercial energy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
The privatization of the power sector has benefitted certain sectors in terms of prices.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
India’s health infrastructure and health care is made up of a three-tier system.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Infrastructural development in India has not been uniform over the last six decades.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Hospitals under the secondary sector have advanced level equipment and medicines.

Answer

Answer: False

---

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I	Column-II
1. Social infrastructure	(A) The poor
2. Non-conventional energy	(B) Education
3. Health infrastructure biased against	(C) Outsourcing
4. Essential indication of good health	(D) Biomass
5. Infrastructure facilitates	(E) High expectancy of life

Answer

Answer:

Column-I	Column-II
1. Social infrastructure	(B) Education
2. Non-conventional energy	(D) Biomass
3. Health infrastructure biased against	(A) The poor
4. Essential indication of good health	(E) High expectancy of life
5. Infrastructure facilitates	(C) Outsourcing

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