MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Business Environment Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Business Environment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Business Environment Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a feature of business environment?
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Interdependence
(c) Complexity
(d) Stability

Answer

Answer: (d) Stability

Business Environment MCQ Class 12 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a part of economic environment?
(a) Public debt
(b) Lifestyle of people
(c) Technological changes
(d) Level of education

Answer

Answer: (a) Public debt

Business Environment MCQ Question 3.
Proper understanding of business environment is not a prerequisite for
(a) tapping of useful resources.
(b) identification of opportunities and threats.
(c) formulation of strategies.
(d) better coordination of employee efforts.

Answer

Answer: (c) formulation of strategies.

MCQ On Business Environment Class 12 Question 4.
Globalisation means
(a) reduced role of public sector
(b) integration of economies
(c) lowering interest rates
(d) control of inflation

Answer

Answer: (b) integration of economies

MCQ Of Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 5.
Which one of the following is the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?
(a) Increase in agricultural productivity
(b) Increase in product prices
(c) Increase in competition
(d) Increase in urbanisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Increase in competition

Which one of the following is the impact of Government policy changes on business and industry?

MCQ Of Business Environment Class 12 Question 6.
___ nature of business environment suggests that environment keeps on changing.
(a) Dynamic
(b) Pervasive
(c) Continuous
(d) Multidimensional

Answer

Answer: (a) Dynamic

Ch 3 Bst Class 12 MCQ Question 7.
___ is the integration of world economy into a single market through removal of trade barriers between countries.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Both(a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Globalisation

Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 MCQ Question 8.
___ feature of business environment states that various factors of business environment affect each other.
(a) Pervasive
(b) Continuous
(c) Dynamic
(d) Interrelatedness

Answer

Answer: (d) Interrelatedness

Question 9.
Legal rules and regulations relevant to business are included in ___ environment of business.
(a) Legal
(b) Political
(c) Economic
(d) Technological

Answer

Answer: (a) Legal

Question 10.
A business has to offer wider choice in purchasing enhanced quality of goods and services in order to maintain an edge over its competitors. The implementation of the new economic policy with liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has posed various challenges for the corporate sector. One of the important challenges is explained in the above lines. Identify it.
(a) Increasing competition
(b) More demanding customers
(c) Necessity for change
(d) Market orientation

Answer

Answer: (a) Increasing competition

Question 11.
On 8th November 2016, with the announcement from Government of India, all the ₹500 and ₹1,000 banknotes of the Mahatma Gandhi series have ceased to be a legal tender. The givemment also announced the issuance of new ₹500 and ₹2,000 banknotes in exchange for the demonetised banknotes. Identify the concept being described in the above lines.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Demonetisation
(d) Privatisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Demonetisation

Question 12.
The Government of India launched “Make in India” initiative in September, 2014 to increase foreign direct investment (FDI) in 25 sectors. As of April, 2015, FDI inflow in India increased by 48% since the launch of “Make in India” initiative.
Identify the concept being described in the above lines, with regard to inflow of FDI.
(a) Demonetisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Globalisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Liberalisation

Question 13.
According to a report by the India Staffing Federation (ISF), India has emerged as the
fifth largest market worldwide in flexi-staffing in 2018 and the country would have 6.1 million flexi-workforce by 2021. It showed that Haryana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana are the states with high growth potential for flexi- staffing but Andhra Pradesh tops the list of states with favourable business environment. Identify the feature of business environment being discussed above,
(a) Relativity
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Interrelatedness

Answer

Answer: (a) Relativity

Question 14.
India’s population is expected to grow under 0.5 per cent during 2031-41 due to decline in fertility rate and increase in life expectancy. These changes in India’s demography will also have implications such as the proportion of elementary school-going children will witness significant declines, lack of hospital beds and increase in retirement age. The related feature of business environment being described in the above lines is
(a) Totality of external forces
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Interrelatedness
(d) Relativity

Answer

Answer: (c) Interrelatedness

Question 15.
As a result of major government initiatives, more and more people are going ‘green’. In order to keep in line with the trend, ‘Clapaway’ a carpet cleaning company has advertised that they only use natural cleaners that come from renewable resources and that all their service vehicles are hybrid vehicles that use both gas and electricity. Identify one of the points related to the importance of business environment and its understanding by managers which is being highlighted in the above case.
(a) It helps in assisting in planning and policy formulation.
(b) It helps in coping with rapid changes.
(c) It helps in improving performance.
(d) It enables the firm to identify opportunities and getting the first mover advantage.

Answer

Answer: (c) It helps in improving performance.

Question 16.
Electric vehicles with zero tail pipe emission are emerging as a good alternative to ‘ problems like climate change, surging pollution leading to ill health, crude import bill and energy security. Identify the related dimensions of business environment.
(a) Economic dimension, Legal dimension and Social dimension
(b) Social dimension, Political dimension and Economic dimension
(c) Economic dimension, Technological dimension and Social dimension
(d) Social dimension, Political dimension and Legal dimension

Answer

Answer: (c) Economic dimension, Technological dimension and Social dimension

Question 17.
In order to boost and double India’s export of goods and services to over USD 1,000 billion by 2025, it is important to lower effective corporate tax rate, bring down cost of capital and simplify regulatory and tax framework. Identify the related dimension of business environment.
(a) Social dimension and Legal dimension
(b) Technological dimension and Political dimension
(c) Political dimension and Social dimension
(d) Economic dimension and Legal dimension

Answer

Answer: (a) Social dimension and Legal dimension
Explanation:
Economic dimension and Legal dimension

Question 18.
DigiLocker is the country’s first secured cloud-based platform for the storage, issuance and verification of documents with the Driving Licence & Vehicle Registration System of the Road Transport Ministry. The integration of a government department with DigiLocker since its launch last year is one of the biggest of its kind. It will spare 1 people the trouble of carrying licences & vehicle papers, which can be accessed on phones using the DigiLocker app. Identify the related dimension of business environment.
(a) Ecoriomic dimension
(b) Technological dimension
(c) Social dimension
(d) Political dimension

Answer

Answer: (b) Technological dimension
Explanation:
Technological dimension, as technology is facilitating online process

Question 19.
Any kind of external devices, like compact discs (CD’s) for computer, have become obsolete. Google, with its Google Drive service, Apple with its iCloud offering, enables the users store documents, photos, music and movies on web-based servers. Identify the feature of business environment being described in the above lines.
(a) Relativity
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Interrelatedness

Answer

Answer: (c) Uncertainty
Explanation:
Uncertainty, as business environment is largely uncertain as it is very difficult to predict future events.

Question 20.
Since more number of people have become more beauty and health conscious, our economy has witnessed an unprecedented surge in the number of health and beauty spas and wellness clinics. Related feature of business environment being described in the above lines is —
(a) Totality of external forces
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Interrelatedness
(d) Relativity

Answer

Answer: (c) Interrelatedness
Explanation:
Interrelatedness, as the different elements or parts of business environment are closely interrelated

Since more number of people have become more beauty and health conscious, our economy has witnessed an unprecedented surge in the number of health and beauty spas and wellness clinics. Related feature of business environment being described in the above lines is —

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. Investors and customers are the two components of specific forces of business environment.

Answer

Answer: True; investors and customers are the two components.

2. Dynamic nature of business environment suggests that it is pervasive.

Answer

Answer: False; dynamic nature of business environment suggests that it keeps on changing.

3. Privatisation involves freedom of doing business.

Answer

Answer: False; liberalisation involves freedom of doing business.

4. Political environment consists of political system and its working.

Answer

Answer: True; political environment includes political conditions, working and political system.

5. Business environment consists of factors which are certain by nature.

Answer

Answer: False; there is uncertainty in business environment.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 3 Business Environment with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Business Environment CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

 

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Determination of Income and Employment Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Employment Theory Is Related To MCQ Question 1.
What is the shape of the Keynesian Aggregate Supply before the level of full employment is attained?
(A) Perfectly inelastic
(B) Perfectly elastic
(C) Unitary elastic
(D) More elastic

Answer

Answer: (B) Perfectly elastic

MCQ Of Aggregate Demand And Supply Class 12 Question 2.
According to classical economists, real wage rate is ______ to the Marginal Productivity of Labour.
(A) Equal
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Equal

Determination Of Income And Employment Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
What is the cause of Keynesian perfectly elastic Aggregate Supply curve?
(A) Wage price rigidity
(B) Constant Marginal Product of Labour
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Both of these

Determination Of Income And Employment MCQ Question 4.
According to classical economists, there always exists ______ equilibrium in the economy.
(A) Full employment
(B) Underemployment
(C) Over full employment
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Full employment

Question 5.
What will be APC when APS = 0?
(A) One
(B) Zero
(C) Two
(D) Infinite

Answer

Answer: (A) One

Question 6.
If the income is ₹ 400 crores and consumption is ₹ 250 crores, what will be the APC?
(A) 0.67
(B) 0.63
(C) 0.60
(D) 0.58

Answer

Answer: (B) 0.63

Question 7.
What is a fiscal measure of correcting deficient demand?
(A) Increase in public expenditure and decrease in taxes
(B) Decrease in public debt
(C) Deficit financing
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Question 8.
Which is the measure of correcting excess demand?
(A) Deficit financing
(B) Reduction in taxes
(C) Increase in public expenditure
(D) Increase in public debt

Answer

Answer: (D) Increase in public debt

Question 9.
Suppose in a hypothetical economy, the income rises from ₹ 5,000 crores to ₹ 6,000 crores. As a result, the consumption expenditure rises from ₹ 4,000 crores to ₹ 4,600 crores. Marginal propensity to consume in such a case would be ______
(A) 0.8
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.6

Answer

Answer: (D) 0.6

Question 10.
On the basis of government law, the compulsory payment made by the public is known as _________
(A) Expenditure
(B) Investment
(C) Tax
(D) Subsidy

Answer

Answer: (C) Tax

Question 11.
Which among is the direct tax?
(A) Income tax
(B) Gift and Corporation tax
(C) Wealth tax
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Which among is the direct tax?

Question 12.
The value of multiplier is:
(A) \(\frac{1}{MPC}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{1-MPS}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{MPC-1}\)

Answer

Answer: (B) \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)

Question 13.
If MPC = 1, the value of the multiplier is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) Between 0 and 1
(D) Infinity

Answer

Answer: (D) Infinity

Question 14.
Aggregate demand can be increased by:
(A) increasing bank rate
(B) selling govt, securities by RBI
(C) increasing cash reserve ratio
(D) none of these

Answer

Answer: (D) None of these

Question 15.
If the marginal propensity to consume is greater than the marginal propensity to save, the value of the multiplier will be
(A) greater than 2
(B) less than 2
(C) equal to 2
(D) equal to 5

Answer

Answer: (A) greater than 2

Question 16.
Supply creates its own Demand. Who gave this law?
(a) J.B.Say
(b) J.S.Mill
(c) Keynes
(d) Ricardo

Answer

Answer: (a) J.B.Say

Question 17.
Who is the author of the book ‘General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money’?
(a) A.C. Pigou
(b) Malthus
(c) J.M. Keynes
(d) Marshall

Answer

Answer: (c) J.M. Keynes

Question 18.
Which of the following is true for the Classical Theory of Employment?
(a) State of full employment in the economy
(b) No possibility of over-or under-production in the economy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 19.
On which factor Keynesian Theory of Employment depends?
(a) Effective Demand
(b) Supply
(c) Production Efficiency
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Effective Demand

Question 20.
Which is the determining factor for investment?
(a) Marginal Efficiency of Capital
(b) Interest Rate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 21.
According to Keynes, investment implies:
(a) Financial Investment
(b) Real Investment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Real Investment

Question 22.
With the increase in investment, MEC:
(a) Rises
(b) Falls
(c) Remains Constant
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Falls

Question 23.
Which of the following is a Read Investment?
(a) Purchasing of a Share
(b) Purchasing of Old Factory
(c) Construction of Buildings
(d) Opening Deposit Account in the Bank

Answer

Answer: (c) Construction of Buildings

Question 24.
APC + APS = ?
(a) ?
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) 2

Question 25.
MPC = MPS = ?
(a) ?
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 1

Question 26.
Which or is true?
(a) MPC + MPS = 0
(b) MPC + MPS < 1
(c) MPC + MPS = 1
(d) MPC + MPS > 1

Answer

Answer: (c) MPC + MPS = 1

Question 27.
The main component of aggregate demand is:
(a) Individual consumption
(b) Public consumption
(c) Investment
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 28.
Who is the writer of the book, “Trained Economic Politique”?
(a) Pigour
(b) J.B. Say
(c) Keynes
(d) Ricardo

Answer

Answer: (a) Pigour

Question 29.
IF MPC = 0.5, then Multiplier (k) will be:
(a) 1/4
(b) = 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (d) 2

Question 30.
On which concept does classical viewpoint depend?
(a) Say’s Law of Market
(b) perfect Flexibility of Wage Rate
(c) Perfect Flexibility of Interest Rate
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 31.
“Wage cut maintains full employment in the economy.” Who put forward this view?
(a) Pigou
(b) Keynes
(c) Marshall
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Pigou

Question 32.
Which one of the following is the determining factor of Equilibrium Income is the Keynesian Viewpoint?
(a) Aggregate Demand
(b) Aggregate Supply
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 33.
In Keynesian viewpoint, the equilibrium level of income and employment in the economy will be established where:
(a) AD > AS
(b) AS > AD
(c) AD = AS
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) AD = AS

Question 34.
According to the saving-investment viewpoint, income employment equilibrium will be determined at a point where:
(a) S > I
(b) I > S
(c) S = I
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) S = I

Question 35.
An increase in aggregate demand of equilibrium level of income and employment causes an increase in:
(a) Employment
(b) Production
(c) Income
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 36.
Which one is correct?
(a) Y = C + I
(b) Y = 0 = N
(c) C + S = C + I
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 37.
Keynes theory is associated with :
(a) Effective demand
(b) Propensity to consume
(c) Propensity to save
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 38.
Keynesian multiplier establishes a relationship between:
(a) Investment and Income
(b) Income and Consumption
(c) Saving and Investment
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Investment and Income

Question 39.
Which one is correct?
(a) K = \(\frac{1}{MPC}\)
(b) K = \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)
(c) K = \(\frac{1}{1-MPS}\)
(d) K = \(\frac{1}{1+MPS}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) K = \(\frac{1}{MPS}\)

Question 40.
Multiplier can be expressed as:
(a) K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{S}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
(b) K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
(c) K = I – S
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)

Question 41.
Keynes derived Investment Multiplier from Kahn’s :
(a) Income Multiplier
(b) Consumption Multiplier
(c) Employment Multiplier
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Employment Multiplier

Question 42.
The value of Keynesian Investment Multiplier depends on:
(a) Income Level
(b) Marginal Productivity of Capital
(c) Marginal Propensity to Consume
(d) Investment Level

Answer

Answer: (c) Marginal Propensity to Consume

Question 43.
Which factor affects Keynesian Multiplier?
(a) Marginal Propensity to Save
(b) Marginal Propensity to Consume
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 44.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) MPC and multiplier have a direct relationship
(b) MPS and multiplier have an inverse relationship
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 45.
The value of MPC is:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) Greater than 0 but less than 1
(d) ?

Answer

Answer: (c) Greater than 0 but less than 1

Question 46.
If MPC = 0.5, then multiplier (K) will be:
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (c) 2

Question 47.
If MPC = 0.5 and initial investment is 100 Rs crores, the income generation in the economy will be :
(a) 5 crores Rs
(b) 100 crores Rs
(c) 200 crores Rs
(d) 500 crores Rs

Answer

Answer: (c) 200 crores Rs

Question 48.
‘The theory of employment multiplier was propounded by:
(a) Keynes
(b) Kahn
(c) Hansen
(d) Marshall

Answer

Answer: (b) Kahn

Question 49.
If income equilibrium level in the economy is determined at the level before full employment, it is known as the state of:
(a) Deficit Demand
(b) Surplus Demand
(c) Partial Demand
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deficit Demand

Question 50.
In Keynesian economics, the state of Deficit Demand is called as:
(a) Full Employment Equilibrium
(b) Under Full Employment Equilibrium
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Under Full Employment Equilibrium

Question 51.
What are the characteristics of Deficit Demand?
(a) Aggregate Demand falls short of Aggregate Demand required at full employment
(b) Aggregate Demand remains short of Aggregate Supply required of full employment level
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 52.
Deflationary Gap shows the measurement of:
(a) Deficit Demand
(b) Surplus Demand
(c) Full Employment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deficit Demand

Question 53.
Which one is the reason for appearing Deficit Demand condition?
(a) Fall in the money supply in the country
(b) Fall in investment demand as a result of rising in bank rate
(c) Fall in disposable income and consumer demand due to increase in taxes
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 54.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Employment level declines due to decrease in demand
(b) Price level falls due to deficient demand in the country
(c) Production level falls deficient demand
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 55.
The ‘difference between the Aggregate Demand at above full employment and Aggregate Demand at full employment is known as:
(a) Inflationary Gap
(b) Deflationary Gap
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Inflationary Gap

Question 56.
Which of the following is a reason for surplus demand?
(a) Increase in Public Expenditure
(b) Increase in Money Supply
(c) Fall in Taxes
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 57.
In the situation of the deflationary gap:
(a) Demand increases rapidly
(b) Supply increase rapidly
(c) Both demand and supply are equal
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 58.
Which of the following causes the trade cycle?
(a) Deflationary Conditions
(b) Inflationary Conditions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 59.
Which one is the corrective measure for Deficient Demand?
(a) Fiscal Measures
(b) Monetary Measures
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 60.
Which measure is included in Fiscal Measures?
(a) Public Expenditure
(b) Taxation
(c) Public Debt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 61.
Which fiscal measure should be adopted for correcting Deficient Demand?
(a) Government should spend more on public works
(b) Taxation should be reduced
(c) Pubic debt should be reduced
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 62.
With which component of Monetary Policy, Central Bank tries to attain economic stability in the country?
(a) Supply of Money
(b) Interest Rate
(c) Availability of Money
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 63.
Which method Central Bank adopts for controlling quantitative credit?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Open Market Operations
(c) Change in Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 64.
Which is a qualitative method of controlling credit?
(a) Change in Margin Requirements of Loanee
(b) Credit Rationing
(c) Direct Action
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 65.
Which monetary measure may be adopted to correct Deficient Demand?
(a) Reduction in Bank Rate
(b) Buying Securities in Open Markey
(c) Reducing Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 66.
Which fiscal measure is to be adopted in correcting the Inflationary Gap?
(a) Reduction in Public Expenditure
(b) Increase in taxes
(c) Increase in Public debt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 67.
Which monetary measure is to be adopted in correcting Inflationary
(a) Increase in Bank Rate
(b) Selling of Securities in Open Market
(c) Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 68.
Income and employment are determined by:
(a) Total demand
(b) Total supply
(c) Total demand and total supply both
(d) By market demand

Answer

Answer: (c) Total demand and total supply both

Question 69.
The relation between consumption and savings are:
(a) Inverse
(b) Direct
(c) Inverse and direct both
(d) Neither inverse nor direct.

Answer

Answer: (a) Inverse

The relation between consumption and savings are:

Question 70.
When an economy they’re to save all its extra income then investment calculation will be:
(a) 1
(b) Uncertain
(c) 0
(d) Infinite

Answer

Answer: (a) 1

Question 71.
“Supply creates its own demand”. This statement was given by the economist:
(a) Keynes
(b) Pigou
(c) J. B.Say
(d) Adam Smith

Answer

Answer: (c) J. B.Say

Question 72.
The classical theory is based on the assumption of:
(a) Say’s the law of market
(b) Flexibility in wage rates
(c) Flexibility in interest rate
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The multiplier is the ratio between the change in income and change in _________

Answer

Answer: investment

Question 2.
There is a/an _______ relation between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: direct

Question 3.
Deficient demand refers to the situation when Aggregate Demand _______ Aggregate Supply.

Answer

Answer: short

Question 4.
Income tax is a _______ tax.

Answer

Answer: direct

Question 5.
The price will be _______ an the inflationary gap.

Answer

Answer: increased

Question 6.
In a situation of inflationary gap, the economy faces a situation of _____ output.

Answer

Answer: higher

Question 7.
The deflationary gap is a measure of _______ demand.

Answer

Answer: excess

Question 8.
Excess demand refers to the situation when AD ______ AS.

Answer

Answer: >

Question 9.
______ policy is related to revenue and expenditure of the government.

Answer

Answer: fiscal

Question 10.
Bank rate is a ________ instrument of monetary policy.

Answer

Answer: quantitative

Question 11.
Tax, public borrowings are the main components of ________ policy.

Answer

Answer: fiscal

Question 12.
Bank rate and open market operation are the main components of _______ policy.

Answer

Answer: monetary

Question 13.
Fiscal policy has a ______ bearing on all the sectors of the economy.

Answer

Answer: direct

Question 14.
Sale tax is an example of ________ tax.

Answer

Answer: Indirect

Question 15.
The _______ Propensity to Consume is the proportion of the income, which is spent on consumption.

Answer

Answer: Average

Question 16.
MPC of the lower-income group is _______ than the higher income group.

Answer

Answer: higher

Question 17.
MPC is always _________

Answer

Answer: positive

Question 18.
MPC lies between ______ and ________

Answer

Answer: zero, one

Question 19.
________ refers to the highest rate of return over cost expected from a marginal or additional unit of a capital asset.

Answer

Answer: Marginal efficiency of capital

Question 20.
Deflationary gap is the measurement of _________ demand.

Answer

Answer: Deficit

Question 21.
Deficit demand indicates _________ gap.

Answer

Answer: Deflationary gap

Question 22.
In case of excess demand bank rate _________

Answer

Answer: Increase

Question 23.
Multiplier can also _________ in opposite direction.

Answer

Answer: Work

Question 24.
The point at which aggregate demand and aggregate supply are equal is known as __________

Answer

Answer: Effective demand

Question 25.
Unemployment is the result of ________

Answer

Answer: Deficit

Question 26.
Propensity to consume shows relation between _________ and distributed income.

Answer

Answer: Consumption

State true or false:

Question 1.
Consumption is the complement of saving.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Full employment means the absence of involuntary unemployment.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
MPC can be negative.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
MPC of the rich class is higher.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
MPC can be greater than one under abnormal conditions.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
According to Keynes, “Unemployment is the cause of AD < AS.”

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
There is an indirect relationship between multiplier and MPC.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
With the increase in investment, the multiplier increases income many times more. It is called backward action of the multiplier.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
The value of K is in between 1 and ∝.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
When MPC is zero multipliers is 1.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 11.
Consumption by one person becomes the income of the other.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
The deflationary gap is the shortfall in AD from the level required to maintain full employment equilibrium in the economy.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
Corporation tax is an indirect tax.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 14.
Monetary policy is related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
When there is excess demand, the rate of taxation is to be reduced.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 16.
When there is deficient demand, public expenditure is to be generally expanded.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 17.
Full employment does not mean zero unemployment.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 18.
An increase in the interest rate in the future will reduce the savings.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 19.
Consumption expenditure does not increase in the same proportion as income increases.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 20.
Theories of employment were propounded by Marshall.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 21.
Unemployment is the result of deficit demand.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 22.
Keynes’s theory also applies to underdeveloped countries.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 23.
Keynes’s theory is based on the concept of full employment.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Meaning of market demand (a) Directly related to each other
2. Income and Savings both (b) J. B. Say
3. Independent jurisdiction (c) Income is inelastic
4. Induced investment (d) By the demand of one good
5. Supply creates its own demand (e) Is ruled by
6. Effective demand = Total demand and Total supply (f) Income is elastic.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Meaning of market demand (d) By the demand of one good
2. Income and Savings both (a) Directly related to each other
3. Independent jurisdiction (c) Income is inelastic
4. Induced investment (f) Income is elastic.
5. Supply creates its own demand (b) J. B. Say
6. Effective demand = Total demand and Total supply (e) Is ruled by

Question 2.

Column-I Column-II
1. Components of Aggregate Demand (A) C + S
2. Components of Aggregate Supply (B) Rate of interest and MEC
3. Determinants of investment (C) AD = AS
4. Equilibrium level of income (D) C + I + G + ( X – M)
5. Investment multiplier (E) Taxes, deficit financing
6. MPC = 0.6, MPS = ? (F) 0.4
7. APC = 0.9, APS = ? (G) 0.1
8. Measures of fiscal policy (H) k = \(\frac{\Delta Y}{\Delta I}\)
9. Measures of monetary policy (I) Bank rate, CRR
10. Quantitative Instrument (J) Rationing
11. Qualitative Instrument (K) Open market operation
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Components of Aggregate Demand (D) C + I + G + ( X – M)
2. Components of Aggregate Supply (A) C + S
3. Determinants of investment (B) Rate of interest and MEC
4. Equilibrium level of income (C) AD = AS
5. Investment multiplier (H) k = \(\frac{\Delta Y}{\Delta I}\)
6. MPC = 0.6, MPS = ? (F) 0.4
7. APC = 0.9, APS = ? (G) 0.1
8. Measures of fiscal policy (E) Taxes, deficit financing
9. Measures of monetary policy (I) Bank rate, CRR
10. Quantitative Instrument (K) Open market operation
11. Qualitative Instrument (J) Rationing

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Determination of Income and Employment with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Determination of Income and Employment MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges of Nation Building with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges of Nation Building with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges of Nation Building with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Challenges of Nation Building Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Challenges of Nation Building Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Question 1.
Which among the following statements about the partition is incorrect?
(a) Partition of India was the outcome of the ‘Two Nation Theory.’
(b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.
(c) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
(d) The scheme of partition included a plan for the transfer of population across the border.

Answer

Answer: (d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for the transfer of population across the border.

Challenges Of Nation Building Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Match the principles with the instances:

(a) Mapping of boundaries of religious grounds 1. Pakistan and Bangladesh
(b) Mapping of boundaries on grounds of a different language 2. India and Pakistan
(c) Demarcating boundaries within a country by geographical zones 3. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
(d) Demarcating within a country on administrative and political grounds 4. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Answer

Answer:

(a) Mapping of boundaries of religious grounds 2. India and Pakistan
(b) Mapping of boundaries on grounds of a different language 1. Pakistan and Bangladesh
(c) Demarcating boundaries within a country by geographical zones 4. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
(d) Demarcating within a country on administrative and political grounds 3. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

MCQ Of Challenges Of Nation Building Question 3.
When India got Independence?
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1952
(d) 1962

Answer

Answer: (a) 1947

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Question 4.
The main reason for India’s partition is:
(a) Adamant attitude of Jinnah
(b) Communal riots and disorder
(c) Failure of the Interim Government
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Challenges Of Nation Building MCQs Question 5.
What were the consequences of the Partition of India in 1947?
(a) Transfer of Population
(b) Refugees Problem
(c) Problem of Minorities
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

What were the consequences of the Partition of India in 1947?

MCQ Challenges Of Nation Building Question 6.
Give the names of two provinces which were also divided during the partition of India.

Answer

Answer: Punjab, Bengal

Class 12 Political Science Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Question 7.
Name two states today that was once a Union Territory.

Answer

Answer: Goa, Himachal Pradesh

Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Questions Question 8.
On partition, which states refused to join both India and Pakistan?

Answer

Answer: Travancore, Hyderabad

Class 12 Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Question 9.
Who said that the administrative system in independent India was renewed without being remodeled, thus retaining many of the colonial systems’ imperfections?

Answer

Answer: C. Bettelheim

MCQ On Challenges Of Nation Building Question 10.
Hajongs, Chakmas, Garos, Bawms, Santhaig, etc., left East Pakistan. Where did they go to?

Answer

Answer: Hajongs, Chakmas, Garos, etc., came to India.

MCQ Of Challenges Of Nation Building Class 12th Question 11.
On which date State Reorganisation Act was put into practice?

Answer

Answer: November 1, 1956.

MCQ Of Chapter Challenges Of Nation Building Question 12.
Who was the founding father of the Non-aligned Movement?

Answer

Answer: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Class 12 Question 13.
What were the goals of Pt. Nehru?

Answer

Answer: Socialism, equality, democracy, and liberty were the cherished goals of Pt. Nehru.

MCQ On Challenges Of Nation Building Class 12 Question 14.
When India got Independence?

Answer

Answer: India got Independence at midnight of 14-15 August 1947.

Challenges Of Nation Building MCQ Pdf Question 15.
Under which article, special status was given to J8mnlu and Kashmir.

Answer

Answer: Special status was given to Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.

MCQ Questions Of Challenges Of Nation Building Question 16.
When Article 370 is abrogated from Indian Constitution?

Answer

Answer: On 5-6 August 2019, Article 370 was abrogated from the Indian Constitution.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges of Nation Building with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Challenges of Nation Building MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Accounting Ratios Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Accounting Ratios Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Accounting Ratios Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
The formula for ascertaining Total Assets to Debt Ratio is:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: (a)

Accounting Ratios MCQ Question 2.
Proprietory Ratio indicates the relationship between proprietor’s funds and….
(a) Reserve
(b) Share Capital
(c) Total Assets
(d) Debentures

Answer

Answer: (c) Total Assets

MCQ Of Accounting Ratios Class 12 Question 3.
Proprietory ratio is calculated by the following formula:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers 2

Answer

Answer: (c)

Accounting Ratios MCQs Class 12 Question 4.
Which one of the following ratios is most important in determining the long-term solvency of a company ?
(a) Profitability Ratio
(b) Debt-Equity Ratio
(c) Stock Turnover Ratio
(d) Current Ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) Debt-Equity Ratio

Which one of the following ratios is most important in determining the long-term solvency of a company ?

Accounting Ratios MCQs Question 5.
Total Assets ₹ 8,10,000
Total Liabilities ₹ 2,60,000
Current Liabilities ₹ 40,000
Debt-equity ratio is:
(a) 0.05 : 1
(b) 0.4 : 1
(c) 2.5 : 1
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.5 : 1

MCQ On Ratio Analysis Class 12 Question 6.
Equity share capital ₹ 15,00,000
Reserve and Surplus ₹ 7,50,000
Total Assets ₹ 45,00,000
Properletory Ratio ?
(a) 50%
(b) 33.3%
(c) 200%
(d) 60%

Answer

Answer: (a) 50%

Ratio Analysis MCQ Class 12 Question 7.
Total Assets ₹ 7,70,000
Total Liabilities ₹ 2,60,000
Current Liabilities ₹ 40,000
Total Assets to Debt Ratio is:
(a) 3.5 : 1
(b) 2.56 : 1
(c) 2.8 : 1
(d) 3 : 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 3.5 : 1

MCQ On Accounting Ratios Question 8.
Profitability Ratios are generally expressed in :
(a) Simple Ratio
(b) Percentage
(c) Times
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Percentage

Ratio Analysis Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
The ratios are primarily measures of earning capacity of the business.
(a) Liquidity
(b) Activity
(c) Debt
(d) Profitability

Answer

Answer: (d) Profitability

Question 10.
The gross profit ratio is the ratio of gross profit to :
(a) Net Cash Sales
(b) Net Credit Sales
(c) Closing Stock
(d) Net Total Sales

Answer

Answer: (d) Net Total Sales

Question 11.
Operating Ratio is:
(a) Profitability Ratio
(b) Activity Ratio
(c) Solvency Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Profitability Ratio

Question 12.
Which of the following is an operating’ income ?
(a) Sale of Merchandise
(b) Interest Income
(c) Dividend Income
(d) Profit on the sale of old car

Answer

Answer: (a) Sale of Merchandise

Question 13.
Which of the following non-operating expense?
(a) Rent
(b) Selling Expenses
(c) Wages
(d) Loss on Sale of Machinery

Answer

Answer: (d) Loss on Sale of Machinery

Question 14.
The following groups of ratios primarily measure risk
(a) Liquidity, activity and profitability
(b) Liquidity, activity and common stock
(c) Liquidity, activity and debt
(d) Activity, debt and profitability

Answer

Answer: (d) Activity, debt and profitability

Question 15.
To know the return on investment, by capital employed we mean:
(a) Net Fixed Assets
(b) Current Asset-Current Liabilities
(c) Gross Block
(d) Fixed Assets + Current Assets-Current Liabilities

Answer

Answer: (d) Fixed Assets + Current Assets-Current Liabilities

Question 16.
The term fixed assets include :
(a) Cash
(b) Machinery
(c) Debtors
(d) Prepaid Expenses

Answer

Answer: (b) Machinery

Question 17.
Ratio based on figures of profit & loss as well a the Balance sheet are:
(a) Profitability Ratios
(b) Operation Ratio
(c) Liquidity Ratio
(d) Composite Ratio

Answer

Answer: (d) Composite Ratio

Question 18.
Debtors Turnover Ratio :
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers 3

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 19.
When opening stock is ₹ 50,000 closing stock ₹ 60,000 and cost of goods sold is ₹ 2,20,000, then stock turn over ratio is:
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 5 times

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 times

Question 20.
What does Creditors Turnover Ratio take into account:
(a) Total credit purchases
(b) Total credit sales
(c) Total cash sales
(d) Total cash purchases

Answer

Answer: (a) Total credit purchases

Question 21.
Cost of goods sold :
(a) Sales – Net profit
(b) Sales – Gross profit
(c) Purchases – Opening Stock
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Sales – Gross profit

Question 22.
The ideal liquid ratio is :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 5 : 1
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 : 1

Question 23.
The ideal current ratio is :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 : 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 1

Question 24.
Operating Ratio is:
(a) Profitability Ratio
(b) Activity Ratio
(c) Solvency Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Profitability Ratio

Question 25.
Profitability Ratio is generally shown in :
(a) Simple Ratio
(b) Percentage
(c) Times
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Percentage

Question 26.
If sales is 7 4,20,000 sales returns is 7 20,000 and cost of goods sold 7 3,20,000 gross profit ratio will be :
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 15%
(d) 10%

Answer

Answer: (a) 20%

Question 27.
Stock turnover ratio comes under :
(a) Liquidity Ratio
(b) Profitability Ratio
(c) Activity Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Activity Ratio

Question 28.
The satisfactory ratio between internal and external equity is. :
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 4 : 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 : 1

Question 29.
Current Ratio includes:
(a) Stock
(b) Debtors
(c) Cash
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash

Question 30.
Current Ratio =
(a) Current Assets/Current Liabilities
(b) Liquid Assets/Current Liabilities
(c) Liquid Assets/Current Assets
(d) Fixed Assets/Current Assets

Answer

Answer: (a) Current Assets/Current Liabilities

Question 31.
Liquid Assets include :
(a) Bills Receivable
(b) Debtors
(c) Cash Balance
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Liquid Assets include :

Question 32.
Which of the following assets is not taken into consideration in calculating acid-test ratio ?
(a) Cash
(b) Bills Receivable
(c) Stock
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Stock

Question 33.
When Cash is 7 10,000 Stock is 7 25,000, B/R is 7 5,000 Creditors is 7 22,000 and Bank Overdraft is 7 8,000 then current ratio is :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 : 3

Question 34.
The two basic measures of liquidity are :
(a) Inventory Turnover and Current Ratio
(b) Current Ratio and Liquid Ratio
(c) Current Ratio and Average Collection Period
(d) Current Ratio and Debtors Turnover Ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) Current Ratio and Liquid Ratio

Question 35.
Liquidity Ratio:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers 4

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 36.
The term ‘Current Liabilities’ does not include: .
(a) Sundry Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Bills Payable
(d) Outstanding Expenses

Answer

Answer: (b) Debentures

Question 37.
The term‘Current Assets’include
(a) Long-term Investment
(b) Short-term Investment
(c) Furniture
(d) Preliminary Expenses

Answer

Answer: (b) Short-term Investment

Question 38.
Liquid Ratio is also known as:
(a) Current Ratio
(b) Quick Ratio
(c) Capital Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Quick Ratio

Question 39.
To test the liquidity of a concern which of the following ratios is useful ?
(a) Capital Turnover Ratio
(b) Acid Test Ratio
(c) Stock Turnover Ratio
(d) Net Profit Ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) Acid Test Ratio

Question 40.
Which of the following transactions will improve the current ratio ?
(a) Purchase of good for cash
(b) Cash received from customers
(c) Payment of creditors
(d) Credit purchase of goods

Answer

Answer: (c) Payment of creditors

Question 41.
Debt-equity ratio is :
(a) Liquidity Ratio
(b) Activity Ratio
(c) Solvency Ratio
(d) Operating Ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Solvency Ratio

Question 42.
The formula for finding out Debt-Equity Ratio is:
(a) Long-term Debts/Shareholders’ Funds
(b) Debentures/Equity Capital
(c) Net Profit/Total Capital
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Long-term Debts/Shareholders’ Funds

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 10 Accounting Ratios with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Accounting Ratios MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
In which year did India adopt the economic reforms?
(A) 1991
(B) 1993
(C) 1998
(D) 2001

Answer

Answer: (A) 1991

In which year did India adopt the economic reforms?

Liberalisation Privatisation Globalisation Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Why there was a need for economic reforms in India?
(A) Due to fiscal deficit
(B) Due to adverse BOP
(C) Rise in prices
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (D) All of the above

Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation MCQ Question 3.
When did the Gulf Crisis take place?
(A) 1985
(B) 1990-91
(C) 1995
(D) 1975

Answer

Answer: (B) 1990-91

Chapter 3 Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
How much loan was provided by World Bank and IMF during the nineties to bail India out of the crisis?
(A) $10 million
(B) $10 billion
(C) $7 billion
(D) $20 billion

Answer

Answer: (C) $7 billion

MCQ Of Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation Question 5.
What is the main feature of New Economic Policy?
(A) Liberalisation
(B) Privatisation
(C) Globalisation
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (D) All of the above

MCQ On Liberalization, Privatization And Globalization Pdf Question 6.
For how many industries, licensing is still necessary?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 10

Answer

Answer: (B) 6

MCQ On Liberalization, Privatization And Globalization Class 12 Question 7.
How many industries are entirely reserved for the public sector?
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 2
(D) 4

Answer

Answer: (C) 2

Liberalisation, Privatisation And Globalisation MCQ Question 8.
What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(A) 50 lakh
(B) 1 crore
(C) 25 lakh
(D) 75 crore

Answer

Answer: (B) 1 crore

Ch 3 Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
When was VAT introduced in most of the States of India?
(A) 1995
(B) 2001
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answer

Answer: (C) 2005

MCQ On Liberalization Privatization And Globalization Class 12 Question 10.
How many countries are the members of WTO?
(A) 164
(B) 120
(C) 96
(D) 48

Answer

Answer: (A) 164

Liberalization Privatization And Globalization MCQ Question 11.
When was WTO established?
(A) 1996
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 1995

Answer

Answer: (D) 1995

Liberalisation Privatisation Globalisation MCQ Question 12.
Where is the headquarters of WTO located?
(A) Italy
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Washington

Answer

Answer: (B) Geneva

Where is the headquarters of WTO located?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

Liberalisation, Privatisation And Globalisation Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
India met with an economic crisis in 1991 as it failed to repay its _______ from abroad.

Answer

Answer: borrowings

MCQs On Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation Question 2.
_______ is the excess of expenditure (borrowings) over income.

Answer

Answer: Deficit

Economic Reforms Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
To overcome the crisis, India approached IMF and World Bank for _________

Answer

Answer: loan

Class 12 Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation MCQ Question 4.
Economic reforms refer to all those measures that aim at rendering the economy more efficient, competitive and _________

Answer

Answer: developed

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Liberalization Privatization And Globalization Question 5.
Fiscal policy refers to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government to achieve _______ development in the economy.

Answer

Answer: balanced

Class 12 Economics Liberalisation Privatisation And Globalisation MCQ Question 6.
Financial sectors were allowed to take decisions on various matters, without consulting ________

Answer

Answer: RBI

Question 7.
Trade policy reforms led to the removal of export duties to ________ India’s competitive position.

Answer

Answer: increase

Question 8.
India has become an important destination for global ______ since the reforms.

Answer

Answer: outsourcing

Question 9.
Trade between two countries is called ________ trade.

Answer

Answer: bilateral

Question 10.
The industrial sector has experienced _______ in growth pattern.

Answer

Answer: fluctuations

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Despite efficient management of the Indian economy, India faced an economic crisis in 1991.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 2.
The crisis led to a rise in the prices of essential goods.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Reserve Bank of India announced New Economic Policy as a condition to support the Indian economy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
Opening up the economy by removing restrictions on the private sector is called globalisation.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Industrial licensing was abolished on all products except on those which were important from a profit point of view.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
The rupee was devalued to resolve the balance of payments crisis.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
A fixed exchange rate system was adopted to avoid rigidity in the foreign exchange market.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
Private ownership is capable of utilising capital and other resources more efficiently.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
GATT is the successor to the WTO.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
Opening up the economy resulted in a rapid increase in FDI and foreign exchange reserves.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Economic Reforms (A) 1995
2. Gulf Crisis (B) 2005
3. WTO (C) 1990-91
4. VAT (D) 1991
5. GATT (E) 1948
6. Liberalisation (F) Sale of public sector shares
7. Privatisation (G) Abolition of licensing
8. Globalisation (H) Integration of domestic economy with rest of the world
9. GST (I) Stripping a currency unit
10. Demonetization (J) An indirect tax
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Economic Reforms (D) 1991
2. Gulf Crisis (C) 1990-91
3. WTO (A) 1995
4. VAT (B) 2005
5. GATT (E) 1948
6. Liberalisation (G) Abolition of licensing
7. Privatisation (F) Sale of public sector shares
8. Globalisation (H) Integration of domestic economy with rest of the world
9. GST (J) An indirect tax
10. Demonetization (I) Stripping a currency unit

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided National Income Accounting Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

National Income Accounting Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

National Income MCQ Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 1.
GNP at MP = ______
(A) GDPMP – Depreciation
(B) GDPMP + Depreciation
(C) GDPMP ÷ Depreciation
(D) GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad

Answer

Answer: (A) GDPMP – Depreciation

MCQ On National Income Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 2.
NDPMP = ________
(A) GDPMP – Depreciation
(B) GDPFC + Net factor income from abroad
(C) NNPFC + Net indirect taxes
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (A) GDPMP – Depreciation

MCQs On National Income Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 3.
NNPMP = ________
(A) GNPMP – Depreciation
(B) NDPMP + Net factor income from abroad
(C) NNPFC + Net indirect taxes
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

MCQ On National Income Class 12 Chapter 2 Question 4.
GDPFC =
(A) GDPMP – Net indirect taxes
(B) GDPMP + Net indirect taxes
(C) GDPMP + Subsidies
(D) GDPMP – Indirect taxes

Answer

Answer: (A) GDPMP – Net indirect taxes

MCQ On National Income Pdf Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 5.
NDPFC =
(A) GDPFC – Indirect taxes
(B) GDPFC – Depreciation
(C) GDPFC + Economic subsidy
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (B) GDPFC – Depreciation

National Income MCQs Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 6.
NNPFC =
(A) GNPFC – Depreciation
(B) NNPMP + Economic subsidy – Indirect taxes
(C) NDPMP + Net factor income from abroad
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Macroeconomics Class 12 Chapter 2 MCQ  Question 7.
Which of the following is the method of measuring National Income?
(A) Income method
(B) Product method
(C) Expenditure method
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Which of the following is the method of measuring National Income?

National Income Includes MCQ Chapter 2 Class 12 Question 8.
Why are the intermediate goods not included in the National Income while measuring National Income?
(A) To avoid double accounting
(B) It decreases income
(C) Intermediate goods are not good
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (A) To avoid double accounting

Question 9.
Who had made the first attempt at National Income Accounting?
(A) Prof. D.R.Gadgill
(B) Simon Kuznets
(C) J.M.Keynes
(D) Gregory King

Answer

Answer: (D) Gregory King

Question 10.
Calculation of National Income at Market Prices is known as _________
(A) Money income
(B) Real income
(C) Non-monetary income
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Money income

Question 11.
Accounting of National Income at constant prices is known as ________
(A) Money income
(B) Real income
(C) Current income
(D) Domestic income

Answer

Answer: (B) Real income

Question 12.
Which of the following items are excluded from GNP measurement?
(A) Purely financial transactions
(B) Transfer of used goods and non-market goods and services
(C) Illegal activities and the value of leisure
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Question 13.
The subject of the Study of Macro Economics is:
(a) The Principle of National Income
(b) The Principle of Consumer
(c) The Principle of Producer
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) The Principle of National Income

Question 14.
Macro Economics Studies:
(a) Employment opportunities in the economy
(b) Theory of supply of Commodities
(c) Elasticity of demand in Scooter
(d) Price of wheat in the market

Answer

Answer: (a) Employment opportunities in the economy

Question 15.
General Price Level is studied in:
(a) Micro Economics
(b) Macro Economics
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Macro Economics

Question 16.
Employment Theory is related to :
(a) Static Economics
(b) Micro Economics
(c) Macro Economics
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Macro Economics

Question 17.
Increase in Stock of Capital is known as:
(a) Capital Loss
(b) Capital Profit
(c) Capital Formation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Capital Formation

Question 18.
Which of the following is sPktock ?
(a) Wealth
(b) Saving
(c) Export
(d) Profit

Answer

Answer: (a) Wealth

Question 19.
Which one of the following is included in circular flow?
(a) Real Flow
(b) Money Flow
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
Which one of the following is included in ‘Stock’?
(a) Quantity of Money
(b) Wealth
(c) Quantity of wheat stored in a warehouse
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 21.
Which one is included inflow ?
(a) Consumption
(b) Investment
(c) Income
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Investment

Question 22.
Which of the following is included in real flow?
(a) Flow of Goods
(b) Flow of Services
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
Which services are provided by families to a firm?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital and Enterprises
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 24.
Which one is included in the three-sector model?
(a) Family
(b) Firm
(c) Government
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 25.
Which one is included in the four-sector model?
(a) Family, Firm, Industry
(b) Family, Firm, Government
(c) Family, Firm, Government, Foreign Sector
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Family, Firm, Government, Foreign Sector

Question 26.
Which is the equilibrium condition of circular flow in the four sector model?
(a) C + I
(b) C + I + G
(c) C + I + G + (X-M)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) C + I + G + (X-M)

Question 27.
The primary sector includes:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Retail trading
(c) Small Industries
(d) All the these

Answer

Answer: (d) All the these

Question 28.
For a four sector or open economy the condition for equilibrium is:
(a) Savings + taxes + Imports = Investment + govt, expenditure + exports
(b) Total Leakages = Total Injections
(c) Aggregate output = Aggregate Expenditure
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 29.
Which service is included in Tertiary Sector?
(a) Mining
(b) Construction
(c) Communication
(d) Animal Husbandry

Answer

Answer: (c) Communication

Question 30.
Which of the following is not flow?
(a) Capital
(b) Income
(c) Investment
(d) Depreciation

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital

Question 31.
The market price of all final goods of a country in a year is known as:
(a) GDPMP
(b) GDPFC
(c) NNPFC
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) GDPMP

Question 32.
Which one is true?
(a) GNP = GDP + Depreciation
(b) NNP = GNP + Depreciation
(c) NNP = GNP – Depreciation
(d) GNP = NNP – Depreciation

Answer

Answer: (c) NNP = GNP – Depreciation

Question 33.
GNPMp =?
(a) GDPMp – Depreciation
(b) GDPMp + Net Factor Income from Abroad
(c) GNPMp + Subsidy
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) GDPMp + Net Factor Income from Abroad

Question 34.
NNPMP = ?
(a) GNPMp – Depreciation
(b) GNPMp + Depreciation
(c) GNPMp + Indirect Tax
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) GNPMp – Depreciation

Question 35.
Depreciation expenses are included in:
(a) GNPMp
(b) NNPMp
(c) NNPFC
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) GNPMp

Question 36.
NDPFC = ?
(a) NDPMP – Indirect Tax
(b) GNPMP – Indirect Tax + Subsidy
(c) NDPMP – Subsidy
(d) NDPMF – Depreciation

Answer

Answer: (b) GNPMP – Indirect Tax + Subsidy

Question 37.
Net National Income at Factor Cost is called?
(a) National Income
(b) Gross Investment
(c) Domestic Income
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) National Income

Question 38.
Which one is included in National Income?
(a) Rent, Wage, Interest
(b) Rent, Wage, Salary
(c) Rent, Profit, Interest
(d) Rent, Wage, Salary, Interest, Profit

Answer

Answer: (d) Rent, Wage, Salary, Interest, Profit

Question 39.
What is the consumption of fixed capital called?
(a) Capital formation
(b) Depreciation
(c) Investment
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Depreciation

Question 40.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct Taxes
(b) Disposable Income = Private Income – Direct Taxes
(c) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Indirect Taxes
(d) Disposable Income = Private Income – Indirect Taxes

Answer

Answer: (a) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct Taxes

Question 41.
If for a country net factor income from abroad is negative then:
(a) GDP < GNP
(b) GDP > GNP
(c) GDP ≥ GNP
(d) GDP = GNP

Answer

Answer: (b) GDP > GNP

Question 42.
The market value of all final goods and services produced in an economy over a year is called :
(a) Gross National Product
(b) National Income
(c) Gross Domestic Product
(d) Net National Product

Answer

Answer: (c) Gross Domestic Product

Question 43.
Which method is adopted in measuring National Income?
(a) Production Method
(b) Income Method
(c) Expenditure Method
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 44.
Which sector is included in an economy?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 45.
Which of the following is not included in the calculation of Gross National Product?
(a) Purchase and Sale of Old commodities
(b) Intermediate Commodities
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) both

Question 46.
Which one of the following services are included in the Secondary Sector?
(a) Insurance
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Trade
(d) Banking

Answer

Answer: (b) Manufacturing

Question 47.
Which one is included in Primary Sector?
(a) Land
(b) Forest
(c) Mining
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (d) All these

Question 48.
To include the value of goods or services more than one time while calculating National Income is called :
(a) Single Counting
(b) Double Counting
(c) Multiple Counting
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Double Counting

Question 49.
Which one is a component of profit?
(a) Dividend
(b) Undistributed Profit
(c) Corporate Profit Tax
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 50.
Which one is included in National Income?
(a) Transfer Earnings
(b) Sale proceeds of Shares and Bonds
(c) Black Money
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the Above

Question 51.
Which one is included in the calculation of National Income?
(a) New Final Goods and Services
(b) Earned Income of Indian Companies in Abroad
(c) Expenses made by Foreign Tourists in the country
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 52.
Which one is the limitation of Macro Economics?
(a) Collective Economic Paradox
(b) Ignores Individual Units
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Which one is the limitation of Macro Economics?

Question 53.
Macro-economics is the study of:
(a) Principle or Theories of national income
(b) Consumer’s theory
(c) Production theory
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Principle or Theories of national income

Question 54.
Out of the following which is not a flow:
(a) Capital
(b) Income
(c) Investment
(d) Depreciation.

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital

Question 55.
From the following which method is used for measuring national income:
(a) Production method
(b) Income method
(c) Expenditure method
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Question 56.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector:
(a) Land
(b) Forest
(c) Mines
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 57.
Total national income divided by total population is known as:
(a) Private income
(b) Personal income
(c) Personal spendable income
(d) Per capita income.

Answer

Answer: (d) Per capita income

Question 58.
Production enterprises are divided in:
(a) Two sectors
(b) Three sectors
(c) Four sectors
(d) Five sectors.

Answer

Answer: (b) Three sectors

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
________ income is the value of current income at base-year prices.

Answer

Answer: Real

Question 2.
__________ flow shows flow of goods and services across different sectors.

Answer

Answer: Real

Question 3.
_______ sector is also known as the service sector.

Answer

Answer: Tertiary

Question 4.
_________ is an economic variable that is measured over a specific period of time. It is a dynamic concept.

Answer

Answer: Flow

Question 5.
________ is the loss of value of fixed assets due to normal wear and tear.

Answer

Answer: Depreciation

Question 6.
Environmental pollution caused by industries is a _______ externality.

Answer

Answer: negative

Question 7.
_______ are the economic assistance given by the government for the general welfare.

Answer

Answer: Subsidies

Question 8.
Investment refers to addition to the ________ of an economy. For example purchase of machinery, construction of the metro.

Answer

Answer: capital stock

Question 9.
Nominal GDP is the value of GDP at _______ prices.

Answer

Answer: current

Question 10.
________ means estimating the value of goods and services more than once.

Answer

Answer: Double counting

Question 11.
Agriculture is included in the…………… sector.

Answer

Answer: Primary

Question 12.
Pigou has divided welfare into ………….. parts.

Answer

Answer: Two

Question 13.
Chinese product is included in …………… area of the economy.

Answer

Answer: Secondary

Question 14.
National income in India is calculated by………………

Answer

Answer: Central statistical organisation

Question 15.
The total value of all final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year is known as ……….

Answer

Answer: GDP

Question 16.
……….. is an index of economic development of the country.

Answer

Answer: National income.

State true or false:

Question 1.
As compared to developed countries, India’s per capita income is quite less.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Black money has given birth to a parallel economy in the country.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The major contribution to India’s national income is from the secondary sector.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
Electricity, LPG, and water supply are included in the primary sector.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Income from gifts is included in the national income.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
The sale of second-hand goods is not included in the national income.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Fish culture (a) Tertiary sector
2. Highest contribution in national income (b) Year 1952
3. National income committee was established in (c) Mixed method
4. National income calculation is done by (d) Year 1949
5. Establishment of C.S.O. (e) Primary sector.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Fish culture (e) Primary sector.
2. Highest contribution in national income (a) Tertiary sector
3. National income committee was established in (d) Year 1949
4. National income calculation is done by (c) Mixed method
5. Establishment of C.S.O. (b) Year 1952

Question 2.

Column-I Column-II
1. Real flow (A) Imports, savings, etc.
2. Money flow (B) Exports, investments, etc.
3. Examples of injections (C) Balance in the bank account as of January 1st, 2019
4. Examples of leakages (D) Income per Month
5. Examples of stock (E) Income from a self-employed person
6. Examples of flow (F) GNP at constant prices
7. GDPMP (G) The flow of goods and sen/ices
8. Mixed-income (H) GDPFC + NIT – Subsidies
9. Change in the stock (I) Depreciation
10. Nominal GNP (J) The flow of money across different sectors
11. Real GNP (K) Closing stock – opening stock
12. Consumption1 of fixed capital (L) GNP at current prices
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Real flow (G) The flow of goods and sen/ices
2. Money flow (J) The flow of money across different sectors
3. Examples of injections (B) Exports, investments, etc.
4. Examples of leakages (A) Imports, savings, etc.
5. Examples of stock (C) Balance in the bank account as of January 1st, 2019
6. Examples of flow (D) Income per Month
7. GDPMP (H) GDPFC + NIT – Subsidies
8. Mixed-income (E) Income from a self-employed person
9. Change in the stock (K) Closing stock – opening stock
10. Nominal GNP (L) GNP at current prices
11. Real GNP (F) GNP at constant prices
12. Consumption1 of fixed capital (I) Depreciation

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 National Income Accounting with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics National Income Accounting MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Government Budget Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
An annual statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government over the fiscal year is known as
(A) Budget
(B) Income estimates
(C) Account
(D) Expenditure

Answer

Answer: (A) Budget

Government Budget And The Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of direct tax?
(A) VAT
(B) Excise duty
(C) Entertainment tax
(D) Wealth tax

Answer

Answer: (D) Wealth tax

Which of the following is an example of direct tax?

Govt Budget Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
What is the period of a fiscal year?
(A) 1 April to 31 March
(B) 1 January to 31 December
(C) 1 March to 28 February
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) 1 April to 31 March

Government Budget MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
When government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs ______
(A) Budget surplus
(B) Budget deficit
(C) Capital expenditure
(D) Revenue expenditure

Answer

Answer: (B) Budget deficit

Government Budget And The Economy MCQ Question 5.
The fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding ______
(A) Interest
(B) Taxes
(C) Spending
(D) Borrowings

Answer

Answer: (D) Borrowings

MCQ On Government Budget Class 12 Question 6.
Which of the following is the component of a budget?
(A) Fiscal budget
(B) Capital budget
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Both of these

Government Budget MCQ Question 7.
What is the annual statement of the government’s fiscal revenue and fiscal expenditure known?
(A) Budget
(B) Fiscal Budget
(C) Capital Budget
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (B) Fiscal Budget

MCQ Of Government Budget Class 12 Question 8.
How many types of revenue receipts are there?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6

Answer

Answer: (A) 2

Government Budget Class 12 MCQs Question 9.
The amount collected by the government as taxes and duties is known as _______
(A) Capital receipts
(B) Tax revenue receipts
(C) Non-tax revenue receipts
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (B) Tax revenue receipts

Class 12 Government Budget MCQ Question 10.
The amount collected by the government in the form of interest, fees, and dividends is known as ________
(A) Tax-revenue receipts
(B) Capital receipts
(C) Non-tax revenue receipts
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Non-tax revenue receipts

MCQ Of Government Budget Question 11.
Borrowing in the government budget is:
(A) Revenue deficit
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Primary deficit
(D) Deficit in taxes

Answer

Answer: (B) Fiscal deficit

MCQ Of Chapter Government Budget Class 12 Question 12.
The non-tax revenue in the following is:
(A) Export duty
(B) Import duty
(C) Dividends
(D) Excise

Answer

Answer: (C) Dividends

Government Budget And Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 13.
The primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when _______
(A) Revenue deficit is zero
(B) Net interest payments are zero
(C) Fiscal deficit is zero
(D) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

Answer

Answer: (D) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment

Class 12 Economics Government Budget MCQ Question 14.
Direct tax is called direct because it is collected directly from:
(A) The producers on goods produced
(B) The sellers on goods sold
(C) The buyers of goods
(D) The income earners

Answer

Answer: (D) The income earners

MCQ On Government Budget Class 12 Pdf Question 15.
Financial Year in India is:
(a) April I to March 31
(b) January 1 to December 31
(c) October 1 to September 30
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) April I to March 31

MCQ Of Govt Budget Class 12 Question 16.
Which objectives government attempts to obtain by Budget
(a) To Promote Economic Development
(b) Balanced Regional Development
(c) Redistribution of Income and Wealth
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Government Budget Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 17.
Which is a component of Budget?
(a) Budget Receipts
(b) Budget Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
Which is a component of the Budget Receipt?
(a) Revenue Receipt
(b) Capital Receipt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 19.
Tax revenue of the Government includes :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Corporate Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 20.
Which is included in the Direct Tax?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Excise Duty

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 21.
Which is included in Indirect Tax?
(a) Excise Duty
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Wealth Tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 22.
The expenditures which do not create assets for the government is called :
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Revenue Expenditure

Question 23.
Direct tax is :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 24.
In India, one rupee note is issued by:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Ministry of Government of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Finance Ministry of Government of India

Question 25.
Capital budget consist of:
(a) Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Receipts and Capital Expenditure
(c) Direct and Indirect Tax
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Receipts and Capital Expenditure

Question 26.
Which of the following is an indirect tax?
(a) Excise Duty
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Custom Duty
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 27.
Which type of expenditure is made in bridge construction?
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Expenditure

Question 28.
Which of the following budget is suitable for developing economies?
(a) Deficit Budget
(b) Balanced Budget
(c) Surplus Budget
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deficit Budget

Question 29.
What is the duration of a Budget?
(a) Annual
(b) Two Years
(c) Five Years
(d) Ten Years

Answer

Answer: (a) Annual

Question 30.
Which of the following is included in fiscal policy?
(a) Public Expenditure
(b) Tax
(c) Public Debt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 31.
Which of the following is the capital expenditure of the government?
(a) Interest Payment
(b) Purchase of House
(c) Expenses on Machinery
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Interest Payment

Question 32.
The budget may include:
(a) Revenue Deficit
(b) Fiscal Deficit
(c) Primary Deficit
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 33.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Fiscal deficit is the difference between total expenditure and total receipts
(b) Primary deficit is the difference between total receipt and interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit is the sum of primary deficit and interest payment
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Fiscal deficit is the sum of primary deficit and interest payment

Question 34.
Budget:
(a) is a description of income-expenditure of government
(b) is a document of the economic policy of the government
(c) is a description of non-programs of the government
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 35.
In an unbalanced budget:
(a) Income is greater than expenditure
(b) Expenditure is higher relative to income
(c) Deficit is covered by loans or printing of notes
(d) Only (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Only (b) and (c)

Question 36.
Which is included in indirect tax?
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Gift tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Excise Duty

Question 37.
Which one of the following is a pair of direct tax?
(a) Excise duty and Wealth Tax
(b) Service Tax and Income Tax
(c) Excise Duty and Service Tax
(d) Wealth Tax and Income Tax

Answer

Answer: (d) Wealth Tax and Income Tax

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a revenue receipt?
(a) Recovery of Loans
(b) Foreign Grants
(c) Profits of Public Enterprise
(d) Wealth Tax

Answer

Answer: (a) Recovery of Loans

Question 39.
Which of the following is a correct measure of the primary deficit?
(a) Fiscal deficit minus revenue deficit
(b) Revenue deficit minus interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
(d) Capital expenditure minus revenue expenditure

Answer

Answer: (c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments

Question 40.
The duration of the Government budget is:
(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 10 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 year

Question 41.
Budget is presented in the Parliament by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Defence Minister

Answer

Answer: (c) Finance Minister

Question 42.
Budget speech in Lok Sabha is given by:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Home Minister

Answer

Answer: (c) Finance Minister

Question 43.
Professional tax is imposed by:
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Gram Panchayat

Answer

Answer: (b) State Government

Question 44.
From the following which is included in the direct tax:
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Excise Tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

From the following which is included in the direct tax:

Question 45.
Who issues 1 rupee note in India:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Ministry of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Finance Ministry of India

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
A deficit budget is that in which total expenditure is ________ total receipts.

Answer

Answer: greater than

Question 2.
Revenue deficit is that in which revenue receipts are ________ revenue expenditure.

Answer

Answer: less than

Question 3.
_______ tax is that in which the final burden of the tax fall on the person who pays it.

Answer

Answer: Direct

Question 4.
Tax is a legally compulsory payment imposed by the _______ on income and property of persons and companies.

Answer

Answer: Government

Question 5.
Recovery of loan is treated as capital receipt because it leads to __________

Answer

Answer: reduction of assets

Question 6.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit minus __________

Answer

Answer: Interest on Debt

Question 7.
________ are levied on goods and services.

Answer

Answer: Indirect taxes

Question 8.
_________ does not have any impact on the asset-liability status of the government.

Answer

Answer: Revenue budget

Question 9.
The government can influence the allocation of resources through the implementation of appropriate _________

Answer

Answer: fiscal policy

Question 10.
__________ is a document containing income and expenditure of the government.

Answer

Answer: Budget

Question 11.
Income tax is _________ tax.

Answer

Answer: Direct

Question 12.
_________ tax is levied on the value of the goods.

Answer

Answer: Advalorem

Question 13.
Service tax is levied by the ________

Answer

Answer: Central

Question 14.
_________ budget is considered good for the country.

Answer

Answer: Deficit

Question 15.
Finance bill contains _________ proposals.

Answer

Answer: Tax

Question 16.
Government budget is presented on the last day of _________

Answer

Answer: February

State true or false :

Question 1.
Public goods are collectively consumed.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
There is a feasible way of excluding anyone from enjoying the benefits of public goods.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 3.
The three functions of allocation, redistribution, and stabilization are operated through the expenditure and receipts of the government.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
The deficit decreases in a recession and increases in a boom, even without any change in fiscal policy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Indirect taxes are not convenient to realise.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Payment of salaries to the government employees is a capital payment.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
Expenditure made on the establishment of the metro rail line in Delhi is a capital expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Public borrowing is a capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Recovery of loan is a revenue receipt.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
Service tax is a direct tax.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 11.
Grants by the government are treated as revenue expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
Excess of capital expenditure over capital receipt is called revenue deficit.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 13.
A deficit budget is not considered a good budget.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 14.
Electricity tax is levied by the State Government.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 15.
The budget speech is given by the Finance Minister.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 16.
Central excise duty is a direct tax.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 17.
The interest payment is a planned item.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 18.
During deflation surplus budget is made.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 19.
The rail budget is generally not included in the annual budget.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the following

Question 1.

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Income and expenditure of the government (a) 31 March
2. First of all finance bill is presented in the (b) Budget
3. Budget is presented on (c) Details about income and expenditure
4. Aim or Objective of the budget (d) Lok sabha
5. Main feature of the budget (e) Economic development.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Income and expenditure of the government (b) Budget
2. First of all finance bill is presented in the (d) Lok sabha
3. Budget is presented on (a) 31 March
4. Aim or Objective of the budget (e) Economic development.
5. Main feature of the budget (c) Details about income and expenditure

Question 2.

Column-I Column-II
1. Surplus budget (A) Revenue receipts > Revenue expenditure
2. Deficit budget (B) Fiscal deficit – interest payments
3. Revenue deficit (C) Govt. Expenditure < Govt. Receipts
4. Fiscal deficit (D) Income tax, corporate profit tax
5. Primary deficit (E) Expenditure on roads and health
6. Examples of direct tax (F) Govt. Expenditure > Govt. Receipts
7. Examples of indirect tax (G) Loans granted to state governments
8. Examples of development expenditure (H) Total expenditure > total receipts
9. Examples of non-development expenditure (I) Sale tax, excise duty
10. Examples of capital expenditure (J) Sales tax, Income tax
11. Sources of tax revenue (K) Expenditure on administration and defence
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Surplus budget (C) Govt. Expenditure < Govt. Receipts
2. Deficit budget (F) Govt. Expenditure > Govt. Receipts
3. Revenue deficit (A) Revenue receipts > Revenue expenditure
4. Fiscal deficit (H) Total expenditure > total receipts
5. Primary deficit (B) Fiscal deficit – interest payments
6. Examples of direct tax (D) Income tax, corporate profit tax
7. Examples of indirect tax (I) Sale tax, excise duty
8. Examples of development expenditure (E) Expenditure on roads and health
9. Examples of non-development expenditure (K) Expenditure on administration and defence
10. Examples of capital expenditure (G) Loans granted to state governments
11. Sources of tax revenue (J) Sales tax, Income tax

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 5 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Government Budget and the Economy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Indian Economy 1950-1990 Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Indian Economy 1950 To 1990 Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
In which of the following type of economy are resources owned privately and the main objective behind economic activities is profit-making?
(A) Capitalist
(B) Socialist
(C) Mixed
(D) Global

Answer

Answer: (A) Capitalist

In which of the following type of economy are resources owned privately and the main objective behind economic activities is profit-making?

Indian Economy 1950 To 1990 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is the main objective of carrying out various economic activities?
(A) Profit
(B) Public welfare
(C) Competition
(D) Equality

Answer

Answer: (B) Public welfare

MCQ Of Indian Economy 1950 To 1990 Question 3.
When was the National Development Council (NDC) set up as an adjunct to the Planning Commission?
(A) 1950
(B) 1969
(C) 1952
(D) 1979

Answer

Answer: (C) 1952

Indian Economic Development Class 12 MCQ Chapter 2 Question 4.
Which of the following had been responsible for the heavy burden of the deal and its interest?
(A) BOP deficit
(B) BOP surplus
(C) Equilibrium
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) BOP deficit

Chapter 2 Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Agriculture sector contributed _______ percent to the GDP in 1990-91.
(A) 24.6
(B) 34.9
(C) 40.5
(D) 59.0

Answer

Answer: (B) 34.9

Indian Economy 1950 To 1990 MCQ Questions Question 6.
What is needed to provide protection against natural calamities like floods, drought, locusts, thunderstorms, etc.?
(A) Multiple cropping
(B) Green revolution
(C) Crop insurance
(D) HYV

Answer

Answer: (C) Crop insurance

Ch 2 Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following steps promoted the growth of the economy as a whole by stimulating the development of industrial and tertiary sectors?
(A) Independence
(B) Planning
(C) Colonial rule
(D) Green revolution

Answer

Answer: (B) Planning

MCQ On Indian Economy 1950 To 1990 Question 8.
How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?
(A) 17
(B) 21
(C) 15
(D) 2

Answer

Answer: (A) 17

How many industries have been reserved for the public sector under Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Question 1.
The percentage of the total population below the poverty line has ________ in India since independence.

Answer

Answer: declined

Indian Economy Chapter 2 MCQ Question 2.
_______ planning includes all spheres of economic and social activities.

Answer

Answer: Comprehensive

MCQ Of Chapter 2 Indian Economy Class 12 Question 3.
________ is the Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Answer

Answer: Prime Minister

Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 2 MCQs Question 4.
________ economy is the framework of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: Mixed

Question 5.
Full employment and equitable distribution of income and wealth are the _______ period objectives of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: long

Question 6.
________ combined with social justice is the principal goal of planning in India.

Answer

Answer: Economic growth

Question 7.
Modernisation means adoption of new technology and a change in ________

Answer

Answer: social outlook

Question 8.
Planning in India started with a heavy reliance on the _______ sector.

Answer

Answer: Public

Question 9.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land and bring about _______ in agriculture.

Answer

Answer: equity

Question 10.
Import Substitution policy was introduced to protect ________ from foreign competition.

Answer

Answer: domestic industries

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
In a capitalist economy, production takes place for selling the output in the market with profit as the primary motive.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and many other leaders favoured capitalism for independent India.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 3.
President is the Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru is regarded as the architect of Indian planning.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Economic growth means equal opportunity to all and the removal of inequality in the distribution of income and wealth.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Land Reforms were introduced to make tillers the owners of the land.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 7.
The green revolution resulted in a marketable surplus of agricultural produce.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
The private Sector comprises industries owned, controlled, and managed by the government with the aim of social welfare.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
Under Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956, Category II of the industrial sector includes industries jointly owned and controlled by the private sector and the state.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Quotas are a tax on imported goods while tariffs specify the number of goods which can be imported.

Answer

Answer: False

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Demonetization (A) 1950
2. Planning Commission (B) 2015
3. NITI Aayog (C) P. C. Mahalanobis
4. First five-year plan (D) 2016
5. Architect of Indian Planning (E) 1967-68
6. Green Revolution (F) 1951
7. Economic reforms in India (G) Prime Minister
8. Chairman of Planning Commission (H) 2017
9. New Development Council (I) 1991
10. GST (J) 1952
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Demonetization (D) 2016
2. Planning Commission (A) 1950
3. NITI Aayog (B) 2015
4. First five-year plan (F) 1951
5. Architect of Indian Planning (C) P. C. Mahalanobis
6. Green Revolution (E) 1967-68
7. Economic reforms in India (I) 1991
8. Chairman of Planning Commission (G) Prime Minister
9. New Development Council (J) 1952
10. GST (H) 2017

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Money and Banking Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Money and Banking Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Money And Banking Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
What is the defect of the barter system?
(A) Lack of double coincidence of wants
(B) Difficulty in the measurement of value
(C) Difficulty in store of value
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Money And Banking MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is the credit money?
(A) Cheque and draft
(B) Promissory note
(C) Exchange note
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

MCQ Of Money And Banking Class 12 Question 3.
Which among the following is the near money?
(A) Bonds
(B) Insurance policy
(C) Securities
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Money Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following is the feature of money?
(A) General acceptability
(B) Homogeneous unit
(C) Liquid asset
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Money And Banking Class 12 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may ________
(A) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
(B) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio
(C) Sell Government securities in the open market
(D) Increase Bank Rate

Answer

Answer: (A) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

Money MCQ Class 12 Question 6.
Institution that accepts deposits for lending purpose is known as __________
(A) Commercial Bank
(B) Central Bank
(C) Government
(D) Public

Answer

Answer: (A) Commercial Bank

Class 12 Money And Banking MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following is the function of a commercial bank?
(A) Accepting deposits
(B) Credit creation
(C) Agency function
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Class 12 Economics Money And Banking MCQ Question 8.
The central bank can increase the availability of credit by:
(A) Rasing repo rate
(B) Raising reverse repo rate
(C) Buying government securities
(D) Selling government securities

Answer

Answer: (D) Selling government securities

MCQ On Money And Banking Class 12 Question 9.
Giving permission to withdraw money by an amount more than deposited to is known as _________
(A) Advance
(B) Overdraft
(C) Loan
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (B) Overdraft

MCQ Of Money And Banking Question 10.
What are the alternative measures of money supply in India?
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3 and M4
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Money And Banking MCQs Question 11.
Who circulates all mint and one rupee not in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) RBI
(C) Ministry of External Affairs
(D) State Government

Answer

Answer: (A) Ministry of Finance

Money And Banking MCQ Class 12 Question 12.
Which of the following is the narrow measure of the money supply?
(A) M2
(B) M3
(C) M1
(D) M4

Answer

Answer: (C) M1

MCQ Questions On Money And Banking Class 12 Question 13.
When was the minimum reserve system started in India?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1951
(D) 1957

Answer

Answer: (D) 1957

MCQ Money And Banking Class 12 Question 14.
Which is the most liquid measure of the money supply?
(A) M4
(B) M3
(C) M2
(D) M1

Answer

Answer: (D) M1

Which is the most liquid measure of the money supply?

MCQs Of Money And Banking Class 12 Question 15.
High Powered Money includes:
(A) C + DD + OD
(B) C + R + OD
(C) C + R + TD
(D) C + DD + TD

Answer

Answer: (B) C + R + OD

MCQ Of Chapter Money And Banking Class 12 Question 16.
Indian Monetary System is based on ________
(A) Paper Standard
(B) Metallic Standard
(C) Gold Standard
(D) Credit Money Standard

Answer

Answer: (A) Paper Standard

Money Chapter Class 12 MCQs Question 17.
Which of the following is the apex bank of India?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SBP
(D) PNB

Answer

Answer: (A) RBI

Money And Banking Class 12 MCQ Pdf Question 18.
Who has the right of note issue?
(A) Central Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Government
(D) Co-operative Bank

Answer

Answer: (A) Central Bank

Question 19.
Which of the following is the function of a Central bank?
(A) Issue of notes
(B) Banker to the Government and Banks
(C) Supply and control of money
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Question 20.
The ratio of total deposits that a commercial bank has to keep with RBI is called:
(A) Statutory liquidity ratio
(B) Deposit ratio
(C) Cash reserve ratio
(D) Legal reserve ratio

Answer

Answer: (C) Cash reserve ratio

Question 21.
Demand deposits include
(A) Saving account deposits and fixed deposits
(B) Saving account deposits and current account deposits
(C) Current account deposits and fixed deposits
(D) All type of deposits

Answer

Answer: (B) Saving account deposits and current account deposits

Question 22.
What are the necessary conditions of the Barter System?
(a) Limited Needs
(b) Limited Exchange Area
(c) Economically Backward Society
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 23.
What are the advantages of the Barter System?
(a) Simple System
(b) More Mutual Co-operation
(c) No Economic Disparities
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 24.
Which one is the difficulty of the Barter System?
(a) Lack of Double Coincidence
(b) Difficulty of Division of the Goods
(c) Lack of General Acceptable Measure of Value
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 25.
Which is the correct order of money evolution?
(a) Commodity Money, Paper Money, Metal Money
(b) Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money
(c) Credit Money, Metal Money, Paper Money
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money

Question 26.
“Money is what money does.” Who said it?
(a) Hartley Withers
(b) Hawtrey
(c) Thomas
(d) Keynes

Answer

Answer: (a) Hartley Withers

Question 27.
Which one is included in the primary function of money?
(a) Medium of Exchange
(b) Measure of Value
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Store of Value

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
Which one is included in the secondary function of money?
(a) To make Deferred Payments
(b) Store of Value
(c) Transfer of Value
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 29.
“Money is a pivot around which the whole economy clusters.” Who said it?
(a) Keynes
(b) Robertson
(c) Marshall
(d) Hawtrey

Answer

Answer: (c) Marshall

Question 30.
The function of money is:
(a) Medium of Exchange
(b) Measure of Value
(c) Store of Value
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 31.
The functions of money include:
(a) Value determination
(b) Store of value
(c) Means of exchange
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 32.
Money is a matter which is:
(a) a measure of value
(b) accepted as a means of exchange
(c) used to store wealth
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 33.
By supply of money we mean :
(a) Money deposited in the bank
(b) Money available with the public
(c) Deposits with post office savings bank
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 34.
Which of the following is not a function of money?
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Price stability
(c) Store of value
(d) Unit of account

Answer

Answer: (b) Price stability

Question 35.
Which one is the Bank of the Public?
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial Bank

Question 36.
The primary function of Commercial Bank is?
(a) Accepting Deposits
(b) Advancing Loans
(c) Credit Creation
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 37.
Deposits accepted by the Commercial Banks:
(a) Current Deposits
(b) Saving Deposits
(c) Time Deposits
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 38.
What type of loan is advanced by Commercial Banks?
(a) Cash Credit
(b) Overdraft
(c) Loan and Advance
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 39.
Which function is the Secondary Function of Commercial Banks?
(a) Agency Function
(b) General Utility Function
(c) Social Function
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 40.
Which is the Agency Function of Commercial Banks?
(a) Advancing Loans
(b) Accepting Deposits
(c) Act as Trustee
(d) Locker Facility

Answer

Answer: (c) Act as Trustee

Question 41.
Credit Multiplier is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{CRR}}\)
(b) \(cash \times \frac{1}{\text { CRR }}\)
(c) Cash x CRR
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{CRR}}\)

Question 42.
Credit money is increased when CRR:
(a) Falls
(b) Rises
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Falls

Question 43.
The full form of ATM is:
(a) Any Time Money
(b) All Time Money
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Automated Teller Machine

Question 44.
The main function of a commercial bank is:
(a) Credit control
(b) Loaning to other banks
(c) Accept deposits from customers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Accept deposits from customers

Question 45.
What is the Central Bank of India?
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Private Bank
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial Bank

Question 46.
Commercial banks:
(a) Issue currency notes
(b) Accepts deposits from customers
(c) Provide loans to customers
(d) Only (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Only (b) and (c)

Question 47.
What is true for the Central Bank?
(a) Apex Bank of the Country
(b) Ownership of the Government
(c) Regulates the entire banking system in the country
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 48.
Central Bank of India is:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Central Bank of India
(d) Bank of India

Answer

Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 49.
Which of the following is the function of the Central Bank?
(a) Monopoly of Note Issue
(b) Banker of the Government
(c) Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 50.
Which type of currency is issued by Central Bank?
(a) Currency
(b) Credit Money
(c) Coins
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Currency

Question 51.
Which is the major objective of credit control?
(a) To maintain Price Stability
(b) To stabilize Exchange Rate
(c) To production and Employment
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) To stabilize Exchange Rate

Question 52.
Which one is true?
(a) Bank rate is a rate at which Central Bank is ready to give credit to commercial banks
(b) Bank rate and interest rates are different
(c) Bank rate is the discount rate of the Central Bank
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 53.
Which is not a quantitative method of credit control?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Moral Suasion
(c) Open Market Operations
(d) Change in CRR

Answer

Answer: (b) Moral Suasion

Question 54.
Every bank is required to maintain a fixed percentage of its assets in the form of cash is called:
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Question 55.
Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(a) 1947
(b) 1935
(c) 1937
(d) 1945

Answer

Answer: (b) 1935

Question 56.
Monetary policy is related with:
(a) Public Expenditure
(b) Taxes
(c) Public Debt
(d) Open market operations

Answer

Answer: (d) Open market operations

Question 57.
Which of the following issue paper currency in the country?
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) World Bank
(d) Industrial Bank

Answer

Answer: (b) Central Bank

Question 58.
The central bank controls credit through:
(a) Bank rate
(b) Open market
(c) CRR
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Bank rate

Question 59.
Which of the following is a qualitative method of credit control?
(a) Variation in cash reserve ratio of banks
(b) Restriction on consumer credit
(c) Open market operations
(d) Variation in bank rate

Answer

Answer: (b) Restriction on consumer credit

Question 60.
The major objectives of monetary policy is/are:
(a) Increase in output and employment
(b) Stability in the foreign exchange rate
(c) Price stability
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 61.
Who regulates the money supply?
(a) Govt, of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank
(d) Planning Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) Reserve Bank of India

Question 62.
With which Narsimham Committee is related to?
(a) Tax Reforms
(b) Banking Reforms
(c) Agriculture Reforms
(d) Infrastructure Reforms

Answer

Answer: (b) Banking Reforms

Question 63.
In which year the second Narsimham Committee was constituted?
(a) 1978
(b) 1991
(c) 1997
(d) 1998

Answer

Answer: (d) 1998

Question 64.
Banking Ombudsman Scheme was announced in the year:
(a) 1990
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (b) 1995

Question 65.
Which was included in the purview of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme?
(a) All Scheduled Banks
(b) Co-operative Banks
(c) Commerical Banks
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 66.
Which committee was constituted for suggesting consumer service improvements in banks?
(a) Raja Chelliah Committee
(b) Goiporia Committee
(c) Verma Committee
(d) Chakrabarty Committee

Answer

Answer: (b) Goiporia Committee

Question 67.
For revival and restructuring of weak banks of the public sector, which committee was constituted?
(a) Verma Committee
(b) Goiporia Committee
(c) Rekhi Committee
(d) Narsimham Committee

Answer

Answer: (a) Verma Committee

Question 68.
RBI announced the guidelines to issue licenses to new banks of the private sector on:
(a) January 22, 1993
(b) March 15, 1995
(c) April 1, 1999
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) January 22, 1993

Question 69.
Who is the custodian of the Indian Banking system?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Unit Trust of India
(d) LIC of India

Answer

Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 70.
Banking Sector Reforms in India began in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1981
(c) 1991
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (c) 1991

Banking Sector Reforms in India began in:

Question 71.
14 big scheduled commercial banks in India were nationalised in:
(a) 1949
(b) 1955
(c) 1969
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (c) 1969

Question 72.
Which is associated with reforms in the banking sector?
(a) Year 1991
(b) Narsimham Committee
(c) Y.V. Reddy Committee
(d) Only (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Only (a) and (b)

Question 73.
“Money is what money does”. Who said this:
(a) Hartley Withers
(b) Harte
(c) Prof. Thomas
(d) Keynes

Answer

Answer: (a) Hartley Withers

Question 74.
The function of money is:
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Measure of value
(c) Store of value
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Medium of exchange

Question 75.
The meaning of money supply is:
(a) Money deposits in the bank
(b) Cash available with public
(c) Savings in the post office
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Question 76.
What is the Central Bank of India:
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Central Bank
(c) Private Bank
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Commercial Banks

Question 77.
Through which method we can withdraw money from the bank:
(a) Drawing letter
(b) Cheque
(c) A.T.M.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Question 78.
Who is the guardian of the Indian Banking System:
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Unit Trust of India
(d) Life Insurance Company of India.

Answer

Answer: (a) Reserve Bank of India

Question 79.
Narasimham Committee is related to what:
(a) Improvement in Taxation
(b) Improvement in Banking
(c) Improvement in Agriculture
(d) Improvement in Infrastructure

Answer

Answer: (b) Improvement in Banking

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The exchange of goods for goods is called _____ exchange.

Answer

Answer: barter

Question 2.
______ is a narrow concept of money.

Answer

Answer: M1

Question 3.
________ is a broad concept of money.

Answer

Answer: M3

Question 4.
_______ are the deposits which are payable by the banks to the customers after a fixed period.

Answer

Answer: Time deposits

Question 5.
Currency money is also known as ______ money.

Answer

Answer: fiat

Question 6.
Supply of money is a _______ concept.

Answer

Answer: stock

Question 7.
The money multiplier is the rate of change in _____ due to initial deposits.

Answer

Answer: money supply

Question 8.
Currency with public means _____ and ______ with the public outside the bank.

Answer

Answer: coins, currency notes

Question 9.
_______ is the Central Bank of India.

Answer

Answer: RBI

Question 10.
Commercial banks are an important source of _________ in the economy.

Answer

Answer: money supply

Question 11.
Banks serve as a channel between _______ and investors.

Answer

Answer: depositors

Question 12.
Two essential functions of a bank are accepting deposit and ________

Answer

Answer: advancing loan

Question 13.
The Central Bank is the apex institution of the _______ system.

Answer

Answer: Monetary

Question 14.
Bank rate is the _______ instrument of Central Bank.

Answer

Answer: Quantitative

Question 15.
Central Bank of India is………………..

Answer

Answer: Reserve Bank of India

Question 16.
Bank rate is also known as………………..

Answer

Answer: Redemption

Question 17.
The bank generates……………….. deposits in credit creation.

Answer

Answer: Derivative

Question 18.
When CRR decreases, credit creation………………..

Answer

Answer: Increases

Question 19.
The measure of deferred payment is ……………….. function of money.

Answer

Answer: Secondary

Question 20.
Medium of exchange is ……………….. function of money.

Answer

Answer: Primary

Question 21.
The static and dynamic function of money is divided by………………..

Answer

Answer: Paul Einzig

State true or false:

Question 1.
Money as a medium of exchange solves the problem of lack of double coincidence of want.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Legal tender money has a legal sanction behind it by the government.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
M1 includes saving deposits of post office savings banks.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
The money supply is a flow variable.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Commercial Bank plays no role in stock of money supply in the economy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Credit money is money received as credit from banks.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
Commercial banks do not create money.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
Bank rate is a qualitative method of credit control.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
There is an inverse relation between LRR and the size of the money multiplier.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Money is needed for day-to-day transactions.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 11.
The precautionary demand for money increases with the proportionate increase in income.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
Reserve Bank of India provides loans to the public.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 13.
Along with the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial banks are also authorized to issue currency.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 14.
Reliable money also includes cheques.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
Reserve Bank of India cannot become the owner of any real estate.

Answer

Answer: True

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Primary function of money (a) Paper money
2. Indian Rupee is (b) Bad master
3. An institution which deals with money (c) Measure of value
4. RBI established on (d) Bank
5. Money is a good servant but (e) 1 April 1935.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Primary function of money (c) Measure of value
2. Indian Rupee is (a) Paper money
3. An institution which deals with money (d) Bank
4. RBI established on (e) 1 April 1935.
5. Money is a good servant but (b) Bad master

Question 2.

Column-I Column-II
1. Fiat money (A) Reserve Bank of India
2. Legal tender (B) Banking through electronic media
3. Apex bank of India (C) Must be accepted as a medium of exchange
4. Central bank in India (D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
5. E-banking (E) Circulated with the order of government
6. SLR (F) Cash Reserve Ratio
7. CRR (G) Issuing notes
8. Bank rate (H) The central bank of India
9. Function of commercial bank (I) Determined by the central bank
10. Function of the central bank (J) Accepting deposits
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Fiat money (E) Circulated with the order of government
2. Legal tender (C) Must be accepted as a medium of exchange
3. Apex bank of India (H) The central bank of India
4. Central bank in India (A) Reserve Bank of India
5. E-banking (B) Banking through electronic media
6. SLR (D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
7. CRR (F) Cash Reserve Ratio
8. Bank rate (I) Determined by the central bank
9. Function of commercial bank (J) Accepting deposits
10. Function of the central bank (G) Issuing notes

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Banking with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Money and Banking MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Environment and Natural Resources Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Environment and Natural Resources Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On World Environment Day Question 1.
Which among the following best explains the reason for growing concerns about the environment?
(A) The developed countries are concerned about protecting nature.
(B) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats.
(C) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.
(D) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (C) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.

Which among the following best explains the reason for growing concerns about the environment?

Question 2.
Mark Correct or Wrong against each of the following statements below that describe the Earth Summit.
(A) It was attended by 170 countries, thousands of NGO’s and many MNCs.
(B) The summit was held under the aegis of the U.N.
(C) For the first time, global environmental issues were firmly consolidated at the political level.
(D) It was a summit meeting.

Answer

Answer: (A) True
(B) True
(C) True
(D) True

Question 3.
Which among the following are True about the Global Commons?
(A) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons.
(B) The global commons arc outside the sovereign jurisdiction.
(C) The question of managing the global commons reflected the North-South divide.
(D) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global common than the countries of the South.

Answer

Answer: (A) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons.

Question 4.
The Earth Summit was held at:
(a) London
(b) New York
(c) New Delhi
(d) Rio-de-Janeiro

Answer

Answer: (d) Rio-de-Janeiro

Question 5.
World Environment Day is celebrated each year on:
(a) 5 March
(b) 5 June
(c) 5 January
(d) 7 June

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 June

Question 6.
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was held in:
(a) 2004
(b) 1997
(c) 2001
(d) 1992

Answer

Answer: (d) 1992

Question 7.
India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in:
(a) August 2002
(b) July 2006
(c) August 2000
(d) August 2005

Answer

Answer: (a) August 2002

Question 8.
The World Council of Indigenous Peoples was formed in:
(a) 1950
(b) 1975
(e) 1990
(d) 2007

Answer

Answer: (b) 1975

Question 9.
Earth Summit was attended by:
(a) 170 states
(b) 59 states
(c) 191 states
(d) 184 states.

Answer

Answer: (a) 170 states

Earth Summit was attended by:

Question 10.
Which Earth Summit has brought environmental issues to the Centre stage of global politics?

Answer

Answer: The 1992 Earth Summit has brought environmental issues to the Centre-stage of global politics.

Question 11.
How many people in developing countries have no access to safe water?

Answer

Answer: According to the Human Development Report 2006 of the United Nations, about 1.2 billion people have no access to safe water.

Question 12.
In which year Rio-de-Janeiro Environmental Summit was held?

Answer

Answer: The Conference on Environment and Development was held in Rio-De-Janeiro, Brazil in June 1992.

Question 13.
What do you mean by ‘Commons’?

Answer

Answer: ‘Commons’ are those resources which are not owned by any individual, rather they are owned by the community.

Question 14.
What is Krill?

Answer

Answer: Krill is central to the marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent.

Question 15.
How many indigenous people are there in the whole world?

Answer

Answer: 30 crore

Question 16.
Which country’s renewable energy programme is the largest in the world?

Answer

Answer: India

Question 17.
In which year World Council of Indigenous people was formed?

Answer

Answer: 1975

Question 18.
What was the significance of the Earth Summit 1992?

Answer

Answer: The 1992 Earth Summit has brought environmental issues to the centre stage of global politics.

Question 19.
How many States attended the Earth Summit of 1992?

Answer

Answer: 170 States

Question 20.
Which Act encourages the use of renewable energy?

Answer

Answer: The Electricity Act of 2003

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Environment and Natural Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Challenges To And Restoration Of The Congress System MCQ Question 1.
Whom would you identify with the following slogans/phrases?
(a) Jai Jawan, Jal Kisan
(b) Indira Hatao
(c) Garibi Hatao

Answer

Answer: (a) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(b) The Grand Alliance
(c) Smt. Indira Gandhi

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following statements about the Grand Alliance of 1971 is correct?
The Grand Alliance _________
(a) was formed by non-Communist non-Congress parties.
(b) had a clean political and ideological programme.
(c) was formed by all non-Congress parties

Answer

Answer: (a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Question 3.
Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in:
(a) January 1964
(b) May 1965
(c) March 1964
(d) May 1964

Answer

Answer: (d) May 1964

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 4.
When Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru passed away, at that time Congress President was?
(a) K. Kamraj
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) S.K. Patil
d) Morarji Desai

Answer

Answer: (a) K. Kamaraj

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In Hindi Question 5.
Who was the founder of the Congress Socialist Party?
(a) C. Natarajan Amadurai
(b) K. Kamraj
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) S. Nijalingappa

Answer

Answer: (c) Ram Manohar Lohia

Who was the founder of the Congress Socialist Party?

Political Science Class 12 MCQs With Answers Pdf Question 6.
Name the person with whom would you associate the following slogans.
(a) Aya Ram and Gaya Ram ______
(b) Total Revolution _________

Answer

Answer: (a) Gaya Lai
(b) Sh. Jai Prakash Narayan

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Question 7.
Which of these statements about the 1967 elections is/are correct?
(a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly election in many states.
(b) Congress lost both Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
(c) Congress lost the majority in the Lok Sabha but formed a coalition government with the support of some other parties.
(d) Congress retained power at the Centre with an increased majority.

Answer

Answer: (a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) Correct
(d) Incorrect

Political Science MCQs With Answers Pdf Class 12 Question 8.
Match the following:

(a) Syndicate (I) Anelectedrepresentative leaving the party on whose ticket he has been elected
(b) Defection (II) A catchy phrase that attracts public attention
(c) Slogan (III) Parties with different ideological positions coming together to oppose Congress and its policies
(d) Anti-Congress (IV) A group of powerful and influential leaders within the congress
Answer

Answer:

(a) Syndicate (IV) A group of powerful and influential leaders within the congress
(b) Defection (I) Anelectedrepresentative leaving the party on whose ticket he has been elected
(c) Slogan (II) A catchy phrase that attracts public attention
(d) Anti-Congress (III) Parties with different ideological positions coming together to oppose Congress and its policies

Class 12th Political Science MCQ Question 9.
Who became the Prime Minister of India after Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru?

Answer

Answer: Lal Bahadur Shastri.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 In Hindi Question 10.
When did Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru died?

Answer

Answer: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru died on 27 May 1964.

MCQ Of Political Science Class 12 Question 11.
Who said, ‘There were very few people whom I respect so much for their rectitude, ability, efficiency and fairness as Morarji Desai.’

Answer

Answer: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Class 12 Political Science MCQ Question 12.
How many seats were secured by the Indian National Congress in the Lok Sabha in 1967 election?

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress secured 283 seats.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 MCQ Questions Question 13.
Which party was the main opposition in the Lok Sabha in 1967?

Answer

Answer: Swatantra Party

MCQ Political Science Class 12 Question 14.
When were the fourth general elections held?

Answer

Answer: Fourth general election was held in February 1967.

Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 15.
Who was the political successor of Lal Bahadur Shastri?

Answer

Answer: Smt. Indira Gandhi was the political successor of Lai Bahadur Shastri.

MCQ Of Chapter 1 Political Science Class 12 Question 16.
Which candidate was supported by Smt. Indira Gandhi for 1969 presidential elections?

Answer

Answer: V.V. Girl was supported by Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi.

MCQ Class 12 Political Science Question 17.
What is meant by the ‘Syndicate’ with regard to the split in Congress?

Answer

Answer: In the Indian National Congress there was a group of senior leaders which was known as the ‘Syndicate.’ Due to differences between the Syndicate and Mrs. Indira Gandhi, there was split in the Congress party in 1969.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.