MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Introduction to Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Question 1.
What is known as the study of individual units?
(A) Macroeconomics
(B) Microeconomics
(C) Income and Employment Theory
(D) Development economics

Answer

Answer: (B) Microeconomics

What is known as the study of individual units?

Macroeconomics Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
What is the main cause of all economic problems?
(A) Abundance
(B) Convenience
(C) Scarcity
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Scarcity

MCQ Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Question 3.
Study of aggregates is known as _________
(A) Macroeconomics
(B) Microeconomics
(C) Price theory
(D) Factor price determination

Answer

Answer: (A) Macroeconomics

Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
What is the name of the book written by J.M. Keynes?
(A) Wealth of Nation
(B) Political economy
(C) The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money

Macroeconomics MCQs With Answers Question 5.
When was the famous book of Prof. Keynes published?
(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1936
(D) 1940

Answer

Answer: (C) 1936

Economics Class 12 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
When did the great depression occur?
(A) 1929-30
(B) 1934-35
(C) 1938-39
(D) 1941-42

Answer

Answer: (A) 1929-30

Class 12 Economics Ch 1 MCQ Question 7.
Who is known as the father of modern macroeconomics?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J.M.Keynes
(C) Samuelson
(D) Hicks

Answer

Answer: (B) J. M. Keynes

Economics Chapter 1 Class 12 MCQ Question 8.
Mr. Skund Kumar wants to study the national income. Which branch of economics will he have to study?
(A) Microeconomics
(B) Price theory
(C) Factor price determination
(D) Macroeconomics

Answer

Answer: (D) Macroeconomics

Mr. Skund Kumar wants to study the national income. Which branch of economics will he have to study?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQ On Micro And Macro Economics Question 1.
The mother of all economic problems is _________

Answer

Answer: scarcity

Class 12 Macroeconomics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
Macroeconomics is defined as that branch of economics, which studies economic activities of an economy as a _______

Answer

Answer: whole

MCQ Of Economics Class 12 Chapter 1Question 3.
_______ was the founding father of modern economics.

Answer

Answer: Adam Smith

Introduction To Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQ Question 4.
Keynes book on Income and Employment came into light in the year _________

Answer

Answer: 1936

MCQ Of Chapter 1 Macroeconomics Class 12 Question 5.
Aggregate Demand is the sum total of consumption and _________

Answer

Answer: investment

Question 6.
The period of the great depression was from __________

Answer

Answer: 1929-33

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Capital, land, labour, and entrepreneur are the factors of production.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The expenses which raise productive capacity are known as investment expenditure.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The domestic country may sell goods to the rest of the world. It is called imports.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
The domestic country may buy goods from the rest of the world. It is called exports.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
The capitalist economy works for social welfare.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 6.
Microeconomics deals with the aggregate economic variable of an economy.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
‘Save more’ is always a virtue.

Answer

Answer: False

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Worldwide Depression (A) 1936
2. Publication year of Keynes’s book (B) 1929-30
3. Problem of unemployment (C) Microeconomics study
4. Study of the sugar industry (D) J.M.Keynes
5. Father of Macroeconomics (E) Ragnar Frisch
6. Who divided economics into two parts? (F) Macroeconomics study
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Worldwide Depression (B) 1929-30
2. Publication year of Keynes’s book (A) 1936
3. Problem of unemployment (F) Macroeconomics study
4. Study of the sugar industry (C) Microeconomics study
5. Father of Macroeconomics (D) J.M.Keynes
6. Who divided economics into two parts? (E) Ragnar Frisch

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Introduction to Macroeconomics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Introduction to Macroeconomics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Employment Growth, Informalisation And Other Issues MCQs Question 1.
Which of the following statement is not true for a worker?
(A) A worker contributes to the GDP.
(B) Workers may temporarily abstain from work due to illness.
(C) Self-employed are not workers.
(D) Those who help the main workers are also workers.

Answer

Answer: (C) Self-employed are not workers.

Which of the following statement is not true for a worker?

Question 2.
What is the distribution of the workforce in rural and urban areas?
(A) 75 : 25
(B) 60 : 40
(C) 50 : 50
(D) 40 : 60

Answer

Answer: (A) 75 : 25

Question 3.
Which of the following is the correct definition of self-employed?
(A) Not able to find jobs during some months of the year
(B) Own and operate their own enterprises
(C) Receive wages on a regular basis by the employer
(D) Casually engaged in other individuals enterprises

Answer

Answer: (B) Own and operate their own enterprises

Question 4.
What percent of urban workers are casual labourers?
(A) 54 percent
(B) 41 percent
(C) 39 percent
(D) 18 percent

Answer

Answer: (D) 18 percent

Question 5.
Which of the following workers is a regular salaried employee?
(A) Owner of a saloon
(B) Rickshaw puller
(C) Cashier in State Bank of India
(D) Vegetable vendor

Answer

Answer: (C) Cashier in State Bank of India

Question 6.
Which of the following is a primary sector activity?
(A) Mining and Quarrying
(B) Construction
(C) Trade
(D) Transport and Storage

Answer

Answer: (A) Mining and Quarrying

Question 7.
What proportion of the urban workforce is engaged in the secondary sector?
(A) Half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-fifth

Answer

Answer: (B) One-third

Question 8.
What was the average rate of growth of employment during 1950-2010?
(A) 1 percent
(B) 2 percent
(C) 5 percent
(D) 10 percent

Answer

Answer: (B) 2 percent

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a feature of organised sector?
(A) Job Security
(B) Social security benefits
(C) Irregular payment
(D) Fixed working hours

Answer

Answer: (C) Irregular payment

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an employment generation programme?
(A) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
(B) Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
(C) National Food for Work Programme (NFWP)
(D) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Answer

Answer: (D) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Which of the following is not an employment generation programme?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

Question 1.
Economic activities contribute to the ________ of the country.

Answer

Answer: GDP

Question 2.
Worker-population ratio analyses the situation of ______ in the country.

Answer

Answer: employment

Question 3.
Activities performed by women for the household are not recognized as ______ work.

Answer

Answer: productive

Question 4.
Workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are known as ________

Answer

Answer: self-employed

Question 5.
Among regular salaried employment, ___________ workers are found to be so engaged in greater proportion.

Answer

Answer: male

Question 6.
Enterprises in _______ areas require workers on a regular basis.

Answer

Answer: urban

Question 7.
The ________ sector gives employment to about one-third of the urban workforce.

Answer

Answer: secondary

Question 8.
______ sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.

Answer

Answer: Organised

Question 9.
In _______ unemployment, people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year.

Answer

Answer: seasonal

Question 10.
NREGA 2005 promises ________ of guaranteed wage employment to all rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

Answer

Answer: 100 days

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Workers do not include those who help the main workers in their activities.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 2.
Urban people have a variety of employment opportunities.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Self-employed and casual wage labourers are found more in rural areas.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
Casual wage work is the major source for both men and women.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
In the course of the economic development of a country, workers migrate from rural to urban areas.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
There has hardly been any change in the distribution of the workforce across various industries since the 1970s.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
The Indian economy has been able to produce more goods and services due to growth in employment opportunities.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 8.
Employment is not secure in organised sector.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
The Indian government has initiated the modernisation of informal sector enterprises and the provision of social security measures to informal sector workers.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 10.
Newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the service sector.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Rural unemployment (A) Educated unemployment
2. Urban unemployment (B) Cyclical unemployment
3. Participation rate (C) Disguised unemployment
4. Number of persons unemployed (D) \(\frac{\text { Workforce }}{\text { Total population }} \times 100\)
5. Unemployment due to economic fluctuations (E) Labour force – workforce
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Rural unemployment (C) Disguised unemployment
2. Urban unemployment (A) Educated unemployment
3. Participation rate (D) \(\frac{\text { Workforce }}{\text { Total population }} \times 100\)
4. Number of persons unemployed (E) Labour force – workforce
5. Unemployment due to economic fluctuations (B) Cyclical unemployment

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 7 Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Question 1.
In how many sectors is the occupational structure of India is divided?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Answer

Answer: (C) Three

In how many sectors is the occupational structure of India is divided?

MCQ Of Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 2.
What is another name for the service sector?
(A) Tertiary
(B) Primary
(C) Secondary
(D) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (A) Tertiary

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
What was the nature of the Indian economy on the eve of independence?
(A) Stagnant
(B) Backward
(C) Underdeveloped
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

The Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Was MCQ Question 4.
What was the life expectancy at birth in India on the eve of Independence?
(A) 44 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 60 years
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (A) 44 years

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Questions Class 12 Question 5.
What was the growth rate of per capita income in India on the eve of Independence?
(A) 0.9%
(B) 0.5%
(C) 1.2%
(D) 3%

Answer

Answer: (B) 0.5%

MCQ On Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 6.
Which of the following activities is included in the primary sector?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Services
(C) Industries
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Agriculture

MCQs Of Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 7.
In which of the following sectors is manufacturing activity included?
(A) Primary
(B) Tertiary
(C) Secondary
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Secondary

Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 8.
Where was the first iron and steel company established?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Patna
(D) Ranchi

Answer

Answer: (B) Jamshedpur

Indian Economic Development Class 12 MCQ Chapter 1 Question 9.
What is the tax or duty on imports called?
(A) Tariff
(B) Quota
(C) Export
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (A) Tariff

Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following was the major occupation on the eve of independence?
(A) Industry
(B) Services
(C) Agriculture
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: (C) Agriculture

Which of the following was the major occupation on the eve of independence?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQ Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 1.
The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than ______ during the first half of the twentieth century.

Answer

Answer: two percent

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQs Question 2.
The Indian economy was a/an _______ economy at the time of independence.

Answer

Answer: agrarian

Class 12 Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Question 3.
______ of agriculture increased the burden of revenue on farmers.

Answer

Answer: Commercialisation

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
The distribution of the working population in different sectors of the economy offers a glimpse of ______ structure.

Answer

Answer: occupational

Ch 1 Indian Economy Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
The second stage of demographic transition began after ________ in India.

Answer

Answer: 1921

MCQ Of Chapter Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 6.
Indian economy served as a source of _______ for the British industry and a market for its finished goods.

Answer

Answer: raw material

Indian Economy MCQ Class 12 Question 7.
______ were developed by the British raj as a means to enlarge the size of the market for the British goods.

Answer

Answer: Railways

Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence MCQ Pdf Question 8.
The British introduced the railways in India in ________

Answer

Answer: 1850

MCQ Of Chapter 1 Indian Economy Class 12 Question 9.
The ________ sector accounted for 17.2 percent of the working population on the eve of Independence.

Answer

Answer: tertiary/service

MCQs Of Chapter Indian Economy On The Eve Of Independence Question 10.
India’s first official census was undertaken in _________

Answer

Answer: 1881

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
India was a prosperous and wealthy economy prior to the advent of British rule.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
The colonial rule destroyed India’s traditional handicraft industry.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of India.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
India was reduced to an importer of primary products.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Land settlement introduced by the colonial government resulted in stagnation in the agricultural sector.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
The contribution of the new industrial sector to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) expanded significantly during British rule.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
The secondary sector accounted for only 10.1 percent of the working population on the eve of independence.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
British colonial rule positively affected the structure, composition, and volume of India’s foreign trade.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
Before 1921, India was in the second stage of demographic transition.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
The aim of developing postal and telegraph was to enhance the efficiency of British administration.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Primary sector (A) Manufacturing sector
2. Secondary sector (B) Service sector
3. Tertiary sector (C) Agriculture sector
4. Introduction of Railway in India (D) 1921
5. First official Census in India (E) 1820
6. Year of Great Divide (F) 1881
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Primary sector (C) Agriculture sector
2. Secondary sector (A) Manufacturing sector
3. Tertiary sector (B) Service sector
4. Introduction of Railway in India (E) 1820
5. First official Census in India (F) 1881
6. Year of Great Divide (D) 1921

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Crisis of Democratic Order Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

The Crisis of Democratic Order Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 In Hindi Question 1.
Find the odd one put in the context of the proclamation of emergency.
(a) The call for Total Revolution.
(b) The Railway strike of 1974.
(e) The Naxalite Movement.
(d) The Allahabad High Court Verdict.
(e) The findings of the Shah Commission Report.

Answer

Answer: (a), (b) and (c).

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 2.
In which year internal emergency was declared by Smt. Indira Gandhi?
(a) 1965
(b) 1971
(c) 1975
(d) 1980

Answer

Answer: (c) 1975

Ch 6 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
In which state Nay Nirman Movement was started?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana

Answer

Answer: (a) Gujarat

In which state Nay Nirman Movement was started?

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 4.
State whether the following statements regarding the Emergency are correct or incorrect.
(a) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi.
(b) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights.
(c) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions.
(d) Many opposition leaders were arrested during the emergency.
(e) CPI supported the proclamation of the emergency.

Answer

Answer: (a) Correct
(b) Correct
(c) Incorrect
(d) Correct
(e) Correct

Political Science Class 12 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 5.
Match the following:

(a) Total Revolution (I) Indira Gandhi
(b) Garibi Hatao (II) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Students’ Protest (III) Bihar Movement
(d) Railway Strike (IV) George Fernandes
Answer

Answer:

(a) Total Revolution (II) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Garibi Hatao (I) Indira Gandhi
(c) Students’ Protest (III) Bihar Movement
(d) Railway Strike (IV) George Fernandes

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In English Question 6.
Match the following:

(a) J.P. Narayan (i) first prime minister belonged to non-congress
(b) Morarji Desai (ii) Call for ‘Total Revolution’
(c) Ch. Charan Singh (iii) Remained Prime Minister for four months only
(d) Jagjiwan Ram (iv) Leader of ‘Congress for Democracy’
Answer

Answer:

(a) J.P. Narayan (ii) Call for ‘Total Revolution’
(b) Morarji Desai (i) first prime minister belonged to non-congress
(c) Ch. Charan Singh (iii) Remained Prime Minister for four months only
(d) Jagjiwan Ram (iv) Leader of ‘Congress for Democracy’

Democratic Resurgence Class 12 Notes Question 7.
In which year Internal Emergency was declared by Snit. Indira Gandhi?

Answer

Answer: Internal Emergency was declared on 25th June 1975.

Political Science Class 12 MCQs With Answers Pdf Question 8.
In which state Nay Nirman Movement was started?

Answer

Answer: Nay Nirman Movement was started in Gujarat.

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In Hindi Question 9.
How many Lok Sabha seats were won by the Janata Party and its allies in the General Elections of March 1977?

Answer

Answer: Janata Party and its allies won 330 seats out of 542 seats of Lok Sabha.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 MCQ Questions Question 10.
Who became the Prime Minister of India after the elections of 1977?

Answer

Answer: Morarji Desai

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Question 11.
Who introduced the concept of ‘Committed Bureaucracy and Judiciary’ in India?

Answer

Answer: Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Political Science MCQs With Answers Pdf Class 12 Question 12.
Write the name of anyone civil liberties organization.

Answer

Answer: People’s Union for Civil Liberties and Democratic Rights.

Class 12 Political Science MCQ Question 13.
When was ‘Grand Alliance’ formed?

Answer

Answer: Grand Alliance was formed in 1971.

Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 14.
When Janata Party was formed and who was the first President of the Janata Party?

Answer

Answer: Janata party was formed in 1977 and Chandra Shekhar was its first President.

Class 12th Political Science MCQ Question 15.
Mention the names of the constituent units of the Janata Party.

Answer

Answer: Congress (O), Jan Sangh, The Bharatiya Lok Dal, Samajwadi Party (Socialist Party, Congress for Democracy and few dissidents of Congress Party).

MCQ Political Science Class 12 Question 16.
After the election of 1971, who became the Prime Minister of India?

Answer

Answer: Smt. Indira Gandhi

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 The Crisis of Democratic Order with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science The Crisis of Democratic Order MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Retirement And Death Of A Partner Class 12  Question 1.
On retirement of a partner’s the amount of General Reserve is transferred to all partner’s capital account in:
(a) New Profit Sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Question 2.
X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Goodwill does not appear in the books but it is agreed to be worth 1,00,000 Rs.. X retires from the firm and Y and Z decide to share profits equally. X’s share of goodwill will be debited to Y’s and Z’s Capital A/cs in………ratio:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{2}\)
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 : 3

Retirement And Death Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 3.
x,y are z are partners and share profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. y retires and x takes 1/10 from y and z takes 1/5 from y. The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(a) 7 : 13
(b) 13 : 7
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 : 2

MCQ On Retirement Of Partner Class 12 Question 4.
The old profit-sharing ratio among Rajender, Satish and Tejpal were 2 : 2 : 1. The new profit-sharing ratio after Satish’s retirement is 3 : 2. The gaining ratio is :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 : 1

Retiring Or Outgoing Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 5.
The amount due to the deceased partner is paid to his……….
(a) Father
(b) Friend
(c) Wife
(d) Executors

Answer

Answer: (d) Executors

Retirement Or Death Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 6.
In case of death of a partner, the whole amount standing to the credit of his capital account is transferred to :
(a) Capital Accounts of all partners
(b) Capital Accounts of remaining partners
(c) His Executor’s Account
(d) Account of the Government

Answer

Answer: (c) His Executor’s Account

Retirement Of Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 7.
On the death of a partner in a firm payments are made to;
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Executor’s A/c
(c) Current A/c
(d) Loan A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Executor’s A/c

MCQ On Death Of A Partner Class 12 Question 8.
X, Y and Z share profits in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3}: \frac{1}{6}, \mathbf{Z}\) dies. New ratio of X and Y will be :
(a) 3 : 2.
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2.

Retirement Of A Partner MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
The executors of deceased partner will be paid interest on the amount due from the date of death of the partner at:
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 6% p.a.
(c) 7% p.a.
(d) 8% p.a.

Answer

Answer: (b) 6% p.a.

MCQ Of Retirement Of A Partner Class 12 Question 10.
In the event of death of a partner, the accumulated profits and losses are shared by the partners in their:
(a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(c) Capital Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio

Question 11.
On the death of a partner, the amount of Joint Life Insurance Policy is credited to the Capital Accounts of:
(a) Only the deceased partner
(b) All partners including the deceased partner
(c) Remaining partners, in the new profit-sharing ratio
(d) Remaining partners, in their old profit-sharing ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) All partners including the deceased partner

Question 12.
On death of a partner, the remaining partner(s) who have gained due to change in profit-sharing ratio should compensate the:
(a) Deceased partner
(b) Remaining partners (who have sacrificed) as well as decreased partner
(c) Remaining partners (who have sacrificed)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deceased partner

Question 13.
B, C and D are partners sharing profit in the ratio 7:5:4. D died on 30th June, 2016 and profits for the year 2015-16 were ₹ 12,000. How much share in profits for the period 1st April, 2016 to 30th June, 2016 will be credited to D’s Account:
(a) ₹ 3,000
(b) ₹ 750
(c) Nil
(d) ₹ 1,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 750

Question 14.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. C died on 31st March, 2016. The profits of the financial year ending 31st March, 2016 is ₹ 64,000. The share of the deceased partner in the profits will be:
(a) ₹ 9,200
(b) ₹ 12,800
(c) ₹ 3,100
(d) ₹ 6,100

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 12,800

Question 15.
JLP of the partners is a/an…………..account
(a) Nominal
(b) Personal
(c) Liability
(d) Asset

Answer

Answer: (d) Asset

Question 16.
Joint Life Policy amount received by a firm is distributed in:
(a) Opening Capital Ratio
(b) Closing Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio of Partners
(d) New Profit-sharing Ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio of Partners

Joint Life Policy amount received by a firm is distributed in:

Question 17.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. They had a Joint Life Policy of ₹ 3,00,000. Surrender value of JLP in Balance Sheet is ₹ 90,000. C dies what is share of each partner in JLP ?
(a) ₹ 1,05,000 ; ₹ 70,000; ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 45,000 ; ₹ 30,000; ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000 ; ₹ 1,00,000 ; ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 1,95,000 ; ₹ 1,30,000 ; ₹ 65,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 1,50,000 ; ₹ 1,00,000 ; ₹ 50,000

Question 18.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 5 :4. On 30th June, 2015 Z died and profits for the year ending 31st March, 2016 were ₹ 2,40,000. How much share in profits for the period 1st April to 30th June, 2015 will be credited to Z’s account assuming the profit occurred evenly throughout the year ;
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) Nil

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 15,000

Question 19.
Revaluation Account is prepared at the time of …………
(a) Admission of a partner
(b) Retirement of a partner
(c) Death of a partner
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 20.
As per section 37 to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the executors would be entitled at their choice to interest calculated from the date of death till the date of payment on the final amount due to the deceased partner at………..percent per annum.
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (c) 6

Question 21.
X, Y and Z are the partners sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1 : 1. Firm has a joint life policy of ₹ 1,20,000 and in the balance sheet it is appeaming at the surrender value, i.e., ₹ 20,000. On the death of X how this JLP will be distributed among partners:
(a) 50,000 : 25,000 : 25,000
(b) 60,000 : 30,000 : 30,000
(c) 40,000 : 35,000 : 25,000
(d) whole ₹ 1,20,000 to A

Answer

Answer: (b) 60,000 : 30,000 : 30,000

Question 22.
On death of a partner, the firm gets for joint life policy taken for all partners.
(a) Policy amount
(b) Surrender value
(c) Policy amount of deceased partner
(d) Surrender value of all partners

Answer

Answer: (a) Policy amount

Question 23.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. On 1.3.2016 C died. The average profits of the firm for last four years were ₹ 72,000 Books are closed on 31st December. C’s share of profit till the date of his death will be:
(a) ₹ 2,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 1,400
(d) ₹ 24,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 2,000

Question 24.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. C dies and goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000. The amount payable to the executor’s of the deceased partner will be :
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 25,000
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 10,000

Question 25.
M, L and A are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 9:4:3. They have taken a joint life policy of ₹ 96,000. A dies. What is the share of A in the JLP amount ?
(a) ₹ 18,000
(b) ₹ 24,000
(c) ₹ 54,000
(d) ₹ 20,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 18,000

Question 26.
Which account is prepared at the time retirement or death of a partner to show the changes in the value of assets and liabilities:
(a) Revaluation A/c
(b) Realisation A/c
(c) Partner’s Capital A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Revaluation A/c

Question 27.
What are the methods of calculating share of the deceased partner in the profit of the firm upto the date of death:
(a) On time basis
(b) On sales basis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
If three partners A, B & C are sharing profits as 5:3:2, then on the death of a partner A, how much B & C will pay to A’s executor on account of goodwill ? Good-will is to be calculated on the basis of 2 years purchase of last 3 years average profits. Profits for the last three years are 10,80,000 Rs. :
(a) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,42,000
(b) ₹ 2,44,000 and ₹ 2,16,000
(c) ₹ 3,60,000 and ₹ 2,16,000
(d) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,44,000

Answer

Answer: (d) ₹ 2,16,000 and ₹ 1,44,000

Question 29.
On death of a partner, his excutor is paid the profits of
the deceased partner for the relevant period. This payment is recorded in Profit & Loss A/c :
(a) Adjustment
(b) Appropriation
(c) Suspense
(d) Reserve

Answer

Answer: (c) Suspense

Question 30.
On the retirement of a partner any accumulated profit should be credited to the capital accounts of:
(a) All partners in old profit-sharing ratio
(b) Remaining partners in new profit-sharing ratio
(c) Retiring partner only in his share
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) All partners in old profit-sharing ratio

Question 31.
On the retirement of a partner, full amount of goodwill may be credited to the capital accounts of:
(a) Retiring partners
(b) Remaining partners
(c) All partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) All partners

Question 32.
Outgoing partner is compensated for parting with firm’s future profits in favour of remaining partners. The remaining partners contribute to such compensation in:
(a) Gaining Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Sacrificing Ratio
(d) Profit-sharing Ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) Gaining Ratio

Question 33.
Gaining ratio is calculated :
(a) At the time of admission of a new partner
(b) At the time of retirement of a partner
(c) On the dissolution of partnership firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) At the time of retirement of a partner

Question 34.
How unrecorded assets are treated at the time of retriement of a partner ?
(a) Credited to Revaluation Account
(b) Credited to Capital Account of Retiring Partner
(c) Debited to Revaluation Account
(d) Credited to Partner’s Capital Accounts

Answer

Answer: (a) Credited to Revaluation Account

Question 35.
On the retirement of a partner, profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities should be credited to the Capital Accounts of:
(a) All partners in the old profit-sharing ratio
(b) The remaining partners in their old profit-sharing ratio
(c) The remaining partners in their new profit-sharing ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) All partners in the old profit-sharing ratio

Question 36.
On retirement of a partner, the retiring Partner’s Capital Account will be credited with:
(a) His/her share of goodwill
(b) Goodwill of the firm
(c) Share of goodwill of remaining partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) His/her share of goodwill

Question 37.
Joint life policy be taken by the firm on the lives of:
(a) All the partners jointly
(b) All the partners separately
(c) All employees of the firm
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 38.
A, Band Care equal partners in a firm. B retires and the remaining partners decide to share profits of the new firm in the ratio of 5 : 4. Gaining ratio will be:
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 4

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 : 1

Question 39.
A, B are C are sharing profits in the ratio of \(\frac{1}{2}: \frac{1}{3} \div \frac{1}{6}\) C retired. Gaining ratio will be :
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 : 2

Question 40.
The amount of General Reserve is transferred to all partner’s capital accounts in:
(a) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Profit-sharing Ratio

Question 41.
Abhishek, Rajat and Vivek are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. If Vivek retires, the new profit sharing ratio between Abhishek and Rajat will be:
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 : 2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 : 3

Question 42.
The balance of Joint Life Policy Account and Joint Life Policy Reserve A/c is:
(a) Always Equal
(b) Always Unequal
(c) Not Necessary
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Not Necessary

Question 43.
Anand, Bahadur and Chander are partners sharing profit equally. On Chander’s retirement, his share is acquired by Anand and Bahadur in the ratio of 3: 2. The new profit-sharing ratio between Anand and Bahadur will be:
(a) 8 : 7
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: (a) 8 : 7

Question 44.
Profit and loss on revaluation at the time of retirement is shared by:
(a) Remaining Partners
(b) All Partners
(c) New Partner
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) All Partners

Question 45.
X, Y, Z are equal partners in a firm. Z retires from the firm. The new profit-sharing ratio between X and Y is 1:2. The gaining ratio will be:
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) Only Y gains by 1/3

Answer

Answer: (d) Only Y gains by 1/3

Question 46.
X, Y, Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 4. Y retires and X and Z share their profits in equal ratio. New ratio of X and Z will be :
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 1 : 1

Question 47.
A, B and C are partners. Their capitals are ₹ 1,00,000, ₹ 75,000 and ₹ 50,000 respectively. On C’s retirement his share is acquired by A and B in the ratio of 6 : 4 Gaining ratio will be :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 2
(c) 2 : 3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2

Question 48.
At the time of retirement of partner, firm gets from the insurance company against joint policy taken jointly for all the partners :
(a) Policy Amount + Bonus
(b) Surrender Value
(c) Policy Amount
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Surrender Value

Question 49.
Gaining Ratio is :
(a) New Ratio-sacrificing ratio
(b) Old Ratio-sacrificing ratio
(c) New ratio-old ratio
(d) Old ratio-new ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) New ratio-old ratio

Question 50.
Partnership Act provides that interest on amount of capital balance left by the retired partner be paid at:
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) Bank Rate
(d) 8%

Answer

Answer: (b) 6%

Partnership Act provides that interest on amount of capital balance left by the retired partner be paid at:

Question 51.
Heri, Roy and Prasad are partners and profit-sharing ratio is 3: 5:1. Roy now wants to retire and his share is taken by Prasad. Find the new ratio of Hari and Prasad:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 5
(d) Equal

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 2

Question 52.
A, B and C are partners with profit-sharing ratio as 5 :3 :2. A retires. Find the gaining ratio :
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 :2
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 : 2

Question 53.
Surrender value of an insurance policy means that value:
(a) Which is received an death of a partner
(b) Which is received when a policy matures
(c) Which can be received before the due date of the policy
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Which can be received before the due date of the policy

Question 54.
P, Q and R are partners and share profit in the ratio of 5:3:2. R retires and surrenders 3/5th of his share in favour of P and 2/5th of the share to Q. Find new profit sharing ratio:
(a) 7 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 31 : 19
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 31 : 19

Question 55.
Govind, Hari and Pratap are partners. On retirement of Govind, the goodwill already appears in the Balance Sheet at ₹ 24,000. The goodwill will be written off:
(a) By debiting all Partners’ Capital Accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio
(b) By debiting remaining Partners’ Capital Accounts in their new profit-sharing ratio
(c) By debiting retiring Partner’s Capital Account from his share of goodwill
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By debiting all Partners’ Capital Accounts in their old profit-sharing ratio

Question 56.
Goodwill is paid out of the retiring partner in :
(a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Equal Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio

Question 57.
On retirement of a partner, his share of goodwill is written off among continuing partners in there :
(a) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) New Capital Ratio
(c) Gaining Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Gaining Ratio

Question 58.
On retirement of a partner, the retiring partner’s capital account will be credited with :
(a) His/her share of goodwill
(b) Goodwill of the firm
(c) Shares of goodwill of remaining partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) His/her share of goodwill

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Retirement / Death of a Partner MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Rural Development Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Rural Development Class 12 MCQ Chapter 6 Question 1.
Which among the following is an initiative taken for the development of rural India?
(A) Human Capital Formation
(B) Land Reforms
(C) Poverty Alleviation
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these

Which among the following is an initiative taken for the development of rural India?

Rural Development MCQ Chapter 6 Question 2.
What was the growth rate of agricultural output during 2007-12?
(A) 32% per annum
(B) 6% per annum
(C) 1.5% per annum
(D) 5% per annum

Answer

Answer: (A) 32% per annum

Rural Development MCQ Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 3.
When was the National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development set up?
(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992

Answer

Answer: (C) 1982

Rural Development Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 6 Question 4.
Which of the following is an institutional source of rural credit?
(A) Moneylenders
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Traders
(D) Landlords

Answer

Answer: (B) Regional Rural Banks

MCQ Of Rural Development Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 5.
Which source of credit had emerged to fully integrate the formal credit system into the overall rural social and community development?
(A) Self-help Groups
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) Land Development Banks

Answer

Answer: (A) Self-help Groups

MCQ On Rural Development Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 6.
Which among the following is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading, and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country?
(A) Agricultural Management
(B) Agricultural Banking
(C) Agricultural Diversification
(D) Agricultural Marketing

Answer

Answer: (D) Agricultural Marketing

Class 12 Rural Development MCQ Chapter 6 Question 7.
Which Indian state has been held as a success story in the efficient implementation of milk cooperatives?
(A) Punjab
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (B) Gujarat

Class 12 Economics Rural Development MCQ Chapter 6 Question 8.
What is the name of the vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh?
(A) Apni Mandi
(B) Hadaspar Mandi
(C) Rythu Bazars
(D) Uzhavar Sandies

Answer

Answer: (C) Rythu Bazars

Rural Development MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 6 Question 9.
How much do the “inland sources” contribute to the total fish production in India?
(A) 64 percent
(B) 39 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) 75 percent

Answer

Answer: (A) 64 percent

Rural Development Class 12 MCQs Chapter 6 Question 10.
Which status has been accorded to the retail chains and supermarkets for selling organic food?
(A) Eco Status
(B) Sustainable Status
(C) Nutritional Status
(D) Green Status

Answer

Answer: (D) Green Status

Which status has been accorded to the retail chains and supermarkets for selling organic food?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQs Of Rural Development Chapter 6 Question 1.
________ once said that the real progress of India did not mean simply the growth and expansion of industrial urban centres but mainly the development of the villages.

Answer

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

MCQ Of Chapter Rural Development Class 12 Chapter 6 Question 2.
During 2007-12, agriculture output has grown at ________

Answer

Answer: 3.2 percent

MCQs On Rural Development Chapter 6 Question 3.
At the time of independence, moneylenders and traders _________ small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: exploited

Question 4.
The _______ was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system.

Answer

Answer: green revolution

Question 5.
By March 2003, _______ SHGs had been provided credit by the banking system.

Answer

Answer: 7 lakh

Question 6.
More than 10 percent of goods produced in farms are wasted due to lack of _______ (storage/transportation facilities)

Answer

Answer: storage

Question 7.
The alternate marketing channels in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan are known as ________

Answer

Answer: Apni Mandi

Question 8.
Much of the agricultural employment activities are concentrated in the ________ season.

Answer

Answer: Kharif

Question 9.
Cattle and buffalo account for _______ of India’s total livestock in 2007.

Answer

Answer: 26 percent

Question 10.
________ relies heavily on chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides.

Answer

Answer: Conventional farming

III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Rural development mostly depends upon the development of agriculture.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Farmers borrow from various sources to meet their initial investment on seeds, fertilizers, implements, and other family expenses.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 3.
Institutional sources of credit include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives, and friends.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 4.
The major achievement of rural banking over the years has been the effective recovery of loans.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 5.
Self-help groups have helped in the empowerment of women.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
The current infrastructure facilities are sufficient to meet the growing demand in rural agricultural marketing.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
At present, the livestock sector provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Horticulture is a branch of agriculture-related to the management and care of farm animals such as cattle, sheep, pigs, and goats.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 9.
Chemical-based fertilizers and pesticides used in agriculture are beneficial for the natural eco-systems.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
The use of eco-friendly technologies such as organic farming is essential for sustainable development.

Answer

Answer: True

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Green revolution (A) 1982
2. NABARD (B) 1967-68
3. Land Reform (C) Conversion of scattered holdings into unified holdings
4. Consolidation of holding (D) Institutional reforms
5. Ceiling of landholding (E) Maximum holding size
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Green revolution (B) 1967-68
2. NABARD (A) 1982
3. Land Reform (D) Institutional reforms
4. Consolidation of holding (C) Conversion of scattered holdings into unified holdings
5. Ceiling of landholding (E) Maximum holding size

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 6 Rural Development with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Rural Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Rise of Popular Movements with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Rise of Popular Movements with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Rise of Popular Movements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Rise of Popular Movements Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Rise of Popular Movements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of these statements are incorrect?
The Chipko Movement:
(a) was an environmental movement to prevent the cutting down of trees.
(b) raised questions of ecological and economic exploitations.
(c) was a movement against alcoholism started by women.
(d) demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources.

Answer

Answer: (c) was a movement against alcoholism started by women.

Question 2.
In which year All India Kisan Sabha was established?
(a) 1930
(b) 1936
(c) 1940
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (b) 1936

Question 3.
Who led the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
(a) Medha Patkar
(b) Rajni Sharma
(c) Shabana Azmi
(d) Meira Kumar

Answer

Answer: (a) Medha Patkar

Question 4.
Where Anti-Arrack Movement was started?
(a) Haryana
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh

Where Anti-Arrack Movement was started?

Question 5.
Some of the statements below are incorrect. Identify the incorrect statements and rewrite those with necessary corrections.
(a) Social movements are hampering the functioning of India’s democracy.
(b) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social sections.
(c) Social movements in India emerged because there were many issues that political parties did not address.

Answer

Answer: (a) Social movements are not hampering the functioning of India’s democracy.
(b) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social sections.
(c) There were many issues that emerged in India because political parties did not address the social movements.

Question 6.
What is Narmada Bachao Aandolan?

Answer

Answer: Narmada Bachao Andolan is a movement to save River Narmada.

Question 7.
Who led the Narmada Bachao Aandolan?

Answer

Answer: Medha Patkar led the Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 8.
Where Anti-Arrack Movement was started?

Answer

Answer: Anti-Arrack Movement was started in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 9.
Where did Chipko Movement begin?

Answer

Answer: Chipko Movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand.

Question 10.
Mention one feature of the Chipko Movement.

Answer

Answer: Women’s active participation in the Chipko agitation was a novel feature of the Chipko Movement.

Question 11.
Where and when Dalit Panthers was formed?

Answer

Answer: Dalit Panthers was formed in Maharashtra in 1972.

Question 12.
What was the main demand of Dalit Panthers?

Answer

Answer: Effective implementation of reservation policy and social justice was the main demand of Dalit Panthers.

Question 13.
What was the method of action of Dalit Panthers?

Answer

Answer: Dalit Panthers resorted to mass action for the assertion of Ekilit rights.

Question 14.
To which state Shetkari Sanghathan belongs?

Answer

Answer: Shetkari Sanghathan belongs to Maharashtra.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Rise of Popular Movements with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Rise of Popular Movements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Consumer Protection Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Consumer Protection Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Consumer Protection Class 12 Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a reason for importance of consumer protection from the point of view of consumers?
(a) Consumer ignorance
(b) Consumer apathy
(c) Consumer exploitation
(d) Unorganised consumers

Answer

Answer: (b) Consumer apathy

Which one of the following is not a reason for importance of consumer protection from the point of view of consumers?

Consumer Protection Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
From the point of view of business, which one of the following is a reason because of which consumer protection is important?
(a) Dynamic environment
(b) Fast technological development
(c) Government intervention
(d) Competitive market

Answer

Answer: (c) Government intervention

MCQ On Consumer Protection Act Class 12 Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a consumer right?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to seek redressal
(c) Right to get discount
(d) Right to be heard

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to get discount

Consumer Protection Act MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
In which year did Consumer Protection Act come into existence?
(a) 1986
(b) 1999
(c) 1991
(d) 1976

Answer

Answer: (a) 1986

Consumer Protection MCQ Class 12 Question 5.
A District Forum has jurisdiction to entertain a consumer complaint involving product value:
(a) Up to ₹ 20 lakh
(b) Up to ₹ 10 lakh
(c) Between ₹ 20 lakh and ₹ 1 crore
(d) Above ₹ 1 crore

Answer

Answer: (a) Up to ₹ 20 lakh

Question 6.
___ mark is used for electrical products.
(a) ISI
(b) FPO
(c) ISO
(d) Agmark

Answer

Answer: (a) ISI

Question 7.
___ is one of the redressal agencies for redressing consumer grievances.
(a) COPRA
(b) State Commission
(c) Consumer Organisation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) State Commission

Question 8.
A complaint can be filed against ___ who adopt(s) unfair trade practices.
(a) Trader only
(b) Manufacturer only
(c) Trader and Manufacturer
(d) Consumer

Answer

Answer: (c) Trader and Manufacturer

Question 9.
Right to ___ is a right to be protected against products which are hazardous to life or health.
(a) Information
(b) Safety
(c) Seek Redressal
(d) Consumer Education

Answer

Answer: (b) Safety

Question 10.
___ means any person who buys any goods for personal use or hires or avails of any services for a consideration.
(a) Consumer
(b) Manufacturer
(c) Trader
(d) Service Provider

Answer

Answer: (a) Consumer

Question 11.
___ implies safeguard against anti-consumer trade practices of producers and traders.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Redressal Forum
(c) National Commission
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Consumer Protection

Question 12.
In case a consumer is not satisfied with the order passed in the State Commission, he can further make an appeal in the National Commission within a time period of
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 days

Question 13.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the National Commission?
(a) It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the Central Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹1 crore.
(d) Where the aggrieved party was not satisfied with the order of the National Commission, the case can be taken to the Supreme Court of India.

Answer

Answer: (a) It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman.

Question 14.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the District Forum?
(a) It consists of a President and three other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the District Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the appropriate District Forum when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, does not exceed ?10 lakhs.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 15.
In case an aggrieved consumer is not satisfied with the decision of the State Commission, he can make a further appeal in
(a) National Commission
(b) District Forum
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) National Commission

Question 16.
Which of the following types of cases are filed in the State Commission?
(a) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(b) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹2 crore.
(c) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹40 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.

Question 17.
Identify the responsibility of consumers being highlighted in the picture given below.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 6

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers 3
(a) Be honest in your dealings
(b) Learn about the risks associated with products and services
(c) Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal
(d) Respect the environment.

Answer

Answer: (b) Learn about the risks associated with products and services

Question 18.
Identify the right of consumers being promoted in the given picture.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 4
(a) Right to seek redressal
(b) Right to consumer education
(c) Right to information
(d) Right to be heard

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to information

Question 19.
Identify the right of consumers being exhibited in the picture on your right.
Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection 2
(a) Right to choose
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to choose

Identify the right of consumers being exhibited in the picture on your right.

Question 20.
Naina, her husband and her two minor daughters were travelling from Mumbai to Delhi, availing a company’s flight services in 2018. The airlines had issued boarding passes to all of them. Naina claimed in her plea that the airlines left all her family at the Mumbai Airport without informing them, despite their being in the airport premises. The family had to stay in a hotel and purchase new tickets the next day. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC). on hearing the plea, asked an airline company to pay ₹50,000 to Naina and her family. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to seek redressal

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Right to be informed says that the consumer has the right to acquire knowledge and be well-informed throughout his life.

Answer

Answer: False; Right to Consumer Education is the right of the consumer to acquire knowledge and be well- informed throughout his life.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act is applicable throughout India.

Answer

Answer: False; The Consumer Protection Act is applicable throughout India except in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
Buying standardised products is a consumer right.

Answer

Answer: False; it is a consumer responsibility.

Question 4.
The Central Government can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act.

Answer

Answer: True; the complaint can be filed under Section 2(b) of the Consumer Protection Act.

Question 5.
National Commission consists of a president and six other members.

Answer

Answer: False; it consists of four other members.

Question 6.
Consumer awareness is a campaign for protecting consumer interests.

Answer

Answer: False; consumer awareness is making a consumer aware of his rights and liabilities.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 12 Consumer Protection with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Consumer Protection CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Cash Flow Statement Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Cash Flow Statement Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Cash Flow Analysis Is Based On The MCQ Chapter 11 Question 1.
Preparation of cash flow statement is :
(a) Mendatory
(b) Recommendatory
(c) Required under the Companies Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Mendatory

Cash Flow Statement MCQ Chapter 11 Question 2.
Issue of shares in consideration of purchase of plant and machinery results into :
(a) Inflow of Cash
(b) Outflow of Cash
(c) Neither Inflow nor Outflow
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Neither Inflow nor Outflow

Cash Flow Statement Is Prepared From MCQ Chapter 11 Question 3.
If net profit is 7 50,000 after writing off goodwill 7 10,000 then the cash flow from operating activities will be:
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 30,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 60,000

Cash From Operations Is Equal To MCQ Chapter 11 Question 4.
If net profit is ₹ 35,000 after writing off good will ₹ 6,000 and loss on sale of furniture ₹ 1,000, cash flow from operating activities will be :
(a) ₹ 35,000
(b) ₹ 42,000
(c) ₹ 29,000
(d) ₹ 28,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 42,000

MCQ On Cash Flow Statement Chapter 11 Question 5.
Cash sales in :
(a) Operating Activity
(b) Investing Activity
(c) Financing Activity
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Operating Activity

MCQ On Cash Flow Statement Class 12 Chapter 11 Question 6.
Cash from operating activities will decrease due to :
(a) Increase in Current Assets
(b) Decrease in Current Liabilities
(c) Neither of the two
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Cash Flow Is A Part Of MCQ Chapter 11 Question 7.
Which of the following is an example of Cash Flow from Operating Activities ?
(a) Purchase of Machinery
(b) Issue of Shares
(c) Purchases of Inventory for Cash
(d) Purchases of Investment

Answer

Answer: (c) Purchases of Inventory for Cash

Which of the following is an example of Cash Flow from Operating Activities ?

Cash Flow Statement MCQ Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 11 Question 8.
While calculating operating profit which will be added to net profit:
(a) Interest received
(b) Profit on sale of Asset
(c) Increase in General Reserve
(d) Refund of Tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Increase in General Reserve

Cash Flow Statement MCQs Class 12 Chapter 11 Question 9.
While calculating cash flow from operating netivities which will be deducted ?
(a) Increase in Creditors
(b) Increase in Debtors
(c) Decrease in Debtors
(d) Decrease in Prepaid Expenses

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in Debtors

Question 10.
While calculating cash flow from operating activities, which will be added ?
(a) Increase in Stock
(b) Increase in Creditors
(c) Decrease in Bills Payable
(d) Increase in Debtors

Answer

Answer: (b) Increase in Creditors

Question 11.
An example of Cash Flow from Investing Activities :
(a) Cash Sales
(b) Issue of Shares
(c) Payment of cash for purchase of machinery
(d) Payment of Dividend

Answer

Answer: (c) Payment of cash for purchase of machinery

Question 12.
An example of Cash Flows from Financing Activity is :
(a) Sale of goods
(b) Sale of Investment
(c) Cash receipts from issue of shares
(d) Interest received

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash receipts from issue of shares

Question 13.
How will you treat payment of ‘Interest of Debentures’ while preparing a Cash Flow Statement ?
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalents

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities

Question 14.
Where will you show purchase of goodwill in Cash Flow Statement:
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalent

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities

Question 15.
Interest received by a finance company is classified under which kind of activity while preparing a Cash Flow Statement ?
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Financing Activities
(d) Cash Equivalent

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities

Question 16.
Which of the following item is considered as cash equivalents:
(a) Bank Overdraft
(b) Bills Receivable
(c) Debtors
(d) Short-term Investment

Answer

Answer: (a) Bank Overdraft

Question 17.
Which of the following item is not considered as cash equivalents ?
(a) Bank Overdraft
(b) Commercial Papers
(c) Treasury Bills
(d) Investment

Answer

Answer: (d) Investment

Question 18.
Cash payment to employees is a Cash Flow from:
(a) Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Finance Activities
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Operating Activities

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a Cash in Flow ?
(a) Sale of Fixed Asset
(b) Purchase of Fixed Asset
(c) Issue of Debentures
(d) Sale of Goods for Cash

Answer

Answer: (b) Purchase of Fixed Asset

Question 20.
In cash flow statement, the item of ‘Interest’ is shown in:
(a) Operating Activities
(b) Investing Activities
(c) Financial Activities
(d) In both (d) & (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) In both (d) & (c)

Question 21.
Which of the following is not a Cash Outflow:
(a) Increase in Creditors
(b) Increase in Debtors
(c) Increase in Stock
(d) Increase in prepaid expenses

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in Creditors

Question 22.
Cash from operation is equal to :
(a) Net Profit + Increase in Current Assets
(b) Net Profit + Decrease in Current Liabilities
(c) Operating Profit + Adjustment of Current Assets and Current Liabilities
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Net Profit + Decrease in Current Liabilities

Question 23.
Income tax refund is a cash of:
(a) Source
(b) Application
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Source

Question 24.
Cash Flow Statement in based upon:
(a) Cash basis of accounting
(b) Accrual basis of accounting
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash basis of accounting

Question 25.
Cash Flow Statement is related to:
(a) AS-3
(b) AS-6
(c) AS-9
(d) AS-12

Answer

Answer: (b) AS-6

Question 26.
Cash Flow Statement is prepared from:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Additional Information
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 27.
Following Is included in Cash Flow from Operating Activities:
(a) Royalties, Fees, Commission
(b) Purchase of Debentures
(c) Purchase of Machinery
(d) issue of Shares

Answer

Answer: (a) Royalties, Fees, Commission

Question 28.
Following are included in cash equivalent:
(a) Treasury Bill
(b) Trade Bill
(c) Bank Deposits of Short Maturity Period
(d) All of above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of above

Question 29.
Claims received from Insurance Companies are treated as:
(a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities
(b) Cash Flow from Investing Activities
(c) Cash Flow from Financing Activities
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Flow from Operating Activities

Question 30.
Which activity comes under ‘Operating Activities’ ?
(a) Purchase of Land
(b) Issue of Debentures
(c) Proceeds from Issuance of Equity Shares
(d) Cash Sales

Answer

Answer: (d) Cash Sales

Question 31.
Which of the following is not a cash inflow ?
(a) Decrease in Debtors
(b) Issue of Debentures
(c) Decrease in Creditors
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Decrease in Creditors

Question 32.
Which one of following is not a non-cash item ?
(a) Cash Sales
(b) Goodwill written off
(c) Depreciation
(d) Provision of Bad Debts

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash Sales

Question 33.
Cash flow statement according to AS-3 is mandatory to:
(a) All enterprises
(b) Companies listed on a stock exchange
(c) Enterprises having turnover expending 50 Rs crore
(d) (b) & (c) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (b) & (c) both

Question 34.
Decrease in Current Asset is……….in operating profit
(a) Subtracted
(b) Added
(c) Divided
(d) Multiplied

Answer

Answer: (b) Added

Question 35.
Following are true about cash equivalent:
(a) More Liquid Short-term Investment
(b) Minimum risk
(c) Maturity of 3 months or less than 3 months
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 36.
Which of the following activity comes under Financial Activities ?
(a) Receipts from issurence of Equity Shares
(b) Cash Sales
(c) Bank Overdraft
(d) Purchase of Debentures

Answer

Answer: (a) Receipts from issurence of Equity Shares

Question 37.
An analysis of cash flow is useful for..—.planning.
(a) Short-term
(b) Long-term
(c) Medium-term
(d) Very Long-period

Answer

Answer: (a) Short-term

Question 38.
Which calculating cash flow from operating activities which is added net profit ?
(a) Increase in Stock
(b) Decrease in Stock
(c) Increase in Debtors
(d) Decrease in Creditors

Answer

Answer: (b) Decrease in Stock

Question 39.
Which of the following is not the source of Cash ?
(a) Purchase of Fixed Assets
(b) Funds from Operations
(c) Issue of Debentures
(d) Sale of Fixed Assets

Answer

Answer: (a) Purchase of Fixed Assets

Question 40.
While calculating profit from operating activities, which will be added back to net profit:
(a) Goodwill Written off
(b) Depreciation
(c) Loss oh Sale of Fixed Assets
(d) All the Above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the Above

While calculating profit from operating activities, which will be added back to net profit:

Question 41.
Profit during the year ₹ 20,000. During the year, there was increase in stock by ₹ 9,000 and decrease in debentures of ₹ 5,000. What is the amount of cash from operating activities ?
(a) ₹ 6,000
(b) ₹ 16,000
(c) ₹ 24,000
(d) ₹ 34,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 16,000

Question 42.
Given:
Net Profit during the year ₹ 1,00,000
Debtors in the beginning the year of ₹ 30,000
Debtors at the end of the year ₹ 36,000
What is the amount of cash from operating activities ?
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 94,000
(c) ₹ 1,06,000
(d) ₹ 1,66,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 94,000

Question 43.
Net Profit during the year ₹ 30,000
Creditors in the beginning ₹ 24,000
Creditors at the end ₹ 16,000
What is the amount of cash from operating activities :
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 34,000
(c) ₹ 22,000
(d) ₹ 40,000

Answer

Answer: (c) 7 22,000

Question 44.
Redemption of Debentures/Preference shares results into:
(a) Source of fund
(b) Use Or application of fund
(c) No flow of fund
(d) No flow of cash

Answer

Answer: (b) Use Or application of fund

Question 45.
Which of the following is not an example of cash outflows ?
(a) Repayment of loans
(b) Decrease in creditors
(c) Issue of debentures
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Issue of debentures

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Cash Flow Statement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Financial Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Financial Management MCQs for Class 12 Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is related to planning, organising, directing and controlling of financial activities?
(a) Financial decision
(b) Capital structure
(c) Investment decision
(d) Financial management

Answer

Answer: (d) Financial management

Question 2.
Wealth maximisation depends on
(a) market price per share.
(b) market price of finished good.
(c) market price of inventory.
(d) market price of fixed assets.

Answer

Answer: (a) market price per share.

Wealth maximisation depends on

Question 3.
Investment decision involves
(a) investment in fixed assets.
(b) investment in current assets.
(c) investment in fixed and current assets.
(d) investment in Government securities.

Answer

Answer: (c) investment in fixed and current assets.

Question 4.
If dividend portion of total earnings is high, portion of retained earnings will be
(a) high.
(b) low.
(c) moderate.
(d) equal.

Answer

Answer: (b) low.

Question 5.
Financial procedures are determined by
(a) financial planning.
(b) financial leverage.
(c) financial decisions.
(d) capital structure.

Answer

Answer: (a) financial planning.

Question 6.
Capital structure shows
(a) Debtor-creditor ratio.
(b) Fixed assets-current assets ratio.
(c) Debt-equity ratio.
(d) Interest coverage ratio.

Answer

Answer: (c) Debt-equity ratio.

Question 7.
Fixed capital requirements are determined by
(a) nature of business.
(b) nature of business environment.
(c) nature of Government control.
(d) nature of marketing efforts.

Answer

Answer: (a) nature of business.

Question 8.
Working capital requirements are low when an organisation has
(a) high technology.
(b) high debtors.
(c) high inventory.
(d) high creditors.

Answer

Answer: (d) high creditors.

Question 9.
___ is concerned with optimum procurement as well as usage of finance.
(a) Financial Analysis
(b) Financial Planning
(c) Financial Management
(d) Budgeting

Answer

Answer: (c) Financial Management

Question 10.
___ represents investment in current assets required for day-to-day operations of the business.
(a) Long-term capital
(b) Working capital
(c) Capital Budgeting
(d) Medium-term capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Working capital

Question 11.
___ involves increasing the proportion of debt and preference shares in total capital.
(a) Trading on equity
(b) Capital Budgeting
(c) Financing decision
(d) Financial Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) Trading on equity

Question 12.
___ is the time span between acquisition of goods and realisation of sale proceeds.
(a) Working capital
(b) Payback Period
(c) Operating Cycle
(d) Account Receivables Period

Answer

Answer: (c) Operating Cycle

Question 13.
___ Gross working capital represents the total investment in assets.
(a) Current
(b) Fixed
(c) Tangible
(d) Intangible

Answer

Answer: (a) Current

Question 14.
___ capital refers to investment in long-term assets.
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Working
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (c) Working

Question 15.
The working capital requirement of a business is not likely to be high when?
(a) The nature of business is trading
(b) Scale of operation of business is small
(c) It is difficult to procure raw material
(d) The rate of inflation is low

Answer

Answer: (c) It is difficult to procure raw material

Question 16.
Under which of the following circumstances the fixed capital requirement of a business is not likely to be high?
(a) When the raw material is not easily available
(b) Capital intensive techniques of production are used
(c) The growth prospects of a company a high
(d) When the financial alternatives are easily available

Answer

Answer: (d) When the financial alternatives are easily available

Question 17.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to use of fixed capital?
(a) It affects the long term growth of the business.
(b) Large amount of funds are involved.
(c) The business risk involved is low.
(d) The investment decisions are irreversible.

Answer

Answer: (c) The business risk involved is low.

Question 18.
Under which of the following situations a company is not likely to issue equity capital?
(a) When the debt service coverage ratio is high.
(b) When the interest coverage ratio is high.
(c) When the cost of debt capital is low.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

Under which of the following situations a company is not likely to issue equity capital?

Question 19.
If the rate of return on investment for a company is 16%, a situation of unfavourable financial leverage will be said to arise when the rate of interest payable on debt capital is
(a) More than 16 %
(b) Less than 16 %
(c) Equal to 16%
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) More than 16 %

Question 20.
The total capital of Uranium Private Limited is ?50 lacs. The amount of debt is ?20 lacs. The company has earned a profit of ^10 lacs during the current financial year. Its return on investment (ROI) for the present year is
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 10%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (a) 20%

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. The primary objective of financial management is to arrange wealth for shareholders.

Answer

Answer: False; the primary objective of financial management is to maximise shareholders’ wealth.

2. Financing decision is the decision about dividend payment and retained earnings.

Answer

Answer: False; dividend decison is such a decision.

3. Investment decision is the decision about investment, financing and dividend.

Answer

Answer: False; financial decision is the decision about investment, financing and dividend.

4. Return on investment shows analysis of an investment.

Answer

Answer: False; return on investment shows profitability of an investment.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 9 Financial Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Financial Management CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Analysis of Financial Statements Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Analysis of Financial Statements Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Financial Statement Analysis Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Interpretation of Financial Statements includes:
(a) Criticisms and Analysis
(b) Comparison and Trend Study
(c) Drawing Conclusion
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Financial Statement Analysis MCQ Question 2.
Horizontal Analysis is also known as :
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Structural Analysis
(c) Static Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Dynamic Analysis

Analysis Of Financial Statements Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
Vertical Analysis is also known as :
(a) Static Analysis
(b) Dynamic Analysis
(c) Structural Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Static Analysis

Financial Statement Analysis MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
Comparative Statements are also known as :
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Horizontal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) External Analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Horizontal Analysis

MCQ On Financial Statement Analysis Class 12 Question 5.
Common-size Statement are also known as:
(a) Dynamic Analysis
(b) Horizontal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) External Analysis

Answer

Answer: (c) Vertical Analysis

Common-size Statement are also known as:

Analysis Of Financial Statements MCQ Question 6.
The most commonly used tools for financial analysis are:
(a) Comparative Statements
(b) Common-size Statement
(c) Accounting Ratios
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Financial Analysis Is Useful For MCQ Question 7.
The analysis of financial statement by a shareholder is an example of:
(a) External Analysis
(b) Internal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) Horizontal Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) External Analysis

MCQ Of Financial Statement Analysis Question 8.
For calculating trend percentages any year is selected as:
(a) Current year
(b) Previous year
(c) Base year
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Base year

Question 9.
Tools for comparison of financial statements are :
(a) Comparative Balance Sheet
(b) Comparative Income Statement
(c) Common-size Statement
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 10.
Trend ratios and trend percentage are used in :
(a) Dynamic analysis
(b) Static analysis
(c) Horizontal analysis
(d) Vertical Analysis

Answer

Answer: (c) Horizontal analysis

Question 11.
Comparative Financial Statements show:
(a) Financial position of a concern
(b) Earning capacity of a concern
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of them

Question 12.
Comparative financial analysis process shows the comparison between the items of which statement:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Statement
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) both

Question 13.
Which of these are not the method of financial statement analysis ?
(a) Ratio Analysis
(b) Comparative Analysis
(c) Trend Analysis
(d) Capitalisation Method

Answer

Answer: (d) Capitalisation Method

Question 14.
Common-size financial statements are mostly prepared:
(a) In proportion
(b) In percentage
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) In percentage

Question 15.
Tangible assets of company increased from T 4,00,000 to T 5,00,000. What is the percentage of change ?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33%
(d) 50%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%

Question 16.
A company’s shareholders fund was 7 8,00,000 in the year 2015. It because 7 12,00,000 in the year 2016. What is percentage of change ?
(a) 100%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 33.3%

Answer

Answer: (c) 50%

Question 17.
A company’s net sales are ₹ 15,00,000; cost of sales is ₹ 10,00,000 and indirect expenses are ₹ 3,00,000, the amount gross profit will be:
(a) ₹ 13,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 12,00,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 2,00,000

Question 18.
Sales less Cost of goods sold is called :
(a) Operating Profit
(b) Gross Profit
(c) Net Profit
(d) Total Profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Gross Profit

Question 19.
If total assets of a firm are 7 12,00,000 and its non of non-current assets to total assets ?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 25%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (b) 75%

Question 20.
If total assets of a firm are 7 10,00,000 and its non-current assets are 7 6,00,000, what will be the percentage of current assets on total assets ?
(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 40%
(d) 30%

Answer

Answer: (c) 40%

Question 21.
In a common-size Balance Sheet, total equity and liabilities are assumed to be equal to :
(a) 1,000
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 100

Question 22.
Break-even point refers to that point where :
(a) Total Costs are more than Total Sales
(b) Total Costs are less than Total Sales
(c) Total Costs are half of the Total Sales
(d) Total Cost are equal to total sales

Answer

Answer: (d) Total Cost are equal to total sales

Question 23.
Payment of Income Tax is considered as :
(a) Direct Expenses
(b) Indirect Expenses
(c) Operating Expenses
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Indirect Expenses

Question 24.
Vertical Analysis is also known as :
(a) Fluctuation Analysis
(b) Static Analysis
(c) Horizontal Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Static Analysis

Question 25.
Financial analysis is useful:
(a) For Investors
(b) For Shareholders
(c) For Debenture holders
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 26.
Analysis of financial statements involve :
(a) Trading A/c
(b) Profit & Loss statement
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 27.
Financial analysis is significant because it:
(a) Ignores qualitative aspect
(b) Judges operational efficiency
(c) Suffers from the limitations of financial statements
(d) It is affected by personal ability and bias of the analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Judges operational efficiency

Question 28.
What is shown by the Income Statement ?
(a) Accuracy of books of accounts
(b) Profit or loss of a certain period
(c) Balance of Cash Book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Profit or loss of a certain period

Question 29.
What is shown by Balance Sheet ?
(a) Accuracy of books of accounts
(b) Profit or loss of a specific period
(c) Financial position on a specific date
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Financial position on a specific date

Question 30.
Which of the following is the purpose or objective of financial analysis ?
(a) To assess the current profitability of the firm
(b) To measure the solvency of the firm
(c) To assess the short-term and long-term liquidity position of the firm
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 31.
Out of the following which parties are interested in financial statements ?
(a) Managers
(b) Financial Institutions
(c) Creditors
(d) All the these

Answer

Answer: (d) All the these

Question 32.
Which of the following is not a limitations of financial statement analysis ?
(a) To measure the financial strength
(b) Affected by window-dressing
(c) Do not reflect changes in price level
(d) Lack of Qualitative Analysis

Answer

Answer: (a) To measure the financial strength

Question 33.
Break-even Analysis shows:
(a) Relationship between cost and sales
(b) Relationship between production and purchases
(c) Relationship between cost and revenue
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Relationship between cost and sales

Question 34.
Which of the following shows the actual financial position of n enterprise ?
(a) Fund Flow
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) P & L A/c
(d) Ratio Analysis

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance Sheet

Question 35.
The financial statements of a business enterprise include:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss Account
(c) Cash Flow Statement
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

The financial statements of a business enterprise include:

Question 36.
An annual report is issued by company to its :
(a) Directors
(b) Auditors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Management

Answer

Answer: (c) Shareholders

Question 37.
Balance Sheet provides information about financial position of the enterprise :
(a) At a Point of Time
(b) Over a Period of Time
(c) For a Period of Time
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) At a Point of Time

Question 38.
Profit & Loss Account is also called :
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Income Statements
(c) Operating Profit
(d) Investment

Answer

Answer: (b) Income Statements

Question 39.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders funds
(b) Assets = Total funds
(c) Assets = Funds of outsiders .
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders funds

Question 40.
In which meeting of company directors report is presented ?
(a) Directors Meeting
(b) Annual General Meeting
(c) Manager’s Meeting
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Annual General Meeting

Question 41.
On the basis of process, which of the following is the type of financial analysis ?
(a) Horizontal Analysis
(b) Vertical Analysis
(c) Ratio Analysis
(d) (a) and (b) both

Answer

Answer: (d) (a) and (b) both

Question 42.
Which Of the following is limitation of financial analysis ?
(a) Window-dressing
(b) Basis of Valuation
(c) Lack of Accuracy
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 43.
Which of the following is not the limitations of financial analysis ?
(a) Lack of Accuracy
(b) Based on Historical facts
(c) Basis of Valuation
(d) Information of Profit and Loss

Answer

Answer: (d) Information of Profit and Loss

Question 44.
When Financial Statements of two or more organisations are analysed, it is called :
(a) Intra-firm Analysis
(b) Inter-firm Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Inter-firm Analysis

Question 45.
Which of the following statement correct ?
(a) Retained Earnings = Total Income
(b) Retained Earnings = Revenue-expenses
(c) Retained Earnings = Gross Profit
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Retained Earnings = Revenue-expenses

Question 46.
Which of the following is a type of Financial Analysis on the basis of material used ?
(a) Internal Analysis
(b) External Analysis
(c) Internal Audit
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

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