MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Mensuration Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Online Education for Mensuration Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Mensuration Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The diagram has the shape of a
Mensuration Class 8 MCQ
(a) square
(b) rectangle
(c) triangle
(d) trapezium.

Answer

Answer: (b) rectangle


MCQ On Mensuration For Class 8 Question 2.
The diagram has the shape of a
MCQ On Mensuration For Class 8
(a) rectangle
(b) square
(c) circle
(d) parallelogram.

Answer

Answer: (b) square


Mensuration MCQ Class 8 Question 3.
The diagram has the shape of a
Mensuration MCQ Class 8
(a) circle
(b) rectangle
(c) square
(d) triangle.

Answer

Answer: (d) triangle


MCQ Of Mensuration Class 8 Question 4.
The diagram has the shape of a
MCQ Of Mensuration Class 8
(a) rectangle
(b) square
(c) parallelogram
(d) circle.

Answer

Answer: (c) parallelogram


Class 8 Mensuration MCQ Question 5.
The diagram has the shape of a
Class 8 Mensuration MCQ
(a) circle
(b) square
(c) rectangle
(d) parallelogram.

Answer

Answer: (a) circle


Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 MCQ Question 6.
The diagram has the shape of a
Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 MCQ
(a) circle
(b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle
(d) trapezium.

Answer

Answer: (d) trapezium


Class 8 Maths Ch 11 MCQ Question 7.
The area of a rectangle of length a and breadth b is
(a) a + b
(b) ab
(c) a² + b²
(d) 2ab.

Answer

Answer: (b) ab


The area of a rectangle of length a and breadth b is

Class 8 Maths Mensuration MCQ Question 8.
The area of a square of side a is
(a)a
(b) a²
(c) 2a
(d) 4a.

Answer

Answer: (b) a²


MCQ Mensuration Class 8 Question 9.
The area of a triangle with base b and altitude h is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)bh
(b) bh
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)bh
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)bh.

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)bh


Mensuration Class 8 Worksheets MCQ Question 10.
The area of a parallelogram of base b and altitude h is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)bh
(b) bh
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)bh
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)bh.

Answer

Answer: (b) bh


MCQs On Mensuration Class 8 Question 11.
The area of a circle of radius r is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)πr²
(b) r²
(c) πr².
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)πr²

Answer

Answer: (b) r²


Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 MCQ Question 12.
1 cm³ =
(a) 1000 mm³
(b) 100 mm³
(c) 10 mm³
(d) \(\frac{1}{1000}\)mm³

Answer

Answer: (a) 1000 mm³


Mensuration Class 8 Extra Questions Question 13.
1 m³ =
(a ) 1000000 cm³
(b) 100 cm³
(c) 10 cm³
(d) \(\frac{1}{1000}\) cm³

Answer

Answer: (a ) 1000000 cm³


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Mensuration Question 14.
1 mm³ =
(a) 0.001 cm³
(b) 0.01 cm³
(c) 0.1 cm³
(d) 1000 cm³

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.001 cm³


MCQs Of Mensuration Class 8 Question 15.
1 cm³ =
(a) 0.000001 m³
(b) 0.01 m³
(c) 0.1 m³
(d) 1000 m³

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.000001 m³


Mensuration Class 8 MCQ Questions Question 16.
The surface area of a cuboid of length l, breadth b and height h is
(a ) lbh
(b) lb + bh + hl
(c) 2 (lb + bh + hl)
(d) 2(l + b)h.

Answer

Answer: (c) 2 (lb + bh + hl)


Class 8 Math Chapter 11 MCQ Question 17.
The surface area of a cube of edge a is
(a) 4a²
(b) 6a²
(c) 3a²
(d) a².

Answer

Answer: (b) 6a²


Question 18.
The total surface area of a cylinder of base radius r and height h is
(a) 2πr (r + h)
(b) πr (r + h)
(c) 2πrh
(d) 2πr².

Answer

Answer: (a) 2πr (r + h)


Question 19.
The volume of a cuboid of length l, breadth b and height h is
(a) lbh
(b) lb + bh + hl
(c) 2 (lb + bh + hl)
(d) 2 (l + b) h.

Answer

Answer: (a) lbh


Question 20.
The volume of a cube of edge a is
(a) a²
(b) a³
(c) a4
(d) 6a²

Answer

Answer: (b) a³


Question 21.
The volume of a cylinder of base radius r and height h is
(a) 2πrh
(b) πr²h
(c) 2πr (r + h)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\) πr²h.

Answer

Answer: (b) πr²h


Question 22.
1 L =
ia) 10 cm³
(b) 100 cm³
(c) 1000 cm³
(d) 10000 cm³.

Answer

Answer: (c) 1000 cm³


Question 23.
1 m³ =
(a) 1 L
(b) 10 L
(c) 100 L
(d) 1000 L.

Answer

Answer: (d) 1000 L.


Question 24.
The perimeter of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 7
(a) 7 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 24 cm.

Answer

Answer: (b) 14 cm
Hint:
Perimeter = 2 (4 + 3) = 14 cm.


Question 25.
The area of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 8
(a) 8 cm²
(b) 6 cm²
(c) 12 cm²
(d) 16 cm²

Answer

Answer: (c) 12 cm²
Hint:
Area = 6² = 12 cm².


Question 26.
The perimeter of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 9
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 8 cm.

Answer

Answer: (b) 10 cm
Hint:
Perimeter = 2 (4 + 1) = 10 cm.


Question 27.
The area of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 10
(a) 6 cm²
(b) 12 cm²
(c) 5 cm²
(d) 10 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 6 cm²
Hint:
Area = 3 × 2 = 6 cm².


Question 28.
The perimeter of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 11
(a) 12 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 60 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a) 12 cm
Hint:
Perimeter = 4 + 3 + 5 = 12 cm.


Question 29.
The area of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 12
(a) 9 cm²
(b) 18 cm²
(c) 12 cm²
(d) 15 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 9 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{6×3}{2}\) 9 cm².


Question 30.
The perimeter of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 13
(a) 4 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 12 cm.

Answer

Answer: (c) 8 cm
Hint:
Perimeter = 4 × 2 = 8 cm.


Question 31.
The area of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 14
(a) 16 cm²
(b) 8 cm²
(c) 4 cm²
(d) 12 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 16 cm²
Hint:
Area = 4 × 4 = 16 cm².


Question 32.
The area of the figure is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 15
(a) 77 cm²
(b) 154 cm²
(c) 38.5 cm²
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 77 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 = 77 cm².


Question 33.
The area of the trapezium is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 16
(a) 9 cm²
(b) 6 cm²
(c) 7 cm²
(d) 24 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 9 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{(4+2)3}{2}\) = 9 cm².


Question 34.
The area of the trapezium is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 17
(a) 6 cm²
(b) 4 cm²
(c) 3 cm²
(d) 9 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 6 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{(3+2)3}{2}\) = 6 cm².


Question 35.
The perimeter of the trapezium is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 18
(a) 12 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 18 cm.

Answer

Answer: (a) 12 cm
Hint:
Perimeter = 3 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 12 cm.


Question 36.
The area of the quadrilateral is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 19
(a) 3.75 cm²
(b) 7.5 cm²
(c) 3 cm²
(d) 10 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 3.75 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3 × 2.5 = 1.5 × 2.5
= 3.75 cm².


Question 37.
The area of the quadrilateral is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 20
(a) 10 cm²
(b) 5 cm²
(c) 20 cm²
(d) 15 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 cm²
Hint:
Area = 2(\(\frac{5×2}{2}\)) = 10 cm².


Question 38.
The area of the quadrilateral is
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers 21
(a) 6 cm²
(b) 12 cm²
(c) 3 cm²
(d) 8 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 6 cm²
Hint:
Area = \(\frac{4×(1+2)}{2}\)) = 6 cm²


Question 39.
The area of a rhombus is 60 cm². One diagonal is 10 cm. The other diagonal is
(a) 6 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 24 cm.

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 cm
Hint:
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × d2 = 60 ⇒ d2 = 12 cm.


The area of a rhombus is 60 cm². One diagonal is 10 cm. The other diagonal is

Question 40.
The area of a trapezium is 40 cm². Its parallel sides are 12 cm and 8 cm. The distance between the parallel sides is
(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 4 cm.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4 cm.
Hint:
\(\frac{(12+8)d}{2}\) = 40 ⇒ d = 4 cm.


Question 41.
8 persons can stay in a cubical room. Each person requires 27 m³ of air. The side of the cube is
(a) 6 m
(b) 4 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 2 m.

Answer

Answer: (a) 6 m
Hint:
Volume = 8 × 27 = 216 m³
∴ side = \(\sqrt[3]{216}\) = 6 m.


Question 42.
If the height of a cuboid becomes zero, it will take the shape of a
(a) cube
(b) parallelogram
(c) circle
(d) rectangle.

Answer

Answer: (d) rectangle.


Question 43.
The volume of a room is 80 m³. The area of the floor is 20 m². The height of the room is
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4 m
Hint:
Height = \(\frac{80}{20}\) = 4 m.


Question 44.
The floor of a room is a square of side 6 m. Its height is 4 m. The volume of the room is
(a) 140 m³
(b) 142 m³
(c) 144 m³
(d) 145 m³

Answer

Answer: (c) 144 m³
Hint:
Volume = 6 × 6 × 4 = 144 m³.


Question 45.
The base radius and height of a right circular cylinder are 14 cm and 5 cm respectively. Its curved surface is
(a) 220 cm²
(b) 440 cm²
(c) 1232 cm²
(d) 2π × 14 × (14 + 5) cm²

Answer

Answer: (b) 440 cm²
Hint:
Curved surface = 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 14 × 5
= 440 cm².


Question 46.
The heights of two right circular cylinders are the same. Their volumes are respectively 16π m³ and 81π m³. The ratio of their base radii is
(a) 16 : 81
(b) 4 : 9
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 9 : 4.

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 : 9
Hint:
\(\frac{πr_1^2h}{πr_2^2h}\) = \(\frac{16π}{81π}\) ⇒ \(\frac{r_1}{r_2}\) = \(\frac{4}{9}\)


Question 47.
The ratio of the radii of two right circular cylinders is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their heights is 4 : 1. The ratio of their volumes is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 1.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 : 1
Hint:
\(\frac{r_1}{r_2}\) = \(\frac{π(1)^24}{π(2)^21}\) = 1 : 1


Question 48.
A glass in the form of a right circular cylinder is half full of water. Its base radius is 3 cm and height is 8 cm. The volume of water is
(a) 18π cm³
(b) 36π cm³
(c) 9π cm³
(d) 36 cm³

Answer

Answer: (b) 36π cm³
Hint:
Volume = \(\frac{1}{2}\)π × 3 × 3 × 8 = 36π cm³.


Question 49.
The base area of a right circular cylinder is 16K cm³. Its height is 5 cm. Its curved surface area is
(a) 40π cm²
(b) 30π cm²
(c) 20π cm²
(d) 10π cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 40π cm²
Hint:
πr² = 16π ⇒ r = 4 cm
∴ Curved surface area
= 2 × π × 4 × 5 = 40π cm²


Question 50.
The base radius and height of a right circular cylinder are 5 cm and 10 cm. Its total surface area is
(a) 150π cm²
(b) 300π cm²
(c) 150 cm²
(d) 300 cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 150π cm²
Hint:
Total surface area = 2πr (h + r)
= 2π 5 (10 + 5) = 150π cm².


Question 51.
If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 10 cm and 5 cm, respectively, then its area is:
(a) 100 sq.cm
(b) 150 sq.cm
(c) 115 sq.cm
(d) 200 sq.cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 150 sq.cm
Hint:
Length = 10 cm
And breadth = 5 cm
Area of rectangle = Lenght x breadth
= 10 x 5
= 150 cm2


Question 52.
The area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm is:
(a) 41 cm2
(b) 82 cm2
(c) 410 cm2
(d) 820 cm2

Answer

Answer: (a) 41 cm2
Hint:
Area of rhombus = ½ d1 d2
A = ½ x 10 x 8.2
A = 41 cm2


Question 53.
The area of a trapezium is 480 cm2, the distance between two parallel sides is 15 cm and one of the parallel side is 20 cm. The other parallel side is:
(a) 20 cm
(b) 34 cm
(c) 44 cm
(d) 50 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 44 cm
Hint:
Area of trapezium = ½ h (a + b)
a=20 cm, h = 15 cm, Area = 480 sq.cm
480 = ½ (15) (20 + b)
20 + b = (480 x 2)/15
20 + b = 64
b = 44cm


Question 54.
The area of a rhombus is 240 cm2 and one of the diagonals is 16 cm. Find the other diagonal.
(a) 16 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 36 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 cm
Hint:
Area = 240 cm2
d1 = 16 cm
Area of rhombus = ½ d1 x d2
240 = ½ x 16 x d2
d2 = 480/16 = 30 cm


Question 55.
A cuboid has ______ pairs of identical faces.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 3
Hint:
All six faces are rectangular, and opposites faces are identical. So there are three pairs of identical faces.


Question 56.
All six faces of a cube are:
(a) Identical
(b) Different
(c) Circular
(d) Rectangular

Answer

Answer: (a) Identical
Hint:
All six faces are squares and identical


Question 57.
A cylindrical box has ____ curved surface and ____ circular faces, which are identical.
(a) One, One
(b) One, two
(c) two, one
(d) two, two

Answer

Answer: (b) One, two
Hint:
A cylindrical box having circular bases have identical top. One curved surface and two circular faces which are identical.


Question 58.
If a cuboidal box has height, length and width as 20 cm, 15 cm and 10 cm respectively. Then its total surface area is:
(a) 1100 cm2
(b) 1200 cm2
(c) 1300 cm2
(d) 1400 cm2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1300 cm2
Hint:
Total surface area = 2 (20 × 15 + 20 × 10 + 10 × 15)
TSA = 2 ( 300 + 200 + 150) = 1300 cm2


Question 59.
The height of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total surface area is 968 cm2 is:
(a) 15 cm
(b) 17 cm
(c) 19 cm
(d) 21 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 15 cm
Hint:
Total surface area = 2πr (h + r)
968 = 2 x 22/7 x 7 (7+h)
h = 15 cm


Question 60.
The height of a cuboid whose volume is 275 cm3 and base area is 25 cm2 is:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 11 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 13 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 11 cm
Hint:
Volume of a cuboid = Base area × Height
Height = Volume / Base area
H = 275/25 = 11 cm


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Mensuration with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Mensuration CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 1 सूरदास के पद with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 1 सूरदास के पद with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 1 सूरदास के पद with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided सूरदास के पद Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 1 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

सूरदास के पद Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Surdas Ke Pad Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
उद्धव कृष्ण का कौन-सा संदेश लेकर आए थे?
(a) प्रेम-संदेश
(b) अनुराग-संदेश
(c) योग-संदेश
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) योग-संदेश


उद्धव कृष्ण का कौन-सा संदेश लेकर आए थे?

Surdas Ke Pad MCQ Question 2.
कृष्ण की संगति में रहकर भी कौन उनके प्रेम से अछूते रहे हैं?
(a) उद्धव
(b) गोपियाँ
(c) राधा
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) उद्धव


Surdas Ke Pad Class 10 MCQ Questions Question 3.
उद्धव के व्यवहार की तुलना किसके पत्ते से की गई है?
(a) पीपल के
(b) कमल के
(c) केला के
(d) नीम के

Answer

Answer: (b) कमल के


Class 10 Hindi Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
गोपियों को अकेला छोड़कर कृष्ण कहाँ चले गए थे?
(a) ब्रज
(b) द्वारका
(c) मथुरा
(d) वृन्दावन

Answer

Answer: (c) मथुरा


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Hindi With Answers Chapter 1 Question 5.
गोपियों को कृष्ण का व्यवहार कैसा प्रतीत होता है?
(a) उदार
(b) छलपूर्ण
(c) निष्ठुर
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) छलपूर्ण


Surdas MCQ Class 10 Question 6.
गोपियाँ स्वयं को क्या समझती हैं?
(a) डरपोक
(b) निर्बल
(c) अबला
(d) साहसी

Answer

Answer: (c) अबला


Surdas Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
गोपियाँ किसके प्रेम में आसक्त हो गई हैं?
(a) उद्धव-प्रेम
(b) कृष्ण-प्रेम
(c) संगीत-प्रेम
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) कृष्ण-प्रेम


Hindi Class 10 MCQ Kshitij Chapter 1 Question 8.
इनमें से किस पक्षी की तुलना गोपियों से की गई है?
(a) कोयल
(b) मोर
(c) हारिल
(d) चकोर

Answer

Answer: (c) हारिल


Class 10 Surdas Ke Pad MCQ Question 9.
किसने प्रेम की मर्यादा का उल्लंघन किया है?
(a) गोपियों ने
(b) उद्धव ने
(c) राजा ने
(d) कृष्ण ने

Answer

Answer: (d) कृष्ण ने


Class 10 Hindi Ch 1 MCQ Question 10.
कृष्ण का योग-संदेश लेकर कौन आए थे?
(a) उद्धव
(b) बलराम
(c) सेवक
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) उद्धव


कृष्ण का योग-संदेश लेकर कौन आए थे?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 1 सूरदास के पद with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding सूरदास के पद CBSE Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 10 बड़े भाई साहब with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 10 बड़े भाई साहब with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 10 बड़े भाई साहब with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided बड़े भाई साहब Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 10 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-with-answers/

बड़े भाई साहब Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Bade Bhai Sahab Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
बड़े भाई वर्तमान शिक्षा प्रणाली के विरुद्ध क्यों हैं ?
(a) खेल कूद पर पर जोर देती है
(b) किताबी कीड़ा बनाती है और वास्तविकता से दूर है
(c) बहुत लाभदायक नहीं है
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) किताबी कीड़ा बनाती है और वास्तविकता से दूर है


Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Question 2.
बड़े भाई में क्या गुण थे ?
(a) गंभीर प्रवित्ति के थे
(b) छोटे भाई के हितैषी थे
(c) वाक् कला में निपुण थे
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


Class 10 Hindi Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Question 3.
बड़े भाई छोटे भाई से हर समय सब से पहले क्या सवाल पूछते थे ?
(a) अब तुम कहाँ थे
(b) क्या कर रहे थे
(c) कहाँ जा रहे हो हो
(d) पढ़ाई कर ली

Answer

Answer: (a) अब तुम कहाँ थे


Class 10 Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Question 4.
बड़े भाई साहिब के अनुसार कैसी बुद्धि व्यर्थ है ?
(a) जो आत्म गौरव को मार डाले
(b) पढ़ाई न करने दे
(c) जो खेल कूद में लगी रहे
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) जो आत्म गौरव को मार डाले


Bade Bhai Sahab MCQs Question 5.
लेखक को भाई साहिब की बातें अच्छी क्यों नहीं लगती थी ?
(a) क्योकि लेखक अव्वल दर्जे में पास हुआ था
(b) भाई साहिब फेल हो गए थे
(c) भाई साहिब उपदेश देते थे
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


MCQ Of Bade Bhai Sahab Question 6.
लेखक के दिल के टुकडे किस बात पर हो जाते थे ?
(a) पतंग कटने से
(b) खेल में हार जाने से
(c) फेल होने होने से
(d) भाई साहिब के उपदेश सुनने से

Answer

Answer: (d) भाई साहिब के उपदेश सुनने से


Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Class 10 Question 7.
भाई सहिब किस कला मे निपुण थे ?
(a) खेलो मे
(b) पढने मे
(c) कन्चे खेलने मे
(d) पतङ्ग उडाने की कला मे

Answer

Answer: (d) पतङ्ग उडाने की कला मे


Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Questions Question 8.
अवसर मिलते ही लेखक कौन से काम करता था ?
(a) चार दीवारी पर चढता उतरता था
(b) कागज की तितलिय| उडात| था
(c) कङ्कर् उछालता था
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


MCQ On Bade Bhai Sahab Question 9.
भाई साहिब किस मामले में जल्दबाजी नहीं करते थे ?
(a) खेल कूद मे
(b) लडने मे
(c) शिक्षा के मामले मे
(d) निर्णय लेने के बारे में

Answer

Answer: (c) शिक्षा के मामले मे


भाई साहिब किस मामले में जल्दबाजी नहीं करते थे ?

MCQ Bade Bhai Sahab Question 10.
लेखक के भाई साहिब उस से कितने साल बड़े थे ?
(a) ३ साल
(b) ५ साल
(c) ६ साल
(d) आठ साल

Answer

Answer: (b) ५ साल


Class 10 Hindi Chapter Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Question 11.
प्रेम जी ने लगभग कितनी कहानियां लिखी ?
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) लगभग 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 400


Bade Bhai Sahab Class 10 MCQ Questions Question 12.
प्रेम जी ने किस वर्ग को विस्तारपूर्वक वर्णित किया है ?
(a) शोषक एवं शोषित
(b) फ़िल्मी वर्ग को
(c) आम जनता को
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) शोषक एवं शोषित


Hindi Bade Bhai Sahab MCQ Question 13.
प्रेम जी का शरीर जर्जर क्यो हो गया ?
(a) निरन्तर विकट परिस्तिथियो का सामना करने के कारण
(b) पानी के कारण
(c) आर्थिक तन्गी के कारण
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) निरन्तर विकट परिस्तिथियो का सामना करने के कारण


MCQ Of Bade Bhai Sahab Class 10 Question 14.
वे मुम्बई मे पटकथा लेखक के रूप मे ज्यादा देर तक कार्य क्यो नही कर पाये ?
(a) फ़िल्म निर्माताओ के निर्देश के अनुसार लिखने के कारण
(b) घर से दूर होने कारण
(c) रुचि न होने के कारण
(d) समय न होने के कारण

Answer

Answer: (a) फ़िल्म निर्माताओ के निर्देश के अनुसार लिखने के कारण


MCQs Of Bade Bhai Sahab Question 15.
प्रेम चन्द जी जीवन भर किस से जूझते रहे ?
(a) स्वयं से
(b) लोगो से
(c) फ़िल्म्कारो से
(d) आर्थिक तङ्गी से

Answer

Answer: (d) आर्थिक तङ्गी से


Question 16.
शाहेरूम की क्या दशा हुई?
(a) अहंकार के कारण उसे भीख माँगना पड़ा
(b) उसने पढ़ना बंद कर दिया
(c) वह परीक्षा में फेल हो गया
(d)इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) अहंकार के कारण उसे भीख माँगना पड़ा


Question 17.
लेखक को कौन-सा काम बहुत कठिन और असंभव जान पड़ता था?
(a) दिन-रात खेलना-कूदना
(b) दिन-रात पढ़ाई करना
(c) खाना बनाना
(d)उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) दिन-रात पढ़ाई करना


Question 18.
लेखक और उसके बड़े भाई कहाँ रहते थे?
(a) घर पर
(b) छात्रावास में
(c) गाँव में
(d)इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) छात्रावास में


Question 19.
बड़े भाई साहब ने छोटे भाई पर रौब जमाने के लिए किस बात की दुहाई दी?
(a) अपने पढ़ाई की
(b) अपने अनुभवों व आयु की
(c) चित्र बनाने के कला की
(d)इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) अपने अनुभवों व आयु की


Question 20.
जब कभी लेखक कहीं से आते थे तो बड़े भाई साहब उनसे क्या पूछते?
(a) कहाँ थे
(b) क्यों गए थे
(c) कितनी दूर गए थे
(d)उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) कहाँ थे


Question 21.
लेखक की हिम्मत कब टूट जाती?
(a) जब भाई साहब खेलने को कहते
(b) जब भाई साहब पढ़ने को कहते
(c) जब भाई साहब उन्हें डाँटते
(d)उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (c) जब भाई साहब उन्हें डाँटते


Question 22.
लेखक के लिए क्या लेकर बैठना पहाड़ के समान था?
(a) पढ़ने से बचने के कारण
(b) दिमाग को आराम देने के लिए
(c) खेल-कूद में लगाव के कारण
(d)उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) दिमाग को आराम देने के लिए


लेखक के लिए क्या लेकर बैठना पहाड़ के समान था?

Question 23.
बड़े भाई स्वभाव से क्या थे?
(a) खेलने-कूदने वाले
(b) आरामदायक जीवन जीने वाले
(c) अध्ययनशील
(d)जल्दबाज़ी करने वाले

Answer

Answer: (c) अध्ययनशील


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

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Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following minerals are not found in the toothpaste?
(a) Limestone
(b) Aluminium Oxide
(c) Fluoride
(d) Chlorides
Answer:
(d) Chtorides

Explanation: Abrasive minerals like silica, limestone, aluminium oxide and various phosphate minerals do the cleaning in toothpaste.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Where does the shine in toothpaste come from?
(a) Fluoride
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Titanium oxide
Answer:
(b) Mica

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following is a soft mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Iron
(c) Bauxite
(d) Talc
Answer:
(d) Talc

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
A ………….. is interested in the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical composition.
(a) Geographer
(b) Oceanology
(c) Geologist
(d) Environmentalist
Answer:
(c) Geologist

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Tin
(d) Mica
Answer:
(d) Mica

Explanation: Mica is a non-metallic mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Class 10 Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 6.
Which one of the following states is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is a feature of Mica?
(a) It is a rock mineral made up of a series of blocks.
(b) It is a milky and unclear non-metallic.
(c) It is used in the electric and electronic industry due to the excellent di-electric strength.
(d) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets.
Answer:

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Question 8.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Uranium and Thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Gariga Basin
(b) Gulf of Khambhat and Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan
Answer:
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan

Explanation: Uranium and Thorium are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is an offshore oil field?
(a) Ankleshwar
(b) Digboi
(c) Kalol
(d) Mumbai High
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 10.
Which one of the following non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Geothermal Energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Hydel Energy
Answer:
(a) Geothermal Energy

Explanation: To harness geothermal energy, two projects have been set up. One is located in the Parvati valley near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh and the other is located in the Puga Valley, Ladakh.

MCQ Minerals And Energy Resources Question 11.
Which of the following states have most of the petroleum deposits?
(a) Rajasthan and Kerala
(b) Assam and Gujarat
(c) Gujarat and Goa
(d) Odisha and Punjab
Answer:
(b) Assam and Gujarat

Explanation: Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.

Chapter 5 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The Kaiga Nuclear Energy Plant is located in which of the following states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Gondwana coal deposits are found in
(a) Krishna valley
(b) Damodar valley
(c) Brahmaputra delta
(d) Tapi valley
Answer:
(b) Damodar valley

Explanation: The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 14.
Which of the following parts or states do the Tertiary Coal deposits occur in?
(a) Coastal and Seaside states
(b) the Northern States
(c) North-eastern states
(d) Eastern states
Answer:
(c) North-eastern states

Which of the following parts or states do the Tertiary Coal deposits occur in?

Explanation: Tertiary coals occur in the north-eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
What are the large occurrences of minerals in cracks, crevices, faults in igneous and metamorphic rocks called?
(a) Layers
(b) Veins
(c) Lodes
(d) Chamber
Answer:
(c) Lodes

Explanation: In igneous and metamorphic . rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

Question 16.
Where are the Neyveli lignite mines located?
(a) Goa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.

Question 17.
Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous
Answer:
(a) Peat

Question 18.
Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum
Answer:
(d) Gypsum

Explanation: Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 19.
In which of the following states is Khetri Copper Mines located ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Question 20.
In which of the following state is the Narora Nuclear Power Plant located ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 21.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Most of India’s mineral reserves are found in
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Coastal region
(c) Peninsular rocks
(d) Plain region
Answer:
(c) Peninsular rocks

Explanation: Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals.

Question 22.
Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from ocean water?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Magnesium

Question 23.
In which of the following state is Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 24.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Kalol Oil Fields
(b) Bauxite Mines
(c) Chandrapur Thermal Power Plant
(d) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 25.
Identify the process:
(1) This type of mining is done in Jowai and Cherrapunji.
(2) Mining is carried out by family members in the form of a long narrow tunneL
(3) The National Green Tribunal has declared this activity illegal.
Answer:
Rat Hole Mining

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 26.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
(2) India has fairly abundant resources of this mineraL
(3) Magnetite is one type of this mineraL
Answer:

Question 27.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is a clay-like substance that alumina and later aluminium is obtained from.
(2) These deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
(3) They are found in Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The geological processes of mineral formation are so fast and rates of replenishment are quick in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
Answer:
True

The geological processes of mineral formation are slow and rates of replenishment are lesser in comparison to the present rates of consumption.

Question 29.
Aluminium splits easily into thin sheets.
Answer:
False
Mica splits easily into thin sheets.

Explanation: Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Question 30.
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks of most geological formations.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Every sector of the national economy except for agriculture needs inputs of energy.
Answer:

Question 32.
Hot springs in India could be used to generate petroleum.
Answer:
False

Hot springs in India could be used to generate electricity,

Explanation: Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot. Later, it rises to the earth’s surface and turns into steam. This steam is used to drive turbines and generate electricity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 33.
Gangetic delta in Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
Hydel energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
False

Geothermal energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.

Question 35.
India does not have enough reserves of sunlight, water, wind and biomass.
Answer:

Question 36.
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of urban households on firewood and dung cakes.
Answer:
False
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes.

Explanation: Rural households use dung cakes, firewood and other resources of energy which become harmful for nature upon overuse since they are dependent upon forests. Solar power plants help reduce this pressure.

Question 37.
Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 38.
Lignite is the highest grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 39.
Some minerals like limestone consist of a single mineral
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 40.
…………. Is well known for effective use of wind energy ¡n Rojasthan.
Answer:
Jaisalmer/Nagercoil

Question 41.
Coal and petroLeum are …………. sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable sources

Question 42.
Titanium oxide comes from minerals called Rutile, ilmenite and ……………………….
Answer:
Anatase

Question 43.
The toothbrush and tube containing the paste are made of plastics from ……………………
Answer:

Question 44.
……………… study minerals for o better understanding of Landforms.
Answer:

Question 45.
In …………. rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints
Answer:
Igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 46.
In ………………. there are large deposits of coat which are mined by the process of Rat Hole mining.
Answer:
Meghalaya

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 47.
……………………… ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used.
Answer:

Question 48.
Rajasthan has reserves of……………………….
Answer:
Non-ferrous minerals

Question 49.
Kudre of the Kudremukh ValLey in Kannada means
Answer:
Horse

Explanation: The highest peak of the Kudremukh ValLey in the western ghats of Karnotaka resembles the face of a horse.

Question 50.
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of …………….and ferro-manganese alloy.
Answer:
Steel

Question 51.
……………… was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016-17.
Answer:
Odisha

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 52.
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into………………….
Answer:
Electricity

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 53.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite (I) KrishnaGodavari basin
(B) Natural energy (II) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Petroleum (III) Panchpotmali deposits
(D) Electricity (IV) Ankleshwar

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite (III) Panchpotmali deposits
(B) Natural energy (I) Krishna-Godavari basin
(C) Petroleum (IV) Ankleshwar
(D) Electricity (II) Damodar Valley Corporation

Question 54.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas (I) Monozite Sands
(B) Tidal Energy (II) Rural areas of the country
(C) Atomic Energy (III) Nagercoil
(D) Wind power (IV) Nagercoil

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources) Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas (II) Rural areas of the country
(B) Tidal Energy (IV) Nagercoil
(C) Atomic Energy (I) Monozite Sands
(D) Wind power (III) Nagercoil

Question 55.
Match the items In Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Belt) Column B (areas)
(A) Odisha-Jharkhand belt (I) Karnatako
(B) Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt (II) Ratnagiri
(C) Bailan-Chitradurga-Chikkomagoluru-Tumakuru belt (III) Mayurbhanj
(D) Maharashtra-Goa belt (IV) Chhattisgarh

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 56.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Source) Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley (I) Natural Gas
(B) Balaghat mines (II) Iron Ore
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy (III) Geothermal
(D) Parvati Valley (IV) Copper

Answer:

Column A (Source) Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley (II) Iron Ore
(B) Balaghat mines (IV) Copper
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy (I) Natural Gas
(D) Parvati Valley (III) Geothermal

Question 57.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (Resource)

Column B (Category)

(A) Potash (I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(B) Tin (II) Energy Resource
(C) Manganese (III) Non-metallic Mineral
(D) Coal (IV) Metallic Mineral

Answer:

Column A (Resource)

Column B (Category)

(A) Potash (III) Non-metallic Mineral
(B) Tin (I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(C) Manganese (IV) Metallic Mineral
(D) Coal (II) Energy Resource

Question 58.
Match the items of Column A to that of Column B. Choose the correct option.

Column A

Column B

(A) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines (I) Maharashtra
(B) Chandrapura Thermal Power Plant (II) Odisha
(C) Bauxite Mines (III) Gujarat
(D) Kolot Oil Fields (IV) Amarkantok Plateau

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(IIl), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 5

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given betow
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 59.
Assertion (A): The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.
Reason (R): Cost of extraction is determined by the type of formation or structure which mineral ores may be mined.
Answer:

Question 60.
Assertion (A): Biogas is the most efficient use of cattle dung.
Reason (R): It reduces the quality of manure.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: It improves the quality of manure.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 61.
Assertion (A): Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Reason (R): It is necessary to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Question 62.
Assertion (A): Oceanic tides cannot be used to generate electricity.
Reason (R): Tidal energy can be used to run turbines and thereafter generate electricity.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built across inlets. During high tide, water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed. After the tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea via a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine.

Question 63.
Assertion (A): Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
Reason (R): Geothermal energy exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. This heat warms the water.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 64.
Assertion (A): Energy saved is energy produced.
Reason (R): Judicious use of our limited energy resources helps in the development of future generations.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc are obtained from veins and lodes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following minerals are found in veins and lodes?
(a) Copper
(b) Limestone
(c) Zinc
(d) Lead
Answer:
(b) Limestone

Which of the following minerals are found in veins and lodes?

(B) Which of the following forms do the igneous and metamorphic minerals occur in?
(a) Beds
(b) Cracks
(c) Lodes
(d) Faults
Answer:
(a) Beds
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks occur in beds or layers.

(C) Which of the following statements are not true for Igneous and Metamorphic rocks?
(a) Igneous rocks are found in joints of rocks.
(b) They are found in their solidified forms.
(c) They are pushed out of earth in their liquid/molten and gaseous forms.
(d) They are formed as a result into deposition.
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
Lodes are occurrences.
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Huge
(d) Negligible
Answer:
(b) Larger
Explanation: The smaller occurrences of minerals are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed. Broadly speaking, peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula. have
most of the petroleum deposits. Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The vast alluvial plains of north India are almost devoid of economic minerals.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is not a metallic mineral?
(a) Mica
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Answer:

(B) Which of the following states in India have the largest petroleum reserves?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements stand true with respect to the geographical distribution of minerals?
(a) These variations exist because of the differences in the economic condition of the area.
(b) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.
(c) These variations exist because of differences in temperature ranges of dag and night.
(d) These variations exist because of different population density.
Answer:
(c) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.

(D) Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Bauxite

Explanation: Alumina and aluminium is obtained from bauxite. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The total volume of workable mineral deposits is an insignificant fraction i.e. one per cent of the earth’s crust. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite and non-renewable. Rich mineral deposits are our country’s extremely valuable but short-lived possessions. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to continuous extraction of ores?
(a) Continuous extraction of resources is good.
(b) Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing profits.
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.
(d) Continued extraction of ores causes better quality products to be brought up.
Answer:
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.

Explanation: Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

(B) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to mineral formation?
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.
(b) Rate of replenishment is faster when compared to rate of usage.
(c) Rate of replenishment is equal to rate of usage.
(d) Rate of replenishment is not dependent on the rate of usage.
Answer:
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.

(C) Which of the following resources are finite?
(I) Freshwater
(II) Coal
(III) Petroleum
(IV) Wind Energy
(V) Tidal energy
(VI) Sunlight
(a) (I) & (VI)
(b) (I), (II) & (III)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(b)(I), (II) & (III)

(D) Resources which can not be replenished easily are considered:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources
(c) Replenishable Resources
(d) Infinite resources
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, Lustre and density found ¡n minerals?
Answer:
Formation of a particular mineral, depends upon a combination of elements which in turn depends upon the physical and chemical conditions during formation.

Related Theory:
Geologists classify minerals based on the formation of the minerals, their age and their physical and chemical composition.

Question 2.
How is iron-ore transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangalore?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 3.
Why are minerals important for us ?
Answer:
Everything we use, from a safety pin to a building to an aeroplane is made up of minerals. Any life processes cannot occur without minerals.

Question 4.
How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Answer:

Question 5.
Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Suggest any one way to popularize its maximum use.
Answer:
By encouraging the use of resources/use of rooftop solar panels/solar street lighting systems.

Question 6.
A concerted effort has to be made for sustainable development. Suggest any one step in conserving our mineral resources for the future.
Answer:
Improved technologies and recycling of metals can help in conserving our resources.

Question 7.
Which type of minerals are mainly obtained from veins and lodes?
Answer:
Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 8.
Why is energy needed ? Write one reason.
Answer:
Energy is required for all kinds of activities like cooking, lighting and heating, propelling vehicles and enabling smooth working of machinery in industries.

Question 9.
Differentiate between veins and lodes.
Answer:
The smaller occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called veins. The larger occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called lodes.

Related Theory
In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface.

Question 10.
What are the two types of occurrences of minerals in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks in these forms:
(1) The smaller occurrence called veins.
(2) The larger occurrence called lodes.

Question 11.
What is minerals?
Answer:

Question 12.
Why does aluminium metal have great importance?
Answer:
Aluminium is capable of combining the strength of metals such as iron with qualities like extreme lightness and with good conductivity and great malleability.

Question 13.
Which mineral is used to harden steel during its manufacturing?
Answer:
Manganese is used to harden steel during its manufacturing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 14.
Suggest any one to enhance the use of natural gas in India.
Answer:
Using natural gas for cooking is one way to enhance the use of natural gas in India.

Question 15.
Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?
Answer:

Question 16.
How are Gobar Gas Plants beneficial to the farmers?
Answer:
The residue from Gobar Gas Plants is known to be extremely beneficial for the strength and productivity of soil which benefits the farmers.

Question 17.
Name four bauxite-producing states.
Answer:
Bauxite producing states are:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Orissa
  3. Gujarat
  4. Maharashtra.

Question 18.
Name three states which are known for the production of mica.
Answer:
Mica producing states are:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Bihar
  3. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 19.
What are commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The commercial sources of energy are: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Hydro-electricity and Nuclear energy.

Question 20.
What are conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The conventional sources of energy are Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas and Electricity.

Question 21.
Name six non-commercial sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 22.
Name three most important coal producing states of India.
Answer:
Three important coal producing states are

  1. Jharkhand,
  2. Orissa
  3. West Bengal.

Question 23.
Mention three areas where petroleum is found in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Mumbai High and Assam are three areas of petroleum.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Question 24.
What is Anthracite?
Answer:
Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.

Question 25.
List four non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:

Question 26.
Suggest two ways of conserving minerals.
Answer:
Recycling of metals and discovering new substitutes for metals are ways of conserving minerals.

Question 27.
Name two non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Mica and marble are non-metallic minerals.

Question 28.
How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger ones are called lodes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 1 The French Revolution with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 1 The French Revolution with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 1 The French Revolution with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided The French Revolution Class 9 History MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also visit the most accurate and elaborate NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1. Every question of the textbook has been answered here. https://ncertmcq.com/ncert-solutions-for-class-9-social-science-history-chapter-1/

The French Revolution Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

French Revolution Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Who said: The task of representing the people has been given to the rich?
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Jean-Paul Marat
(c) Rousseau
(d) Georges Denton

Answer

Answer: (b) Jean-Paul Marat


The French Revolution Class 9 MCQ Question 2.
The National Assembly framed a Constitution in 1791 to limit the powers of the
(a) monarch
(b) wealthy man
(c) businessmen
(d) press

Answer

Answer: (a) monarch


Class 9 History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Who wrote an influential pamphlet What is the third Estate’?
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Abbe Sieyes
(c) Jean-Paul Marat
(d) Olympe de Gouges.

Answer

Answer: (b) Abbe Sieyes


Class 9 History Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
Which group of people did not join the Jacobin club?
(a) Artisans
(b) Shopkeepers
(c) Daily-wage workers
(d) Men with property

Answer

Answer: (d) Men with property


French Revolution MCQ Question 5.
French women demanded the right:
(a) to vote
(b) to be elected to the assembly
(c) to hold political office
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


The French Revolution Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
A triangular slave trade took place between Europe, the Americas and:
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Africa


The French Revolution MCQ Question 7.
Upon becoming free, the slave wore:
(a) blue cap
(b) white cap
(c) red cap
(d) green cap

Answer

Answer: (c) red cap


Upon becoming free, the slave wore:

Class 9 French Revolution MCQ Question 8.
Who were not considered ‘passive citizens’?
(a) Women
(b) children
(c) Non-propertied men
(d) wealthy people

Answer

Answer: (d) wealthy people


History Class 9 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 9.
The Third Estate comprised
(a) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers
(b) Peasants and artisan
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc.
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


History Chapter 1 Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention
(a) Declared France a constitutional monarchy
(b) Abolished the monarchy
(c) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote
(d) Declared France a Republic

Answer

Answer: (d) Declared France a Republic


Ch 1 History Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?
(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains
(b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


MCQ Of French Revolution Class 9 Question 12.
Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate
(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only
(b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands
(d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads

Answer

Answer: (a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only


Class 9 History Ch 1 MCQ Question 13.
A guillotine was ____________________
(a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
(b) A fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) A special noose to hang people
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded


French Revolution Class 9 MCQ Pdf With Answers Question 14.
The word livres stands for:
(a) unit of currency in France
(b) tax levied by the Church
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) unit of currency in France


History Ch 1 Class 9 MCQ Question 15.
What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?
(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood
(b) Subsidy in food grains
(c) Large-scale production of food grains
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood


Question 16.
What was ‘Estates General’?
(a) Post of Army General
(b) A political body
(c) Head of all landed property
(d) Advisor of the king

Answer

Answer: (b) A political body


Question 17.
The term ‘Old Regime’ is usually used to describe
(a) France before 1000 B.C.
(b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D.
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D.


Question 18.
Which of these books was written by John Locke?
(a) The Spirit of the Laws
(b) Two Treatises on Government
(c) The Social Contract
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Two Treatises on Government


Question 19.
In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded that
(a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether
(c) Each Estate should have one vote
(b) Each member of the three Estates should have one vote
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether


Question 20.
Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
(a) Mirabeau
(b) Abbe Sieyes
(c) Louis XVI
(d) Both a and b

Answer

Answer: (d) Both a and b


Question 21.
Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4 August, 1789?
(a) Abolition of feudal system of obligations
(b) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(c) Tithes were abolished
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 22.
According to the new constitution of 1791, the National Assembly was to be
(a) Elected directly
(b) appointed by the king
(c) elected indirectly
(d) a hereditary body

Answer

Answer: (c) elected indirectly


Question 23.
Which of these rights were not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights by the constitution of 1791?
(a) Right to life
(b) Freedom of speech and opinion
(c) Equality before the law
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Which of these rights were not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights by the constitution of 1791?

Look at the following symbols. What did they stand for?

Answer

Answer:

  1. The broken chain – It stands for the act of becoming free.
  2. The bundle of rods or fasces – stands for unity.
  3. The eye within a triangular radiating light – The eye stands for knowledge and the rays of the sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance.
  4. Sceptre – stands of royal power.
  5. Snake biting its tail to form a ring – stands for eternity.
  6. The red Phrygian cap – stands for freedom.
  7. Blue-White-Red – stand for national colours of France.
  8. The winged woman – stands for personification of the law.
  9. The law tablet – conveys that the law is the same for all and all are equal before it.

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 1 The French Revolution with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The French Revolution CBSE Class 9 History MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Industries Class 8 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-social-science-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography to get good marks in CBSE Board Exams. These Solutions are prepared by the subject experts based on CBSE Guidelines.

Industries Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is a secondary activity?
(a) Coal mining industry
(b) Tourism industry
(c) Fishing
(d) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (b) Tourism industry


Industries Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
Change of raw materials into products of more value to people is called
(a) manufacturing
(b) resources
(c) population
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) manufacturing


Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 3.
Which is not the agro-based industry?
(a) Oil
(b) Textile
(c) Sugar
(d) Food Processing

Answer

Answer: (a) Oil


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Question 4.
Marine-based industries are based on
(a) minerals
(b) forest products
(c) agricultural products
(d) oceanic products

Answer

Answer: (d) oceanic products


Class 8 Industries MCQ Question 5.
Fish is a product of the
(a) mineral-based industries
(b) agro-based industries
(c) marine-based industries
(d) forest-based industries

Answer

Answer: (c) marine-based industries


Industries MCQ Class 8 Question 6.
Basket weaving falls in the category of
(a) small-scale industry
(b) cottage industry
(c) large-scale industry
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) cottage industry


MCQ Of Industries Class 8 Question 7.
Which of the following is a private sector industry?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(b) Tata Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Steel Authority of India
(d) National Thermal Power Corporation

Answer

Answer: (b) Tata Iron and Steel Industry


Class 8 Chapter 5 Geography MCQ Question 8.
Why are state owned industries called public sector industries?
(a) Because they are established, run and maintained by private people.
(b) Because they are established, run and maintained by the government
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Because they are established, run and maintained by the government


Class 8 Geo Ch 5 MCQ Question 9.
Which factors affect the location of industry?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Which factors affect the location of industry?

Class 8 Geography Ch 5 MCQ Question 10.
Industrialisation often leads to:
(a) Poverty
(b) Population
(c) Development
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Development


Geography Class 8 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 11.
What does an industrial system consists of?
(a) Inputs
(b) Processes
(c) Output
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 12.
Majot industrial regions are located near:
(a) Deserts
(b) Sea Ports
(c) Glaciers
(d) Mountains

Answer

Answer: (b) Sea Ports


Chapter 5 Geography Class 8 MCQ Question 13.
Which metal is often called the backbone of modern industry?
(a) Steel
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium

Answer

Answer: (a) Steel


Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers MCQ Question 14.
The earlier name of Jamshedpur was:
(a) Sakshi
(b) Sakchi
(c) Subarnarekha
(d) Kharkai

Answer

Answer: (b) Sakchi


Class 8 Sst Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 15.
Which among the following is the largest lake?
(a) Huran
(b) Superior
(c) Ontario
(d) Michigan

Answer

Answer: (b) Superior


Question 16.
Which is not the quality of clothes?
(a) Muslin
(b) Chintzes
(c) Calicos
(d) Osaka

Answer

Answer: (d) Osaka


Question 17.
ITI is the full form of –
(a) Indian Training Institute
(b) Institute of Technology of India
(c) Indian Telephone Industry
(d) Industrial Technology Institute

Answer

Answer: (c) Indian Telephone Industry


ITI is the full form of -

Match the following:

Column A Column B
(i) Private Sector Industries (a) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(ii) Public Sector Industries (b) Anand Milk Union Ltd.
(iii) Joint Sector Industries (c) Basket-weaving
(iv) Co-operative Sector Industries (d) Tata Iron and Steel Industry
(v) Cottage Industries (e) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Private Sector Industries (d) Tata Iron and Steel Industry
(ii) Public Sector Industries (e) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.
(iii) Joint Sector Industries (a) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(iv) Co-operative Sector Industries (b) Anand Milk Union Ltd.
(v) Cottage Industries (c) Basket-weaving

State whether true or false:

1. Mineral-based industries use products from seas and oceans as raw materials.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Manufacturing is a tertiary activity.

Answer

Answer: False


3. National Highway Authority is a Joint Sector Industry.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Industrialistion has led to the growth of towns and cities.

Answer

Answer: True


5. First cotton textile mill was established in 1857.

Answer

Answer: False


6. Paper industry is the example of agro-industry.

Answer

Answer: True


7. Handloom textile industry is a labour-intensive industry.

Answer

Answer: True


Fill in the blanks:

1. …………… is an example of co-operative sector industry.

Answer

Answer: Anand Milk Union Ltd.


2. First cotton textile mill was established in ………………. in 1854.

Answer

Answer: Mumbai


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Industries CBSE Class 8 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Circles Class 10 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Circles Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Circles Class 9 MCQ Chapter 10 Question 1.
The radius of a circle is 13 cm and the length of one of its chords is 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre is
(a) 11.5 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) \(\sqrt{69}\) cm
(d) 23 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 cm


MCQ On Circles Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 2.
A chord is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 17 cm. The length of the chord is
(a) 25 cm
(b) 12.5 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 9 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 cm


Circles MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 3.
In the given figure, BOC is a diameter of a circle and AB = AC. Then, ∠ABC =
Circles MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (b) 45°


Circle Class 9 MCQ Chapter 10 Question 4.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If ∠OAB = 40° and C is a point on the circle, then ∠ACB =
Circle Class 9 MCQ Chapter 10
(a) 40°
(b) 50°
(c) 80°
(d) 100°

Answer

Answer: (b) 50°


Class 9 Circles MCQ Chapter 10 Question 5.
AB and CD are two equal chords of a circle with centre O such that ∠AOB = 80°, then ∠COD =
Class 9 Circles MCQ Chapter 10
(a) 100°
(b) 80°
(c) 120°
(d) 40°

Answer

Answer: (b) 80°


Circle MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 6.
In the given figure, BOC is a diameter of a circle with centre O. If AB and CD are two chords such that AB || CD and AB = 10 cm, then CD =
Circle MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10
(a) 5 cm
(b) 12.5 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 10 cm

Answer

Answer: (d) 10 cm


Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ Question 7.
In the given figure, AB is a chord of a circle with centre O and AB is produced to C such that BC = OB. Also, CO is joined and produced to meet the circle in D. If ∠ACD = 25°, then ∠AOD =
Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ
(a) 50°
(b) 75°
(c) 90°
(d) 100°

Answer

Answer: (b) 75°


MCQ Questions On Circles For Class 9 Question 8.
In the given figure, AB is a chord of a circle with centre O and BOC is a diameter. If OD ⊥ AB such that OD = 6 cm, then AC =
MCQ Questions On Circles For Class 9
(a) 9 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 7.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 cm


Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
An equilateral triangle of side 9 cm is inscribed a circle. The radius of the circle is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 3√2 cm
(c) 3√3 cm
(d) 6 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 3√3 cm


An equilateral triangle of side 9 cm is inscribed a circle. The radius of the circle is

MCQ Of Circles Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 10.
In the given figure, ΔABC and ΔDBC are inscribed in a circle such that ∠BAC = 60° and ∠DBC = 50°. then, ∠BCD =
MCQ Of Circles Class 9 Chapter 10
(a) 50°
(b) 60°
(c) 70°
(d) 80°

Answer

Answer: (c) 70°


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths With Answers Pdf Question 11.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If ∠AOB = =100° and ∠AOC = 90°, then ∠BAC =
MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths With Answers Pdf
(a) 85°
(b) 80°
(c) 90°
(d) 75°

Answer

Answer: (a) 85°


Class 9 Chapter 10 MCQ Question 12.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠AOC = 120°. Then, ∠BDC =
Class 9 Chapter 10 MCQ
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 15°

Answer

Answer: (c) 30°


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Question 13.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle in which ∠OAB = 20° and ∠OCB = 50°. Then, ∠AOC =
MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths Chapter 10
(a) 50°
(b) 70°
(c) 20°
(d) 60°

Answer

Answer: (d) 60°


Circles Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 14.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle in which ∠AOC = 100° side AB of quadrilateral OABC has been produced to D. Then, ∠CBD =
Circles Class 9 MCQ Online Test
(а) 50°
(b) 40°
(c) 25°
(d) 80°

Answer

Answer: (а) 50°


Class 9 Maths Ch 10 MCQ Question 15.
In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠OAB = 50°. Then, ∠BOD =
Class 9 Maths Ch 10 MCQ
(а) 130°
(b) 50°
(c) 100°
(d) 80°

Answer

Answer: (c) 100°


Circles Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 16.
In the given figure, ABCD is the cyclic quadrilateral in which BC = CD and ∠CBD = 35°. Then, ∠BAD =
Circles Class 9 MCQ With Answers
(а) 65°
(b) 70°
(c) 110°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (b) 70°


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths With Answers Question 17.
In figure, ΔABC is an equilateral triangle and ABDC is a quadrilateral then ∠BDC =
MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths With Answers
(а) 90°
(b) 60°
(c) 120°
(d) 150°

Answer

Answer: (c) 120°


In figure, ΔABC is an equilateral triangle and ABDC is a quadrilateral then ∠BDC =

Class 9 Maths Circles MCQ Question 18.
In figure, sides AB and AD of a quadrilateral ABCD are produced to E and F respectively. If ∠CBE = 100°, then find ∠CDF.
Class 9 Maths Circles MCQ
(a) 100°
(b) 80°
(c) 130°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: (b) 80°


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths Ncert Chapter 10 Question 19.
In figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠AOB = 140°, then ∠ACB =
MCQ Questions For Class 9 Maths Ncert Chapter 10
(a) 70°
(b) 80°
(c) 110°
(d) 40°

Answer

Answer: (c) 110°


Ch 10 Maths Class 9 MCQ Question 20.
In figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠AOB = 130°, then ∠ACB =
Ch 10 Maths Class 9 MCQ
(a) 50°
(b) 65°
(c) 115°
(d) 155°

Answer

Answer: (c) 115°


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Circles with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Circles CBSE Class 9 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Electoral Politics Class 9 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
How many seats are reserved in the Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 47
(b) 60
(c) 84
(d) 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 84


Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Our country is divided into
(a) 500 constituencies
(b) 543 constituencies
(c) 550 constituencies
(d) 552 constituencies

Answer

Answer: (b) 543 constituencies


Class 9 Electoral Politics MCQ Question 3.
The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Uttar Pradesh is
(a) 80
(b) 82
(c) 84
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (c) 84


Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Delhi is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (d) 7


MCQ Of Electoral Politics Class 9 Question 5.
The minimum age required for being a voter is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 15 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 18 years


MCQ On Electoral Politics Class 9 Question 6.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India
(d) The Law Minister of India

Answer

Answer: (c) The President of India


Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQ Pdf Question 7.
Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(b) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(c) Ajit Singh
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal


Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?

MCQ Of Civics Class 9 Chapter 3 Electoral Politics Question 8.
Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict

Answer

Answer: (d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict


Class 9 Civics Electoral Politics MCQ Question 9.
What is meant by the term ‘constituency’?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha


Electoral Politics MCQ Class 9 Question 10.
In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(c) Vidhan Parishad
(d) Only Lok Sabha

Answer

Answer: (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha


Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 11.
What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election
(b) Mid-term election
(c) General election
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By-election


Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQs Question 12.
Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council
(d) Panchayats and municipal bodies

Answer

Answer: (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies


Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQ Quiz Question 13.
Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats
(b) Municipalities
(c) Corporations
(d) Lok Sabha

Answer

Answer: (d) Lok Sabha


MCQ Of Chapter Electoral Politics Class 9 Question 14.
for voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card
(b) Driving license
(c) Election Photo Identity Card
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Election Photo Identity Card


Class 9th Electoral Politics MCQ Question 15.
What is the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 16.
Name the body which conducts the elections in India
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Cabinet
(d) Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (d) Election Commission


Question 17.
When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?
(a) Central Government
(b) Election Commission
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Court

Answer

Answer: (b) Election Commission


Question 18.
What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office
(b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) The current holder of a political office


Question 19.
The Election Commission is:
(a) An elected body
(b) An appointed body
(c) An independent body
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) An appointed body


Question 20.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list

Answer

Answer: (a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election


Question 21.
What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 25 years


What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?

Question 22.
Voter’s List is also known as:
(a) Election Number
(b) Voter Identity Card
(c) Electoral Roll
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Electoral Roll


Question 23.
Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Answer

Answer: (c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only


Question 24.
Reserved Constituencies ensures
(a) Right to equality
(b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society


Question 25.
Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) Pt. Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi


Question 26.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India
(d) The people of India

Answer

Answer: (c) The President of India


Question 27.
The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59
(b) 79
(c) 84
(d) 99

Answer

Answer: (c) 84


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Electoral Politics CBSE Class 9 Civics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Food Security in India Class 9 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Food Security in India Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Food Security In India Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
When was Antyodaya Anna Yojana launched?
(a) 1990
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
(d) 2000

Answer

Answer: (d) 2000


Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Antyodaya cards are given to the
(a) poor
(b) poorest of the poor
(c) those below poverty line
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) poorest of the poor


Food Security In India MCQ Question 3.
The two states that recorded significant increases in rice yield in 2012-13 are
(a) Assam and Tamil Nadu
(b) Jharkhand and Odisha
(c) West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (c) West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh


The two states that recorded significant increases in rice yield in 2012-13 are

Food Security Means MCQ Question 4.
Season hunger is prevalent in
(a) rural areas
(b) urban areas
(c) both rural and urban areas
(d) metro cities

Answer

Answer: (c) both rural and urban areas


MCQ On Food Security In India Question 5.
The success of wheat was replicated in
(a) pulses
(b) cotton
(c) rice
(d) bajra

Answer

Answer: (c) rice


Food Security In India Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
The most devastating famine occurred in Bengal in
(a) 1938
(b) 1940
(c) 1942
(d) 1943

Answer

Answer: (d) 1943


Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 7.
Fair price shops sell
(a) sugar
(b) kerosene oil
(c) wheat
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Sst With Answers Question 8.
Which state is associated with AMUL?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala

Answer

Answer: (b) Gujarat


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Social Science With Answers Pdf Download Question 9.
A large number of food insecure children are under the age of
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 5


Social Science MCQ Class 9 Question 10.
The Minimum Support price in declared by the Government every
(a) year
(b) four years
(c) five years
(d) ten years

Answer

Answer: (a) year


Question 11.
The most affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are:
(a) landless people
(b) traditional artisans
(c) beggars
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 12.
Green Revolution of 1960s was associated with:
(a) use of HYV seeds
(b) tree plantation programme
(c) fisheries development
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) use of HYV seeds


Question 13.
Revamped Public Distribution System provides benefits to:
(a) cities
(b) remote and backward areas
(c) self-help groups
(d) cooperative societies

Answer

Answer: (b) remote and backward areas


Question 14.
Annapurna Scheme fulfills the food requirements of:
(a) indigent senior citizens
(b) children
(c) pregnant ladies
(d) young persons

Answer

Answer: (a) indigent senior citizens


Question 15.
Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with :
(a) Public distribution system
(b) mid-day meal
(c) special nutrition programme
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Public distribution system


Question 16.
In which state more than 90% ration shops are run by cooperatives
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa
(d) Bihar

Answer

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu


Question 17.
NREGA provides:
(a) 200-days of assured work
(b) 100-days of assured work
(c) No assured work
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 100-days of assured work


Question 18.
Seasonal hunger mostly found in:
(a) urban areas
(b) rural areas
(c) metro cities
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) rural areas


Question 19.
Main purpose of buffer stock is :
(a) to save food grains from pest attack
(b) to stop price fluctuations
(c) to meet the crisis of low production
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (b) and (c)


Question 20.
What is Food security means:
(a) availability of food
(b) accessibility of food
(c) affordability of food
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 21.
Chronic hunger refers to :
(a) low income
(b) inadequate quantity of food
(c) inadequate quality of food
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 22.
In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?
(a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa
(b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat
(c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamilnadu
(d) Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka

Answer

Answer: (a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa


In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?

Question 23.
Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (b) Indira Gandhi


Question 24.
To whom the yellow card is issued?
(a) To shop keeper
(b) To land lord’s
(c) To government employee
(d) People below the poverty line

Answer

Answer: (d) People below the poverty line


Question 25.
Food for Work Programme was launched in which of the following years?
(a) 2003
(b) 2001
(c) 2004
(d) 2005

Answer

Answer: (c) 2004


Question 26.
The Mother Dairy is an important cooperative in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Delhi

Answer

Answer: (d) Delhi


Question 27.
F.C.I. stands for
(a) Foreign Co-operation with India
(b) Food Corporation of India
(c) Fossils Corporation of India
(d) Food Coming to India

Answer

Answer: (b) Food Corporation of India


Question 28.
Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of Delhi:
(a) Amul
(b) Kendriya Bhandar
(c) Mother Dairy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Mother Dairy


Question 29.
Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through
(a) IFCI
(b) FCI
(c) IDBI
(d) FICCI

Answer

Answer: (b) FCI


Question 30.
When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?
(a) In Jan 1999
(b) In May 2000
(c) In Dec 2000
(d) In October 2005

Answer

Answer: (c) In Dec 2000


Give full Forms of the following abbreviations

  1. FCI
  2. PDS
  3. ICDS
  4. NSSO
  5. FFW
  6. NHFS
  7. MSP
  8. APL
  9. BPL
  10. ADS
Answer

Answer:

  1. FCI : Food Corporation of India
  2. PDS : Public Distribution system
  3. ICDS : Integrated Children Development Services
  4. NSSO : National Sample Survey Office
  5. FFW : Food-For-Work
  6. NHFS : National Health and Family Survey
  7. MSP : Minimum Support Price
  8. APL : Above Poverty Line
  9. BPL : Below Poverty Line
  10. ADS : Academy of Development Science

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Food Security in India CBSE Class 9 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 रहीम की दोहे with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 रहीम की दोहे with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 11 रहीम की दोहे with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided रहीम की दोहे Class 7 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

रहीम की दोहे Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Rahim Ke Dohe MCQ Class 7 Question 1.
‘रहीम के दोहे’ का मुख्य अभिप्राय है
(a) ईश्वर की भक्ति
(b) नीति की बातें
(c) वीरता का वर्णन
(d) ईमानदारी की बातें

Answer

Answer: (b) नीति की बातें


Rahim Ke Dohe Class 7 MCQ Question 2.
‘संपति सगे’ में किस अलंकार का प्रयोग हुआ है?
(a) श्लेष
(b) अनुप्रास
(c) पुनरुक्ति
(d) यमक

Answer

Answer: (b) अनुप्रास


Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 3.
साँचा मीत किसे कहा गया है?
(a) विपत्ति की कसौटी पर खरा उतरनेवाला
(b) सच बोलनेवाला
(c) संपत्ति हड़पनेवाला
(d) मिलनेवाला

Answer

Answer: (a) विपत्ति की कसौटी पर खरा उतरनेवाला


साँचा मीत किसे कहा गया है?

Class 7 Hindi Ch 11 MCQ Question 4.
जाल पड़ने पर पानी क्यों बह जाता है?
(a) आगे जाने के लिए
(b) मछलियों का साथ निभाने के लिए
(c) मछलियों से दूरी बनाने के लिए
(d) मछलियों से सच्चा प्रेम न करने के लिए

Answer

Answer: (d) मछलियों से सच्चा प्रेम न करने के लिए


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 Question 5.
क्या जल मछली से प्रेम करता है?
(a) हाँ
(b) नहीं
(c) पता नहीं
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) नहीं


Ncert Class 7 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 6.
पेड़ अपना फल स्वयं क्यों नहीं खाते हैं।
(a) क्योंकि उसे फल पसंद नहीं हैं
(b) क्योंकि वह खाना नहीं चाहते
(c) क्योंकि वे परोपकारी होते हैं
(d) क्योंकि वे फल नहीं खाते

Answer

Answer: (c) क्योंकि वे परोपकारी होते हैं


Rahim Ke Dohe MCQs Class 7 Question 7.
सज्जन संपत्ति क्यों जमा करते हैं?
(a) बुढ़ापे के लिए
(b) धनवान बनने के लिए
(c) दूसरों की मदद के लिए
(d) अपने बाल-बच्चों के लिए

Answer

Answer: (c) दूसरों की मदद के लिए


(1)

धरती की-सी रीत है, सीत घाम औ मेह।
जैसे परे सो सहि रहे, त्यों रहीम यह देह ।।

रहीम के दोहे MCQ Class 7 Question 1.
इस दोहे से हमें क्या शिक्षा मिलती है?
(a) परोपकार की
(b) धन जोड़ने की
(c) फल खाने की
(d) पानी पीने की

Answer

Answer: (a) परोपकार की


Rahim Ke Dohe MCQ Class 7 Question 2.
बादलों की तुलना किससे की गई है?
(a) अमीरों से
(b) गरीबों से
(c) दरिद्रों से
(d) राजा-महाराजाओं से

Answer

Answer: (a) अमीरों से


Class 7th Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 3.
सरोवर क्या ग्रहण नहीं करते?
(a) सुगंधित पदार्थ
(b) हवा
(c) जल
(d) पूजा की सामग्री

Answer

Answer: (c) जल


Hindi Class 7 Chapter 11 MCQ Question 4.
सज्जन पुरुषों को संपत्ति का संग्रह किसलिए करना चाहिए?
(a) अपने बाल बच्चों
(b) अपने बुढ़ापे के लिए
(c) दूसरों की मदद के लिए
(d) अमीरी का रोब जमाने के लिए

Answer

Answer: (c) दूसरों की मदद के लिए


Class 7 Hindi Rahim Ke Dohe MCQ Question 5.
‘थोथे चादर’ में रेखांकित शब्द क्या है?
(a) संज्ञा
(b) सर्वनाम
(c) विशेषण
(d) क्रिया

Answer

Answer: (c) विशेषण


Question 6.
धनी पुरुष गरीब होने पर क्या करते हैं?
(a) पछतावा
(b) अमीरों की बातें
(c) दूसरों का मज़ाक उड़ाना
(d) दूसरों से मुँह छिपाना

Answer

Answer: (b) अमीरों की बातें


धनी पुरुष गरीब होने पर क्या करते हैं?

(2)

कहि रहीम संपति सगे, बनन बहुत बहु रीत।
विपति कसौटी जे कसै, तेई साँचे मीत ॥
जाल परे जल जात बहि, तजि मीनन को मोह।
रहिमन मछरी नीर को, तऊ न छाँड़ति छोह ॥

Question 1.
संपत्ति अधिक होने पर क्या होता है?

Answer

Answer: संपत्ति अधिक होने पर लोग रिश्ते-नाते बनाने के लिए अनेक तरीके निकाल लेते हैं।


Question 2.
सच्चा साथी कौन होता है?

Answer

Answer: सच्चा साथी वह होता है जो विपत्ति की कसौटी पर खरा उतरता है यानी संकट के समय काम आता है।


Question 3.
सच्चे मित्र की क्या विशेषता होती है?

Answer

Answer: सच्चा मित्र सदैव मार्गदर्शक होता है, सच बोलता है, प्रत्येक कार्य में सहयोगी होता और संकट के समय मित्र का साथ नहीं छोड़ता।


Question 4.
मछली जाल में कब फँसती है ?

Answer

Answer: मछली जाल में तब फँसती है जब मछुआरा पानी में जाल डालता है।


Question 5.
जाल के पानी के बह जाने पर मछली क्या करती है?

Answer

Answer: जाल का पानी बह जाने पर मछली अपना प्राण त्याग देती है।


Question 6.
रीत’ और ‘छोह’ शब्दों का क्या अर्थ होता है?

Answer

Answer: रीत का अर्थ होता है- रिवाज, तरीका विधि और छोह का अर्थ होता है- प्रेम।


(3)

तरुवर फल नहिं खात है, सरवर पियत न पान।
कहि रहीम परकाज हित, संपत्ति-सचहिं सुजान ।
थोथे बादर क्वार के, ज्यों रहीम घहरात ।
धनी पुरुष निर्धन भए, करें पाछिली बात॥

Question 1.
पेड़ और तालाब क्या ग्रहण नहीं करते?

Answer

Answer: पेड़ और तालाब अपने द्वारा संचित वस्तु का स्वयं उपयोग नहीं करते। पेड़ न तो अपना फल खाता है और तालाब न तो कभी अपना जल पीता है।


Question 2.
सज्जन पुरुषों को संपत्ति का संग्रह किसलिए करना चाहिए?

Answer

Answer: सज्जन तथा विद्वान संपत्ति का संचय दूसरों की भलाई के लिए करते हैं। उनका धन सदैव दूसरों की भलाई में खर्च होता है।


Question 3.
आश्विन महीने के बादलों की क्या विशेषता होती है?

Answer

Answer: आश्विन महीने में बादल केवल गरजते हैं।


Question 4.
बादलों की तुलना किससे की गई है?

Answer

Answer: रहीम ने बादलों की तुलना अमीरों से की हैं।


Question 5.
यदि धनी पुरुष निर्धन हो जाए, तो वह क्या करता है?

Answer

Answer: यदि कोई धनी पुरुष निर्धन हो जाए तो वह पिछली बातों का ज़िक्र करता है, जो व्यर्थ है।


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 11 रहीम की दोहे with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 7 Hindi रहीम की दोहे MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Issue Of Debentures Class 12 Question 1.
When all debentures are redeemed, balance in the Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) General Reserve
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Reserve


Issue And Redemption Of Debentures MCQ Class 12 Question 2.
According to SEBI guidelines, a Company will have to create debenture redemption reserve equivalent to the amount of the following percentage of debenture issued:
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 70%
(d) 100%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%


Discount On Issue Of Debentures Is A MCQ Class 12  Question 3.
The balance of ‘Sinking Fund Account’ after the redemption of debentures is transferred to :
(a) Profit & Loss Account
(b) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) Sinking Fund Account

Answer

Answer: (c) General Reserve Account


The Redemption Means MCQ Class 12 Question 4.
Profit on cancellation of own debentures is transferred to:
(a) Profit & Loss Account
(b) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) Capital Reserve Account

Answer

Answer: (d) Capital Reserve Account


Question 5.
If debenture of ₹ 1,00,000 were issued for discount of ₹ 10,000, which are redeemable after four years. Then amount of discount to be written off from P. & L. Account each year is :
(a) ₹ 3,000
(b) ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 2,500
(d) ₹ 5,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 2,500


Question 6.
Debentures can be redeemed out of:
(a) Profit
(b) Capital
(c) Provision
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 7.
Premium on redemption of debentures is a :
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) Suspense A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Nominal A/c


Question 8.
Premium on redemption of debentures is generally provided at the time of ……………
(a) Issue of debentures
(b) Redemption of debentures
(c) Writing off
(d) After 10 years

Answer

Answer: (b) Redemption of debentures


Question 9.
Debentures cannot be redeemed at:
(a) Par
(b) Premium
(c) Discount
(d) More than 10% premium

Answer

Answer: (c) Discount


Question 10.
If debentures purchased in open market are not immediately cancelled, they are treated as :
(a) Current Assets
(b) Current Liabilities
(c) Investment
(d) Capital

Answer

Answer: (c) Investment


Question 11.
Sources of finance of the redemption of debentures are:
(a) Redemption out of profits
(b) Redemption out of capital
(c) The proceeds from fresh issue of shares/debentures
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 12.
A company issued 1,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at 10% premium. 12% stand for:
(a) Rate of dividend
(b) Rate of Tax
(c) Rate of interest
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rate of interest


Question 13.
A company should transfer to Debenture Redemption Reserve A/c at least what percent of the amount of debentures issued before the commencement of redemption of debentures-
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 15%
(d) 100%

Answer

Answer: (b) 25%


Question 14.
If redemption of debentures is made by conversion method, the amount to be transferred to ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve Account’ will be equal to…….percent of converted amounted.
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) Not required

Answer

Answer: (d) Not required


Question 15.
Loss on Issue of Debenture Account is shown:
(a) On Assets side of Balance Sheet
(b) On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
(c) On Credit side of P & L Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) On Assets side of Balance Sheet


Question 16.
Profit on sale of Sinking Fund Investment is transferred to:
(a) Profit & Loss Account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Sinking Fund Account
(d) Capital Reserve

Answer

Answer: (c) Sinking Fund Account


Question 17.
Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c is:
(a) Asset
(b) Expenses
(c) Liability
(d) Revenue

Answer

Answer: (c) Liability


Question 18.
Interest on sinking fund investment is credited to :
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Sinking Fund A/c
(c) General Reserve A/c
(d) Sinking Fund Investment A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Sinking Fund A/c


Interest on sinking fund investment is credited to :

Question 19.
Sinking fund investment is:
(a) An Income
(b) An exause
(c) An Asset
(d) A Liability

Answer

Answer: (c) An Asset


Question 20.
When debentures are issued at par and are redeemable at a premium, the loss on such an issue is debited to :
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Debenture Application and Allotment A/c
(c) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c
(d) Premium on Redemption A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c


Question 21.
Own debentures are those debentures of the company which ?
(a) The company allots to its own promotors
(b) The company allots to its directors
(c) The company purchases from the markets and hold them as investments
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) The company purchases from the markets and hold them as investments


Question 22.
When debentures are redeemed out of profits, an equivalent amount is transferred to :
(a) General Reserve
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Reserve
(d) Profit & Loss A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Debenture Redemption Reserve


Question 23.
Profit on sale of debentures redemption fund investment in the first instance in credited to :
(a) Debenture Redemption Fund A/c
(b) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(c) General Reserve A/c
(d) Sinking Fund A/c

Answer

Answer: (a) Debenture Redemption Fund A/c


Question 24.
When debentures are issued at a discount and are redeemable at a premium, which of the following accounts is debited at the time of issue ?
(a) Debentures A/c
(b) Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c
(c) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c


Question 25.
According to SEBI guidelines what percentage of the amount of debentures must be transferred to Debenture Redemption Reserve, before the commencement of redumption of debentures, in case of convertible debentures ?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 100%
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (d) zero


Question 26.
Profit on redemption of debentures in transferred to which account ?
(a) Capital Reserve Account
(b) Sinking Gund Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Reserve Account


Question 27.
Profit on cancellation of own debentures is :
(a) Revenue Profit
(b) Capital Profit
(c) Operating Profit
(d) Trading Profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Profit


Question 28.
6,000 debentures of ₹ 10 each where discharged by issuing equity shares of ₹ 10 each at 20% premium. The number of shares issued will be :
(a) 50,000
(b) 60,000
(c) 5,000
(d) 6,000

Answer

Answer: (c) 5,000


Question 29.
Every company required to create DRR shall on or before the 30th April of each year, deposit or invest, a sum which shall not be less than…………of the amount of its debentures maturing (to be redeemed) during the year ending on 31st March of the next year.)
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%

Answer

Answer: (b) 15%


Question 30.
A Sinking Fund is a part of:
(a) Fixed Liabilities
(b) Current Liabilities
(c) Reserves and Surplus
(d) Fixed Assets

Answer

Answer: (c) Reserves and Surplus


Question 31.
A company issued 1000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at 10% premium. 12% stand for :
(a) Rate of Dividend
(b) Rate of Tax
(c) Rate of Interest
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rate of Interest


Question 32.
BST Ltd. want to redeem its 900, 10% debentures at 105% by converting them into shares of ₹ 10 each at ₹ 9 each. The number of shares to be issued will be :
(a) 9,000 Shares
(b) 10,500 Shares
(c) 10,000 Shares
(d) 8,500 Shares

Answer

Answer: (b) 10,500 Shares


Question 33.
‘Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c is in the nature of:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Nominal A/c


Question 34.
Deep Ltd. issue 10,00,000, 7 % debentures of 100 Rs. each at a discount of 4%, redeemable after 5 years at a premium of 6%. Loss issue of debentures is :
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 6,00,000
(c) ₹ 16,00,000
(d) ₹ 4,00,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 10,00,000


Question 35.
Debenture is a :
(a) Loan certificate
(b) Cash certificate
(c) Credit certificate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Loan certificate


Question 36.
Debenture holders are the :
(a) Customers of the Company
(b) Owners of the Company
(c) Creditors of the Company
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Creditors of the Company


Question 37.
In case of issue of debentures as a collateral security for loan from the bank which account will be debited :
(a) Bank Account
(b) Bank Loan Account
(c) Debentures Account
(d) Debentures Suspense Account

Answer

Answer: (d) Debentures Suspense Account


In case of issue of debentures as a collateral security for loan from the bank which account will be debited :

Question 38.
If debentures of ₹ 4,50,000 are issued for the consideration of net assets of ₹ 5,00,000 balance ₹ 50,000 will be credited to:
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Goodwill A/c
(c) General Reserve A/c
(d) Capital Reserve A/c

Answer

Answer: (d) Capital Reserve A/c


Question 39.
Debentures which are transferred by mere delivery are called:
(a) Registered Debentures
(b) First Debentures
(c) Bearer Debentures
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Bearer Debentures


Question 40.
In the Balance Sheet of a Company, Debentures are shown under the head :
(a) Unsecured Loans
(b) Long-term Loans
(c) Current Liabilities
(d) Reserve and Surplus

Answer

Answer: (b) Long-term Loans


Question 41.
Discount on issue of Debentures is in the nature of:
(a) Revenue Loss
(b) Capital Loss
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) None of there

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Loss


Question 42.
On liquidation of a company, principal amount of debentures is returned:
(a) First of all
(b) Last of all
(c) Before Equity Capital
(d) None of those

Answer

Answer: (a) First of all


Question 43.
Interest payable on debentures is :
(a) An appropriation of profits of the company
(b) A charge against profits of the company
(c) Transfer to Sinking Fund
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A charge against profits of the company


Question 44.
Debentures cannot be redeemed at:
(a) Premium
(b) Discount
(c) Par
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Discount


Question 45.
Debentures represent:
(a) Director’s Share in a Company
(b) Investments by Equity Shareholders
(c) Long-term Debt of the Business
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Long-term Debt of the Business


Question 46.
Debentures carries interest at: .
(a) 12% p.a.
(b) Fixed Rate
(c) 20% p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.

Answer

Answer: (b) Fixed Rate


Question 47.
Generally debentures are :
(a) Secured
(b) Unsecured
(c) Partly Secured
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Secured


Question 48.
Premium on issue of debentures is a for Company :
(a) Revenue Receipt
(b) Profit
(c) Capital Receipt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Capital Receipt


Question 49.
For a company discount on issue of debentures is :
(a) Capital Loss
(b) Revenue Loss
(c) General Loss
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Loss


Question 50.
‘Premium on issue of debentures’ is shown in the Balance Sheet on:
(a) Assets side
(b) Liabilities side
(c) None of these
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Liabilities side


Question 51.
The balance of discount on debentures is shown in the Balance Sheet on:
(a) Assets side
(b) Liabilities side
(c) None of these
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Assets side


Question 52.
Rate of interest on debentures is :
(a) 12% p.a.
(b) 20% p.a.
(c) Fixed Rate
(d) 15% p.a.

Answer

Answer: (c) Fixed Rate


Question 53.
Discount on issue of Debentures should be written off:
(a) Out of Securities Premium Account
(b) Out of Capital Profits
(c) Out of Statements of Profit and Loss
(d) In the above order over the period of debentures

Answer

Answer: (d) In the above order over the period of debentures


Question 54.
F Ltd. purchased machinery for a book value of ₹ 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. The Debenture Account will be credited by :
(a) ₹ 4,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 3,20,000
(d) ₹ 4,80,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 5,00,000


Question 55.
Debenture holder gets:
(a) Di vidend
(b) Profit
(c) Interest
(d) Interest at fixed rate

Answer

Answer: (c) Interest


Question 56.
Loss on issue of debentures is generally written off in :
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) Over the period of redemption

Answer

Answer: (d) Over the period of redemption


Question 57.
When debentures are issued as collateral security, which entry has to be passed ?
(a) Debenture Suspense A/c Dr.
To Debentures
(b) No entry has to be made
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) or (b)


Question 58.
Debenture holder receives:
(a) Dividend
(b) Interest
(c) Both Dividend and Interest
(d) Bonus

Answer

Answer: (b) Interest


Question 59.
Debenture holders are called of the company.
(a) Creditors
(b) Debtors
(c) Owners
(d) Bankers

Answer

Answer: (a) Creditors


Question 60.
A company issued ₹ 1,00,000 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each. The amount of interest on debentures will be:
(a) ₹ 12,000
(b) ₹ 1,20,000
(c) ₹ 12,00,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 12,00,000


Question 61.
Premium on redemption of debentures account is :
(a) A real account
(b) A nominal account
(c) A personal account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) A personal account


Question 62.
Debenture premium can be used to :
(a) Write off the discount on issue of shares or debentures
(b) Write off the premium on redemption of shares or debentures
(c) Write off capital loss
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 63.
Which of the following is false ?
(a) A company can issue redeemable debentures
(b) A company can issue debentures with voting rights
(c) A company can buy its own shares
(d) A company can buy its own debentures

Answer

Answer: (b) A company can issue debentures with voting rights


Question 64.
Debenture is the part of:
(a) Share Capital
(b) Long-term Borrowings
(c) Owned Capital
(d) None, of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Long-term Borrowings


Question 65.
Consideration of Debenture is:
(a) Profit
(b) Dividend
(c) Interest
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Interest


Question 66.
Premium on Redemption of Debenture A/c is.:
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Expense
(d) Revenue

Answer

Answer: (b) Liability


Question 67.
Debenture is a :
(a) Loan Certificate
(b) Cash Certificate
(c) Credit Certificate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Loan Certificate


Question 68.
Loss on issue of debentures is recorded as :
(a) Intangible Asset
(b) Current Asset
(c) Current Liability
(d) Miscellaneous Expenditure

Answer

Answer: (d) Miscellaneous Expenditure


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