MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Poverty with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Poverty with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Poverty with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Poverty Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Poverty Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

I. Choose the correct alternative.

Poverty MCQ Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 1.
More than _______ of the world’s poor live in India.
(A) half
(B) one-third
(C) one-fourth
(D) one-fifth

Answer

Answer: (D) one-fifth


More than _______ of the world's poor live in India.

Poverty Class 12 MCQ Chapter 4  Question 2.
What was the percentage of the population below the poverty line in India in 2011-12?
(A) 26.1%
(B) 19.3%
(C) 22%
(D) 32%

Answer

Answer: (C) 22%


MCQ Of Poverty Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 3.
Which of the following is the poverty determination measure?
(A) Head Count Ratio
(B) Sen Index
(C) Poverty Gap Index
(D) All of these

Answer

Answer: (D) All of these


MCQ On Poverty Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 4.
When was the Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand was formed?
(A) 1969
(B) 1979
(C) 1989
(D) 1999

Answer

Answer: (B) 1979


Class 12 Poverty MCQ Chapter 4 Question 5.
Those who regularly move in and out of poverty are called
(A) Chronically poor
(B) Churning poor
(C) Occasionally poor
(D) Transient poor

Answer

Answer: (B) Churning poor


Poverty Chapter Class 12 MCQ Chapter 4 Question 6.
In 2011-12, poverty line was defined worth ________ as consumption per person a month for rural areas and _______ for urban areas.
(A) ₹816 and ₹1,000
(B) ₹1,012 and ₹1,210
(C) ₹550 and ₹860
(D) ₹860 and ₹673

Answer

Answer: (A) ₹816 and ₹1,000


MCQs Of Poverty Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 7.
Which of the following is an action adopted under the provision of minimum basic amenities to the people?
(A) Prime Minister’s RozgarYojna
(B) Swarna Jayanti Shahari RozgarYojna
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna
(D) National Rural Livelihood Mission

Answer

Answer: (C) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna


Poverty Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 4 Question 8.
In 2011-12, which state had the highest poverty rate in India?
(A) Odisha
(B) Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (A) Odisha


MCQ Poverty Class 12 Chapter 4 Question 9.
NFWP was launched in:
(A) November 2004
(B) December 2003
(C) November 2002
(D) December 2005

Answer

Answer: (A) November 2004


Poverty Chapter MCQ Chapter 4 Question 10.
Which of the following programmes provide assistance to elderly people are given under?
(A) VAMBAY
(B) NSAP
(C) PMGY
(D) PMRY

Answer

Answer: (B) NSAP


Which of the following programmes provide assistance to elderly people are given under?

II. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

MCQ Of Chapter Poverty Class 12th Chapter 4 Question 1.
Poverty is the inability to secure the ________ consumption requirements for life, health, and efficiency.

Answer

Answer: minimum


Question 2.
Absolute poverty determines the minimum physical quantities of the requirement for a subsistence level, with the help of ______

Answer

Answer: poverty line


Question 3.
______ and hunger are the key features of the poorest households.

Answer

Answer: Starvation


Question 4.
Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand’ was formed in _________

Answer

Answer: 1979


Question 5.
______ includes those who are usually poor but who may sometimes have relatively more money.

Answer

Answer: Chronic poor


Question 6.
_________ is the proportion of persons living below the poverty line.

Answer

Answer: HeadCount Ratio


Question 7.
Amartya Sen, noted Nobel Laureate, has developed an index known as _________

Answer

Answer: Sen Index


Question 8.
The proportion of poor to the population in India was ______ percent in 2011-12.

Answer

Answer: 22


Question 9.
Under the British, India began to export food grains and, as a result, as many as ________ people died in famines between 1875 and 1900.

Answer

Answer: 26 million


Question 10.
There exists a direct relationship between _________ and poverty.

Answer

Answer: Unemployment


III. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
More than one-fifth of the worlds poor live in India.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Absolute poverty refers to a lack of resources in relation to different classes, regions, and countries.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Transient poor covers those people who are rich most of the time but may sometimes suffer bad luck are said to be occasionally poor.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
The minimum calorie intake was estimated at 2,400 calories for a rural person and 2,100 for a person in the urban area.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, and Orissa account for about 70 percent of India’s poor.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Britain’s main goals from the Raj were to provide a market for British exports.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
The poverty ratio estimates the minimum level of income that is considered appropriate to secure basic necessities of life.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
The government of India adopted a five-dimensional approach as an attempt to reduce poverty.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
National Food for Work Programme aims at improving the food and nutritional status of the poor.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Due to unequal distribution of land and other assets, mostly non-poor appropriate the benefits from direct poverty alleviation programmes.

Answer

Answer: True


IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column-I Column-II
1. Poverty (A) Proportion of persons living below the poverty line
2. Poverty line (B) Poverty is measured in monetary terms
3. Absolute poverty (C) Poverty is measured with respect to various classes
4. Relative poverty (D) Inability to secure the basic needs
5. Headcount ratio (E) 1999
6. Food for Work Programme (F) Divides people into poor and non-poor
7. Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (G) 1970
8. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (H) 2001
9. NFW programme (I) Never poor
10. Non-poor (J) 2004
Answer

Answer:

Column-I Column-II
1. Poverty (D) Inability to secure the basic needs
2. Poverty line (F) Divides people into poor and non-poor
3. Absolute poverty (B) Poverty is measured in monetary terms
4. Relative poverty (C) Poverty is measured with respect to various classes
5. Headcount ratio (A) Proportion of persons living below the poverty line
6. Food for Work Programme (G) 1970
7. Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (E) 1999
8. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (H) 2001
9. NFW programme (J) 2004
10. Non-poor (I) Never poor

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 4 Poverty with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Poverty MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Regional Aspirations Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Regional Aspirations Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
In which year agreement took place between Sheikh Abdullah and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi?
(a) 1970
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1980

Answer

Answer: (b) 1974


Question 2.
When Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed?
(a) 1962
(b) 1965
(c) 1967
(d) 1973

Answer

Answer: (d) 1973


Question 3.
Who was the leader of the Naga National Council?
(a) V.P. Singh
(b) Lai Denga
(c) Karunanidhi
(d) Angame Zapu Phizo

Answer

Answer: (d) Angame Zapu Phizo


Who was the leader of the Naga National Council?

Question 4.
Match the following:
Nature of Regional aspirations States

A B
(a) Socio-religious identity leading to statehood (i) Nagaland/Mizoram
(b) Linguistic identity and tensions with centre (ii) Jharkhand/Chhattisgarh
(c) Regional imbalance leading to demand statehood (iii) Punjab
(d) Secessionist demands on account of tribal identity (iv) Tamil Nadu
Answer

Answer:

A B
(a) Socio-religious identity leading to statehood (iii) Punjab
(b) Linguistic identity and tensions with centre (iv) Tamil Nadu
(c) Regional imbalance leading to demand statehood (ii) Jharkhand/Chhattisgarh
(d) Secessionist demands on account of tribal identity (i) Nagaland/Mizoram

Question 5.
In which year Shiv Sena was established?

Answer

Answer: Shiv Sena was established in 1966.


Question 6.
In which state Assam Gana Parishad is active?

Answer

Answer: Assam


Question 7.
When was National Conference established?

Answer

Answer: 1932


Question 8.
Who is Ibe President of National Conference?

Answer

Answer: Dr. Omar Abdullah is the President of the National Conference.


Question 9.
When Telugu Desam party was established?

Answer

Answer: Telugu Desam was established in 1982.


Question 10.
Who was the founder President of Telugu Desam?

Answer

Answer: N.T. Rama Rao was the founder President of Telugu Desam.


Question 11.
When Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was assassinated?

Answer

Answer: Smt. Indira Gandhi was assassinated on 31st October 1984.


Question 12.
In which year Punjab was reorganized on a linguistic basis?

Answer

Answer: Punjab was reorganized in 1966.


Question 13.
In which year agreement took place between Sheikh Abdullah and Prime Minister Smt. Indira Gandhi?

Answer

Answer: 1974


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Regional Aspirations MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Financial Statements of a Company Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Financial Statements of a Company Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Financial Statements Of A Company Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is the element of financial statements?
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Financial Statements Of A Company MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is not required to be prepared under the Companies Act:
(a) Statement of Profit & Loss
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Anditor’s Report
(d) Fund Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: (c) Anditor’s Report


MCQ Of Financial Statements Of A Company Class 12 Question 3.
Equity ₹ 90,000 Liabilities ₹ 60,000 Profit of the year ₹ 20,000. Then total assets will be :
(a) ₹ 1.70,000
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹1,10,000
(d) ₹ 80,000

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 1.70,000


MCQ On Financial Statements Of A Company Class 12 Question 4.
The reserve which is created for a particular (specific) purpose and which is a charge against revenue is called:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) General Reserve
(c) Secret Reserve
(d) Specific Reserve

Answer

Answer: (d) Specific Reserve


Financial Statements MCQ Question 5.
An Annual Report is issued by a company to its:
(a) Directors
(b) Authors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Management

Answer

Answer: (c) Shareholders


Financial Statements MCQ Class 12 Question 6.
The profit and loss disclosed by the accounts of a company is:
(a) Transferred to share capital account
(b) Shown under the head of ‘Current liabilities’ and provisions
(c) Shown under the head ‘Reserves and Surplus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Shown under the head ‘Reserves and Surplus


Financial Statements Disclose MCQ Question 7.
The assets of a business can be classified as :
(a) Fixed and Non-fixed Assets
(b) Tangible and Intangible Assets
(c) Non-Current and Current Asset
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Non-Current and Current Asset


Financial Statements Of Company MCQ Question 8.
The term financial statements includes :
(a) Statement of Profit & Loss
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Statement of Profit & Loss and Balance Sheet
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Statement of Profit & Loss and Balance Sheet


MCQs Of Financial Statements Of A Company Question 9.
Balance Sheet is a :
(a) Account
(b) Statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Statement


Financial Statements Class 12 MCQ Question 10.
Financial statements are the product of accounting process.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) End
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) End


Financial statements are the product of accounting process.

Question 11.
Financial statements disclose :
(a) Monetary information
(b) Qualitative information
(c) Non-monetary information
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Monetary information


Question 12.
Statement of Profit & Loss is also called………:
(a) Operating Profit
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Income Statement
(d) Trading Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Income Statement


Question 13.
Preliminary expenses are shown in the Balance Sheet under the head:
(a) Non-current assets
(b) Current assets
(c) Non-current liabilities
(d) Deducted from securities premium reserve

Answer

Answer: (d) Deducted from securities premium reserve


Question 14.
Debit Balance of Profit & Loss Statement will be shown on:
(a) Assets Side of Balance Sheet
(b) Liabilities Side of Balance Sheet
(c) Under the head Reserve & Surplus
(d) Under the head Reserves and Surplus as a negative item

Answer

Answer: (d) Under the head Reserves and Surplus as a negative item


Question 15.
Patents and copyrights fall under the category of:
(a) Current Assets
(b) Liquid Assets
(c) Intangible Assets
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Intangible Assets


Question 16.
Goodwill falls under which category of assets:
(a) Current Assets
(b) Tangible Assets
(c) Intangible Assets
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Intangible Assets


Question 17.
Contingent Liabilities are exhibited under the heading:
(a) Fixed Liabilities
(b) Current Liabilities
(c) As a footnote
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) As a footnote


Question 18.
Provision for Provident Funds is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head :
(a) Reserves and Surplus
(b) Non-current Liabilities
(c) Provision
(d) Contingent Liabilities

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-current Liabilities


Question 19.
Preliminary Expenses are shown in the Balance Sheet under which head ?
(a) Fixed Assets
(b) Reserves and Surplus
(c) Loans & Advances
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 20.
Financial Statements are :
(a) Anticipated facts
(b) Recorded facts
(c) Estimated facts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Recorded facts


Question 21.
The term current assets includes :
(a) Stock
(b) Debtors
(c) Cash
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 22.
Which of the following is not a part of financial statement of a company ?
(a) Profit & Loss A/c
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Ledger Account
(d) Cash Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: (c) Ledger Account


Question 23.
Under which heading of Balance Sheet is general reserve shown:
(a) Miscellaneous Expenditure
(b) Share Capital
(c) Reserves & Surplus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Reserves & Surplus


Question 24.
Current Assets on the Assets side of Balance Sheet of a Company includes:
(a) Sundry Debtors
(b) Cash in hand
(c) Stock
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 25.
As per provisions of Companies Act, 2013 under which Section, the final accounts of a company is prepard :
(a) 128
(b) 210
(c) 129
(d) 212

Answer

Answer: (c) 129


Question 26.
According to which part of Schedule III of the Indian Companies Act, 2013, Indian companies have to prepare Balance Sheet:
(a) Part 1
(b) Part 2
(c) Part 3
(d) Part 4

Answer

Answer: (a) Part 1


Question 27.
Balance sheet of companies is now prepared in :
(a) Horizontal Form
(b) Vertical Form
(c) Either (a) or (b) Form
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Vertical Form


Question 28.
Goodwill of a company is shown on the assets side of the Balance Sheet under the head.
(a) Current Assets
(b) Non-current Assets
(c) Miscellaneous Expenditure
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-current Assets


Question 29.
The form of Balance Sheet as per Companies Act, 2013 is:
(a) Horizontal
(b) Horizontal or Vertical
(c) Vertical
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vertical


Question 30.
Which of the following assets is not shown undeer the head ‘Fixed Asset’ in the Balance Sheet ?
(a) Goodwill
(b) Bills Receivable
(c) Buildings
(d) Vehicle

Answer

Answer: (b) Bills Receivable


Question 31.
Securities Premium Account is shown on the liabilities side in the Balance Sheet Under heading
(a) Reserves and Surplus
(b) Current Liabilities and Provisions
(c) Share Capital
(d) Contingent Liabilities

Answer

Answer: (a) Reserves and Surplus


Question 32.
Debentures are shown in the Balance Sheet under the head of:
(a) Short-term Loan
(b) Secured Loan
(c) Current Liability
(d) Share Capital

Answer

Answer: (b) Secured Loan


Question 33.
Divident is usually paid :
(a) On Authorised Capital
(b) On Ussued Capital
(c) On Paid-up Capital
(d) On Called-up Capital

Answer

Answer: (c) On Paid-up Capital


Question 34.
Amount set aside to meet losses due to bad debts is called:
(a) Reserve
(b) Provision
(c) Liability
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Provision


Amount set aside to meet losses due to bad debts is called:

Question 35.
Which Section of the Companies Act, 2013 requires that the Balance Sheet to be prepared in prescribed form ?
(a) Section 128
(b) Section 130
(c) Section 129
(d) Section 212

Answer

Answer: (c) Section 129


Question 36.
The prescribe from the Balance Sheet has given in the Schedule:
(a) VI Part I
(b) VI Part II
(c) III Part I
(d) VII Part IV

Answer

Answer: (c) III Part I


Question 37.
Share capital is shown in Balance Sheet under. the head ?
(a) Authorised Capital
(b) Issued Capital
(c) Paid-up Capital
(d) Shareholders’ Funds

Answer

Answer: (d) Shareholders’ Funds


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Financial Statements of a Company MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 8 Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 8 Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 8 Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours Class 12 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Development Experience Of India Class 12 MCQ Question 1.
China republic was established in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
(d) 1951

Answer

Answer: (c) 1949


MCQ On India And Its Neighbouring Countries Class 12 Question 2.
Which is the poorest nation:
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) Kerala

Answer

Answer: (c) Pakistan


MCQ Of Indian Economic Development Class 12 Question 3.
In year 2010 which was biggest importer:
(a) America
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) India

Answer

Answer: (c) China


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Indian Economics Pdf Question 4.
Economics of India and Pakistan depends for G.T.P:
(a) On primary level
(b) Secondary level
(c) Tertiary level
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Tertiary level


Economics of India and Pakistan depends for G.T.P:

Economics Class 12 MCQ Questions Question 5.
Which country adopted infant policy:
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) China


Fill in the blanks:

1. Biggest contributor to India’s National Income is …………………………

Answer

Answer: Service


2. In China great leap forward mission started in ………………………..

Answer

Answer: 1958


3. Pakistan has better situation in field of ………………………. than India and China.

Answer

Answer: Availability of facility


4. In ……………………… urban population is least.

Answer

Answer: India


5. Emission of Carbon – di – oxide is maximum is …………………………..

Answer

Answer: China


State true or false:

1. In 1978 ‘Reform policy’ started by China get a great below.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Ratio of people below poverty line is higher in India.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Economy of Pakistan achieved great help by remittance of labourers.

Answer

Answer: True


4. In comparison to China Indian human development index is higher.

Answer

Answer: False


5. The Great leap Forward programme was started in Pakistan.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the columns:

Column A Column B
1. Economic development in China (a) Mao
2. India’s new development policy (b) China
3. The great leap forward (c) 1978
4. Commune (d) Pakistan
5. First contribution in 1956 (e) 1991
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Economic development in China (c) 1978
2. India’s new development policy (e) 1991.
3. The great leap forward (a) Mao
4. Commune (b) China
5. First contribution in 1956 (d) Pakistan

Answer in one word:

1. Which model was adopted by Pakistan for development?

Answer

Answer: Statism


2. Renmanbi is the currency of which country?

Answer

Answer: China


3. Which price policy is there in China?

Answer

Answer: Double


4. In 2014 HDI in India was?

Answer

Answer: 0 – 609


5. Which is the poorest among India, Pakistan and China?

Answer

Answer: Pakistan


6. When did China started five year plans?

Answer

Answer: In 1953.


7. When did economic reforms started in India and Pakistan?

Answer

Answer: Economic reforms were started in 1951 in India and in 1956 in Pakistan.


8. Name the two areas where India is ahead of Pakistan?

Answer

Answer: Rate of GDP and Per Capita Income.


9. In which area China is ahead of India and Pakistan?

Answer

Answer: Human development and GNP per capita.


10. What is liberty indicator?

Answer

Answer: Liberty indicators means a tigers night to play in the governance of their country.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Unit 8 Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Economics Development Experience of India: A Comparison with Neighbours MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Principles of Management Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Principles Of Management Provide Question 1.
Principles of management are not
(a) behavioural.
(b) absolute
(c) universal.
(d) flexible

Answer

Answer: (b) absolute


Principles Of Management Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Principles of management provide
(a) readymade solutions to problems.
(b) general guidelines.
(c) methods and procedures.
(d) rules and regulations.

Answer

Answer: (b) general guidelines.


MCQ On Principles Of Management Class 12 Question 3.
Management principles differ from pure science principles because management principles are
(a) vague.
(b) situation-bound.
(c) rigid.
(d) easy to learn.

Answer

Answer: (b) situation-bound.


Management principles differ from pure science principles because management principles are

Principles Of Management MCQ Question 4.
Principles of management are significant because these result in
(a) taking initiative.
(b) adapting to new technology.
(c) employee satisfaction.
(d) optimum utilisation of resources.

Answer

Answer: (d) optimum utilisation of resources.


Principles Of Management Provide MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a principle of scientific management?
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Development of personnel
(c) Harmony, not discord
(d) Maximum, not restricted output

Answer

Answer: (a) Functional foremanship


Principle Of Management Provide Question 6.
Management should find ‘one best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this sentence?
(a) Time Study
(b) Method Study
(c) Fatigue Study
(d) Motion Study

Answer

Answer: (b) Method Study


Principles Of Management Are Not MCQ Question 7.
Unity of command is related to
(a) superiors and subordinates.
(b) management and workers.
(c) planned actions.
(d) cooperation among employees

Answer

Answer: (a) superiors and subordinates.


Question 8.
Gang plank is related to
(a) communication.
(b) motivation
(c) supervision of workers.
(d) incentives to workers

Answer

Answer: (a) communication.


Question 9.
Management principles are flexible whereas ___ principles are rigid.
(a) Pure Science
(b) Employment
(c) Scientific Management
(d) Art

Answer

Answer: (a) Pure Science


Question 10.
___ denotes concentration of authority at the top level.
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Coordination
(d) Delegation

Answer

Answer: (b) Centralisation


Question 11.
___ is the technique in which each worker is supervised by eight supervisors.
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Unity of action
(c) Centralisation
(d) Simplification of work

Answer

Answer: (a) Functional foremanship


Question 12.
___ principle of management puts emphasis on judicious application of penalties by the management.
(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Order
(c) Division of work
(d) Discipline

Answer

Answer: (d) Discipline


Question 13.
___ principle of management states that there should be a place for everything and everything should be in its place.
(a) Equity
(b) Discipline
(c) Order
(d) Esprit de corps

Answer

Answer: (c) Order


Question 14.
____ means one plan, one boss.
(a) Unity of direction
(b) Unity of command
(c) Centralisation
(d) Gang plank

Answer

Answer: (a) Unity of direction


Question 15.
__ involves harmony and team spirit among employees.
(a) Discipline
(b) Esprit de corps
(c) Order
(d) Standardisation

Answer

Answer: (b) Esprit de corps


Question 16.
Which principle of general management advocates that, “Employee turnover should be minimised to maintain organisational efficiency.”?
(a) Stability of personnel
(b) Remuneration of employees
(c) Equity
(d) Esprit De Corps

Answer

Answer: (a) Stability of personnel
Explanation:
According to Fayol, due care should be taken while carrying out the recruitment and selection process and the new recruits should be placed at a particular position for a sufficient tenure.


Question 17.
According to Henri Fayol, if this principle of general management is violated, “authority is undermined, discipline is in jeopardy, order disturbed and stability threatened.” Identify the principle.
(a) Authority and responsibility
(b) Discipline
(c) Unity of command
(d) Equity

Answer

Answer: (b) Discipline
Explanation:
According to Fayol, there should be one and only one boss for every individual employee and dual subordination should be avoided.


Question 18.
According to this principle of general management, “an organisation should safeguard against abuse of managerial power, but at the same time a manager should have the necessary authority to carry out his responsibility.” Name the principle of management being described in the given statement.
(a) Discipline
(b) Authority and responsibility
(c) Unity of command
(d) Unity of direction

Answer

Answer: (b) Authority and responsibility
Explanation:
Through the principle of authority and responsibility, Taylor advocated that there should always be a balance between the authority granted and the responsibility entrusted to an employee


Question 19.
The technique of differential piece rate system was developed by Taylor in order to
(a) Discriminate between efficient and inefficient workers
(b) Reward the efficient worker
(c) Motivate the inefficient workers to perform better
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
Through the technique of differential piece rate wage system, Taylor advocated . that efficient workers should be paid at a higher rate as compared to inefficient workers.


Question 20.
Which of the following is an objective of time study?
(a) To determine the number of workers to be employed
(b) To formulate suitable incentive schemes
(c) To calculate the labour costs
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Which of the following is an objective of time study?

True or False

State with reasons whether the following statements are True or False.

1. “Unity of command means one employee getting orders and instructions from one supervisor”.

Answer

Answer: True; in unity of command, one employee gets orders/instructions from only one supervisor.


2. Time study involves analysing movements involved in performing an activity.

Answer

Answer: False; motion study involves analysing these movements.


3. Scalar chain involves direct communication between two employees at horizontal level.

Answer

Answer: False; Gang plank involves such direct communication.


4. Discipline principle of management leads to development of team spirit.

Answer

Answer: False; Esprit de corps leads to development of team spirit.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Business Studies Chapter 2 Principles of Management with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Principles of Management CBSE Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Capital Account Is Related To MCQ Class 12 Question 1.
In the event of dissolution of partnership firm, the provision for doubtful debts is transferred to :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts
(c) Sundry Debtors Account
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Realisation Account


MCQ On Dissolution Of Partnership Firm Class 12 Question 2.
On dissolution, if a partner undertakes to make payment of a liability of the firm, the account to be debited is:
(a) profit & Loss Account
(b) Realisation Account
(c) Partner’s Capital Account
(d) Cash Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Realisation Account


Dissolution Of Partnership Firm MCQ Class 12 Question 3.
At the dime of firm’s dissolution, Balance of General Reserve shown in the Balance Sheet is credited to :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Creditors’ Account
(c) Partners’ Capital Accounts
(d) Profit & Loss Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Partners’ Capital Accounts


MCQs On Dissolution Of Partnership Firm Class 12 Question 4.
On dissolution, goodwill account is transferred to :
(a) In the Capital Accounts of Partners
(b) In the Credit of Cash Accounts
(c) In the Debit of Realisation Account
(d) In the Credit of Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: (c) In the Debit of Realisation Account


On The Dissolution Of The Partnership MCQ Class 12 Question 5.
At the time of dissolution of partnership firm, fictitions assets are transferred to :
(a) Capital Accounts of Partners
(b) Realisation Account
(c) Cash Account
(d) Partners’ Loan Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Accounts of Partners


Question 6.
On dissolution of a firm, a partner paid 1,500 Rs. for firm’s realisation expenses. Which account will be debited ?
(a) Cash Account
(b) Realisation Account
(c) Capital Account of the Partner
(d) Profit & Loss A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Realisation Account


Question 7.
On taking responsibility of payment of realisation expenses by a partner, the account credited will be :
(a) Realisastion Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Capital Account of the Partner
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Capital Account of the Partner


Question 8.
When realisation expenses are paid by the firm on behalf of a partner, such expenses are debited to :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partners’ Capital Account
(c) Partner’s Loan Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Partners’ Capital Account


When realisation expenses are paid by the firm on behalf of a partner, such expenses are debited to :

Question 9.
Which of the following is transferred to Realisation Account ?
(a) Balance of Profit Account
(b) Balance of Profit & Loss Account
(c) Amount realised on sale of assets
(d) Reserves

Answer

Answer: (c) Amount realised on sale of assets


Question 10.
On disolution of firm, loss calculated in realisation account is debited/credited to which account ?
(a) Cash Account
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts
(c) Realisation Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Partners’ Capital Accounts


Question 11.
Which of the following is not transferred to Realisatsion Account ?
(a) Balance of Cash Account
(b) Balance of Reserves
(c) Balance of Profit & Loss Account
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 12.
On taking responsibility of payment of a liability of ₹ 20,000 by a partner, the account credited will be :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Capital Account of the Partner
(d) Liability Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Capital Account of the Partner


Question 13.
Cash balance shown in the Balance Sheet is shown on dissolution of firm in :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Capital Account
(d) None of the Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash Account


Question 14.
There was an Unrecorded asset of ₹ 12,000 which was taken over by a partner at ₹ 10,500. Partner’s Capital Account will be debited by…….
(a) ₹ 12,000
(b) ₹ 10,500
(c) ₹ 1,500
(d) ₹ 32,500

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 10,500


Question 15.
On dissolution of a firm, Bank overdraft is transferred to:
(a) Cash Account
(b) Bank Account
(c) Realisation Account
(d) Partners’ Capital Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Realisation Account


Question 16.
On dissolution of a firm, Partner’s Loan Account is transferred to:
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Partner’s Current Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 17.
The accumulated profits and reserves are transferred to:
(a) Realisation Accounts
(b) Partners’ Capital Accounts
(c) Bank Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Partners’ Capital Accounts


Question 18.
On dissolution, Goodwill Account is transferred to :
(a) In the Capital Accounts of Partners
(b) On the Credit side of Cash Account
(c) On the Debit side of Realisation Account
(d) On the Credit side of Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: (c) On the Debit side of Realisation Account


Question 19.
On dissolution, when a partner takes over an asset……….is debited :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Cash Account
(d) Asset Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Partner’s Capital Account


Question 20.
After transferring liabilities like creditors and bills payable in the Realisation Account in the absence of any informations regarding their payment, such liabilities are treated as :
(a) Never paid
(b) Fully paid
(c) Partly paid
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Fully paid


Question 21.
Unrecorded liabilities when paid are shown in :
(a) Debit side of Realisation Account
(b) Debit side of Bank Account
(c) Credit side of Realisation Account
(d) Credit side of Bank Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Debit side of Realisation Account


Question 22.
Payment of credit balance of Partners’ Capital Accounts at the time of dissolution of a firm is made to:
(a) Partners
(b) Firm
(c) Wife
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Partners


Question 23.
On dissolution of a firm Partner’s Loan A/c is transferred to:
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Partners’ Capital A/cs
(c) Suspense A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 24.
At the time of dissolution of firm book value of assets is recorded in which side of the Realisation Account ?
(a) Debit Side
(b) Credit Side
(c) All of the above
(d) Liabilities Side

Answer

Answer: (a) Debit Side


Question 25.
Realisation expenses are recorded in which side of Realisation A/c:
(a) Liabilities
(b) Assets
(c) Credit
(d) Debit

Answer

Answer: (c) Credit


Question 26.
Realisation Account is a :
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Nominal A/c
(c) Read A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Nominal A/c


Question 27.
On dissolution of the firm, Partners’ Capital Accounts are closed through :
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Drawings Account .
(c) Bank Account
(d) Loan Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Bank Account


Question 28.
Unrecorded assets when taken over by a partner are shown in:
(a) Debit side of Realisation A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realisation A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Credit side of Realisation A/c


Question 29.
Expenses on dissolution of firm is called :
(a) Realisation Expenses
(b) Legal Expenses
(c) Loss Expenses
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Realisation Expenses


Question 30.
Sundry creditors amounted to ₹ 8,000. They were paid at a discount of 5 %. Realisation A/c will be debited by :
(a) ₹ 8,000
(b) ₹ 7,600
(c) ₹ 400
(d) ₹ 8,400

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 7,600


Question 31.
Amount realised from sale of assets is recorded in :
(a) Debit side of Realisation Account
(b) Credit side of Realisation Account
(c) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
(d) Assets side of Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (b) Credit side of Realisation Account


Question 32.
A firm can be voluntarily dissolved by the partners :
(a) On Majority basis
(b) On 3/4 Member’s decision
(c) On 1/2 Member’s decision
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 33.
On dissolution of a firm, amount realised from an unrecorded asset is credited to:
(a) partners’ Capital Accounts
(b) Cash Account
(c) Realisation Account
(d) Revaluation Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Realisation Account


Question 34.
Profit/loss on Realisation Account is distributed among partners:
(a) In Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) In Capital Ratio
(c) Equally
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In Profit-sharing Ratio


Question 35.
Which of the following is correct profit or loss in case the amount received from the sale of assets is ₹ 50,000, total assets is ₹ 60,000, total liabilities ₹ 20,000 and realisation expenses ₹ 2,000 ?
(a) ₹ 12,000 Loss
(b) ₹ 32,000 Profit
(c) ₹ 30,000 Loss
(d) ₹ 12,000 Profit

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 12,000 Loss


Question 36.
What will be the total assets (except cash) of the firm from the following: if Creditor ₹ 15,000, Partner’s loan ₹ 10,000, Partners’ capital ₹ 40,000. Cash in hand ₹ 5,000
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 65,000
(c) ₹ 70,000
(d) ₹ 55,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 65,000


Question 37.
If the total assets are ₹ 3,25,000 and the total outside liabilities ₹ 45,000 then the amount of all partner’s capital will be:
(a) ₹ 3,70,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 3,00,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 2,80,000


Question 38.
Insolvency of a partner will come under what type of dissolution of a firm ?
(a) Dissolutiuon by Court
(b) Compulsory Dissolution
(c) On happening of certain contingencies
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) On happening of certain contingencies


Question 39.
On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be prepared at the last ?
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partner’s Capital Accounts
(c) Cash/Bank Account
(d) Partner’s Loan Account

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash/Bank Account


On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be prepared at the last ?

Question 40.
On dissolution of a firm, realisation account is debited with:
(a) All assets to be realised
(b) All outside liabilities of the firm
(c) Cash received on sale of assets
(d) Any assets taken over by one of the partners

Answer

Answer: (a) All assets to be realised


Question 41.
On dissolution of a firm, out of the proceeds received from the sale of assets will be paid first of all:
(a) Partner’s Capitals
(b) Partner’s Loan to Firm
(c) Partner’s additional capital
(d) Outside Creditors

Answer

Answer: (d) Outside Creditors


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Dissolution of a Partnership Firm MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Era of One Party Dominance Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Era of One Party Dominance Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Era Of One Party Dominance MCQ Class 12 Question 1.
In which year first general election was held in India?
(a) 1947
(b) 1952
(c) 1955
(d) 1960

Answer

Answer: (b) 1952


Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 MCQs Question 2.
Who became the Prime Minister of India after the first general election?
(a) Pt. JL. Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer

Answer: (a) Pt. JL. Nehru


MCQ Of Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 Question 3.
In 1957, which party formed the government in Kerala?
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) C.P.I
(c) Congress
(d) Socialist Party

Answer

Answer: (b) C.P.I


MCQ On Era Of One Party Dominance Class 12 Question 4.
When was the Socialist Party formed in India?
(a) 1948
(b) 1952
(c) 1955
(d) 1960

Answer

Answer: (a) 1948


When was the Socialist Party formed in India?

Era Of One Party Dominance MCQs Class 12 Question 5.
Match the following leaders listed in list A with the parties in list B.

List A List B
(a) S.A. Dange (i) Bharatiya Jan Sangh
(b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (ii) Swatantra Party
(c) Minoo Masani (iii) Praj Social Party
(d) Ashoka Mehta (iv) Communist Party of India
Answer

Answer:

List A List B
(a) S.A. Dange (iv) Communist Party of India
(b) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (i) Bharatiya Jan Sangh
(c) Minoo Masani (ii) Swatantra Party
(d) Ashoka Mehta (iii) Praj Social Party

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise Question 6.
The first general election in 1952 involved simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and _________ (The President of India/State Assemblies/Rajya Sabha/The Prime Minister)

Answer

Answer: (a) State Assemblies


Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
The party that won the second-longest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first elections was the _______ (Praja Socialist Party/Bharatiya Jans Sanghl Communist Party of India/Bharatiya Janata Party)

Answer

Answer: Communist Party of India


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Question 8.
One of the guiding principles of the ideology of the Swatantra Party was _______ (Working class interests/Protection of Primary states/economy free from state control/Autonomy of state within the Union.)

Answer

Answer: economy free from state control


Political Science MCQ Class 12 Question 9.
One-party dominance is related to which political party of India?

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter Wise In Hindi Question 10.
Who addressed Congress as Umbrella Organisation?

Answer

Answer: Palmer addressed Congress as an ‘Umbrella Organisation’.


Question 11.
Which Indian party is the oldest party in Asia?

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress is the olde9t party in Asia.


Question 12.
Mention the name of four states where Congress failed to get absolute majority in 1962.

Answer

Answer: Madras, PEPSU, Orissa, and Travancore Cochin


Question 13.
Mention the period when Congress dominated Indian politics.

Answer

Answer: Indian National Congress dominated Indian politics from Independence until 1967.


Question 14.
The era of one-party dominance began with the year.

Answer

Answer: The era of one-party dominance began in 1952.


Question 15.
Who said, “One party dominance expressed India’s party system more accurately than the term ‘One-party system?’

Answer

Answer: Dr. Rami Kothari.


Question 16.
How many national and state parties were there at the time of the first general election?

Answer

Answer: At the time of the first general election in the year 1952 there were 14 National parties and as many as 39 State parties.


Question 17.
Which of the faction of the Communist Party was pro-Soviet?

Answer

Answer: CPI was pro-Soviet.


Question 18.
How many seats were secured by the Jan Sangh in the first election of Lok Sabha?

Answer

Answer: Jan Sangh secured only three seats in the Lok Sabha.


Mark each of them as True or False.

Question 19.
One-party dominance is rooted in the absence of strong alternative political parties.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
One-party dominance occurs because of weak public opinion.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
One-party dominance is linked to the nation’s colonial past.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
One-party dominance reflects the absence of democratic ideals in a country.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Era of One Party Dominance MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Npo MCQ Class 12 Question 1.
Receipts and Payments A/c is a summary of:
(a) All Capital Receipts and Payments
(b) All Revenue Receipts and Payments
(c) All Revenue and Capital Receipts and Payments
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) All Revenue and Capital Receipts and Payments


MCQ Of Npo Class 12 Question 2.
Subscription received by a schoblfbr organising annual V function is treated as:
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Asset
(d) Earned Income

Answer

Answer: (c) Asset


MCQ On Non Profit Organisation Pdf Question 3.
Out of the following items, which one is shown in the Receipts and Payments Account?
(a) Outstanding Salary
(b) Depreciation
(c) Life Membership Fees
(d) Accrued Subscription

Answer

Answer: (b) Depreciation


Npo MCQ Questions Question 4.
In case specific fund is maintained, the expenses exceeding the amount of the fluids, should be recorded on:
(a) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(b) Debit side the Income and Expenditure Account
(c) Credit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(d) Assets side of the Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (b) Debit side the Income and Expenditure Account


MCQ Of Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 1 Question 5.
All receipts from sale of consumable items are treated as:
(a) Capital Receipts
(b) Revenue Receipts
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Revenue Receipts


Npo Class 12 MCQ Question 6.
Capital fUnd is calculated:
(a) Income-Expenditure
(b) Assets Liabilities
(c) Capital + Liabilities
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Assets Liabilities


Question 7.
Subscription redeved in advance during the current year is:
(a) An income
(b) An Asset
(c) A liability
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) A liability


Question 8.
Balance of Income and Expenditure Account shows:
(a) Cash in hand
(b) Capital Fund
(c) Net Profit
(d) Excess of Income over Expenditure or Vice Versa

Answer

Answer: (d) Excess of Income over Expenditure or Vice Versa


Balance of Income and Expenditure Account shows:

Question 9.
Property received as a result of the will of the deceased person is called:
(a) Legacy
(b) Honorarium
(c) Donation
(d) Subscription

Answer

Answer: (a) Legacy


Question 10.
Receipts and Payments Account usually indicates:
(a) Surplus
(b) Capital Fund
(c) Debit Balance
(d) Credit Balance

Answer

Answer: (c) Debit Balance


Question 11.
Income and Expenditure Account generally indicates:
(a) Surplus/Deficit
(b) Cash Balance
(c) Capital Fund
(d) Net Profit/Loss

Answer

Answer: (a) Surplus/Deficit


Question 12.
Donation received for a special purpose:
(a) Should be credited to Income and Expenditure A/c
(b) Should be credited to a separate account and shown in the Balance Sheet
(c) Should be shown on the Assets side of the Balance Sheet
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Should be credited to a separate account and shown in the Balance Sheet


Question 13.
In not-for-profit organisation, excess of expenditure over income is called :
(a) Loss
(b) Profit
(c) Deficit
(d) Surplus

Answer

Answer: (c) Deficit


Question 14.
Which of the following is a non-profitable organisation ?
(a) Jharkhand Academic Council
(b) Tata Steel
(c) Air India
(d) Reliance Co. Ltd.

Answer

Answer: (a) Jharkhand Academic Council


Question 15.
Income and Expenditure Account is preparedly :
(a) Trending Organisation
(b) Non-trading Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-trading Organisation


Question 16.
Sale of old newspapers is:
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Asset
(d) Profit

Answer

Answer: (b) Revenue Receipt


Question 17.
Income and expenses related to the prize fund is shown in:
(a) Income and Expenditure Account
(b) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
(c) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(d) Cash Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Income and Expenditure Account


Question 18.
Which of the following is not a not-for-profit organisation:
(a) School
(b) Hospital
(c) Club
(d) Partnership Firm

Answer

Answer: (d) Partnership Firm


Question 19.
Subscription received during the year 50,000 Rs. Subscriptions outstanding at the end of the year 8,000 Rs. Subscription outstanding at the beginning of the year 6,000 Rs. Net Income from subscription will be :
(a) 48,000 Rs.
(b) 64,000 Rs.
(c) 52,000 Rs.
(d) 36,000 Rs.

Answer

Answer: (c) 52,000 Rs.


Question 20.
Subscription received during the year ₹ 1,80,000 Subscriptions outstanding at the end of the year ₹ 20,000 Subscriptions received in advance at the end of the year ₹ 10,000. The amount of subscription to be credited to Income and Expenditure Account will be:
(a) ₹ 2,10,000
(b) ₹ 1,90,000
(c) ₹ 1,70,000
(d) ₹ 2,00,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 1,90,000


Question 21.
In case specific fund is maintained, the expenses exceeding the amount of the funds, should be recorded on:
(a) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet
(b) Debit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(c) Credit side of the Income and Expenditure Account
(d) Assets side of the Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (b) Debit side of the Income and Expenditure Account


Question 22.
Income and Expenditure Account is:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Nominal Account


Question 23.
Life Membership Fees received by a club is shown in :
(a) Income and Expenditure A/c
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) Receipts and Payments A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance Sheet


Question 24.
Receipts and Payments Account is a :
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Real Account


Question 25.
Income and Expenditure Account is prepared :
(a) By Business Organisation
(b) By Industrial Organisation
(c) By Not-for-Profit Organisation
(d) By All Organisations

Answer

Answer: (c) By Not-for-Profit Organisation


Question 26.
Payment of honorarium to secretary is treated as :
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) An Income
(D/) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Revenue expenditure


Question 27.
Outstanding subscription is a:
(a) Income
(b) Asset
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (a) and (b) both


Question 28.
Legacies should be treated as :
(a) A Liability
(b) A Revenue Receipt
(c) An Income
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A Liability


Question 29.
The excess of assets over liabilities in non-trading concerns is termed as:
(a) Capital Fund
(b) Capital
(c) Profit
(d) Net Profit

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Fund


Question 30.
For a non-trading concern, honorarium paid is:
(a) An Income
(b) An Asset
(c) An Expense
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) An Expense


For a non-trading concern, honorarium paid is:

Question 31.
Entrance fees, unless otherwise stated, is treated as:
(a) A Capital Receipt
(b) A Revenue Income
(c) A Liability
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) A Revenue Income


Question 32.
Specific donation is:
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Asset
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Receipt


Question 33.
Income and Expenditure Account records transactions of:
(a) Capital nature only
(b) Revenue nature only
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Revenue nature only


Question 34.
Life membership fee received by a club is:
(a) Revenue Receipt
(b) Capital Receipt
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Receipt


Question 35.
All receipts of capital nature are shown in :
(a) Income and Expenditure A/c
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) P. & L. A/c
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Balance Sheet


Question 36.
All items of revenue in nature are shown in:
(a) Income and Expenditure A/c
(b) Balance Sheet
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Income and Expenditure A/c


Question 37.
Which of the following is not a not-for-profit organisation ?
(a) College
(b) Sports Club
(c) Maruti Udyog
(d) Hospital

Answer

Answer: (c) Maruti Udyog


Question 38.
Subscriptions received in advance by a club are shown on… .of the Balance Sheet
(a) Assets Side
(b) Liabilities Side
(c) Debit Side
(d) Credit Side

Answer

Answer: (b) Liabilities Side


Question 39.
Which of the following is not an income ?
(a) Subscription
(b) Donation
(c) Sale of Ticket
(d) Endowment Fund

Answer

Answer: (d) Endowment Fund


Question 40.
Most transaction in non-trading concerns are:
(a) Cash
(b) Credit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cash


Question 41.
The main object of non-profit organisation is:
(a) To earn Profit
(b) To Serve the Society
(c) To Prepare Profit & Loss A/c
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) To Serve the Society


Question 42.
Subscription received by an organisation is:
(a) Capital Receipt
(b) Revenue Receipt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Revenue Receipt


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Accounting for Not for Profit Organisation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Admission Of A Partner MCQ Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 1.
Goodwill is nothing more than probability that the old customer will resort to the old place. This definition of goodwill was given by:
(a) Spicer and Pegler
(b) ICAI
(c) Lord Elton
(d) AICPA

Answer

Answer: (c) Lord Elton


Admission Of Partner MCQ Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 2.
Goodwill is to be calculated at one and half year’ purchase of average profit of last 5 years. The firm earned profits during 3 years as ₹ 20,000 ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 9,000 and suffered losses of ₹ 2,000 and ₹5,000 in last 2 years. The amount of goodwill will be :
(a) ₹ 12,000
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 12,000


MCQ Of Goodwill Class 12 Class 12 Question 3.
When there is no Goodwill Account in the books and goodwill is raised,…………….account will be debited :
(a) Partner’s Capital
(b) Goodwill
(c) Cash
(d) Reserve

Answer

Answer: (b) Goodwill


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3  Question 4.
The amount of goodwill is paid by new partner :
(a) for the payment of capital
(b) for sharing the profit
(c) for purchase of assets
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) for sharing the profit


MCQ On Admission Of A Partner Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 5.
At the time of admission of a new partners general reserve appearning in the old Balance Sheet is transferred to:
(a) All Partner’s Capital Accounts
(b) New Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Old Partners’. Capital Accounts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Partners’. Capital Accounts


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Accountancy Chapter Goodwill Question 6.
Profit or Loss on Revaluation is borne by:
(a) Old Partners
(b) New Partners
(c) All Partners
(d) Only Two Partners

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Partners


Admission Of Partner MCQ Pdf Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 7.
Share of goodwill brought by new partner in case is shared by old partners in :
(a) Sacrificing Ratio
(b) Old Ratio
(c) New Ratio
(d) Equal Ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) Sacrificing Ratio


Reconstitution Of Partnership Firm Class 12 MCQ Class 12 Question 8.
A, Band Care three partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:2. D is admitted for 1/10 share, the new ratio will be :
(a) 10 : 7 : 7 :4
(b) 5 : 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1


Question 9.
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C as a new partner for 1/3 rd share in the profits of the firm. The new profit sharing ratio of A, B and C would be :
(a) 3 : 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 2 : 2
(c) 3 : 2 : 3
(d) 6 : 4 : 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 6 : 4 : 5


Question 10.
X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1:1. They admit Z for 1/5 th share who contributed ₹25,000 for his share of goodwill. The total value of goodwill of the firm will be :
(a) ₹ 2,50,000
(b) ₹ 50,000
(c) ₹ 1,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,25,000

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹ 1,00,000


Question 11.
A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is admitted as a new partner, then:
(a) Old firm is dissolved
(b) Old firm and old partnership is dissolved
(c) Old Partnership is reconsitituted
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Partnership is reconsitituted


A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is admitted as a new partner, then:

Question 12.
In which ratio, the cash brought in for goodwill by the new partner is shared by the existing partners :
(a) Profit sharing ratio
(b) Capital ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Sacrificing ratio


Question 13.
Sacrificing ratio is ascertained at the time of:
(a) Death of a partner
(b) Retirement of a partner
(c) Admission of a partner
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Admission of a partner


Question 14.
If at the time of admission of new partner, Profit and Loss Account balance appears in the books, it will the transferred to:
(a) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(b) All Partners’ Capital A/cs
(c) Old Partners’ Capital A/cs
(d) Revaluation A/c

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Partners’ Capital A/cs


Question 15.
State the ‘true’ statement:
(a) Profit & Loss Adjustment A/c is prepared for revaluated of assets and liabilities on the admission of a partner
(b) The new partner is liable for the past losses of the firm
(c) In case the new partner is unable to bring in cash for goodwill, Goodwill Account may be raised in the firm’s books as per AS-26
(d) When a partner is admitted, there is dissolution of firm

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit & Loss Adjustment A/c is prepared for revaluated of assets and liabilities on the admission of a partner


Question 16.
Excess of the credit side over the debit side of Revaluation account is:
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Gain
(d) Expense

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit


Question 17.
Balance sheet prepared after new partnership agreement, assets and liabilities are recorded at:
(a) Original Value
(b) Revalued Figure
(c) At Realisable Value
(d) Either of (a) or (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Revalued Figure


Question 18.
Assets and Liabilities are shown at their revalued values in :
(a) New Balance Sheet
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) All Partner’s Capital A/c’s
(d) Realisation A/c

Answer

Answer: (a) New Balance Sheet


Question 19.
Which of the following assets is compulsorily revalued at the time of admission of a new partner :
(a) stock
(b) Fixed Assets
(c) Investment
(d) Goodwill

Answer

Answer: (d) Goodwill


Question 20.
A and B are partners. C is admitted with 1/5 share. C brings 7 1,20,000 as his share towards capital. The total net worth of the firm is :
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,00,000
(c) ₹ 1,20,000
(d) ₹ 6,00,000

Answer

Answer: (d) ₹ 6,00,000


Question 21.
A and B share profits and losses in the ratio of 3:4. C was admitted for 1/5 th share. New profit sharing ratio will be:
(a) 3 : 4 : 1
(b) 12 : 16 : 7
(c) 16 : 12 : 7
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 12 : 16 : 7


Question 22.
The opening balance of Partner’s Capital Account is credited with:
(a) Interest on Capital
(b) Interest on Drawings
(c) Drawings
(d) Share in loss

Answer

Answer: (a) Interest on Capital


Question 23.
Share of goodwill brought in cash by the new partner is called:
(a) Assets
(b) Profit
(c) Premium
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Premium


Question 24.
If the incoming partner brings the amount of goodwill in cash and also a balance exists in Goodwill A/c, then the Goodwill A/c is written off among the old partners:
(a) In new profit-sharing ratio
(b) In old profit-sharing ratio
(c) In sacrificing ratio
(d) In gaining ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) In old profit-sharing ratio


Question 25.
A and B share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 1.C is admitted into partnership for 1/4 share. The sacrificing ratio of A and B is :
(a) Equal
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 : 1


Question 26.
A and B are partners sharing profites in the ratio of 3 : 1. They admit C for 1/4 share in future profits. The new profit sharing ratio will be:
(a) A\(\frac {9}{16}\), B\(\frac {3}{16}\), C\(\frac {4}{16}\)
(b) A\(\frac {8}{16}\), B\(\frac {4}{16}\), C\(\frac {4}{16}\)
(c) A\(\frac {10}{10}\), B\(\frac {2}{16}\), C\(\frac {4}{16}\)
(d) A\(\frac {8}{16}\), B\(\frac {9}{16}\), C\(\frac {10}{16}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) A\(\frac {9}{16}\), B\(\frac {3}{16}\), C\(\frac {4}{16}\)


Question 27.
Formula of Sacrificing ratio is:
(a) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(c) Gain Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(d) New Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio .

Answer

Answer: (b) Old Ratio – New Ratio


Question 28.
The accumulated profits and reserves are transferred to:
(a) Realisation A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/cs
(c) Bank A/c
(d) Savings A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Partner’s Capital A/cs


Question 29.
A, B and C are equal partners. D is admitted to the firm for non-ourth share. D brings ₹ 20,000 as capital and ₹ 5,000 being half of the premium for goodwill. The value of goodwill of the firm is :
(a) ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 30,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 40,000


Question 30.
On the admission of a new partner, increase in the value of assets is debited to which account ?
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) Assets Account
(c) Old Partners’ Capital Accounts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Assets Account


Question 31.
Z is admitted in a firm for a 1/4 share in the profit for which he brings 7 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in :
(a) Old profit-sharing ratio
(b) New profit-sharing ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) Capital ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Sacrificing ratio


Question 32.
On the admission of a new partner, the decrease in the value of assets is debited to:
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) Assets Account
(c) Old Partners’ Capital Accounts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Revaluation Account


Question 33.
When the new partner pays for goodwill in cash, the amount should be debited in the firm’s book to:
(a) Goodwill Account
(b) Cash Account
(c) Capital Account of new partner
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash Account


Question 34.
The balance of Revaluation Account or Profit & Loss Adjustment Account is transferred to Old Partners’ Capital Accounts in their :
(a) Old profit-sharing ratio
(b) New profit-sharing ratio
(c) Equal ratio
(d) Capital ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) Old profit-sharing ratio


Question 35.
X and Y share profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 Z was admitted as a partner who gets 1/5 share. Z acquires 3/20 from X and 1/20 from Y. The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(a) 9 : 7 : 4
(b) 8 : 8 : 4
(c) 6 : 10 : 4
(d) 10 : 6 :4

Answer

Answer: (a) 9 : 7 : 4


Question 36.
The opening balance of Partner’s Capital Account is credited with:
(a) Interest on Capital
(b) Interest on Drawings
(c) Drawings
(d) Share in loss

Answer

Answer: (a) Interest on Capital


Question 37.
At the time of admission of a new partner, Undistributed Profits appearing in the Balance Sheet of the old firm is transferred to the Capital Account of:
(a) Old partners is old profit-sharing ratio
(b) Old partners in new profit-sharing ratio
(c) All the partners in the new profit-sharing ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old partners is old profit-sharing ratio


Question 38.
Z is admitted in a firm for al/4 share in the profit for which he brings 7 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in :
(a) Old profit-sharing ratio
(b) New profit-sharing ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) Capital ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Sacrificing ratio


Question 39.
General Reserval at the time of admission of a new partner is transferred to :
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) Old Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
(d) Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: (b) Old Partner’s Capital Account


Question 40.
Change in profit-sharing ratio of existing partners results in:
(a) Revaluation of Firm
(b) Reconstitutions of Firm
(c) Dissolution of Firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Reconstitutions of Firm


Question 41.
X, Y and Z are partners in a firm, they divided profit and loss in the ratio of 4:3:1. They decided to share profit In the ratio 5:4:3. X’s and Y’s sacrifices are :
(a) \(\frac{2}{24}: \frac{1}{24}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{24}: \frac{3}{24}\)
(c) \(\frac{2}{24}: \frac{3}{24}\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{2}{24}: \frac{1}{24}\)


Question 42.
On reconstitution of a partnership firm, recording of an unrecorded liability wil result in:
(a) Gain to the existing partners
(b) Loss to the existing partners
(c) Neither gain nor loss to the existing partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Loss to the existing partners


Question 43.
Increase In the value of assets on reconstitution of the partnership firm results into :
(a) Gain to the existing partners
(b) Loss to the existing partners
(c) Neither gain nor loss to the existing partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gain to the existing partners


Question 44.
The balance of Revaluation Account is transferred to old Partner’s Capital Accounts in their:
(a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio
(b) New Profit-sharing Ratio
(c) Equal Ratio
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Old Profit-sharing Ratio


Question 45.
X and Y share profits in the ratio 2 :3. In future they have decided to share profits in equal ratio. Which partner will sacrifice in which ratio ?
(a) X sacrifice 1/10
(b) Y sacrifice 1/5
(c) Y sacrifice 1/10
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Y sacrifice 1/10


Question 46.
Change in the partnership agreement results in:
(a) Reconstitution of Firm
(b) Dissolution of Firm
(c) Amalgamation of Firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Reconstitution of Firm


Question 47.
Change in the partnership agreement:
(a) Changes the relationship among the partners
(b) Results in end of partnership business
(c) Dissolves the partnership firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Changes the relationship among the partners


Question 48.
Excess of credit side over the debit side in Revalution Account is:
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) Receipt
(d) Expense

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit


Question 49.
A, B and C are partners in a firm, if D is admitted as a new partner:
(a) Old firm is dissolved
(b) Old firm and old partnership are dissolved
(c) Old partnership is reconstituted
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old partnership is reconstituted


Question 50.
Recording of an unrecorded asset on the reconstltutlam of a partnership firm will be:
(a) A gain to the existing partners
(b) A loss to the existing partners
(c) Neither a gain nor a loss to the existing partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A gain to the existing partners


Question 51.
Revaluation Account or Profit & Loss Adjustment Account is a:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Nominal Account


Question 52.
A, B, C and D are partners sharing their profits and losses equally. They change their profit sharing ratio to 2:2:1:1. How much will C sacrifice ?
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/12
(c) 1/24
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 53.
Sacrificing Ratio:
(a) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(c) Gaining Ratio – Old Ratio
(d) Old Ratio – Gaining Ratio

Answer

Answer: (b) Old Ratio – New Ratio


Question 54.
Gaining Ratio:
(a) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(b) Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(c) New Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(d) Old Ratio – New Ratio

Answer

Answer: (a) New Ratio – Old Ratio


Question 55.
X and Y share profit and loss in 3:2. From 1st January, 2017 they agreed to share profit equally. Their sacrifice or gain will be :
(a) Sacrifice by X: 1/10
(b) Sacrifices by Y : 1/10
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Non of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 56.
At the time of admission of a new partner, General Reserve a appearing in the old Balances Sheet is transferred to:
(a) All Partner’s Capital Accounts .
(b) New Partners’ Capital Accounts
(c) Old Partner’s Capital Accounts
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Old Partner’s Capital Accounts


Question 57.
Change in profit-sharing ratio of existing partners results in:
(a) Revaluation of Firm
(b) Reconstitution of Firm
(c) Dissolution of Firm
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Reconstitution of Firm


Question 58.
Generally the interest on capital is considered as :
(a) An appropriation of profit
(b) An Asset
(c) An Expense
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) An appropriation of profit


Question 59.
Increase in the value of assets on reconstitution of the partnership firm results into:
(a) Gain to the existing partners
(b) Loss to the existing partners
(c) Neither a gain nor a loss to the existing partners
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gain to the existing partners


Question 60.
Following are the factors affecting goodwill except:
(a) Nature of business
(b) Efficiency of Management
(c) Technical Knowledge
(d) Location of the Customers

Answer

Answer: (c) Technical Knowledge


Question 61.
The profit of the last three years are ₹ 42,000, ₹ 39,000 and ₹ 45,000. Value of goodwill at two years purchases of the average profits will be :
(a) ₹ 42,000
(b) ₹ 84,000
(c) ₹ 1,26,000
(d) ₹ 36,000

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 84,000


Question 62.
Under average profit basis goodwill is calculated by :
(a) No. of years’ purchased x Average profit
(b) No. of years’ purchased x Super profit
(c) Super Profit -r Expected Rate of Return
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) No. of years’ purchased x Average profit


Question 63.
Goodwill is:
(a) Tangible Asset
(b) Intangible Asset
(c) Current Asset
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Intangible Asset


Question 64.
An asset which is not ficitious but intangible in nature, having realisable value is :
(a) Machinery
(b) Building
(c) Furniture
(d) Goodwill

Answer

Answer: (d) Goodwill


Question 65.
Which of the following is not a method of valuation of Goodwill:
(a) Revaluation Method
(b) Average Profit Method
(c) Super Profit Method
(d) Capitalisation Method

Answer

Answer: (a) Revaluation Method


Question 66.
The excess of average profits over the normal profits are called :
(a) Super Profits
(b) Fixed Profits
(c) Abnormal Profits
(d) Normal Profits

Answer

Answer: (a) Super Profits


The excess of average profits over the normal profits are called :

Question 67.
Goodwill is a…………….asset
(a) Useless
(b) Tangible
(c) Worthless
(d) Valuable

Answer

Answer: (c) Worthless


Question 68.
Under super profit basis goodwill is calculated by :
(a) No. of years’ purchased x Average Profit
(b) No. of years’ purchased x Super profit
(c) Super profit -r Expected rate of return
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) No. of years’ purchased x Super profit


Question 69.
Profits of the last three years were ₹ 6,000, ₹ 13,000 and ₹ 8,000 respectively. Goodwill at two years purchase of the average net profit will be :
(a) ₹ 81,000
(b) ₹ 27,0000
(c) ₹ 9,000
(d) ₹ 18,000

Answer

Answer: (d) ₹ 18,000


Question 70.
What do you mean by Super Profit ?
(a) Total Profit/No. of Years
(b) Average Profit – Normal Profit
(c) Weighted Profit/No. of Years’ Purchase
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Average Profit – Normal Profit


Question 71.
Capital employed in a business is ₹ 1,50,000. Profits are ₹ 50,000 and the normal rate of profit is 20%. The amount of goodwill as per capitalisation method will be:
(a) ₹ 2,00,000
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹ 3,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000

Answer

Answer: (d) ₹ 1,00,000


Question 72.
Weighted average method of calculating goodwill is used when:
(a) Profits are equal
(b) Profit has increasing trend
(c) Profit has decreasing trend
(d) Either (b) or (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Either (b) or (c)


Question 73.
The monetary value of reputation of the business is called:
(a) Goodwill
(b) Super Profit
(c) Surplus
(d) Abnormal Profit

Answer

Answer: (a) Goodwill


Question 74.
A firm has an average profit of ₹ 60,000 Rate of return on capital employed is 12.5% p.a. Total capital employed in the firm was ₹ 4,00,000. Goodwill on the basis of two years purchase of super profit is :
(a) ₹ 20,000
(b) ₹ 15,000
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) ₹ 20,000


Question 75.
Under capitalisation method, goodwill is calculated by :
(a) Average Profit x No. of Years’ Purchase
(b) Super Profit x No. of Years’ Purchase
(c) Total of the discounted value of expected future benefits
(d) Super Profit -r Expected Rate of Return

Answer

Answer: (d) Super Profit -r Expected Rate of Return


Question 76.
“Goodwill is nothing more than probability that the old customer will resort to the old place.” This definition of goodwill was given by :
(a) Spicer and Pegler
(b) ICAI
(c) Lord Eldon
(d) AICPA

Answer

Answer: (c) Lord Eldon


Question 77.
What will be the value of goodwill at twice the average of last three years profit if the profits of the last three years were ₹ 4,000, ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 6,000 ?
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 8,000
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) ₹ 10,000


Question 78.
The Valuation of Goodwill is not necessary in Sole Trading:
(a) On selling the Firm
(b) On making a partner
(c) On estimation of Assets
(d) On Closing the Firm

Answer

Answer: (d) On Closing the Firm


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Politics of Planned Development Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Politics of Planned Development Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Politics Of Planned Development MCQ Question 1.
Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
(a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.
(b) It supported state ownership of industry.
(c) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(d) It supported strongly the idea of plàhning.

Answer

Answer: (a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.


Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?

Planning And Development Class 12 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of India’s development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Cooperative Farming
(d) Self-sufficiency

Answer

Answer: (b) Liberalisation


Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Question 3.
The Idea of Planning in India was drawn from:
(a) The Bombay Plan
(b) Experiences of the Soviet bloc countries
(c) Gandhian Vision of Society
(d) Demand by Peasant Organisation
(I) b and d only
(II) d and e only
(III) a and b only
(IV) all the above

Answer

Answer: (III) (a) and (b) only.


Politics Of Planned Development MCQs Question 4.
Match the following:

(a) Charan Singh (i) Industrialisation
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis (ii) Zoning
(c) Bihar Famine (iii) Farmers
(d) Verghese Kurien (iv) Milk Cooperatives
Answer

Answer:

(a) Charan Singh (iii) Farmers
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis (i) Industrialisation
(c) Bihar Famine (ii) Zoning
(d) Verghese Kurien (iv) Milk Cooperatives

Politics Of Planned Development Class 12 MCQ Question 5.
Who said, “Planning is a way of organizing and utilizing resources to maximum advantage in terms of defined social ends”?
(a) K.T. Shah
(b) Planning commission of India
(c) Dr. Rajinder Prashad
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Planning commission of India


MCQ Of Politics Of Planned Development Question 6.
In India, planning was conceived as the main instrument of:
(a) Political development
(b) Cultural development
(c) Social development
(d) Socio-economic development

Answer

Answer: (d) Socio-economic development


MCQ Of Planning And Development Class 12 Question 7.
How many plans have been completed so far in India?
(a) Twelve
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (a) Twelve


Planning And Development MCQ Question 8.
The Planning Commission in India was set up in:
(a) 1953
(b) 1957
(c) 1960
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (d) 1950


Planning Development Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
The Chairman of the National Development Council is:
(a) President of India
(b) Finance Minister of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Chief Minister of U.P.

Answer

Answer: (c) Prime Minister of India


The Chairman of the National Development Council is:

Politics Of Planned Development Class 12 MCQs Question 10.
What is meant by planned development?

Answer

Answer: Planned development means to develop a design or plan for development.


Planning And Development Class 12 MCQs Question 11.
Which Indian thinker emphasized planning in India and when?

Answer

Answer: M. Visvesarayya in 1934 emphasized the necessity of planning in India.


Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics Of Planned Development MCQ Question 12.
From where the idea of planning in India was drawn.

Answer

Answer: In India, the idea of planning was drawn from the experiences of the Soviet bloc countries.


MCQ Of Planned Development Class 12 Question 13.
What is Planning?

Answer

Answer: Planning is a conscious effort of a community to achieve preconceived objectives and goals.


Class 12 Planning And Development MCQ Question 14.
When was the Planning Commission set up?

Answer

Answer: Planning Commission was set up in March 1950.


MCQ On Politics Of Planned Development Question 15.
In which year First Five Year Plan was started?

Answer

Answer: The First Five Year Plan was started in 1951.


Question 16.
When Second Five Year Plan was started?

Answer

Answer: Second Five Year Plan was started in 1956.


Question 17.
Mention the main objective of the Second Five Year Plan.

Answer

Answer: The main objective of the Second Five Year Plan was to enhance the growth of Industrial development.


Question 18.
When was NITI Aayog established?

Answer

Answer: NITI Aayog was established in January 2015.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science Politics of Planned Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

US Hegemony in World Politics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Us Hegemony In World Politics MCQs Chapter 3  Question 1.
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on:
(a) 21 April 2003
(b) 19 March 2004
(c) 23 March 2003
(d) 19 March 2003

Answer

Answer: (d) 19 March 2003


Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on:

Us Hegemony In World Politics MCQ Chapter 3 Question 2.
Which one of the following statements related to the Iraq invasion by the US is incorrect?
(a) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion
(b) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq
(c) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction
(d) The US lost over 3000 military personnel in this war

Answer

Answer: (b) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq


Us Hegemony Class 12 MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 3.
Which one of the following was a part of its global war on terrorism by the US.?
(a) ‘Operation desert storm’
(b) Computer war
(c) ‘Operation enduring freedom’
(d) Videogame war

Answer

Answer: (c) ‘Operation enduring freedom’


MCQ Of Us Hegemony In World Politics Chapter 3 Question 4.
Which among the following statements about hegemony is incorrect?
(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one state.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athena in ancient Greece.
(c) The country has a hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon. always a hegemon.

Answer

Answer: (d) Hegemonic position l.a fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.


Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
Which among the following statements is wrong about the Contemporary World Order?
Or
Which of the following statements are incorrect about the contemporary world order?
(a) There is an absence of a world government, which could regulate the state’s behaviour.
(b) The U.S. is the predominant player in world affairs.
(c) States are using force against one another.
(d) States which violate international law, are severely punished by the U.N.

Answer

Answer: (d) States which violate international law, are severely punished by the U.N.


MCQ Of Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 6.
Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi Freedom’?
(a) More than forty countries joined in the U.S.-led coalition of the willing to invade Iraq.
(b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from developing weapons of mass destruction.
(c) The action was taken within the prior approval of the U.N.
(d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces.

Answer

Answer: (c) The action was taken within the prior approval of the U.N.


Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi Freedom’?

MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Question 7.
The strategy of staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible is also known as ________

Answer

Answer: The strategy of staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible is also known as to hide.


Us Hegemony In World Politics Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 8.
Match the following:

1. Operation Infinite Reach (a) War against Al-Qaeda and Taliban
2. Operation Enduring Freedom (b) Coalition of the willing
3. Operation Desert Storm (c) Missile attack in Sudan
4. Operation Iraqi Freedom (d) First Gulf War
Answer

Answer:

1. Operation Infinite Reach (c) Missile attack in Sudan
2. Operation Enduring Freedom (a) War against Al-Qaeda and Taliban
3. Operation Desert Storm (d) First Gulf War
4. Operation Iraqi Freedom (b) Coalition of the willing

Chapter 3 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 9.
Who won the U.S. presidential election in 1992 and in 1996?

Answer

Answer: William Jefferson (Bill) Clinton of the Democratic Party


Political Science Class 12 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 10.
What do you understand by ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’?

Answer

Answer: On 19 March 2003, the U.S. launched its invasion of Iraq under the code name ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’. Saddam Hussain was defeated in the war.


Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Questions Question 11.
Write one constraint on American Power.

Answer

Answer: The first constraint is the institutional architecture of the American state itself.


Us Hegemony MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Question 12.
In which year Iraq invaded Kuwait?

Answer

Answer: August 1990


MCQ Questions For Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 In Hindi Question 13.
Which American President ordered ‘Operation Infinite Reach’?

Answer

Answer: President Bill Clinton


Ch 3 Political Science Class 12 MCQ Question 14.
Which American President launched ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’?

Answer

Answer: President George W.Bush


Us Hegemony Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 15.
Who was the President of the U.S.A. during ‘First Gulf War’?

Answer

Answer: George H.W. Bush


Question 16.
In which year U.S. Military research project began?

Answer

Answer: 1950


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 Political Science US Hegemony in World Politics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.